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The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.
20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.
It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects.
Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday)
Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule.
Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday)
CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.
Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published.
Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.
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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022.
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Question 1 of 35
1. Question
Consider the following:
Radioactive waste is any pollution that emits radiation which is naturally released by the environment.
Radioactive waste can persist in environment for not more than a hundred years.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Incorrect
Incorrect
Radioactive waste is any pollution that emits radiation beyond what is naturally released by the environment. It’s generated by uranium mining, nuclear power plants, and the production and testing of military weapons, as well as by universities and hospitals that use radioactive materials for research and medicine. Hence, statement 1 is false.
Radioactive waste can persist in the environment for thousands of years, making disposal a major challenge. Accidentally released or improperly disposed of contaminants threaten groundwater, surface water, and marine resources. Hence, statement 2 is false.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Incorrect
Incorrect
Radioactive waste is any pollution that emits radiation beyond what is naturally released by the environment. It’s generated by uranium mining, nuclear power plants, and the production and testing of military weapons, as well as by universities and hospitals that use radioactive materials for research and medicine. Hence, statement 1 is false.
Radioactive waste can persist in the environment for thousands of years, making disposal a major challenge. Accidentally released or improperly disposed of contaminants threaten groundwater, surface water, and marine resources. Hence, statement 2 is false.
Question 2 of 35
2. Question
Consider the following with regard to ‘Butterfly Mines’, recently in the news:
They are anti-tank mines.
They can be deployed in the field only through air-dropping via helicopters.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Incorrect
Incorrect
The PFM-1 and PFM-1S are two kinds of anti-personnel landmines that are commonly referred to as ‘Butterfly mines’ or ‘Green Parrots’. In Donetsk and Kramatorsk, Russia has highly likely attempted employment of PFM-1 and PFM-1S scatterable anti-personnel mines. Commonly called the ‘butterfly mine’, the PFM-1 series are deeply controversial, indiscriminate weapons. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
These mines can be deployed in the field of action through several means, which include being dropped from helicopters or through ballistic dispersion using artillery and mortar shells. These mines glide to the ground without exploding and later explode on coming in contact. Since these mines were green in color when they were first put to use them also earned the name ‘Green Parrots’. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Incorrect
Incorrect
The PFM-1 and PFM-1S are two kinds of anti-personnel landmines that are commonly referred to as ‘Butterfly mines’ or ‘Green Parrots’. In Donetsk and Kramatorsk, Russia has highly likely attempted employment of PFM-1 and PFM-1S scatterable anti-personnel mines. Commonly called the ‘butterfly mine’, the PFM-1 series are deeply controversial, indiscriminate weapons. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
These mines can be deployed in the field of action through several means, which include being dropped from helicopters or through ballistic dispersion using artillery and mortar shells. These mines glide to the ground without exploding and later explode on coming in contact. Since these mines were green in color when they were first put to use them also earned the name ‘Green Parrots’. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Question 3 of 35
3. Question
Consider the following in the context of the Advanced Towed Artillery Gun System (ATAGS):
ATAGS is an indigenously developed howitzer gun.
The ATAGS is developed by the Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd (BHEL).
Which of the above statements is/are true?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Incorrect
In a first, an indigenously developed howitzer gun, ATAG, became part of the 21-gun salute during the Independence Day ceremony at the Red Fort. Developed by the DRDO, the Advanced Towed Artillery Gun System (ATAGS) was used alongside the traditional British-origin ’25 Pounders’ artillery guns. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The ATAGS is an indigenous 155 mm x 52 calibre howitzer gun developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) with its Pune-based facility Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE) being the nodal agency. Howitzers is an umbrella term for a category of long-range artillery guns. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Incorrect
In a first, an indigenously developed howitzer gun, ATAG, became part of the 21-gun salute during the Independence Day ceremony at the Red Fort. Developed by the DRDO, the Advanced Towed Artillery Gun System (ATAGS) was used alongside the traditional British-origin ’25 Pounders’ artillery guns. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The ATAGS is an indigenous 155 mm x 52 calibre howitzer gun developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) with its Pune-based facility Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE) being the nodal agency. Howitzers is an umbrella term for a category of long-range artillery guns. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Question 4 of 35
4. Question
Consider the following with regard to the Dornier 228 aircraft
It has been manufactured by the National Aerospace Laboratories.
It is a versatile multi-purpose light transport aircraft.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Incorrect
Correct
Built by Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd or HAL, the aircraft is a highly versatile multi-purpose light transport aircraft. It has been developed specifically to meet the manifold requirements of utility and commuter transport, third level services and air-taxi operations, coast guard duties and maritime surveillance.
Roles:
· Maritime Surveillance
· Pollution Prevention
· Troop Transport
· Aerial Survey
· Search and Rescue
· Commuter Transport
· Calibration of airport NAV-COM Aids
· Remote Sensing Applications
· Causality Evacuation
· Executive Transport
· Cargo & Logistics Support
Hence statement 1 is not true.
The 19 seater HAL – DO – 228 aircraft is a highly versatile multi-purpose light transport aircraft. It has been developed specifically to meet the manifold requirements of utility and commuter transport, third level services and air-taxi operations, coast guard duties and maritime surveillance.
Hence, statement 2 is true.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Incorrect
Correct
Built by Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd or HAL, the aircraft is a highly versatile multi-purpose light transport aircraft. It has been developed specifically to meet the manifold requirements of utility and commuter transport, third level services and air-taxi operations, coast guard duties and maritime surveillance.
Roles:
· Maritime Surveillance
· Pollution Prevention
· Troop Transport
· Aerial Survey
· Search and Rescue
· Commuter Transport
· Calibration of airport NAV-COM Aids
· Remote Sensing Applications
· Causality Evacuation
· Executive Transport
· Cargo & Logistics Support
Hence statement 1 is not true.
The 19 seater HAL – DO – 228 aircraft is a highly versatile multi-purpose light transport aircraft. It has been developed specifically to meet the manifold requirements of utility and commuter transport, third level services and air-taxi operations, coast guard duties and maritime surveillance.
Hence, statement 2 is true.
Question 5 of 35
5. Question
Consider the following statements about S-400 missile:
It is indigenously developed by DRDO.
It can hit the target up to an altitude of 400km.
It is a surface-to-surface missile.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Incorrect
Incorrect
Incorrect
It is developed in Russia. It is one of the world’s most Advanced air defence system.
S-400 missile system carries separate radar systems which can detect aerial targets to a range of 400 km. It can hit target up to altitude of 30 km.
It is a mobile long-range surface-to-air missile system
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Incorrect
Incorrect
Incorrect
It is developed in Russia. It is one of the world’s most Advanced air defence system.
S-400 missile system carries separate radar systems which can detect aerial targets to a range of 400 km. It can hit target up to altitude of 30 km.
It is a mobile long-range surface-to-air missile system
Question 6 of 35
6. Question
Consider the following statements about Pralay missile:
It is developed by DRDO.
It is a surface-to-surface missile.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Correct
Pralay missile is developed by DRDO. It has a range of 150-500 km. It is a Short Range Ballistic Missile.
Pralay missle is a surface-to-surface missile. Its payload capacity is 500-1000kg.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Correct
Pralay missile is developed by DRDO. It has a range of 150-500 km. It is a Short Range Ballistic Missile.
Pralay missle is a surface-to-surface missile. Its payload capacity is 500-1000kg.
