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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 24th April 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Sea Level Rise Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Environment Context: A quarter of the coastal land of China will sink below sea level within a century, putting hundreds of millions of people at risk of being flooded, due to land subsidence and climate change, according to a new study, published in the journal Science on Friday (April 19). Background:- The land subsidence in China is primarily a result of rapid urbanisation — activities such as excessive groundwater extraction and the weight of buildings lead to subsidence. The situation has been exacerbated by climate change, which is resulting in the rise of sea levels. Sea level rise isn’t just limited to China. It is a global issue that is projected to affect between 130 million to half a billion people depending on different temperature scenarios in the long run, according to a UN report. How fast is the global sea level rising? The global sea level has risen by about 8–9 inches or 21–24 centimetres since 1880, according to a report by the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA). The more worrying sign is that since 1993, the rate of increase has been accelerating. It has more than doubled from 0.07 inches or 0.18 centimetres per year in 1993 to the current rate of 0.17 inches or 0.42 centimetres per year. Global average sea level rose by about 0.3 inches or 0.76 centimetres from 2022 to 2023. Experts said there was a huge jump in global sea level between the two years mainly due to the development of El Niño, a weather pattern associated with warmer oceans, in June 2023. Now that El Niño is weakening, the rate of sea level rise is expected to slow down. How climate change is leading to sea level rise? The key driver behind rising sea levels is global warming. As temperatures across the world continue to soar, more and more glaciers and ice sheets are melting and adding water to the ocean. Global warming is also making the ocean warmer, which is leading to something called thermal expansion — when water becomes warmer, it expands in volume. This is contributing to sea level rise as well. Why does sea level rise matter? The most visible consequence of sea level rise will be the flooding of coastal areas. Take the example of coastal cities in India. A 2022 analysis by RMSI, a global risk management firm, found that some critical properties and road networks in Mumbai, Kochi, Mangalore, Chennai, Visakhapatnam, and Thiruvananthapuram will be submerged by 2050. Things are worse for island countries like Indonesia. In 2019, Indonesia announced that the country’s capital would be relocated from Jakarta, which is prone to flooding, to the province of East Kalimantan on the island of Borneo. The rise of sea level also leads to more intense storm surges — the rise in seawater level caused solely by a storm — flooding, and damage to coastal areas. That’s because higher sea level can allow more water inland during hurricane-related storm surges. With sea level rise, saltwater contaminates freshwater aquifers, many of which are used by communities for agricultural and drinking purposes. Source: Indian Express Earth Day Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: Every year, April 22 is observed as Earth Day, an international event celebrated around the world to pledge support for environmental protection. Background: The year 2024 marks the 54th anniversary of the annual celebrations. About Earth DAY : Earth Day was first observed in 1970 when 20 million took to the streets to protest against environmental degradation. The event was triggered by the 1969 Santa Barbara oil spill and other issues such as smog and polluted rivers. For over the next half century, Earth Day continued to play an important role in environmental activism. The landmark Paris Agreement, which brings almost 200 countries together to set a common target to reduce global greenhouse emissions, was signed on Earth Day 2016. In 2009, the United Nations designated Earth Day as International Mother Earth Day. According to earthday.org,Earth Day aims to “build the world’s largest environmental movement to drive transformative change for people and the planet.” The movement’s mission is “to diversify, educate and activate the environmental movement worldwide.” Earth Day is celebrated to remind each of us that the Earth and its ecosystems provide us with life and sustenance. This day also recognises a collective responsibility, as called for in the 1992 Rio Declaration, to promote harmony with nature and the Earth to achieve a just balance among the economic, social and environmental needs of present and future generations of humanity. This year, the theme is ‘Planet vs. Plastics’. The theme highlights the threat plastics pose to the planet and human health. It calls for an end to all plastic waste by demanding a 60% reduction in the production of plastics by the year 2040. Source: Indian Express Iran- Israel Conflict Syllabus Prelims & Mains – International Event Context: Iran launched a significant attack on Israel, deploying over 300 projectiles, including approximately 170 drones, cruise missiles, and over 120 ballistic missiles. Background: Tit-for-tat confrontation between Israel and Iran has sparked concerns about escalation dragging the Middle East into all-out war. What led Iran to attack Israel? In 2018, Israel hails US withdrawal from Iran’s nuclear deal with world powers after years of lobbying against the agreement, calling Trump’s decision “a historic move”. In 2020, Israel welcomed the assassination of General Qassem Soleimani, commander of the overseas arm of Iran’s Revolutionary Guards, in an American drone strike in Baghdad. Iran strikes back with missile attacks on Iraqi bases housing American troops. In October 2023, Hamas (the Iran-backed terrorist group) launched a missile attack targeting Israel. In response, Israel conducted airstrikes on Gaza. In November 2023, Israel started conducting raids and attacking medical facilities as Hamas was reportedly operating from these hospital buildings and carrying out their warfare. In November 2023, The Iran-backed Houthi group, based in Yemen, landed their helicopter on the Galaxy Leader cargo vessel as it was passing via the Red Sea. This marked the start of the ‘Red Sea Crisis,’ which eventually led to supply chain issues. In December 2023, Israel’s ground offenses in the Gaza Strip intensified at a rapid pace. This led to an increase in the death toll and the number of refugees. India urged for an ‘early and durable resolution’ between the warring nations. A suspected Israeli air strike on the Iranian embassy compound in Damascus kills seven officers of the Islamic Revolutionary Guard, including two senior commanders. Israel neither confirmed nor denied responsibility. In April 2024, Iran launched a missile attack on Israel. The attack was, allegedly, in response to a suspected Israeli strike on Iran’s consulate in Syria. This marked the first instance of Iran directly targeting Israel from its domestic territory. The Israel Defence Forces (IDF) claimed that the Israeli air defence system intercepted 99% of the incoming projectiles from Iran. The United States, the United Kingdom, France, and other Middle Eastern allies also helped defend Israel. Impact of the Iran-Israel War on the world: Given the widely held Israeli belief that a nuclear-armed Iran is an existential threat to Israel, retaliation cannot be ruled out of the decision-making matrix. Failure of diplomatic efforts to de-escalate tensions or negotiate a peaceful resolution could leave military action as the only option, increasing the likelihood of regional escalation. Iran is the third-largest producer of crude oil within OPEC (Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries). If the tensions between Iran and Israel escalate further, the supply of crude oil prices will be severely disrupted. This will hit Indian share market sentiment as India is the third-largest consumer and importer of crude oil, importing over 80% of its crude oil needs. If geopolitical tensions increase from hereon, commodity prices will move up due to supply disruptions. Globally, inflation will remain high due to geopolitical tension as it will affect crude oil prices and other commodity prices such as copper, zinc, aluminium, nickel, etc. As a result of these concerns, investors are expected to become cautious and may move their money out of riskier assets like Indian stocks and into safer options like gold (bullion). Apart from oil prices being affected, trade and travel could also be hit by the likelihood of an Israel-Iran all-out war. Aviation and shipping sectors could be disrupted. Several countries in the region, including Iran, Jordan, Iraq, Lebanon, and Israel, temporarily closed their airspaces, opening it later, albeit with restrictions. India’s long-standing strategic relationships with both Iran and Israel present challenges on both policy and operational fronts. India values its strategic partnership with Israel, which includes defence cooperation, technology exchange, and intelligence sharing. However, India also maintains historical and economic ties with Iran, including energy imports and infrastructure projects. India seeks to maintain stability in the Middle East to safeguard its interests, including energy security and the welfare of its diaspora. Way Forward: Israel should accept a sustainable ceasefire in Gaza as soon as possible, open the borders for international humanitarian aid to Gaza, and respect the UN resolutions to end the 70-year-old crisis by realizing a two-state solution. The two-state solution is the only feasible way ahead for long-term security, peace, and stability in the region. It is not an easy goal, but both sides are familiar with the challenges and opportunities. An international initiative must mediate a sustainable ceasefire between Israel and Iran. Encouraging both countries to engage in direct talks facilitated by international mediators could help build trust and find common ground. Iran and Israel could engage in direct talks facilitated by a neutral third party, such as the European Union or the United Nations. Iran could adhere to the