IASbaba's Flagship Course: Integrated Learning Programme (ILP) - 2024  Read Details

Posts

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 19th March 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) said it has granted One97 Communications Ltd (OCL) to participate in Unified Payments Interface (UPI) as Third-Party Application Provider (TPAP) under multi-bank model.NPCI said four banks – Axis Bank, HDFC Bank, State Bank of India and YES Bank – will act as PSP (Payment System Provider) banks to OCL, which is the parent company of Paytm. Background:- Last month, RBI directed NPCI, which owns and operates the UPI platform, to consider a request by OCL to become a TPAP. A Third-Party Application Provider is an entity that provides UPI compliant app(s) to the end-user customers to facilitate UPI-based payment transactions. These applications could be mobile wallets, merchant apps, or any other platform that utilises UPI for payments. About National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), is an umbrella organisation for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India. It was launched in 2008 by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007. It has been incorporated as a “Not for Profit” Company under the provisions of Section 25 of Companies Act 1956 (now Section 8 of Companies Act 2013). The ten core promoter banks are State Bank of India, Punjab National Bank, Canara Bank, Bank of Baroda, Union Bank of India, Bank of India, ICICI Bank Limited, HDFC Bank Limited, Citibank N. A. and HSBC. In 2016 the shareholding was broad-based to 56 member banks to include more banks representing all sectors. In 2020, new entities regulated by RBI were inducted, consisting of Payment Service Operators, payment banks, Small Finance Banks, etc. NPCI offers a range of payment solutions and services, including the Unified Payments Interface (UPI), Immediate Payment Service (IMPS), National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT), Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS), Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS), Aadhaar Enabled Payment System (AePS), National Automated Clearing House (NACH), and RuPay, India’s own card payment network. The Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is one of NPCI’s most significant initiatives. Payment systems that the NPCI operate include National Financial Switch.National Financial Switch (NFS) is the largest network of shared Automated Teller Machines (ATMs) in India facilitating interoperable cash withdrawal, card to card funds transfer and interoperable cash deposit transactions among other value added services in the country. Source: Hindu Businessline Anthropocene Syllabus Prelims – Science Context: An expert commission rejected a proposal to mark the start of the Anthropocene at a particular date. Background: The SQS-AWG is a commission responsible for recognising time units within our most recent period of geologic time. Its members have been looking into the question of formalising the Anthropocene Epoch as the youngest epoch, superposing the Holocene. On March 4, 2024, the commission, which consists of topical experts, rejected the proposal with a majority voting against it. About Anthropocene: Earth’s history is divided into a hierarchical series of smaller chunks of time, referred to as the geologic time scale. These divisions, in descending length of time, are called eons, eras, periods, epochs, and ages. These units are classified based on Earth’s rock layers, or strata, and the fossils found within them. From examining these fossils, scientists know that certain organisms are characteristic of certain parts of the geologic record. The study of this correlation is called stratigraphy. Officially, the current epoch is called the Holocene, which began 11,700 years ago after the last major ice age. However, the Anthropocene Epoch is an unofficial unit of geologic time, used to describe the most recent period in Earth’s history when human activity started to have a significant impact on the planet’s climate and ecosystems. The word Anthropocene is derived from the Greek words anthropo, for “man,” and cene for “new,” coined and made popular by biologist Eugene Stormer and chemist Paul Crutzen Scientists still debate whether the Anthropocene is different from the Holocene, and the term has not been formally adopted. The primary question that scientists needs to answer before declaring the Anthropocene an epoch is if humans have changed the Earth system to the point that it is reflected in the rock strata. Source: National Geographic AGNIPATH SCHEME Syllabus Prelims- Current Event Context: The Passing Out Parade (POP) of the third batch of Agniveers was held at INS Chilka, Odisha. Background: Agniveers are a special group within the Indian Armed Forces, created under the Agnipath recruitment scheme. About AGNIPATH SCHEME The Agnipath Scheme is a short-service manpower model introduced by the Indian government for recruiting soldiers across the Army, Navy, and Air Force. It is a transformative initiative under the Ministry of Defence. Objective and Eligibility: The scheme aims to provide an opportunity for patriotic and motivated youth to serve in the Armed Forces. It applies to personnel below officer ranks, excluding commissioned officers. Recruitment and Duration: Around 45,000 to 50,000 soldiers (referred to as “Agniveers”) are recruited annually under this scheme. These recruits serve on a short-term contract of four years. After the initial four years, only 25% of the batch will continue for an additional 15 years under permanent commission. Benefits for Agniveers: Upon completing the four-year service, Agniveers receive a one-time “Seva Nidhi” package of Rs 11.71 lakhs, including accrued interest. They also enjoy a life insurance cover of Rs 48 lakhs during the service period. In case of death, the payout exceeds Rs 1 crore, including pay for the unserved tenure. The government assists in rehabilitating soldiers who leave the services after four years by providing skill certificates and bridge courses. Challenges and Concerns: Job Prospects: Agniveers may find it challenging to secure other jobs after their four-year service. No Pension Benefit: Unlike regular servicemen, Agniveers do not receive pension benefits. Source: PIB REUSABLE LAUNCH VEHICLE PUSHPAK Syllabus Prelims : Current Event Context: ISRO plans to conduct the second landing test of the Reusable Launch Vehicle (RLV) Pushpak soon. Background: This ongoing research and development aim to reduce space launch costs and advance India’s space exploration missions. In 2023, ISRO successfully conducted the Reusable Launch Vehicle Autonomous Landing Mission (RLV LEX). About REUSABLE LAUNCH VEHICLE PUSHPAK: The Reusable Launch Vehicle (RLV) Pushpak is a winged technology demonstrator developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). Its purpose is to explore and validate technologies essential for achieving a fully reusable launch vehicle. Background and Purpose: The RLV Pushpak is part of ISRO’s efforts to develop a fully reusable launch vehicle. Its primary goal is to enable low-cost access to space. ISRO envisions building a space station by 2035, and the RLV technology plays a crucial role in achieving this objective. Technological Advancements: Accurate Navigation: Utilizes pseudolite systems, indigenous instrumentation, and sensor systems. Ka-band Radar Altimeter: Provides precise altitude information. Indigenous Landing Gear: Designed for high-speed, unmanned, and precise landings. Aerofoil Honeycomb Fins and Brake Parachute System: Ensure controlled descent. Source: Business Today GEO HERITAGE SITE PANDAVULLA GUTTA Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Pandavula Gutta designated exclusive Geo-heritage site in Telangana. Background: A geo-heritage site is a place of significant geological importance, often recognized for its unique geological features, historical context, or cultural value. These sites provide insights into the Earth’s history, evolution, and natural processes. About GEO HERITAGE SITE PANDAVULLA GUTTA Pandavula Gutta, also known as Pandavula Guttalu, is a remarkable hill located in the Warangal district, Telangana, India. Its historical and religious significance lies in the belief that it served as a refuge for the Pandavas during their exile, as narrated in the Hindu epic. This site is more ancient than the Himalayan hills and has been officially recognized as the sole Geo-heritage site in Telangana. Discovered in 1990, it predates the Himalayas and has a rich history spanning from the Mesolithic to Medieval times. Pandavula Gutta is adorned with Paleolithic cave paintings, a rare glimpse into prehistoric human creativity. These paintings, found on walls, ceilings, and isolated boulders, depict wildlife such as Bison, Antelope, Tiger, and Leopard. Source: The Hindu Consumerism and Ethics Syllabus Mains – GS 4 Context: Tendency of consumerism has been rising among people. Background: Consumerism is mainly derived from lifestyle obsession instead of necessity. About Consumerism: Consumerism is the idea that increasing the consumption of goods and services purchased in the market is always a desirable goal and that a person’s well-being and happiness depend fundamentally on obtaining consumer goods and material possessions. Consumerism is an ideology where consumers are motivated or manipulated to buy something, even if they don’t need it. It is mainly derived from lifestyle obsession instead of necessity. For instance, replacing a perfectly working mobile phone or laptop because a new model is launched. It is based on the assumption, that possession of material wealth and things make a person happy and satisfied. Consumerism is driven by the following factors: The first driving force of consumerism is advertising, a vast industry dedicated to the power of persuasion. Credit cards, store cards, payday loans, and ‘buy now, pay later’ schemes all bring forward our expenditure. Obsolescence stems from the realisation by capitalism that the life cycles of products could be planned and managed. A tendency to have more than one. Ethical Values Undermined by Consumerism: To achieve the end, both consumers and brands can resort to means that are not ethically correct. Ex: Advertisements claim that products will change the user’s life. In consumerism, a person just thinks about buying products and creating collections. In this race, he loses his consciousness i.e. awareness of one’s thoughts and feelings. This prevents them from making the right decisions. Ex: Doing shopping for their social media uploads. It has been found that societies that are driven by consumerism have huge disparities; some people live lavish lives while other’s basic needs are not fulfilled. It undermines the effort of Social Justice (fair division of resources, opportunities, and privileges). Most religions/societies propagate that satisfaction will bring inner solace. However, tendencies like consumerism are against it. It also includes the loss of traditional cultures and values; and the decline of altruism and community. Consumerism ultimately creates a selfish society in which people just think about their needs. Ex: Many people spend lakhs on clothes, and this amount can be utilised to support the education of poor children. An increase in demand naturally increases production, in turn, leading to changes in land use, threatening biodiversity, generation of more waste, and emission of pollutants. Ex: In the fashion industry, the skin of different animals is used to make leather products. This has pushed certain species to the verge of extinction. Striking a Balance Between Needs and Desires: Adopting Ethical Consumerism promotes the practice of purchasing products and services in a way that minimizes negative impact on social and/or environmental consequences. Moral and Consumer Education needs to be part of the curriculum at all levels of education. Corporations should adopt ‘Stakeholder Capitalism’ instead of ‘Shareholder Capitalism’. Stakeholder capitalism proposes that corporations should serve the interests of all their stakeholders, and not just shareholders. Regulating authorities like the Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI) should keep an eye on the advertisements that try to manipulate consumers. Celebrities/influencers should become role models for others by practicing responsible consumption and making sustainable choices. It can be controlled by imposing taxes on luxury goods and giving incentives for sustainable practices. Volunteers of civil society organizations can carry out awareness to combat consumerism and promote sustainable living. Source: ET EDGE INSIGHTS Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following pairs: Geo-heritage sites                States Pandavula Gutta –              Karnataka Siwalik Fossil Park –        Himachal Pradesh Lonar Lake –                      Maharashtra How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None   Q2.) With reference to the Reusable Launch Vehicle (RLV) Pushpak, consider the following statements: It is developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation. Its primary goal is to enable low-cost access to space. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3.)With reference to Agnipath Scheme, consider the following statements: It is a short-service manpower model introduced by the Ministry of Defence. It aims for recruiting soldiers across the Army, Navy, and Air Force. Unlike regular servicemen, Agniveers do not receive pension benefits. The government assists in rehabilitating soldiers who leave the services after four years by providing skill certificates and bridge courses. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  19th March  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  18th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 19th March 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

[DAY 14] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 Nagalakshmi 2024/03/19 1:16 PM 50 71.43 % 2 Razak 2024/03/19 1:11 PM 40 57.14 % 3 Swastik 2024/03/19 12:33 PM 38 54.29 % 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question The oath of office to the President is administered by a) The Vice President b) The Prime Minister c) The Chief Justice of India d) The Attorney General of India Correct Solution (c) Oaths of the President of India: The Oath of the President of India is mentioned in the constitution itself. Faithfully execute the office, preserve and protect the constitution, and dedicated to the service and well-being of the people of India. The tenure is of 5 years but he can stay in office until the new President arrives. The oath of office to the President is administered by the Chief Justice of India and in his absence, the senior most judge of the Supreme Court available. Any other person acting as President or discharging the functions of the President also undertakes the similar oath or affirmation. Qualifications of the President of India: The qualification of the President (nominee) to be eligible for election as a president are as follows- He should be a citizen of India. He should have completed 35 years of age. He should be qualified for election as a member of Lok Sabha. He should not hold any office of profit under the Union government or any State government or any Local authority. Incorrect Solution (c) Oaths of the President of India: The Oath of the President of India is mentioned in the constitution itself. Faithfully execute the office, preserve and protect the constitution, and dedicated to the service and well-being of the people of India. The tenure is of 5 years but he can stay in office until the new President arrives. The oath of office to the President is administered by the Chief Justice of India and in his absence, the senior most judge of the Supreme Court available. Any other person acting as President or discharging the functions of the President also undertakes the similar oath or affirmation. Qualifications of the President of India: The qualification of the President (nominee) to be eligible for election as a president are as follows- He should be a citizen of India. He should have completed 35 years of age. He should be qualified for election as a member of Lok Sabha. He should not hold any office of profit under the Union government or any State government or any Local authority. Question 2 of 35 2. Question   Consider the following statements with reference to election of the President: The election of a person as President can be challenged on the ground that Electoral College was incomplete. All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the President can be inquired into and decided either by the Supreme Court or High Court. Select the correct answer: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect The election of a person as President cannot be challenged on the ground that the electoral college was incomplete (i.e., existence of any vacancy among the members of electoral college). All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the President are inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision is final. Note: Article 71 of the Constitution deals with the matters relating to, or connected with, the election of a President or Vice-President. It says that- All doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a President or Vice-President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision shall be final. If the Supreme Court declares the election of the President or Vice-President void, acts done by him in the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of the office of President or Vice-President, on or before the date of the decision of the Supreme Court shall not be invalidated by reason of that declaration. The Parliament may by law regulate any matter relating to or connected with the election of a President or Vice-President. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect The election of a person as President cannot be challenged on the ground that the electoral college was incomplete (i.e., existence of any vacancy among the members of electoral college). All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the President are inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision is final. Note: Article 71 of the Constitution deals with the matters relating to, or connected with, the election of a President or Vice-President. It says that- All doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a President or Vice-President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision shall be final. If the Supreme Court declares the election of the President or Vice-President void, acts done by him in the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of the office of President or Vice-President, on or before the date of the decision of the Supreme Court shall not be invalidated by reason of that declaration. The Parliament may by law regulate any matter relating to or connected with the election of a President or Vice-President. Question 3 of 35 3. Question With respect to the Pardoning Power of the President, consider the following pairs: 1.     Commutation It implies reducing the period of sentence without changing its character 2.     Remission It denotes the substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form. 3.     Respite It denotes awarding a lesser sentence in place of one originally awarded dueto some special fact. 4.     Reprieve It implies a stay of the execution of a sentence (especially thatof death) For a temporary period. How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? a) One pair only b) Two pairs only c) Three pairs only d) All four pairs Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Correct Commutation: It denotes the substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form. For example, a death sentence may be commuted to rigorous imprisonment, which in turn may be commuted to a simple imprisonment. Remission: It implies reducing the period of sentence without changing its character. For example, a sentence of rigorous imprisonment for two years may be remitted to rigorous imprisonment for one year.   Respite: It denotes awarding a lesser sentence in place of one originally awarded due to some special fact, such as the physical disability of a convict or the pregnancy of a woman offender. Reprieve: It implies a stay of the execution of a sentence (especially that of death) for a temporary period.   Note: Pardon: It removes both the sentence and the conviction and completely absolves the convict from all sentences, punishments and disqualifications. Commutation: It denotes the substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form. For example, a death sentence may be commuted to rigorous imprisonment, which in turn may be commuted to a simple imprisonment. Remission: It implies reducing the period of sentence without changing its character. For example, a sentence of rigorous imprisonment for two years may be remitted to rigorous imprisonment for one year. Respite: It denotes awarding a lesser sentence in place of one originally awarded due to some special fact, such as the physical disability of a convict or the pregnancy of a woman offender. Reprieve: It implies a stay of the execution of a sentence (especially that of death) for a temporary period. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Correct Commutation: It denotes the substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form. For example, a death sentence may be commuted to rigorous imprisonment, which in turn may be commuted to a simple imprisonment. Remission: It implies reducing the period of sentence without changing its character. For example, a sentence of rigorous imprisonment for two years may be remitted to rigorous imprisonment for one year.   Respite: It denotes awarding a lesser sentence in place of one originally awarded due to some special fact, such as the physical disability of a convict or the pregnancy of a woman offender. Reprieve: It implies a stay of the execution of a sentence (especially that of death) for a temporary period.   Note: Pardon: It removes both the sentence and the conviction and completely absolves the convict from all sentences, punishments and disqualifications. Commutation: It denotes the substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form. For example, a death sentence may be commuted to rigorous imprisonment, which in turn may be commuted to a simple imprisonment. Remission: It implies reducing the period of sentence without changing its character. For example, a sentence of rigorous imprisonment for two years may be remitted to rigorous imprisonment for one year. Respite: It denotes awarding a lesser sentence in place of one originally awarded due to some special fact, such as the physical disability of a convict or the pregnancy of a woman offender. Reprieve: It implies a stay of the execution of a sentence (especially that of death) for a temporary period. Question 4 of 35 4. Question With reference to the impeachment of President, consider the following statements: The impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament. The nominated members of either house of parliament can participate in the impeachment of the President. The constitution does not define the meaning of the phrase violation of the constitution. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament. The nominated members of either House of Parliament can participate in the impeachment of the President though they do not participate in his election. The President can be removed from office by a process of impeachment for ‘violation of the Constitution’. However, the Constitution does not define the meaning of the phrase ‘violation of the Constitution’. Note: PROCEDURE FOR IMPEACHMENT OF THE PRESIDENT: When a President is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charge shall be preferred by either House of Parliament. No such charge shall be preferred unless – the proposal to prefer such charge is contained in a resolution which has been moved after at least fourteen days’ notice in writing signed by not less than one-fourth of the total number of members of the House has been given of their intention to move the resolution, and such resolution has been passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of the House. When a charge has been so preferred by either House of Parliament, the other House shall investigate the charge or cause the charge to be investigated and the President shall have the right to appear and to be represented at such investigation. If as a result of the investigation a resolution is passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of the House by which the charge was investigated or caused to be investigated, declaring that the charge preferred against the President has been sustained, such resolution shall have the effect of removing the President from his office as from the date on which the resolution is so passed. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament. The nominated members of either House of Parliament can participate in the impeachment of the President though they do not participate in his election. The President can be removed from office by a process of impeachment for ‘violation of the Constitution’. However, the Constitution does not define the meaning of the phrase ‘violation of the Constitution’. Note: PROCEDURE FOR IMPEACHMENT OF THE PRESIDENT: When a President is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charge shall be preferred by either House of Parliament. No such charge shall be preferred unless – the proposal to prefer such charge is contained in a resolution which has been moved after at least fourteen days’ notice in writing signed by not less than one-fourth of the total number of members of the House has been given of their intention to move the resolution, and such resolution has been passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of the House. When a charge has been so preferred by either House of Parliament, the other House shall investigate the charge or cause the charge to be investigated and the President shall have the right to appear and to be represented at such investigation. If as a result of the investigation a resolution is passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of the House by which the charge was investigated or caused to be investigated, declaring that the charge preferred against the President has been sustained, such resolution shall have the effect of removing the President from his office as from the date on which the resolution is so passed. Question 5 of 35 5. Question The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved first in the: a) Lok Sabha only b) Either House of Parliament c) Joint Sitting of Parliament d) Rajya Sabha only Correct Solution (d) The Vice-President cannot be formally impeached, unlike the President. The Constitution states that the Vice-President can be removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an absolute majority and agreed to by a simple majority of the Lok Sabha. But no such resolution may be moved unless at least 14 days advance notice has been given. Notably, the Constitution does not list grounds for removal. No Vice-President or ex officio Vice-President has ever faced removal proceedings. The resolution cannot be moved in Loksabha. Incorrect Solution (d) The Vice-President cannot be formally impeached, unlike the President. The Constitution states that the Vice-President can be removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an absolute majority and agreed to by a simple majority of the Lok Sabha. But no such resolution may be moved unless at least 14 days advance notice has been given. Notably, the Constitution does not list grounds for removal. No Vice-President or ex officio Vice-President has ever faced removal proceedings. The resolution cannot be moved in Loksabha. Question 6 of 35 6. Question With reference to the Lok Sabha, identify the incorrect statement/s from the following: The President of India, being a part of the Parliament, is member of the lower house, i.e. the Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha controls the Council of Ministers whereas the Lok Sabha controls the finances of the country. Select the answer: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect In our country, the Parliament consists of two Houses. The two Houses are known as the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha). The President of India is a part of the Parliament, although he/she is not a member of either House. That is why all laws made in the Houses come into force only after they receive the assent of the President. Lok Sabha exercises more powers in money matters. Once the Lok Sabha passes the budget of the government or any other money related law, the Rajya Sabha cannot reject it. Most importantly, the Lok Sabha controls the Council of Ministers. Only a person who enjoys the support of the majority of the members in the Lok Sabha is appointed the Prime Minister. If the majority of the Lok Sabha members say they have ‘no confidence’ in the Council of Ministers, all ministers including the Prime Minister, have to quit. the Rajya Sabha does not have this power. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect In our country, the Parliament consists of two Houses. The two Houses are known as the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha). The President of India is a part of the Parliament, although he/she is not a member of either House. That is why all laws made in the Houses come into force only after they receive the assent of the President. Lok Sabha exercises more powers in money matters. Once the Lok Sabha passes the budget of the government or any other money related law, the Rajya Sabha cannot reject it. Most importantly, the Lok Sabha controls the Council of Ministers. Only a person who enjoys the support of the majority of the members in the Lok Sabha is appointed the Prime Minister. If the majority of the Lok Sabha members say they have ‘no confidence’ in the Council of Ministers, all ministers including the Prime Minister, have to quit. the Rajya Sabha does not have this power. Question 7 of 35 7. Question With reference to the Rajya Sabha, identify the correct statement/s from the following: It is meant to be the federal chamber i.e., a House elected by the elected members of Assemblies of the States and Union Territories. Following the American model, states are given equal representation in the Rajya Sabha. Select the answer: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect A second chamber known as the ‘Council of States’, was created with altogether different composition and method of election from that of the directly elected House of the People.  It was conceived as another Chamber, with smaller membership than the Lok Sabha (House of the People).  It was meant to be the federal chamber i.e., a House elected by the elected members of Assemblies of the States and Union Territories. It doesn’t follow the American Model of equal representation, states were not given equal representation.  Apart from the elected members, provision was also made for the nomination of twelve members to the House by the President.  The minimum age of thirty years was fixed for membership as against twenty-five years for the Lower House.  The element of dignity and prestige was added to the Council of State House by making the Vice-President of India ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha who presides over its sittings. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect A second chamber known as the ‘Council of States’, was created with altogether different composition and method of election from that of the directly elected House of the People.  It was conceived as another Chamber, with smaller membership than the Lok Sabha (House of the People).  It was meant to be the federal chamber i.e., a House elected by the elected members of Assemblies of the States and Union Territories. It doesn’t follow the American Model of equal representation, states were not given equal representation.  Apart from the elected members, provision was also made for the nomination of twelve members to the House by the President.  The minimum age of thirty years was fixed for membership as against twenty-five years for the Lower House.  The element of dignity and prestige was added to the Council of State House by making the Vice-President of India ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha who presides over its sittings. Question 8 of 35 8. Question Consider the following statements and identify the correct one/s: Minister of State (MoS) assists the Cabinet Minister and is junior of the Cabinet Minister. Unlike Minister of State, the MoS with Independent Charge has its own ministry to look after. Select the answer: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Unlike Cabinet Minister who is the utmost authority of a particular Department, Minister of State (MoS), in simple terms, he/she assists the Cabinet Minister and is the Junior of the Cabinet Minister. For example, G. Kishan Reddy and Nityanand Rai, both are Minister of State for Home Affairs. Both these ministers have a responsibility of assisting Amit Shah and these two do not hold a separate or an independent portfolio. Unlike Minister of State, the MoS with Independent Charge has its own ministry to look after and don’t assist a Cabinet Minister. However, this post isn’t considered equal to the cabinet minister. This could be considered as a Junior Minister with an independent portfolio. MoS Independent Charge is the intermediate post in between Cabinet Minister and Minister of state. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Unlike Cabinet Minister who is the utmost authority of a particular Department, Minister of State (MoS), in simple terms, he/she assists the Cabinet Minister and is the Junior of the Cabinet Minister. For example, G. Kishan Reddy and Nityanand Rai, both are Minister of State for Home Affairs. Both these ministers have a responsibility of assisting Amit Shah and these two do not hold a separate or an independent portfolio. Unlike Minister of State, the MoS with Independent Charge has its own ministry to look after and don’t assist a Cabinet Minister. However, this post isn’t considered equal to the cabinet minister. This could be considered as a Junior Minister with an independent portfolio. MoS Independent Charge is the intermediate post in between Cabinet Minister and Minister of state. Question 9 of 35 9. Question Who among the following can increase the Quorum of the Lok Sabha? a) The Lok Sabha Speaker under the Rules of Procedure b) The Parliament through the enactment of Law c) The President through the Executive Order d) The Union Cabinet through the Government Order Correct Solution (b) Under Article 100(3) of the Indian Constitution until Parliament by law otherwise provides, the quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament shall be one tenth of the total number of members of the House Note: Quorum: Quorum is the minimum number of members required to be present in the House before it can transact any business. It is one tenth of the total number of members in each House including the presiding officer. It means that there must be at least 55 members present in the Lok Sabha and 25 members present in the Rajya Sabha, if any business is to be conducted. If there is no quorum during a meeting of the House, it is the duty of the presiding officer either to adjourn the House or to suspend the meeting until there is a quorum.   House Lok Sabha Rajya Sabha State Legislative Assembly State Legislative Council Quorum It is one tenth of the total number of members of the House It is one tenth of the total number of members of the House It is ten members or one-tenth of the total number of members of the House (including the presiding officer), whichever is greater. It is ten members or one-tenth of the total number of members of the House (including the presiding officer), whichever is greater. Incorrect Solution (b) Under Article 100(3) of the Indian Constitution until Parliament by law otherwise provides, the quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament shall be one tenth of the total number of members of the House Note: Quorum: Quorum is the minimum number of members required to be present in the House before it can transact any business. It is one tenth of the total number of members in each House including the presiding officer. It means that there must be at least 55 members present in the Lok Sabha and 25 members present in the Rajya Sabha, if any business is to be conducted. If there is no quorum during a meeting of the House, it is the duty of the presiding officer either to adjourn the House or to suspend the meeting until there is a quorum.   House Lok Sabha Rajya Sabha State Legislative Assembly State Legislative Council Quorum It is one tenth of the total number of members of the House It is one tenth of the total number of members of the House It is ten members or one-tenth of the total number of members of the House (including the presiding officer), whichever is greater. It is ten members or one-tenth of the total number of members of the House (including the presiding officer), whichever is greater. Question 10 of 35 10. Question With reference to Whip in the Indian Political System, consider the following statements: Only the Ruling party and the Opposition party in the Parliament has its whip. The Whip is appointed by the political party to serve as an assistant floor leader. The Whip is charged with the responsibility of ensuring the attendance of its party members in large numbers. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct In India, all parties can issue a whip to their members. Parties appoint a senior member from among their House contingents to issue whips. This member is called a Chief Whip, and he/she is assisted by additional Whips. The Whip is appointed by the political party to serve as an assistant floor leader. The Whip is charged with the responsibility of ensuring the attendance of his party members in large numbers and securing their support in favour of or against a particular issue.   Note: Whip: The concept of the whip was inherited from colonial British rule. It is is a written order that political party issue to its members for being present for an important vote, or that they vote only in a particular way. The term is derived from the old British practice of “whipping in” lawmakers to follow the party line. The office of ‘whip’ is mentioned neither in the Constitution of India nor in the Rules of the House nor in a Parliamentary Statute. It is based on the conventions of the parliamentary government. S/He regulates and monitors their behaviour in the Parliament. The members are supposed to follow the directives given by the whip. Otherwise, disciplinary action can be taken. Under the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection law) a political party has a constitutional right to issue a whip to its legislators. If an MP violates his party’s whip, he faces expulsion from the House under the Anti Defection Act. There are some cases such as Presidential election where whips cannot direct a Member of Parliament (MP) or Member of Legislative Assembly (MLA) on whom to vote. Types of Whips The One-line whip to inform the members about a vote. It allows a member to abstain in case they decide not to follow the party line. The Two-line whip is issued to direct the members to be present in the House at the time of voting. No special instructions are given on the pattern of voting. The Three-line whip is issued to members directing them to vote as per the party line. It is the strictest of all the whip. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct In India, all parties can issue a whip to their members. Parties appoint a senior member from among their House contingents to issue whips. This member is called a Chief Whip, and he/she is assisted by additional Whips. The Whip is appointed by the political party to serve as an assistant floor leader. The Whip is charged with the responsibility of ensuring the attendance of his party members in large numbers and securing their support in favour of or against a particular issue.   Note: Whip: The concept of the whip was inherited from colonial British rule. It is is a written order that political party issue to its members for being present for an important vote, or that they vote only in a particular way. The term is derived from the old British practice of “whipping in” lawmakers to follow the party line. The office of ‘whip’ is mentioned neither in the Constitution of India nor in the Rules of the House nor in a Parliamentary Statute. It is based on the conventions of the parliamentary government. S/He regulates and monitors their behaviour in the Parliament. The members are supposed to follow the directives given by the whip. Otherwise, disciplinary action can be taken. Under the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection law) a political party has a constitutional right to issue a whip to its legislators. If an MP violates his party’s whip, he faces expulsion from the House under the Anti Defection Act. There are some cases such as Presidential election where whips cannot direct a Member of Parliament (MP) or Member of Legislative Assembly (MLA) on whom to vote. Types of Whips The One-line whip to inform the members about a vote. It allows a member to abstain in case they decide not to follow the party line. The Two-line whip is issued to direct the members to be present in the House at the time of voting. No special instructions are given on the pattern of voting. The Three-line whip is issued to members directing them to vote as per the party line. It is the strictest of all the whip. Question 11 of 35 11. Question Which one of the following statements is correct about the Office of Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha? a) Originally, the constitution did not have a provision for the post of Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha. b) The post is necessary for the smooth functioning of the Lok Sabha and without him/her, the House cannot function. c) The Deputy Speaker is subordinate to the Speaker but not to the Lok Sabha. d) The Deputy Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha itself from amongst its members. Correct Solution (d) Article 93 of the Indian Constitution provides the office of speaker and Deputy speaker who is elected from the Lok Sabha itself from amongst its members. Note: OFFICE OF DEPUTY SPEAKER: The institution of Speaker and Deputy Speaker originated in India in 1921 under the Montague-Chelmsford reforms. At that time Speaker and Deputy Speaker were called President and Vice-President. The procedure of the election of the Deputy Speaker is same as that of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker is elected from among the members of the Legislative Assembly. In the absence of the Speaker or when the Office of the Speaker is vacant, the duties of the Speaker are performed by the Deputy Speaker. When the Deputy Speaker presides over a sitting of the Legislative Assembly, he has the same powers as the Speaker. The Deputy Speaker holds office till the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly, unless he ceases to be a member of the Parliament. Incorrect Solution (d) Article 93 of the Indian Constitution provides the office of speaker and Deputy speaker who is elected from the Lok Sabha itself from amongst its members. Note: OFFICE OF DEPUTY SPEAKER: The institution of Speaker and Deputy Speaker originated in India in 1921 under the Montague-Chelmsford reforms. At that time Speaker and Deputy Speaker were called President and Vice-President. The procedure of the election of the Deputy Speaker is same as that of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker is elected from among the members of the Legislative Assembly. In the absence of the Speaker or when the Office of the Speaker is vacant, the duties of the Speaker are performed by the Deputy Speaker. When the Deputy Speaker presides over a sitting of the Legislative Assembly, he has the same powers as the Speaker. The Deputy Speaker holds office till the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly, unless he ceases to be a member of the Parliament. Question 12 of 35 12. Question Consider the following statements: The Union Minister, who is a member in the Lok Sabha, can participate in the proceedings of the Rajya Sabha and vice-versa. A minister, who is not a member of either House of the Indian Parliament, cannot participate in the proceedings of both the Houses. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect A Minister who is a member of one House of Parliament has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of the other House also, but can Vote only in the House of which he is a member. A member of Parliament ceases to be a Minister unless he becomes a member of either House within 6 months. As long as they remain in the office of Minister, they can participate in the proceedings of both the Houses regardless to their membership. Note: ARTICLE 74: Council of Ministers to aid and advice President There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice: Provided that the President may require the council of Ministers to reconsider such advice, either generally or otherwise, and the President shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect A Minister who is a member of one House of Parliament has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of the other House also, but can Vote only in the House of which he is a member. A member of Parliament ceases to be a Minister unless he becomes a member of either House within 6 months. As long as they remain in the office of Minister, they can participate in the proceedings of both the Houses regardless to their membership. Note: ARTICLE 74: Council of Ministers to aid and advice President There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice: Provided that the President may require the council of Ministers to reconsider such advice, either generally or otherwise, and the President shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration. Question 13 of 35 13. Question Consider the following statements about the Question Hour and Zero Hour in the Indian Parliament System: While the Question Hour is mentioned in the Indian Constitution, the Zero Hour is mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. For raising matters during the Zero Hour, the Members of Parliament must give the notice 14 days before to the Presiding Officer but in case of the Question Hour, there is no prior permission required. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect Question hour is mentioned in the Rules of Procedure and not in the Constitution. Unlike the question hour, the zero hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. A short notice question of the question hour requires a notice of less than ten days while Zero hour is an informal device available to the members of the Parliament to raise matters without any prior notice. Note:Question Hour: The first hour of every parliamentary sitting is slotted for this. During this time, the members ask questions and the ministers usually give answers. The questions are of three kinds, namely, starred, unstarred and short notice. A starred question (distinguished by an asterisk) requires an oral answer and hence supplementary questions can follow. An unstarred question, on the other hand, requires a written answer and hence, supplementary questions cannot follow. A short notice question is one that is asked by giving a notice of less than ten days. It is answered orally. In addition to the ministers, the questions can also be asked to the private members. Thus, a question may be addressed to a private member if the subject matter of the question relates to some Bill, resolution or other matter connected with the business of the House for which that member is responsible. The procedure in regard to such question is the same as that followed in the case of questions addressed to a minister. The list of starred, unstarred, short notice questions and questions to private members are printed in green, white, light pink and yellow colour, respectively, to distinguish them from one another Zero Hour Unlike the question hour, the zero hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. The zero hour starts immediately after the question hour and lasts until the agenda for the day (i.e., regular business of the House) is taken up. In other words, the time gap between the question hour and the agenda is known as zero hour. It is an Indian innovation in the field of parliamentary procedures and has been in existence since 1962. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect Question hour is mentioned in the Rules of Procedure and not in the Constitution. Unlike the question hour, the zero hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. A short notice question of the question hour requires a notice of less than ten days while Zero hour is an informal device available to the members of the Parliament to raise matters without any prior notice. Note:Question Hour: The first hour of every parliamentary sitting is slotted for this. During this time, the members ask questions and the ministers usually give answers. The questions are of three kinds, namely, starred, unstarred and short notice. A starred question (distinguished by an asterisk) requires an oral answer and hence supplementary questions can follow. An unstarred question, on the other hand, requires a written answer and hence, supplementary questions cannot follow. A short notice question is one that is asked by giving a notice of less than ten days. It is answered orally. In addition to the ministers, the questions can also be asked to the private members. Thus, a question may be addressed to a private member if the subject matter of the question relates to some Bill, resolution or other matter connected with the business of the House for which that member is responsible. The procedure in regard to such question is the same as that followed in the case of questions addressed to a minister. The list of starred, unstarred, short notice questions and questions to private members are printed in green, white, light pink and yellow colour, respectively, to distinguish them from one another Zero Hour Unlike the question hour, the zero hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. The zero hour starts immediately after the question hour and lasts until the agenda for the day (i.e., regular business of the House) is taken up. In other words, the time gap between the question hour and the agenda is known as zero hour. It is an Indian innovation in the field of parliamentary procedures and has been in existence since 1962. Question 14 of 35 14. Question Consider the following statements: The Constitution has not fixed the term of office of the members of Rajya Sabha. The Lok Sabha automatically dissolves after five years from the date of its first meeting after the general elections. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Constitution has not fixed the tenure of members of Rajya Sabha and has empowered parliament to determine it. Parliament enacted the Representation of People’s act 1951 to fix the term of office of members as 6 years. The duration of Lok Sabha is five years and after 5 years of its institution, Lok Sabha undergoes automatic dissolution.   Note:DURATION OF PARLIAMENTARY HOUSES: Lok Sabha Lok Sabha is not a permanent house and hence can be dissolved. General duration of the Lok Sabha is 5 years and completion of the time period, its members automatically vacate the house. Premature dissolution of house (less than 5-year duration) is also possible when president dissolves Lok Sabha. This dissolution power of president to dissolve Lok Sabha is not a discretionary power of his own because he acts according to the advice given by prime minister and his council of ministers. In some cases, duration of the Lok Sabha can be extended (more than 5 years duration) due to the prevalence of national emergency making it difficult to conduct elections. The extension of duration requires a parliamentary law to that effect and prevalence of national emergency as a prerequisite, which will increase the duration of Lok Sabha by one year. If the national emergency discontinues within the extended one year, Lok Sabha continues only for 6 months from the date of revocation of national emergency. Rajya Sabha: Rajya Sabha is a permanent and non-dissolvable house, with a tenure of 6 years where in one third of its members retire once in two years. The tenure of Rajya Sabha members is not given in the constitution but is derived from Representation of People’s Act 1951. In 1952 the first house of Rajya Sabha, one third of members had 2 years tenure, second third of members had 4 years tenure while the third set had six years tenure. Constitution empowered president to decide the unlucky set of less tenure enjoying members and he chose by lottery to conclude the less tenured candidates. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Constitution has not fixed the tenure of members of Rajya Sabha and has empowered parliament to determine it. Parliament enacted the Representation of People’s act 1951 to fix the term of office of members as 6 years. The duration of Lok Sabha is five years and after 5 years of its institution, Lok Sabha undergoes automatic dissolution.   Note:DURATION OF PARLIAMENTARY HOUSES: Lok Sabha Lok Sabha is not a permanent house and hence can be dissolved. General duration of the Lok Sabha is 5 years and completion of the time period, its members automatically vacate the house. Premature dissolution of house (less than 5-year duration) is also possible when president dissolves Lok Sabha. This dissolution power of president to dissolve Lok Sabha is not a discretionary power of his own because he acts according to the advice given by prime minister and his council of ministers. In some cases, duration of the Lok Sabha can be extended (more than 5 years duration) due to the prevalence of national emergency making it difficult to conduct elections. The extension of duration requires a parliamentary law to that effect and prevalence of national emergency as a prerequisite, which will increase the duration of Lok Sabha by one year. If the national emergency discontinues within the extended one year, Lok Sabha continues only for 6 months from the date of revocation of national emergency. Rajya Sabha: Rajya Sabha is a permanent and non-dissolvable house, with a tenure of 6 years where in one third of its members retire once in two years. The tenure of Rajya Sabha members is not given in the constitution but is derived from Representation of People’s Act 1951. In 1952 the first house of Rajya Sabha, one third of members had 2 years tenure, second third of members had 4 years tenure while the third set had six years tenure. Constitution empowered president to decide the unlucky set of less tenure enjoying members and he chose by lottery to conclude the less tenured candidates. Question 15 of 35 15. Question With reference to the functioning of the Parliament, consider the following statements that describe an parliamentary procedure: It terminates a session of the House. It does not affect the bills or any pending business before the House. It is done by the President of India. Which one of the following procedure  is described in the statements given above? a) Dissolution b) Prorogation c) Adjournment d) Adjournment sine die Correct Solution (b) President does both dissolution and prorogation while both dissolution and prorogation only terminates session of parliament. Prorogation does not affect the bills or any pending business before the house. Note: PROCEDURE FOR PARLIAMENTARY SESSIONS: A session of parliament is the period between first sitting and previous prorogation or the period between two recesses. Sessions is the period where parliament transacts its regular business. It happens usually three times a year, budget session, monsoon session and winter session. Summoning is the calling of formation of session called upon by the president. Article 85 states that president, from time to time, can summon each house of parliament to meet anywhere and the maximum gap between two sessions of parliament cannot be more than six months. Adjournment suspends the work in a sitting for a specified time, which maybe hours, days or week. Adjournment sine die means terminating a sitting of parliament for an indefinite period or adjourning the house of parliament without naming a day for reassembly. The power of adjournment and adjournment sine die lies with the presiding officer of the house. ADJOURNMENT PROROGATION It terminates a sitting only and not the session of parliament. It not only terminates sitting but also terminates session of house. Done by presiding officer of the house. Done by president of India. It doesn’t affect the pending bills or any other business pending before the house and anything pending can be resumed on meeting of house. It doesn’t affect pending bills but affects pending notices and other procedures. In Britain, prorogation ends all businesses of the house.   Incorrect Solution (b) President does both dissolution and prorogation while both dissolution and prorogation only terminates session of parliament. Prorogation does not affect the bills or any pending business before the house. Note: PROCEDURE FOR PARLIAMENTARY SESSIONS: A session of parliament is the period between first sitting and previous prorogation or the period between two recesses. Sessions is the period where parliament transacts its regular business. It happens usually three times a year, budget session, monsoon session and winter session. Summoning is the calling of formation of session called upon by the president. Article 85 states that president, from time to time, can summon each house of parliament to meet anywhere and the maximum gap between two sessions of parliament cannot be more than six months. Adjournment suspends the work in a sitting for a specified time, which maybe hours, days or week. Adjournment sine die means terminating a sitting of parliament for an indefinite period or adjourning the house of parliament without naming a day for reassembly. The power of adjournment and adjournment sine die lies with the presiding officer of the house. ADJOURNMENT PROROGATION It terminates a sitting only and not the session of parliament. It not only terminates sitting but also terminates session of house. Done by presiding officer of the house. Done by president of India. It doesn’t affect the pending bills or any other business pending before the house and anything pending can be resumed on meeting of house. It doesn’t affect pending bills but affects pending notices and other procedures. In Britain, prorogation ends all businesses of the house.   Question 16 of 35 16. Question Why India has not preferred the U.S. model of the Presidential system of Democracy during the enactment of the Constitution? a) The President lacks the power to dissolve the lower house of the Congress which hampers productivity. b) The Constitution-makers were somewhat familiar with the President’s system as it had been in operation in India during the British rule. c) The strict and rigid form of the Federal setup may lead to frictions between Union and Sates. d) The lack of collective responsibility of the President and his minister’s to the Congress. Correct Solution (d) The American system gives more stability but less responsibility. The British system, on the other hand, gives more responsibility but less stability. The Draft Constitution in recommending the parliamentary system of Executive has preferred more responsibility to more stability. Note: Why Parliamentary System? Familiarity with the System The Constitution-makers were somewhat familiar with the parliamentary system as it had been in operation in India during the British rule. Preference to More Responsibility Dr. B.R. Ambedkar pointed out in the Constituent Assembly that ‘a democratic executive must satisfy two conditions: stability and responsibility. Unfortunately, it has not been possible so far to devise a system which can ensure both in equal degree. Need to Avoid Legislative–Executive Conflicts The framers of the Constitution wanted to avoid the conflicts between the legislature and the executive which are bound to occur in the presidential system prevalent in USA. They thought that an infant democracy could not afford to take the risk of a perpetual cleavage, feud or conflict or threatened conflict between these two organs of the government. They wanted a form of government that would be conductive to the manifold development of the country. Nature of Indian Society India is one of the most heterogeneous States and most complex plural societies in the world. Hence, the Constitution-makers adopted the parliamentary system as it offers greater scope for giving representation to various section, interests and regions in the government. This promotes a national spirit among the people and builds a united India. Whether the parliamentary system should be continued or should be replaced by the presidential system has been a point of discussion and debate in our country since the 1970s. This matter was considered in detail by the Swaran Singh Committee appointed by the Congress government in 1975. The committee opined that the parliamentary system has been doing well and hence, there is no need to replace it by the presidential system. Incorrect Solution (d) The American system gives more stability but less responsibility. The British system, on the other hand, gives more responsibility but less stability. The Draft Constitution in recommending the parliamentary system of Executive has preferred more responsibility to more stability. Note: Why Parliamentary System? Familiarity with the System The Constitution-makers were somewhat familiar with the parliamentary system as it had been in operation in India during the British rule. Preference to More Responsibility Dr. B.R. Ambedkar pointed out in the Constituent Assembly that ‘a democratic executive must satisfy two conditions: stability and responsibility. Unfortunately, it has not been possible so far to devise a system which can ensure both in equal degree. Need to Avoid Legislative–Executive Conflicts The framers of the Constitution wanted to avoid the conflicts between the legislature and the executive which are bound to occur in the presidential system prevalent in USA. They thought that an infant democracy could not afford to take the risk of a perpetual cleavage, feud or conflict or threatened conflict between these two organs of the government. They wanted a form of government that would be conductive to the manifold development of the country. Nature of Indian Society India is one of the most heterogeneous States and most complex plural societies in the world. Hence, the Constitution-makers adopted the parliamentary system as it offers greater scope for giving representation to various section, interests and regions in the government. This promotes a national spirit among the people and builds a united India. Whether the parliamentary system should be continued or should be replaced by the presidential system has been a point of discussion and debate in our country since the 1970s. This matter was considered in detail by the Swaran Singh Committee appointed by the Congress government in 1975. The committee opined that the parliamentary system has been doing well and hence, there is no need to replace it by the presidential system. Question 17 of 35 17. Question Consider the following statements: The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Upper House of Parliament. The Vice-President can act as President only for a maximum period of six months. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of Upper House of Parliament by virtue of the office of the Vice-President. When the President dies in office and Vice President takes over as President, he can continue serving as the President for a maximum of 6 months within which a new President shall be elected. Note: Vice-President: Vice-President of India is the second highest office under the Article 63 – 71, Part V of the Constitution of India. He is accorded a rank next to the President in the official warrant of precedence. The Vice-President, like the President, is elected indirectly rather than directly by the electoral college. The model for the office of the vice-president of India is borrowed from the American Vice-President. Power And Functions: Vice-President acts as the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha and his powers and functions are similar to those of the speaker of the Lok Sabha. In the event of the president’s inability to work due to any reasons or a vacancy in the office of the president due to any reason he can act as the president. The office was created to maintain continuity in the Indian state; however, this is only for 6 months till the next president is elected. The Vice President while discharging duty as President, should not preside over Rajya Sabha. The Vice-President does not execute the responsibilities of Rajya Sabha Chairman while serving as President or discharging the obligations of President. During this time, such responsibilities are carried out by the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of Upper House of Parliament by virtue of the office of the Vice-President. When the President dies in office and Vice President takes over as President, he can continue serving as the President for a maximum of 6 months within which a new President shall be elected. Note: Vice-President: Vice-President of India is the second highest office under the Article 63 – 71, Part V of the Constitution of India. He is accorded a rank next to the President in the official warrant of precedence. The Vice-President, like the President, is elected indirectly rather than directly by the electoral college. The model for the office of the vice-president of India is borrowed from the American Vice-President. Power And Functions: Vice-President acts as the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha and his powers and functions are similar to those of the speaker of the Lok Sabha. In the event of the president’s inability to work due to any reasons or a vacancy in the office of the president due to any reason he can act as the president. The office was created to maintain continuity in the Indian state; however, this is only for 6 months till the next president is elected. The Vice President while discharging duty as President, should not preside over Rajya Sabha. The Vice-President does not execute the responsibilities of Rajya Sabha Chairman while serving as President or discharging the obligations of President. During this time, such responsibilities are carried out by the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Question 18 of 35 18. Question Consider the following statements: Salaries and allowances of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. Under the Rules of Rajya Sabha, the Chairman nominates from amongst the members a panel of vice-chairpersons. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The salaries and allowances of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha and the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India and thus are not subject to the annual vote of Parliament. Under the Rules of Rajya Sabha, the Chairman nominates from amongst the members a panel of vice-chairpersons. Any one of them can preside over the House in the absence of the Chairman or the Deputy Chairman. He has the same powers as the Chairman when so presiding. He holds office until a new panel of vice-chairpersons is nominated. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The salaries and allowances of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha and the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India and thus are not subject to the annual vote of Parliament. Under the Rules of Rajya Sabha, the Chairman nominates from amongst the members a panel of vice-chairpersons. Any one of them can preside over the House in the absence of the Chairman or the Deputy Chairman. He has the same powers as the Chairman when so presiding. He holds office until a new panel of vice-chairpersons is nominated. Question 19 of 35 19. Question Which of the following conditions are needed for a person to be qualified for being elected as a member of Parliament? He must not have been found guilty of certain election offences or corrupt practices in the elections. He must not have been convicted for any offence resulting in imprisonment for two or more years. He must not have been dismissed from government service for corruption or disloyalty to the State. How many of the given statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct He must not have been found guilty of certain election offences or corrupt practices in the elections. He must not have been convicted for any offence resulting in imprisonment for two or more years. He must not have been dismissed from government service for corruption or disloyalty to the State.   DisqualificationsUnder the Constitution, a person shall be disqualified for being elected as a member of Parliament: If he holds any office of profit under the Union or state government (except that of a minister or any other office exempted by Parliament). If he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a court. If he is an undischarged insolvent. If he is not a citizen of India or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign state or is under any acknowledgement of allegiance to a foreign state; and If he is so disqualified under any law made by Parliament. The Parliament has laid down the following additional disqualifications in the Representation of People Act (1951): He must not have been found guilty of certain election offences or corrupt practices in the elections. He must not have been convicted for any offence resulting in imprisonment for two or more years. But, the detention of a person under a preventive detention law is not a disqualification. He must not have failed to lodge an account of his election expenses within the time. He must not have any interest in government contracts, works or services. He must not be a director or managing agent nor hold an office of profit in a corporation in which the government has at least 25 per cent share. He must not have been dismissed from government service for corruption or disloyalty to the State. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct He must not have been found guilty of certain election offences or corrupt practices in the elections. He must not have been convicted for any offence resulting in imprisonment for two or more years. He must not have been dismissed from government service for corruption or disloyalty to the State.   DisqualificationsUnder the Constitution, a person shall be disqualified for being elected as a member of Parliament: If he holds any office of profit under the Union or state government (except that of a minister or any other office exempted by Parliament). If he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a court. If he is an undischarged insolvent. If he is not a citizen of India or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign state or is under any acknowledgement of allegiance to a foreign state; and If he is so disqualified under any law made by Parliament. The Parliament has laid down the following additional disqualifications in the Representation of People Act (1951): He must not have been found guilty of certain election offences or corrupt practices in the elections. He must not have been convicted for any offence resulting in imprisonment for two or more years. But, the detention of a person under a preventive detention law is not a disqualification. He must not have failed to lodge an account of his election expenses within the time. He must not have any interest in government contracts, works or services. He must not be a director or managing agent nor hold an office of profit in a corporation in which the government has at least 25 per cent share. He must not have been dismissed from government service for corruption or disloyalty to the State. Question 20 of 35 20. Question Consider the following statements regarding Double Membership: If a person is elected to both the Houses of Parliament, he must intimate within 10 days in which House he desires to serve. In default of such intimation, his seat in the Rajya Sabha becomes vacant. If a person is elected to two seats in loksabha, he should exercise his option for one. Otherwise, both seats become vacant. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct If a person is elected simultaneously to both Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha, and if he has not yet taken his seat in either House, he can choose, within 10 days from the later of the dates on which he is chosen to those Houses, the House of which he would like to be a member. The member must intimate his choice in writing to the Secretary to the Election Commission of India (ECI) within the 10-day window, failing which his seat in Rajya Sabha will fall vacant at the end of this period. No such option is, however, available to a person who is already a member of one House and has contested the election for membership of the other House. So, if a sitting Rajya Sabha member contests and wins a Lok Sabha election, his seat in the Upper House becomes automatically vacant on the date he is declared elected to Lok Sabha. The same applies to a Lok Sabha member who contests an election to Rajya Sabha Under Sec 33(7) of RPA, 1951, an individual can contest from two parliamentary constituencies but, if elected from both, he has to resign one seat within 14 days of the declaration of the result, failing which both his seats shall fall vacant. Note: If a sitting member of one House is also elected to the other House, his seat in the first House becomes vacant. Similarly, a person cannot be a member of both the Parliament and the state legislature at the same time. If a person is so elected, his seat in Parliament becomes vacant if he does not resign his seat in the state legislature within 14 days. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct If a person is elected simultaneously to both Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha, and if he has not yet taken his seat in either House, he can choose, within 10 days from the later of the dates on which he is chosen to those Houses, the House of which he would like to be a member. The member must intimate his choice in writing to the Secretary to the Election Commission of India (ECI) within the 10-day window, failing which his seat in Rajya Sabha will fall vacant at the end of this period. No such option is, however, available to a person who is already a member of one House and has contested the election for membership of the other House. So, if a sitting Rajya Sabha member contests and wins a Lok Sabha election, his seat in the Upper House becomes automatically vacant on the date he is declared elected to Lok Sabha. The same applies to a Lok Sabha member who contests an election to Rajya Sabha Under Sec 33(7) of RPA, 1951, an individual can contest from two parliamentary constituencies but, if elected from both, he has to resign one seat within 14 days of the declaration of the result, failing which both his seats shall fall vacant. Note: If a sitting member of one House is also elected to the other House, his seat in the first House becomes vacant. Similarly, a person cannot be a member of both the Parliament and the state legislature at the same time. If a person is so elected, his seat in Parliament becomes vacant if he does not resign his seat in the state legislature within 14 days. Question 21 of 35 21. Question Consider the following statements: Poshan 2.0 is a central sector scheme that addresses malnutrition among children, adolescent girls, pregnant and lactating women. The 6th Rashtriya Poshan Maah is celebrated by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare to comprehensively address malnutrition using a life-cycle approach. The theme of the 6th Rashtriya Poshan Maah of 2023 is ‘Suposhit Bharat, Sakshar Bharat, Sashakt Bharat’. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Poshan 2.0 is a centrally sponsored schemebeing implemented through the State government/ UT administrations based on a cost-sharing ratio between the Central and the State Governments. It addresses malnutrition among children up to 6 years of age, adolescent girls, and pregnant and lactating women. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It aims to create an integrated nutrition support program that enhances the content, delivery, outreach, and overall outcomes of nutritional services. The 6th Rashtriya Poshan Maah is celebrated by theMinistry of Women and Child Development (MoWCD)  to comprehensively address malnutrition using a life-cycle approach. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The main objective is to raise awareness about critical life stages, including pregnancy, infancy, childhood, and adolescence, topromote better nutrition across India. The theme of the 6th Rashtriya Poshan Maah of 2023 is ‘Suposhit Bharat, Sakshar Bharat, Sashakt Bharat’. It places importance on nutrition, education, and empowerment in building a healthier and stronger country. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (a) Poshan 2.0 is a centrally sponsored schemebeing implemented through the State government/ UT administrations based on a cost-sharing ratio between the Central and the State Governments. It addresses malnutrition among children up to 6 years of age, adolescent girls, and pregnant and lactating women. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It aims to create an integrated nutrition support program that enhances the content, delivery, outreach, and overall outcomes of nutritional services. The 6th Rashtriya Poshan Maah is celebrated by theMinistry of Women and Child Development (MoWCD)  to comprehensively address malnutrition using a life-cycle approach. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The main objective is to raise awareness about critical life stages, including pregnancy, infancy, childhood, and adolescence, topromote better nutrition across India. The theme of the 6th Rashtriya Poshan Maah of 2023 is ‘Suposhit Bharat, Sakshar Bharat, Sashakt Bharat’. It places importance on nutrition, education, and empowerment in building a healthier and stronger country. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements regarding Fiscal Deficit: It is the difference between the government’s total expenditure and its total revenue including borrowings. A high fiscal deficit represents a healthy economy while a low fiscal deficit represents a debt burden. It enables the government to increase spending on public services that can stimulate economic growth. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Fiscal Deficit is thedifference between the government’s total expenditure and its total revenue excluding borrowings. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is an indicator of the extent to which the government must borrow to finance its operations and is expressed as a percentage of the country’s GDP. A high fiscal deficit represents a debt burden while a low fiscal deficit represents a healthy economy. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It enables the government to increase spending onpublic services that can stimulate economic growth. It can finance long-term investments, such as infrastructure projects, through fiscal deficit. It can lead to job creation, which can help reduce unemployment and increase the standard of living. Hence statement 3 is correct.   Incorrect Solution (a) Fiscal Deficit is thedifference between the government’s total expenditure and its total revenue excluding borrowings. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is an indicator of the extent to which the government must borrow to finance its operations and is expressed as a percentage of the country’s GDP. A high fiscal deficit represents a debt burden while a low fiscal deficit represents a healthy economy. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It enables the government to increase spending onpublic services that can stimulate economic growth. It can finance long-term investments, such as infrastructure projects, through fiscal deficit. It can lead to job creation, which can help reduce unemployment and increase the standard of living. Hence statement 3 is correct.   Question 23 of 35 23. Question Consider the following statements regarding Gabon: It is the largest oil producer in Sub-Saharan Africa. It is a member of the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC). The Loango National Park is one of the country’s best wildlife-watching spots. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Gabon is the4th largest oil producer in Sub-Saharan Africa. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is surrounded by the Atlantic Oceanin the west. It was a former French colony. Its capital is Libreville and shares land borders withCameroon, Equatorial Guinea, and the Republic of Congo. It is a member of theOrganization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC). Hence statement 2 is correct. The Loango National Park is one of the country’s best wildlife-watching spots. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) Gabon is the4th largest oil producer in Sub-Saharan Africa. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is surrounded by the Atlantic Oceanin the west. It was a former French colony. Its capital is Libreville and shares land borders withCameroon, Equatorial Guinea, and the Republic of Congo. It is a member of theOrganization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC). Hence statement 2 is correct. The Loango National Park is one of the country’s best wildlife-watching spots. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements regarding Pulikkali: It is one of the folk art forms of Kerala. The main theme of this folk art is tiger hunting. It is performed on the fourth day of the Onam festival. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Pulikkali is one of the folk art forms of Kerala. Hence statement 1 is correct. The artists wear tiger masks, paint their bodies like tigers, and dance to the rhythm of traditional percussion instruments such as thakil, udukku, and chenda. The main theme of this folk art is tiger hunting. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is performed on the fourth day of the Onam festival. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is believed to have originated two centuries ago as a street dance form and became part of Onam celebrations later. It is said to have been introduced by the erstwhile ruler of Cochin, Maharaja Rama Varma Sakthan Thampuran. Incorrect Solution (c) Pulikkali is one of the folk art forms of Kerala. Hence statement 1 is correct. The artists wear tiger masks, paint their bodies like tigers, and dance to the rhythm of traditional percussion instruments such as thakil, udukku, and chenda. The main theme of this folk art is tiger hunting. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is performed on the fourth day of the Onam festival. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is believed to have originated two centuries ago as a street dance form and became part of Onam celebrations later. It is said to have been introduced by the erstwhile ruler of Cochin, Maharaja Rama Varma Sakthan Thampuran. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements regarding the National Education Policy 2020: Its primary objective is to prioritize learning in a student’s mother tongue. It aims to create the National Research Foundation to facilitate research within academic institutions. It establishes the National Curriculum Framework for School Education to set specific learning standards. It establishes a National Credit Framework to encompass various academic practices within a credit bank. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) The key features of the National Education Policy 2020: Its primary objective is to prioritize learning in a student’s mother tongue. Hence statement 1 is correct. It aims to create the National Research Foundationto facilitate research within academic institutions. Hence statement 2 is correct. It establishes the National Curriculum Framework for School Education to set specific learning standards. Hence statement 3 is correct. It establishes a National Credit Framework to encompass various academic practices within a credit bank. Hence statement 4 is correct. Incorrect Solution (d) The key features of the National Education Policy 2020: Its primary objective is to prioritize learning in a student’s mother tongue. Hence statement 1 is correct. It aims to create the National Research Foundationto facilitate research within academic institutions. Hence statement 2 is correct. It establishes the National Curriculum Framework for School Education to set specific learning standards. Hence statement 3 is correct. It establishes a National Credit Framework to encompass various academic practices within a credit bank. Hence statement 4 is correct. Question 26 of 35 26. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Gujarat Declaration: It was adopted at the first World Health Organization (WHO) Traditional Medicine Global Summit. It placed importance on global commitments towards indigenous knowledge, biodiversity, and traditional, complementary, and integrative medicine. Select the correct answer: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) The Gujarat Declaration was adopted at the first World Health Organization (WHO) Traditional Medicine Global Summit. Hence statement 1 is correct. The first World Health Organization (WHO) Traditional Medicine Global Summit was held in Gandhinagar, Gujarat. It placed importance on global commitments towards indigenous knowledge, biodiversity, and traditional, complementary, and integrative medicine. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) The Gujarat Declaration was adopted at the first World Health Organization (WHO) Traditional Medicine Global Summit. Hence statement 1 is correct. The first World Health Organization (WHO) Traditional Medicine Global Summit was held in Gandhinagar, Gujarat. It placed importance on global commitments towards indigenous knowledge, biodiversity, and traditional, complementary, and integrative medicine. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Education to Entrepreneurship Initiative: It is a collaboration between the Ministry of Education, the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship, and France. It aims to provide digital marketing skills training to five lakh entrepreneurs over the next three years. Under this initiative, training will be conducted in seven regional languages by using platforms like Facebook, WhatsApp, and Instagram. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Education to Entrepreneurship Initiative is a collaboration between the Ministry of Education, the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship, and Meta. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It aims to provide digital marketing skills training to five lakh entrepreneurs over the next three years. Hence statement 2 is correct. Under this initiative, training will be conducted in seven regional languages by using platforms like Facebook, WhatsApp, and Instagram. Hence statement 3 is correct. It will equip India’s talent pool with futuristic technologies, fostering a new generation of problem solvers and entrepreneurs. Incorrect Solution (b) The Education to Entrepreneurship Initiative is a collaboration between the Ministry of Education, the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship, and Meta. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It aims to provide digital marketing skills training to five lakh entrepreneurs over the next three years. Hence statement 2 is correct. Under this initiative, training will be conducted in seven regional languages by using platforms like Facebook, WhatsApp, and Instagram. Hence statement 3 is correct. It will equip India’s talent pool with futuristic technologies, fostering a new generation of problem solvers and entrepreneurs. Question 28 of 35 28. Question Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Kakapo’: It is a species of parrot found only in Australia. It is listed as critically endangered on the IUCN List. It is the world’s only flightless parrot. It is the world’s heaviest parrot. How many of the given statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) The Kākāpō is a species of parrot found only in New Zealand. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is listed as critically endangered on the IUCN List. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is the world’s only flightless parrot. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is the world’s heaviest parrot. Hence statement 4 is correct. It is nocturnal and herbivorous. It is also possibly one of the world’s longest-living birds, with a reported lifespan of up to 100 years. They only breed every few years, triggered by the availability of certain forest foods such as the fruits of the native rimu tree. It is also the only parrot to have a polygynous lek breeding system. Note: Lek breeding system is a mating system in which the male provides no parental care to its offspring. Incorrect Solution (c) The Kākāpō is a species of parrot found only in New Zealand. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is listed as critically endangered on the IUCN List. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is the world’s only flightless parrot. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is the world’s heaviest parrot. Hence statement 4 is correct. It is nocturnal and herbivorous. It is also possibly one of the world’s longest-living birds, with a reported lifespan of up to 100 years. They only breed every few years, triggered by the availability of certain forest foods such as the fruits of the native rimu tree. It is also the only parrot to have a polygynous lek breeding system. Note: Lek breeding system is a mating system in which the male provides no parental care to its offspring. Question 29 of 35 29. Question Consider the following statements regarding the different official tracks under G20: The Finance Track is headed by the finance ministers and central bank governors and mainly focuses on issues of the global economy. The Sherpa Track is headed by civil or engagement groups and mainly focuses on socio-economic issues. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) The G20 works in three major tracks. The official tracks are the Finance Track and the Sherpa Track. The unofficial track includes engagement groups or civil society groups. The Finance Track is headed by the finance ministers and central bank governors and mainly focuses on issues of the global economy. It mainly focuses on fiscal and monetary policy issues such as the global economy, infrastructure, financial regulation, financial inclusion, international financial architecture, and international taxation. Hence statement 1 is correct. The Sherpa Track is headed by representatives of heads of state and mainly focuses on socio-economic issues. It mainly focuses on socio-economic issues such as agriculture, anti-corruption, climate, digital economy, education, employment, energy, environment, health, tourism, trade and investment. The unofficial track comprises engagement or civil groups. These groups often draft recommendations to the G20 Leaders that contribute to the policy-making process. The engagement groups are as follows: Business20, Civil20, Labour20, Parliament20, Science20, SAI20, Startup20, Think20, Urban20, Women20 and Youth20. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (a) The G20 works in three major tracks. The official tracks are the Finance Track and the Sherpa Track. The unofficial track includes engagement groups or civil society groups. The Finance Track is headed by the finance ministers and central bank governors and mainly focuses on issues of the global economy. It mainly focuses on fiscal and monetary policy issues such as the global economy, infrastructure, financial regulation, financial inclusion, international financial architecture, and international taxation. Hence statement 1 is correct. The Sherpa Track is headed by representatives of heads of state and mainly focuses on socio-economic issues. It mainly focuses on socio-economic issues such as agriculture, anti-corruption, climate, digital economy, education, employment, energy, environment, health, tourism, trade and investment. The unofficial track comprises engagement or civil groups. These groups often draft recommendations to the G20 Leaders that contribute to the policy-making process. The engagement groups are as follows: Business20, Civil20, Labour20, Parliament20, Science20, SAI20, Startup20, Think20, Urban20, Women20 and Youth20. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Question 30 of 35 30. Question The Johannesburg Declaration and the Contingent Reserve Arrangement are related to which of the following organisation? a) Association of Southeast Asian Nations b) World Bank c) Asian Development Bank d) BRICS Correct Solution (d) The Johannesburg Declaration and the Contingent Reserve Arrangement are related to BRICS. The Johannesburg Declaration predominantly emphasizes intra-BRICS cooperation and collaboration with other developing nations. The member nations have agreed to promote the use oflocal currencies in trade and financial transactions between BRICS countries and other trade partners. The Contingent Reserve Arrangement aids countries facing short-term balance-of-payments challenges. Hence option d is correct. Incorrect Solution (d) The Johannesburg Declaration and the Contingent Reserve Arrangement are related to BRICS. The Johannesburg Declaration predominantly emphasizes intra-BRICS cooperation and collaboration with other developing nations. The member nations have agreed to promote the use oflocal currencies in trade and financial transactions between BRICS countries and other trade partners. The Contingent Reserve Arrangement aids countries facing short-term balance-of-payments challenges. Hence option d is correct. Question 31 of 35 31. Question Lincoln once reprimanded a young army officer for indulging in a violent controversy with an associate. “No man who is resolved to make the most of himself,” said Lincoln, “can spare time for personal contention. Still less can he afford to take the consequences, including the vitiation of his temper and the loss of self-control. Yield larger things to which you show no more than equal rights; and yield lesser ones though clearly your own. Better give your path to a dog than be bitten by him in contesting for the right. Even killing the dog would not cure the bite.” Which one of the following is essentially discussed in the passage? a) How avoiding controversy can make one more successful. b) The story and events from the life of Abraham Lincoln. c) The ways to of avoiding anger and improving self-control. d) The futility of indulgence into self- contention and petty issues Correct Solution (d) Option (a) is incorrect because the passage is talking about avoiding all the pity issues. It is not so specific to controversies. Option (b) is incorrect because though the passage is from the life of Lincoln, it is conveying a specific message. That message is the essential discussion and not the life of Lincoln. Option (c) is incorrect because though some aspects of self-control is discussed here, the ways of achieving it is not discussed here. The passage discusses how Lincoln reprimanded an officer and told him not to spare time for personal contention. He also advices him to yield larger things. Thus, Option (d) is the correct answer. Incorrect Solution (d) Option (a) is incorrect because the passage is talking about avoiding all the pity issues. It is not so specific to controversies. Option (b) is incorrect because though the passage is from the life of Lincoln, it is conveying a specific message. That message is the essential discussion and not the life of Lincoln. Option (c) is incorrect because though some aspects of self-control is discussed here, the ways of achieving it is not discussed here. The passage discusses how Lincoln reprimanded an officer and told him not to spare time for personal contention. He also advices him to yield larger things. Thus, Option (d) is the correct answer. Question 32 of 35 32. Question The amount of work in a factory is increased by 50%. By what percent is it necessary to increase the number of workers to complete the new work in previously planned time, if productivity of the new workers is 150% more? a) 20% b) 30% c) 33.33% d) None of these Correct Solution (a) Men =Time*Work Let the work be 100 units and time be 1 unit 100×1 = 100 units Now work is 150 units (after 50% increase), but time remains the same. Let m be the total number of workers (with same efficiency) required now. So, m×1=150 So m=150 So extra workers required = 50 But since the new workers are 5/2 times (i.e. 150% more) efficient than the existing workers. So actual number of new workers required = 50/(5/2) = 20 Hence, the required percentage = 20/100 × 100 = 20%   Incorrect Solution (a) Men =Time*Work Let the work be 100 units and time be 1 unit 100×1 = 100 units Now work is 150 units (after 50% increase), but time remains the same. Let m be the total number of workers (with same efficiency) required now. So, m×1=150 So m=150 So extra workers required = 50 But since the new workers are 5/2 times (i.e. 150% more) efficient than the existing workers. So actual number of new workers required = 50/(5/2) = 20 Hence, the required percentage = 20/100 × 100 = 20%   Question 33 of 35 33. Question Never begin by announcing “I am going to prove so- and so to you.” That’s bad. That’s tantamount to saying: “I’m smarter than you are; I’m going to tell you a thing or two and make you change your mind.” That is a challenge. It arouses opposition and makes the listener want to battle with you before you even start. What is the most logical, rational and crucial message that is implied in the above passage? a) The art of convincing others needs subtlety and adroitness. b) Trying to convince others towards wrong deeds is immoral. c) Ability to convince others is naturally present in some. d) It is useless to try and convince a wise Correct Solution (a) The passage discusses why we should not let others know that we are trying to convince them. Thus, we should do that subtly. Option (a) is therefore the correct answer. Option (b) is incorrect because the passage is not about morality. Option (c) is incorrect because the origin of this ability is not discussed here. Option (d) is incorrect because the passage is not specific to wise person. Incorrect Solution (a) The passage discusses why we should not let others know that we are trying to convince them. Thus, we should do that subtly. Option (a) is therefore the correct answer. Option (b) is incorrect because the passage is not about morality. Option (c) is incorrect because the origin of this ability is not discussed here. Option (d) is incorrect because the passage is not specific to wise person. Question 34 of 35 34. Question 60 men, working 9 hours a day can complete a work in 27 days. How many hours a day must 30 men work to complete the same work in 162 days? a) 3 hours b) 2 hours c) 4 hours d) None of these Correct Solution (a) W = MDH (formula) Where, W = work; M = man (number of persons); D = days (number of days); H = hours (hours per day) So, 60×9×27=30×162×X (X= hours a day needed by each of the 30 men) ⇒ X = 60×9×27/30×162 = 3 hours. Incorrect Solution (a) W = MDH (formula) Where, W = work; M = man (number of persons); D = days (number of days); H = hours (hours per day) So, 60×9×27=30×162×X (X= hours a day needed by each of the 30 men) ⇒ X = 60×9×27/30×162 = 3 hours. Question 35 of 35 35. Question Tina goes to her office by car. She usually reaches the office at 10:10 AM. One day she drove at 4/5th (four- fifth) of her usual speed and reached the office at 10:30 AM. What is the time taken by her to reach the office at her usual speed? a) 100 minutes b) 80 minutes c) 70 minutes d) None of these Correct Solution (b) New speed = 4/5 of its usual speed So, New time taken = 5/4 of the usual time [time = distance/speed, if distance is constant then time ∝ 1/speed ] So, (5/4 of the usual time) – (usual time) = 20 min ➱ (5/4 -1) of the usual time = 20 min ➱ ¼ of the usual time = 20 min ➱ usual time = (4×20) min = 80 min. Incorrect Solution (b) New speed = 4/5 of its usual speed So, New time taken = 5/4 of the usual time [time = distance/speed, if distance is constant then time ∝ 1/speed ] So, (5/4 of the usual time) – (usual time) = 20 min ➱ (5/4 -1) of the usual time = 20 min ➱ ¼ of the usual time = 20 min ➱ usual time = (4×20) min = 80 min. window.wpProQuizInitList = window.wpProQuizInitList || []; window.wpProQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpProQuiz_3546', init: { quizId: 3546, mode: 1, globalPoints: 70, timelimit: 1800, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 704, qpp: 0, catPoints: [70], formPos: 0, lbn: "Test-summary", json: {"30412":{"type":"single","id":30412,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30415":{"type":"single","id":30415,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30416":{"type":"single","id":30416,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30418":{"type":"single","id":30418,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30419":{"type":"single","id":30419,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30420":{"type":"single","id":30420,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30422":{"type":"single","id":30422,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30424":{"type":"single","id":30424,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30427":{"type":"single","id":30427,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30428":{"type":"single","id":30428,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30430":{"type":"single","id":30430,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30433":{"type":"single","id":30433,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30434":{"type":"single","id":30434,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30436":{"type":"single","id":30436,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30437":{"type":"single","id":30437,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30438":{"type":"single","id":30438,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30440":{"type":"single","id":30440,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30442":{"type":"single","id":30442,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30445":{"type":"single","id":30445,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30446":{"type":"single","id":30446,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30447":{"type":"single","id":30447,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30448":{"type":"single","id":30448,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30451":{"type":"single","id":30451,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30452":{"type":"single","id":30452,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30454":{"type":"single","id":30454,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30457":{"type":"single","id":30457,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30460":{"type":"single","id":30460,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30462":{"type":"single","id":30462,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30465":{"type":"single","id":30465,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30466":{"type":"single","id":30466,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30468":{"type":"single","id":30468,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30470":{"type":"single","id":30470,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30473":{"type":"single","id":30473,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30475":{"type":"single","id":30475,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30477":{"type":"single","id":30477,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]}} } }); All the Best IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 18th March 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Democratic Republic of the Congo Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Over the past few weeks, many have died and hundreds of thousands displaced after the fighting between the Congolese army and Rwandan-backed M23 rebel group escalated. Background:- The growing tensions between Congo and Rwanda, which has been accused of supporting the rebels, have not only increased the risk of an all-out conflict but also pose a threat to food security for millions. About Democratic Republic of the Congo The Democratic Republic of the Congo is a country in Central Africa. By land area, the DRC is the second-largest country in Africa.The country has a 25-mile (40-km) coastline on the Atlantic Ocean but is otherwise landlocked. It is named after the Congo River, which flows through the country.The national capital and largest city is Kinshasa. The country is often referred to by its acronym, the DRC, or called Congo (Kinshasa), with the capital added parenthetically, to distinguish it from the other Congo republic, which is officially called the Republic of the Congo and is often referred to as Congo (Brazzaville). The country is bordered by the Republic of the Congo, Central African Republic, South Sudan, Uganda, Rwanda, Burundi, Tanzania (across Lake Tanganyika), Zambia, Angola and the South Atlantic Ocean. The Democratic Republic of the Congo is extremely rich in natural resources (It boasts vast deposits of industrial diamonds, cobalt, and copper) but has suffered from political instability, lack of infrastructure, corruption, and centuries of both commercial and colonial extraction and exploitation. Congo River The Congo River , formerly also known as the Zaire River, is the second-longest river in Africa, shorter only than the Nile, as well as the third-largest river in the world by discharge volume, following the Amazon and Ganges rivers. It is the world’s deepest recorded river, with measured depths of around 220 m. It is the only major river to cross the Equator twice. The river and its tributaries flow through the Congo rainforest, the second largest rainforest area in the world.It drains into the Atlantic Ocean. Source: The Hindu Ethanol 100 or E100 Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Shri Hardeep Singh Puri, Union Minister for Petroleum & Natural Gas and Housing and Urban Affairs, launched ‘ETHANOL 100. Background: ETHANOL 100 fuel has the potential to transform our transportation sector and reduce our dependence on fossil fuels. About Ethanol 100 OR E100: Contrary to popular belief, E100 fuel is not 100 percent ethanol. In accordance with specifications, E100 fuel includes 93-93.5 percent ethanol blended with 5 percent petrol and 1.5 percent co-solvent, which is a binder. Currently, E100 is priced the same as petrol — Rs 94.72/litre in Delhi, Rs 104.21/litre in Maharashtra and Rs 100.75/litre in Chennai. However, with wider adoption of the fuel, E100 will definitely be cheaper than petrol or diesel since ethanol is cheaper. In addition, the government’s keenness to provide a fillip to biofuels which help in crude oil import substitution is also likely to make it competitive in comparison to the conventional fuels. Ethanol is made from agricultural feedstock, which also provides income to farmers, making them a stakeholder in decarbonisation of the economy. E100 can be used as fuel in any flex fuel engine car. A flex fuel engine car is designed to run on a variety of fuels. It comes equipped with an internal combustion engine (ICE) which can run on petrol or ethanol or methanol, giving consumers choice at the point of sale of the fuel. ETHANOL 100 stands as a cleaner, greener alternative, boasting lower emissions of greenhouse gases and pollutants, thus aiding in combating climate change and enhancing air quality. With its high-octane rating, typically between 100-105, ETHANOL100 proves ideal for high-performance engines, ensuring improved efficiency and power output all while minimizing environmental impact. Source: PSU WATCH FLUORIDE CONTAMINATION Syllabus Prelims- Environment Context: Recently, Fluoride contamination was detected in three districts of Kerala. Background: According to the State Environment department, the source of contamination is likely geogenic, meaning these constituents are naturally present in the rock or soil matrix and enter groundwater through various chemical processes. About FLUORIDE CONTAMINATION Fluoride contamination in water is a critical issue worldwide. While fluoride is essential for dental health at low concentrations, excessive exposure can lead to health problems. Key Points: Essential Element: Fluoride is naturally present in water and certain foods. It plays a crucial role in preventing tooth decay. Threshold: However, when fluoride levels exceed 1.5 mg/L, it becomes toxic to humans. According to the Bureau of Indian Standards, the maximum permissible limit of arsenic in groundwater meant for drinking is 0.01 mg/l, while the corresponding limit of fluoride is 1.0 mg/l, which can be extended to 1.5 mg/l in case no alternative source of water is available. Health Impacts: Dental Fluorosis: Excessive fluoride causes dental fluorosis, characterized by staining, pitting, and weakening of tooth enamel. Skeletal Fluorosis: Chronic exposure leads to skeletal fluorosis, affecting bones and joints. Neurological Effects: High fluoride levels may impact the nervous system. Sources of Contamination: Geochemical Reactions: Fluoride leaches from rocks and soil into groundwater. Geological Factors: High fluoride content in specific geological formations. Anthropogenic Factors: Industrial processes, fertilizers, and mining contribute to contamination. Preventive Measures: Water Treatment: Implementing effective water treatment methods to reduce fluoride levels. Monitoring: Regular monitoring of fluoride content in drinking water. Awareness: Educating communities about safe water practices. Alternative Sources: Providing alternative water sources in affected areas. Endemic Areas: Certain regions are endemic for fluorosis due to natural geological factors. Balancing Act: Balancing the benefits of fluoride for dental health with the risks of toxicity is crucial. Other Pollutants that Affect Water Quality: Arsenic reaches groundwater through industrial and mining discharges, as well as fly ash ponds from thermal power plants. Chronic exposure to arsenic-contaminated water may lead to diseases such as black foot disease, diarrhea, lung cancer, and skin cancer. Certain regions in India have localized occurrences of elevated uranium concentrations in groundwater. Other elements that act as water pollutants include mercury (causing Minamata disease), cadmium (associated with Itai-Itai disease and nephritis), chromium (linked to lung cancer and reduced photosynthetic activities in plants), copper (causing various health issues), zinc, and lead (associated with anaemia, mental retardation, and other health problems). Source: The Hindu Previous Year Question Q1. Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India? Arsenic Sorbitol Fluoride Formaldehyde Uranium Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 1 and 3 only 2, 4 and 5 only 1, 3 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 DARIEN GAP Syllabus Prelims :Geography Context: The Darien Gap, a dense jungle spanning northern Colombia and southern Panama, has become a perilous route for migrants seeking asylum in the US. Background The The challenging topography of humid, swampy rainforest as well as criminal gangs who control the area, make the route an extremely challenging and deadly one. About Darien Gap The Darién Gap, also known as the “Tapón del Darién” in Spanish, is a geographic region in the Isthmus of Darién connecting the American continents within Central America. It consists of a large watershed, dense forest, and mountains in Panama’s Darién Province and the northern part of Colombia’s Chocó Department. The Darién Gap is the only overland path connecting Central and South America. Migrants, primarily Haitians and Venezuelans, hike through the dense jungle to reach the US border. Key features of the Darién Gap include: Population: The Darién Gap is home to the Embera-Wounaan and Guna people and was also home to the Cueva people who became extinct by 1535, following the Spanish invasion of Panama. Geography: The geography of the Darién Gap on the Colombian side is dominated primarily by the river delta of the Atrato River, which creates a flat marshland at least 80 km (50 mi) wide. The Panamanian side, in stark contrast, is a mountainous rainforest. Roads: There is no road, not even a primitive one, across the Darién. The “Gap” interrupts the Pan-American Highway. Source: Down To Earth T+0 SETTLEMENT Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Recently, SEBI approve launch of beta version of T+0 settlement from March 28. Background: At present, the Indian securities markets operate on a T+1 settlement cycle. The move aimed at increasing liquidity in the market. About T+0 SETTLEMENT The T+0 settlement refers to the process of settling trades on the very day they are executed, eliminating the traditional waiting period associated with T+1, T+2, or T+3 settlements. It’s akin to receiving an item immediately after purchasing it online. In this new settlement cycle, investors selling their stocks will receive money on the same day of the sale, rather than the current T+1 process where trades are settled on the next trading day. SEBI had shortened the settlement cycle to T+3 from T+5 in 2002 and subsequently to T+2 in 2003. It introduced T+1 in 2021 and implemented in phases, with the final phase completed in January 2023. ThE move to introduce T+0 aims to increase liquidity in the market and provide an alternative alongside the existing T+1 settlement cycle. The Board will review progress after three and six months from the implementation date and consider shareholder feedback. Source: Money Control Konark Sun Temple Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Art & Culture Context: The Union government led by Prime Minister Narendra Modi has approved a new 32 kilometre railway line connecting the temple towns of Puri and Konark that are famous for the Shree Jagannath Temple and Sun Temple, respectively. Background: Union Railway Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw said the new railway stretch will be developed into a spiritual and heritage tourism corridor. About Konark Sun Temple: It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also known as Black Pagoda, Arka Kshetra, and Padma Kshetra. The Sun Temple and Konark Wheel were built during the 13th century under the reign of Eastern Ganga King Narasimhadeva-I. It represents the most evolved period in Kalinga Architecture. Sun temples are temples dedicated to the worship of the Sun God and these are designed to highlight the celestial movement of the Sun. Materials used for building the temple include Chlorite, Laterite, and Khondalite rocks. Konark Sun Temple was once described by Nobel Laureate Rabindranath Tagore as the place where the language of stone surpasses the language of man. Structure of the Konark Sun Temple: The main entrance of the Sun Temple, the Gajasimha – gaja meaning elephant and Simha referring to lions. According to mythology, lions resemble pride, elephants resemble wealth and both of them kill the human. Gajasimha leads to the Sun Temple’s finely carved Natya Mandapa, the hall for dance and theatre. The sculptures here depict different types of dance styles. It is the assembly hall of the temple and the steps that rise to Jagamohan are flanked by stone horses. The Jagamohan is followed by the deul which is the sanctum where the idol is placed. Bhoga-mandira (kitchen) to make bhoga for the deity and devotees. Architectural features of the Konark Sun Temple: It was designed in such a way that the rising sun’s first rays would illuminate the sanctum and the presiding deity. It has been designed like the chariot of Surya, the Sun God. The temple stands on a base of a total of 24 intricately carved wheels, 12 on each side. The chariot seems to be drawn eastwards towards the dawn by a team of seven spirited horses. The thicker wheels are all carved with circular medallions at their centers on the widest part of the face. The rims are carved with designs of foliage with various birds and animals, whereas the medallions in the spokes are carved with the figures of women in various luxurious poses, mostly of a sensual nature. These seven horses have been named in Bhagawat Gita, as ‘Gyatri’, ‘Usnika’, ‘Anustuv’, ‘Vrihati’, ‘Pangti’, ‘Tristup’, and ‘Jagati’ which possibly stand for the rhythmic representation of the sacred verses of the Vedas. The seven horses are also named after the seven colours of the rainbow – Sahasrara (Violet), Indra-nila (Indigo), Nila (Blue), Haritaha (Green), Pita (Yellow), Kausumbhaha (Orange), and Rakta (Red). There are two carved war horses in front of the southern side of the Konark Temple. The sculpture depicts each of them with its massive strength and energy crushing down the warrior. This figure of the war horse of Konark has been accepted as the symbol of the state Government of Odisha. It has three impressive carvings of the Sun God at three strategic locations, to catch the sun at dawn, at noon, and sunset. The carvings at the base of the temple and on its walls chronicle everyday activities. Some carvings depict sensuous details while others exhibit mythical creatures and animals like elephants and birds. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) With reference to the T+0 settlement cycle, consider the following statements: It is introduced by the Reserve Bank of India. In this settlement cycle, investors selling their stocks will receive money on the same day of the sale. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2.) The Darién Gap, recently found in news is a geographic region in the Isthmus of Darién connecting the Africa and West Asia Europe and Asia Central and South America South Korea and Japan Q3.)With reference to fluoride contamination, consider the following statements: Fluoride leaches from rocks and soil into groundwater. when fluoride levels exceed 1.5 mg/L, it becomes toxic to humans. Excessive fluoride leads to skeletal fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are not correct? Only one Only two All three None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  18th March  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  16th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 18th March 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

[DAY 13] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 Maheesha 2024/03/18 11:33 AM 22 55 % 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question Consider the following regarding amendments to the Constitution: All amendments to the Constitution are initiated only in the Parliament. All the provisions relating to amendment of the constitution are contained only in Article 368. In some cases, after the passage of the constitutional amendment, there is a need for referendum for ratification of the amendment. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect It is important to remember that all amendments to the Constitution are initiated only in the Parliament. Besides the special majority in the Parliament no outside agency, like a constitution commission or a separate body, is required for amending the Constitution. There are many articles in the Constitution, which mention that these articles can be amended by a simple law of the Parliament. For example, article 2 and 3. For amending the remaining parts of the Constitution, provision has been made in Article 368 of the Constitution. Thus, all provisions related to amendment are not contained in article 368. Under article 368, there are two methods of amending the Constitution and they apply to two different sets of articles of the Constitution. One method is that amendment can be made by special majority of the two houses of the Parliament. The other method is more difficult: it requires special majority of the Parliament and consent of half of the State legislatures. After the passage in the Parliament and in some cases, in State legislatures, no referendum is required for ratification of the amendment. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect It is important to remember that all amendments to the Constitution are initiated only in the Parliament. Besides the special majority in the Parliament no outside agency, like a constitution commission or a separate body, is required for amending the Constitution. There are many articles in the Constitution, which mention that these articles can be amended by a simple law of the Parliament. For example, article 2 and 3. For amending the remaining parts of the Constitution, provision has been made in Article 368 of the Constitution. Thus, all provisions related to amendment are not contained in article 368. Under article 368, there are two methods of amending the Constitution and they apply to two different sets of articles of the Constitution. One method is that amendment can be made by special majority of the two houses of the Parliament. The other method is more difficult: it requires special majority of the Parliament and consent of half of the State legislatures. After the passage in the Parliament and in some cases, in State legislatures, no referendum is required for ratification of the amendment. Question 2 of 35 2. Question Consider the following statements and identify the correct one/s: Till date, there have been 105 amendments of the Constitution of India since it was first enacted in 1950. The period from 1990 to 2010 saw the highest number of constitutional amendments. Select the answer: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Till date, there have been 106 amendments of the Constitution of India since it was first enacted in 1950. Given the relatively difficult method of amending the Constitution, the number of amendments appears quite high.   Years 1970-1990 saw the highest number of constitutional amendment as given above. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Till date, there have been 106 amendments of the Constitution of India since it was first enacted in 1950. Given the relatively difficult method of amending the Constitution, the number of amendments appears quite high.   Years 1970-1990 saw the highest number of constitutional amendment as given above. Question 3 of 35 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act: This Act is also known as the ‘Mini Constitution’. This amendment made changes to the Preamble, to the seventh schedule and to other articles of the Constitution. It expanded upon the review powers of the Judiciary. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect One of the most significant amendments to the Indian Constitution is the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 enacted by the Indian National Congress, led by Indira Gandhi.   This Act is also known as the ‘Mini Constitution’ because of the large number of revisions it made to the Constitution of India. The 42nd amendment was particularly seen as a wide-ranging amendment affecting large parts of the Constitution. This amendment made changes to the Preamble, to the seventh schedule of the Constitution and to 53 articles of the Constitution. The amendment was also an attempt to override the ruling of the Supreme Court given in the Kesavananda case. Even the duration of the Lok Sabha was extended from five to six years. Fundamental duties were included in the Constitution by this amendment act. The 42nd amendment also put restrictions on the review powers of the Judiciary. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect One of the most significant amendments to the Indian Constitution is the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 enacted by the Indian National Congress, led by Indira Gandhi.   This Act is also known as the ‘Mini Constitution’ because of the large number of revisions it made to the Constitution of India. The 42nd amendment was particularly seen as a wide-ranging amendment affecting large parts of the Constitution. This amendment made changes to the Preamble, to the seventh schedule of the Constitution and to 53 articles of the Constitution. The amendment was also an attempt to override the ruling of the Supreme Court given in the Kesavananda case. Even the duration of the Lok Sabha was extended from five to six years. Fundamental duties were included in the Constitution by this amendment act. The 42nd amendment also put restrictions on the review powers of the Judiciary. Question 4 of 35 4. Question One thing that has had a long lasting effect on the evolution of the Indian Constitution is the theory of the basic structure of the Constitution. The Judiciary advanced this theory in the famous case of: a) Golaknath v. State of Punjab b) Minerva Mills v. Union of India c) IR Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu d) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Correct Golaknath v. State Of Punjab or simply the Golaknath case, was a 1967 Indian Supreme Court case, in which the Court ruled that Parliament could not curtail any of the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution. The Supreme Court, by thin majority of 6:5, held that a constitutional amendment under Article 368 of the Constitution was an ordinary ‘law’ within the meaning of Article 13(3) of the Constitution. Minerva Mills Ltd. and Ors. v. Union Of India is a landmark decision of the Supreme Court of India that applied and evolved the basic structure doctrine of the Constitution of India. In the Minerva Mills case, the Supreme Court provided key clarifications on the interpretation of the basic structure doctrine. The court ruled that the power of the parliament to amend the constitution is limited by the constitution. India became a contracting party to the Ramsar Convention in 1981 and has been implementing conservation programmes for wetlands, mangroves, and coral reefs. Kesavananda Bharati Sripadagalvaru v. State of Kerala, also known as the Kesavananda Bharati judgement, is a landmark decision of the Supreme Court of India that outlined the basic structure doctrine of the Indian Constitution. The case is also known as the Fundamental Rights Case. The court asserted its right to strike down amendments to the constitution that were in violation of the fundamental architecture of the constitution. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Correct Golaknath v. State Of Punjab or simply the Golaknath case, was a 1967 Indian Supreme Court case, in which the Court ruled that Parliament could not curtail any of the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution. The Supreme Court, by thin majority of 6:5, held that a constitutional amendment under Article 368 of the Constitution was an ordinary ‘law’ within the meaning of Article 13(3) of the Constitution. Minerva Mills Ltd. and Ors. v. Union Of India is a landmark decision of the Supreme Court of India that applied and evolved the basic structure doctrine of the Constitution of India. In the Minerva Mills case, the Supreme Court provided key clarifications on the interpretation of the basic structure doctrine. The court ruled that the power of the parliament to amend the constitution is limited by the constitution. India became a contracting party to the Ramsar Convention in 1981 and has been implementing conservation programmes for wetlands, mangroves, and coral reefs. Kesavananda Bharati Sripadagalvaru v. State of Kerala, also known as the Kesavananda Bharati judgement, is a landmark decision of the Supreme Court of India that outlined the basic structure doctrine of the Indian Constitution. The case is also known as the Fundamental Rights Case. The court asserted its right to strike down amendments to the constitution that were in violation of the fundamental architecture of the constitution. Question 5 of 35 5. Question Consider the following statements with reference to Basic Structure Doctrine: It places the Judiciary as the final authority in deciding if an amendment violates basic structure. The judiciary has clearly defined what constitutes Basic Structure doctrine. Select the answer: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Kesavananda Bharati ruling has contributed to the evolution of the Constitution in the following ways – It has set specific limits to the Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution. It says that no amendment can violate the basic structure of the Constitution. It places the Judiciary as the final authority in deciding if an amendment violates basic structure and what constitutes the basic structure. The doctrine of basic structure though is not exactly defined but all interpretations of the Constitution and all institutions in the country have accepted the theory of basic structure. The theory of basic structure is itself an example of a living constitution. There is no mention of this theory in the Constitution. It has emerged from judicial interpretation. Thus, Judiciary and its interpretation have practically amended Constitution without a formal amendment. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Kesavananda Bharati ruling has contributed to the evolution of the Constitution in the following ways – It has set specific limits to the Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution. It says that no amendment can violate the basic structure of the Constitution. It places the Judiciary as the final authority in deciding if an amendment violates basic structure and what constitutes the basic structure. The doctrine of basic structure though is not exactly defined but all interpretations of the Constitution and all institutions in the country have accepted the theory of basic structure. The theory of basic structure is itself an example of a living constitution. There is no mention of this theory in the Constitution. It has emerged from judicial interpretation. Thus, Judiciary and its interpretation have practically amended Constitution without a formal amendment. Question 6 of 35 6. Question Consider the following statements regarding electoral college of Vice-President: It consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament. It includes the members of the state legislative assemblies but not the legislative council. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Electoral college of Vice-President consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament (in the case of President, only elected members). Electoral college of Vice-President does not include the members of the state legislative assemblies or Council (in the case of President, the elected members of the state legislative assemblies are included). Note: The Vice-President, like the president, is elected not directly by the people but by the method of indirect election. He is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament. Thus, this electoral college is different from the electoral college for the election of the President in the following two respects: It consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament (in the case of President, only elected members). It does not include the members of the state legislative assemblies (in the case of President, the elected members of the state legislative assemblies are included).   Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Electoral college of Vice-President consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament (in the case of President, only elected members). Electoral college of Vice-President does not include the members of the state legislative assemblies or Council (in the case of President, the elected members of the state legislative assemblies are included). Note: The Vice-President, like the president, is elected not directly by the people but by the method of indirect election. He is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament. Thus, this electoral college is different from the electoral college for the election of the President in the following two respects: It consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament (in the case of President, only elected members). It does not include the members of the state legislative assemblies (in the case of President, the elected members of the state legislative assemblies are included).   Question 7 of 35 7. Question Which of the following are discretionary Powers of the President? The President can send back the advice given by the Council of Ministers and ask the Council to reconsider the decision. The President has veto power by which he can withhold or refuse to give assent to Bills passed by the Parliament. Appointment of Prime Minister when no leader has a clear majority in the Lok Sabha. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Discretionary Powers of the President: Constitutionally, the President has a right to be informed of all-important matters and deliberations of the Council of Ministers. The Prime Minister is obliged to furnish all the information that the President may call for. The President often writes to the Prime Minister and expresses his views on matters confronting the country. Besides this, there are at least three situations where the President can exercise the powers using his or her own discretion. The President can send back the advice given by the Council of Ministers and ask the Council to reconsider the decision. In doing this, the President acts on his (or her) own discretion. When the President thinks that the advice has certain flaws or legal lacunae, or that it is not in the best interests of the country, the President can ask the Council to reconsider the decision. The President also has veto power by which he can withhold or refuse to give assent to Bills (other than Money Bill) passed by the Parliament. The third kind of discretion arises when after an election, no leader has a clear majority in the Lok Sabha. In this situation the President has to decide whom to appoint as the Prime Minister. In such a situation, the President has to use his own discretion in judging who really may have the support of the majority or who can actually form and run the government. Incorrect Solution (c) Discretionary Powers of the President: Constitutionally, the President has a right to be informed of all-important matters and deliberations of the Council of Ministers. The Prime Minister is obliged to furnish all the information that the President may call for. The President often writes to the Prime Minister and expresses his views on matters confronting the country. Besides this, there are at least three situations where the President can exercise the powers using his or her own discretion. The President can send back the advice given by the Council of Ministers and ask the Council to reconsider the decision. In doing this, the President acts on his (or her) own discretion. When the President thinks that the advice has certain flaws or legal lacunae, or that it is not in the best interests of the country, the President can ask the Council to reconsider the decision. The President also has veto power by which he can withhold or refuse to give assent to Bills (other than Money Bill) passed by the Parliament. The third kind of discretion arises when after an election, no leader has a clear majority in the Lok Sabha. In this situation the President has to decide whom to appoint as the Prime Minister. In such a situation, the President has to use his own discretion in judging who really may have the support of the majority or who can actually form and run the government. Question 8 of 35 8. Question Consider the following statements and identify the correct statement/s: Article 74 mentions that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall act in accordance with such advice. Here, the word ‘shall’ indicates that the advice is binding on the President. Select the answer: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Article 74 (1): There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice. Provided that the President may require the Council of Ministers to reconsider such advice, and the President shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration. The word shall indicates that the advice is binding on the President. In view of the controversy about the scope of the President’s powers, a specific mention was made in the Constitution by an amendment that the advice of the Council of Ministers will be binding on the President. By another amendment made later, it was decided that the President can ask the Council of Ministers to reconsider its advice but, has to accept the reconsidered advice of the Council of Ministers. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Article 74 (1): There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice. Provided that the President may require the Council of Ministers to reconsider such advice, and the President shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration. The word shall indicates that the advice is binding on the President. In view of the controversy about the scope of the President’s powers, a specific mention was made in the Constitution by an amendment that the advice of the Council of Ministers will be binding on the President. By another amendment made later, it was decided that the President can ask the Council of Ministers to reconsider its advice but, has to accept the reconsidered advice of the Council of Ministers. Question 9 of 35 9. Question Jawaharlal Nehru described which post as ‘the Linchpin of Government’? a) President b) Vice President c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha d) Prime Minister Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Correct The president of India is the head of state of the Republic of India. The president is the nominal head of the executive, as well as the commander-in-chief of the Indian Armed Forces. The office of president was created when India became a republic on 26 January 1950, when its constitution came into force. The president is indirectly elected by an electoral college comprising both houses of the Parliament of India and the legislative assemblies of each of India’s states and territories. The Vice-President of India is the second highest constitutional office in the country. He serves for a five-year term. The only provision in the Constitution is with regard to the Vice-President’s function as the Chairperson of the Council of States, which is performed, during the period of such vacancy, by the Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha, or any other member of the Rajya Sabha authorised by the President of India. The VP may resign his office by submitting his resignation to the President of India. The speaker of the Lok Sabha is the presiding officer and the highest authority of the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament of India. The speaker is elected generally in the first meeting of the Lok Sabha following general elections. Serving for a term of five years, the speaker chosen from sitting members of the Lok Sabha. The Prime Minister acts as a link between the Council of Ministers on the one hand and the President as well as the Parliament on the other. It is this role of the Prime Minister which led Pt. Nehru to describe him as ‘the linchpin of Government’. It is also the constitutional obligation of the Prime Minister to communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Correct The president of India is the head of state of the Republic of India. The president is the nominal head of the executive, as well as the commander-in-chief of the Indian Armed Forces. The office of president was created when India became a republic on 26 January 1950, when its constitution came into force. The president is indirectly elected by an electoral college comprising both houses of the Parliament of India and the legislative assemblies of each of India’s states and territories. The Vice-President of India is the second highest constitutional office in the country. He serves for a five-year term. The only provision in the Constitution is with regard to the Vice-President’s function as the Chairperson of the Council of States, which is performed, during the period of such vacancy, by the Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha, or any other member of the Rajya Sabha authorised by the President of India. The VP may resign his office by submitting his resignation to the President of India. The speaker of the Lok Sabha is the presiding officer and the highest authority of the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament of India. The speaker is elected generally in the first meeting of the Lok Sabha following general elections. Serving for a term of five years, the speaker chosen from sitting members of the Lok Sabha. The Prime Minister acts as a link between the Council of Ministers on the one hand and the President as well as the Parliament on the other. It is this role of the Prime Minister which led Pt. Nehru to describe him as ‘the linchpin of Government’. It is also the constitutional obligation of the Prime Minister to communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation. Question 10 of 35 10. Question Which of the following are part of the ‘Basic Structure’ of the Indian Constitution? Articles 32 and 226. Effective access to justice The Parliamentary system of government. Freedom and dignity of the individual. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1, 3 and 4 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct Articles 32 and 226. Effective access to justice. The Parliamentary system of government. Freedom and dignity of the individual. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct Articles 32 and 226. Effective access to justice. The Parliamentary system of government. Freedom and dignity of the individual. Question 11 of 35 11. Question With reference to the Constitutional Amendment Bill, consider the following statements: It must be passed in each House by a special majority. It requires prior permission of the President of India. It is dealt under Article 368 of the Constitution. It must be introduced only by a minister. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Incorrect The constitutional amendment bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting. The Constitutional Amendment bill does not require prior permission of the President of India. Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure. It states that the Parliament may, in exercise of its constituent power, amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of the Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down for the purpose. The Constitutional Amendment bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Incorrect The constitutional amendment bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting. The Constitutional Amendment bill does not require prior permission of the President of India. Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure. It states that the Parliament may, in exercise of its constituent power, amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of the Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down for the purpose. The Constitutional Amendment bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member. Question 12 of 35 12. Question Which of the following form the part of basic structure of the Constitution? Welfare state (socio-economic justice) Secular character of the Constitution Judicial review Effective access to justice Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct Welfare state (socio-economic justice) Secular character of the Constitution Judicial review Effective access to justice Some of the features of the Constitution termed as “basic” are listed below: Supremacy of the Constitution Rule of law The principle of separation of powers The objectives specified in the preamble to the Constitution of India Judicial review Articles 32 and 226 Federalism (including financial liberty of states under Articles 282 and 293) Secularism The sovereign, democratic, republican structure Freedom and dignity of the individual Unity and integrity of the nation The principle of equality, not every feature of equality, but the quintessence of equal justice; The “essence” of other fundamental rights in Part III The concept of social and economic justice — to build a welfare state: Part IV of the Constitution The balance between fundamental rights and directive principles The parliamentary system of government The principle of free and fair elections Limitations upon the amending power conferred by Article 368 Independence of the judiciary Effective access to justice Powers of the Supreme Court of India under Articles 32, 136, 141, 142 Legislation seeking to nullify the awards made in exercise of the judicial power of the state by arbitration tribunals constituted under an act Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct Welfare state (socio-economic justice) Secular character of the Constitution Judicial review Effective access to justice Some of the features of the Constitution termed as “basic” are listed below: Supremacy of the Constitution Rule of law The principle of separation of powers The objectives specified in the preamble to the Constitution of India Judicial review Articles 32 and 226 Federalism (including financial liberty of states under Articles 282 and 293) Secularism The sovereign, democratic, republican structure Freedom and dignity of the individual Unity and integrity of the nation The principle of equality, not every feature of equality, but the quintessence of equal justice; The “essence” of other fundamental rights in Part III The concept of social and economic justice — to build a welfare state: Part IV of the Constitution The balance between fundamental rights and directive principles The parliamentary system of government The principle of free and fair elections Limitations upon the amending power conferred by Article 368 Independence of the judiciary Effective access to justice Powers of the Supreme Court of India under Articles 32, 136, 141, 142 Legislation seeking to nullify the awards made in exercise of the judicial power of the state by arbitration tribunals constituted under an act Question 13 of 35 13. Question Which of the following statements is/are correct about the First Amendment Act, 1951? It added the Ninth Schedule to protect the land reform and other laws included in it from the judicial review. It reduced the grounds of restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression. It empowered the state to make special provisions for the advancement of the socially and economically backward classes. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct It added the Ninth Schedule to protect the land reform and other laws included in it from the judicial review. Added three more grounds of restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression, viz., public order, friendly relations with foreign states and incitement to an offence. Also, made the restrictions ‘reasonable’ and thus, justiciable in nature. It empowered the state to make special provisions for the advancement of the socially and economically backward classes. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct It added the Ninth Schedule to protect the land reform and other laws included in it from the judicial review. Added three more grounds of restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression, viz., public order, friendly relations with foreign states and incitement to an offence. Also, made the restrictions ‘reasonable’ and thus, justiciable in nature. It empowered the state to make special provisions for the advancement of the socially and economically backward classes. Question 14 of 35 14. Question In which of the following case, the Supreme Court adhered to the doctrine of the ‘basic structure’ and also further clarified that it would apply to constitutional amendments enacted after April 24, 1973? a) Golak Nath vs State of Punjab b) Indira Nehru Gandhi vs Raj Narain c) Waman Rao vs Union of India d) Shankari Prasad vs Union of India Correct Solution (c) In Waman Rao vs Union of India case, 1981, the Supreme Court adhered to the doctrine of the ‘basic structure’ and also further clarified that it would apply to constitutional amendments enacted after April 24, 1973.   Incorrect Solution (c) In Waman Rao vs Union of India case, 1981, the Supreme Court adhered to the doctrine of the ‘basic structure’ and also further clarified that it would apply to constitutional amendments enacted after April 24, 1973.   Question 15 of 35 15. Question Consider the following statements: Change in the name of a state does not require a Constitutional Amendment. Inclusion of a language in the 8th Schedule requires a Constitutional Amendment. Change in the name of a language included in the 8th Schedule does not require a Constitutional Amendment. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Change in the name of a state does not require a Constitutional Amendment. Inclusion of a language in the 8th Schedule requires a Constitutional Amendment. Change in the name of a language included in the 8th Schedule requires a Constitutional Amendment. When the name of Oriya language, included in the 8th Schedule, was changed to Odia, the 96th Constitutional Amendment act, 2011 was passed by the Parliament. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Change in the name of a state does not require a Constitutional Amendment. Inclusion of a language in the 8th Schedule requires a Constitutional Amendment. Change in the name of a language included in the 8th Schedule requires a Constitutional Amendment. When the name of Oriya language, included in the 8th Schedule, was changed to Odia, the 96th Constitutional Amendment act, 2011 was passed by the Parliament. Question 16 of 35 16. Question Consider the following statements and identify the correct statement/s: The procedure of amendment of the constitution is borrowed from the South African constitution A time frame has been prescribed in the constitution for states to ratify the constitutional amendment bill. Select the answer: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Amending the Constitution of India is the process of making changes to the nation’s fundamental law or supreme law. The procedure of amendment in the constitution is laid down in Part XX (Article 368) of the Constitution of India. This procedure ensures the sanctity of the Constitution of India and keeps a check on arbitrary power of the Parliament of India. It was borrowed from the South African constitution. Procedure for amendment of constitution: Amendment can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either house of the Parliament. The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require the permission of the President. The bill must be passed in each house by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the house and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the house present and voting Each house must pass the bill separately. If there is any disagreement, there is no provision for joint sitting of the houses If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the constitution, it must be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority. But no time frame has been prescribed for this. After passage of the bill by both the houses, it is presented to the President for his assent The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament After the President’s assent, the bill becomes an act. Incorrect Solution (a) Amending the Constitution of India is the process of making changes to the nation’s fundamental law or supreme law. The procedure of amendment in the constitution is laid down in Part XX (Article 368) of the Constitution of India. This procedure ensures the sanctity of the Constitution of India and keeps a check on arbitrary power of the Parliament of India. It was borrowed from the South African constitution. Procedure for amendment of constitution: Amendment can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either house of the Parliament. The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require the permission of the President. The bill must be passed in each house by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the house and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the house present and voting Each house must pass the bill separately. If there is any disagreement, there is no provision for joint sitting of the houses If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the constitution, it must be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority. But no time frame has been prescribed for this. After passage of the bill by both the houses, it is presented to the President for his assent The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament After the President’s assent, the bill becomes an act. Question 17 of 35 17. Question Consider the following statements regarding President election: The members who are nominated to either House of Parliament are not eligible to be included in the Electoral College. The Secretary General of Lok Sabha acts as the returning officer for every presidential election. Select the answer: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) The members who are nominated to either House of Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of State including NCT of Delhi and UT of Puducherry are not eligible to be included in the Electoral College. The Election Commission, in consultation with the Central Government, appoints the Secretary General of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, by rotation, as the Returning Officer. Accordingly, the Secretary General, Rajya Sabha was appointed as the Returning Officer for the recent election to the Office of the President. Incorrect Solution (a) The members who are nominated to either House of Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of State including NCT of Delhi and UT of Puducherry are not eligible to be included in the Electoral College. The Election Commission, in consultation with the Central Government, appoints the Secretary General of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, by rotation, as the Returning Officer. Accordingly, the Secretary General, Rajya Sabha was appointed as the Returning Officer for the recent election to the Office of the President. Question 18 of 35 18. Question Which of the following provisions is related to 69th Constitution amendment act? a) The voting age was reduced from 21 to 18 years in the year 1991. b) It provided for a legislative assembly and a responsible government for Delhi. c) The anti-defection statute was adopted to bring stability to the administrations. d) It split the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Tribes into two independent bodies. Correct Solution (b) The 69th amendment to the Constitution of India inserted Article 239AA, which declared the Union Territory of Delhi to be administered by a L-G who works on aid and advice of the elected legislative assembly. Incorrect Solution (b) The 69th amendment to the Constitution of India inserted Article 239AA, which declared the Union Territory of Delhi to be administered by a L-G who works on aid and advice of the elected legislative assembly. Question 19 of 35 19. Question Which of the following constitutional amendment was made for the reservation of seats for the admission of citizens belonging to schedule caste and schedule tribes and other backward classes in the educational institution? a) 91st amendment. b) 93rd amendment. c) 97th amendment. d) 95th amendment. Correct Solution (b) In 93rd constitution amendment 2006, the arrangements were made for the reservation of seats for the admission of citizens belonging to schedule caste and schedule tribes and other backward classes in the educational institution. And under the provisions of section 4 of the article 15 of the constitution. Hence option B is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) In 93rd constitution amendment 2006, the arrangements were made for the reservation of seats for the admission of citizens belonging to schedule caste and schedule tribes and other backward classes in the educational institution. And under the provisions of section 4 of the article 15 of the constitution. Hence option B is correct. Question 20 of 35 20. Question Consider the following statements about the Ordinance-making power of the President: The President’s satisfaction that the circumstances exist for him to promulgate an ordinance is not questionable in a court of law. An ordinance cannot amend the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Cooper’s case judgment states that satisfaction of the president for promulgation of the ordinance on whether the situation is unforeseen, urgent and clause of recess time period, wherein the whole of the president’s satisfaction and situation present is questionable in the court of law. Ordinances cannot be issued for amending Constitution of India. But it can be issued for Amending bills pending in the Parliament. Note: PRESIDENT ORDINANCE MAKING POWER: He can promulgate the ordinance when the houses or either any house is not in session. Circumstances occur where the president thinks it necessary to act without waiting for houses to assemble. An ordinance can be retrospective in nature. An ordinance rolled out when both the houses are in session is void in nature. The parliament has to approve the ordinance within six weeks for its assembly. It acts, done and completed under the ordinance before it lapses, remains fully active. Unlike the Indian constitution, most of the democratic constitution of the world doesn’t give such ordinance making power to their president. It has no connection with the president’s power to proclaim a national emergency. The power of the ordinance making is not to be taken as a substitute for the legislative Only under special circumstances, ordinance can be rolled out. President’s power to roll out ordinance is justiciable on the ground of malafide. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Cooper’s case judgment states that satisfaction of the president for promulgation of the ordinance on whether the situation is unforeseen, urgent and clause of recess time period, wherein the whole of the president’s satisfaction and situation present is questionable in the court of law. Ordinances cannot be issued for amending Constitution of India. But it can be issued for Amending bills pending in the Parliament. Note: PRESIDENT ORDINANCE MAKING POWER: He can promulgate the ordinance when the houses or either any house is not in session. Circumstances occur where the president thinks it necessary to act without waiting for houses to assemble. An ordinance can be retrospective in nature. An ordinance rolled out when both the houses are in session is void in nature. The parliament has to approve the ordinance within six weeks for its assembly. It acts, done and completed under the ordinance before it lapses, remains fully active. Unlike the Indian constitution, most of the democratic constitution of the world doesn’t give such ordinance making power to their president. It has no connection with the president’s power to proclaim a national emergency. The power of the ordinance making is not to be taken as a substitute for the legislative Only under special circumstances, ordinance can be rolled out. President’s power to roll out ordinance is justiciable on the ground of malafide. Question 21 of 35 21. Question Consider the following statements about Red Sand Boa: It is an ovoviviparous venomous snake. It is found in arid and semi-arid regions. It has applications in medicine and cosmetics. It is listed as vulnerable in the IUCN List. How many of the given statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (b) Red Sand Boa is an ovoviviparous non-venomous snake. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Ovoviviparous means they produce young ones by means of eggs which are hatched within the body of the parent. It is predominantly Nocturnal means most active during the night. It is found in arid and semi-arid regions. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is found in India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, and parts of Bangladesh. It has applications in medicine and cosmetics. Hence statement 3 is correct. It plays a significant role in the ecosystem by maintaining a healthy population between prey and predator. It is listed as near threatened in the IUCN List. Hence statement 4 is incorrect. It is protected under the Appendix II of CITES and Schedule IV of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Incorrect Solution (b) Red Sand Boa is an ovoviviparous non-venomous snake. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Ovoviviparous means they produce young ones by means of eggs which are hatched within the body of the parent. It is predominantly Nocturnal means most active during the night. It is found in arid and semi-arid regions. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is found in India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, and parts of Bangladesh. It has applications in medicine and cosmetics. Hence statement 3 is correct. It plays a significant role in the ecosystem by maintaining a healthy population between prey and predator. It is listed as near threatened in the IUCN List. Hence statement 4 is incorrect. It is protected under the Appendix II of CITES and Schedule IV of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements about the Bharat Stage (BS) norms: They are emission standards instituted by the Government of India to regulate the output of air pollutants from motor vehicles. They are based on the European emission standards and are implemented by the Central Pollution Control Board in India. Every newly sold and registered vehicle in India is required to adhere to the BS-IV version of emission regulations. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Bharat Stage (BS) norms are emission standards instituted by the Government of India to regulate the output of air pollutants from motor vehicles. Hence statement 1 is correct. They are based on the European emission standardsand are implemented by the Central Pollution Control Board in India. Hence statement 2 is correct. The fuel standard in the country is decided by the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change. Every newly sold and registered vehicle in India is required to adhere to theBS-VI version of emission regulations. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. In BS-VI fuel, the volume of PM 2.5 ranges from 20 to 40 micrograms per cubic metre whereas in BS-IV fuel it is up to 120 micrograms per cubic metre. BS-VI fuel will bring down sulphur content by 5 times from the current BS-IV levels. It has 10 ppm of sulphur as against 50 ppm in BS-IV.  Note: Flex-fuel vehicles (FFV) have engines that can run on flexible fuel – a combination of Petrol/Diesel/Electric and ethanol, which can include up to 100% ethanol. Electrified Flex Fuel Vehicle integrates both a Flex Fuel engine and an electric powertrain, offering the dual benefit of higher ethanol use and improved fuel efficiency. Incorrect Solution (b) Bharat Stage (BS) norms are emission standards instituted by the Government of India to regulate the output of air pollutants from motor vehicles. Hence statement 1 is correct. They are based on the European emission standardsand are implemented by the Central Pollution Control Board in India. Hence statement 2 is correct. The fuel standard in the country is decided by the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change. Every newly sold and registered vehicle in India is required to adhere to theBS-VI version of emission regulations. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. In BS-VI fuel, the volume of PM 2.5 ranges from 20 to 40 micrograms per cubic metre whereas in BS-IV fuel it is up to 120 micrograms per cubic metre. BS-VI fuel will bring down sulphur content by 5 times from the current BS-IV levels. It has 10 ppm of sulphur as against 50 ppm in BS-IV.  Note: Flex-fuel vehicles (FFV) have engines that can run on flexible fuel – a combination of Petrol/Diesel/Electric and ethanol, which can include up to 100% ethanol. Electrified Flex Fuel Vehicle integrates both a Flex Fuel engine and an electric powertrain, offering the dual benefit of higher ethanol use and improved fuel efficiency. Question 23 of 35 23. Question Consider the following statements: In the Mitakshara school of inheritance, the property is inherited by the successors only if they were born in the family of the property owners. In the Dayabhaga school of inheritance, the property goes to the successors only when the property owner is dead. The Mitakshara school of inheritance is mainly practiced in Assam and West Bengal. The Dayabhaga school of inheritance is practiced in all of India except in West Bengal and Assam. How many of the given statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (b) There are mainly two schools in Hindu law concerning the law of inheritance – the Mitakshara and the Dayabhaga. In the Mitakshara school of inheritance, the property is inherited by the successors only if they were born in the family of the property owners. Hence statement 1 is correct. In the Dayabhaga school of inheritance, the property goes to the successors only when the property owner is dead. Hence statement 2 is correct. The Mitakshara school of inheritance is practiced in all of India except in West Bengal and Assam. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. The Dayabhaga school of inheritance is mainly practiced in Assam and West Bengal. Hence statement 4 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (b) There are mainly two schools in Hindu law concerning the law of inheritance – the Mitakshara and the Dayabhaga. In the Mitakshara school of inheritance, the property is inherited by the successors only if they were born in the family of the property owners. Hence statement 1 is correct. In the Dayabhaga school of inheritance, the property goes to the successors only when the property owner is dead. Hence statement 2 is correct. The Mitakshara school of inheritance is practiced in all of India except in West Bengal and Assam. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. The Dayabhaga school of inheritance is mainly practiced in Assam and West Bengal. Hence statement 4 is incorrect. Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements about the National Pension System (NPS): Under this system, a unique Permanent Retirement Account Number (PRAN) is generated and maintained by the Central Recordkeeping Agency (CRA) for individual subscribers. It is being administered and regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA). Under this system, a Tier-I account is a pension account having restricted withdrawals. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Under the National Pension System(NPS), a unique Permanent Retirement Account Number (PRAN) is generated and maintained by the Central Recordkeeping Agency (CRA) for individual subscribers. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is being administered and regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) set up under the PFRDA Act, 2013. Hence statement 2 is correct. Under this system, a Tier-I account is a pension account having restricted withdrawals while Tier-II is a voluntary account that offers liquidity of investments and withdrawals. Hence statement 3 is correct. Tier-II account is allowed only when there is an active Tier-I account in the name of the subscriber. The contributions accumulate over a period of time till retirement grows with market-linked returns. Incorrect Solution (c) Under the National Pension System(NPS), a unique Permanent Retirement Account Number (PRAN) is generated and maintained by the Central Recordkeeping Agency (CRA) for individual subscribers. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is being administered and regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) set up under the PFRDA Act, 2013. Hence statement 2 is correct. Under this system, a Tier-I account is a pension account having restricted withdrawals while Tier-II is a voluntary account that offers liquidity of investments and withdrawals. Hence statement 3 is correct. Tier-II account is allowed only when there is an active Tier-I account in the name of the subscriber. The contributions accumulate over a period of time till retirement grows with market-linked returns. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements regarding the deemed to be university: It is declared by the central government on the advice of the University Grants Commission (UGC). It enjoys the academic status and privileges of a university but cannot design its syllabus and courses. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) The deemed-to-be university is declared by the central government on the advice of the University Grants Commission (UGC). Hence statement 1 is correct. It enjoys the academic status and privileges of a university. It can design its own syllabus and courses to prepare the students to foray into diverse fields after the completion of their studies. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Deemed to be universities like other universities have the autonomy of offering various courses and therefore, preparing students for various examinations and awards.   Incorrect Solution (a) The deemed-to-be university is declared by the central government on the advice of the University Grants Commission (UGC). Hence statement 1 is correct. It enjoys the academic status and privileges of a university. It can design its own syllabus and courses to prepare the students to foray into diverse fields after the completion of their studies. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Deemed to be universities like other universities have the autonomy of offering various courses and therefore, preparing students for various examinations and awards.   Question 26 of 35 26. Question In the context of Indian polity, consider the following statements: The Constitution specifies that six months should not elapse between two parliamentary sessions. India’s Parliament has a fixed calendar of sittings and the President determines the date and duration of parliamentary sessions. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) The Constitution specifies that six months should not elapse between two parliamentary sessions. This provision was borrowed from the Government of India Act of 1935. Hence statement 1 is correct. India’s Parliament has no fixed calendar of sittings and the central government determines the date and duration of parliamentary sessions. The Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs takes this decision. It currently has ten Ministers, including those for Defence, Home, Finance, Agriculture, Tribal Affairs, Parliamentary Affairs, and Information and Broadcasting. The Law Minister and the Minister of State for External Affairs are special invitees to the Committee. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Note: The Constitution does not use the term “special session”.The term sometimes refers to sessions the government has convened for specific occasions like commemorating parliamentary or national milestones. However, Article 352 (Proclamation of Emergency) of the Constitution does refer to a “special sitting of the House”. Incorrect Solution (a) The Constitution specifies that six months should not elapse between two parliamentary sessions. This provision was borrowed from the Government of India Act of 1935. Hence statement 1 is correct. India’s Parliament has no fixed calendar of sittings and the central government determines the date and duration of parliamentary sessions. The Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs takes this decision. It currently has ten Ministers, including those for Defence, Home, Finance, Agriculture, Tribal Affairs, Parliamentary Affairs, and Information and Broadcasting. The Law Minister and the Minister of State for External Affairs are special invitees to the Committee. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Note: The Constitution does not use the term “special session”.The term sometimes refers to sessions the government has convened for specific occasions like commemorating parliamentary or national milestones. However, Article 352 (Proclamation of Emergency) of the Constitution does refer to a “special sitting of the House”. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements regarding Walking leaves: They are known for their unusual appearance as they look similar to parts of plants. They feed on plants and typically inhabit densely vegetated areas. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Walking leaves are known for their unusual appearance as they look similar to parts of plants such as twigs, bark, or in the case of leaf insects as leaves. Hence statement 1 is correct. They are part of the Phasmatodea order and are also referred to as “phasmids” or “stick and leaf insects”. They feed on plants and typically inhabit densely vegetated areas. Hence statement 2 is correct. Their natural range extends from islands in the Indian Ocean, across parts of mainland South Asia and Southeast Asia, to Papua New Guinea and Australia in the western Pacific. They are also largely nocturnal, resulting in a relative lack of movement during the day that makes locating them quite difficult in the wild. Incorrect Solution (c) Walking leaves are known for their unusual appearance as they look similar to parts of plants such as twigs, bark, or in the case of leaf insects as leaves. Hence statement 1 is correct. They are part of the Phasmatodea order and are also referred to as “phasmids” or “stick and leaf insects”. They feed on plants and typically inhabit densely vegetated areas. Hence statement 2 is correct. Their natural range extends from islands in the Indian Ocean, across parts of mainland South Asia and Southeast Asia, to Papua New Guinea and Australia in the western Pacific. They are also largely nocturnal, resulting in a relative lack of movement during the day that makes locating them quite difficult in the wild. Question 28 of 35 28. Question Which of the following are the reasons for the declining population of penguins? Global warming causing early sea ice melting in Antarctica. Unstable sea ice causes problems in breeding and raising their offspring. The increasing krill production because of climate change. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The reasons for the declining population of penguins: Global warming causing early sea ice melting in Antarctica. Hence statement 1 is correct. Unstable sea ice causes problems in breeding and raising their offspring as Emperor penguins need stable sea ice to breed and raise their chicks. Hence statement 2 is correct. Melting ice leads to premature exposure of chicks to water resulting in their drowning. The decreasing krill production because of climate change as krill provide food for fish, seals, whales, and penguins. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (b) The reasons for the declining population of penguins: Global warming causing early sea ice melting in Antarctica. Hence statement 1 is correct. Unstable sea ice causes problems in breeding and raising their offspring as Emperor penguins need stable sea ice to breed and raise their chicks. Hence statement 2 is correct. Melting ice leads to premature exposure of chicks to water resulting in their drowning. The decreasing krill production because of climate change as krill provide food for fish, seals, whales, and penguins. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Question 29 of 35 29. Question Consider the following statements regarding the DIKSHA Platform: It provides quality e-content for school education in States/UTs. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Education for digital online education. It has embedded assistive technologies for learners with visual or hearing impairments. It has integrated personalized adaptive learning (PAL) software to cater to the specific learning needs of students. How many of the given statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing (DIKSHA) Platform provides quality e-content for school education in States/UTs. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Education for digital online education. Hence statement 2 is correct. It has embedded assistive technologies for learners with visual or hearing impairments. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is yet to integrate personalized adaptive learning (PAL) software to cater to the specific learning needs of students. Hence statement 4 is incorrect. Personalized Adaptive Learning(PAL) is a software-based approach that will allow each student to have an individualized learning experience over the course of the curriculum based on their unique needs and abilities. Incorrect Solution (c) Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing (DIKSHA) Platform provides quality e-content for school education in States/UTs. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Education for digital online education. Hence statement 2 is correct. It has embedded assistive technologies for learners with visual or hearing impairments. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is yet to integrate personalized adaptive learning (PAL) software to cater to the specific learning needs of students. Hence statement 4 is incorrect. Personalized Adaptive Learning(PAL) is a software-based approach that will allow each student to have an individualized learning experience over the course of the curriculum based on their unique needs and abilities. Question 30 of 35 30. Question Consider the following statements regarding Aarogya Maitri Cube: It is the world’s first disaster hospital that can be airlifted. It has been developed indigenously as part of India’s Aarogya Maitri initiative. It contains essential equipment and supplies, such as an operation theatre, etc. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Aarogya Maitri Cube is the world’s first disaster hospital that can be airlifted. Hence statement 1 is correct. It has been developed indigenously as part of India’s Aarogya Maitri initiative to provide essential medical supplies to friendly countries. Hence statement 2 is correct. It has been developed indigenously under the Project Bharat Health Initiative for Sahyog Hita and Maitri (BHISM). It is packed in 72 cubes that contain essential equipment and supplies, such as an operation theatre, a mini-ICU, ventilators, blood test equipment, an X-ray machine, a cooking station, food, water, shelter, a power generator, and more. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) Aarogya Maitri Cube is the world’s first disaster hospital that can be airlifted. Hence statement 1 is correct. It has been developed indigenously as part of India’s Aarogya Maitri initiative to provide essential medical supplies to friendly countries. Hence statement 2 is correct. It has been developed indigenously under the Project Bharat Health Initiative for Sahyog Hita and Maitri (BHISM). It is packed in 72 cubes that contain essential equipment and supplies, such as an operation theatre, a mini-ICU, ventilators, blood test equipment, an X-ray machine, a cooking station, food, water, shelter, a power generator, and more. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 31 of 35 31. Question A worker reaches his factory 5 minutes late if his speed from his house to the factory is 5 km/hr. If he walks at a speed of 6 km/hr, he reaches the factory 5 minutes early. What is the distance of the factory from his house? a) 4 kms b) 6 kms c) 5 kms d) 3 kms Correct Solution (c) Explanation: Let the distance between his house and factory be ‘x’ km. x/5 – x/6 = 10/60 ( The time difference between the two different speeds) X = 5 km Incorrect Solution (c) Explanation: Let the distance between his house and factory be ‘x’ km. x/5 – x/6 = 10/60 ( The time difference between the two different speeds) X = 5 km Question 32 of 35 32. Question A car starts running at the speed of 50 km per hour. The speed of car increases by 2 km at the end of every one hour. What will be the distance covered at the end of ten hours from the start of the journey? a) 600 km b) 580 km c) 590 km d) 620 km Correct Solution (c) Total distance covered by the car in 10 hours = 50 + 52 + 54 + 56 + 58 + 60 + 62 + 64 + 66 + 68 The sum of ten terms in arithmetic progression whose first number is 50 and last number is 68 is = 10/2 * (50 + 68) =590 km Therefore, the required result will be 590 km. Incorrect Solution (c) Total distance covered by the car in 10 hours = 50 + 52 + 54 + 56 + 58 + 60 + 62 + 64 + 66 + 68 The sum of ten terms in arithmetic progression whose first number is 50 and last number is 68 is = 10/2 * (50 + 68) =590 km Therefore, the required result will be 590 km. Question 33 of 35 33. Question 9 boys and 12 girls perform a task in 15 days. The same task is performed by 39 boys and 72 girls in 3 days. Then what will be the time taken by 20 boys and 5 girls in performing the same task? a) 12 days b) 8 days c) 9 days d) 10 days Correct Solution (d) Let 1 boy’s 1 day’s work = x (i.e. efficiency of 1 boy = ‘x’ units/day) and 1 girl’s 1 day’s work = y (i.e. efficiency of 1 girl = ‘y’ units/day). Then, 9x + 12y = 1/15 ………………І (9 boys’ & 12 girls’ 1 day’s work) 39x + 72y = 1/3 ………….…ІІ (39 boys’ & 72 girls’ 1 day’s work). Multiplying equation І by 6 and then subtracting equation ІІ from it, we get, x = 1/225. Putting the value of x in either equation І or equation ІІ will yield y = 1/450. So, 20 boys’ and 5 girls’ 1 day’s work = 20/225 + 5/450 = 1/10. Since 1/10 part is performed in 1 day. So, 1 part is performed in 1/(1/10) day,i.e. 10 days. Incorrect Solution (d) Let 1 boy’s 1 day’s work = x (i.e. efficiency of 1 boy = ‘x’ units/day) and 1 girl’s 1 day’s work = y (i.e. efficiency of 1 girl = ‘y’ units/day). Then, 9x + 12y = 1/15 ………………І (9 boys’ & 12 girls’ 1 day’s work) 39x + 72y = 1/3 ………….…ІІ (39 boys’ & 72 girls’ 1 day’s work). Multiplying equation І by 6 and then subtracting equation ІІ from it, we get, x = 1/225. Putting the value of x in either equation І or equation ІІ will yield y = 1/450. So, 20 boys’ and 5 girls’ 1 day’s work = 20/225 + 5/450 = 1/10. Since 1/10 part is performed in 1 day. So, 1 part is performed in 1/(1/10) day,i.e. 10 days. Question 34 of 35 34. Question In an examination 70% of the candidate passed in English, 80% passed in Mathematics, 10% failed in both subjects. If 144 candidates passed in both, the total number of candidates was: a) 125 b) 200 c) 240 d) 375 Correct Solution (c) Failed candidates in English = (100 – 70) = 30% Failed candidates in Mathematics = (100 – 80) = 20% Candidates who fail in both subject = 10% Candidates who only fail in English = 30 – 10 = 20% Candidates who only fail in Mathematics = 20 – 10 = 10% Percentage of passed students in both subject = 100 – (Candidates who only fail in English + Candidates who only fail in Mathematics + Candidates who fail in both subject) = 100 – (20 + 10 + 10) = 60% According to the question, 60% of students = 144 Total students: = (144/60) × 100 = 240 Incorrect Solution (c) Failed candidates in English = (100 – 70) = 30% Failed candidates in Mathematics = (100 – 80) = 20% Candidates who fail in both subject = 10% Candidates who only fail in English = 30 – 10 = 20% Candidates who only fail in Mathematics = 20 – 10 = 10% Percentage of passed students in both subject = 100 – (Candidates who only fail in English + Candidates who only fail in Mathematics + Candidates who fail in both subject) = 100 – (20 + 10 + 10) = 60% According to the question, 60% of students = 144 Total students: = (144/60) × 100 = 240 Question 35 of 35 35. Question One Amoeba splits into ten Amoeba to form the next generation, but due to the prevailing ecological conditions, only 50% survive. If the number of surviving amoebas in the 6th generation is 3125, what must have been their number in the first generation? a) 3 b) 1 c) 2 d) 5 Correct Solution (b) Let there be ‘x’ Amoeba in the first generation, i.e. n1 = x. So, n2 = 10x, but only 50% survive, So, n2, survived = 10x/2 = 5x. n3 = 10(5x), but only 50% survive, So, n3, survived = 10(5x)/2 = 25x = 52x. Similarly, n6,survived = 56-1 x = 55x Now, it’s given that: 55x = 3125 ⇒ 3125x = 3125 ∴ x = 1.   Incorrect Solution (b) Let there be ‘x’ Amoeba in the first generation, i.e. n1 = x. So, n2 = 10x, but only 50% survive, So, n2, survived = 10x/2 = 5x. n3 = 10(5x), but only 50% survive, So, n3, survived = 10(5x)/2 = 25x = 52x. Similarly, n6,survived = 56-1 x = 55x Now, it’s given that: 55x = 3125 ⇒ 3125x = 3125 ∴ x = 1.   