Question 7 of 35
7. Question
Consider the following:
ASTRA is a missile system designed to be mounted on fighter aircraft.
ASTRA missile system is being integrated with Rafael aircraft of the Indian Air Force.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Incorrect
ASTRA is a Beyond Visual Range (BVR) class of Air-to-Air Missile (AAM) system designed to be mounted on fighter aircraft. The missile is designed to engage and destroy highly maneuvering supersonic aircraft. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The missile has all weather day and night capability. The missile is being developed in multiple variants to meet specific requirements. The ASTRA Mk-I Weapon System integrated with SU-30 Mk-I aircraft is being inducted into the Indian Air Force (IAF). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Incorrect
ASTRA is a Beyond Visual Range (BVR) class of Air-to-Air Missile (AAM) system designed to be mounted on fighter aircraft. The missile is designed to engage and destroy highly maneuvering supersonic aircraft. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The missile has all weather day and night capability. The missile is being developed in multiple variants to meet specific requirements. The ASTRA Mk-I Weapon System integrated with SU-30 Mk-I aircraft is being inducted into the Indian Air Force (IAF). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Question 8 of 35
8. Question
With reference to cruise missiles, consider the following statements:
Cruise missiles have ranges of 300 to 5000 km.
They are easy to intercept.
They have low precision.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (a)
Cruise missiles have short ranges of 300 to 1000 km. Hence, statement 1 is false.
They are easy to intercept because of high terminal speeds. Hence, statement 2 is true.
They have high precision due to the navigation system. Hence, statement 3 is false.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Cruise missiles have short ranges of 300 to 1000 km. Hence, statement 1 is false.
They are easy to intercept because of high terminal speeds. Hence, statement 2 is true.
They have high precision due to the navigation system. Hence, statement 3 is false.
Question 9 of 35
9. Question
With reference to Drones, consider the following statements:
In India, the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) governs the use of all (manned or automated) aerial vehicles.
Rustom-2 is a medium altitude long endurance indigenous prototype drone.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (c)
A drone or UAV (Unmanned Aerial Vehicle) is a remotely controlled flying device. Drones do not require much technical expertise to use.
In India, the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) governs the use of all (manned or automated) aerial vehicles. Hence, statement 1 is true.
In 2020, the Defense Research and Development Organization (DRDO) flight tested the Rustom-2 medium altitude long endurance indigenous prototype drone. It is a surveillance drone. Hence, statement 2 is true.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
A drone or UAV (Unmanned Aerial Vehicle) is a remotely controlled flying device. Drones do not require much technical expertise to use.
In India, the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) governs the use of all (manned or automated) aerial vehicles. Hence, statement 1 is true.
In 2020, the Defense Research and Development Organization (DRDO) flight tested the Rustom-2 medium altitude long endurance indigenous prototype drone. It is a surveillance drone. Hence, statement 2 is true.
Question 10 of 35
10. Question
Consider the following statements
Statement-I :
A ballistic missile is difficult to intercept.
Statement-II :
Prithvi-I is a long-range surface-to-surface tactical ballistic missile.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Correct
Solution (c)
A ballistic missile is generally a projectile shot up in the atmosphere. They are difficult to intercept due to high terminal speeds of 5000 m/s. Hence, statement 1 is true.
Prithvi-I is a short-range surface-to-surface tactical ballistic missile. Hence, statement 2 is false.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
A ballistic missile is generally a projectile shot up in the atmosphere. They are difficult to intercept due to high terminal speeds of 5000 m/s. Hence, statement 1 is true.
Prithvi-I is a short-range surface-to-surface tactical ballistic missile. Hence, statement 2 is false.
Question 11 of 35
11. Question
Consider the following statements
Statement-I :
Supersonic combustion ramjet or Scramjet operate at supersonic speeds.
Statement-II :
Air from the atmosphere is rammed into the scramjet engine’s combustion chamber at a supersonic speed.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Correct
Solution (d)
Ramjets operate at supersonic speeds, and Scramjets operate at hypersonic speeds. Hence, statement 1 is false.
In the chamber, the air mixes with the fuel to ignite a supersonic combustion but the cruiser’s flight will be at a hypersonic speed of Mach six to seven. Air from the atmosphere was then rammed into the scramjet engine’s combustion chamber at a supersonic speed. The air mixed with the atomized fuel, the fuel was ignited and the scramjet engine revved into action. Hence, statement 2 is true.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Ramjets operate at supersonic speeds, and Scramjets operate at hypersonic speeds. Hence, statement 1 is false.
In the chamber, the air mixes with the fuel to ignite a supersonic combustion but the cruiser’s flight will be at a hypersonic speed of Mach six to seven. Air from the atmosphere was then rammed into the scramjet engine’s combustion chamber at a supersonic speed. The air mixed with the atomized fuel, the fuel was ignited and the scramjet engine revved into action. Hence, statement 2 is true.
Question 12 of 35
12. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Harpoon Missiles:
It is a U.S.-designed subsonic antiship cruise missile.
It has a range of more than 2000 km.
It is an all-weather, over-the-horizon, anti-ship missile system.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) One only
b) Two only
c) Three only
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
Taiwan recently decided to buy 400 U.S. land-launched Harpoon missiles in the face of rising threat from China.
It is a S.-designed subsonic antiship cruise missile that has been in service since 1977. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
Numerous variants have been produced since its inception, including air-, ship-, and sub-launched versions.
It is currently in service with the armed forces of more than 30 countries including India.
Features:
It is an all-weather, over-the-horizon, anti-ship missile system. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
Propulsion: Turbojet, solid propellent.
It has a low-level, sea-skimming cruise trajectory with active radar guidance.
It is capable of executing both land-strike and anti-ship missions.
This missile is fitted with a heavy 221-kilogram penetration blast warhead.
It uses GPS-aided inertial navigation to hit a designated target aimpoint.
Range: 90-240 km. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Taiwan recently decided to buy 400 U.S. land-launched Harpoon missiles in the face of rising threat from China.
It is a S.-designed subsonic antiship cruise missile that has been in service since 1977. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
Numerous variants have been produced since its inception, including air-, ship-, and sub-launched versions.
It is currently in service with the armed forces of more than 30 countries including India.
Features:
It is an all-weather, over-the-horizon, anti-ship missile system. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
Propulsion: Turbojet, solid propellent.
It has a low-level, sea-skimming cruise trajectory with active radar guidance.
It is capable of executing both land-strike and anti-ship missions.
This missile is fitted with a heavy 221-kilogram penetration blast warhead.
It uses GPS-aided inertial navigation to hit a designated target aimpoint.
Range: 90-240 km. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
Question 13 of 35
13. Question
Consider the following pairs regarding India’s Missile System:
Helina : Anti-Tank Guided missile
Trishul : Surface to air missile
Astra : New Generation Anti-Radiation Missile
Rudram: Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 and 3
Correct
Solution (b)
Anti-tank guided missile: HELINA (Helicopter based NAG) is a third-generation fire and forget class anti-tank guided missile (ATGM) system mounted on the Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH).
The system has all weather day and night capability and can defeat battle tanks with conventional armor as well as explosive reactive armor.
The HELINA missile can engage targets both in direct hit mode as well as top attack mode. (Hence 1st pair is correct)
Surface to air missile: THRISHUL is a short-range (500m to 9 km) quick reaction all-weather surface-to-air missile designed to counter a low-level attack developed by India.