terms of the Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA) and allow international inspections of its nuclear facilities to ensure compliance with the agreement. In return, Israel could recognise Iran’s right to peaceful nuclear energy and commit to refraining from military strikes against Iranian nuclear facilities. Promoting cooperation between Iran and Israel within the framework of regional organizations, such as the Arab League or the Gulf Cooperation Council, could help address shared security concerns and foster stability in the Middle East. Regional powers could work together to establish a comprehensive security architecture for the Middle East, including confidence-building measures, arms control agreements, and mechanisms for resolving conflicts peacefully. Addressing underlying issues, such as historical grievances, territorial disputes, and religious extremism, can help create an environment conducive to peace and reconciliation. Iran and Israel could take steps towards normalizing diplomatic relations, such as exchanging ambassadors, reopening embassies, and facilitating people-to-people exchanges, similar to the peace agreements between Israel and some Arab states like the United Arab Emirates and Bahrain. Source: AP CHIPKO MOVEMENT Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: The Chipko Movement, which began in the Uttarakhand region of the Himalayas in early 1973, has now reached its 50th anniversary. Background: The Chipko Movement’s tireless efforts and commitment to the environment continue to inspire new generations of activists. About CHIPKO MOVEMENT : The Chipko Movement, also known as the Chipko Andolan, was a non-violent environmental movement that originated in Uttarakhand (formerly part of Uttar Pradesh) in 1973. The name “Chipko” derives from Hindi, signifying “to hug.” During the movement, villagers embraced trees to prevent them from being cut down by loggers. The movement aimed to protect the Himalayan range trees from the axes of builders and commercial interests. The Chipko Movement is best remembered for the active participation of women in preserving forests. It changed attitudes regarding women’s status in society and highlighted their role in environmental conservation. Sunderlal Bahuguna, a Gandhian and environmentalist, played a pivotal role in the Chipko Movement. He coined the famous Chipko slogan: “Ecology is permanent economy.” Major Achievements: Rights to Forests: The movement made people aware of their rights to forests and demonstrated how grassroots activism could influence policy-making regarding ecology and shared natural resources. Ban on Commercial Felling: In 1981, the movement led to a ban on commercial tree felling above 30 degrees slope and above 1,000 meters above mean sea level (msl). Source: Down To Earth Previous Year Question Q) Chipko movement was basically against Water pollution Noise pollution Deforestation Cultural pollution RASHTRIYA AROGYA NIDHI (RAN) SCHEME Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: The Delhi High Court has raised concerns about the low-income threshold for financial assistance under the Rashtriya Arogya Nidhi (RAN) scheme. Background: The court’s observation highlights the need for a re-evaluation of the income threshold to ensure equitable access to healthcare assistance for those in need. About RASHTRIYA AROGYA NIDHI (RAN) SCHEME: The umbrella scheme of Rashtriya Arogya Nidhi (RAN) is a central sector scheme designed to provide financial assistance to poor patients living below the poverty line. It provides one-time financial assistance to poor patients living below State/UT wise threshold poverty line and suffering from life threatening diseases relating to heart, kidney, liver, cancer, etc. for treatment at any of Super Specialty Government hospitals/institutes. RAN offers financial support for treatments such as organ transplants, cancer treatment, and other critical procedures. The assistance is provided as a one-time grant to eligible patients. The Umbrella Scheme of RAN has three components as under: Rashtriya Arogya Nidhi (RAN) – Financial assistance for treatment of life-threatening diseases relating to heart, kidney, liver, etc. at Government hospitals/institutes having Super Specialty facilities; (Maximum financial assistance is Rs. 15 lakhs) Health Minister’s Cancer Patient Fund (HMCPF) – Financial assistance for treatment of cancer at Regional Cancer Centres (RCCs)/ Tertiary Care Cancer Centres (TCCCs) and State Cancer Institutes (SCIs); (Maximum financial assistance is Rs. 15 lakhs) Financial assistance for poor patients suffering from rare diseases – for specified rare diseases for treatment at Government hospitals/institutes having Super Specialty facilities; (Maximum financial assistance is Rs. 20 lakhs) Source: PIB NATIONAL SERVICE SCHEME (NSS) Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Trained National Service Scheme (NSS) volunteers from 153 NSS units are stepping up to make a difference in Kozhikode district during the upcoming polls. Background: These dedicated volunteers will extend their helping hands to differently abled individuals and senior citizens, ensuring their well-being and facilitating their participation in the democratic process. About NATIONAL SERVICE SCHEME (NSS): The National Service Scheme (NSS) is a Central Sector Scheme implemented by the Government of India, under the Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports. It aims to provide an opportunity for student youth across different educational levels to participate in various government-led community service activities and programs. NSS encourages students to actively engage in community service while pursuing their education. NSS was launched in 1969, during the birth centenary year of Mahatma Gandhi, involving 40,000 students across 37 universities. NSS promotes the development of students’ personality and character through voluntary community service. Source: Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) With reference to the National Service Scheme (NSS), consider the following statements: The National Service Scheme (NSS) is a Central Sector Scheme under the Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports. NSS was launched during the birth centenary year of Jawaharlal Nehru. It aims to provide an opportunity for student youth across different educational levels to participate in various government-led community service activities and programs. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q2.) With reference to the Rashtriya Arogya Nidhi (RAN) scheme, consider the following statements: The Rashtriya Arogya Nidhi (RAN) is designed to provide financial assistance to poor patients living below the poverty line. The assistance is provided as a one-time grant to eligible patients. The scheme covers treatments for heart, kidney, liver diseases, cancer, and specified rare diseases. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None of the above Q3.) With reference to the Chipko Movement, consider the following statements: The Chipko Movement was a non-violent environmental movement. The movement aimed to protect the Himalayan range trees from the axes of builders and commercial interests. Sunderlal Bahuguna played a pivotal role in the Chipko Movement. How many of the statements given above are not correct? Only one Only two Only three None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  24th April  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  23rd April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – c Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 24th April 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

[DAY 45] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – ECONOMY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 Siddhant 2024/04/24 12:25 PM 24 52.17 % 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question Consider the following statements with reference to Maharatna Companies. Only the Navratna Companies are eligible to be considered for grant of Maharatna status. Maharatna companies should have a global-level presence or operation. The average net worth of the company should be more than 1 lakh crore in the last three years. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Government of India categorises Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) under three categories of Navratna, Miniratna, and Maharatna companies. A wide range of factors determines the categorization of these CPSEs. This includes annual turnover, net worth, and net profit calculated annually.   Criteria for grant of Maharatna status to CPSEs meeting the following criteria are eligible to be considered for grant of Maharatna status are Having Navratna status Listed on the Indian stock exchange with minimum prescribed public shareholding under SEBI regulations Hence, Statement 1 is correct. An average annual turnover of more than Rs. 25,000 crores during the last 3 years An average annual net worth of more than 15,000 crores during the last 3 years Maharatna Status does not require a net worth of more than 1 lakh crore in the last three years to get the maharatna status. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct. An average annual net profit after tax of more than Rs. 5,000 crores during the last 3 years Should have significant global presence/international operations. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) The Government of India categorises Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) under three categories of Navratna, Miniratna, and Maharatna companies. A wide range of factors determines the categorization of these CPSEs. This includes annual turnover, net worth, and net profit calculated annually.   Criteria for grant of Maharatna status to CPSEs meeting the following criteria are eligible to be considered for grant of Maharatna status are Having Navratna status Listed on the Indian stock exchange with minimum prescribed public shareholding under SEBI regulations Hence, Statement 1 is correct. An average annual turnover of more than Rs. 25,000 crores during the last 3 years An average annual net worth of more than 15,000 crores during the last 3 years Maharatna Status does not require a net worth of more than 1 lakh crore in the last three years to get the maharatna status. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct. An average annual net profit after tax of more than Rs. 5,000 crores during the last 3 years Should have significant global presence/international operations. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. Question 2 of 35 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding Gender Budgeting in India: The term was first used during Union Budget in 1969 when Indira Gandhi became Prime Minister. The first part of the Gender Budgeting Statement in India is fully dedicated to women. Select the correct answer using the code given below. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Gender budgeting is a tool that allows governments to promote equality through fiscal policies by taking analyses of a budget’s differing impacts on the sexes as well as setting goals or targets for equality and allocating funds to support those goals Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The term Gender Budget was first introduced by the Union budget in 2001-02. Shri Atal Bihari Vajpayee was the PM during its introduction. Since 2005, the union government releases the Gender Budgeting Statement consisting of two parts.  The first part reflects the women-specific schemes in which 100 per cent allocation is only for women. The second part reflects pro-women schemes in which 30% of the allocation is earmarked for women. Incorrect Solution (b) Gender budgeting is a tool that allows governments to promote equality through fiscal policies by taking analyses of a budget’s differing impacts on the sexes as well as setting goals or targets for equality and allocating funds to support those goals Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The term Gender Budget was first introduced by the Union budget in 2001-02. Shri Atal Bihari Vajpayee was the PM during its introduction. Since 2005, the union government releases the Gender Budgeting Statement consisting of two parts.  The first part reflects the women-specific schemes in which 100 per cent allocation is only for women. The second part reflects pro-women schemes in which 30% of the allocation is earmarked for women. Question 3 of 35 3. Question Consider the following statements with respect to 15th Finance Commission: The Census of 1971 was used as the baseline for fund allocation by the 15th Finance Commission. The 15th Finance Commission proposed a 41% share of the divisible pool to be allocated to the States. Select the correct answer using the code given below. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) The 14th Finance Commission used the Census of 1971 as the benchmark for fund allocation, not the 15th Finance Commission. The 15th Finance Commission utilized the Census of 2011 for this purpose. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect). The 15th Finance Commission recommended maintaining a 41% vertical devolution for distributing funds to the states from the divisible pool. The 14th Finance Commission suggested a 42% share. (Hence statement 2 is correct). Incorrect Solution (b) The 14th Finance Commission used the Census of 1971 as the benchmark for fund allocation, not the 15th Finance Commission. The 15th Finance Commission utilized the Census of 2011 for this purpose. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect). The 15th Finance Commission recommended maintaining a 41% vertical devolution for distributing funds to the states from the divisible pool. The 14th Finance Commission suggested a 42% share. (Hence statement 2 is correct). Question 4 of 35 4. Question Which of the following items are considered under the non-tax revenue receipts of the government of India? Interest Received Examination fee Dividend and profits Salaries Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2 and 4 only c) 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution (a) Non-Tax Revenue is the recurring income earned by the government from sources other than taxes. Interest received, Examination fees, Dividends and Profits are all components of Non Tax receipts. Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Incorrect Interests refer to interest on loans given to states and union territories for reasons like non-plan schemes (e.g. flood control) and planning schemes with a maturity period of 20 years such as modernization of police forces and also interest on loans advanced to Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs), Port Trusts and other statutory bodies etc. Examination fees: This includes fees paid by applicants of competitive examinations conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) and Staff Selection Commission (SSC) to fill up vacancies in government offices. Dividends and profits: include dividends and profits from PSEs as well as the transfer of surplus from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). Salaries do not come under the non-tax revenue receipts of the government of India. They comprise Revenue expenditure. Incorrect Solution (a) Non-Tax Revenue is the recurring income earned by the government from sources other than taxes. Interest received, Examination fees, Dividends and Profits are all components of Non Tax receipts. Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Incorrect Interests refer to interest on loans given to states and union territories for reasons like non-plan schemes (e.g. flood control) and planning schemes with a maturity period of 20 years such as modernization of police forces and also interest on loans advanced to Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs), Port Trusts and other statutory bodies etc. Examination fees: This includes fees paid by applicants of competitive examinations conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) and Staff Selection Commission (SSC) to fill up vacancies in government offices. Dividends and profits: include dividends and profits from PSEs as well as the transfer of surplus from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). Salaries do not come under the non-tax revenue receipts of the government of India. They comprise Revenue expenditure. Question 5 of 35 5. Question With reference to taxes and their impact on the economy, consider the following statements: The low levels of tax collection in India are primarily attributed to the existence of a parallel economy. Implementation of a progressive tax system has the potential to alleviate income inequality. Select the correct answer using the code given below. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) The presence of a parallel economy, associated with black money or unaccounted funds, is a significant challenge to the Indian economy and contributes to substantial losses in tax revenues for the government. (Hence statement 1 is correct). A progressive taxation system is designed to address income inequality by placing a heavier tax burden on wealthier individuals. (Hence statement 2 is correct). Incorrect Solution (c) The presence of a parallel economy, associated with black money or unaccounted funds, is a significant challenge to the Indian economy and contributes to substantial losses in tax revenues for the government. (Hence statement 1 is correct). A progressive taxation system is designed to address income inequality by placing a heavier tax burden on wealthier individuals. (Hence statement 2 is correct). Question 6 of 35 6. Question Which of the following are the primary factors contributing to the significant growth of the services sector in India post-liberalization? Availability of affordable labour. Reduced tariff and non-tariff barriers on imports. Appreciation of the rupee against foreign currencies. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The presence of inexpensive labour and a skilled workforce in India led to a surge in outsourcing by multinational companies, contributing significantly to the services sector’s growth after the reform period. (Hence statement 1 is correct). The reduction in tariff and non-tariff barriers on imports played a pivotal role in the services sector’s high growth. Foreign trade reforms facilitated domestic products to engage and compete globally. (Hence statement 2 is correct). The devaluation of the rupee against foreign currencies resulted in increased foreign exchange flow, encouraging numerous foreign companies to invest in India. This, in turn, contributed to the substantial growth of the services sector post-liberalization. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect). Incorrect Solution (b) The presence of inexpensive labour and a skilled workforce in India led to a surge in outsourcing by multinational companies, contributing significantly to the services sector’s growth after the reform period. (Hence statement 1 is correct). The reduction in tariff and non-tariff barriers on imports played a pivotal role in the services sector’s high growth. Foreign trade reforms facilitated domestic products to engage and compete globally. (Hence statement 2 is correct). The devaluation of the rupee against foreign currencies resulted in increased foreign exchange flow, encouraging numerous foreign companies to invest in India. This, in turn, contributed to the substantial growth of the services sector post-liberalization. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect). Question 7 of 35 7. Question Consider the following statements about the agriculture sector: It is the biggest unorganized sector of the economy. An increase in agricultural growth leads to an increase in industrial output. India has remained consistently a ‘net exporter’ of Agri-products. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Agriculture is the biggest unorganized sector of the economy accounting for more than 90 per cent share in the total unorganized labour-force. (Hence statement 1 is correct). Agriculture is deeply related to industrial growth and the national income in India—1 per cent increase in agricultural growth leads to 0.5 per cent increase in industrial output (growth) and 0.7 per cent increase in the national income of India. (Hence statement 2 is correct). India has remained consistently a ‘net exporter’ of Agri-products (in 2018-19, value of exports being ₹2.7 lakh crore against import of ₹1.37 lakh crore). India occupies a leading position in global agricultural trade having a share of 2.15 percent in the world agricultural trade. (Hence statement 3 is correct). Incorrect Solution (c) Agriculture is the biggest unorganized sector of the economy accounting for more than 90 per cent share in the total unorganized labour-force. (Hence statement 1 is correct). Agriculture is deeply related to industrial growth and the national income in India—1 per cent increase in agricultural growth leads to 0.5 per cent increase in industrial output (growth) and 0.7 per cent increase in the national income of India. (Hence statement 2 is correct). India has remained consistently a ‘net exporter’ of Agri-products (in 2018-19, value of exports being ₹2.7 lakh crore against import of ₹1.37 lakh crore). India occupies a leading position in global agricultural trade having a share of 2.15 percent in the world agricultural trade. (Hence statement 3 is correct). Question 8 of 35 8. Question Consider the following statements with reference to the New Industrial Policy of 1991. Abolition of Industrial licensing of all industries Allowed FDI upto 51% under automatic route for the first time. Indian companies were directly allowed to negotiate the terms of technology transfer with their foreign counterparts How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Industrial licensing was abolished for all industries except those specified. These specified industries will continue to be subjected to compulsory licensing for reasons related to security and strategic concerns, social reasons, problems related to safety and overriding environmental issues, manufacture of products of hazardous nature and articles of elitist consumption. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct. Prior to 1991, foreign investment in India was tightly controlled through industrial licensing and foreign exchange restrictions. The NIP significantly liberalised these controls, introducing several key measures: Automatic approval for FDI up to 51% in 47 high-priority industries, eliminating the need for prior government approvals. Streamlined approval process for higher levels of FDI through the Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB). Relaxation of foreign exchange regulations to facilitate investment inflows. Focus on attracting foreign technology and expertise to boost India’s industrial development. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. Indian companies will be free to negotiate the terms of technology transfer with their foreign counterparts according to their own commercial judgement. Actively encourage and assist Indian entrepreneurs in exploiting and meeting emerging domestic and global opportunities and challenges. The bedrock of any such package of measures must be to let the entrepreneurs make investment decisions on the basis of their own commercial judgement. Hence, Statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) Industrial licensing was abolished for all industries except those specified. These specified industries will continue to be subjected to compulsory licensing for reasons related to security and strategic concerns, social reasons, problems related to safety and overriding environmental issues, manufacture of products of hazardous nature and articles of elitist consumption. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct. Prior to 1991, foreign investment in India was tightly controlled through industrial licensing and foreign exchange restrictions. The NIP significantly liberalised these controls, introducing several key measures: Automatic approval for FDI up to 51% in 47 high-priority industries, eliminating the need for prior government approvals. Streamlined approval process for higher levels of FDI through the Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB). Relaxation of foreign exchange regulations to facilitate investment inflows. Focus on attracting foreign technology and expertise to boost India’s industrial development. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. Indian companies will be free to negotiate the terms of technology transfer with their foreign counterparts according to their own commercial judgement. Actively encourage and assist Indian entrepreneurs in exploiting and meeting emerging domestic and global opportunities and challenges. The bedrock of any such package of measures must be to let the entrepreneurs make investment decisions on the basis of their own commercial judgement. Hence, Statement 3 is correct. Question 9 of 35 9. Question Consider the following schemes: The Gati Shakti Programme Sagarmala Bharatmala e-sanchit and FASTags Ayushman Bharat-PMJAY How many of the schemes mentioned above are considered supportive initiatives for developing the logistics sector? a) Two only b) Three only c) Four only d) All five Correct Solution (c) Steps taken by the Government to develop the logistics sector: The Gati Shakti Programme: This initiative focuses on implementing infrastructure connectivity projects, including roadways and railways, in a coordinated manner across the nation to enhance logistics efficiency. (Hence 1 is correct) Sagarmala: This initiative aims to utilize the potential of the coastline and waterways to reduce the amount of infrastructure needed for logistics and improve cargo movement. (Hence 2 is correct) Bharatmala: The Bharatmala project focuses on reducing critical infrastructure gaps in the road sector to improve the effectiveness of road traffic circulation and enhance logistics efficiency. (Hence 3 is correct) Comprehensive Logistics Action Plan (CLAP): Aims to rank India among the top 25 countries in the Logistics Performance Index by 2030. e-sanchit and FASTags: Implementing paperless export-import trade operations and enhancing efficiency on roads. (Hence 4 is correct) GST: A unified tax system like GST simplifies logistics-related issues. Ayushman Bharat-PMJAY: Ayushman Bharat-PMJAY is a national public health insurance scheme that provides healthcare benefits to eligible beneficiaries and is not related to enhancing logistics efficiency. (Hence 5 is incorrect) Incorrect Solution (c) Steps taken by the Government to develop the logistics sector: The Gati Shakti Programme: This initiative focuses on implementing infrastructure connectivity projects, including roadways and railways, in a coordinated manner across the nation to enhance logistics efficiency. (Hence 1 is correct) Sagarmala: This initiative aims to utilize the potential of the coastline and waterways to reduce the amount of infrastructure needed for logistics and improve cargo movement. (Hence 2 is correct) Bharatmala: The Bharatmala project focuses on reducing critical infrastructure gaps in the road sector to improve the effectiveness of road traffic circulation and enhance logistics efficiency. (Hence 3 is correct) Comprehensive Logistics Action Plan (CLAP): Aims to rank India among the top 25 countries in the Logistics Performance Index by 2030. e-sanchit and FASTags: Implementing paperless export-import trade operations and enhancing efficiency on roads. (Hence 4 is correct) GST: A unified tax system like GST simplifies logistics-related issues. Ayushman Bharat-PMJAY: Ayushman Bharat-PMJAY is a national public health insurance scheme that provides healthcare benefits to eligible beneficiaries and is not related to enhancing logistics efficiency. (Hence 5 is incorrect) Question 10 of 35 10. Question How many among the following Central Public Sector enterprises are categorised as Maharatna Company? Coal India Limited National Aluminium Company Limited Rural Electrification Corporation Limited Bharat Electronics Limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (b) The Government of India categorises Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) under three categories of Navratna, Miniratna, and Maharatna companies. A wide range of factors determines the categorization of these CPSEs. This includes annual turnover, net worth, and net profit calculated on an annual basis. Along with this, the presence of the company on the stock exchange list as per the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) rules.   The following Central Public Sector enterprises were categorised as Maharatna Company Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited Coal India Limited Hence, Statement 1 is correct. GAIL India Limited Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited Indian Oil Corporation Limited NTPC Limited Oil & Natural Gas Corporation Limited, Power Finance Corporation Power Grid Corporation of India Limited Rural Electrification Corporation Limited Hence, Statement 3 is correct. Steel Authority of India Limited Recently Rural Electrification Corporation Limited The following Central Public Sector enterprises were categorized as Navaratna companies in India: Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL). Hence, Statement 4 is not correct. Container Corporation of India Limited (CONCOR) Engineers India Limited (EIL) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL) Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited (MTNL) National Aluminium Company Limited (NALCO) Hence, Statement 2 is not correct. NBCC (India) Limited NMDC Limited NLC India Limited Oil India Limited (OIL) Power Finance Corporation Limited (PFC) Power Grid Corporation of India Limited (PGCIL) Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited (RINL) Incorrect Solution (b) The Government of India categorises Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) under three categories of Navratna, Miniratna, and Maharatna companies. A wide range of factors determines the categorization of these CPSEs. This includes annual turnover, net worth, and net profit calculated on an annual basis. Along with this, the presence of the company on the stock exchange list as per the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) rules.   