Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Report flags sweetened Nestle products Syllabus Prelims – Science Context: Nestlé’s products for babies in Asia, Africa and Latin America were found to contain added sugars, while the same products sold in Europe did not have it, according to a recent report. Background:- The report (‘How Nestlé gets children hooked on sugar in lower-income countries’) faulted Nestlé for employing different nutritional standards in its offerings, depending on the country it served. Nestlé also did not make the quantity of sugar content clear on the products’ packaging, it said. Key Takeaways Sugar is a simple carbohydrate.Some food items have sugar that is naturally occurring. According to the American Heart Association (AHA), it is “found in milk (lactose) and fruit (fructose). Any product that contains milk (such as yogurt, milk or cream) or fruit (fresh, dried) contains some natural sugars.” Free sugar or added sugar is added separately to a food item during preparation or processing. In 2015, the WHO’s guideline recommended that “adults and children reduce their daily intake of free sugars to less than 10% of their total energy intake.” WHO advises against the introduction of added sugars before the age of 2. Excessive sugar consumption can lead to increased overall energy intake in a person’s overall diet. It may be at the cost of food items having nutritionally adequate calories, eventually leading to an unhealthy diet. The risks of contracting non-communicable diseases, such as diabetes, obesity and heart-related ailments, are then increased. Tooth decay is also associated with early exposure to sugar. A 2017 report from the WHO (‘Incentives and disincentives for reducing sugar in manufactured foods’) said, “The fact that sugar is a relatively cheap and abundant ingredient is not a direct incentive to use it, but means there is little incentive from the supply side not to use it.” Adding sugar to a food item often makes it more palatable, meaning consumers will opt for it repeatedly. Source: Indian Express Anti-Maoist operations Syllabus Mains – Internal Security Context: At least 29 alleged Maoists were killed in a gunfight with security forces in the forests of southern Chhattisgarh’s Kanker district on Tuesday (April 16). Background: The operation is the largest (in terms of Maoists’ bodies recovered) since the creation of Chhattisgarh in 2000, and among the biggest successes for security forces in their decades-long fight against left-wing extremism (LWE). What happened in the operation? The operation saw security forces push deep into the Maoist stronghold of Abujhmad (literally, “the unknown hills”) — a 4,000 sq km swathe of forest land in southern Chhattisgarh’s Bastarregion, mainly covering the districts of Narayanpur, Bijapur, and Dantewada, just south of  Only a small part of the forest falls in Kanker. The difficult terrain, absence of roads, and presence of LWE has meant that 90% of Abujhmad, bigger in terms of area thanGoa, remains unsurveyed by the government. These jungles are, thus, used both as safe havens and transit corridors by Maoists to travel betweenMaharashtra (to the west), Andhra Pradesh (to the south), Telangana (to the southwest), and Odisha (to the east) via Chhattisgarh’s Sukma district. LWE in Chhattisgarh Chhatisgarh is the only state in which Maoists continue to have a significant presence, and retain the capability to mount big attacks. According to the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) website, there are 70 LWE-affected districts in the country. Of these, 15 are in Chhattisgarh alone. Of the 25 “Most LWE affected Districts”, seven are in Chhattisgarh, while eight are in Jharkhand. The government’s ‘final push’ against LWE Chhattisgarh, and to a lesser extent Jharkhand, is a part of the government’s “final push” against LWE. This has seen central forces such as CRPF setting up bases deeper inside Maoist strongholds such as the jungles of Abujhmad. In the past few years, more than two dozen bases have been set up in Abujhmad, with Kanker’s Rowghat jungles too seeing new camps. Criticism Critics say that there are major flaws in the government’s approach to tackling the Naxal problem. There is no overall strategic plan and the states have been tackling the challenge as per their perception and the political appreciation of its gravity. States consider LWE a national problem. The problem will not be conclusively dealt with until state forces take the lead in anti-Naxal operations and the central armed police forces play a subsidiary role only. India’s forest cover is being gradually denuded. Tribals inhabiting these forest areas were displaced in the process. Deprived of their land and any regular means of livelihood, many of them gravitated towards the Naxals. Source: Indian Express Cervical Cancer Syllabus Mains – Health Context: The first-ever Global Cervical Cancer Elimination Forum took place in Colombia last month. Background: The Forum aimed to catalyse governments, donors, civil society, and others to commit to cervical cancer elimination and galvanize the global community. Cervical Cancer: Cancer is a disease in which cells in the body grow out of control. When cancer starts in the cervix, it is called cervical cancer. It occurs most often in women over age 30 and is the fourth most common cancer in women globally. It is the second most common cancer among females in India. The main cause of cervical cancer is the persistent infection with the human papillomavirus (HPV). Initiatives for the prevention of cervical cancer: The Cervical Cancer Elimination Initiative (by the World Health Organization) has outlined the ‘90-70-90’ targets for each country by 2030 – 90% of girls fully vaccinated with the HPV vaccine by the age of 15; 70% of women screened by the age of 35, and again by the age of 45; 90% of women with pre-cancer treated and 90% of women with invasive cancer managed. The Union Government in India proposed it in the Interim Budget 2024-25. The programme will be for girls in the age group of 9 to 14 years for the prevention of cervical cancer. Human Papilloma Virus (HPV): HPV is a common sexually transmitted infection that can affect the skin, genital area, and throat. In most cases, the immune system clears HPV from the body. Persistent infection with high-risk HPV can cause abnormal cells to develop, which go on to become cancer. There is currently no treatment for HPV infection. Preventive steps taken regarding HPV: There are 6 HPV vaccines available globally. All protect against the high-risk HPV 16 and 18, which cause most cervical cancers. HPV vaccines (1 or 2 doses) should be given to all girls aged 9–14 years. Screening, every 5-10 years, from the age of 30 (25 years in women living with HIV) can detect cervical disease, which when treated, also prevents cervical cancer. Early detection is followed by prompt quality treatment. There is no treatment for the virus itself. However, there are treatments for the health problems that HPV can cause like cervical cancer. Source: WHO PRADHAN MANTRI UJJWALA YOJANA (PMUY) Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: The government under its flagship Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana has been able to extend the benefits of clean cooking fuel to 103.3 million households between the start of the scheme and the end of 2023-24, according to data from the Petroleum Planning and Analysis Cell. Background: This significant achievement underscores the positive impact of PMUY in improving the lives of millions of families by ensuring access to LPG connections and reducing reliance on traditional solid fuels. About PMUY: The Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) is a flagship scheme introduced by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MOPNG) in India. Its primary objective is to provide clean cooking fuel, specifically liquefied petroleum gas (LPG), to rural and deprived households. These households were previously reliant on traditional cooking fuels like firewood, coal, and cow-dung cakes, which had adverse effects on both women’s health and the environment. The applicant must be an adult woman belonging to a BPL household. The scheme prioritizes women from SC, ST, and other marginalized communities. Key features of the PMUY: Empowering Women and Health Protection: By making LPG available, the scheme aims to empower women and safeguard their health. Traditional fuels often led to respiratory illnesses due to indoor air pollution. Reducing Deaths: The PMUY seeks to reduce deaths caused by unclean cooking fuels in India. Financial Support: The scheme provides a financial support of ₹1600 for each LPG connection to below poverty line (BPL) households. Ujjwala 2.0: Under this extension of the scheme, beneficiaries receive a deposit-free LPG connection, the first refill, and a hotplate at no cost. Source: Financial Express ARTEMIS ACCORDS Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Sweden has officially joined the Artemis Accords. Background: Sweden became the 38th country join in Artemis Accords. About ARTEMIS ACCORDS: The Artemis Accords are a set of principles for space exploration cooperation among nations, particularly those participating in NASA’s Artemis program. The Artemis Accords were established by the U.S. State Department and NASA in 2020, with seven other founding members: Australia, Canada, Italy, Japan, Luxembourg, the UAE, and the UK. They aim to set common principles to govern civil exploration and use of outer space, the moon, Mars, comets, and asteroids for peaceful purposes. The Accords build upon the Outer Space Treaty of 1967, emphasizing space as a shared resource for humanity, prohibiting national appropriation, and encouraging the peaceful use of space. Key Commitments: Conduct space activities for peaceful purposes and in accordance with international law. Recognize the importance of common exploration infrastructure to enhance scientific discovery and commercial