Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question The compound used in black and white photography is? a) AgBr b) MgSO4 c) CaCO3 d) NaCl Correct Solution (a) Silver bromide (AgBr) is a soft, pale-yellow, water-insoluble salt well known (along with other silver halides) for its unusual sensitivity to light. This property has allowed silver halides to become the basis of modern photographic materials. AgBr is widely used in photographic film. Incorrect Solution (a) Silver bromide (AgBr) is a soft, pale-yellow, water-insoluble salt well known (along with other silver halides) for its unusual sensitivity to light. This property has allowed silver halides to become the basis of modern photographic materials. AgBr is widely used in photographic film. Question 2 of 35 2. Question Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastics? a) Polycarbonate b) Low-density polyethylene c) Polyvinylchloride d) Polyethylene Terephthalate Correct Solution (a) Bisphenol A (BPA) is a chemical compound primarily used in the manufacturing of various plastics. It is a colourless solid which is soluble in most common organic solvents, but has very poor solubility in water. BPA’s largest single application is as a co-monomer in the production of polycarbonates, which accounts for 65-70% of all BPA production. Incorrect Solution (a) Bisphenol A (BPA) is a chemical compound primarily used in the manufacturing of various plastics. It is a colourless solid which is soluble in most common organic solvents, but has very poor solubility in water. BPA’s largest single application is as a co-monomer in the production of polycarbonates, which accounts for 65-70% of all BPA production. Question 3 of 35 3. Question Which one among the following is a chemical process? a) Distillation of sea water b) Crystallization of impure salt c) Production of iodine from seaweeds d) Sublimation of iodine Correct Solution (c) All the given processes are physical processes except production of iodine from seaweeds. Incorrect Solution (c) All the given processes are physical processes except production of iodine from seaweeds. Question 4 of 35 4. Question With respect to Ethylene Glycol, consider the following statements: Ethylene Glycol is used as an anti-freezing agent in automobiles. Ethylene Glycol is highly poisonous in nature. Ethylene Glycol is an important precursor to polyester fibers and resins How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Ethylene Glycol, also called ethane-1,2-diol, the simplest member of the glycol family of organic compounds. Ethylene glycol is a clear, sweet, slightly viscous liquid that boils at 198 °C (388.4 °F). Its most common use is as an automotive antifreeze. In addition to its use in antifreeze, ethylene glycol is used as an ingredient in hydraulic fluids, printing inks, and paint solvents. It is also used as a reagent in making polyesters, explosives, alkyd resins, and synthetic waxes. In the plastic industry, ethylene glycol is an important precursor to polyester fibers and resins. Polyethylene terephthalate, used to make plastic bottles for soft drinks, is prepared from ethylene glycol. Incorrect Solution (c) Ethylene Glycol, also called ethane-1,2-diol, the simplest member of the glycol family of organic compounds. Ethylene glycol is a clear, sweet, slightly viscous liquid that boils at 198 °C (388.4 °F). Its most common use is as an automotive antifreeze. In addition to its use in antifreeze, ethylene glycol is used as an ingredient in hydraulic fluids, printing inks, and paint solvents. It is also used as a reagent in making polyesters, explosives, alkyd resins, and synthetic waxes. In the plastic industry, ethylene glycol is an important precursor to polyester fibers and resins. Polyethylene terephthalate, used to make plastic bottles for soft drinks, is prepared from ethylene glycol. Question 5 of 35 5. Question Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Alloys’: Alloys are defined as mixtures of only two or more metals. They can be separated into their components by physical methods. Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect Alloys are mixtures of two or more metals or a metal and a non-metal. For example, brass is a mixture of approximately 30% zinc and 70% copper. They cannot be separated into their components by physical methods. But still, an alloy is considered as a mixture because it shows the properties of its constituents and can have variable composition. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect Alloys are mixtures of two or more metals or a metal and a non-metal. For example, brass is a mixture of approximately 30% zinc and 70% copper. They cannot be separated into their components by physical methods. But still, an alloy is considered as a mixture because it shows the properties of its constituents and can have variable composition. Question 6 of 35 6. Question Consider the following statements with reference to properties of a colloid: A colloid is a homogenous mixture. The size of particles of a colloid are big enough to be individually seen by naked eyes. Colloids do not settle down when left undisturbed. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct The particles of a colloid are uniformly spread throughout the solution. Due to the relatively smaller size of particles, as compared to that of a suspension, the mixture appears to be homogeneous. But actually, a colloidal solution is a heterogeneous mixture, for example, milk. Because of the small size of colloidal particles, we cannot see them with naked eyes. But these particles can easily scatter a beam of visible light. Thus, the size of particles of a colloid is too small to be individually seen by naked eyes.   They do not settle down when left undisturbed, that is, a colloid is quite stable. They cannot be separated from the mixture by the process of filtration. But, a special technique of separation known as centrifugation, can be used to separate the colloidal particles. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct The particles of a colloid are uniformly spread throughout the solution. Due to the relatively smaller size of particles, as compared to that of a suspension, the mixture appears to be homogeneous. But actually, a colloidal solution is a heterogeneous mixture, for example, milk. Because of the small size of colloidal particles, we cannot see them with naked eyes. But these particles can easily scatter a beam of visible light. Thus, the size of particles of a colloid is too small to be individually seen by naked eyes.   They do not settle down when left undisturbed, that is, a colloid is quite stable. They cannot be separated from the mixture by the process of filtration. But, a special technique of separation known as centrifugation, can be used to separate the colloidal particles. Question 7 of 35 7. Question What do you understand by the term ‘Chromatography’? a) The study of the absorption and emission of light. b) The process of separation of components of a mixture. c) The process in which one or more substances are converted to one or more different substances. d) The study of physical interaction that occurs between electrically charged particles. Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Incorrect Spectroscopy is the study of the absorption and emission of light and other radiation by matter. It involves the splitting of light (or more precisely electromagnetic radiation) into its constituent wavelengths (a spectrum), which is done in much the same way as a prism splits light into a rainbow of colours. In chemical analysis, chromatography is a laboratory technique for the separation of a mixture into its components. The mixture is dissolved in a fluid solvent called the mobile phase, which carries it through a system on which a material called the stationary phase is fixed. Chemical reaction is a process in which one or more substances, the reactants, are converted to one or more different substances, the products. Substances are either chemical elements or compounds. A chemical reaction rearranges the constituent atoms of the reactants to create different substances as products. Electromagnetism is a branch of physics involving the study of the electromagnetic force, a type of physical interaction that occurs between electrically charged particles. The electromagnetic force is carried by electromagnetic fields composed of electric fields and magnetic fields, and it is responsible for electromagnetic radiation such as light. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Incorrect Spectroscopy is the study of the absorption and emission of light and other radiation by matter. It involves the splitting of light (or more precisely electromagnetic radiation) into its constituent wavelengths (a spectrum), which is done in much the same way as a prism splits light into a rainbow of colours. In chemical analysis, chromatography is a laboratory technique for the separation of a mixture into its components. The mixture is dissolved in a fluid solvent called the mobile phase, which carries it through a system on which a material called the stationary phase is fixed. Chemical reaction is a process in which one or more substances, the reactants, are converted to one or more different substances, the products. Substances are either chemical elements or compounds. A chemical reaction rearranges the constituent atoms of the reactants to create different substances as products. Electromagnetism is a branch of physics involving the study of the electromagnetic force, a type of physical interaction that occurs between electrically charged particles. The electromagnetic force is carried by electromagnetic fields composed of electric fields and magnetic fields, and it is responsible for electromagnetic radiation such as light. Question 8 of 35 8. Question It was known by 1900 that the atom was indivisible particle but contained at least one sub-atomic particle i.e., the electron. This was identified by? a) J.J. Thomson b) E. Goldstein c) Ernest Rutherford d) John Dalton Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect J.J. Thomson (1856-1940), a British physicist, was born in Cheetham Hill, a suburb of Manchester, on 18 December 1856. He was awarded the Nobel prize in Physics in 1906 for his work on the discovery of electrons. He directed the Cavendish Laboratory at Cambridge for 35 years and 7 of his research assistants subsequently won Nobel prizes. Eugen Goldstein was a German physicist. He was an early investigator of discharge tubes, the discoverer of anode rays or canal rays, later identified as positive ions in the gas phase including the hydrogen ion. These are positively charged ions that are accelerated toward and through a perforated cathode in an evacuated tube. Ernest Rutherford was a New Zealand physicist who came to be known as the father of nuclear physics. Encyclopedia Britannica considers him to be the greatest experimentalist since Michael Faraday. He discovered the nucleus of the atom in 1911. John Dalton FRS was an English chemist, physicist and meteorologist. He is best known for introducing the atomic theory into chemistry, and for his research into colour blindness, sometimes referred to as Daltonism in his honour. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect J.J. Thomson (1856-1940), a British physicist, was born in Cheetham Hill, a suburb of Manchester, on 18 December 1856. He was awarded the Nobel prize in Physics in 1906 for his work on the discovery of electrons. He directed the Cavendish Laboratory at Cambridge for 35 years and 7 of his research assistants subsequently won Nobel prizes. Eugen Goldstein was a German physicist. He was an early investigator of discharge tubes, the discoverer of anode rays or canal rays, later identified as positive ions in the gas phase including the hydrogen ion. These are positively charged ions that are accelerated toward and through a perforated cathode in an evacuated tube. Ernest Rutherford was a New Zealand physicist who came to be known as the father of nuclear physics. Encyclopedia Britannica considers him to be the greatest experimentalist since Michael Faraday. He discovered the nucleus of the atom in 1911. John Dalton FRS was an English chemist, physicist and meteorologist. He is best known for introducing the atomic theory into chemistry, and for his research into colour blindness, sometimes referred to as Daltonism in his honour. Question 9 of 35 9. Question Steel is an alloy of? a) Iron and Chromium b) Carbon and Nickel c) Iron and Carbon d) Carbon and Aluminium Correct Solution (c) Steel is an alloy made up of iron with typically a few tenths of a percent of carbon to improve its strength and fracture resistance compared to other forms of iron. Incorrect Solution (c) Steel is an alloy made up of iron with typically a few tenths of a percent of carbon to improve its strength and fracture resistance compared to other forms of iron. Question 10 of 35 10. Question With reference to the Acids and its sources in our daily life, select the correct pair: Name of acid                  Material found in Acetic acid –                  Vinegar Formic acid –                  Curd Oxalic acid –                 Spinach Select the answer: a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 and 3 only Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Acetic acid, systematically named ethanoic acid, is an acidic, colourless liquid and organic compound with the chemical formula CH₃COOH. Vinegar is at least 4% acetic acid by volume, making acetic acid the main component of vinegar apart from water and other trace elements. Formic acid is the simplest carboxylic acid, containing a single carbon. Occurs naturally in various sources including the venom of bee and ant stings, and is a useful organic synthetic reagent. Principally used as a preservative and antibacterial agent in livestock feed. Oxalic acid is an organic compound found in many plants, including leafy greens, vegetables, fruits, cocoa, nuts, seeds and spinach. In plants, it’s usually bound to minerals, forming oxalate. The terms “oxalic acid” and “oxalate” are used interchangeably in nutrition science. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Acetic acid, systematically named ethanoic acid, is an acidic, colourless liquid and organic compound with the chemical formula CH₃COOH. Vinegar is at least 4% acetic acid by volume, making acetic acid the main component of vinegar apart from water and other trace elements. Formic acid is the simplest carboxylic acid, containing a single carbon. Occurs naturally in various sources including the venom of bee and ant stings, and is a useful organic synthetic reagent. Principally used as a preservative and antibacterial agent in livestock feed. Oxalic acid is an organic compound found in many plants, including leafy greens, vegetables, fruits, cocoa, nuts, seeds and spinach. In plants, it’s usually bound to minerals, forming oxalate. The terms “oxalic acid” and “oxalate” are used interchangeably in nutrition science. Question 11 of 35 11. Question Turmeric stains on the shirt turn red when washed with soap because? a) Soap water reacts with cloth of shirt to make it red. b) Soap solution is basic in nature which changes the yellow colour of turmeric into red. c) Material of shirt is exposed to liquid medium, which makes it change the colour. d) Turmeric has inherent property to turn red when it comes in contact with any solution. Correct Solution (b) Turmeric stains on the shirt turn red when washed with soap because the soap solution is basic in nature which changes the yellow colour of Turmeric into red colour. It is because turmeric contains tartaric acid, while the soap contains a sodium hydroxide base. Incorrect Solution (b) Turmeric stains on the shirt turn red when washed with soap because the soap solution is basic in nature which changes the yellow colour of Turmeric into red colour. It is because turmeric contains tartaric acid, while the soap contains a sodium hydroxide base. Question 12 of 35 12. Question With reference to classification of ‘Carbohydrates’, consider the following statements: Carbohydrates which yield a large number of monosaccharide units on hydrolysis are called oligosaccharides. Carbohydrates that yield two to ten monosaccharide units, on hydrolysis, are called polysaccharides. From the above given statements, identify the incorrect one/s: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect A carbohydrate that cannot be hydrolysed further to give simpler unit of polyhydroxy aldehyde or ketone is called a monosaccharide. Carbohydrates that yield two to ten monosaccharide units, on hydrolysis, are called oligosaccharides. Carbohydrates which yield a large number of monosaccharide units on hydrolysis are called polysaccharides. Some common examples are starch, cellulose, glycogen, gums, etc. Polysaccharides are not sweet in taste, hence they are also called non-sugars. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect A carbohydrate that cannot be hydrolysed further to give simpler unit of polyhydroxy aldehyde or ketone is called a monosaccharide. Carbohydrates that yield two to ten monosaccharide units, on hydrolysis, are called oligosaccharides. Carbohydrates which yield a large number of monosaccharide units on hydrolysis are called polysaccharides. Some common examples are starch, cellulose, glycogen, gums, etc. Polysaccharides are not sweet in taste, hence they are also called non-sugars. Question 13 of 35 13. Question Consider the following statements: Aqua regia is a mixture of nitric acid and hydrochloric acid. Aqua regia is a highly corrosive, fuming liquid. It is able to dissolve gold and platinum. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Aqua regia, (Latin for ‘royal water’) is a freshly prepared mixture of concentrated hydrochloric acid and concentrated nitric acid in the ratio of 3:1. Aqua regia is a highly corrosive, fuming liquid. It can dissolve gold, even though neither of these acids can do so alone. It is one of the few reagents that is able to dissolve gold and platinum. Aqua regia is a mixture of nitric acid and hydrochloric acid, optimally in a molar ratio of 1:3. Aqua regia is a fuming liquid.   Hydrogen gas is not evolved when a metal reacts with nitric acid. It is because HNO3 is a strong oxidising agent. It oxidises the H2 produced to water and itself gets reduced to any of the nitrogen oxides (N2O, NO, NO2). But magnesium (Mg) and manganese (Mn) react with very dilute HNO3 to evolve H2 gas. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Aqua regia, (Latin for ‘royal water’) is a freshly prepared mixture of concentrated hydrochloric acid and concentrated nitric acid in the ratio of 3:1. Aqua regia is a highly corrosive, fuming liquid. It can dissolve gold, even though neither of these acids can do so alone. It is one of the few reagents that is able to dissolve gold and platinum. Aqua regia is a mixture of nitric acid and hydrochloric acid, optimally in a molar ratio of 1:3. Aqua regia is a fuming liquid.   