window.wpProQuizInitList = window.wpProQuizInitList || []; window.wpProQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpProQuiz_3542', init: { quizId: 3542, mode: 1, globalPoints: 70, timelimit: 1800, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 704, qpp: 0, catPoints: [70], formPos: 0, lbn: "Test-summary", json: {"30332":{"type":"single","id":30332,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30334":{"type":"single","id":30334,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30337":{"type":"single","id":30337,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30339":{"type":"single","id":30339,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30341":{"type":"single","id":30341,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30342":{"type":"single","id":30342,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30343":{"type":"single","id":30343,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30346":{"type":"single","id":30346,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30348":{"type":"single","id":30348,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30351":{"type":"single","id":30351,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30352":{"type":"single","id":30352,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30354":{"type":"single","id":30354,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30357":{"type":"single","id":30357,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30360":{"type":"single","id":30360,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30363":{"type":"single","id":30363,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30365":{"type":"single","id":30365,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30366":{"type":"single","id":30366,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30369":{"type":"single","id":30369,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30370":{"type":"single","id":30370,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30371":{"type":"single","id":30371,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30372":{"type":"single","id":30372,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30374":{"type":"single","id":30374,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30376":{"type":"single","id":30376,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30378":{"type":"single","id":30378,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30381":{"type":"single","id":30381,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30384":{"type":"single","id":30384,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30385":{"type":"single","id":30385,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30386":{"type":"single","id":30386,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30388":{"type":"single","id":30388,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30389":{"type":"single","id":30389,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30392":{"type":"single","id":30392,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30394":{"type":"single","id":30394,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30396":{"type":"single","id":30396,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30399":{"type":"single","id":30399,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30400":{"type":"single","id":30400,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]}} } }); All the Best IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 11th March 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Lok Adalat Syllabus Prelims and Mains – Polity Context: National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) successfully organised the first National Lok Adalat of 2024 in the taluks, districts and high courts of 34 states and Union territories on Saturday. Background:- Over 11.3 million cases settled in first National Lok Adalat of 2024.Figures show the effectiveness of alternative mechanisms for dispute resolution. About Lok Adalat Lok Adalat is one of the alternative dispute redressal mechanisms, it is a forum where disputes/cases pending in the court of law or at pre-litigation stage are settled/ compromised amicably. Lok Adalats have been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 Under the said Act, the award (decision) made by the Lok Adalats is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and is final and binding on all parties and no appeal against such an award lies before any court of law. If the parties are not satisfied with the award of the Lok Adalat though there is no provision for an appeal against such an award, but they are free to initiate litigation by approaching the court of appropriate jurisdiction by filing a case by following the required procedure, in exercise of their right to litigate. There is no court fee payable when a matter is filed in a Lok Adalat. If a matter pending in the court of law is referred to the Lok Adalat and is settled subsequently, the court fee originally paid in the court on the complaints/petition is also refunded back to the parties. The persons deciding the cases in the Lok Adalats are called the Members of the Lok Adalats, they have the role of statutory conciliators only and do not have any judicial role; therefore they can only persuade the parties to come to a conclusion for settling the dispute outside the court in the Lok Adalat and shall not pressurize or coerce any of the parties to compromise or settle cases or matters either directly or indirectly. Disputes before Lok Adalat would be decided on the basis of the compromise or settlement between the parties. The members shall assist the parties in an independent and impartial manner in their attempt to reach amicable settlement of their dispute. National Lok Adalat National Level Lok Adalats are held for at regular intervals where on a single day Lok Adalats are held throughout the country, in all the courts right from the Supreme Court till the Taluk Levels wherein cases are disposed off in huge numbers. Permanent Lok Adalat The other type of Lok Adalat is the Permanent Lok Adalat, organized under Section 22-B of The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. Permanent Lok Adalats have been set up as permanent bodies for providing compulsory pre-litigative mechanism for conciliation and settlement of cases relating to Public Utility Services like transport, postal, telegraph etc. Here, even if the parties fail to reach to a settlement, the Permanent Lok Adalat gets jurisdiction to decide the dispute, provided, the dispute does not relate to any offence. Source: Nalsa Haiti Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: With Haiti’s capital spiraling deeper into gang violence, the U.S. said on Sunday that it has airlifted non-essential American staff from its embassy. Background: Armed groups who had been calling for Prime Minister Ariel Henry’s resignation have already attacked airports, police stations, sea ports, the Central Bank and the country’s national soccer stadium. The situation reached critical mass earlier this month when the country’s two main prisons were raided, leading to the escape of about 4,000 prisoners. About Haiti: Haiti is a country on the island of Hispaniola in the Caribbean Sea.The capital is Port-au-Prince. It occupies the western three-eighths of the Hispaniola island which it shares with the Dominican Republic. Cuba lies some 50 miles (80 km) west of Haiti’s northern peninsula, across the Windward Passage, a strait connecting the Atlantic to the Caribbean.Jamaica lies on the west of Haiti and Great Inagua Island (of The Bahamas) lies roughly 70 miles (110 km) to the north of Haiti. It is the third largest country in the Caribbean (after Cuba and Dominican Republic) Haiti has the lowest Human Development Index in the Americas, as well as widespread slavery. The country endured a coup in 2004, which prompted U.N. intervention, as well as a catastrophic earthquake in 2010 that killed over 250,000 people and a cholera outbreak. Haiti has experienced a socioeconomic and political crisis marked by riots and protests, widespread hunger, and increased gang activity Source: Wikipedia INDIA ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE (AI) MISSION Syllabus Prelims- Current Event Context: Recently, the Union Cabinet has approved Rs 10,371.92 crore investment for the India Artificial Intelligence (AI) mission. Background: The India Artificial Intelligence (AI) Mission is a significant initiative by the Indian government to harness the transformative potential of AI for the benefit of the nation. About India Artificial Intelligence (AI) Mission The India Artificial Intelligence (AI) Mission is a significant initiative by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). India’s approach to AI is holistic, focusing on enhancing economic growth, social development, and leveraging AI for the public good. The mission aims to position India as a global leader in AI research and innovation. The India Artificial Intelligence (AI) Mission aligns with the vision of “Making AI in India” and “Making AI Work for India”. It aims to establish a comprehensive ecosystem that catalyzes AI innovation through strategic programs and partnerships across both the public and private sectors. AI is expected to play a pivotal role in sectors such as healthcare, agriculture, education, smart cities, infrastructure, and smart mobility. By integrating AI into these domains, India aims to drive innovation and address societal challenges. IndiaAI Innovation Centre will focus on developing and deploying indigenous Large Multimodal Models (LMMs) and domain-specific foundational models in critical sectors. The IndiaAI Mission will be implemented by the ‘IndiaAI’ Independent Business Division (IBD) under the Digital India Corporation (DIC). The approved budget for the mission is Rs. 10,371.92 crore. Startups, academia, researchers, and industry will have access to the AI supercomputing infrastructure established under this mission Source: Times Of India Previous Year Question Q1. With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following? Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units Create meaningful short stories and songs Disease diagnosis Text-to-Speech Conversion Wireless transmission of electrical energy Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 3 and 5 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2, 4 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 UTTAR POORA TRANSFORMATIVE INDUSTRIALISATION SCHEME (UNNATI) 2024 Syllabus Prelims : Economy Context: Union Cabinet has approved Uttar Poorva Transformative Industrialization Scheme, 2024. Background: The Uttar Poorva Transformative Industrialization Scheme, is a transformative initiative by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) to foster economic growth and industrialization in the North Eastern Region of India. About Uttar Poorva Transformative Industrialization Scheme: Government of India has formulated The Uttar Poorva Transformative Industrialization Scheme, also known as UNNATI 2024, as a Central Sector Scheme. It aims for the development of Industries and generation of employment in the states of North East Region. It will be implemented by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) in cooperation with the states. The implementation will be overseen by committees at the national and state levels. The Steering Committee, headed by the Secretary of DPIIT, will decide upon any interpretation of the scheme within its overall financial outlay and issue detailed guidelines for execution. The scheme’s main objective is to generate gainful employment, which will lead to the area’s overall socio-economic development. It will create productive economic activity in the manufacturing and service sectors. Source: PIB ANNUAL INTERNATIONAL BIOCURATION CONFERENCE(AIBC-2024) Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Recently India hosted the 17th Annual International Biocuration Conference (AIBC-2024). Background: It is the first time the Annual International Biocuration Conference is being held in India. The 16th Annual Biocuration Conference was held in Italy. About Biocuration Biocuration is a critical process in managing and organizing biological data. It involves curating, annotating, and structuring information related to genes, proteins, pathways, and other biological entities. Biocurators play a vital role in ensuring the accuracy, consistency, and accessibility of biological databases. The International Biocuration Conference is a unique event that provides a forum for curators, developers, and users of clinical and life sciences data, knowledge, and models to discuss their work, promote collaboration, and foster the community around this active and growing area of research. 17th Annual International Biocuration Conference (AIBC-2024) held in New Delhi, India. This event is jointly organized by the Indian Biological Data Centre (IBDC), the Regional Centre for Biotechnology (RCB) in Faridabad, and the Department of Plant Molecular Biology at the University of Delhi South Campus. Indian Biological Data Center (IBDC) The IBDC serves as India’s first national repository for life science data. It stores diverse biological data generated from publicly funded research within the country. The IBDC operates with assistance from the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), operates under the Ministry of Science and Technology in India. Source: PIB Nitrogen Pollution Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Context: In 2050, one-third of global river sub-basins are projected to face severe scarcity of clean water due to nitrogen pollution, new research has found. Background: Analysing more than 10,000 global river sub-basins, an international team of researchers found that nitrogen pollution dramatically increased the number of river basin systems considered scarce with regards to its water quality. The supply of clean water for all is one of the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) for 2030. About Nitrogen Pollution: It refers to the excessive presence of nitrogen compounds in the environment, primarily in water bodies like rivers and lakes. According to the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), each year, 200 million tonnes of reactive nitrogen, 80% of the total, is lost to the environment. Sources of Nitrogen Pollution: Agricultural activity is one of the main drivers of nitrogen pollution has been the rising consumption of nitrogen-based fertilizer, which can leach into groundwater or runoff into surface water bodies. Industrial processes like manufacturing processes, particularly those involved in the production of nitrogen-based chemicals and fertilisers, release nitrogen compounds into the environment. Combustion of fossil fuels in industries also emits nitrogen oxides (NOx) into the atmosphere. Livestock waste, primarily from manure and urine, contains nitrogen compounds such as ammonia. Improper storage and management of livestock waste can lead to nitrogen runoff, contaminating water bodies and contributing to eutrophication. Wildfires and burning of cow dung cake as a fuel release nitrogen oxide (NOx) and nitrous oxide (N2O) into the atmosphere. These emissions contribute to air pollution and can have regional and global impacts on atmospheric chemistry and climate. Consequences/Impacts of Nitrogen Pollution: Excess nitrogen acts as a nutrient fertiliser for aquatic plants, leading to excessive growth of algae and other aquatic vegetation. This phenomenon is known as eutrophication and leads to algal blooming. This creates oxygen-depleted zones (dead zones), where aquatic life suffocates and dies. Nitrogen pollution can have direct and indirect effects on human health. High levels of nitrogen dioxide (NO2) in the air can exacerbate respiratory conditions such as asthma and increase the risk of respiratory infections. Nitrate contamination of drinking water can also pose health risks, particularly to infants, by causing methemoglobinemia or blue baby syndrome. Nitrous oxide (N2O) released into the atmosphere can lead to the depletion of the stratospheric ozone layer, which protects the Earth from harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation. It can increase the risk of skin cancer, cataracts, and other health problems in humans, as well as harm marine ecosystems and agricultural crops. Government measures to reduce Nitrogen Pollution: Bharat Stage (BS VI) Emission Standards have made stricter emission standards for vehicles and industries aimed to curb the release of nitrogen oxides and particulate matter, which are precursors to air and water pollution. Nutrient-Based Subsidy (NBS) incentivizes the use of controlled-release fertilisers, encouraging more efficient nutrient management. Soil Health Cards issued to farmers, these cards provide soil nutrient status and customised fertiliser recommendations, promoting balanced nutrient application. Nano Urea is a fertiliser patented and sold by the Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited (IFFCO), which reduces the unbalanced and indiscriminate use of conventional urea and increases crop productivity. Source: Economic Times Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) With reference to Indian Biological Data Center (IBDC), consider the following statements: It serves as India’s first national repository for life science data. It stores diverse biological data generated from publicly funded research within the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2.) With reference to the Uttar Poorva Transformative Industrialization Scheme – 2024 , consider the following statements: Uttar Poorva Transformative Industrialization Scheme is a Central Sector Scheme. It aims for the development of Industries and generation of employment in the states of North East Region. It will be implemented by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade. How many of the statements given above are not correct? Only one Only two All three None Q3.)With reference to India Artificial Intelligence (AI) mission, consider the following statements: It is an initiative by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). It aims to position India as a global leader in AI research and innovation. It will be implemented by the ‘IndiaAI’ Independent Business Division (IBD). How many statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 16th March 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Rhodamine B Syllabus Prelims – Current event Context: On February 17, Tamil Nadu banned the sale of cotton candy or candy floss after analysis confirmed the presence of Rhodamine-B.Since then, the Karnataka Government has banned the use of harmful colouring agents in cotton candy and Gobi Manchurian. Background:- When taken even in small quantities for many years, Rhodamine B can cause a lot of health problems including cancers. About Rhodamine B:-   Rhodamine-B is a fluorescent dye used in cosmetics, textile and leather industries. It gives you brilliant pinks, greens and blues. Unfortunately, it is used as a food colouring agent not only in cotton candy but also in the preparation of sweets, various manchurian items and pakodas and in the preparation of sauces for Chinese food. Rhodamine-B has been routinely used in many coloured foods such as cotton candy to make it look appealing and attractive to young persons and children. Studies have shown that Rhodamine-B can cause cell death. In long-term use, it can damage the cerebellum tissue and brainstem. There is recent evidence that it damages the kidney, liver and increases the risk of stomach tumour. It is toxic to the human body and is a carcinogen. FSSAI has approved certain food colours and flavors as safe for consumption. These include: Caramel, Riboflavin (Lactoflavin), Saffron, Annatto, Curcumin (Turmeric), Carotene and carotenoids, including Beta-carotene, red colour from Ponceau 4R, Carmoisine, and Erythrosine, yellow colour (Tartrazine and Sunset Yellow FCF), blue colour (Indigo Carmine and Brilliant Blue FCF) and green colour (Fast Green FCF). Source: The Hindu One Nation, One Election Syllabus Prelims and Mains – Polity Context: The High-level Committee (HLC) on One Nation, One Election submitted its report to President Droupadi Murmu on Thursday (March 14) morning. Background: HLC was chaired by former president Ram Nath Kovind. What is meant by simultaneous elections? Simultaneous elections, popularly referred to as “One Nation, One Election”, means holding elections to Lok Sabha, all state Legislative Assemblies, and urban and rural local bodies (municipalities and panchayats) at the same time. Currently, all these elections are held independently of one another, following timelines dictated by the terms of every individual elected body. Simultaneous elections for Lok Sabha and state assemblies used to happen in India until the fourth general elections of 1967. However, as successive central governments used constitutional provisions to dismiss state governments before the end of their term, and as coalition governments in the states and the Centre kept collapsing, country came to see elections at different times through the year. According to the HLC report, the country now sees five to six elections in a year — if municipalities and panchayat elections are also included, the number of elections will increase manifold. What is the need for holding simultaneous elections? Frequent elections burden the government exchequer with additional expenditure. If the expenditure incurred by political parties is also added, these figures will be even higher. Asynchronous elections cause uncertainty and instability, thwarting supply chains, business investments and economic growth. Disruption of government machinery due to asynchronous elections causes hardship to citizens. Frequent use of government officials and security forces adversely affect discharge of their duties. Frequent imposition of the Model Code of Conduct (MCC) causes policy paralysis and slows down the pace of the developmental programmes. Staggered elections induce ‘voters’ fatigue’ and present a significant challenge in ensuring their participation. Important  recommendations of HLC AMENDING THE CONSTITUTION: The Constitution should be amended to enable simultaneous elections in two steps.In the first step, simultaneous elections will be held to Lok Sabha and State Assemblies. For this, no ratification by the states will be required for the constitutional amendment.In the second step, elections to municipalities and the panchayats will be synchronised with elections to Lok Sabha and state Assemblies in such a way that local body elections are held within 100 days of the elections to Lok Sabha and state Assemblies. This will require ratification by not less than one-half of the states. SINGLE ELECTORAL ROLL AND ELECTION ID: For the purpose of preparation of single electoral roll and electoral photo identity cards for use in elections to all the three tiers of government, the Constitution should be amended, so that the Election Commission of India can prepare a single electoral roll and election ID in consultation with the State Election Commissions. These amendments will require ratification by not less than one-half of the states. SINGLE ELECTORAL ROLL AND ELECTION ID: For the purpose of preparation of single electoral roll and electoral photo identity cards for use in elections to all the three tiers of government, the Constitution should be amended, so that the Election Commission of India can prepare a single electoral roll and election ID in consultation with the State Election Commissions. These amendments will require ratification by not less than one-half of the states. Source: The Indian Express GLOBAL METHANE TRACKER 2024 Syllabus Prelims & Mains -Environment Context: Recently, International Energy Agency (IEA) has released Global Methane Tracker 2024. Background: The Global Methane Pledge, led by the US and EU, aims to slash methane emissions by 30% by 2030 About Global Methane Tracker The Global Methane Tracker is an annual report released by the International Energy Agency (IEA). It provides the most recent data on methane emissions from the energy sector, incorporating new scientific studies, measurement campaigns, and satellite-collected information. Key Highlights of the 2024 Report: Methane emissions from fuel use in 2023 were nearly the highest ever, at 120 million tonnes (Mt). This is a slight increase compared to 2022. Bioenergy, a renewable energy form generated by plant and animal waste, contributed an additional 10 million tons of emissions. Of the 120 Mt of methane released into the atmosphere, around 80 million tons came from just 10 countries. The United States led in methane emissions from oil and gas operations, closely followed by Russia. China led in emissions from coal operations. To achieve the Paris Agreement goal of limiting warming to 1.5°C, the world needs to reduce methane emissions from fossil fuels by 75% by 2030. The IEA estimated that this goal would require about $170 billion in spending, less than 5% of the income generated by the fossil fuel industry in 2023. About the International Energy Agency (IEA): The IEA is an autonomous inter-governmental organization within the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) framework. It was created in response to the 1973-1974 oil crisis when an oil embargo by major producers pushed prices to historic levels and exposed the vulnerability of industrialized countries to dependency on oil imports. Source: IEA INDIAN NETWORK FOR FISHERY AND ANIMAL ANTIMICROBIAL RESISTANCE (INFAAR) Syllabus Prelims – Science Context: Recently, The FAO published an analytical report on the Indian Network for Fishery and Animal Antimicrobial Resistance (INFAAR) for 2019-22 report has released recently. Background: The report showed low levels of resistance in both the fisheries and animal sectors to certain less commonly used antibiotics (such as chloramphenicol). About INDIAN NETWORK FOR FISHERY AND ANIMAL ANTIMICROBIAL RESISTANCE (INFAAR): The Indian Network for Fishery and Animal Antimicrobial Resistance (INFAAR) is a network of laboratories established under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), with technical support from the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and the United States Agency for International Development (USAID). It is dedicated to Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) surveillance in the fisheries and livestock sectors. The network aims to document AMR in different production systems, describe the spread of resistant bacterial strains and resistance genes, identify trends in resistance, and generate hypotheses about sources and reservoirs of resistant bacteria through a structured national surveillance program. INFAAR also collates surveillance data to evaluate baseline data and get indications about the AMR trends in livestock, poultry, and fisheries. This helps to understand the impact of interventions required for the mitigation of antimicrobial resistance. The rise of AMR is exacerbated by the irrational use of antimicrobial agents in human and animal health and their presence in the environment. Over half of the antimicrobials used in animals/fish are excreted as waste, contributing to the emergence and spread of AMR. Source: Down To Earth EURASIAN ECONOMIC UNION (EAEU) Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: India and the five-member Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU), led by Russia, are poised to commence negotiations on a free trade agreement (FTA). Background: This proposed agreement aims to boost India’s exports to the EAEU countries, particularly in sectors such as engineering goods, electronics, and agriculture. About Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU or EEU) The Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU or EEU) is an economic union of five post-Soviet states located in Eurasia. The member states are Armenia, Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, and Russia. The EAEU was established to promote the free movement of goods, persons, services, and capital. Key facts about the EAEU: The EAEU was officially established on January 1, 2015. The union operates through supranational and intergovernmental institutions. The EAEU has an integrated single market. As of 2023, it consists of 183 million people and a gross domestic product of over $2.4 trillion. The EAEU encourages the free movement of goods and services, and provides for common policies in the macroeconomic sphere, transport, industry and agriculture, energy, foreign trade and investment, customs, technical regulation, competition, and antitrust regulation. Provisions for a single currency and greater integration are envisioned for the future. The EAEU’s formal objectives are to create a common market much like the European Union (EU). However, unlike the EU, the EAEU does not share a common currency. Source: Business Standard Vanadium Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Science Context: Researchers at the Geological Survey of India (GSI) discovered vanadium, a critical mineral from the Gulf of Khambhat in Gujarat. Background: Rarely found in its pure form naturally, vanadium is present in over 55 different minerals, which makes its production costly.At Gulf of Khambhat, it has been found in a mineral called titanomagnetite, which is formed when molten lava cools rapidly. About Vanadium: It is a chemical element with the symbol “V” and the atomic number 23 and is classified as a transition metal. It is an abundant element in the earth’s crust, ranking 22nd in position in the upper continental crust. It is listed as one of the 30 critical minerals identified by the Government of India. It rarely exists as a free element in nature but can be found in about 65 different minerals, including magnetite, vanadinite, carnotite, and patronite. It can be detected spectroscopically in the Sun’s rays and occasionally in the light of other stars. Applications of Vanadium: It is used in vanadium redox flow batteries, a type of rechargeable battery used for large-scale energy storage in renewable energy systems. It is used as an alloying element in steel production, where it imparts increased strength, toughness, and heat resistance to the steel. The addition of 0.15% vanadium strengthens cast iron by 10-25%. Its compounds are used as catalysts in the production of chemicals, plastics, and other materials. Its alloys are also used to make nuclear reactors because of their low-neutron-absorbing properties. It is used for the treatment of prediabetes and diabetes. It is used in the manufacture of aerospace and aviation components due to its high strength, lightweight, and heat resistance properties. It is used in the production of pigments, and ceramics, and as a reducing agent in metallurgy. Source: Times Of India Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.)Consider the following countries: Armenia Belarus Kazakhstan Kyrgyzstan Afghanistan Russia How many of the above-mentioned countries are the members of the Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU)? Only two Only three Only four Only five Q2.) With reference to Indian Network for Fishery and Animal Antimicrobial Resistance (INFAAR), consider the following statements: It is a network of laboratories established under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR). INFAAR collates surveillance data to evaluate baseline data and identify AMR trends in livestock, poultry, and fisheries. It seeks to understand the impact of interventions required for the mitigation of antimicrobial resistance. How many of the statements given above are not correct? Only one Only two All three None Q3.) Consider the following statements: The Global Methane Tracker is an annual report released by the International Energy Agency (IEA). It provides the most recent data on methane emissions from the energy sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  16th March  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  1st March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 16th March 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

[DAY 12] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 –ENVIRONMENT, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question Consider the following: Allopatric Speciation: When a species separates into two separate groups which are isolated from one another. Peripatric Speciation: When small groups of individuals break off from the larger group and form a new species. Parapatric Speciation: A species is spread out over a large geographic area. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Allopatric Speciation  Occurs when a species separates into two separate groups which are isolated from one another. A physical barrier, such as a mountain range or a waterway, makes it impossible for them to breed with one another. Each species develops differently based on the demands of their unique habitat or the genetic characteristics of the group that are passed on to offspring. Peripatric Speciation When small groups of individuals break off from the larger group and form a new species, this is called peripatric speciation. As in allopatric speciation, physical barriers make it impossible for members of the groups to interbreed with one another. The main difference between allopatric speciation and peripatric speciation is that in peripatric speciation, one group is much smaller than the other. Unique characteristics of the smaller groups are passed on to future generations of the group, making those traits more common among that group and distinguishing it from the others. Parapatric Speciation In parapatric speciation, a species is spread out over a large geographic area. Although it is possible for any member of the species to mate with another member, individuals only mate with those in their own geographic region. Like allopatric and peripatric speciation, different habitats influence the development of different species in parapatric speciation. Instead of being separated by a physical barrier, the species are separated by differences in the same environment. Incorrect Solution (c) Allopatric Speciation  Occurs when a species separates into two separate groups which are isolated from one another. A physical barrier, such as a mountain range or a waterway, makes it impossible for them to breed with one another. Each species develops differently based on the demands of their unique habitat or the genetic characteristics of the group that are passed on to offspring. Peripatric Speciation When small groups of individuals break off from the larger group and form a new species, this is called peripatric speciation. As in allopatric speciation, physical barriers make it impossible for members of the groups to interbreed with one another. The main difference between allopatric speciation and peripatric speciation is that in peripatric speciation, one group is much smaller than the other. Unique characteristics of the smaller groups are passed on to future generations of the group, making those traits more common among that group and distinguishing it from the others. Parapatric Speciation In parapatric speciation, a species is spread out over a large geographic area. Although it is possible for any member of the species to mate with another member, individuals only mate with those in their own geographic region. Like allopatric and peripatric speciation, different habitats influence the development of different species in parapatric speciation. Instead of being separated by a physical barrier, the species are separated by differences in the same environment. Question 2 of 35 2. Question Consider the following Events of a Hydrological Cycle: Condensation Evaporation Percolation Storage Precipitation Choose the Correct order of arrangement in the Earth-Atmosphere system: a) 2-5-1-3-4 b) 2-5-1-4-3 c) 2-1-5-3-4 d) 2-1-5-4-3 Correct Solution (c) Evaporation, one of the major processes in the cycle, is the transfer of water from the surface of the Earth to the atmosphere. By evaporation, water in the liquid state is transferred to the gaseous or vapour The main factors affecting evaporation are temperature, humidity, wind speed and solar radiation Condensation is the transition process from the vapour state to the liquid state. When the air moves up and reaches sufficient height, the air becomes so cool that the water vapour present in it condenses to form tiny droplets of water, which appear as clouds. Precipitation: Many tiny water droplets come together (as clouds) and fall down as rain, snow or hail. It may form streams and rivers finally reaching ocean or can also get collected in ponds & lakes. Percolation also known as infiltration is the movement of water though the soil, and it’s layers by gravity. Most of this water becomes available to us as ground water stored in aquifer. All of the above given water sources acts as a Storage which again evaporates to form water vapour completing the Water Cycle or Hydrological cycle. Incorrect Solution (c) Evaporation, one of the major processes in the cycle, is the transfer of water from the surface of the Earth to the atmosphere. By evaporation, water in the liquid state is transferred to the gaseous or vapour The main factors affecting evaporation are temperature, humidity, wind speed and solar radiation Condensation is the transition process from the vapour state to the liquid state. When the air moves up and reaches sufficient height, the air becomes so cool that the water vapour present in it condenses to form tiny droplets of water, which appear as clouds. Precipitation: Many tiny water droplets come together (as clouds) and fall down as rain, snow or hail. It may form streams and rivers finally reaching ocean or can also get collected in ponds & lakes. Percolation also known as infiltration is the movement of water though the soil, and it’s layers by gravity. Most of this water becomes available to us as ground water stored in aquifer. All of the above given water sources acts as a Storage which again evaporates to form water vapour completing the Water Cycle or Hydrological cycle. Question 3 of 35 3. Question Consider the following: Euryphagic: The species that have a wide range of tolerance for food. Homeotherms:: Animals that have a constant body temperature. Xerocoles:: Terrestrial animals that can tolerate extremely dry conditions. Stenothermal:: The species that have a narrow range of tolerance for temperature. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) Euryphagic The species that have a wide range of tolerance for food. Eurythermal The species that have a wide range of tolerance for temperature. Euryhydric The species that have a wide range of tolerance for water. Euryhaline The species that have a wide range of tolerance for salinity. Stenothermal The species that have a narrow range of tolerance for temperature. Endotherms Animals that primarily produces its own heat. Homeotherms Animals that have a constant body temperature. Hydrocoles Aquatic animals that need water like fish. Mesocoles Terrestrial animals that need moderate amounts of water. Xerocoles Terrestrial animals that can tolerate extremely dry conditions. Ectotherms Animals that primarily gains heat through the environment. Incorrect Solution (d) Euryphagic The species that have a wide range of tolerance for food. Eurythermal The species that have a wide range of tolerance for temperature. Euryhydric The species that have a wide range of tolerance for water. Euryhaline The species that have a wide range of tolerance for salinity. Stenothermal The species that have a narrow range of tolerance for temperature. Endotherms Animals that primarily produces its own heat. Homeotherms Animals that have a constant body temperature. Hydrocoles Aquatic animals that need water like fish. Mesocoles Terrestrial animals that need moderate amounts of water. Xerocoles Terrestrial animals that can tolerate extremely dry conditions. Ectotherms Animals that primarily gains heat through the environment. Question 4 of 35 4. Question With reference to the Ramsar Convention, consider the following statements: It provides the framework for national action and international cooperation for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources. It is affiliated with the United Nations system of Multilateral Environmental Agreements. India became a member of the convention in 1971. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect The Ramsar Convention or the Convention on Wetlands is an intergovernmental treaty that provides the framework for national action and international cooperation for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources. It was adopted in the Iranian city of Ramsar in 1971 and came into force in 1975, and it is the only global environmental treaty that deals with a particular ecosystem. The Ramsar is not affiliated with the United Nations system of Multilateral Environmental Agreements, but it works very closely with the other MEAs and is a full partner among the “biodiversity-related cluster” of treaties and agreements. India became a contracting party to the Ramsar Convention in 1981 and has been implementing conservation programmes for wetlands, mangroves, and coral reefs. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect The Ramsar Convention or the Convention on Wetlands is an intergovernmental treaty that provides the framework for national action and international cooperation for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources. It was adopted in the Iranian city of Ramsar in 1971 and came into force in 1975, and it is the only global environmental treaty that deals with a particular ecosystem. The Ramsar is not affiliated with the United Nations system of Multilateral Environmental Agreements, but it works very closely with the other MEAs and is a full partner among the “biodiversity-related cluster” of treaties and agreements. India became a contracting party to the Ramsar Convention in 1981 and has been implementing conservation programmes for wetlands, mangroves, and coral reefs. Question 5 of 35 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding ecological succession: In the successive seral stages, there is a change in the diversity of species of organisms as well as their biomass. At any time during primary or secondary succession, a particular seral stage of succession cannot return to an earlier stage. Both hydrarch and xerarch successions lead to mesic community. Climax is reached more quickly in secondary succession than in the primary succession. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Correct In the successive seral stages, there is a change in the diversity of species of organisms as well as their biomass. Natural or human induced disturbances can convert a particular seral stage of succession to an earlier stage. Both hydrarch and xerarch successions lead to mesic community. Climax is reached more quickly in secondary succession than in the primary succession.   Notes: Ecological Succession- The gradual and fairly predictable change in the species composition of a given area is called ecological succession. During succession some species colonise an area and their population become more numerous whereas populations of other species decline and even disappear. The entire sequence of communities that successively change in a given area are called sere(s). The individual transitional communities are termed seral stages or seral communities. In the successive seral stages, there is a change in the diversity of species of organisms, increase in the number of species and organisms as well as an increase in the total biomass. The present-day communities in the world have come to be because of succession that has occurred over millions of years since life started on earth. Actually, succession and evolution would have been parallel processes at that time. Succession is hence a process that starts in an area where no living organisms are there – these could be areas where no living organisms ever existed, say bare rock; or in areas that somehow, lost all the living organisms that existed there. The former is called primary succession, while the latter is termed secondary succession. Examples of areas where primary succession occurs are newly cooled lava, bare rock, newly created pond or reservoir. The establishment of a new biotic community is generally slow. Before a biotic community of diverse organisms can become established, there must be soil. Depending mostly on the climate, it takes natural processes several hundred to several thousand years to produce fertile soil on bare rock. Secondary succession begins in areas where natural biotic communities have been destroyed such as in abandoned farm lands, burned or cut forests, lands that have been flooded. Since some soil or sediment is present, succession is faster than primary succession. At any time during primary or secondary succession, natural or human induced disturbances (fi re, deforestation, etc.), can convert a particular seral stage of succession to an earlier stage. Also, such disturbances create new conditions that encourage some species and discourage or eliminate other species. Based on the nature of the habitat – whether it is water (or very wet areas) or it is on very dry areas – succession of plants is called hydrarch or xerarch, respectively. Hydrarch succession takes place in wet areas and the successional series progress from hydric to the mesic conditions. As against this, xerarch succession takes place in dry areas and the series progress from xeric to mesic conditions. Hence, both hydrarch and xerarch successions lead to medium water conditions (mesic) – neither too dry (xeric) nor too wet (hydric). The species that invade a bare area are called pioneer species. In primary succession on rocks these are usually lichens which are able to secrete acids to dissolve rock, helping in weathering and soil formation. In primary succession in water, the pioneers are the small phytoplanktons, which are replaced with time by rooted-submerged plants, rooted-floating angiosperms followed by free-floating plants, then reed swamp, marsh-meadow, scrub and finally the trees. The climax again would be a forest. In secondary succession the species that invade depend on the condition of the soil, availability of water, the environment as also the seeds or other propagules present. Since soil is already there, the rate of succession is much faster and hence, climax is also reached more quickly. All succession whether taking place in water or on land, proceeds to a similar climax community – the mesic. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Correct In the successive seral stages, there is a change in the diversity of species of organisms as well as their biomass. Natural or human induced disturbances can convert a particular seral stage of succession to an earlier stage. Both hydrarch and xerarch successions lead to mesic community. Climax is reached more quickly in secondary succession than in the primary succession.   Notes: Ecological Succession- The gradual and fairly predictable change in the species composition of a given area is called ecological succession. During succession some species colonise an area and their population become more numerous whereas populations of other species decline and even disappear. The entire sequence of communities that successively change in a given area are called sere(s). The individual transitional communities are termed seral stages or seral communities. In the successive seral stages, there is a change in the diversity of species of organisms, increase in the number of species and organisms as well as an increase in the total biomass. The present-day communities in the world have come to be because of succession that has occurred over millions of years since life started on earth. Actually, succession and evolution would have been parallel processes at that time. Succession is hence a process that starts in an area where no living organisms are there – these could be areas where no living organisms ever existed, say bare rock; or in areas that somehow, lost all the living organisms that existed there. The former is called primary succession, while the latter is termed secondary succession. Examples of areas where primary succession occurs are newly cooled lava, bare rock, newly created pond or reservoir. The establishment of a new biotic community is generally slow. Before a biotic community of diverse organisms can become established, there must be soil. Depending mostly on the climate, it takes natural processes several hundred to several thousand years to produce fertile soil on bare rock. Secondary succession begins in areas where natural biotic communities have been destroyed such as in abandoned farm lands, burned or cut forests, lands that have been flooded. Since some soil or sediment is present, succession is faster than primary succession. At any time during primary or secondary succession, natural or human induced disturbances (fi re, deforestation, etc.), can convert a particular seral stage of succession to an earlier stage. Also, such disturbances create new conditions that encourage some species and discourage or eliminate other species. Based on the nature of the habitat – whether it is water (or very wet areas) or it is on very dry areas – succession of plants is called hydrarch or xerarch, respectively. Hydrarch succession takes place in wet areas and the successional series progress from hydric to the mesic conditions. As against this, xerarch succession takes place in dry areas and the series progress from xeric to mesic conditions. Hence, both hydrarch and xerarch successions lead to medium water conditions (mesic) – neither too dry (xeric) nor too wet (hydric). The species that invade a bare area are called pioneer species. In primary succession on rocks these are usually lichens which are able to secrete acids to dissolve rock, helping in weathering and soil formation. In primary succession in water, the pioneers are the small phytoplanktons, which are replaced with time by rooted-submerged plants, rooted-floating angiosperms followed by free-floating plants, then reed swamp, marsh-meadow, scrub and finally the trees. The climax again would be a forest. In secondary succession the species that invade depend on the condition of the soil, availability of water, the environment as also the seeds or other propagules present. Since soil is already there, the rate of succession is much faster and hence, climax is also reached more quickly. All succession whether taking place in water or on land, proceeds to a similar climax community – the mesic. Question 6 of 35 6. Question Which of the following type of forest occupies the largest area in India? a) Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest b) Sub-tropical Dry Evergreen Forest c) Montane Wet Temperate Forest d) Tropical Wet Evergreen Forest Correct Solution (a) Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest: These are the most widespread forests in India. They are also called the monsoon forests. They spread over regions that receive rainfall between 70-200 cm. On the basis of the availability of water, these forests are further divided into moist and dry deciduous. The moist deciduous forests are more pronounced in the regions which record rainfall between 100-200 cm. Dry deciduous forest covers vast areas of the country, where rainfall ranges between 70 -100 cm. As the dry season begins, the trees shed their leaves completely and the forest appears like a vast grassland with naked trees all around. Tendu, palas, amaltas, bel, khair, axlewood, etc. are the common trees of these forests. Incorrect Solution (a) Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest: These are the most widespread forests in India. They are also called the monsoon forests. They spread over regions that receive rainfall between 70-200 cm. On the basis of the availability of water, these forests are further divided into moist and dry deciduous. The moist deciduous forests are more pronounced in the regions which record rainfall between 100-200 cm. Dry deciduous forest covers vast areas of the country, where rainfall ranges between 70 -100 cm. As the dry season begins, the trees shed their leaves completely and the forest appears like a vast grassland with naked trees all around. Tendu, palas, amaltas, bel, khair, axlewood, etc. are the common trees of these forests. Question 7 of 35 7. Question Consider the following statements: Benthos is unattached organisms that live at the air-water interface. Nektons are those animals that are able to swim and move independently of water currents. Neustons are organisms that live at the bottom of the water mass. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Benthic organisms are those found living at the bottom of the water mass. Benthic organisms are often deposit feeders, obtaining nutrition from ingesting biota, organic and inorganic particles from the sediment surface or within the sediments. Many species, particularly polychaete worms, ingest subsurface sediments and convey them to the sediment–water interface as fecal pellets     Nekton (or swimmers) are living organisms that are able to swim and move independently of currents. Nekton are heterotrophic and have a large size range, with familiar examples such as fish, squid, octopus, sharks, and marine mammals. Neuston, also known as pleuston, are organisms that live at the surface of the ocean or an estuary, or at the surface of a lake, river or pond. Neuston can live on top of the water surface or may be attached to the underside of the water surface.e.g floating plants. Notes: Periphyton: These are organisms which remain attached to stems and leaves of rooted plants or substances emerging above the bottom mud such as sessile algae. Plankton: Microscopic floating organisms such as algae, diatoms, protozoans and larval forms are called plankton. This group includes both microscopic plants like algae (phytoplankton) and animals like crustaceans and protozoans (zooplankton). Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Benthic organisms are those found living at the bottom of the water mass. Benthic organisms are often deposit feeders, obtaining nutrition from ingesting biota, organic and inorganic particles from the sediment surface or within the sediments. Many species, particularly polychaete worms, ingest subsurface sediments and convey them to the sediment–water interface as fecal pellets     Nekton (or swimmers) are living organisms that are able to swim and move independently of currents. Nekton are heterotrophic and have a large size range, with familiar examples such as fish, squid, octopus, sharks, and marine mammals. Neuston, also known as pleuston, are organisms that live at the surface of the ocean or an estuary, or at the surface of a lake, river or pond. Neuston can live on top of the water surface or may be attached to the underside of the water surface.e.g floating plants. Notes: Periphyton: These are organisms which remain attached to stems and leaves of rooted plants or substances emerging above the bottom mud such as sessile algae. Plankton: Microscopic floating organisms such as algae, diatoms, protozoans and larval forms are called plankton. This group includes both microscopic plants like algae (phytoplankton) and animals like crustaceans and protozoans (zooplankton). Question 8 of 35 8. Question Consider the following statements regarding Ramsar sites in India: There are 75 Ramsar sites in India. Kabartal in Jharkhand has been recognised as a wetland of international importance, the first such wetland in the state. Bangadesh’s part of Sunderban is also a Ramsar site like Indian part of Sundarban. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct There are 80 Ramsar sites in India as of January, 2024 Kabartal in Bihar has been recognised as a wetland of international importance, the first such wetland in the state. Bangadesh’s part of Sunderban is also a Ramsar site like Indian part of Sundarban. Notes: A Ramsar site is a wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention, which is also known as the ‘Convention on Wetlands’ — an intergovernmental environmental treaty established by UNESCO in 1971, and named after the city of Ramsar in Iran, where the convention was signed that year. Ramsar recognition is the identification of wetlands around the world, which are of international importance, especially if they provide habitat to waterfowl (about 180 species of birds). There is international interest and cooperation in the conservation of such wetlands and a judicious use of their resources.   Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct There are 80 Ramsar sites in India as of January, 2024 Kabartal in Bihar has been recognised as a wetland of international importance, the first such wetland in the state. Bangadesh’s part of Sunderban is also a Ramsar site like Indian part of Sundarban. Notes: A Ramsar site is a wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention, which is also known as the ‘Convention on Wetlands’ — an intergovernmental environmental treaty established by UNESCO in 1971, and named after the city of Ramsar in Iran, where the convention was signed that year. Ramsar recognition is the identification of wetlands around the world, which are of international importance, especially if they provide habitat to waterfowl (about 180 species of birds). There is international interest and cooperation in the conservation of such wetlands and a judicious use of their resources.   Question 9 of 35 9. Question Consider the following statements regarding Photic and Aphotic Zone of aquatic ecosystem: Photic Zone is the upper layer of the aquatic ecosystems Photosynthesis takes place in the photic zone. Aphotic zone is a region of oxygen generation How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Photic Zone is the upper layer of the aquatic ecosystems. Both photosynthesis and respiration activity takes place in Photic Zone.   Aphotic zone is a region of oxygen consumption.   Notes: Photic zone: It is the upper layer of the aquatic ecosystems, up to which light penetrates and within which photosynthetic activity is confined. The depth of this zone depends on the transparency of water. Both photosynthesis and respiration activity takes place. Photic (or ‘euphotic’) zone is the lighted and usually well-mixed portion that extends from the lake surface down to where the light level is 1% of that at the surface. Aphotic zone: The lower layers of the aquatic ecosystems, where light penetration and plant growth are restricted form the aphotic zone. Only respiration activity takes place. Aphotic zone is positioned below the littoral and photic zones to bottom of the lake where light levels are too low for photosynthesis. Respiration occurs at all depths so the aphotic zone is a region of oxygen consumption. This deep, unlit region is also known as the profundal zone. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Photic Zone is the upper layer of the aquatic ecosystems. Both photosynthesis and respiration activity takes place in Photic Zone.   Aphotic zone is a region of oxygen consumption.   Notes: Photic zone: It is the upper layer of the aquatic ecosystems, up to which light penetrates and within which photosynthetic activity is confined. The depth of this zone depends on the transparency of water. Both photosynthesis and respiration activity takes place. Photic (or ‘euphotic’) zone is the lighted and usually well-mixed portion that extends from the lake surface down to where the light level is 1% of that at the surface. Aphotic zone: The lower layers of the aquatic ecosystems, where light penetration and plant growth are restricted form the aphotic zone. Only respiration activity takes place. Aphotic zone is positioned below the littoral and photic zones to bottom of the lake where light levels are too low for photosynthesis. Respiration occurs at all depths so the aphotic zone is a region of oxygen consumption. This deep, unlit region is also known as the profundal zone. Question 10 of 35 10. Question Which of the following are examples of a lotic water ecosystem? Rivers Creeks Springs Marshes Select the correct answer using the code given below a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 4 only d) 2, 3 and 4 only Correct Solution (a) 1.     Rivers 2.     Creeks 3.     Springs 4.     Marshes Correct Correct Correct Incorrect Lotic Lotic Lotic Lentic   Notes: Freshwater ecosystems can be divided into two categories: Lentic ecosystem: It entails a body of standing water, ranging from ditches, seeps, ponds, seasonal pools, basin marshes, swamp and lakes. These are also known as Pond ecosystem. Lotic ecosystem: It can be any kind of moving water, such as a run, creek, brook, river, spring, channel or stream. The water in a lotic ecosystem, from source to mouth, must have atmospheric gases, turbidity, longitudinal temperature gradation and material dissolved in it. Incorrect Solution (a) 1.     Rivers 2.     Creeks 3.     Springs 4.     Marshes Correct Correct Correct Incorrect Lotic Lotic Lotic Lentic   Notes: Freshwater ecosystems can be divided into two categories: Lentic ecosystem: It entails a body of standing water, ranging from ditches, seeps, ponds, seasonal pools, basin marshes, swamp and lakes. These are also known as Pond ecosystem. Lotic ecosystem: It can be any kind of moving water, such as a run, creek, brook, river, spring, channel or stream. The water in a lotic ecosystem, from source to mouth, must have atmospheric gases, turbidity, longitudinal temperature gradation and material dissolved in it. Question 11 of 35 11. Question Consider the following statements about Subtidal Zone: It is the upper most part of neritic zone and below the ocean’s intertidal zone. This zone is never exposed to the atmosphere. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Subtidal zone is the Lower most part of neritic zone and below the ocean’s intertidal zone.   This zone is never exposed to the atmosphere. Note: Zones of the ocean: The Earth is approximately covered with ocean by 71% and ocean contains around 97% of Earth’s water. Oceans are the largest habitat region on the Earth and also regulate the global climate. The Oceanographers divided the ocean into different layers or zone to study the ocean, such as- Intertidal Zone- The Intertidal zone is the shallow water near the shore. In the ocean, the Intertidal zone is also called the Littoral zone. Neritic Zone- The main body of open water farther out from shore, over the Continental Shelf is called the Neritic zone. Oceanic Zone- The remaining portion of the ocean water beyond the Neritic Zone is called the Oceanic zone. Types of Neritic Zones: Infralittoral zone– This zone is dominated by the algae and has depth of about 16.40 feet below the low water mark. Circalittoral zone– This zone is dominated by the sessile animals like Oysters. Subtidal zone– It is the lower most part of neritic zone and below the ocean’s intertidal zone. This zone is never exposed to the atmosphere. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Subtidal zone is the Lower most part of neritic zone and below the ocean’s intertidal zone.   This zone is never exposed to the atmosphere. Note: Zones of the ocean: The Earth is approximately covered with ocean by 71% and ocean contains around 97% of Earth’s water. Oceans are the largest habitat region on the Earth and also regulate the global climate. The Oceanographers divided the ocean into different layers or zone to study the ocean, such as- Intertidal Zone- The Intertidal zone is the shallow water near the shore. In the ocean, the Intertidal zone is also called the Littoral zone. Neritic Zone- The main body of open water farther out from shore, over the Continental Shelf is called the Neritic zone. Oceanic Zone- The remaining portion of the ocean water beyond the Neritic Zone is called the Oceanic zone. Types of Neritic Zones: Infralittoral zone– This zone is dominated by the algae and has depth of about 16.40 feet below the low water mark. Circalittoral zone– This zone is dominated by the sessile animals like Oysters. Subtidal zone– It is the lower most part of neritic zone and below the ocean’s intertidal zone. This zone is never exposed to the atmosphere. Question 12 of 35 12. Question If a wetland of international importance is brought under the ‘Montreux Record’, what does it imply? a) Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference. b) The country in which the wetland is located should enact a law to prohibit any human activity within 5 kilometers from the wetland. c) It is given the status of ‘world heritage site’. d) None of the above. Correct Solution (a) Montreux record: The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution or other human interference. It is the principle tool under the Ramsar convention for highlighting wetlands sites in need of priority conservation status. It is maintained as part of the Ramsar Database and is subject to continuous review. It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List. At present 2 Indian sites are listed under it. (Loktak Lake, Manipur and Keoladeo National Park, Rajasthan) In 1993 Chilka lake was also listed in Montreux record due to problem of Siltation. But later in 2002, it was removed from the list as problem tackled by government actions. Incorrect Solution (a) Montreux record: The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution or other human interference. It is the principle tool under the Ramsar convention for highlighting wetlands sites in need of priority conservation status. It is maintained as part of the Ramsar Database and is subject to continuous review. It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List. At present 2 Indian sites are listed under it. (Loktak Lake, Manipur and Keoladeo National Park, Rajasthan) In 1993 Chilka lake was also listed in Montreux record due to problem of Siltation. But later in 2002, it was removed from the list as problem tackled by government actions. Question 13 of 35 13. Question Arrange the following organisms chronologically in terms of their evolutionary periods: Fishes Birds Corals Flowering plants Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 3-1-2-4 b) 3-1-4-2 c) 1-3-2-4 d) 1-3-4-2 Correct Solution (a) Chronologically, the following organisms evolved in the sequence given below – Corals Fishes Birds Flowering plants The basic timeline of a 4.6 billion-year-old Earth includes the following: About 3.5 – 3.8 billion years of simple cells (prokaryotes). 3 billion years of photosynthesis. 2 billion years of complex cells (eukaryotes). 1 billion years of multicellular life. 600 million years of simple animals. 570 million years of arthropods (ancestors of insects, arachnids and crustaceans). 550 million years of complex animals. 500 million years of fish and proto-amphibians. 475 million years of land plants. 400 million years of insects and seeds. 360 million years of amphibians. 300 million years of reptiles. 200 million years of mammals. 150 million years of birds. 130 million years of flowers. 65 million years since the non-avian dinosaurs died out. 5 million years since the appearance of Homo. 200,000 years since the appearance of modern humans. 25,000 years since Neanderthals died out. Incorrect Solution (a) Chronologically, the following organisms evolved in the sequence given below – Corals Fishes Birds Flowering plants The basic timeline of a 4.6 billion-year-old Earth includes the following: About 3.5 – 3.8 billion years of simple cells (prokaryotes). 3 billion years of photosynthesis. 2 billion years of complex cells (eukaryotes). 1 billion years of multicellular life. 600 million years of simple animals. 570 million years of arthropods (ancestors of insects, arachnids and crustaceans). 550 million years of complex animals. 500 million years of fish and proto-amphibians. 475 million years of land plants. 400 million years of insects and seeds. 360 million years of amphibians. 300 million years of reptiles. 200 million years of mammals. 150 million years of birds. 130 million years of flowers. 65 million years since the non-avian dinosaurs died out. 5 million years since the appearance of Homo. 200,000 years since the appearance of modern humans. 25,000 years since Neanderthals died out. Question 14 of 35 14. Question Which of the following are the adaptations by plants in desert areas? Thick cuticle on their leaf surfaces Stomata are arranged in deep pits Stomata to remain open during day time Flattened stems Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution (c) Adaptation is any attribute of the organism (morphological, physiological, behavioural) that enables the organism to survive and reproduce in its habitat. Many adaptations have evolved over a long evolutionary time and are genetically fixed. Adaptations by plants in desert areas: Thick cuticle on their leaf surfaces- In order to tackle the high rate of transpiration, the leaves have a thick waxy coating known as the cuticle. The cuticle is a waxy layer and impervious to water and thus prevent loss of water from the surface. Stomata are arranged in deep pits- Due to high temperature, the water is lost from the stomata of the plant as a result of the high rate of transpiration. Therefore, the stomata are arranged in deep pits to prevent excessive loss of water. Stomata to remain closed during day time- Desert plants photosynthesize by a modified process of photosynthesis called CAM photosynthesis. There are less stomata in desert plants as the leaves are modified to form spines and photosynthesis occurs in the green stem. The stomata do not open during the day to avoid water loss and only opens during the night for carbon dioxide to enter the plant. ​The carbon dioxide is present as an intermediate inside the plant to perform photosynthesis during the day. Flattened stems- Desert plants stems are flattened, that is they have absence of leaves or has leaves that have been reduced to thorns or spines to perform photosynthesis in the absence of leaves. Fat leaves, fat stems, and fewer leaves are all ways for plants to reduce their water loss in the desert. Incorrect Solution (c) Adaptation is any attribute of the organism (morphological, physiological, behavioural) that enables the organism to survive and reproduce in its habitat. Many adaptations have evolved over a long evolutionary time and are genetically fixed. Adaptations by plants in desert areas: Thick cuticle on their leaf surfaces- In order to tackle the high rate of transpiration, the leaves have a thick waxy coating known as the cuticle. The cuticle is a waxy layer and impervious to water and thus prevent loss of water from the surface. Stomata are arranged in deep pits- Due to high temperature, the water is lost from the stomata of the plant as a result of the high rate of transpiration. Therefore, the stomata are arranged in deep pits to prevent excessive loss of water. Stomata to remain closed during day time- Desert plants photosynthesize by a modified process of photosynthesis called CAM photosynthesis. There are less stomata in desert plants as the leaves are modified to form spines and photosynthesis occurs in the green stem. The stomata do not open during the day to avoid water loss and only opens during the night for carbon dioxide to enter the plant. ​The carbon dioxide is present as an intermediate inside the plant to perform photosynthesis during the day. Flattened stems- Desert plants stems are flattened, that is they have absence of leaves or has leaves that have been reduced to thorns or spines to perform photosynthesis in the absence of leaves. Fat leaves, fat stems, and fewer leaves are all ways for plants to reduce their water loss in the desert. Question 15 of 35 15. Question Consider the following statements regarding coral reefs: Corals generally flourish in clear temperate oceans. Warmer water temperatures can result in coral bleaching. Not all bleaching events are due to warm water. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Corals generally flourish in clear tropical oceans usually between 30°N and 30°S of the equator.   Warmer water temperatures can result in coral bleaching. When water is too warm, corals will expel the algae (zooxanthellae) living in their tissues causing the coral to turn completely white. Not all bleaching events are due to warm water. Other reasons could be ocean acidification, infectious diseases etc. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Corals generally flourish in clear tropical oceans usually between 30°N and 30°S of the equator.   Warmer water temperatures can result in coral bleaching. When water is too warm, corals will expel the algae (zooxanthellae) living in their tissues causing the coral to turn completely white. Not all bleaching events are due to warm water. Other reasons could be ocean acidification, infectious diseases etc. Question 16 of 35 16. Question Consider the following statements with respect to the ‘Estuaries’: An estuary is a coastal body of water where flow of freshwater from river mixes with saltwater of ocean. Estuaries are homes to plants & animals which have low salt tolerance. Estuaries create a natural barrier that absorbs the energy of the waves and prevents them from flooding cities. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct An estuary is a coastal body of water where flow of freshwater from river mixes with saltwater of ocean. Estuaries are homes to plants & animals which have high salt tolerance.   Estuaries create a natural barrier that absorbs the energy of the waves and prevents them from flooding cities.   Note: Estuary: An estuary is a place where a river or a stream opens into the sea (mouth of the river). It is a partially enclosed coastal area of brackish water (salinity varies between 0-35 ppt) with one or more rivers or streams flowing into it, and with a free connection to the open sea. At the estuaries, freshwater carrying fertile silt and runoff from the land mixes with the salty sea water. Estuaries form a transition zone (ecotone) between river environments and maritime environments. Examples of estuaries are river mouths, coastal bays, tidal marshes, lagoons and deltas. Estuaries are formed due to rise in sea level, movement of sand and sandbars, glacial processes and tectonic processes. All the plants and animals in the estuaries are subjected to variations in salinity to which they are adapted (osmoregulation). Estuaries are greatly influenced by tidal action. They are periodically washed by sea water once or twice a day based on the number of tides. In some narrow estuaries, tidal bores are significant. Tidal bores cause great damage to the estuarine ecology. Estuaries create a natural barrier that absorbs the energy of the waves and prevents them from flooding cities. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct An estuary is a coastal body of water where flow of freshwater from river mixes with saltwater of ocean. Estuaries are homes to plants & animals which have high salt tolerance.   Estuaries create a natural barrier that absorbs the energy of the waves and prevents them from flooding cities.   Note: Estuary: An estuary is a place where a river or a stream opens into the sea (mouth of the river). It is a partially enclosed coastal area of brackish water (salinity varies between 0-35 ppt) with one or more rivers or streams flowing into it, and with a free connection to the open sea. At the estuaries, freshwater carrying fertile silt and runoff from the land mixes with the salty sea water. Estuaries form a transition zone (ecotone) between river environments and maritime environments. Examples of estuaries are river mouths, coastal bays, tidal marshes, lagoons and deltas. Estuaries are formed due to rise in sea level, movement of sand and sandbars, glacial processes and tectonic processes. All the plants and animals in the estuaries are subjected to variations in salinity to which they are adapted (osmoregulation). Estuaries are greatly influenced by tidal action. They are periodically washed by sea water once or twice a day based on the number of tides. In some narrow estuaries, tidal bores are significant. Tidal bores cause great damage to the estuarine ecology. Estuaries create a natural barrier that absorbs the energy of the waves and prevents them from flooding cities. Question 17 of 35 17. Question Consider the following statements regarding Mangroves Mangrove plants have Pneumatophores roots which help to enhance deposition of sediment in area. Mangroves grow in areas with low oxygen soil. They occur in shallow Tropical areas where the sea water is clean, clear and warm. How many of the above statements are correct? a) One only b) Two only c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Mangrove plants have (additional) special roots such as prop roots, pneumatophores which help to impede water flow and thereby enhance the deposition of sediment in areas (where it is already occurring), stabilise the coastal shores, provide a breeding ground for fishes. These are also called as breathing roots which is defined as a root which, for part of the day, is exposed to the air. These roots help these trees to respire in anaerobic soils. The mangrove root system absorbs oxygen from the atmosphere. These roots have numerous pores through which oxygen enters the underground tissues. Mangroves grow in areas with low oxygen soil. They also occur in shallow Tropical areas where the sea water is clean, clear and warm. Mangroves are found along sheltered coastlines within the tropical or subtropical latitudes because they cannot withstand freezing temperatures. They share the unique capability of growing within reach of the tides in salty soil.   