utilization. Ensure registration and data sharing of relevant space objects and openly share scientific data in a timely manner. Preserve heritage, including historic landing sites and artifacts on celestial bodies. Support sustainable and safe utilization of space resources without interfering with other signatories’ activities. Plan for the safe disposal of spacecraft and limit the generation of harmful debris. Significance for India: India joined the Artemis Accords in 2023, becoming the 27th country to sign the nonbinding agreement. This will involve collaboration between NASA and ISRO, including sending Indian astronauts to the International Space Station (ISS) in 2024. By joining the Artemis Accords, India agrees to follow the finest space exploration practices and firmly backs a US-led alliance on space issues, which currently excludes significant spacefaring states like Russia and China. Source: Wion LAKSHMANA TIRTHA RIVER Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: The Lakshmana Tirtha River has completely dried up due to severe drought conditions and intense heat. Background: This year, by early April, the river has run dry, leaving no trace of water. The drying up of Lakshmana Tirtha can be attributed to the extreme weather conditions exacerbated by last year’s deficit rainfall in Kodagu, which recorded only 40% of its average rainfall. About LAKSHMANA TIRTHA RIVER: The Lakshmana Tirtha River is a significant river in Karnataka. The Lakshmana Tirtha River originates in the Brahmagiri hills of Kodagu (Coorg) District, Karnataka. It flows eastward, traversing a flat area south of Coorg. Eventually, it joins the Cauvery River in the Krishna Raja Sagara Lake. The total length of the Lakshmana Tirtha River is approximately 180 kilometers. The Lakshmanatirtha Falls, also known as the Irupu Falls, is located on the river. It borders Kerala and lies on the way to Nagarhole National Park. It is a significant tributary of the Cauvery River. Notable tributaries of the Cauvery River include the Harangi, Hemavati, Shimsha, and Arkavati on the left bank, and the Lakshmantirtha, Kabbani, Suvarnavati, Bhavani, Noyil, and Amaravati on the right bank. Source: Hans India Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) With reference to the Artemis Accords, consider the following statements: Artemis Accords are a set of principles for space exploration cooperation among nations. The Artemis Accords were established by the ISRO. The Accords build upon the Outer Space Treaty of 1967. How many of the statements given above are not correct? Only one Only two All three None Q2.) Consider the following rivers: Lakshmantirtha Kabbani Bhavani Amaravati How many of the above-mentioned rivers are the tributaries of the river Cauvery? Only one Only two Only three All four Q3.) With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY), consider the following statements: It is a flagship scheme introduced by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. Its primary objective is to provide clean cooking fuelto rural and deprived households. It aims to empower women and safeguard their health. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  20th April  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  19th April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – a

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question Consider the following statements in context of ‘Green Credit System’: Market-based mechanism designed to incentivize voluntary environmental actions by Private sector companies only. In its initial state it is focused on two key activities water conservation and afforestation. Green credit certificate issued by administrator will be tradeable on stock exchanges. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Green Credit Program (GCP) is an innovative market-based mechanism designed to incentivize voluntary environmental actions across diverse sectors, by various stakeholders like individuals, communities, private sector industries, and companies. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect) In its initial phase, the GCP focuses on two key activities: water conservation and afforestation. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Once verification is complete, the Administrator will grant a Green Credit certificate which will be tradable on the green credit platform and not on stock exchanges for now. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) Incorrect Solution (a) Green Credit Program (GCP) is an innovative market-based mechanism designed to incentivize voluntary environmental actions across diverse sectors, by various stakeholders like individuals, communities, private sector industries, and companies. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect) In its initial phase, the GCP focuses on two key activities: water conservation and afforestation. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Once verification is complete, the Administrator will grant a Green Credit certificate which will be tradable on the green credit platform and not on stock exchanges for now. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) Question 2 of 35 2. Question Recently indigenous breed locally known as the ‘Bhimthadi’ horse, has now been officially recognized as an independent breed of India. Consider the following statements in this context: It is the first indigenous horse breed to get recognized as independent breed of India. It is predominant in Deccan region along the bank of Bhima River. National Research Centre of Equines in Bikaner is responsible for identification and characterization of homogenous populations qualifying for a breed. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources has already recognized seven independent Indian breeds of horses which are Bhutia, Kathiawari, Manipuri, Marwari, Spiti, Zanskari, Kachchhi-Sindh. And Bhimthadi will be eighth. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect) The Deccani horse is named after the Bhima river, ‘Bhimthadi’ combines ‘Bhima’ with ‘thadi,’ meaning riverbank. This breed is primarily located on the Deccan plateau, spanning areas in Pune, Satara, Solapur, Ahmednagar, Sangli, and Kolhapur districts. (Hence statement 2 is correct) National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources (NBAGR) has recognized more than 100 new breeds and homogenous population in country. However, there are still a number of unique populations of native AnGR which needs to be identified. Zero non-descript AnGR mission envisage recognition of about 100 breeds in country. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) Incorrect Solution (a) National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources has already recognized seven independent Indian breeds of horses which are Bhutia, Kathiawari, Manipuri, Marwari, Spiti, Zanskari, Kachchhi-Sindh. And Bhimthadi will be eighth. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect) The Deccani horse is named after the Bhima river, ‘Bhimthadi’ combines ‘Bhima’ with ‘thadi,’ meaning riverbank. This breed is primarily located on the Deccan plateau, spanning areas in Pune, Satara, Solapur, Ahmednagar, Sangli, and Kolhapur districts. (Hence statement 2 is correct) National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources (NBAGR) has recognized more than 100 new breeds and homogenous population in country. However, there are still a number of unique populations of native AnGR which needs to be identified. Zero non-descript AnGR mission envisage recognition of about 100 breeds in country. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) Question 3 of 35 3. Question Recently discovered species of genus batillipes is named after Dr APJ Abdul Kalam as “Batillipes kalami”. This species is associated with which of the following animal? a) Springtail b) Nymph c) Gerridae d) Tardigrade Correct Solution (d) Researchers at the Cochin University of Science and Technology (Cusat) have identified a new species of marine tardigrade which they have named after the late former President and scientist A.P.J. Abdul Kalam. (Hence option d is correct) Tardigrades are extremely tiny animals whose size is measured in micrometres. Their microscopic size, however, belies their toughness. They are known for their extraordinary resilience and survival instincts. Studied using microscopes, these water-dwelling animals also go by the rather unlikely moniker ‘water bears.’ Incorrect Solution (d) Researchers at the Cochin University of Science and Technology (Cusat) have identified a new species of marine tardigrade which they have named after the late former President and scientist A.P.J. Abdul Kalam. (Hence option d is correct) Tardigrades are extremely tiny animals whose size is measured in micrometres. Their microscopic size, however, belies their toughness. They are known for their extraordinary resilience and survival instincts. Studied using microscopes, these water-dwelling animals also go by the rather unlikely moniker ‘water bears.’ Question 4 of 35 4. Question Consider the following pairs: New Species Unique feature 1.     Omorgus Khandesh Role in forensic science, helps to detect the time of death   2.     Badis limaakumi Ability to change colour and blend with surrounding 3.     