It was developed by DRDO as a part of the Integrated Guided Missile Development Program. (Hence 2nd pair is correct)
Air to air missile: ASTRA, India’s Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM), has been completely tested and is under induction.
It has a range of around 100 km. (Hence 3rd pair is incorrect)
Air to ground missile: RUDRAM, a New Generation Anti-Radiation Missile (NGRAM). With a maximum range of around 200 km, the missile mainly targets communication, radar and surveillance systems of the adversary. (Hence 4th pair is incorrect).
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Anti-tank guided missile: HELINA (Helicopter based NAG) is a third-generation fire and forget class anti-tank guided missile (ATGM) system mounted on the Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH).
The system has all weather day and night capability and can defeat battle tanks with conventional armor as well as explosive reactive armor.
The HELINA missile can engage targets both in direct hit mode as well as top attack mode. (Hence 1st pair is correct)
Surface to air missile: THRISHUL is a short-range (500m to 9 km) quick reaction all-weather surface-to-air missile designed to counter a low-level attack developed by India.
It was developed by DRDO as a part of the Integrated Guided Missile Development Program. (Hence 2nd pair is correct)
Air to air missile: ASTRA, India’s Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM), has been completely tested and is under induction.
It has a range of around 100 km. (Hence 3rd pair is incorrect)
Air to ground missile: RUDRAM, a New Generation Anti-Radiation Missile (NGRAM). With a maximum range of around 200 km, the missile mainly targets communication, radar and surveillance systems of the adversary. (Hence 4th pair is incorrect).
Question 14 of 35
14. Question
With reference to Indian defense system, consider the following statements:
INS Trishul is a Long-Range surface to air missile.
Agni-V is an Indian nuclear capable intercontinental ballistic missile.
The BrahMos is a medium-range stealth ramjet supersonic cruise missile.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
INS Trishul is the second frigate of the Talwar class of the Indian Navy. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
These have been built in Russia under an Indo-Russian joint production.
These missile frigates are modified Krivak III class frigates from Russia.
It has a displacement capacity of 4,000 tons and a speed of 30 knots and is capable of accomplishing a wide variety of naval missions, primarily, finding and eliminating enemy submarines and large surface ships.
Due to the use of stealth technologies and a special hull design, the resulting frigate features reduced radar cross section (RCS) as well as electromagnetic, acoustic and infrared signatures.
Agni V:
Agni-5 is an ingeniously built advanced surface-to-surface ballistic missile developed under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP). (Hence statement 2 is correct)
It is a fire-and-forget missile, which cannot be stopped without an interceptor missile.
The missile has the capability of hitting targets beyond the range of 5000 km and is crucial for India’s self-defense systems.
The Agni missile class is the backbone of India’s nuclear launch capability, as are Prithvi short-range ballistic missiles, submarine-launched ballistic missiles, and fighter aircraft.
Agni-1 to 5 missiles are designed & developed by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
The BrahMos missile:
The BrahMos missile, an Indo-Russian joint venture, has a range of 290 km and is the fastest cruise missile in the world with a top speed of Mach 2.8 (nearly three times the speed of sound). (Hence statement 3 is correct)
BrahMos is named for the rivers Brahmaputra and Moskva.
It is a two-stage (solid propellant engine in the first stage and liquid ramjet in second) missile.
It is a multiplatform missile i.e., it can be launched from land, air, and sea and multi capability missile with pinpoint accuracy that works in both day and night irrespective of the weather conditions.
It operates on the “Fire and Forgets” principle i.e it does not require further guidance after launch.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
INS Trishul is the second frigate of the Talwar class of the Indian Navy. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
These have been built in Russia under an Indo-Russian joint production.
These missile frigates are modified Krivak III class frigates from Russia.
It has a displacement capacity of 4,000 tons and a speed of 30 knots and is capable of accomplishing a wide variety of naval missions, primarily, finding and eliminating enemy submarines and large surface ships.
Due to the use of stealth technologies and a special hull design, the resulting frigate features reduced radar cross section (RCS) as well as electromagnetic, acoustic and infrared signatures.
Agni V:
Agni-5 is an ingeniously built advanced surface-to-surface ballistic missile developed under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP). (Hence statement 2 is correct)
It is a fire-and-forget missile, which cannot be stopped without an interceptor missile.
The missile has the capability of hitting targets beyond the range of 5000 km and is crucial for India’s self-defense systems.
The Agni missile class is the backbone of India’s nuclear launch capability, as are Prithvi short-range ballistic missiles, submarine-launched ballistic missiles, and fighter aircraft.
Agni-1 to 5 missiles are designed & developed by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
The BrahMos missile:
The BrahMos missile, an Indo-Russian joint venture, has a range of 290 km and is the fastest cruise missile in the world with a top speed of Mach 2.8 (nearly three times the speed of sound). (Hence statement 3 is correct)
BrahMos is named for the rivers Brahmaputra and Moskva.
It is a two-stage (solid propellant engine in the first stage and liquid ramjet in second) missile.
It is a multiplatform missile i.e., it can be launched from land, air, and sea and multi capability missile with pinpoint accuracy that works in both day and night irrespective of the weather conditions.
It operates on the “Fire and Forgets” principle i.e it does not require further guidance after launch.
Question 15 of 35
15. Question
Consider the following pairs:
Satellite Navigation system Country
GPS USA
GLONASS Russia
Galileo United Kingdom
BeiDou China
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) One pair only
b) Two pairs only
c) Three pairs only
d) All four pairs
Correct
Solution (c)
Global Positioning System (GPS)
Initiated in 1978 and achieved global coverage in 1995 and is owned by the United States government and operated by the United States Air Force.
It consists of 24 to 32 medium Earth orbit satellites in six different orbital planes. (Hence first pair is correct)
Global Navigation Satellite System (GLONASS)
Operated by Roscosmos, a state corporation responsible for the space flight and cosmonautics program for the Russian Federation.
It became operational in 1982 and achieved global coverage in 1996, and again in 2011 (after the system had fallen into disrepair).
It has full global coverage with 24 satellites. (Hence second pair is correct)
GALILEO
It was initiated in 2005 by the European Space Agency and projected to provide global coverage by 2020 with 30 satellites. (Hence third pair is incorrect)
BeiDou
It is a satellite navigation system of China.
Like any other navigation satellite system, BeiDou is made up of 35 satellites that orbit the Earth and transmit precise data all the time.
The signal from the satellite travels from the satellite to the Earth’s ground stations and then to the receiver and vice versa. (Hence fourth pair is correct)
Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS)
It is operated by the Japanese government.
It is a four-satellite regional time transfer system and enhancement for GPS covering Japan and the Asia-Oceania regions.
Its services have been available on a trial basis since January 2018.
Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC) Technology
An autonomous regional satellite navigation system, also known as Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), is developed by ISRO.
It has been designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary.
It will provide two types of services:
Standard Positioning Service (SPS): provided to all the users.
Restricted Service (RS): It is an encrypted service provided only to the authorized users.
The IRNSS System is expected to provide a position accuracy of better than 20 m in the primary service area.
Presently, it consists of 7 active satellites located at a distance of approximately 36,000 Km.
3 satellites are in Geostationary Orbit (GEO).
4 satellites are in inclined Geosynchronous Orbit (GSO).
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Global Positioning System (GPS)
Initiated in 1978 and achieved global coverage in 1995 and is owned by the United States government and operated by the United States Air Force.