Note: Mangroves: Mangroves are a variety of species of broad-leaved trees (10–40 feet high) lying in muddy creeks and tidal estuaries. They are located on the intermediate zone between the land and the sea and represent one of the best examples of ecotone. They require warm saline water and so they are situated along tropical coastlines. Mangrove plants survive in the saltwater zones between water and land. Importance of Mangroves: They protect coastal areas from Tsunamis storm surges and soil erosions; due to their complex root systems which dissipate sea wave energy Sediment deposition is a visible feature which arrests coastal erosion and seawater pollution Many fish species and other fauna breeds here They are an important source of livelihood for communities found in and around mangrove forests: Collection of Honey Tanning Wax Fishing They are carbon sinks Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Mangrove plants have (additional) special roots such as prop roots, pneumatophores which help to impede water flow and thereby enhance the deposition of sediment in areas (where it is already occurring), stabilise the coastal shores, provide a breeding ground for fishes. These are also called as breathing roots which is defined as a root which, for part of the day, is exposed to the air. These roots help these trees to respire in anaerobic soils. The mangrove root system absorbs oxygen from the atmosphere. These roots have numerous pores through which oxygen enters the underground tissues. Mangroves grow in areas with low oxygen soil. They also occur in shallow Tropical areas where the sea water is clean, clear and warm. Mangroves are found along sheltered coastlines within the tropical or subtropical latitudes because they cannot withstand freezing temperatures. They share the unique capability of growing within reach of the tides in salty soil.   Note: Mangroves: Mangroves are a variety of species of broad-leaved trees (10–40 feet high) lying in muddy creeks and tidal estuaries. They are located on the intermediate zone between the land and the sea and represent one of the best examples of ecotone. They require warm saline water and so they are situated along tropical coastlines. Mangrove plants survive in the saltwater zones between water and land. Importance of Mangroves: They protect coastal areas from Tsunamis storm surges and soil erosions; due to their complex root systems which dissipate sea wave energy Sediment deposition is a visible feature which arrests coastal erosion and seawater pollution Many fish species and other fauna breeds here They are an important source of livelihood for communities found in and around mangrove forests: Collection of Honey Tanning Wax Fishing They are carbon sinks Question 18 of 35 18. Question With reference to ecological pyramids, consider the following statements: In an aquatic ecosystem, the pyramid of biomass is always upright. In all ecosystems of the world, the pyramid of numbers is always upright. In a terrestrial ecosystem, the pyramid of energy is always inverted. How many of the above statements are correct? a) One only b) Two only c) All three d) None Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect The pyramid of biomass in the sea is generally inverted because the biomass of fishes far exceeds that of phytoplankton An inverted pyramid of numbers can be found in an ecosystem where the community contains a few producers with very large biomass that support a larger number of smaller consumers. Pyramid of energy is always upright, can never be inverted, because when energy flows from a particular trophic level to the next trophic level, some energy is always lost as heat at each step. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect The pyramid of biomass in the sea is generally inverted because the biomass of fishes far exceeds that of phytoplankton An inverted pyramid of numbers can be found in an ecosystem where the community contains a few producers with very large biomass that support a larger number of smaller consumers. Pyramid of energy is always upright, can never be inverted, because when energy flows from a particular trophic level to the next trophic level, some energy is always lost as heat at each step. Question 19 of 35 19. Question Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the Phytoplanktons? a) It refers to the group of organisms which float in the surface waters of rivers and oceans. b) Phytoplanktons can be bacteria, protists or single-celled plants. c) They are limited to the uppermost layers of the oceans where light intensity is sufficient for photosynthesis to occur. d) They do not require any inorganic nutrients for growth and reproduction. Correct Solution (d) a)       b)       c)       d)       Corrrect Correct Correct Incorrect Phytoplanktons refer to the group of organisms which float in the surface waters of rivers and oceans. Phytoplanktons can be bacteria, protists or single-celled plants. They are limited to the uppermost layers of the oceans where light intensity is sufficient for photosynthesis to occur. Phytoplanktons require inorganic nutrients for growth and reproduction. These inorganic nutrients include- ·       Nitrates ·       Phosphates ·       Silica ·       Calcium ·       Iron and ·       Sulfur etc., They convert these inorganic nutrients into proteins, fats, and carbohydrates. Incorrect Solution (d) a)       b)       c)       d)       Corrrect Correct Correct Incorrect Phytoplanktons refer to the group of organisms which float in the surface waters of rivers and oceans. Phytoplanktons can be bacteria, protists or single-celled plants. They are limited to the uppermost layers of the oceans where light intensity is sufficient for photosynthesis to occur. Phytoplanktons require inorganic nutrients for growth and reproduction. These inorganic nutrients include- ·       Nitrates ·       Phosphates ·       Silica ·       Calcium ·       Iron and ·       Sulfur etc., They convert these inorganic nutrients into proteins, fats, and carbohydrates. Question 20 of 35 20. Question Consider the following statements: Wular Lake is one of the biggest freshwater lakes in Asia. Chilika Lake is the largest saline water lake in India. Vembanad Lake is a notified National Geo-heritage Monument. How many of the above statements are correct? a) One only b) Two only c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Wular Lake is one of the biggest freshwater lakes in Asia. Chilika Lake is the largest saline water lake in India. Lonar Lake is a notified National Geo-heritage Monument, saline, soda lake, located at Lonar in Buldhana district, Maharashtra.   Notes: Geo-heritage Sites: Geo-heritage refers to the geological features which are inherently or culturally significant offering insight to earth’s evolution or history to earth science or that can be utilized for education. Geological Survey of India (GSI) is the parent body which is making efforts towards identification and declaration of geo-heritage sites/national geological monuments in the country. GSI declares geo-heritage sites/ national geological monuments for protection and maintenance. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Wular Lake is one of the biggest freshwater lakes in Asia. Chilika Lake is the largest saline water lake in India. Lonar Lake is a notified National Geo-heritage Monument, saline, soda lake, located at Lonar in Buldhana district, Maharashtra.   Notes: Geo-heritage Sites: Geo-heritage refers to the geological features which are inherently or culturally significant offering insight to earth’s evolution or history to earth science or that can be utilized for education. Geological Survey of India (GSI) is the parent body which is making efforts towards identification and declaration of geo-heritage sites/national geological monuments in the country. GSI declares geo-heritage sites/ national geological monuments for protection and maintenance. Question 21 of 35 21. Question Consider the following statements: Multidrug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB) is TB that does not respond to the two most powerful anti-TB drugs – isoniazid and bedaquiline. Rifampicin is used to treat multi-drug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB) by targeting the adenosine triphosphate (ATP) synthase enzyme of the TB mycobacteria. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (d) Multidrug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB) is TB that does not respond to the two most powerful anti-TB drugs – isoniazid and rifampicin. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is caused by inappropriate or incorrect use of antimicrobial drugs, or use of ineffective formulations of drugs (such as the use of single drugs, poor quality medicines, or bad storage conditions), and premature treatment interruption. Bedaquiline is used to treat multi-drug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB) by targeting the adenosine triphosphate (ATP) synthase enzyme of the TB mycobacteria. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (d) Multidrug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB) is TB that does not respond to the two most powerful anti-TB drugs – isoniazid and rifampicin. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is caused by inappropriate or incorrect use of antimicrobial drugs, or use of ineffective formulations of drugs (such as the use of single drugs, poor quality medicines, or bad storage conditions), and premature treatment interruption. Bedaquiline is used to treat multi-drug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB) by targeting the adenosine triphosphate (ATP) synthase enzyme of the TB mycobacteria. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements: Statement I: Madhya Pradesh has the highest tiger population in India accounting for a fifth of the national count with a 50% rise in its population compared to the previous census. Statement II: It is due to its strategy of relocation of both tigers and their prey within the state to establish a balance between the numbers of predators and their prey. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation' for Statement-I c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect d) Statement I is incorrect Statement II is correct Correct Solution (a) Madhya Pradesh has the highest tiger population in India accounting for a fifth of the national count with a 50% rise in its population compared to the previous census. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is due to its strategy of relocation of both tigers and their prey within the state to establish a balance between the numbers of predators and their prey. Hence statement 2 is correct. Madhya Pradesh has effectively reintroduced species like barasingha into habitats like Satpura and Bandhavgarh, and gaur into the Bandhavgarh and Sanjay-Dubri tiger reserves. Note: The national tiger census is done every four years by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) in partnership with state forest departments, conservation NGOs, and the Wildlife Institute of India (WII). Incorrect Solution (a) Madhya Pradesh has the highest tiger population in India accounting for a fifth of the national count with a 50% rise in its population compared to the previous census. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is due to its strategy of relocation of both tigers and their prey within the state to establish a balance between the numbers of predators and their prey. Hence statement 2 is correct. Madhya Pradesh has effectively reintroduced species like barasingha into habitats like Satpura and Bandhavgarh, and gaur into the Bandhavgarh and Sanjay-Dubri tiger reserves. Note: The national tiger census is done every four years by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) in partnership with state forest departments, conservation NGOs, and the Wildlife Institute of India (WII). Question 23 of 35 23. Question Consider the following statements: Flood management including erosion control falls within the purview of the Union. The Central Water Commission (CWC) is responsible for predicting and giving early warnings about floods in India. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Flood management including erosion control falls within the purview of the States. Flood management and anti-erosion projects are formulated and implemented by concerned State Governments from their own resources as per their priority. The Union Government supplements the efforts of the States by providing technical guidance and also promotional financial assistance for the management of floods in critical areas. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The Central Water Commission (CWC) is responsible for predicting and giving early warnings about floods in India. They use a system of 338 forecasting stations across 20 major river basins in 23 States and 2 Union Territories. This helps local authorities prepare for evacuations and take necessary actions. CWC has created flood forecasting models for each basin that use rainfall and runoff data to predict floods up to 5 days in advance and provide advice to the forecasting stations. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) Flood management including erosion control falls within the purview of the States. Flood management and anti-erosion projects are formulated and implemented by concerned State Governments from their own resources as per their priority. The Union Government supplements the efforts of the States by providing technical guidance and also promotional financial assistance for the management of floods in critical areas. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The Central Water Commission (CWC) is responsible for predicting and giving early warnings about floods in India. They use a system of 338 forecasting stations across 20 major river basins in 23 States and 2 Union Territories. This helps local authorities prepare for evacuations and take necessary actions. CWC has created flood forecasting models for each basin that use rainfall and runoff data to predict floods up to 5 days in advance and provide advice to the forecasting stations. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 24 of 35 24. Question Recently in the news, Balem Declaration is related to a) conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources b) international trade of wild animals and plants c) various issues involving poverty and violence against women d) inclusion of indigenous people in biodiversity conservation Correct Solution (d) Ramsar Convention – conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources. CITES – international trade of wild animals and plants does not threaten the survival of the species in the wild. Beijing Declaration – various issues involving poverty and violence against women. Balem/Belem Declaration – inclusion of indigenous people in biodiversity conservation. It created an alliance for combatting forest destruction, with countries left to pursue their individual deforestation goals. It was adopted at the Amazon Summit organized by the Amazon Cooperation Treaty Organization (ACTO). Hence option d is correct. Incorrect Solution (d) Ramsar Convention – conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources. CITES – international trade of wild animals and plants does not threaten the survival of the species in the wild. Beijing Declaration – various issues involving poverty and violence against women. Balem/Belem Declaration – inclusion of indigenous people in biodiversity conservation. It created an alliance for combatting forest destruction, with countries left to pursue their individual deforestation goals. It was adopted at the Amazon Summit organized by the Amazon Cooperation Treaty Organization (ACTO). Hence option d is correct. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements: The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is the nodal body for all matters related to Interpol. INTERPOL Global Academy Network boosts skill development for law enforcement globally by providing specialized training to Interpol. The CBI Academy is a statutory premier training institution in the fields of crime investigation, prosecution, and vigilance. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is the nodal body for all matters related to Interpol. Hence statement 1 is correct. The CBI assists the Central Vigilance Commission and Lokpal. It functions under the superintendence of the Department of Personnel, Ministry of Personnel, Pension and Public Grievances, Government of India – which falls under the prime minister’s office. INTERPOL Global Academy Network was launched in 2019 by INTERPOL. INTERPOL Global Academy Network boosts skill development for law enforcement globally by providing specialized training to Interpol. Hence statement 2 is correct. The CBI Academy is a non-statutory premier training institution in the fields of crime investigation, prosecution, and vigilance. It was established by CBI in 1996. The statutory body is a body that is established by an act of parliament. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (b) The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is the nodal body for all matters related to Interpol. Hence statement 1 is correct. The CBI assists the Central Vigilance Commission and Lokpal. It functions under the superintendence of the Department of Personnel, Ministry of Personnel, Pension and Public Grievances, Government of India – which falls under the prime minister’s office. INTERPOL Global Academy Network was launched in 2019 by INTERPOL. INTERPOL Global Academy Network boosts skill development for law enforcement globally by providing specialized training to Interpol. Hence statement 2 is correct. The CBI Academy is a non-statutory premier training institution in the fields of crime investigation, prosecution, and vigilance. It was established by CBI in 1996. The statutory body is a body that is established by an act of parliament. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Question 26 of 35 26. Question Consider the following statements: Statement I: Ubuntu is a popular Linux operating system that can be inspected and modified by anyone. Statement II: Because it is distributed as free and open-source software. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation' for Statement-I c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect d) Statement I is incorrect Statement II is correct Correct Solution (a) Context: The Defence Ministry has decided to replace the Microsoft Operating System (OS) in all computers connected to the Internet with the Maya Operating System(OS). Maya OS is a new operating system that is based on Ubuntu, a popular Linux distribution that uses free and open-source software. Ubuntu is a popular Linux operating system that can be inspected and modified by anyone. Hence statement 1 is correct. Because it is distributed as free and open-source software. It allows Ubuntu to benefit from the collective efforts of thousands of developers and users who contribute to its development and security. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (a) Context: The Defence Ministry has decided to replace the Microsoft Operating System (OS) in all computers connected to the Internet with the Maya Operating System(OS). Maya OS is a new operating system that is based on Ubuntu, a popular Linux distribution that uses free and open-source software. Ubuntu is a popular Linux operating system that can be inspected and modified by anyone. Hence statement 1 is correct. Because it is distributed as free and open-source software. It allows Ubuntu to benefit from the collective efforts of thousands of developers and users who contribute to its development and security. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements regarding Assam Rifles It is one of the six central armed police forces (CAPFs) under the administrative control of the Ministry of Defence. It is tasked with maintaining law and order in the Northeast along with the Indian Army and guards the Indo-Myanmar border. It was formed in 1835 as a militia to primarily protect British Tea estates and their settlements against tribal raids. Since its formation in 1835, it has gone on to fight in two World Wars, the Sino-Indian War of 1962. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) Assam Rifles are one of the six central armed police forces(CAPFs) under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The other five forces are the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), Border Security Force (BSF), Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP), Central Industrial Security Force (CISF), and Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB). It is the only paramilitary force with a dual control structure. While the administrative control of the force is with the Ministry of Home Affairs(MHA). But its operational control is with the Indian Army, which is under the Ministry of Defence (MoD). It is tasked with maintaining law and order in the Northeast along with the Indian Army and guards the Indo-Myanmar border. Hence statement 2 is correct. It was formed in 1835 as a militia called the ‘Cachar Levy’ to primarily protect British Tea estates and their settlements against tribal raids. Hence statement 3 is correct. Since its formation in 1835, it has gone on to fight in two World Wars, the Sino-Indian War of 1962. It has operated in foreign land as part of the Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF) to Sri Lanka in 1987 (Op Pawan) to a peacekeeping role in the North-Eastern areas of India. Hence statement 4 is correct.   Incorrect Solution (c) Assam Rifles are one of the six central armed police forces(CAPFs) under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The other five forces are the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), Border Security Force (BSF), Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP), Central Industrial Security Force (CISF), and Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB). It is the only paramilitary force with a dual control structure. While the administrative control of the force is with the Ministry of Home Affairs(MHA). But its operational control is with the Indian Army, which is under the Ministry of Defence (MoD). It is tasked with maintaining law and order in the Northeast along with the Indian Army and guards the Indo-Myanmar border. Hence statement 2 is correct. It was formed in 1835 as a militia called the ‘Cachar Levy’ to primarily protect British Tea estates and their settlements against tribal raids. Hence statement 3 is correct. Since its formation in 1835, it has gone on to fight in two World Wars, the Sino-Indian War of 1962. It has operated in foreign land as part of the Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF) to Sri Lanka in 1987 (Op Pawan) to a peacekeeping role in the North-Eastern areas of India. Hence statement 4 is correct.   Question 28 of 35 28. Question Consider the following statements regarding Spintronics  It is one of the emerging fields for the next-generation nanoelectronic devices to reduce their power consumption. In these devices, the spin polarisation is controlled either by magnetic layers used as spin-polarisers or analysers. Spin transistors, spin diodes, and spin filters are some examples of spintronic devices. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Spintronics is one of the emerging fields for the next-generation nanoelectronic devices to reduce their power consumption and increase their memory and processing capabilities. Hence statement 1 is correct. In these devices, the spin polarisation is controlled either by magnetic layers used as spin-polarisers or analysers. Spin waves can also be used to carry spin currents. Hence statement 2 is correct. Spin transistors, spin diodes, and spin filters are some examples of spintronic devices. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) Spintronics is one of the emerging fields for the next-generation nanoelectronic devices to reduce their power consumption and increase their memory and processing capabilities. Hence statement 1 is correct. In these devices, the spin polarisation is controlled either by magnetic layers used as spin-polarisers or analysers. Spin waves can also be used to carry spin currents. Hence statement 2 is correct. Spin transistors, spin diodes, and spin filters are some examples of spintronic devices. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 29 of 35 29. Question Consider the following statements regarding Convention on Cluster Munitions It is an international treaty that prohibits all use, transfer, production, and stockpiling of cluster bombs. India, the United States, Russia, Ukraine, Pakistan, and Israel have not signed it. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Convention on Cluster Munitions is an international treaty that prohibits all use, transfer, production, and stockpiling of cluster bombs due to their indiscriminate and long-lasting effects on civilian populations. Hence statement 1 is correct. It was adopted in Dublin by 107 States on 30 May 2008 and signed in Oslo on 3 December 2008. It became binding international law when it entered into force on 1 August 2010. India, the United States, Russia, Ukraine, Pakistan, and Israel have not signed it. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) Convention on Cluster Munitions is an international treaty that prohibits all use, transfer, production, and stockpiling of cluster bombs due to their indiscriminate and long-lasting effects on civilian populations. Hence statement 1 is correct. It was adopted in Dublin by 107 States on 30 May 2008 and signed in Oslo on 3 December 2008. It became binding international law when it entered into force on 1 August 2010. India, the United States, Russia, Ukraine, Pakistan, and Israel have not signed it. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 30 of 35 30. Question It is a tiger reserve spread over two districts of Uttar Pradesh. It forms the part of Terai Arc Landscape in the upper Gangetic Plain. The northern edge of the reserve lies along the Indo-Nepal border while the southern boundary is marked by the river Sharada and Khakra. It bagged the international award TX2 for doubling the number of tigers in the past four years. The above paragraph refers to which of the following reserve? a) Amangarh Tiger Reserve b) Panna Tiger Reserve c) Dudhwa Tiger Reserve d) Pilibhit Tiger Reserve Correct Solution (d) Pilibhit Tiger Reserve is spread over two districts of Uttar Pradesh. It forms the part of Terai Arc Landscape in the upper Gangetic Plain. The northern edge of the reserve lies along the Indo-Nepal border while the southern boundary is marked by the river Sharada and Khakra. It bagged the international award TX2 for doubling the number of tigers in the past four years. It has high sal forests, plantations, and grasslands with several water bodies. Wild animals include tiger, swamp deer, Bengal florican, leopard, etc. Hence option d is correct. Panna Tiger Reserve is located in Madhya Pradesh. Incorrect Solution (d) Pilibhit Tiger Reserve is spread over two districts of Uttar Pradesh. It forms the part of Terai Arc Landscape in the upper Gangetic Plain. The northern edge of the reserve lies along the Indo-Nepal border while the southern boundary is marked by the river Sharada and Khakra. It bagged the international award TX2 for doubling the number of tigers in the past four years. It has high sal forests, plantations, and grasslands with several water bodies. Wild animals include tiger, swamp deer, Bengal florican, leopard, etc. Hence option d is correct. Panna Tiger Reserve is located in Madhya Pradesh. Question 31 of 35 31. Question In an objective type question paper there are 5 questions. The first two questions have three possible answers; the next two questions have four possible answers and the last question has five possible answers. What is the total number of ways in which all the five questions could be answered? a) 1000 b) 1280 c) 720 d) 405 Correct Solution (c) Total number of possibilities for the first two questions = 3 × 3 = 9. Total number of possibilities for the next two questions = 4 × 4 = 16. Total number of possibilities for the last question = 5 Total number of ways in which all the five questions could be attempted = 9 × 16 × 5 = 720 Incorrect Solution (c) Total number of possibilities for the first two questions = 3 × 3 = 9. Total number of possibilities for the next two questions = 4 × 4 = 16. Total number of possibilities for the last question = 5 Total number of ways in which all the five questions could be attempted = 9 × 16 × 5 = 720 Question 32 of 35 32. Question If the digits of a two-digit number are interchanged, the number so formed is 18 more than the original number. The sum of digits is 8. What is the thrice value of original number? a) 159 b) 78 c) 105 d) None Correct Solution (c) Let, the unit’s and ten’s digit be ‘a’ and ‘b’ respectively. Therefore, a + b = 8 and a – b = 18 ÷ 9 = 2 Since, a = (8 + 2) ÷ 2 = 5 and b = 5 – 2= 3 Therefore, the required value is 3 × 35 = 105 Incorrect Solution (c) Let, the unit’s and ten’s digit be ‘a’ and ‘b’ respectively. Therefore, a + b = 8 and a – b = 18 ÷ 9 = 2 Since, a = (8 + 2) ÷ 2 = 5 and b = 5 – 2= 3 Therefore, the required value is 3 × 35 = 105 Question 33 of 35 33. Question The tax on a commodity is diminished by 20% but its consumption is increased by 10%. Find the decrease percent in the revenue derived from it? a) 20% b) 18% c) 15% d) 12% Correct Solution (d) Let the usual tax on the commodity be 100₹ and its usual consumption be 100 units After changes in various conditions, tax on a commodity is diminished by 20% ie tax is now only 80% consumption increased by 10% ie now consumption is 110 units previous revenue = 100₹ x 100 units = 10000₹ new revenue = 80₹ x 110 = 8800₹ decrease percent in revenue = change in revenue/original revenue x 100 = (10000 – 8800)/10000 x 100 = 1200/10000 x 100 = 12% Incorrect Solution (d) Let the usual tax on the commodity be 100₹ and its usual consumption be 100 units After changes in various conditions, tax on a commodity is diminished by 20% ie tax is now only 80% consumption increased by 10% ie now consumption is 110 units previous revenue = 100₹ x 100 units = 10000₹ new revenue = 80₹ x 110 = 8800₹ decrease percent in revenue = change in revenue/original revenue x 100 = (10000 – 8800)/10000 x 100 = 1200/10000 x 100 = 12% Question 34 of 35 34. Question How many numbers are there between 100 and 1000 such that atleast one of their digits is 6? a) 152 b) 172 c) 252 d) 282 Correct Solution (c) Numbers between 100 and 1000 = 900 Numbers between 100 and 1000 which do not have digit 6 in any place = 8 x 9 x 9 = 648 Unit digit could take any value of the 9 values (0 to 9, except 6) Tens Digit could take any value of the 9 values (0 to 9, except 6) Hundreds digit could take any value of the 8 values (1 to 9, except 6) So numbers between 100 and 1000 which have atleast one digit as 6 = 900 – 648 = 252 Incorrect Solution (c) Numbers between 100 and 1000 = 900 Numbers between 100 and 1000 which do not have digit 6 in any place = 8 x 9 x 9 = 648 Unit digit could take any value of the 9 values (0 to 9, except 6) Tens Digit could take any value of the 9 values (0 to 9, except 6) Hundreds digit could take any value of the 8 values (1 to 9, except 6) So numbers between 100 and 1000 which have atleast one digit as 6 = 900 – 648 = 252 Question 35 of 35 35. Question Patriotism is a very complex feeling, built up out of primitive instincts and highly intellectual convictions. There is love of home, family and friends, making us peculiarly anxious to preserve our own country from invasion. There is the mild instinctive liking for compatriots against foreigners. There is pride, which is bound up with the success of the community to which we feel that we belong. There is a belief, suggested by pride, but reinforced by history, that one’s own nation represents a great tradition and stands for ideals that are important to the human race. But besides all these, there is another element, at once nobler and more open to attack, an element of worship, of willing sacrifice, of joyful merging of the individual life in the life of the nation. This religious element in patriotism is essential to the strength of the state, since it enlists the best that is most men on the side of national sacrifice. Which of the following is the central theme of the given passage? a) Component elements of patriotism b) Historical development of patriotism c) The role of religion and history in patriotism d) Need for patriotism in nation building Correct Solution (a) The passage describes the different elements associated with patriotism and also of the importance of religion. It does not talk about the need for patriotism or history of patriotism, so option (b) and option (d) are ruled out. Although the passage talks about the role of religion, history is not mentioned or implied, So option (c) is also ruled out. We are left with Option (a) which is the correct answer.   Incorrect Solution (a) The passage describes the different elements associated with patriotism and also of the importance of religion. It does not talk about the need for patriotism or history of patriotism, so option (b) and option (d) are ruled out. Although the passage talks about the role of religion, history is not mentioned or implied, So option (c) is also ruled out. We are left with Option (a) which is the correct answer.   window.wpProQuizInitList = window.wpProQuizInitList || []; window.wpProQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpProQuiz_3538', init: { quizId: 3538, mode: 1, globalPoints: 70, timelimit: 1800, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 704, qpp: 0, catPoints: [70], formPos: 0, lbn: "Test-summary", json: {"30260":{"type":"single","id":30260,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30261":{"type":"single","id":30261,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30262":{"type":"single","id":30262,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30263":{"type":"single","id":30263,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30264":{"type":"single","id":30264,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30267":{"type":"single","id":30267,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30268":{"type":"single","id":30268,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30271":{"type":"single","id":30271,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30273":{"type":"single","id":30273,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30274":{"type":"single","id":30274,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30277":{"type":"single","id":30277,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30279":{"type":"single","id":30279,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30281":{"type":"single","id":30281,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30284":{"type":"single","id":30284,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30286":{"type":"single","id":30286,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30287":{"type":"single","id":30287,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30289":{"type":"single","id":30289,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30290":{"type":"single","id":30290,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30291":{"type":"single","id":30291,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30293":{"type":"single","id":30293,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30296":{"type":"single","id":30296,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30299":{"type":"single","id":30299,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30300":{"type":"single","id":30300,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30302":{"type":"single","id":30302,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30303":{"type":"single","id":30303,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30306":{"type":"single","id":30306,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30308":{"type":"single","id":30308,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30309":{"type":"single","id":30309,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30312":{"type":"single","id":30312,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30313":{"type":"single","id":30313,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30314":{"type":"single","id":30314,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30315":{"type":"single","id":30315,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30318":{"type":"single","id":30318,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30319":{"type":"single","id":30319,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30322":{"type":"single","id":30322,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]}} } }); All the Best IASbaba