Micrixalus kottigeharensis Most threatened amphibian genus of India How many of the above pairs are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) A new beetle species (Omorgus Khandesh) has been discovered in India which is important for forensic science as it helps detect the time of death of an animal or human. (Hence pair 1 is correct) Scientists have recently discovered a new fish species from the Milak river, Nagaland. The newly discovered species Badis limaakumi. It belongs to the Badis assamensis SG, which is characterised by a distinct, dark opercular blotch. Fish from the Badis family are also known as chameleon fish for their ability to change colour. This helps them blend with the surroundings when under stress. (Hence pair 2 is correct) The dancing frogs (Micrixalus kottigeharensis) that are endemic to the Western Ghats are the most threatened amphibian genus of India, according to the Wildlife Trust of India based on the second edition of the Global Amphibian Assessment released recently. (Hence pair 3 is correct) Incorrect Solution (c) A new beetle species (Omorgus Khandesh) has been discovered in India which is important for forensic science as it helps detect the time of death of an animal or human. (Hence pair 1 is correct) Scientists have recently discovered a new fish species from the Milak river, Nagaland. The newly discovered species Badis limaakumi. It belongs to the Badis assamensis SG, which is characterised by a distinct, dark opercular blotch. Fish from the Badis family are also known as chameleon fish for their ability to change colour. This helps them blend with the surroundings when under stress. (Hence pair 2 is correct) The dancing frogs (Micrixalus kottigeharensis) that are endemic to the Western Ghats are the most threatened amphibian genus of India, according to the Wildlife Trust of India based on the second edition of the Global Amphibian Assessment released recently. (Hence pair 3 is correct) Question 5 of 35 5. Question What is the primary objective of the “MISHTI” program recently launched by the Government of India? a) To enhance urban infrastructure in coastal districts through sustainable practices. b) To promote sustainable agriculture in mangrove-rich regions of India. c) To establish a research alliance for climate change in coastal areas. d) To undertake mangrove reforestation and afforestation along coastal districts. Correct Solution (d) Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats and Tangible Incomes (MISHTI) scheme was recently launched by Government of India with an objective to take up mangrove reforestation and afforestation along the coastal districts of India by adopting best practices that already exist in India as well as from other countries including Indonesia. (Hence option d is correct) This program is also envisaged to develop mangrove associated ecotourism initiatives and livelihood generation in coastal states. MISHTI will contribute to the efforts of ‘Mangrove Alliance for Climate (MAC)’, an intergovernmental alliance for promotion of Mangrove, of which India became its active member during the (COP27) Incorrect Solution (d) Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats and Tangible Incomes (MISHTI) scheme was recently launched by Government of India with an objective to take up mangrove reforestation and afforestation along the coastal districts of India by adopting best practices that already exist in India as well as from other countries including Indonesia. (Hence option d is correct) This program is also envisaged to develop mangrove associated ecotourism initiatives and livelihood generation in coastal states. MISHTI will contribute to the efforts of ‘Mangrove Alliance for Climate (MAC)’, an intergovernmental alliance for promotion of Mangrove, of which India became its active member during the (COP27) Question 6 of 35 6. Question “Takakia is a genus that only has two species. And both of them are found together only in one place-the Tibetan Plateau. An international group of scientists have discovered exactly how it developed the ability to survive frost, life-threatening UV radiation and other hazardous conditions.” It belongs to which of the following group? a) Algae b) Moss c) Liverwort d) Hornwort Correct Solution (b) Takakia is a moss, not a liverwort, algae, or hornwort. It belongs to the division Bryophyta, which includes mosses. While Takakia is considered a primitive moss and shares some characteristics with liverworts, it is taxonomically classified within the moss group. (Hence option b is correct) Mosses, liverworts, and hornworts are all different groups of non-vascular plants, each with unique characteristics and evolutionary histories. Incorrect Solution (b) Takakia is a moss, not a liverwort, algae, or hornwort. It belongs to the division Bryophyta, which includes mosses. While Takakia is considered a primitive moss and shares some characteristics with liverworts, it is taxonomically classified within the moss group. (Hence option b is correct) Mosses, liverworts, and hornworts are all different groups of non-vascular plants, each with unique characteristics and evolutionary histories. Question 7 of 35 7. Question Consider following with reference to concept of “planetary boundaries,” as proposed by environmental scientists, involves defining limits to human activities to prevent catastrophic environmental changes: Ocean Acidification Land Use Change Stratospheric Ozone Depletion Global Freshwater Use How many of the above are ‘planetary boundaries’? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) The planetary boundaries framework was first proposed by Johan Rockström and a group of 28 internationally renowned scientists in 2009 to define the environmental limits within which humanity can safely operate to maintain Earth’s stability and biodiversity. These nine Planetary Boundaries are Climate change, Change in biosphere integrity (biodiversity loss and species extinction), Stratospheric ozone depletion, Ocean acidification, Biogeochemical flows (phosphorus and nitrogen cycles), Land-system change (for example deforestation), Freshwater use (alterations across the entire water cycle over land), Atmospheric aerosol loading (microscopic particles in the atmosphere that affect climate and living organisms), Introduction of novel entities(consisting of microplastics, endocrine disruptors, and organic pollutants).(Hence option d is correct answer) Incorrect Solution (d) The planetary boundaries framework was first proposed by Johan Rockström and a group of 28 internationally renowned scientists in 2009 to define the environmental limits within which humanity can safely operate to maintain Earth’s stability and biodiversity. These nine Planetary Boundaries are Climate change, Change in biosphere integrity (biodiversity loss and species extinction), Stratospheric ozone depletion, Ocean acidification, Biogeochemical flows (phosphorus and nitrogen cycles), Land-system change (for example deforestation), Freshwater use (alterations across the entire water cycle over land), Atmospheric aerosol loading (microscopic particles in the atmosphere that affect climate and living organisms), Introduction of novel entities(consisting of microplastics, endocrine disruptors, and organic pollutants).(Hence option d is correct answer) Question 8 of 35 8. Question What advanced technology is commonly employed in the electrolysis process for producing green hydrogen, ensuring a higher efficiency and reduced environmental impact? a) Proton Exchange Membrane (PEM) Electrolysis b) Steam Methane Reforming c) Coal gasification through carbon capture technology. d) Haber-Bosch Process Correct Solution (a) Proton exchange membrane electrolysis has gained considerable attention as an energy conversion system for hydrogen production. It is considered the preferred choice for green hydrogen production owing to its energy efficiency, low capital cost, flexibility, safety, and durability. (Hence option a is correct) Grey Hydrogen: It is produced via coal or lignite gasification (black or brown), or via a process called steam methane reformation (SMR) of natural gas or methane. (Hence option b is incorrect) Blue Hydrogen: It is produced via natural gas or coal gasification combined with carbon capture storage (CCS) or carbon capture use (CCU) technologies to reduce carbon emissions. (Hence option c is incorrect) One way of making green ammonia is by using hydrogen from water electrolysis and nitrogen separated from the air. These are then fed into the Haber process (also known as Haber-Bosch), all powered by sustainable electricity. (Hence option d is incorrect) Incorrect Solution (a) Proton exchange membrane electrolysis has gained considerable attention as an energy conversion system for hydrogen production. It is considered the preferred choice for green hydrogen production owing to its energy efficiency, low capital cost, flexibility, safety, and durability. (Hence option a is correct) Grey Hydrogen: It is produced via coal or lignite gasification (black or brown), or via a process called steam methane reformation (SMR) of natural gas or methane. (Hence option b is incorrect) Blue Hydrogen: It is produced via natural gas or coal gasification combined with carbon capture storage (CCS) or carbon capture use (CCU) technologies to reduce carbon emissions. (Hence option c is incorrect) One way of making green ammonia is by using hydrogen from water electrolysis and nitrogen separated from the air. These are then fed into the Haber process (also known as Haber-Bosch), all powered by sustainable electricity. (Hence option d is incorrect) Question 9 of 35 9. Question Which of the following best describes “Greenwashing”? a) Implementing eco-friendly practices in manufacturing b) Deceptive portray of environment sensitiveness of product c) Establishing green initiatives to combat climate change d) Advocating for sustainable policies in the corporate sector Correct Solution (b) Greenwashing refers to the deceptive practice of presenting a company, product, or service as environmentally friendly or sustainable when, in reality, it may not be. This misleading marketing strategy is designed to give the impression that the company is making significant efforts to be environmentally responsible, often by highlighting specific eco-friendly features or initiatives. However, in many cases, these claims may be exaggerated or lack substance, leading consumers to believe they are supporting environmentally conscious businesses when they might not be. Greenwashing can undermine genuine efforts towards sustainability and make it challenging for consumers to make informed and responsible choices. Incorrect Solution (b) Greenwashing refers to the deceptive practice of presenting