It consists of 24 to 32 medium Earth orbit satellites in six different orbital planes. (Hence first pair is correct)
Global Navigation Satellite System (GLONASS)
Operated by Roscosmos, a state corporation responsible for the space flight and cosmonautics program for the Russian Federation.
It became operational in 1982 and achieved global coverage in 1996, and again in 2011 (after the system had fallen into disrepair).
It has full global coverage with 24 satellites. (Hence second pair is correct)
GALILEO
It was initiated in 2005 by the European Space Agency and projected to provide global coverage by 2020 with 30 satellites. (Hence third pair is incorrect)
BeiDou
It is a satellite navigation system of China.
Like any other navigation satellite system, BeiDou is made up of 35 satellites that orbit the Earth and transmit precise data all the time.
The signal from the satellite travels from the satellite to the Earth’s ground stations and then to the receiver and vice versa. (Hence fourth pair is correct)
Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS)
It is operated by the Japanese government.
It is a four-satellite regional time transfer system and enhancement for GPS covering Japan and the Asia-Oceania regions.
Its services have been available on a trial basis since January 2018.
Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC) Technology
An autonomous regional satellite navigation system, also known as Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), is developed by ISRO.
It has been designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary.
It will provide two types of services:
Standard Positioning Service (SPS): provided to all the users.
Restricted Service (RS): It is an encrypted service provided only to the authorized users.
The IRNSS System is expected to provide a position accuracy of better than 20 m in the primary service area.
Presently, it consists of 7 active satellites located at a distance of approximately 36,000 Km.
3 satellites are in Geostationary Orbit (GEO).
4 satellites are in inclined Geosynchronous Orbit (GSO).
Question 16 of 35
16. Question
Which of the following functions can be performed by the unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs)?
Attacking enemy targets
Transportation of extracted body organs
Delivery of E-commerce goods
Surveillance and reconnaissance activities
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) All of the above
Correct
Solution (d)
Leveraging drone’s potential for commercial operations: It will foster various new forms of air freight capabilities, allowing transport of temperature and time sensitive commodities like bodily organs, lifesaving medicines etc.
They can also be used to discharge materials for supplementing agricultural irrigation, survey landscapes, actively monitor rail/road traffic, or survey/inspect agricultural land.
Recent aerial attacks such as, on Saudi Arabian refineries and killing of Iran’s top military commander are few such instances where drones were used.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Leveraging drone’s potential for commercial operations: It will foster various new forms of air freight capabilities, allowing transport of temperature and time sensitive commodities like bodily organs, lifesaving medicines etc.
They can also be used to discharge materials for supplementing agricultural irrigation, survey landscapes, actively monitor rail/road traffic, or survey/inspect agricultural land.
Recent aerial attacks such as, on Saudi Arabian refineries and killing of Iran’s top military commander are few such instances where drones were used.
Question 17 of 35
17. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM3):
LVM3 is India’s heaviest rocket.
It does not have a fixed orbit and can go anywhere—GEO (Geosynchronous Earth Orbit), MEO (Medium Earth Orbit), LEO (Low Earth Orbit).
It is a three-stage launch vehicle with cryogenic upper stage.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) One only
b) Two only
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (c)
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) had renamed the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) Mark -III as Launch Vehicle Mark-III, mainly to identify its task of placing satellites into a variety of orbits.
The LVM3 will go everywhere —GEO (Geosynchronous Earth Orbit), MEO (Medium Earth Orbit), LEO (Low Earth Orbit), missions to the moon, sun.
LVM3 is India’s heaviest rocket.
The launch vehicle can carry up to 8 tonnes of payload to the lower earth orbits (LEO), which is about 200 km from the Earth’s surface.
But when it comes to the geostationary transfer orbits (GTO), which lie much further ahead, up to about 35,000 km from the Earth, it can carry much less, only about four tonnes. LVM3 is essentially a three-stage launch vehicle, including two solid boosters (S200), the core liquid fuel-based stage (L110), and the cryogenic upper stage (C25).
Hence, statement 1, 2, 3 are correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) had renamed the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) Mark -III as Launch Vehicle Mark-III, mainly to identify its task of placing satellites into a variety of orbits.
The LVM3 will go everywhere —GEO (Geosynchronous Earth Orbit), MEO (Medium Earth Orbit), LEO (Low Earth Orbit), missions to the moon, sun.
LVM3 is India’s heaviest rocket.
The launch vehicle can carry up to 8 tonnes of payload to the lower earth orbits (LEO), which is about 200 km from the Earth’s surface.
But when it comes to the geostationary transfer orbits (GTO), which lie much further ahead, up to about 35,000 km from the Earth, it can carry much less, only about four tonnes. LVM3 is essentially a three-stage launch vehicle, including two solid boosters (S200), the core liquid fuel-based stage (L110), and the cryogenic upper stage (C25).
Hence, statement 1, 2, 3 are correct.
Question 18 of 35
18. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC):
It is the highest decision-making body of the Defence Ministry on procurement.
The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) acts as the chairman of DAC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (a)
The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) recently approved the capital acquisition of indigenously-developed military hardware worth Rs 70,584 crore.
The DAC is the highest decision-making body of the defence Ministry on procurement.
Its objective is to ensure expeditious procurement of the approved requirements of the armed forces.
It was formed after the Group of Minister’s recommendations on ‘Reforming the National Security System’, in 2001, post-Kargil War (1999).
Composition:
The defence minister is the chairman of DAC.
Its members include the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) and chiefs of the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
Functions:
Give in-principal approval of a 15 years Long Term Integrated Perspective Plan (LTIPP) for defence forces.
Accord of acceptance of necessity to acquisition proposals.
Categorization of the acquisition proposals relating to ‘Buy’, ‘Buy & Make’, and ‘Make’.
Look into issues relating to single vendor clearance.
Take decisions regarding ‘offset’ provisions in respect of acquisition proposals above Rs 300 crore.
Take decisions regarding the Transfer of Technology under the ‘Buy and Make’ category of acquisition proposals.
Field trial evaluation.
Hence statement 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) recently approved the capital acquisition of indigenously-developed military hardware worth Rs 70,584 crore.
The DAC is the highest decision-making body of the defence Ministry on procurement.
Its objective is to ensure expeditious procurement of the approved requirements of the armed forces.
It was formed after the Group of Minister’s recommendations on ‘Reforming the National Security System’, in 2001, post-Kargil War (1999).
Composition:
The defence minister is the chairman of DAC.
Its members include the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) and chiefs of the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
Functions:
Give in-principal approval of a 15 years Long Term Integrated Perspective Plan (LTIPP) for defence forces.
Accord of acceptance of necessity to acquisition proposals.
Categorization of the acquisition proposals relating to ‘Buy’, ‘Buy & Make’, and ‘Make’.
Look into issues relating to single vendor clearance.
Take decisions regarding ‘offset’ provisions in respect of acquisition proposals above Rs 300 crore.
Take decisions regarding the Transfer of Technology under the ‘Buy and Make’ category of acquisition proposals.
Field trial evaluation.
Hence statement 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
Question 19 of 35
19. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Vayulink’ Platform:
It is a data link communication system that provides secure and uninterrupted communication with the base station.
It is developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (a)
Indian Air Force (IAF) recently developed an indigenous ‘Vayulink’ platform to enable jammer-proof communication with the base station. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
Vayulink is an ad-hoc data link communication system that would help pilots deal with bad weather and provide jammer-proof uninterrupted communication with the base station.
It is developed by the Indian Air Force (IAF). (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
It uses the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) to send radio communication to the base station when the signals are low.