Hydrogen gas is not evolved when a metal reacts with nitric acid. It is because HNO3 is a strong oxidising agent. It oxidises the H2 produced to water and itself gets reduced to any of the nitrogen oxides (N2O, NO, NO2). But magnesium (Mg) and manganese (Mn) react with very dilute HNO3 to evolve H2 gas. Question 14 of 35 14. Question Consider the following statements: The chemical name of the compound ‘Baking Soda’ is sodium chloride. Carbon dioxide is produced when baking powder is heated or mixed in water. Which of the given statement/s is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The baking soda is commonly used in the kitchen for making tasty crispy pakoras, etc. Sometimes it is added for faster cooking. The chemical name of the compound is sodium hydrogencarbonate (NaHCO3). It is produced using sodium chloride as one of the raw materials. Sodium Chloride (NaCl) is an ingredient in common salt. For making baking powder, which is a mixture of baking soda (sodium hydrogencarbonate) and a mild edible acid such as tartaric acid. When baking powder is heated or mixed in water, the following reaction takes place – NaHCO3 + H+ = CO2 + H2O + Sodium salt of acid Carbon dioxide produced during the reaction can cause bread or cake to rise making them soft and spongy. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The baking soda is commonly used in the kitchen for making tasty crispy pakoras, etc. Sometimes it is added for faster cooking. The chemical name of the compound is sodium hydrogencarbonate (NaHCO3). It is produced using sodium chloride as one of the raw materials. Sodium Chloride (NaCl) is an ingredient in common salt. For making baking powder, which is a mixture of baking soda (sodium hydrogencarbonate) and a mild edible acid such as tartaric acid. When baking powder is heated or mixed in water, the following reaction takes place – NaHCO3 + H+ = CO2 + H2O + Sodium salt of acid Carbon dioxide produced during the reaction can cause bread or cake to rise making them soft and spongy. Question 15 of 35 15. Question The p in pH stands for ‘potenz’ in German, meaning power. In this regard, consider the following statements with reference to ‘pH’: The pH of human stomach is acidic. Tooth decay starts when the pH of the mouth is lower than 5.5. Human body works within the pH range of 7.0 to 7.8. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The pH of our stomach varies, but its natural state is between 1.5 and 3.5. This level rises when food enters the stomach; it can reach up to six, but it lowers again throughout digestion as stomach acid is secreted. It is very interesting to note that our stomach produces hydrochloric acid. It helps in the digestion of food without harming the stomach. Tooth decay starts when the pH of the mouth is lower than 5.5. Tooth enamel, made up of calcium hydroxyapatite (a crystalline form of calcium phosphate) is the hardest substance in the body. It does not dissolve in water, but is corroded when the pH in the mouth is below 5.5. Bacteria present in the mouth produce acids by degradation of sugar and food particles remaining in the mouth after eating. Human body works within the pH range of 7.0 to 7.8. Living organisms can survive only in a narrow range of pH change. When pH of rain water is less than 5.6, it is called acid rain. When acid rain flows into the rivers, it lowers the pH of the river water. The survival of aquatic life in such rivers becomes difficult. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The pH of our stomach varies, but its natural state is between 1.5 and 3.5. This level rises when food enters the stomach; it can reach up to six, but it lowers again throughout digestion as stomach acid is secreted. It is very interesting to note that our stomach produces hydrochloric acid. It helps in the digestion of food without harming the stomach. Tooth decay starts when the pH of the mouth is lower than 5.5. Tooth enamel, made up of calcium hydroxyapatite (a crystalline form of calcium phosphate) is the hardest substance in the body. It does not dissolve in water, but is corroded when the pH in the mouth is below 5.5. Bacteria present in the mouth produce acids by degradation of sugar and food particles remaining in the mouth after eating. Human body works within the pH range of 7.0 to 7.8. Living organisms can survive only in a narrow range of pH change. When pH of rain water is less than 5.6, it is called acid rain. When acid rain flows into the rivers, it lowers the pH of the river water. The survival of aquatic life in such rivers becomes difficult. Question 16 of 35 16. Question Consider the following statements: Diamond and Graphite are crystalline forms of carbon. Crystallization is a technique used to purify solid compounds. Crystallization is based on the principles of solubility How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The crystalline forms of carbon are diamond, graphite and fullerene. Crystallization is the process by which a solid form, where the atoms or molecules are highly organized into a structure known as a crystal.   Crystallization is a technique which chemists use to purify solid compounds. Crystallization is based on the principles of solubility: compounds (solutes) tend to be more soluble in hot liquids (solvents) than they are in cold liquids.   If a saturated hot solution is allowed to cool, the solute is no longer soluble in the solvent and forms crystals of pure compound.   Impurities are excluded from the growing crystals and the pure solid crystals can be separated from the dissolved impurities by filtration.   Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The crystalline forms of carbon are diamond, graphite and fullerene. Crystallization is the process by which a solid form, where the atoms or molecules are highly organized into a structure known as a crystal.   Crystallization is a technique which chemists use to purify solid compounds. Crystallization is based on the principles of solubility: compounds (solutes) tend to be more soluble in hot liquids (solvents) than they are in cold liquids.   If a saturated hot solution is allowed to cool, the solute is no longer soluble in the solvent and forms crystals of pure compound.   Impurities are excluded from the growing crystals and the pure solid crystals can be separated from the dissolved impurities by filtration.   Question 17 of 35 17. Question Which one of the following is not a semiconductor? a) Germanium b) Silicon c) Quartz d) Gallium Arsenide Correct Solution (c) A semiconductor material has an electrical conductivity value falling between that of a conductor, such as metallic copper, and an insulator, such as glass. Its resistivity falls as its temperature rises; metals behave in the opposite way. Some examples of semiconductors are silicon, germanium and gallium arsenide. After silicon, gallium arsenide is the second-most common semiconductor and is used in laser diodes, solar cells, microwave-frequency integrated circuits, and others. Silicon is a critical element for fabricating most electronic circuits. Incorrect Solution (c) A semiconductor material has an electrical conductivity value falling between that of a conductor, such as metallic copper, and an insulator, such as glass. Its resistivity falls as its temperature rises; metals behave in the opposite way. Some examples of semiconductors are silicon, germanium and gallium arsenide. After silicon, gallium arsenide is the second-most common semiconductor and is used in laser diodes, solar cells, microwave-frequency integrated circuits, and others. Silicon is a critical element for fabricating most electronic circuits. Question 18 of 35 18. Question Which one of the following polymers is widely used for making bullet proof material? a) Polycarbonate b) Polyvinyl Chloride c) Polyethylene d) Polyamides Correct Solution (a) Polycarbonates (PC) are a group of thermoplastic polymers containing carbonate groups in their chemical structures. Polycarbonates used in engineering are strong, tough materials, and some grades are optically transparent. Much of the bullet-proof and shatter-proof glass that you see and experience in real life is actually made of bullet-resistant polycarbonate sheets. Incorrect Solution (a) Polycarbonates (PC) are a group of thermoplastic polymers containing carbonate groups in their chemical structures. Polycarbonates used in engineering are strong, tough materials, and some grades are optically transparent. Much of the bullet-proof and shatter-proof glass that you see and experience in real life is actually made of bullet-resistant polycarbonate sheets. Question 19 of 35 19. Question Magnetite is a mineral whose primary component is an: a) Iron Oxide b) Copper Oxide c) Aluminium Oxide d) Magnesium Oxide Correct Solution (a) Magnetite is a mineral whose primary component is an iron oxide that contains equal amounts of iron (II) and iron (III). Its empirical formula is Fe3O4, and it is often expressed as iron (II, III) oxide. Magnetite is found in igneous, metamorphic, and sedimentary rocks. As its name implies, it is magnetic; it and other inherently magnetic iron-containing minerals are described as being ferrimagnetic. Incorrect Solution (a) Magnetite is a mineral whose primary component is an iron oxide that contains equal amounts of iron (II) and iron (III). Its empirical formula is Fe3O4, and it is often expressed as iron (II, III) oxide. Magnetite is found in igneous, metamorphic, and sedimentary rocks. As its name implies, it is magnetic; it and other inherently magnetic iron-containing minerals are described as being ferrimagnetic. Question 20 of 35 20. Question Who of the following was the founder of the ‘Madras school’ of conformational analysis of biopolymers? a) Ramakrishnan Nagaraj b) G.N. Ramachandran c) Salim Ali d) CV Raman Correct Solution (b) G.N. Ramachandran, an outstanding figure in the field of protein structure, was the founder of the ‘Madras school’ of conformational analysis of biopolymers. His discovery of the triple helical structure of collagen in 1955 and his analysis of the allowed conformations of proteins through the use of the ‘Ramachandran plot’ ranks among the most outstanding contributions in structural biology. Ramakrishnan Nagaraj (born 1953) is an Indian biochemist, molecular biologist and the leader of a team of scientists working in the field of peptide biochemistry at Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB). He is known for his studies on hemolytic and antibacterial properties in synthetic analogs of bacterial toxins. Sálim Moizuddin Abdul Ali (12 November 1896 – 20 June 1987) was an Indian ornithologist and naturalist. Sometimes referred to as the “Birdman of India”, Salim Ali was the first Indian to conduct systematic bird surveys across India and wrote several bird books that popularized ornithology in India. He became a key figure behind the Bombay Natural History Society. Chandrasekhara Venkata Raman won the Nobel Prize for Physics in 1930 for his pioneering work on scattering of light. Born in Tiruchirapalli on November 7, 1888, he was the first Asian and first non-White to receive any Nobel Prize in the sciences. Incorrect Solution (b) G.N. Ramachandran, an outstanding figure in the field of protein structure, was the founder of the ‘Madras school’ of conformational analysis of biopolymers. His discovery of the triple helical structure of collagen in 1955 and his analysis of the allowed conformations of proteins through the use of the ‘Ramachandran plot’ ranks among the most outstanding contributions in structural biology. Ramakrishnan Nagaraj (born 1953) is an Indian biochemist, molecular biologist and the leader of a team of scientists working in the field of peptide biochemistry at Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB). He is known for his studies on hemolytic and antibacterial properties in synthetic analogs of bacterial toxins. Sálim Moizuddin Abdul Ali (12 November 1896 – 20 June 1987) was an Indian ornithologist and naturalist. Sometimes referred to as the “Birdman of India”, Salim Ali was the first Indian to conduct systematic bird surveys across India and wrote several bird books that popularized ornithology in India. He became a key figure behind the Bombay Natural History Society. Chandrasekhara Venkata Raman won the Nobel Prize for Physics in 1930 for his pioneering work on scattering of light. Born in Tiruchirapalli on November 7, 1888, he was the first Asian and first non-White to receive any Nobel Prize in the sciences. Question 21 of 35 21. Question “Sagar Aankalan Guidelines” recently in the news is? a) These guidelines aim to promote deep-sea exploration and resource extraction. b) These guidelines focus on developing sustainable fishing practices and conserving marine resources. c) These guidelines aim to map and benchmark the logistics performance of Indian ports. d) These guidelines aim for information sharing and cooperation between maritime agencies. Correct Solution (c) The Sagar Aankalan Guidelines were launched by the Indian government to establish a comprehensive framework for assessing and improving the performance of Indian ports. Hence option c is correct. It focuses on the National Benchmarking of Indian Ports’ Performance to enhance the efficiency and effectiveness of seaports across India. It would apply to all Indian seaports. It will transform the performance assessment of Indian ports. It will help in fulfilling “Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047”. It will help in port development, modernization, green hydrogen and ammonia, port-led development, the cruise sector, business and commerce, shipbuilding, and knowledge sharing. Incorrect Solution (c) The Sagar Aankalan Guidelines were launched by the Indian government to establish a comprehensive framework for assessing and improving the performance of Indian ports. Hence option c is correct. It focuses on the National Benchmarking of Indian Ports’ Performance to enhance the efficiency and effectiveness of seaports across India. It would apply to all Indian seaports. It will transform the performance assessment of Indian ports. It will help in fulfilling “Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047”. It will help in port development, modernization, green hydrogen and ammonia, port-led development, the cruise sector, business and commerce, shipbuilding, and knowledge sharing. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC): It is a statutory body established under the provisions of the Electricity Regulatory Commissions Act, of 1998. The Chairperson of the Central Electricity Authority is an ex-officio member of the CERC. It regulates the tariff of generating companies owned or controlled by the central government. It regulates the inter-state transmission of electricity and determines tariffs for inter-state transmission of electricity. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) The Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) is a statutory body established under the provisions of the Electricity Regulatory Commissions Act, of 1998. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is the central commission for the purposes of the Electricity Act, of 2003, which has repealed the ERC Act, of 1998. The Commission consists of a Chairperson and four other members including the Chairperson, Central Electricity Authority, who is an ex-officio Member of the Commission. The Chairperson of the Central Electricity Authority is an ex-officio member of the CERC. Hence statement 2 is correct. It intends to promote competition, efficiency, and economy in bulk power markets, improve the quality of supply, promote investments, and advise the government on the removal of institutional barriers to bridge the demand-supply gap and thus foster the interests of consumers. It regulates the tariff of generating companies owned or controlled by the central government. Hence statement 3 is correct. It regulates the inter-state transmission of electricity and determines tariffs for inter-state transmission of electricity. Hence statement 4 is correct. It regulates the tariff of generating companies other than those owned or controlled by the central government specified in clause (a) if such generating companies enter into or otherwise have a composite scheme for the generation and sale of electricity in more than one state. It issues licences to persons to function as transmission licensees and electricity traders with respect to their interstate operations. Incorrect Solution (d) The Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) is a statutory body established under the provisions of the Electricity Regulatory Commissions Act, of 1998. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is the central commission for the purposes of the Electricity Act, of 2003, which has repealed the ERC Act, of 1998. The Commission consists of a Chairperson and four other members including the Chairperson, Central Electricity Authority, who is an ex-officio Member of the Commission. The Chairperson of the Central Electricity Authority is an ex-officio member of the CERC. Hence statement 2 is correct. It intends to promote competition, efficiency, and economy in bulk power markets, improve the quality of supply, promote investments, and advise the government on the removal of institutional barriers to bridge the demand-supply gap and thus foster the interests of consumers. It regulates the tariff of generating companies owned or controlled by the central government. Hence statement 3 is correct. It regulates the inter-state transmission of electricity and determines tariffs for inter-state transmission of electricity. Hence statement 4 is correct. It regulates the tariff of generating companies other than those owned or controlled by the central government specified in clause (a) if such generating companies enter into or otherwise have a composite scheme for the generation and sale of electricity in more than one state. It issues licences to persons to function as transmission licensees and electricity traders with respect to their interstate operations. Question 23 of 35 23. Question Consider the following statements: The 14th Conference of the Parties to the Convention on the United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity (UNCBD) adopted the Single Species Action Plan for the conservation of the Hawksbill Turtle. The International Single Species Action Plan is developed under the Agreement on the Conservation of African-Eurasian Migratory Waterbirds (AEWA). AEWA is an intergovernmental treaty dedicated to the conservation of migratory waterbirds and their habitats across Africa, Europe, the Middle East, Central Asia, Greenland, and the Canadian Archipelago. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) The 14th Conference of the Parties to the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS COP14) adopted the Single Species Action Plan for the conservation of the Hawksbill Turtle. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The International Single Species Action Plan is developed under the Agreement on the Conservation of African-Eurasian Migratory Waterbirds (AEWA). Hence statement 2 is correct. It is to implement coordinated measures to restore migratory waterbird species to favourable conservation status. AEWA is an intergovernmental treaty dedicated to the conservation of migratory waterbirds and their habitats across Africa, Europe, the Middle East, Central Asia, Greenland, and the Canadian Archipelago. Hence statement 3 is correct. It was developed under the framework of the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) and administered by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). It brings together countries and the wider international conservation community to establish coordinated conservation and management of migratory waterbirds throughout their entire migratory range. Incorrect Solution (a) The 14th Conference of the Parties to the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS COP14) adopted the Single Species Action Plan for the conservation of the Hawksbill Turtle. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The International Single Species Action Plan is developed under the Agreement on the Conservation of African-Eurasian Migratory Waterbirds (AEWA). Hence statement 2 is correct. It is to implement coordinated measures to restore migratory waterbird species to favourable conservation status. AEWA is an intergovernmental treaty dedicated to the conservation of migratory waterbirds and their habitats across Africa, Europe, the Middle East, Central Asia, Greenland, and the Canadian Archipelago. Hence statement 3 is correct. It was developed under the framework of the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) and administered by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). It brings together countries and the wider international conservation community to establish coordinated conservation and management of migratory waterbirds throughout their entire migratory range. Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements regarding Papua New Guinea: It is an island country that lies in the south-western Atlantic. It has Indonesia to the west, Australia to the south, and the Solomon Islands to the southeast. It is the world’s most linguistically diverse country, with more than 800 languages. It is a constitutional monarchy and a member of the Commonwealth. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) Papua New Guinea is an island country that lies in the south-western Pacific. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Its capital is Port Moresby. It has Indonesia to the west, Australia to the south, and the Solomon Islands to the southeast. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is mainly mountainous but has low-lying plains in southern New Guinea. The islands that constitute Papua New Guinea were settled over a period of 40,000 years by a mixture of peoples who are generally referred to as Melanesians. It is the world’s most linguistically diverse country, with more than 800 languages. Hence statement 3 is correct. English is the main language of government and commerce. In most everyday contexts, the most widely spoken language is Tok Pisin. The majority of Papua New Guinea’s people are at least nominally Christian. It is a constitutional monarchy and a member of the Commonwealth. Hence statement 4 is correct. Papua New Guinea became self-governing on December 1, 1973, and achieved independence on September 16, 1975. Incorrect Solution (c) Papua New Guinea is an island country that lies in the south-western Pacific. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Its capital is Port Moresby. It has Indonesia to the west, Australia to the south, and the Solomon Islands to the southeast. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is mainly mountainous but has low-lying plains in southern New Guinea. The islands that constitute Papua New Guinea were settled over a period of 40,000 years by a mixture of peoples who are generally referred to as Melanesians. It is the world’s most linguistically diverse country, with more than 800 languages. Hence statement 3 is correct. English is the main language of government and commerce. In most everyday contexts, the most widely spoken language is Tok Pisin. The majority of Papua New Guinea’s people are at least nominally Christian. It is a constitutional monarchy and a member of the Commonwealth. Hence statement 4 is correct. Papua New Guinea became self-governing on December 1, 1973, and achieved independence on September 16, 1975. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Director General of Civil Aviation (DGCA): Its primary function is to ensure the safety of passengers and crew members on all flights operating in India. It is responsible for the regulation of air transport services to/from/within India and for the enforcement of civil air regulations, air safety, and airworthiness standards. It investigates any incidents or accidents that occur within the Indian airspace and takes appropriate action to prevent similar incidents from happening in the future. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) The Director General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is the regulatory body in the field of civil aviation primarily dealing with safety issues. It is an attached office of the Ministry of Civil Aviation. Its primary function is to ensure the safety of passengers and crew members on all flights operating in India. Hence statement 1 is correct. In addition to safety, the DGCA also plays a crucial role in the growth and development of the Indian aviation industry. The organization works closely with airlines and airport operators to promote the industry’s growth and improve the overall travel experience for passengers. It also coordinates all regulatory functions with the International Civil Aviation Organisation. It is responsible for the regulation of air transport services to/from/within India and for the enforcement of civil air regulations, air safety, and airworthiness standards. Hence statement 2 is correct. It plays a crucial role in developing new airports and modernizing existing facilities to ensure that they can meet the growing demands of the aviation industry. It investigates any incidents or accidents that occur within the Indian airspace and takes appropriate action to prevent similar incidents from happening in the future. Hence statement 3 is correct.   Incorrect Solution (c) The Director General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is the regulatory body in the field of civil aviation primarily dealing with safety issues. It is an attached office of the Ministry of Civil Aviation. Its primary function is to ensure the safety of passengers and crew members on all flights operating in India. Hence statement 1 is correct. In addition to safety, the DGCA also plays a crucial role in the growth and development of the Indian aviation industry. The organization works closely with airlines and airport operators to promote the industry’s growth and improve the overall travel experience for passengers. It also coordinates all regulatory functions with the International Civil Aviation Organisation. It is responsible for the regulation of air transport services to/from/within India and for the enforcement of civil air regulations, air safety, and airworthiness standards. Hence statement 2 is correct. It plays a crucial role in developing new airports and modernizing existing facilities to ensure that they can meet the growing demands of the aviation industry. It investigates any incidents or accidents that occur within the Indian airspace and takes appropriate action to prevent similar incidents from happening in the future. Hence statement 3 is correct.   Question 26 of 35 26. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Melghat Tiger Reserve: It is a critical tiger habitat located in Vindhya Hill in northern Madhya Pradesh. It is a catchment area for the Khandu, Khapra, Sipna, Gadga, and Dolar, all of which are tributaries of the River Tapti. The Korkus are the largest tribal community in Melghat. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Melghat Tiger Reserve is located in the Amaravati district of Maharashtra. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is located on the southern offshoot of the Satpura Hill Range in Central India, called Gavilgarh Hill. It was established as a wildlife sanctuary in 1967 and was declared a tiger reserve in 1974. It was the first tiger reserve in Maharashtra. It was among the first nine tiger reserves notified in 1973-74 under Project Tiger. The name ‘Melghat’ means the confluence of various ‘ghats’ or valleys, as is typical of the landscape of this Tiger Reserve. It is a catchment area for the Khandu, Khapra, Sipna, Gadga, and Dolar, all of which are tributaries of the River Tapti. Hence statement 2 is correct. The forest is tropical dry deciduous, and dominated by teak. The Tapti River and the Gawilgadh ridge of the Satpura Range form the boundaries of the reserve. The Korkus are the largest tribal community in Melghat. Hence statement 3 is correct. Other communities include the Gawli community, the Gond tribe, and several other smaller tribal communities. Incorrect Solution (b) The Melghat Tiger Reserve is located in the Amaravati district of Maharashtra. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is located on the southern offshoot of the Satpura Hill Range in Central India, called Gavilgarh Hill. It was established as a wildlife sanctuary in 1967 and was declared a tiger reserve in 1974. It was the first tiger reserve in Maharashtra. It was among the first nine tiger reserves notified in 1973-74 under Project Tiger. The name ‘Melghat’ means the confluence of various ‘ghats’ or valleys, as is typical of the landscape of this Tiger Reserve. It is a catchment area for the Khandu, Khapra, Sipna, Gadga, and Dolar, all of which are tributaries of the River Tapti. Hence statement 2 is correct. The forest is tropical dry deciduous, and dominated by teak. The Tapti River and the Gawilgadh ridge of the Satpura Range form the boundaries of the reserve. The Korkus are the largest tribal community in Melghat. Hence statement 3 is correct. Other communities include the Gawli community, the Gond tribe, and several other smaller tribal communities. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements: National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) is suitable for both small and large-value transactions. Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) system does not operate on weekends. Under Immediate Payment Service (IMPS), a minimum transaction amount is ₹2 lakhs. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) is suitable for both small and large-value transactions. It allows individuals to transfer any amount to the recipient’s account on a one-on-one transfer basis without a maximum limit for funds that can be transferred in a single day. Hence statement 1 is correct. The Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) system is available 24 hours a day, 7 days a week, including weekends and bank holidays. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Immediate Payment Service allows for both peer-to-peer transfers and merchant payments. IMPS is available 24/7 throughout the year, including bank holidays, and enables real-time instant inter-bank funds to transfer with no upper limit for transactions. The upper limit usually varies from bank to bank. There is also no lower limit or minimum transaction amount specified for IMPS. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (a) National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) is suitable for both small and large-value transactions. It allows individuals to transfer any amount to the recipient’s account on a one-on-one transfer basis without a maximum limit for funds that can be transferred in a single day. Hence statement 1 is correct. The Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) system is available 24 hours a day, 7 days a week, including weekends and bank holidays. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Immediate Payment Service allows for both peer-to-peer transfers and merchant payments. IMPS is available 24/7 throughout the year, including bank holidays, and enables real-time instant inter-bank funds to transfer with no upper limit for transactions. The upper limit usually varies from bank to bank. There is also no lower limit or minimum transaction amount specified for IMPS. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Question 28 of 35 28. Question Consider the following statements: Cryptocurrencies in India fall under the Virtual Digital Assets (VDAs) category and are not subject to taxation. Bitcoin is an open-source digital currency, that facilitates instant payments without central authority issuance. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Cryptocurrencies in India fall under the virtual digital assets (VDAs) category and are subject to taxation. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The profits generated from cryptocurrency trading are taxed at a rate of 30%, with an additional 4% cess (Union budget 2022-23). In 2022, the RBI launched its own Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) known as the e-Rupee which is based on blockchain technology. Bitcoin is an open-source digital currency, that facilitates instant payments without central authority issuance. Hence statement 2 is correct. Note: A bitcoin halving is an event where the reward for mining new blocks is halved, meaning miners receive 50% fewer bitcoins for verifying transactions. Bitcoin halving is scheduled to occur once every 210,000 blocks – roughly every four years – until the maximum supply of 21 million bitcoins has been generated by the network.   Incorrect Solution (b) Cryptocurrencies in India fall under the virtual digital assets (VDAs) category and are subject to taxation. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The profits generated from cryptocurrency trading are taxed at a rate of 30%, with an additional 4% cess (Union budget 2022-23). In 2022, the RBI launched its own Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) known as the e-Rupee which is based on blockchain technology. Bitcoin is an open-source digital currency, that facilitates instant payments without central authority issuance. Hence statement 2 is correct. Note: A bitcoin halving is an event where the reward for mining new blocks is halved, meaning miners receive 50% fewer bitcoins for verifying transactions. Bitcoin halving is scheduled to occur once every 210,000 blocks – roughly every four years – until the maximum supply of 21 million bitcoins has been generated by the network.   Question 29 of 35 29. Question Consider the following statements about Google DeepMind’s Genie: It is the first generative interactive environment that has been trained in an unsupervised manner from unlabelled internet videos. It can generate an endless variety of playable (action-controllable) worlds from synthetic images, photographs, and even sketches. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Google DeepMind is a British-American AI research laboratory that is a subsidiary of Google. DeepMind is based in London and has research centres in Canada, France, Germany, and the US. It has introduced Genie AI (Artificial Intelligence), a new model that can generate interactive video games from just a text or image prompt. It is the first generative interactive environment that has been trained in an unsupervised manner from unlabelled internet videos. Hence statement 1 is correct. Generative Interactive Environments (Genie) is a foundation world model that is trained on videos sourced from the Internet. The model can “generate an endless variety of playable (action-controllable) worlds from synthetic images, photographs, and even sketches”. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) Google DeepMind is a British-American AI research laboratory that is a subsidiary of Google. DeepMind is based in London and has research centres in Canada, France, Germany, and the US. It has introduced Genie AI (Artificial Intelligence), a new model that can generate interactive video games from just a text or image prompt. It is the first generative interactive environment that has been trained in an unsupervised manner from unlabelled internet videos. Hence statement 1 is correct. Generative Interactive Environments (Genie) is a foundation world model that is trained on videos sourced from the Internet. The model can “generate an endless variety of playable (action-controllable) worlds from synthetic images, photographs, and even sketches”. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 30 of 35 30. Question Consider the following statements about Uyghurs: They are a predominantly Muslim minority Turkic ethnic group, whose origins can be traced to Central and East Asia. Currently, the largest population of the Uighur ethnic community lives in the Xinjiang region of Turkey. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Uyghurs are a predominantly Muslim minority Turkic ethnic group, whose origins can be traced to Central and East Asia. Hence statement 1 is correct. The Uighurs speak their own language, similar to Turkish, and see themselves as culturally and ethnically close to Central Asian nations. The Uighurs are considered to be one of the 55 officially recognized ethnic minority communities in China. However, China recognises the community only as a regional minority and rejects that they are an indigenous group. Currently, the largest population of the Uighur ethnic community lives in the Xinjiang region of China. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (a) Uyghurs are a predominantly Muslim minority Turkic ethnic group, whose origins can be traced to Central and East Asia. Hence statement 1 is correct. The Uighurs speak their own language, similar to Turkish, and see themselves as culturally and ethnically close to Central Asian nations. The Uighurs are considered to be one of the 55 officially recognized ethnic minority communities in China. However, China recognises the community only as a regional minority and rejects that they are an indigenous group. Currently, the largest population of the Uighur ethnic community lives in the Xinjiang region of China. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Question 31 of 35 31. Question At 5’O clock, clock ticks 5 times. The time between first and last tick was 36sec. How much time it takes at 11’O clock? a) 60 seconds b) 90 seconds c) 120 seconds d) 30 seconds Correct Solution (b) At 5’o clock it ticks 5 times so there are total 4-time intervals. Total time taken = 36 seconds Hence, the time taken between any two consecutive ticks = 36/4 seconds = 9 seconds Similarly, clock will tick 11 times at 11 o’ clock. At 11o’clock there will be 10 intervals. Hence total time needed at 11 o’clock = 10 × 9 = 90 seconds. Incorrect Solution (b) At 5’o clock it ticks 5 times so there are total 4-time intervals. Total time taken = 36 seconds Hence, the time taken between any two consecutive ticks = 36/4 seconds = 9 seconds Similarly, clock will tick 11 times at 11 o’ clock. At 11o’clock there will be 10 intervals. Hence total time needed at 11 o’clock = 10 × 9 = 90 seconds. Question 32 of 35 32. Question Out of the four annual examinations, each with a total of 200 marks, a student secured average marks of 45%, 50% and 55% in the first, second and third annual examinations. To have an overall average of 60%, how many marks does the student need to secure in the fourth annual examination? a) 160 b) 170 c) 180 d) 190 Correct Solution (c)              Let the average marks in the third Annual examination be x. Total marks = (Marks in first + second + third + forth) Annual examination 4(60)( 200/100) = (45/100) (200) + ( 50/100) (200) + ( 55/100) (200) + ( x/100) (200) 4(60) = 45 + 50 +55 + x x = 90 So, the student must score 90% in the fourth annual examination to secure 60% overall average. ∴ Average marks in the fourth annual examination (90/100) × 200 = 180 marks. Incorrect Solution (c)              Let the average marks in the third Annual examination be x. Total marks = (Marks in first + second + third + forth) Annual examination 4(60)( 200/100) = (45/100) (200) + ( 50/100) (200) + ( 55/100) (200) + ( x/100) (200) 4(60) = 45 + 50 +55 + x x = 90 So, the student must score 90% in the fourth annual examination to secure 60% overall average. ∴ Average marks in the fourth annual examination (90/100) × 200 = 180 marks. Question 33 of 35 33. Question The sum of 3 numbers is 85. If third number be one fifth of the first and the