a company, product, or service as environmentally friendly or sustainable when, in reality, it may not be. This misleading marketing strategy is designed to give the impression that the company is making significant efforts to be environmentally responsible, often by highlighting specific eco-friendly features or initiatives. However, in many cases, these claims may be exaggerated or lack substance, leading consumers to believe they are supporting environmentally conscious businesses when they might not be. Greenwashing can undermine genuine efforts towards sustainability and make it challenging for consumers to make informed and responsible choices. Question 10 of 35 10. Question Ruminants are responsible for significant methane emission from human activity. Which of the following animals is NOT a ruminant species? a) Cow b) Sheep c) Horse d) Goat Correct Solution (c) Ruminant animals, such as cows, sheep, goats, buffaloes, and others, are characterized by their hooves and herbivorous grazing habits, engaging in the unique behavior of cud-chewing. This specialized adaptation allows these hoofed mammals to effectively break down plant cellulose, extracting essential nutrients from the cell walls. A key aspect of their digestive process involves methane production. Ruminants possess stomachs with four compartments, with the rumen being crucial for storing partially digested food and facilitating the fermentation process. This intricate digestive system plays a vital role in the conversion of plant material into nutrients, highlighting the remarkable efficiency of ruminant species in utilizing cellulose for their nutritional needs. Horses are non-ruminant, simple-stomached herbivores. They are hindgut fermenters, meaning the large intestine is the main site of fermentation of fibrous feedstuffs. This differs from ruminant animals like cattle, goats, deer, and sheep, which are foregut fermenters with a rumen and multi-compartment stomach. (Hence option c is correct answer) Incorrect Solution (c) Ruminant animals, such as cows, sheep, goats, buffaloes, and others, are characterized by their hooves and herbivorous grazing habits, engaging in the unique behavior of cud-chewing. This specialized adaptation allows these hoofed mammals to effectively break down plant cellulose, extracting essential nutrients from the cell walls. A key aspect of their digestive process involves methane production. Ruminants possess stomachs with four compartments, with the rumen being crucial for storing partially digested food and facilitating the fermentation process. This intricate digestive system plays a vital role in the conversion of plant material into nutrients, highlighting the remarkable efficiency of ruminant species in utilizing cellulose for their nutritional needs. Horses are non-ruminant, simple-stomached herbivores. They are hindgut fermenters, meaning the large intestine is the main site of fermentation of fibrous feedstuffs. This differs from ruminant animals like cattle, goats, deer, and sheep, which are foregut fermenters with a rumen and multi-compartment stomach. (Hence option c is correct answer) Question 11 of 35 11. Question Consider the following criteria in context of ‘unabated fossil fuels’: It refers to fossil fuels produced and used without interventions that substantially reduce the amount of GHG emitted throughout the life cycle. Fossil fuel use which does not capture 100% CO2 from power plants. Fossil fuel use which does not capture 50–80% of fugitive methane emissions from energy production and supply. Which of the above statements are correct? a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) All of the above Correct Solution (c) AR6 benchmark report of the UN Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) says unabated fossil fuels are those “without interventions that substantially reduce” greenhouse gas emissions. (Hence 1st statement is correct) Capturing 90% or more CO2 from power plants. (Hence 2nd statement is incorrect) Or 50–80% of fugitive methane emissions from energy supply. (Hence 3rd statement is correct) Incorrect Solution (c) AR6 benchmark report of the UN Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) says unabated fossil fuels are those “without interventions that substantially reduce” greenhouse gas emissions. (Hence 1st statement is correct) Capturing 90% or more CO2 from power plants. (Hence 2nd statement is incorrect) Or 50–80% of fugitive methane emissions from energy supply. (Hence 3rd statement is correct) Question 12 of 35 12. Question Consider the following statements in context of ‘GM Mustard’: Hybridisation involves crossing two genetically dissimilar plant varieties that must be from different species only. The first-generation (F1) offspring from such crosses tend to have higher yields than what either parent can individually give. GM crops are derived from plants whose genes are artificially modified, usually by inserting genetic material from another organism. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Hybridisation involves crossing two genetically dissimilar plant varieties that can even be from the same species, not necessarily need different species. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect) The first-generation (F1) offspring from such crosses tend to have higher yields than what either parent can individually give. (Hence statement 2 is correct) GM crops are derived from plants whose genes are artificially modified, usually by inserting genetic material from another organism, in order to give it new properties, such as increased yield, tolerance to a herbicide, resistance to disease or drought, or improved nutritional value. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Incorrect Solution (b) Hybridisation involves crossing two genetically dissimilar plant varieties that can even be from the same species, not necessarily need different species. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect) The first-generation (F1) offspring from such crosses tend to have higher yields than what either parent can individually give. (Hence statement 2 is correct) GM crops are derived from plants whose genes are artificially modified, usually by inserting genetic material from another organism, in order to give it new properties, such as increased yield, tolerance to a herbicide, resistance to disease or drought, or improved nutritional value. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Question 13 of 35 13. Question At the COP26 summit in Scotland’s Glasgow, what significant aspect marked the ‘Glasgow pact’? a) Introduction of new climate targets b) Inclusion of nuclear energy in the pact c) Phase down of coal and phase out of fossil fuels d) Establishment of a global carbon tax system Correct Solution (c) Reached at the COP26 summit in Scotland’s Glasgow, the pact called for phase down of coal and phase out of fossil fuel. This was the first time that a UN climate agreement explicitly mentioned coal. The pact also marked the resolution of the deadlock over carbon markets. (Hence option c is correct) Incorrect Solution (c) Reached at the COP26 summit in Scotland’s Glasgow, the pact called for phase down of coal and phase out of fossil fuel. This was the first time that a UN climate agreement explicitly mentioned coal. The pact also marked the resolution of the deadlock over carbon markets. (Hence option c is correct) Question 14 of 35 14. Question Consider the following statements in context of ‘Global climate-change trends detected in indicators of ocean ecology’: It says one of the most affected areas is the tropical ocean near the equator, where the water is turning from blue to green. It suggests colour shift is more in regions where the oceans are getting more stratified. Ocean appears blue and navy blue because blue and violet have much shorter wavelength which get reflected back. Ocean appear green due to existence of phytoplankton. Which of the above statements are correct? a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2, 3 and 4 c) 3 and 4 d) All of the above Correct Solution (d) The study, ‘Global climate-change trends detected in indicators of ocean ecology’, was published earlier in July in the journal Nature. The study says one of the most affected areas is the Tropical Ocean regions, near the equator, where the water is turning from blue to green. (Hence statement 1 is correct) The findings suggest that a shift in colour is happening in those regions where the oceans are getting more stratified. (Hence statement 2 is correct) In most regions across the world, the oceans appear blue or navy blue for a reason. This happens due to “the absorption and scattering of light,” according to a report by NASA. (Hence statement 3 is correct) In other parts of the world, the oceans appear green, which happens due to the existence of phytoplankton on the upper surface of the water. (Hence statement 4 is correct) Incorrect Solution (d) The study, ‘Global climate-change trends detected in indicators of ocean ecology’, was published earlier in July in the journal Nature. The study says one of the most affected areas is the Tropical Ocean regions, near the equator, where the water is turning from blue to green. (Hence statement 1 is correct) The findings suggest that a shift in colour is happening in those regions where the oceans are getting more stratified. (Hence statement 2 is correct) In most regions across the world, the oceans appear blue or navy blue for a reason. This happens due to “the absorption and scattering of light,” according to a report by NASA. (Hence statement 3 is correct) In other parts of the world, the oceans appear green, which happens due to the existence of phytoplankton on the upper surface of the water. (Hence statement 4 is correct) Question 15 of 35 15. Question Consider the following statements about ‘Plastic Pollution’: New marine microbial habitat has been named as the “plastisphere”. Only 30% of annual plastic waste get recycled. Cigarette butts are the most common type of plastic waste found in the environment. PET (Polyethylene terephthalate) is the world’s most common plastic and also the most recyclable plastic. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) Plastics including microplastics are now ubiquitous in our natural environment. They are becoming part of the Earth’s fossil record and a marker of the Anthropocene, our current geological era. They have even given their name to a new marine microbial habitat called the “plastisphere”. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Only 9% of annual plastic waste recycled. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) Cigarette butts — whose filters contain tiny plastic fibres — are the most common type of plastic waste found in the environment. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Polyethylene terephthalate, the world’s most common plastic and also PET is the most recyclable plastic and there is a strong market for its byproduct used to make drink bottles, food containers or fibres for clothes. (Hence statement 4 is correct) Incorrect Solution (c) Plastics including microplastics are now ubiquitous in our natural environment. They are becoming part of the Earth’s fossil record and a marker of the Anthropocene, our current geological era. They have even given their name to a new marine microbial habitat called the “plastisphere”. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Only 9% of annual plastic waste recycled. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) Cigarette butts — whose filters contain tiny plastic fibres — are the most common type of plastic waste found in the environment. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Polyethylene terephthalate, the world’s most common plastic and also PET is the most recyclable plastic and there is a strong market for its byproduct used to make drink bottles, food containers or fibres for clothes. (Hence statement 4 is correct) Question 16 of 35 16. Question Which of the following plant species are invasive? Eucalyptus Prosopis juliflora Cassia Fistula Lantana camara Conocarpus Choose correct code from below options. a) 2, 3 and 4 b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 d) All of the above Correct Solution (c) In the Western Ghats, where vast plantations of eucalyptus and wattle were raised in the past by converting grasslands and shola forests, the original habitat of the Nilgiri Tahr has been devastated. Nowadays, the Indian Bison makes frequent visits to the Kodaikanal town in Tamil Nadu because of the non-availability of food plants due to extensive plantations of alien species. (Hence 1st is invasive) Recently, concerns over the management of the invasive Conocarpus species of trees have recently led Gujarat and, last year, Telangana, to ban their use. (Hence 5th is invasive) Several other states could follow suit which is likely to discourage horticulturists and nurseries from multiplying the species and using lakhs of its saplings in afforestation and landscaping projects across the country over the next year. Along with Conocarpus, Leucaena and Mangium also invasive plant species. Prosopis juliflora and Lantana camara also dominate public lands and commons. (Hence 2nd and 4th is invasive) Cassia fistula is a flowering plant in the family Fabaceae. The species is native to the Indian subcontinent and adjacent regions of Southeast Asia.(Hence 3rd is not invasive) Incorrect Solution (c) In the Western Ghats, where vast plantations of eucalyptus and wattle were raised in the past by converting grasslands and shola forests, the original habitat of the Nilgiri Tahr has been devastated. Nowadays, the Indian Bison makes frequent visits to the Kodaikanal town in Tamil Nadu because of the non-availability of food plants due to extensive plantations of alien species. (Hence 1st is invasive) Recently, concerns over the management of the invasive Conocarpus species of trees have recently led Gujarat and, last year, Telangana, to ban their use. (Hence 5th is invasive) Several other states could follow suit which is likely to discourage horticulturists and nurseries from multiplying the species and using lakhs of its saplings in afforestation and landscaping projects across the country over the next year. Along with Conocarpus, Leucaena and Mangium also invasive plant species. Prosopis juliflora and Lantana camara also dominate public lands and commons. (Hence 2nd and 4th is invasive) Cassia fistula is a flowering plant in the family Fabaceae. The species is native to the Indian subcontinent and adjacent regions of Southeast Asia.(Hence 3rd is not invasive) Question 17 of 35 17. Question Consider the following statements: Ecocline is a zone of gradual but continuous change from one ecosystem to another. Ecocide is ecological alternative to the chemical pesticides and herbicides. Ecotone is a zone of junction or a transition area between two biomes. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Ecocline is a zone of gradual but continuous change from one ecosystem to another when there is no sharp boundary between the two in terms of species composition. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Ecocide or ‘killing one’s home’ or ‘environment’ refers to acts like port expansion projects, deforestation, illegal sand mining, polluting rivers and releasing untreated sewage, etc., that destroy fragile natural ecosystems and local livelihoods. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) An ecotone is a zone of junction or a transition area between two biomes (diverse ecosystems. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Ecotone is the zone where two communities meet and integrate. For e.g. the mangrove forests represent an ecotone between marine and terrestrial ecosystem. Other examples are grassland (between forest and desert), estuary (between fresh water and salt water) and riverbank or marshland (between dry and wet). Incorrect Solution (b) Ecocline is a zone of gradual but continuous change from one ecosystem to another when there is no sharp boundary between the two in terms of species composition. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Ecocide or ‘killing one’s home’ or ‘environment’ refers to acts like port expansion projects, deforestation, illegal sand mining, polluting rivers and releasing untreated sewage, etc., that destroy fragile natural ecosystems and local livelihoods. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) An ecotone is a zone of junction or a transition area between two biomes (diverse ecosystems. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Ecotone is the zone where two communities meet and integrate. For e.g. the mangrove forests represent an ecotone between marine and terrestrial ecosystem. Other examples are grassland (between forest and desert), estuary (between fresh water and salt water) and riverbank or marshland (between dry and wet). Question 18 of 35 18. Question Consider the following statements about ‘EDGE Species’: The EDGE species have few or no close relatives on the tree of life. EDGE species are usually extremely distinct in the way they look, live, and behave, as well as in their genetic make-up. Which of the above statements are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) The EDGE have few or no close relatives on the tree of life. (Hence statement 1 is correct) EDGE species are usually extremely distinct in the way they look, live, and behave as well as in their genetic make-up. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Incorrect Solution (c) The EDGE have few or no close relatives on the tree of life. (Hence statement 1 is correct) EDGE species are usually extremely distinct in the way they look, live, and behave as well as in their genetic make-up. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Question 19 of 35 19. Question Consider the following statements about the ‘Basel Ban Amendment’ to the Basel Convention: It required ratification by 3/4 of the parties to the Convention to become a law and after Croatia’s ratification came into force. The Amendment prohibits the export of hazardous waste, including electronic wastes, from a list of developed countries to developing countries except for recycling. India has ratified Basel Ban Amendment. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Basel Ban Amendment required ratification by 3/4 of the parties to the Convention to become a law. It finally became an international law in September 2019 after Croatia ratified it. (Hence statement 1 is correct) The Amendment prohibits the export of hazardous waste (including electronic wastes) from a list of developed (mostly OECD) countries to developing countries. The Basel Ban applies to export for any reason, including recycling. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) It will become a new Article in the Convention and will enter into force in the 97 countries after 90 days. However, countries like the US, Canada, Japan, Australia, – New Zealand, South Korea, Russia, India, Brazil, and Mexico are yet to ratify the ban. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) Incorrect Solution (a) Basel Ban Amendment required ratification by 3/4 of the parties to the Convention to become a law. It finally became an international law in September 2019 after Croatia ratified it. (Hence statement 1 is correct) The Amendment prohibits the export of hazardous waste (including electronic wastes) from a list of developed (mostly OECD) countries to developing countries. The Basel Ban applies to export for any reason, including recycling. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) It will become a new Article in the Convention and will enter into force in the 97 countries after 90 days. However, countries like the US, Canada, Japan, Australia, – New Zealand, South Korea, Russia, India, Brazil, and Mexico are yet to ratify the ban. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) Question 20 of 35 20. Question = Which of the following committees are related to the protection of ‘Eco Sensitive Zones (ESZ)’ of Western Ghat? Madhav Gadgil Committee Kasturirangan Committee Shailesh Nayak Committee Choose correct code. a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) All of the above Correct Solution (a) In order to protect and conserve Western Ghats, MoEFCC had constituted two Committees viz., the Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP) headed by Prof. Madhav Gadgil. (Hence 1st is correct) The High Level Working Group (HLWG) headed by Dr. K. Kasturirangan, to review the recommendations of the WGEEP. (Hence 2nd is correct) On the basis of the report of the HLWG, MoEFCC has brought out a draft notification, declaring biologically and culturally diverse areas as Eco-sensitive Area, requiring protection and conservation. The draft of Western Ghats Eco-sensitive Area was re-notified for the fifth time on 6th July, 2022 and a Committee has also been specifically constituted to assist in consultation with the State Governments for finalizing the notification. The validity of the draft notification is till 30th June 2024. Shailesh Nayak committee was not related to western ghat and appointed to review Coastal Regulation Zones. (Hence 3rd is incorrect) Incorrect Solution (a) In order to protect and conserve Western Ghats, MoEFCC had constituted two Committees viz., the Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP) headed by Prof. Madhav Gadgil. (Hence 1st is correct) The High Level Working Group (HLWG) headed by Dr. K. Kasturirangan, to review the recommendations of the WGEEP. (Hence 2nd is correct) On the basis of the report of the HLWG, MoEFCC has brought out a draft notification, declaring biologically and culturally diverse areas as Eco-sensitive Area, requiring protection and conservation. The draft of Western Ghats Eco-sensitive Area was re-notified for the fifth time on 6th July, 2022 and a Committee has also been specifically constituted to assist in consultation with the State Governments for finalizing the notification. The validity of the draft notification is till 30th June 2024. Shailesh Nayak committee was not related to western ghat and appointed to review Coastal Regulation Zones. (Hence 3rd is incorrect) Question 21 of 35 21. Question Consider the following statements regarding Salt-water Crocodiles: They are the largest of all crocodilians and the largest reptile in the world. They communicate through barking, hissing, growling, and chirping. They are found only in the tropical latitude of the eastern Indian Ocean. They are listed as critically endangered on the IUCN Red List and are protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (b) Salt-water Crocodiles are the largest of all crocodilians and the largest reptile in the world. Hence statement 1 is correct. Female saltwater crocodiles are smaller in size than their male counterparts, normally reaching a maximum length of 2.5 to 3 m. They communicate through barking, hissing, growling, and chirping. Hence statement 2 is correct. They tolerate salinity and are found mostly in coastal waters or near rivers. They are also found in freshwater near rivers and swamps. They are found in tropical to warm temperate latitudes in the eastern Indian and western Pacific oceans. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Saltwater crocodiles have a variety of prey. Juveniles are restricted to small insects, amphibians, reptiles, crustaceans, and small fish. Adults feed on crabs, turtles, snakes, birds, buffalo, wild boar, and monkeys. They are listed as least concern on the IUCN Red List and are protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Hence statement 4 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (b) Salt-water Crocodiles are the largest of all crocodilians and the largest reptile in the world. Hence statement 1 is correct. Female saltwater crocodiles are smaller in size than their male counterparts, normally reaching a maximum length of 2.5 to 3 m. They communicate through barking, hissing, growling, and chirping. Hence statement 2 is correct. They tolerate salinity and are found mostly in coastal waters or near rivers. They are also found in freshwater near rivers and swamps. They are found in tropical to warm temperate latitudes in the eastern Indian and western Pacific oceans. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Saltwater crocodiles have a variety of prey. Juveniles are restricted to small insects, amphibians, reptiles, crustaceans, and small fish. Adults feed on crabs, turtles, snakes, birds, buffalo, wild boar, and monkeys. They are listed as least concern on the IUCN Red List and are protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Hence statement 4 is incorrect. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements regarding the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT): It is a statutory body constituted under the Companies Act of 2013. It hears appeals against the orders of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT). The appeal against the orders passed by the NCLAT lies in the Supreme Court of India. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) The National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) is a statutory body constituted under the Companies Act of 2013. Hence statement 1 is correct. It hears appeals against the orders of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT). Hence statement 2 is correct. It is also the appellate tribunal for orders passed by the NCLT(s) under Section 61 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016, and for orders passed by the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) under Sections 202 and 211 of the IBC. The appeal against the orders passed by the NCLAT lies in the Supreme Court of India. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) The National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) is a statutory body constituted under the Companies Act of 2013. Hence statement 1 is correct. It hears appeals against the orders of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT). Hence statement 2 is correct. It is also the appellate tribunal for orders passed by the NCLT(s) under Section 61 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016, and for orders passed by the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) under Sections 202 and 211 of the IBC. The appeal against the orders passed by the NCLAT lies in the Supreme Court of India. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 23 of 35 23. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Global Alliance for Global Good: It is a new alliance for global good, gender equity, and equality established by the United States. It marks a significant stride toward achieving Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) 3(Good Health and Well-Being), and 4 (Quality Education). Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) The Global Alliance for Global Good – Gender Equity and Equality is a new alliance for global good, gender equity, and equality established by India on the sidelines of the 54th annual World Economic Forum (WEF) meeting in Davos. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The alliance will bring together worldwide best practices, knowledge sharing, and investment opportunities in women’s education, health, and enterprise. This initiative marks a significant stride toward achieving multiple Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), including SDG 3(Good Health and Well-Being), 4(Quality Education), 5(Gender Equality and Empowerment), and 17(Global Partnership for Development). Hence statement 2 is correct. It is supported by the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation, the alliance will be housed and anchored by the CII Centre for Women Leadership.   Incorrect Solution (b) The Global Alliance for Global Good – Gender Equity and Equality is a new alliance for global good, gender equity, and equality established by India on the sidelines of the 54th annual World Economic Forum (WEF) meeting in Davos. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The alliance will bring together worldwide best practices, knowledge sharing, and investment opportunities in women’s education, health, and enterprise. This initiative marks a significant stride toward achieving multiple Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), including SDG 3(Good Health and Well-Being), 4(Quality Education), 5(Gender Equality and Empowerment), and 17(Global Partnership for Development). Hence statement 2 is correct. It is supported by the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation, the alliance will be housed and anchored by the CII Centre for Women Leadership.   Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements regarding Mahayogi Vemana: He was an Achala yogi, philosopher, social reformer, and poet of the Telugu language. His poems were published as a book by Charles Philip Brown even before independence. Most of his poems end with the signature line of “Vishwadaabhi Rama Vinura Vema” How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Mahayogi Vemana was an Achala yogi, philosopher, social reformer, and poet of the Telugu language. Hence statement 1 is correct. He lived in the 17th century CE and was born in Gandikota, Kadapa district of Rayalaseema region in Andhra Pradesh. Vemana’s poems are categorized into social, moral, satirical, and mystic nature. His poems are treated as the best morals by the Telugu ancestors. His poems were preserved by people on palm leaves or orally (vocal). His poems were published as a book (shatakam) by Charles Philip Brown, ICS, two times in 1829 and 1839. Hence statement 2 is correct. He had a friend called Abhirama. Abhirama’s guru taught Vemana moksha. Most of his poems end with the signature line of “Vishwadaabhi Rama Vinura Vema” (Hey! Abhirama listen Vemana). Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) Mahayogi Vemana was an Achala yogi, philosopher, social reformer, and poet of the Telugu language. Hence statement 1 is correct. He lived in the 17th century CE and was born in Gandikota, Kadapa district of Rayalaseema region in Andhra Pradesh. Vemana’s poems are categorized into social, moral, satirical, and mystic nature. His poems are treated as the best morals by the Telugu ancestors. His poems were preserved by people on palm leaves or orally (vocal). His poems were published as a book (shatakam) by Charles Philip Brown, ICS, two times in 1829 and 1839. Hence statement 2 is correct. He had a friend called Abhirama. Abhirama’s guru taught Vemana moksha. Most of his poems end with the signature line of “Vishwadaabhi Rama Vinura Vema” (Hey! Abhirama listen Vemana). Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements regarding H-1B Visa: It is a non-immigrant visa that allows US companies to employ foreign workers in specialty occupations. It is valid for five years and can be extended one time for an additional five years. Applicants for H-1B Visas are selected for adjudication via a lottery system. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) H-1B Visa is a non-immigrant visa that allows US companies to employ foreign workers in specialty occupations. Hence statement 1 is correct. A specialty occupation requires the application of a body of highly specialized knowledge and the attainment of at least a bachelor’s degree or its equivalent. The H-1B provisions intend to help employers who cannot otherwise obtain needed business skills and abilities from the U.S. workforce by authorizing the temporary employment of qualified individuals who are not otherwise authorized to work in the United States. It is valid for three years and can be extended one time for an additional three years. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. In general, the H-1B is valid for a maximum of six years. There is no limit to the number of H1-B Visas that an individual can have in his or her lifetime. H1-B holders can seek a Green Card or Lawful Permanent Residency for themselves and their families. Applicants for H-1B Visas are selected for adjudication via a lottery system. Hence statement 3 is correct. The annual H-1B visa limit is 85,000. There are 65,000 regular H-1B visas each year, and an additional 20,000 visas are reserved for applicants with advanced degrees. Incorrect Solution (b) H-1B Visa is a non-immigrant visa that allows US companies to employ foreign workers in specialty occupations. Hence statement 1 is correct. A specialty occupation requires the application of a body of highly specialized knowledge and the attainment of at least a bachelor’s degree or its equivalent. The H-1B provisions intend to help employers who cannot otherwise obtain needed business skills and abilities from the U.S. workforce by authorizing the temporary employment of qualified individuals who are not otherwise authorized to work in the United States. It is valid for three years and can be extended one time for an additional three years. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. In general, the H-1B is valid for a maximum of six years. There is no limit to the number of H1-B Visas that an individual can have in his or her lifetime. H1-B holders can seek a Green Card or Lawful Permanent Residency for themselves and their families. Applicants for H-1B Visas are selected for adjudication via a lottery system. Hence statement 3 is correct. The annual H-1B visa limit is 85,000. There are 65,000 regular H-1B visas each year, and an additional 20,000 visas are reserved for applicants with advanced degrees. Question 26 of 35 26. Question Consider the following statements regarding Shumang Leela: It is a traditional form of theatre in Mizoram in which the roles of female artists are all played by male actors. Nupa Shumang Leela is performed only by men and Nupi Shumang Leela is performed only by women. It is believed to be descended from Lai Haraoba, a ritual of the Meitei community of Mizoram. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Shumang Leela is a traditional form of theatre in Manipur in which the roles of female artists are all played by male actors. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The male characters are played by female artists in the case of female theatre groups. It started as a comic genre for royalty and has evolved into a powerful medium for mass education, entertainment, and relaxation. In this, the roles of women are all played by men, called Nupi Shabis. The female roles are taken up by transgender actors. Nupa Shumang Leela is performed only by men and Nupi Shumang Leela is performed only by women. Hence statement 2 is correct. The plays provide a vehicle for educating the public about social, political, and economic issues. It is believed to be descended from Lai Haraoba, a ritual of the Meitei community of Manipur. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Lai Haraoba is a religious festival celebrated by the Meitei people who are largely settled in and around Manipur. It is held at neighborhood shrines dedicated to the local umanglai deities. It is observed in the months between February and May-June. Incorrect Solution (a) Shumang Leela is a traditional form of theatre in Manipur in which the roles of female artists are all played by male actors. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The male characters are played by female artists in the case of female theatre groups. It started as a comic genre for royalty and has evolved into a powerful medium for mass education, entertainment, and relaxation. In this, the roles of women are all played by men, called Nupi Shabis. The female roles are taken up by transgender actors. Nupa Shumang Leela is performed only by men and Nupi Shumang Leela is performed only by women. Hence statement 2 is correct. The plays provide a vehicle for educating the public about social, political, and economic issues. It is believed to be descended from Lai Haraoba, a ritual of the Meitei community of Manipur. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Lai Haraoba is a religious festival celebrated by the Meitei people who are largely settled in and around Manipur. It is held at neighborhood shrines dedicated to the local umanglai deities. It is observed in the months between February and May-June. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements: The Directorate General of Civil Aviation is the regulatory body in the field of civil aviation primarily dealing with safety issues. The e-Governance for Civil Aviation (e-GCA) aims at enhancing the efficiency of the various services of the Directorate General of Civil Aviation. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is the regulatory body in the field of civil aviation primarily dealing with safety issues. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is responsible for the regulation of air transport services to/from/within India and for the enforcement of civil air regulations, air safety, and airworthiness standards. It also co-ordinates all regulatory functions with the International Civil Aviation Organisation. The e-Governance for Civil Aviation (e-GCA) aims at enhancing the efficiency of the various services of the Directorate General of Civil Aviation. Hence statement 2 is correct. It helps to increase accountability and transparency across all DGCA functions. It will provide services to various DGCA stakeholders such as pilots, aircraft maintenance engineers, air traffic controllers, air operators, airport operators, flying training organizations, and maintenance and design organizations, among others. Incorrect Solution (c) The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is the regulatory body in the field of civil aviation primarily dealing with safety issues. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is responsible for the regulation of air transport services to/from/within India and for the enforcement of civil air regulations, air safety, and airworthiness standards. It also co-ordinates all regulatory functions with the International Civil Aviation Organisation. The e-Governance for Civil Aviation (e-GCA) aims at enhancing the efficiency of the various services of the Directorate General of Civil Aviation. Hence statement 2 is correct. It helps to increase accountability and transparency across all DGCA functions. It will provide services to various DGCA stakeholders such as pilots, aircraft maintenance engineers, air traffic controllers, air operators, airport operators, flying training organizations, and maintenance and design organizations, among others. Question 28 of 35 28. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Corruption Perception Index (CPI): It is an annual index released by Transparency International, a global civil society organization. Denmark topped the index while Somalia was ranked last in the index. Pakistan has performed better than India and China in the index. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Corruption Perception Index (CPI) is an annual index released by Transparency International, a global civil society organization. Hence statement 1 is correct. Since its inception in 1995, the Corruption Perceptions Index has become the leading global indicator of public sector corruption. The CPI ranks 180 countries and territories by their perceived levels of public sector corruption on a scale of zero (highly corrupt) to 100 (very clean). It uses data from 13 external sources, including the World Bank, World Economic Forum, private risk and consulting companies, think tanks, and others. Denmark topped the index while Somalia was ranked last in the index. Hence statement 2 is correct. CPI global average score remains unchanged at 43 for the twelfth year in a row. India has tied with Maldives, Kazakhstan, and Lesotho to rank at 93 out of 180 countries. In 2022, India was ranked at 85. Pakistan scored 29 with a rank of 133 and China, scored 42 occupying rank 76. Hence, Pakistan has not performed better than India and China in the index. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (b) The Corruption Perception Index (CPI) is an annual index released by Transparency International, a global civil society organization. Hence statement 1 is correct. Since its inception in 1995, the Corruption Perceptions Index has become the leading global indicator of public sector corruption. The CPI ranks 180 countries and territories by their perceived levels of public sector corruption on a scale of zero (highly corrupt) to 100 (very clean). It uses data from 13 external sources, including the World Bank, World Economic Forum, private risk and consulting companies, think tanks, and others. Denmark topped the index while Somalia was ranked last in the index. Hence statement 2 is correct. CPI global average score remains unchanged at 43 for the twelfth year in a row. India has tied with Maldives, Kazakhstan, and Lesotho to rank at 93 out of 180 countries. In 2022, India was ranked at 85. Pakistan scored 29 with a rank of 133 and China, scored 42 occupying rank 76. Hence, Pakistan has not performed better than India and China in the index. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Question 29 of 35 29. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI): Initially, it was established under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. Its mandate is to research exploited and unexploited marine fisheries resources and fisheries oceanography. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) The Central Marine Fisheries Research Institutewas established by the Government of India in 1947 under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare and later it joined the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) in 1967. Hence statement 1 is correct. ICAR is the largest network of agricultural research and education institutes in the world functioning under the Department of Agricultural Research and Education, Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare. Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute’s mandate is to conduct research on exploited and unexploited marine fisheries resources and fisheries oceanography, to advise on rational exploitation and make a forecast of abundance, development, and upgradation of technologies for maximising production through mariculture, and conduct teaching, training and extension programmes for the development of human resources in fisheries. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) The Central Marine Fisheries Research Institutewas established by the Government of India in 1947 under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare and later it joined the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) in 1967. Hence statement 1 is correct. ICAR is the largest network of agricultural research and education institutes in the world functioning under the Department of Agricultural Research and Education, Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare. Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute’s mandate is to conduct research on exploited and unexploited marine fisheries resources and fisheries oceanography, to advise on rational exploitation and make a forecast of abundance, development, and upgradation of technologies for maximising production through mariculture, and conduct teaching, training and extension programmes for the development of human resources in fisheries. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 30 of 35 30. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Amendment Act of 2021: It allowed for a termination under the opinion of three doctors for pregnancies up to 20 weeks. It permitted married women to terminate pregnancies up to 20 weeks in case of contraceptive method or device failure. The Suchita Srivastava vs. Chandigarh Administration Case encompasses reproductive autonomy and healthcare under Article 21. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Amendment Act of 2021 allowed for a termination under the opinion of one doctor for pregnancies up to 20 weeks. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Rules, 2021 defines the situations that define eligibility criteria for termination of pregnancy up to 24 weeks. The amended act and the MTP (Amendment) Rules, 2021, specified seven categories (Survivors of sexual assault or rape or incest; Minors; etc) of women who would be eligible for seeking termination of pregnancy, for a period of up to 24 weeks. After 24 weeks, a medical board must be set up in “approved facilities”, which may “allow or deny termination of pregnancy” only if there is substantial foetal abnormality. It permitted married women to terminate pregnancies up to 20 weeks in case of contraceptive method or device failure. Hence statement 2 is correct. The Medical Board will assess pregnancies beyond 24 weeks for substantial foetal abnormalities. It should comprise specialists like gynaecologists, paediatricians, and radiologists, and will be established by all state and union territory governments. The Suchita Srivastava vs. Chandigarh Administration Case encompasses reproductive autonomy and healthcare under Article 21. Hence statement 3 is correct. Recently the Supreme Court observed that the rights of an unborn child must be balanced with a woman’s reproductive rights.   Incorrect Solution (b) The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Amendment Act of 2021 allowed for a termination under the opinion of one doctor for pregnancies up to 20 weeks. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Rules, 2021 defines the situations that define eligibility criteria for termination of pregnancy up to 24 weeks. The amended act and the MTP (Amendment) Rules, 2021, specified seven categories (Survivors of sexual assault or rape or incest; Minors; etc) of women who would be eligible for seeking termination of pregnancy, for a period of up to 24 weeks. After 24 weeks, a medical board must be set up in “approved facilities”, which may “allow or deny termination of pregnancy” only if there is substantial foetal abnormality. It permitted married women to terminate pregnancies up to 20 weeks in case of contraceptive method or device failure. Hence statement 2 is correct. The Medical Board will assess pregnancies beyond 24 weeks for substantial foetal abnormalities. It should comprise specialists like gynaecologists, paediatricians, and radiologists, and will be established by all state and union territory governments. The Suchita Srivastava vs. Chandigarh Administration Case encompasses reproductive autonomy and healthcare under Article 21. Hence statement 3 is correct. Recently the Supreme Court observed that the rights of an unborn child must be balanced with a woman’s reproductive rights.   Question 31 of 35 31. Question The remainder when 40 + 41 + 42 + 43 + ………. + 440 is divided by 17 is: a) 1 b) 0 c) 4 d) 8 Correct Solution (a) Let S be the sum of the expression, Then S = 40 + 41 + 42 + 43 + …….. + 40 S = (1 + 4 + 16 + 64) + 44 (1 = 4 + 16 + 64) + …… + 436 + 440 Since, (1 + 4 + 16 + 64) = 85, is divisible by 17. Hence, except 440 remaining expression is divisible by 17. Thus, (440/17)—->((44)10/17)—–>(110/17) Hence, remainder = 1 Incorrect Solution (a) Let S be the sum of the expression, Then S = 40 + 41 + 42 + 43 + …….. + 40 S = (1 + 4 + 16 + 64) + 44 (1 = 4 + 16 + 64) + …… + 436 + 440 Since, (1 + 4 + 16 + 64) = 85, is divisible by 17. Hence, except 440 remaining expression is divisible by 17. Thus, (440/17)—->((44)10/17)—–>(110/17) Hence, remainder = 1 Question 32 of 35 32. Question If (64)^2 – (36)^2 = 20 * X, then X =? a) 180 b) 140 c) 70 d) 120 Correct Solution (b) 20 * x = (64+36)(64−36) 20 * x = 100 × 28 Therefore, x = (100*28)/20 = 140 Incorrect Solution (b) 20 * x = (64+36)(64−36) 20 * x = 100 × 28 Therefore, x = (100*28)/20 = 140 Question 33 of 35 33. Question If four numbers in A.P. are such that their sum is 50 and the greatest number is 4 times the least, then the numbers are a) 3, 7, 11, 15 b) 4, 10, 16, 22 c) 5, 10, 15, 20 d) 6, 11, 7, 14 Correct Solution (c) 4 numbers are in A.P. Let the numbers be a – 3d, a – d, a + d, a + 3d Where a is the first term and 2d is the common difference Now their sum = 50 a – 3d + a – d + a + d + a + 3d = 50 Incorrect Solution (c) 4 numbers are in A.P. Let the numbers be a – 3d, a – d, a + d, a + 3d Where a is the first term and 2d is the common difference Now their sum = 50 a – 3d + a – d + a + d + a + 3d = 50 Question 34 of 35 34. Question Four bells ring simultaneously at starting and an interval of 6sec, 12sec, 15sec and 20sec respectively. How many times they ring together in 2 hours? a) 120 b) 60 c) 121 d) 112 Correct Solution (c) Four bells ring simultaneously at starting and an interval of 6 sec, 12 sec, 15 sec and 20 sec respectively. LCM of (6, 12, 15, 20) = 60 All 4 bells ring together again after every 60 seconds Now, In 2 hours, they ring together = [(2*60*60)/60] times + 1 (at the starting) = 121 times Therefore, In 2 hours they ring together for 121 times. Incorrect Solution (c) Four bells ring simultaneously at starting and an interval of 6 sec, 12 sec, 15 sec and 20 sec respectively. LCM of (6, 12, 15, 20) = 60 All 4 bells ring together again after every 60 seconds Now, In 2 hours, they ring together = [(2*60*60)/60] times + 1 (at the starting) = 121 times Therefore, In 2 hours they ring together for 121 times. Question 35 of 35 35. Question The price of rice falls by 20%. How much rice can be bought now with the money that was sufficient to buy 20 kg of rice previously? a) 5kg b) 15kg c) 30kg d) 25kg Correct Solution (d) Let Rs. 100 be spent on rice initially for 20 kg. As the price falls by 20%, new price for 20 kg rice, = (100 – 20% of 100) = 80 New price of rice = 80/20 = Rs. 4 per kg. Rice can bought now at = 100/4 = 25 kg   Incorrect Solution (d) Let Rs. 100 be spent on rice initially for 20 kg. As the price falls by 20%, new price for 20 kg rice, = (100 – 20% of 100) = 80 New price of rice = 80/20 = Rs. 4 per kg. 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