Vayulink, when installed in an aircraft, gives the position of other aircraft close by and encrypted traffic data over a secure channel.
Uses:
The platform helps to prevent fratricide or friendly fire, i.e., it helps us to know where the friendly forces are present.
It provides better combat teaming.
Helps plan real-time basis where multiple teams can get together and go towards the target coming from different areas.
It can also give the pilots data on the weather.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Indian Air Force (IAF) recently developed an indigenous ‘Vayulink’ platform to enable jammer-proof communication with the base station. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
Vayulink is an ad-hoc data link communication system that would help pilots deal with bad weather and provide jammer-proof uninterrupted communication with the base station.
It is developed by the Indian Air Force (IAF). (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
It uses the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) to send radio communication to the base station when the signals are low.
Vayulink, when installed in an aircraft, gives the position of other aircraft close by and encrypted traffic data over a secure channel.
Uses:
The platform helps to prevent fratricide or friendly fire, i.e., it helps us to know where the friendly forces are present.
It provides better combat teaming.
Helps plan real-time basis where multiple teams can get together and go towards the target coming from different areas.
It can also give the pilots data on the weather.
Question 20 of 35
20. Question
With reference to India’s defence, the INS Marmagao is a?
a) Aircraft carrier
b) Submarine
c) Missile destroyer
d) Guided missile frigate
Correct
Solution (c)
Defense Minister Rajnath Singh RECENTLY commissioned INS Marmagao into the Indian Navy.
It is a P15B stealth-guided missile destroyer. (Hence option c is correct)
It is the second of the four ‘Visakhapatnam’ class destroyers that has been designed by the Indian Navy’s Warship Design Bureau.
It has over 75% indigenous content and was built by the Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited.
It is equipped with surface-to-surface and surface-to-air missiles besides modern surveillance radar that provides target data to the weapon systems.
The warship, measuring 163 meters by 17 meters, displacement of 7300 tonnes
It is named after the historic port city of Mormugao in Goa.
Propelled by four powerful gas turbines, the warship can achieve speeds of over 30 knots.
It is said to feature state-of-the-art weapons, stealth features and sensors.
It has a total atmospheric control system (TACS) that protects crew from nuclear, biological, and chemical threats.
It undertook its first sea sortie in 2021, marking 60 years of Goa’s liberation from Portuguese rule.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Defense Minister Rajnath Singh RECENTLY commissioned INS Marmagao into the Indian Navy.
It is a P15B stealth-guided missile destroyer. (Hence option c is correct)
It is the second of the four ‘Visakhapatnam’ class destroyers that has been designed by the Indian Navy’s Warship Design Bureau.
It has over 75% indigenous content and was built by the Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited.
It is equipped with surface-to-surface and surface-to-air missiles besides modern surveillance radar that provides target data to the weapon systems.
The warship, measuring 163 meters by 17 meters, displacement of 7300 tonnes
It is named after the historic port city of Mormugao in Goa.
Propelled by four powerful gas turbines, the warship can achieve speeds of over 30 knots.
It is said to feature state-of-the-art weapons, stealth features and sensors.
It has a total atmospheric control system (TACS) that protects crew from nuclear, biological, and chemical threats.
It undertook its first sea sortie in 2021, marking 60 years of Goa’s liberation from Portuguese rule.
Question 21 of 35
21. Question
Consider the following statements:
Both SACRED Portal and SAGE Portal work under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
SACRED Portal helps to select, support, and create a “one-stop access” to elderly care products and services.
SAGE Portal brings together both job providers and job seekers on a transparent online portal.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (a)
Senior Able Citizens for Re-Employment in Dignity (SACRED) Portal was launched in 2021. It is a unique and innovative technology-driven employment marketplace that aims to devise ways to ensure senior citizens live healthy, happy, empowered, dignified, and self-reliant life.
Senior Care Aging Growth Engine (SAGE) Portal was launched in 2021. It identifies, evaluates, verifies, aggregates, and delivers products, Solutions, and servicesdirectly to the stakeholders.
Both SACRED Portal and SAGE Portal work under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. Hence statement 1 is correct.
SAGE Portal helps to select, support, and create a “one-stop access” to elderly careproducts and services. It encourages the selected “startups” based on innovative products and services to address the services from health, housing, care centers, and technology access linked to needs ranging from finances, food, and wealth management to legal guidance. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
SACRED Portal brings together both job providers and job seekers on a transparent online portal. It will help private and public sector enterprises across sectors to share their demand for human resources and help senior experienced citizens get themselves registered for visibility of the emerging workplace demands, and apply for relevant job opportunities. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Senior Able Citizens for Re-Employment in Dignity (SACRED) Portal was launched in 2021. It is a unique and innovative technology-driven employment marketplace that aims to devise ways to ensure senior citizens live healthy, happy, empowered, dignified, and self-reliant life.
Senior Care Aging Growth Engine (SAGE) Portal was launched in 2021. It identifies, evaluates, verifies, aggregates, and delivers products, Solutions, and servicesdirectly to the stakeholders.
Both SACRED Portal and SAGE Portal work under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. Hence statement 1 is correct.
SAGE Portal helps to select, support, and create a “one-stop access” to elderly careproducts and services. It encourages the selected “startups” based on innovative products and services to address the services from health, housing, care centers, and technology access linked to needs ranging from finances, food, and wealth management to legal guidance. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
SACRED Portal brings together both job providers and job seekers on a transparent online portal. It will help private and public sector enterprises across sectors to share their demand for human resources and help senior experienced citizens get themselves registered for visibility of the emerging workplace demands, and apply for relevant job opportunities. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Question 22 of 35
22. Question
Consider the following statements:
Acute Hepatitis is the inflammation of the liver that presents with sicknesses like jaundice, fever, and vomiting.
Chronic Hepatitis is the inflammation of the liver that lasts more than six months but essentially shows no symptoms.
The theme for World Hepatitis Day 2023 was “One life, one liver”, focusing on creating awareness about viral hepatitis.
Vaccination is available for all the five kinds of viral hepatitis.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Correct
Solution (c)
Hepatitis is an inflammation of the liver.
Acute Hepatitis is the inflammation of the liver that presents with sicknesses like jaundice, fever, and vomiting. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Chronic Hepatitis is the inflammation of the liver that lasts more than six months but essentially shows no symptoms. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The World Hepatitis Alliance, established in 2007, organized the first community-driven World Hepatitis Day in 2008 on July 28. This date was chosen to honour Dr. Baruch Samuel Blumberg. Dr. Baruch Samuel Blumberg was the American physician who discovered Hepatitis B in the 1960s.
World Hepatitis Day serves as an occasion to strengthen national and international efforts against hepatitis, urging individuals, partners, and the public to take action.
The theme for World Hepatitis Day 2023 was “One life, one liver”, focusing on creating awareness about viral hepatitis. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Vaccination is not available for all the five kinds of viral hepatitis.
Vaccines are available for Hepatitis A (HAV) and Hepatitis B (HBV) whereas there are no vaccines for Hepatitis C (HCV) and Hepatitis E (HEV). Hepatitis D (HDV) can be prevented by preventing HBV infection through vaccination. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Hepatitis is an inflammation of the liver.