first number be twice the second, find the second number. a) 20 b) 25 c) 10 d) 15 Correct Solution (b) From the details given in the question, the Ratio of the numbers = 1: 1/2: 1/5 = 10: 5: 2 Second number = 5/17 × 85 = 25. Incorrect Solution (b) From the details given in the question, the Ratio of the numbers = 1: 1/2: 1/5 = 10: 5: 2 Second number = 5/17 × 85 = 25. Question 34 of 35 34. Question 3ab0 is a four-digit number divisible by 25. If the number formed from the two digits ab is a multiple of 17, then ab a) 51 b) 34 c) 85 d) 17 Correct Solution (c) We have given that the number 3ab0 is divisible by 25. Any number divisible by 25 ends with the last two digits 00, 25, 50, or 75. So, b0 should equal 00 or 50. Hence, b=0 or 5. Since a is now free to take any digit from 0 through 9, ab can have multiple values. We also have that ab is divisible by 17. The multiples of 17 are 17, 34, 51, 68, 85, 102, 119, 136, 153 and 170. Among these, the only number ending with 0 or 5 is 85. Hence, ab=85   Incorrect Solution (c) We have given that the number 3ab0 is divisible by 25. Any number divisible by 25 ends with the last two digits 00, 25, 50, or 75. So, b0 should equal 00 or 50. Hence, b=0 or 5. Since a is now free to take any digit from 0 through 9, ab can have multiple values. We also have that ab is divisible by 17. The multiples of 17 are 17, 34, 51, 68, 85, 102, 119, 136, 153 and 170. Among these, the only number ending with 0 or 5 is 85. Hence, ab=85   Question 35 of 35 35. Question A 40 litre mixture of oil and water contains oil and water in the ratio 3 : 2. Now, 10 litres of the mixture is removed and replaced with pure oil. This operation is done one more time. What is the ratio of water and oil in the resultant mixture? a) 12 : 31 b) 7 : 19 c) 9 : 31 d) 11 : 31 Correct Solution (c) Original quantity of oil and water is 24 litres and 16 litres. Let the final quantity of water be a. 10 litres is being removed from 40 litres twice. ∴ a/16 = [1 – (10/40)]^2 = 9/16 ∴ a = 9 Hence, the final solution has 9 litres of water and 31 litres of oil. ∴ Required ratio = 9 : 31 Hence, option c. Incorrect Solution (c) Original quantity of oil and water is 24 litres and 16 litres. Let the final quantity of water be a. 10 litres is being removed from 40 litres twice. ∴ a/16 = [1 – (10/40)]^2 = 9/16 ∴ a = 9 Hence, the final solution has 9 litres of water and 31 litres of oil. ∴ Required ratio = 9 : 31 Hence, option c. window.wpProQuizInitList = window.wpProQuizInitList || []; window.wpProQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpProQuiz_3678', init: { quizId: 3678, mode: 1, globalPoints: 70, timelimit: 1800, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 704, qpp: 0, catPoints: [70], formPos: 0, lbn: "Test-summary", json: {"33017":{"type":"single","id":33017,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"33018":{"type":"single","id":33018,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"33019":{"type":"single","id":33019,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33022":{"type":"single","id":33022,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33024":{"type":"single","id":33024,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33027":{"type":"single","id":33027,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"33029":{"type":"single","id":33029,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33030":{"type":"single","id":33030,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"33032":{"type":"single","id":33032,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33034":{"type":"single","id":33034,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33037":{"type":"single","id":33037,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33039":{"type":"single","id":33039,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33042":{"type":"single","id":33042,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33044":{"type":"single","id":33044,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33045":{"type":"single","id":33045,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33047":{"type":"single","id":33047,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33049":{"type":"single","id":33049,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33051":{"type":"single","id":33051,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"33053":{"type":"single","id":33053,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"33055":{"type":"single","id":33055,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33057":{"type":"single","id":33057,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33059":{"type":"single","id":33059,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33061":{"type":"single","id":33061,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"33062":{"type":"single","id":33062,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33063":{"type":"single","id":33063,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33064":{"type":"single","id":33064,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33065":{"type":"single","id":33065,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"33068":{"type":"single","id":33068,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33070":{"type":"single","id":33070,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33073":{"type":"single","id":33073,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"33076":{"type":"single","id":33076,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33077":{"type":"single","id":33077,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33078":{"type":"single","id":33078,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33079":{"type":"single","id":33079,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33081":{"type":"single","id":33081,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]}} } }); All the Best IASbaba

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Ethylene Oxide Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) will conduct checks on products of spice brands MDH and Everest Group after authorities in Hong Kong and Singapore last week determined that four of their spice mixes contained high levels of carcinogen ethylene oxide. Background:- FSSAI doesn’t permit use of ethylene oxide in any food product. About Ethylene Oxide Ethylene oxide is a pesticide that has been classified as a Group 1 carcinogen by the International Agency for Research on Cancer, meaning there is sufficient evidence from human studies that it can cause cancer. It is used by the spice industry as a fumigant to reduce microbial contamination, such as E. coli and Salmonella. It is a colourless, highly flammable and very reactive gas that kills bacteria, viruses and fungi. It is an industrial chemical. Ethylene oxide can damage DNA during sterilisation procedures. While the risk from occasional, low-level exposure may be minimal, spices and spice blends like those flagged are commonly used in household cooking across multiple dishes. This can lead to chronic, persistent exposure over time, which has been linked to an increased risk of cancers like leukemia, stomach cancer and breast cancer. It can even lead to respiratory irritation and lung injury, headache, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea and shortness of breath. Ethylene oxide was banned by the European Union (EU) in 2011 for fumigation of food and animal feed during transport and storage. The use of ethylene oxide is now only permitted in disinfection and sterilisation of medical devices. Additional information Escherichia coli (E.coli) is a bacterial strain that is commonly found in the intestines of people and animals, fecal waste of cattle and humans. Salmonella is a group of bacteria that can cause food-borne illnesses known as salmonellosis. The World Health Organisation (WHO) identifies Salmonella as one of four key global causes of diarrhoeal diseases.Individuals who develop salmonellosis may show symptoms such as nausea, diarrhoea, fever, and abdominal cramps 12-72 hours after contracting the infection. Source: Indian Express Ongoing Israel - Palestine Conflict Syllabus Prelims & Mains – International Event Context: Six months after the October 7 attack, Israel’s war to eliminate Hamas has resulted in the near-complete destruction of Gaza and a dire humanitarian crisis with the area on the verge of famine.Iran and its allies have militarily united behind the Palestinian cause and expanded the confrontation to other parts of the region. Background: The dynamics of war have drastically changed following the massive Iranian drone and missile attacks on military targets in Israel on April 14. This was in retaliation to Israeli aerial strikes on an Iranian diplomatic compound in Damascus on April 1 in which top Iranian generals were killed. Israel had not seen direct attacks by a state on its soil since 1991 when Saddam Hussein fired 42 Scud missiles. A volatile Middle East: The geopolitics of the region has already undergone a sea change since October 7 in four substantive ways: First, thawing of the hitherto icy Shia-Sunni relationship, with Hezbollah, Houthis and Iran (all Shia entities) extending open support to “Sunni” Palestinians, presenting regional unity via the Axis of Resistance, opposing US-Israel domination. The first signs of the Resistance surfaced early on in the war, with conflict with Hezbollah in northern Israel leading to the displacement of thousands of Israeli civilians who are yet to return. This active front is likely to simmer. Second, the war has expanded across the region, pushing the US to become the fulcrum of efforts to contain expansion and making it a primary target. Third, the Saudi-aligned Sunni Arab States have adopted the political and diplomatic route, advocating a ceasefire, supporting humanitarian assistance, and calling for a two-state solution while remaining in line with US-led initiatives. Fourth, the Yemen-based Houthis — a non-state actor devoid of a navy — have managed to successfully disrupt a critical sea lane of communication for five months, impairing trade substantively. Additional Information The expansion of the war has already caused economic distress to the Israeli economy .The Israeli economy has reportedly shrunk by 20 per cent in the last quarter of 2023. Two crucial Israeli ports, Eilat on the Red Sea and Haifa on the eastern Mediterranean have been sporadically attacked.  