Acute Hepatitis is the inflammation of the liver that presents with sicknesses like jaundice, fever, and vomiting. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Chronic Hepatitis is the inflammation of the liver that lasts more than six months but essentially shows no symptoms. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The World Hepatitis Alliance, established in 2007, organized the first community-driven World Hepatitis Day in 2008 on July 28. This date was chosen to honour Dr. Baruch Samuel Blumberg. Dr. Baruch Samuel Blumberg was the American physician who discovered Hepatitis B in the 1960s.
World Hepatitis Day serves as an occasion to strengthen national and international efforts against hepatitis, urging individuals, partners, and the public to take action.
The theme for World Hepatitis Day 2023 was “One life, one liver”, focusing on creating awareness about viral hepatitis. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Vaccination is not available for all the five kinds of viral hepatitis.
Vaccines are available for Hepatitis A (HAV) and Hepatitis B (HBV) whereas there are no vaccines for Hepatitis C (HCV) and Hepatitis E (HEV). Hepatitis D (HDV) can be prevented by preventing HBV infection through vaccination. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
Question 23 of 35
23. Question
Consider the following statements about Scrub Typhus
It is a viral disease caused by orientia tsutsugamushi.
It is spread to people through bites of infected mosquitoes.
No vaccine is available to prevent scrub typhus.
It can be treated with the antibiotic Doxycycline.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Correct
Solution (b)
Scrub Typhus is a bacterial disease caused by orientia tsutsugamushi. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
It is also known as bush typhus.
Its common symptoms include fever, headache, body aches, rash, dry cough, skin rashes, red eyes, and mental changes ranging from confusion to coma.
It is spread to people through bites of infected larval mites. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
No vaccine is available to prevent scrub typhus. Hence statement 3 is correct.
It can be treated with the antibiotic Hence statement 4 is correct.
Doxycycline is a broad-spectrum antibiotic used in the treatment of some bacterial and parasitic infections such as bacterial pneumonia, acne, chlamydia infections, Lyme disease, cholera, typhus, and syphilis.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Scrub Typhus is a bacterial disease caused by orientia tsutsugamushi. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
It is also known as bush typhus.
Its common symptoms include fever, headache, body aches, rash, dry cough, skin rashes, red eyes, and mental changes ranging from confusion to coma.
It is spread to people through bites of infected larval mites. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
No vaccine is available to prevent scrub typhus. Hence statement 3 is correct.
It can be treated with the antibiotic Hence statement 4 is correct.
Doxycycline is a broad-spectrum antibiotic used in the treatment of some bacterial and parasitic infections such as bacterial pneumonia, acne, chlamydia infections, Lyme disease, cholera, typhus, and syphilis.
Question 24 of 35
24. Question
Consider the following statements about Cell-free DNAs (cfDNA)
They are short fragments of DNA released into the bloodstream through a natural process of cell death.
They can help in the early detection, diagnosis, and treatment of cancers.
They can help in understanding why a body is rejecting a transplanted organ.
They can be used as a biomarker for neurological disorders like Alzheimer’s disease.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Correct
Solution (d)
Cell-free DNAs are short fragments of DNA released into the bloodstream through a natural process of cell death. Hence statement 1 is correct.
During pregnancy, the mother’s blood contains cell-free DNA (cfDNA), both from her own tissue and from the fetus via the placenta.
The cell degradation is influenced by multiple processes causing variations in the amount, size, and origin of cfDNA.
The release of cfDNA could occur together with a variety of processes, including those required for normal development, those related to the development of certain cancers, and those associated with several other diseases.
They help in screening foetuses for specific chromosomal abnormalities, an application known as non-invasive prenatal testing.
They can help in the early detection, diagnosis, and treatment of cancers. Hence statement 2 is correct.
They can help in understanding why a body is rejecting a transplanted organ. Hence statement 3 is correct.
They can be used as a biomarker for neurological disorders like Alzheimer’s disease, neuronal tumours, stroke, and traumatic brain injury. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Cell-free DNAs are short fragments of DNA released into the bloodstream through a natural process of cell death. Hence statement 1 is correct.
During pregnancy, the mother’s blood contains cell-free DNA (cfDNA), both from her own tissue and from the fetus via the placenta.
The cell degradation is influenced by multiple processes causing variations in the amount, size, and origin of cfDNA.
The release of cfDNA could occur together with a variety of processes, including those required for normal development, those related to the development of certain cancers, and those associated with several other diseases.
They help in screening foetuses for specific chromosomal abnormalities, an application known as non-invasive prenatal testing.
They can help in the early detection, diagnosis, and treatment of cancers. Hence statement 2 is correct.
They can help in understanding why a body is rejecting a transplanted organ. Hence statement 3 is correct.
They can be used as a biomarker for neurological disorders like Alzheimer’s disease, neuronal tumours, stroke, and traumatic brain injury. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Question 25 of 35
25. Question
Consider the following statements about Akira
It is a type of ransomware that targets only Windows that spreads through spear phishing emails.
It deletes Windows Shadow Volume copies and leaves a note with attack details and a link to the negotiation site.
Choose the correct code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (b)
Akira is a type of ransomware that targets both Windows and Linux devices that spreads through spear phishing emails that contain malicious attachments in the form of archived content (zip/rar) files. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
It gets its name due to its ability to modify the filenames of all encrypted files by appending them with the “.akira” extension.
Windows Shadow Volume copies are instrumental in ensuring that organizations can back up data used in their applications for day-to-day functioning.
It deletes Windows Shadow Volume copies and leaves a note with attack details and a link to the negotiation site. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The attackers then demand a ransom, threatening to publish the data on their dark web blog if the demands are not met.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Akira is a type of ransomware that targets both Windows and Linux devices that spreads through spear phishing emails that contain malicious attachments in the form of archived content (zip/rar) files. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
It gets its name due to its ability to modify the filenames of all encrypted files by appending them with the “.akira” extension.
Windows Shadow Volume copies are instrumental in ensuring that organizations can back up data used in their applications for day-to-day functioning.
It deletes Windows Shadow Volume copies and leaves a note with attack details and a link to the negotiation site. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The attackers then demand a ransom, threatening to publish the data on their dark web blog if the demands are not met.
Question 26 of 35
26. Question
Which of the following products have got the Geographical Indication Tag?
Jaderi namakatti
Kashmir’s Mushqbudji rice
Agra leather footwear
Jammu Kashmir’s Rajouri Chikri Wood Craft
Choose the correct code:
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Correct
Solution (d)
The following products have got the Geographical Indication Tag:
Jaderi namakatti of Tamil Nadu
Kashmir’s Mushqbudji rice
Agra leather footwear
Jammu Kashmir’s Rajouri Chikri Wood Craft
Chedibutta saree of Tamil Nadu
Kanniyakumari Matti banana
Rajasthan’s Nathdwara Pichhwai Painting
Bihar’s Marcha Rice
Agsechi Vayingim (Agassaim Brinjal) of Goa
Sat Shiro Bheno (Sat Shirancho Bhendo) of Goa
Hence option d is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
The following products have got the Geographical Indication Tag:
Jaderi namakatti of Tamil Nadu
Kashmir’s Mushqbudji rice
Agra leather footwear
Jammu Kashmir’s Rajouri Chikri Wood Craft
Chedibutta saree of Tamil Nadu
Kanniyakumari Matti banana
Rajasthan’s Nathdwara Pichhwai Painting
Bihar’s Marcha Rice
Agsechi Vayingim (Agassaim Brinjal) of Goa
Sat Shiro Bheno (Sat Shirancho Bhendo) of Goa
Hence option d is correct.
Question 27 of 35
27. Question
Which of the following are the key features of Pradhan Mantri Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (PM- USHA)?
It targets remote areas, Left-Wing Extremism (LWE) affected regions, aspirational districts, and areas with low Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER).
It has provisions for establishing new model degree colleges and allocates grants for the effective functioning of universities.
Choose the correct code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (c)
Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA) was a Centrally Sponsored Scheme to fund States/UTs institutions, with the vision to attain higher levels of access, equity, and excellence in the State higher education system with greater efficiency, transparency, accountability, and responsiveness. The first phase of the scheme was launched in 2013 and the second phase was launched in 2018. Now, in the light of the National Education Policy, the RUSA scheme has been launched as Pradhan Mantri Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (PM-USHA). It covers government and government-aided institutions of the States and UTs. As the demand for higher education is increasing continuously over the years, there has been an unprecedented expansion in the number of institutions, universities, and volume of students in the country.
The features/objectives of PM-USHA are:
To improve the overall quality of existing state higher educational institutions by ensuring their conformity to prescribed norms and standards and adoption of accreditation as a quality assurance framework;
Usher transformative reforms in the State higher education system by creating a facilitating institutional structure for planning and monitoring at the state level, promoting autonomy in State Universities, and improving governance in institutions;
Implementation of recommendations of the NEP 2020 through funding support provided to State HEIs;
Ensure governance, academic, and examination (and evaluation) reforms in the State higher educational institutions and establish backward and forward linkages with school education on one hand and employment market, on the other hand, to facilitate self-reliance and thus create an Atma-Nirbhar Bharat;
Create an enabling atmosphere in the higher educational institutions to devote themselves to research and innovations;
Correct regional imbalances in access to higher education by facilitating access to high-quality institutions in urban & semi‐urban areas, creating opportunities for students from rural areas to get access to better quality institutions, and setting up institutions in unserved & underserved areas;
Developing infrastructure for ODL/Online/Digital mode of education in such States/UTs;
Improve equity in higher education by providing adequate opportunities for higher education to socially deprived communities; promote inclusion of women, minorities, SC/ST/OBCs, and special-abled persons;
To identify and fill up the existing gaps in higher education, by augmenting and supporting the State Governments’ efforts;
Enhancing employability through skilling and vocationalization;
Improving the accreditation status of accredited institutions and getting accreditation of non-accredited institutions;
Providing better hostel facilities in remote areas;
Focusing on low GER, Left Wing Extremism (LWE), border area districts, aspirational districts, and districts with higher SC/ ST population; Hence statement 1 is correct.
Establishing New Model Degree Colleges in the districts where there are no Government and Government-aided institutions; Hence statement 2 is correct.
Focus on multidisciplinary education, including STEM, commerce, and humanities fields of education.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA) was a Centrally Sponsored Scheme to fund States/UTs institutions, with the vision to attain higher levels of access, equity, and excellence in the State higher education system with greater efficiency, transparency, accountability, and responsiveness. The first phase of the scheme was launched in 2013 and the second phase was launched in 2018. Now, in the light of the National Education Policy, the RUSA scheme has been launched as Pradhan Mantri Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (PM-USHA). It covers government and government-aided institutions of the States and UTs. As the demand for higher education is increasing continuously over the years, there has been an unprecedented expansion in the number of institutions, universities, and volume of students in the country.
The features/objectives of PM-USHA are:
To improve the overall quality of existing state higher educational institutions by ensuring their conformity to prescribed norms and standards and adoption of accreditation as a quality assurance framework;
Usher transformative reforms in the State higher education system by creating a facilitating institutional structure for planning and monitoring at the state level, promoting autonomy in State Universities, and improving governance in institutions;
Implementation of recommendations of the NEP 2020 through funding support provided to State HEIs;
Ensure governance, academic, and examination (and evaluation) reforms in the State higher educational institutions and establish backward and forward linkages with school education on one hand and employment market, on the other hand, to facilitate self-reliance and thus create an Atma-Nirbhar Bharat;
Create an enabling atmosphere in the higher educational institutions to devote themselves to research and innovations;
Correct regional imbalances in access to higher education by facilitating access to high-quality institutions in urban & semi‐urban areas, creating opportunities for students from rural areas to get access to better quality institutions, and setting up institutions in unserved & underserved areas;
Developing infrastructure for ODL/Online/Digital mode of education in such States/UTs;
Improve equity in higher education by providing adequate opportunities for higher education to socially deprived communities; promote inclusion of women, minorities, SC/ST/OBCs, and special-abled persons;
To identify and fill up the existing gaps in higher education, by augmenting and supporting the State Governments’ efforts;
Enhancing employability through skilling and vocationalization;
Improving the accreditation status of accredited institutions and getting accreditation of non-accredited institutions;
Providing better hostel facilities in remote areas;
Focusing on low GER, Left Wing Extremism (LWE), border area districts, aspirational districts, and districts with higher SC/ ST population; Hence statement 1 is correct.
Establishing New Model Degree Colleges in the districts where there are no Government and Government-aided institutions; Hence statement 2 is correct.
Focus on multidisciplinary education, including STEM, commerce, and humanities fields of education.
Question 28 of 35
28. Question
Recently in the news, HE 1005-1439 is a
a) group of asteroids found in Whirlpool galaxy
b) a black hole in Cigar galaxy
c) carbon-enhanced metal-poor (CEMP) star
d) none
Correct
Solution (c)
HE 1005-1439 is a carbon-enhanced metal-poor (CEMP) star. They are primarily characterized by diverse heavy elements and abundance patterns. They are formed from the ejected material of the first stars that formed after the Big Bang.
HE 1005-1439 defies previous classifications and challenges previous understanding of star formation processes and shows signs of having been formed through the combination of two different neutron-capture processes — the slow (s-) and intermediate (i-). Hence option c is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
HE 1005-1439 is a carbon-enhanced metal-poor (CEMP) star. They are primarily characterized by diverse heavy elements and abundance patterns. They are formed from the ejected material of the first stars that formed after the Big Bang.
HE 1005-1439 defies previous classifications and challenges previous understanding of star formation processes and shows signs of having been formed through the combination of two different neutron-capture processes — the slow (s-) and intermediate (i-). Hence option c is correct.
Question 29 of 35
29. Question
Consider the following statements about the Malayali tribe
They are a tribal group from the Eastern Ghats in North Kerala.
They constructed huts with red clay on teak wood frames.
The roof of their huts was made of dry bamboo leaves and cow dung.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
Malayali tribes mean Malai meaning “hill” and yali meaning “people”.
Malayali tribes are a tribal group from the Eastern Ghats in North Tamil Nadu. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
They constructed huts with red clay on teak wood frames. It signifies the tribe’s connection to nature. Hence statement 2 is correct.
It was initially used for living and later used for seed storage.
The roof of their huts was made of dry bamboo leaves and cow dung. It prevented leaks during monsoons. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Currently, only one such hut remains on Yelagiri Hill in Tamil Nadu as a symbol of their transition from foraging to a more modern lifestyle.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Malayali tribes mean Malai meaning “hill” and yali meaning “people”.
Malayali tribes are a tribal group from the Eastern Ghats in North Tamil Nadu. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
They constructed huts with red clay on teak wood frames. It signifies the tribe’s connection to nature. Hence statement 2 is correct.
It was initially used for living and later used for seed storage.