The Eilat port is said to be down to a quarter of its business, while Israeli media reports an acute shortage of labour in Israel, primarily on account of military conscription and volunteerism. Source: Indian Express GREEN FINANCING Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Economy & Environment Context: National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) recently unveiled its Climate Strategy 2030 document which aims to address India’s need for green financing. Background: NABARD’s Climate Strategy 2030 is structured around four key pillars which include accelerating green lending across sectors, playing a broader market-making role, internal green transformation and strategic resource mobilisation. What is Green financing Green financing refers to any structured financial activity – a product or service – that has been designed to ensure a better environmental outcome. It encompasses a variety of loans, debt mechanisms, and investments aimed at promoting the development of green projects or minimizing the climate impact of regular projects. Purpose and Importance: Green finance aims to align financial activities with environmental goals. It plays a crucial role in achieving several of the United Nations’ Sustainable Development Goals by supporting sustainable development priorities. Examples of Green Finance Projects: Renewable Energy and Energy Efficiency: Funding projects related to clean energy sources and energy-saving technologies. Pollution Prevention and Control: Financing initiatives that reduce pollution and promote cleaner practices. Biodiversity Conservation: Supporting efforts to protect and preserve biodiversity. Circular Economy Initiatives: Investing in projects that promote resource efficiency and waste reduction. Sustainable Use of Natural Resources and Land: Financing projects that balance economic development with environmental conservation. Green Bonds: Green bonds are a common green finance instrument. They adhere to specific criteria, including the use of proceeds, project evaluation, proper management, and detailed reporting. The United States, China, and France are the three largest issuers of green bonds. Source: Hindu ENGLISH CHANNEL Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Recently, five asylum seekers died while crossing the English Channel from France to Britain in an overcrowded small boat. Background: In recent years, the English Channel has become a focal point for migrants and asylum seekers attempting to reach the UK. Many undertake dangerous journeys in small boats, hoping to find safety and better opportunities.   About English Channel: The English Channel, also known as “La Manche,” is an arm of the Atlantic Ocean that separates Southern England from northern France. It links to the southern part of the North Sea via the Strait of Dover at its northeastern end. Notably, it is the busiest shipping area in the world. Historically, the channel played a pivotal role in Britain’s naval supremacy and served as a natural defence mechanism against invasions during significant events like the Napoleonic Wars and World War II. Source: Reuters VOYAGER 1 SPACECRAFT Syllabus Prelims – Science Context: NASA Voyager 1 spacecraft has begun sending readable communications again after months of transmitting gibberish back to Earth. Background: NASA’s Voyager flight team detected a glitch in November and worked to fix the problem via code, leading to the successful return of readable data. About VOYAGER 1 SPACECRAFT : Voyager 1 was launched by NASA on September 5, 1977. Voyager 1 is part of the Voyager program, which also includes Voyager 2. Mission Objective: To study the outer Solar System and beyond, including flybys of Jupiter and Saturn. Discoveries: It discovered a thin ring around Jupiter and two new Jovian moons: Thebe and Metis. At Saturn, it found five new moons and a new ring called the G-ring. Interstellar Achievement: Voyager 1 was the first human-made object to cross the heliosphere and enter interstellar space in August 2012. Current Status: It is the most distant human-made object from Earth and is expected to send data until at least 2025. Golden Record: Carries a golden record with sounds and images representing life and culture on Earth. Source: Live Science Climate Change and Human Rights Syllabus Prelims – GS 2 & GS 3 Context: The Supreme Court of India acknowledged the right to protection from climate change impacts as part of the fundamental rights to life (Article 21) and equality (Article 19) enshrined in the Indian Constitution. Background: The arguments were a part of a verdict by a three-judge bench headed by the Chief Justice of India DY Chandrachud hearing a case on the conservation of the great India bustard and the lesser florican. The intersection of climate change and human rights: Climate change can directly affect people’s right to life by causing extreme weather events like hurricanes or floods, which can lead to loss of life and property. For example, in low-lying coastal areas, rising sea levels due to climate change can threaten people’s homes and livelihoods, forcing them to relocate. Climate change can impact water sources, leading to water scarcity or contamination. This affects people’s right to clean water and sanitation. In regions where droughts are becoming more frequent due to climate change, communities may struggle to access safe drinking water, leading to health issues. Climate change can exacerbate health problems, especially for vulnerable populations. For instance, increased heat waves can lead to heat-related illnesses and deaths, affecting the right to health. Climate change-induced events such as sea-level rise, extreme weather events, or desertification can force people to migrate or be displaced from their homes. This intersects with human rights, particularly the right to residence and the right to seek asylum. Climate change can disproportionately affect indigenous communities that rely heavily on natural resources for their livelihoods and cultural practices. For instance, changes in ecosystems due to climate change can threaten traditional livelihoods like farming or fishing, impacting indigenous peoples’ rights to land, resources, and cultural heritage. The Supreme Court’s interpretation of constitutional provisions concerning climate change: Article 48A which mandates environmental protection and Article 51A(g) which promotes wildlife conservation, implicitly guarantee a right to be safeguarded from climate change. Article 21 recognises the right to life and personal liberty while Article 14 indicates that all persons shall have equality before the law and the equal protection of laws. These articles are important sources of the right to a clean environment and the right against the adverse effects of climate change. In MC Mehta vs Kamal Nath Case, 2000, the Supreme Court stated that the right to a clean environment is an extension of the right to life. Issues/Challenges in balancing climate change mitigation with human rights protection: Some climate mitigation measures may conflict with human rights, such as restrictions on land use for conservation projects or displacement due to renewable energy infrastructure development. Finding solutions that minimise negative impacts while maximising benefits is challenging. Climate actions like transitioning to renewable energy or implementing carbon pricing can impact access to essential resources like energy, water, and food, especially for marginalised communities. Climate-induced migration can strain social systems and lead to conflicts over resources and rights in host communities. Managing migration flows in a way that respects the rights of both migrants and host populations is a multifaceted challenge. Balancing efforts to reduce greenhouse gas emissions (mitigation) with investments in adaptation to climate impacts can be challenging. Prioritising one over the other can have implications for human rights, particularly for communities already facing climate-related risks. Climate change is a global issue requiring international cooperation. Balancing national climate goals with global responsibilities and ensuring that climate actions do not undermine the rights of vulnerable communities across borders is a complex task. Source: Down To Earth Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) With reference to the Voyager 1 spacecraft, consider the following statements: Voyager 1 was launched by ISRO. The primary mission of Voyager 1 was to explore the outer planets of solar system. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2.) English Channel separates England from Spain France Germany Poland Q3.) With reference to the Green Financing, consider the following statements: Green financing aims to align financial activities with environmental goals. It encompasses a variety of debt mechanisms and investments aimed at promoting the development of green projects. Green bonds are a common green finance instrument. Which of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  25th April  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  24th April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – d

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here