The roof of their huts was made of dry bamboo leaves and cow dung. It prevented leaks during monsoons. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Currently, only one such hut remains on Yelagiri Hill in Tamil Nadu as a symbol of their transition from foraging to a more modern lifestyle.
Question 30 of 35
30. Question
Consider the following statements:
Both male and female African elephants have tusks, while only male Asian elephants have tusks.
The elephant is a national heritage animal in India that is protected under Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Gaj Soochna is a centralized database that includes physical and genetic information of every captive elephant individual in the country.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (c)
India alone hosts over 60% of the worldwide wild elephant population.
The elephant population within India is spread across the southern, northeastern, east-central, and northern parts of the country.
Both male and female African elephants have tusks, while only male Asian elephants have tusks. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The elephant is a national heritage animal in India that is protected under Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Indian elephants are listed as endangered in the IUCN List and Appendix I of the CITES.
Gaj Soochna is a centralized database that includes physical and genetic information of every captive elephant individual in the country. Hence statement 3 is correct.
It is being carried out in collaboration with the Wildlife Institute of India and will act as the ‘Adhaar card of captive elephants’.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
India alone hosts over 60% of the worldwide wild elephant population.
The elephant population within India is spread across the southern, northeastern, east-central, and northern parts of the country.
Both male and female African elephants have tusks, while only male Asian elephants have tusks. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The elephant is a national heritage animal in India that is protected under Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Indian elephants are listed as endangered in the IUCN List and Appendix I of the CITES.
Gaj Soochna is a centralized database that includes physical and genetic information of every captive elephant individual in the country. Hence statement 3 is correct.
It is being carried out in collaboration with the Wildlife Institute of India and will act as the ‘Adhaar card of captive elephants’.
Question 31 of 35
31. Question
If the height of Ramesh is less by 20% than Suresh, the height of Suresh will be greater than that of Ramesh by how many percent?
a) 25%
b) 30%
c) 32%
d) 28%
Correct
Solution (a)
Let the height of Suresh is x and height of Ramesh is y.
Then, height of Ramesh = x – 20% of x
y = x – (20/100)x
y = x – (1/5)x = (4/5)x
x = (5/4)y
Now, height of Suresh – height of Ramesh
= (5/4)y – y = y/4
∴ Height of Suresh will be greater than that of Ramesh by ((y/4)/y)*100%
= y/(4*y)*100
= 100/4
= 25%
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Let the height of Suresh is x and height of Ramesh is y.
Then, height of Ramesh = x – 20% of x
y = x – (20/100)x
y = x – (1/5)x = (4/5)x
x = (5/4)y
Now, height of Suresh – height of Ramesh
= (5/4)y – y = y/4
∴ Height of Suresh will be greater than that of Ramesh by ((y/4)/y)*100%
= y/(4*y)*100
= 100/4
= 25%
Question 32 of 35
32. Question
Three wheels can complete 40, 45 and 50 revolutions per minute. There is a green spot on each wheel that touches the ground at time zero. After how much time will all these spots simultaneously touch the ground again?
a) 15 sec
b) 18 sec
c) 12 sec
d) 8 sec
Correct
Solution (c)
The time taken by the green spot on all the three wheels to simultaneously touch the ground again will be equal to the LCM of the times taken by the three wheels to complete one revolution.
Since the time taken by the first wheel to complete 40 revolutions = 60 seconds (1 minute)
So, the time taken by the first wheel to complete 1 revolution = 60/40 s = 3/2 s.
Also, time taken by the second wheel to complete 45 revolutions = 60 seconds
So, the time taken by the second wheel to complete 1 revolution = 60/45s = 4/3 s.
Again, time taken by the third wheel to complete 50 revolutions = 60 seconds
So, the time taken by the third wheel to complete 1 revolution = 60/50 s = 6/5 s.
The LCM of 3/2, 4/3 and 6/5 = LCM (3, 4, 6)/HC F (2, 3, 5) = 12/1 = 12 sec.
So, after every 12 s, the green spots of the three wheels will touch the ground simultaneously.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
The time taken by the green spot on all the three wheels to simultaneously touch the ground again will be equal to the LCM of the times taken by the three wheels to complete one revolution.
Since the time taken by the first wheel to complete 40 revolutions = 60 seconds (1 minute)
So, the time taken by the first wheel to complete 1 revolution = 60/40 s = 3/2 s.
Also, time taken by the second wheel to complete 45 revolutions = 60 seconds
So, the time taken by the second wheel to complete 1 revolution = 60/45s = 4/3 s.
Again, time taken by the third wheel to complete 50 revolutions = 60 seconds
So, the time taken by the third wheel to complete 1 revolution = 60/50 s = 6/5 s.
The LCM of 3/2, 4/3 and 6/5 = LCM (3, 4, 6)/HC F (2, 3, 5) = 12/1 = 12 sec.
So, after every 12 s, the green spots of the three wheels will touch the ground simultaneously.
Question 33 of 35
33. Question
All the students of a class are sitting in a row. Raman is 7th from the left and Rohan is 14th from the right. The number of students sitting in between them is 1/4th of the total of students in the row. How many students are sitting in the row?
a) 18
b) 26
c) 30
d) 28
Correct
Solution (d)
Let the total number of students = n.
Number of students to the left of Raman = 6.
Number of students to the right of Rohan = 13.
Number of students between Raman and Rohan = n/4.
Total number of students in the row = 6 + 13 + 2 + n/4 = n
So, 3n/4 = 21
Or n = 28.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Let the total number of students = n.
Number of students to the left of Raman = 6.
Number of students to the right of Rohan = 13.
Number of students between Raman and Rohan = n/4.
Total number of students in the row = 6 + 13 + 2 + n/4 = n
So, 3n/4 = 21
Or n = 28.
Question 34 of 35
34. Question
Suppose there is a number ‘n’. When ‘n’ is divided by 5, the remainder will be 2. What will be the remainder when n2 is divided by 5?
a) 6
b) 4
c) 1
d) 8
Correct
Solution (b)
According to the question when ‘n’ is divided by 5, we will get the remainder 2
n/5 = remainder 2
On putting n =7, and on dividing it with 5 we will get remainder 2
So, n = 7, and n2 = 49
n2/5 = 49/5 = remainder 4
Incorrect
Solution (b)
According to the question when ‘n’ is divided by 5, we will get the remainder 2
n/5 = remainder 2
On putting n =7, and on dividing it with 5 we will get remainder 2
So, n = 7, and n2 = 49
n2/5 = 49/5 = remainder 4
Question 35 of 35
35. Question
All the page numbers in a book are added, beginning from page 1. However, a page number was added twice by mistake. If the sum obtained was 850, which page number must have been added twice?
a) 25
b) 30
c) 35
d) 40
Correct
Solution (b)
Let the total number of pages in the book be ‘n’.
Let page number ‘x’ be repeated.
Then, x +
⇒ x + n(n+1) /2 = 850
So, n(n+1)/2 ≤ 850
⇒ n2 + n ≤ 1700
The greatest possible value of n = 40.
Now, for n = 40, n(n+1)/2 = 40×41/2 = 820
So, x = 30.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Let the total number of pages in the book be ‘n’.
Let page number ‘x’ be repeated.
Then, x +
⇒ x + n(n+1) /2 = 850
So, n(n+1)/2 ≤ 850
⇒ n2 + n ≤ 1700
The greatest possible value of n = 40.
Now, for n = 40, n(n+1)/2 = 40×41/2 = 820
So, x = 30.
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All the Best
IASbaba