The following Central Public Sector enterprises were categorised as Maharatna Company Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited Coal India Limited Hence, Statement 1 is correct. GAIL India Limited Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited Indian Oil Corporation Limited NTPC Limited Oil & Natural Gas Corporation Limited, Power Finance Corporation Power Grid Corporation of India Limited Rural Electrification Corporation Limited Hence, Statement 3 is correct. Steel Authority of India Limited Recently Rural Electrification Corporation Limited The following Central Public Sector enterprises were categorized as Navaratna companies in India: Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL). Hence, Statement 4 is not correct. Container Corporation of India Limited (CONCOR) Engineers India Limited (EIL) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL) Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited (MTNL) National Aluminium Company Limited (NALCO) Hence, Statement 2 is not correct. NBCC (India) Limited NMDC Limited NLC India Limited Oil India Limited (OIL) Power Finance Corporation Limited (PFC) Power Grid Corporation of India Limited (PGCIL) Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited (RINL) Question 11 of 35 11. Question Consider the following statements with reference to the New Public Sector Enterprises (PSEI) Policy of 2021. It classifies all the Central Public Sector Enterprises into Strategic and Non-Strategic sectors. The Government will have only a bare minimum presence in the Non- strategic sector. Department of Investment and Public Asset Management is responsible for the implementation of the policy How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) The Government notified the new Public Sector Enterprise (PSE) Policy on February 4, 2O2l for Atmanirbhar Bharat. The new PSE Policy envisages the classification of CPSEs into Strategic and Non Strategic Sectors and exempts certain CPSEs, such as those set up as not-for-profit companies under the Companies Act 2013 or those supporting vulnerable and weaker sections of society, from the scope of the policy. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct. CPSEs in the Non- Strategic Sector will be privatised, otherwise shall be closed. Only a bare minimum presence of CPSEs in the Strategic Sector is to be maintained. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct. DIPAM (Department of Investment and public asset management) is India’s custodian of disinvestment proceeds. The Department of Public Enterprises (DPE) is the implementation agency of disinvestment policy. DPE has been entrusted with the responsibility to identify CPSEs for closure or privatisation in the non-strategic sector in consultation with administrative ministries/departments and to take in-principle approval from CCEA in respect of such identified CPSEs. Hence, Statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (a) The Government notified the new Public Sector Enterprise (PSE) Policy on February 4, 2O2l for Atmanirbhar Bharat. The new PSE Policy envisages the classification of CPSEs into Strategic and Non Strategic Sectors and exempts certain CPSEs, such as those set up as not-for-profit companies under the Companies Act 2013 or those supporting vulnerable and weaker sections of society, from the scope of the policy. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct. CPSEs in the Non- Strategic Sector will be privatised, otherwise shall be closed. Only a bare minimum presence of CPSEs in the Strategic Sector is to be maintained. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct. DIPAM (Department of Investment and public asset management) is India’s custodian of disinvestment proceeds. The Department of Public Enterprises (DPE) is the implementation agency of disinvestment policy. DPE has been entrusted with the responsibility to identify CPSEs for closure or privatisation in the non-strategic sector in consultation with administrative ministries/departments and to take in-principle approval from CCEA in respect of such identified CPSEs. Hence, Statement 3 is correct. Question 12 of 35 12. Question With respect to the Bombay Plan, which of the following statements is/are correct? The plan advocated for the abolition of the zamindari system. The plan supported the Gandhian concept of village economy and denounced rapid industrialization. It laid emphasis on promoting medium-scale, small-scale and cottage industries. It did not want the state to play any role in the economy. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (b) The Bombay Plan laid emphasis on agriculture restructuring. As a part of this, it proposed abolition of intermediaries (zamindari abolition). (Hence statement 1 is correct). The Plan did not support the Gandhian concept of village economy, rather it was in support of rapid industrialization and emphasized heavy capital goods and basic industries. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect). It also gave importance to medium-scale, small-scale and cottage industries as they provide greater employment and require lesser capital. (Hence statement 3 is correct). Bombay plan wanted the state to play an active role. It was in the support of a controlled economy where the government plans, controls and oversees the different areas of the economy (Hence statement 4 is incorrect). Incorrect Solution (b) The Bombay Plan laid emphasis on agriculture restructuring. As a part of this, it proposed abolition of intermediaries (zamindari abolition). (Hence statement 1 is correct). The Plan did not support the Gandhian concept of village economy, rather it was in support of rapid industrialization and emphasized heavy capital goods and basic industries. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect). It also gave importance to medium-scale, small-scale and cottage industries as they provide greater employment and require lesser capital. (Hence statement 3 is correct). Bombay plan wanted the state to play an active role. It was in the support of a controlled economy where the government plans, controls and oversees the different areas of the economy (Hence statement 4 is incorrect). Question 13 of 35 13. Question Consider the following types of taxes: Corporation Tax Tax on Income Wealth Tax Customs Duty Excise Duty Which of the above can be categorized as direct taxes? a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1, 4 and 5 only c) 4 and 5 only d) 2, 3 and 5 only Correct Solution (a) Types of Direct Taxes: Income Tax: Imposed on an individual’s or entity’s income, varying with income levels. Progressive tax rates may apply, with higher rates for higher income brackets. Corporation Tax: Applicable to the income of corporations and businesses. The tax rate may differ for domestic and foreign companies. Wealth Tax: Levied on an individual’s net wealth, including assets like property, jewellery, and financial instruments. Phased out in India in recent years. Gift Tax: Applied when an individual receives a gift, with the giver being responsible for the tax payment. In some jurisdictions, gift tax is merged with other taxes. Incorrect Solution (a) Types of Direct Taxes: Income Tax: Imposed on an individual’s or entity’s income, varying with income levels. Progressive tax rates may apply, with higher rates for higher income brackets. Corporation Tax: Applicable to the income of corporations and businesses. The tax rate may differ for domestic and foreign companies. Wealth Tax: Levied on an individual’s net wealth, including assets like property, jewellery, and financial instruments. Phased out in India in recent years. Gift Tax: Applied when an individual receives a gift, with the giver being responsible for the tax payment. In some jurisdictions, gift tax is merged with other taxes. Question 14 of 35 14. Question Which of the following suggestion did the Narasimhan Committee made, which was established in 1991? Reduce the quantity of Public Sector Banks by way of acquisitions and mergers. Establish Asset Recovery Firms. Gradually phase off interest subsidies for small-scale and agricultural industries. The Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) should be the main tool for managing money. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) The committee proposed a significant decrease in the number of public sector banks (PSBs) through mergers and acquisitions, aiming to enhance efficiency in banking operations. It also suggested empowering the RBI as the primary regulator of the banking system, while advocating for the autonomy of PSBs. (Hence statement 1 is correct). In response to the challenge posed by the increasing non-performing assets (NPAs) in banks and financial institutions, the committee recommended the establishment of asset reconstruction companies or funds. (Hence statement 2 is correct). The committee proposed a gradual phasing out of the directed credit programme. It argued that sectors like agriculture and small-scale industries (SSIs) had matured sufficiently and no longer required special support, suggesting that concessional interest rates could be discontinued after two decades of interest subsidies. (Hence statement 3 is correct). Contrary to the statement, the committee advised against using the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) as the primary tool for monetary and credit control. Instead, it recommended an increased reliance on open market operations (OMOs). Additionally, the committee suggested a gradual reduction of the CRR from its current high level of 15 percent to a range of 3 to 5 percent. (Hence statement 4 is incorrect). Incorrect Solution (c) The committee proposed a significant decrease in the number of public sector banks (PSBs) through mergers and acquisitions, aiming to enhance efficiency in banking operations. It also suggested empowering the RBI as the primary regulator of the banking system, while advocating for the autonomy of PSBs. (Hence statement 1 is correct). In response to the challenge posed by the increasing non-performing assets (NPAs) in banks and financial institutions, the committee recommended the establishment of asset reconstruction companies or funds. (Hence statement 2 is correct). The committee proposed a gradual phasing out of the directed credit programme. It argued that sectors like agriculture and small-scale industries (SSIs) had matured sufficiently and no longer required special support, suggesting that concessional interest rates could be discontinued after two decades of interest subsidies. (Hence statement 3 is correct). Contrary to the statement, the committee advised against using the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) as the primary tool for monetary and credit control. Instead, it recommended an increased reliance on open market operations (OMOs). Additionally, the committee suggested a gradual reduction of the CRR from its current high level of 15 percent to a range of 3 to 5 percent. (Hence statement 4 is incorrect). Question 15 of 35 15. Question Consider the following: Farmers Scientist Poors Women Youth Teachers Which of the above are mentioned as the 4 pillars of Viksit Bharat in the Interim Budget 2024? a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 ,3 ,4 and 5 only c) 2, 3, and 6 only d) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 only Correct Solution (b) Garib (Poor): This pillar focuses on the welfare of the poor and marginalized sections of society. Key initiatives include Garib Kalyan programs and measures aimed at overall welfare and development of the nation. Mahilayen (Women): This pillar emphasizes women empowerment and gender equality. Nari Shakti programs and policies are central to this pillar. Yuva (Youth): It aims to provide opportunities for skill development, education, and employment to the youth population. Initiatives under this pillar aim to harness the potential of young individuals and channel their energy towards constructive endeavours. Annadata (Farmer): This pillar is dedicated to the welfare and support of farmers, who are the backbone of the nation. It includes policies and programs aimed at improving agricultural productivity, ensuring fair prices for agricultural produce, and providing financial support and assistance to farmers. Incorrect Solution (b) Garib (Poor): This pillar focuses on the welfare of the poor and marginalized sections of society. Key initiatives include Garib Kalyan programs and measures aimed at overall welfare and development of the nation. Mahilayen (Women): This pillar emphasizes women empowerment and gender equality. Nari Shakti programs and policies are central to this pillar. Yuva (Youth): It aims to provide opportunities for skill development, education, and employment to the youth population. Initiatives under this pillar aim to harness the potential of young individuals and channel their energy towards constructive endeavours. Annadata (Farmer): This pillar is dedicated to the welfare and support of farmers, who are the backbone of the nation. It includes policies and programs aimed at improving agricultural productivity, ensuring fair prices for agricultural produce, and providing financial support and assistance to farmers. Question 16 of 35 16. Question Consider the following statements with respect to Feldman–Mahalanobis model: The model extensively highlights the crucial sources of capital, such as taxation. According to this model, the growth rate is determined by both the proportion of investment in the capital goods sector and the proportion of investment in the consumer goods sector. Due to the necessity for ample raw material reserves for sustainability, the model is less suitable for smaller countries. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Feldman-Mahalanobis model, a Neo-Marxist theory of economic development, was independently formulated by Soviet economist G. A. Feldman in 1928 and Indian statistician Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis in 1953. Mahalanobis’ model gives little attention to the savings constraint, which is assumed to originate from the industrial sector. However, in developing countries, initial savings often stem from the agricultural sector, and taxation, one of the essential sources of capital, is not addressed in this model. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect). According to the model, the growth rate depends on both the share of investment in the capital goods sector, denoted by k, and the share of investment in the consumer goods sector, denoted by c. If the value of k surpasses c, it may lead to slower short-term growth, but in the long run, it can yield higher consumption levels. (Hence statement 2 is correct). The model presupposes that a country must possess sufficient resources to sustain itself, making it less applicable to smaller countries. Therefore, this aspect of the model does not hold true for nations lacking in adequate raw material resources. (Hence statement 3 is correct). Incorrect Solution (b) The Feldman-Mahalanobis model, a Neo-Marxist theory of economic development, was independently formulated by Soviet economist G. A. Feldman in 1928 and Indian statistician Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis in 1953. Mahalanobis’ model gives little attention to the savings constraint, which is assumed to originate from the industrial sector. However, in developing countries, initial savings often stem from the agricultural sector, and taxation, one of the essential sources of capital, is not addressed in this model. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect). According to the model, the growth rate depends on both the share of investment in the capital goods sector, denoted by k, and the share of investment in the consumer goods sector, denoted by c. If the value of k surpasses c, it may lead to slower short-term growth, but in the long run, it can yield higher consumption levels. (Hence statement 2 is correct). The model presupposes that a country must possess sufficient resources to sustain itself, making it less applicable to smaller countries. Therefore, this aspect of the model does not hold true for nations lacking in adequate raw material resources. (Hence statement 3 is correct). Question 17 of 35 17. Question Match the following pairs: List I                                      List II Merit goods                      Goods with the non- exclusion principle Public goods                    Provided to targeted individuals. Demerit goods                 Consumption of these goods negatively impacts society. Select the correct option using the code given below: a) A: 3; B: 1; C: 2 b) A: 2; B: 1; C: 3 c) A:1; B: 2; C: 3 d) A:1; B: 3; C: 2 Correct Solution (b)                   List I                                        List II Merit goods          Provided to targeted individuals. Public goods         Goods with the non- exclusion principle Demerit goods     Consumption of these goods negatively impacts society. (Hence b is correct code). Incorrect Solution (b)                   List I                                        List II Merit goods          Provided to targeted individuals. Public goods         Goods with the non- exclusion principle Demerit goods     Consumption of these goods negatively impacts society. (Hence b is correct code). Question 18 of 35 18. Question Consider the following statements with reference to Special Economic Zones (SEZs): SEZs are designated duty-free enclaves treated as part of the customs territory of India. The SEZ Act 2005 establishes a legal framework for Special Economic Zones in India. Domestic sales from SEZs are subject to full customs duty. The Baba Kalyani committee is related to India’s SEZ policy. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) SEZs are designated as duty-free enclaves treated as part of India’s customs territory. Goods and services produced within SEZs are exempt from customs duties, providing a competitive advantage for businesses operating within these zones. (Hence statement 1 is correct). The SEZ Act of 2005 establishes the legal framework for Special Economic Zones in India. It provides the necessary guidelines and regulations for the establishment, operation, and management of SEZs, contributing to a conducive business environment. (Hence statement 2 is correct). Domestic sales from SEZs are subject to full customs duty. SEZs enjoy exemptions on customs duties for both international and domestic transactions, fostering a favourable environment for economic activities within these zones. (Hence statement 3 is correct). The Baba Kalyani-led committee was constituted by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry to evaluate and provide recommendations on India’s SEZ policy. The committee’s focus was on aligning the policy with World Trade Organization (WTO) standards and implementing global best practices to optimize SEZs’ capacity utilization and potential output. (Hence statement 4 is correct). Incorrect Solution (d) SEZs are designated as duty-free enclaves treated as part of India’s customs territory. Goods and services produced within SEZs are exempt from customs duties, providing a competitive advantage for businesses operating within these zones. (Hence statement 1 is correct). The SEZ Act of 2005 establishes the legal framework for Special Economic Zones in India. It provides the necessary guidelines and regulations for the establishment, operation, and management of SEZs, contributing to a conducive business environment. (Hence statement 2 is correct). Domestic sales from SEZs are subject to full customs duty. SEZs enjoy exemptions on customs duties for both international and domestic transactions, fostering a favourable environment for economic activities within these zones. (Hence statement 3 is correct). The Baba Kalyani-led committee was constituted by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry to evaluate and provide recommendations on India’s SEZ policy. The committee’s focus was on aligning the policy with World Trade Organization (WTO) standards and implementing global best practices to optimize SEZs’ capacity utilization and potential output. (Hence statement 4 is correct). Question 19 of 35 19. Question With reference to direct and indirect tax, consider the following statements: Direct tax has incidence and impact on the same individual. In indirect tax, the burden of tax can be shifted to someone else. Indirect taxes are progressive in nature. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Direct taxes, like income tax or property tax, have incidence and impact at the same point and cannot be shifted by the taxpayer to someone else. (Hence statement 1 is correct). Indirect taxes, such as customs duty or value-added tax, have incidence and impact at different points, allowing the taxpayer to shift the burden to someone else. (Hence statement 2 is correct). Indirect taxes are regressive, impacting lower incomes more than higher incomes, as the tax burden is the same for everyone, regardless of income level. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect). Incorrect Solution (b) Direct taxes, like income tax or property tax, have incidence and impact at the same point and cannot be shifted by the taxpayer to someone else. (Hence statement 1 is correct). Indirect taxes, such as customs duty or value-added tax, have incidence and impact at different points, allowing the taxpayer to shift the burden to someone else. (Hence statement 2 is correct). Indirect taxes are regressive, impacting lower incomes more than higher incomes, as the tax burden is the same for everyone, regardless of income level. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect). Question 20 of 35 20. Question Consider the following statements regarding Five Year Plans: The First Five-Year Plan was based on the Mahalanobis Model. The Third Five-Year Plan is also known as the ‘Gadgil Yojana/Plan’. The Fifth Five-Year Plan was terminated in 1978 due to severe drought and famine. The Sixth Five-Year Plan aimed at poverty eradication and employment generation, with the famous slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (b) The First Five-Year Plan was based on the Harrod-Domar model, not the Mahalanobis Model. It emphasized agricultural development, including irrigation and power projects, laying the foundation for economic growth in post-independence India. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect). The Third Five-Year Plan, known as the ‘Gadgil Yojana/Plan,’ aimed at economic self-reliance, balanced regional development, and achieving a self-sustained take-off for the Indian economy. (Hence statement 2 is correct). The Fifth Five-Year Plan was terminated in 1978, but not due to drought or famine. The termination was a result of a change in the political regime with the Janata Party coming to power, causing disruptions during the plan period. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect). The Sixth Five-Year Plan focused on poverty eradication and employment generation, with the iconic slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’ coined by the then-Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. The plan was successful, surpassing its targeted growth rate and contributing to socio-economic development. (Hence statement 4 is correct). Incorrect Solution (b) The First Five-Year Plan was based on the Harrod-Domar model, not the Mahalanobis Model. It emphasized agricultural development, including irrigation and power projects, laying the foundation for economic growth in post-independence India. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect). The Third Five-Year Plan, known as the ‘Gadgil Yojana/Plan,’ aimed at economic self-reliance, balanced regional development, and achieving a self-sustained take-off for the Indian economy. (Hence statement 2 is correct). The Fifth Five-Year Plan was terminated in 1978, but not due to drought or famine. The termination was a result of a change in the political regime with the Janata Party coming to power, causing disruptions during the plan period. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect). The Sixth Five-Year Plan focused on poverty eradication and employment generation, with the iconic slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’ coined by the then-Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. The plan was successful, surpassing its targeted growth rate and contributing to socio-economic development. (Hence statement 4 is correct). Question 21 of 35 21. Question Vaccine Safety Net is a global network of websites that provides reliable information on vaccine safety. It is established by the? a) World Health Organization b) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development c) World Trade Organization d) None Correct Solution (a) Vaccine Safety Net is a global network of websites that provides reliable information on vaccine safety. It is established by the World Health Organization (WHO). Hence option a is correct. It is a network of a diverse group of digital information resources (websites and social media), VSN members, located in countries around the world, and providing scientifically based information on vaccine safety in various languages. Incorrect Solution (a) Vaccine Safety Net is a global network of websites that provides reliable information on vaccine safety. It is established by the World Health Organization (WHO). Hence option a is correct. It is a network of a diverse group of digital information resources (websites and social media), VSN members, located in countries around the world, and providing scientifically based information on vaccine safety in various languages. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Mekong River’: It is the longest river in Southeast Asia. It originates from the Sanjianyuang in the Tibetan Plateau. It flows through China, Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar, Thailand, and Cambodia. Vientiane, the capital of Laos, and Phnom Penh, the capital of Cambodia, both stand on its banks. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) The Mekong River is the longest river in Southeast Asia. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is the 7th longest in Asia and the 12th longest in the world. It has a length of about 2,700 miles (4,350 km). It originates from the Sanjianyuang in the Tibetan Plateau. Hence statement 2 is correct. The left-bank tributaries (draining high rainfall areas) include Nam Ou, Tha, and Nam Khan, while the right-bank tributaries (draining the lower relief region) are Ruak, Kok, Tonle Sap, and Mun. It flows through China, Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar, Thailand, and Cambodia. Hence statement 3 is correct. Its biodiversity is only second to the Amazon River Basin and contains about 20,000 plant species, 1,200 birds, 430 mammals, 800 amphibians and reptiles, and 850 fish species. The Mekong creates a huge delta, or triangular piece of land, in southern Vietnam. The delta has rich soil and is one of the world’s great producers of rice. Vientiane, the capital of Laos, and Phnom Penh, the capital of Cambodia, both stand on its banks. Hence statement 4 is correct. The river drains into the South China Sea south of Ho Chi Minh City (Vietnam).   Incorrect Solution (d) The Mekong River is the longest river in Southeast Asia. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is the 7th longest in Asia and the 12th longest in the world. It has a length of about 2,700 miles (4,350 km). It originates from the Sanjianyuang in the Tibetan Plateau. Hence statement 2 is correct. The left-bank tributaries (draining high rainfall areas) include Nam Ou, Tha, and Nam Khan, while the right-bank tributaries (draining the lower relief region) are Ruak, Kok, Tonle Sap, and Mun. It flows through China, Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar, Thailand, and Cambodia. Hence statement 3 is correct. Its biodiversity is only second to the Amazon River Basin and contains about 20,000 plant species, 1,200 birds, 430 mammals, 800 amphibians and reptiles, and 850 fish species. The Mekong creates a huge delta, or triangular piece of land, in southern Vietnam. The delta has rich soil and is one of the world’s great producers of rice. Vientiane, the capital of Laos, and Phnom Penh, the capital of Cambodia, both stand on its banks. Hence statement 4 is correct. The river drains into the South China Sea south of Ho Chi Minh City (Vietnam).   Question 23 of 35 23. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization: It is a legally binding global agreement that implements the access and benefit-sharing obligations of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). It establishes a framework that helps researchers access genetic resources for biotechnology research, development, and other activities, in return for a fair share of any benefits from their use. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) The Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization is a legally binding global agreement that implements the access and benefit-sharing obligations of the United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD). Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It was adopted by the CBD in Nagoya, Japan, in October 2010 and entered into force on October 12, 2014, 90 days after the deposit of the fiftieth instrument of ratification. It provides a transparent legal framework for the effective implementation of one of the three objectives of the CBD: the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources. It applies to genetic resources that are covered by the CBD, and to the benefits arising from their utilization. It also covers traditional knowledge (TK) associated with genetic resources that are covered by the CBD and the benefits arising from their utilization. It establishes a framework that helps researchers access genetic resources for biotechnology research, development, and other activities, in return for a fair share of any benefits from their use. Hence statement 2 is correct. Indigenous and local communities may receive benefits through a legal framework that respects the value of traditional knowledge associated with genetic resources.   Incorrect Solution (b) The Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization is a legally binding global agreement that implements the access and benefit-sharing obligations of the United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD). Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It was adopted by the CBD in Nagoya, Japan, in October 2010 and entered into force on October 12, 2014, 90 days after the deposit of the fiftieth instrument of ratification. It provides a transparent legal framework for the effective implementation of one of the three objectives of the CBD: the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources. It applies to genetic resources that are covered by the CBD, and to the benefits arising from their utilization. It also covers traditional knowledge (TK) associated with genetic resources that are covered by the CBD and the benefits arising from their utilization. It establishes a framework that helps researchers access genetic resources for biotechnology research, development, and other activities, in return for a fair share of any benefits from their use. Hence statement 2 is correct. Indigenous and local communities may receive benefits through a legal framework that respects the value of traditional knowledge associated with genetic resources.   Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Directorate General of GST Intelligence (DGGI): It is an apex intelligence organization functioning under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs. It is responsible for taking legal action against offenders, but it cannot impose penalties. It is entrusted with the task of collection, collation, and dissemination of intelligence relating to the evasion of Goods and Services Tax (GST) and the duties of Central Excise and Service Tax on an all-India basis. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Directorate General of GST Intelligence (DGGI) is an apex intelligence organization functioning under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs, Department of Revenue, and Ministry of Finance. Hence statement 1 is correct. The Directorate General of Central Excise Intelligence (DGCEI) is now renamed as Directorate General of GST Intelligence (DGGI). It has the power to conduct investigations into suspected cases of GST evasion or non-compliance. This may involve summoning persons, examining records, and carrying out searches and seizures. It is responsible for enforcing the provisions of the GST law. This includes taking legal action against offenders, imposing penalties, and recovering any taxes or duties due. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It is responsible for gathering intelligence about potential violations of the GST law. This includes collecting information from various sources, such as GST returns, financial statements, and other documents. It develops intelligence, especially in new areas of tax evasion through its intelligence network across the country and disseminates such information, by issuing Modus Operandi Circulars and Alert Circulars to sensitize the field formations about the latest trends in duty evasion. It is entrusted with the task of collection, collation, and dissemination of intelligence relating to the evasion of Goods and Services Tax (GST) and the duties of Central Excise and Service Tax on an all-India basis. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) The Directorate General of GST Intelligence (DGGI) is an apex intelligence organization functioning under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs, Department of Revenue, and Ministry of Finance. Hence statement 1 is correct. The Directorate General of Central Excise Intelligence (DGCEI) is now renamed as Directorate General of GST Intelligence (DGGI). It has the power to conduct investigations into suspected cases of GST evasion or non-compliance. This may involve summoning persons, examining records, and carrying out searches and seizures. It is responsible for enforcing the provisions of the GST law. This includes taking legal action against offenders, imposing penalties, and recovering any taxes or duties due. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It is responsible for gathering intelligence about potential violations of the GST law. This includes collecting information from various sources, such as GST returns, financial statements, and other documents. It develops intelligence, especially in new areas of tax evasion through its intelligence network across the country and disseminates such information, by issuing Modus Operandi Circulars and Alert Circulars to sensitize the field formations about the latest trends in duty evasion. It is entrusted with the task of collection, collation, and dissemination of intelligence relating to the evasion of Goods and Services Tax (GST) and the duties of Central Excise and Service Tax on an all-India basis. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements regarding ABHYAS: It is designed for autonomous flying with the help of an autopilot indigenously. It is designed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation’s (DRDO) Aeronautical Development Establishment (ADE). It has a radar cross-section and a visual and infrared augmentation system required  for weapon practice. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) ABHYAS is designed for autonomous flying with the help of an autopilot indigenously. Hence statement 1 is correct. It offers a realistic threat scenario for the practice of weapon systems. It is the ideal platform for the validation of Armed Forces equipment slated for induction (only those that require aerial engagement). Hence statement 2 is correct. It is designed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation’s (DRDO) Aeronautical Development Establishment (ADE). The target drone has a laptop-based Ground Control System with which the aircraft can be integrated and pre-flight checks, data recording during the flight, replays after the flight, and post-flight analysis can be carried out. It has a radar cross-section and a visual and infrared augmentation system required for weapon practice. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) ABHYAS is designed for autonomous flying with the help of an autopilot indigenously. Hence statement 1 is correct. It offers a realistic threat scenario for the practice of weapon systems. It is the ideal platform for the validation of Armed Forces equipment slated for induction (only those that require aerial engagement). Hence statement 2 is correct. It is designed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation’s (DRDO) Aeronautical Development Establishment (ADE). The target drone has a laptop-based Ground Control System with which the aircraft can be integrated and pre-flight checks, data recording during the flight, replays after the flight, and post-flight analysis can be carried out. It has a radar cross-section and a visual and infrared augmentation system required for weapon practice. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 26 of 35 26. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Index of Industrial Production (IIP): It is published annually by the National Statistical Office (NSO). It uses mining, manufacturing, and electricity as broad sectors. It uses basic goods, capital goods, and intermediate goods as base sectors. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is published monthly by the National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It uses 2011-2012 as its base year. It uses mining, manufacturing, and electricity as broad sectors. Hence statement 2 is correct. The relative weights of these three sectors are 6% (manufacturing), 14.4% (mining), and 8% (electricity). Eight core industries comprise about 40 percent of the weight of items included in the IIP. They are electricity, crude oil, coal, cement, steel, refinery products, natural gas, and fertilizers. The eight core sector industries in decreasing order of their weightage: Refinery Products> Electricity> Steel> Coal> Crude Oil> Natural Gas> Cement> Fertilizers. It uses basic goods, capital goods, and intermediate goods as base sectors. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is published monthly by the National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It uses 2011-2012 as its base year. It uses mining, manufacturing, and electricity as broad sectors. Hence statement 2 is correct. The relative weights of these three sectors are 6% (manufacturing), 14.4% (mining), and 8% (electricity). Eight core industries comprise about 40 percent of the weight of items included in the IIP. They are electricity, crude oil, coal, cement, steel, refinery products, natural gas, and fertilizers. The eight core sector industries in decreasing order of their weightage: Refinery Products> Electricity> Steel> Coal> Crude Oil> Natural Gas> Cement> Fertilizers. It uses basic goods, capital goods, and intermediate goods as base sectors. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 27 of 35 27. Question The Red Sea is an arm of the Indian Ocean, lying between Africa and Asia. It is bordered by which of the following countries? Israel Egypt Jordan Sudan Yemen Choose the correct code: a) Only two b) Only three c) Only four d) All five Correct Solution (d) The Red Sea is an arm of the Indian Ocean, lying between Africa and Asia. It is bordered by the following countries: Eastern shore: Israel, Jordan, Saudi Arabia and Yemen. Western shore: Egypt, Sudan, Eritrea, Djibouti. Hence option d is correct. It is connected to the ocean in the south, through the Bab-el-Mandeb strait and the Gulf of Aden. To its north lie the Sinai Peninsula, the Gulf of Aqaba, and the Gulf of Suez (leading to the Suez Canal). The Red Sea is connected to the Mediterranean Sea through the Suez Canal. The Red Sea is one of the most densely packed shipping channels in the world, carrying maritime traffic between Europe and Asia and east Africa. About 12% of global trade passes through the Red Sea, including 30% of global container traffic. The Red Sea also serves as a strategic zone for both regional and Great Powers projecting their military might or openly engaging in conflict. Incorrect Solution (d) The Red Sea is an arm of the Indian Ocean, lying between Africa and Asia. It is bordered by the following countries: Eastern shore: Israel, Jordan, Saudi Arabia and Yemen. Western shore: Egypt, Sudan, Eritrea, Djibouti. Hence option d is correct. It is connected to the ocean in the south, through the Bab-el-Mandeb strait and the Gulf of Aden. To its north lie the Sinai Peninsula, the Gulf of Aqaba, and the Gulf of Suez (leading to the Suez Canal). The Red Sea is connected to the Mediterranean Sea through the Suez Canal. The Red Sea is one of the most densely packed shipping channels in the world, carrying maritime traffic between Europe and Asia and east Africa. About 12% of global trade passes through the Red Sea, including 30% of global container traffic. The Red Sea also serves as a strategic zone for both regional and Great Powers projecting their military might or openly engaging in conflict. Question 28 of 35 28. Question Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Aldabra Giant Tortoise’: It is the largest species of land tortoise in the world. It is endemic to the Aldabra Atoll of the Seychelles. Its largest populations are found on grasslands called “platins”. It is listed as vulnerable on the IUCN Red List. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) The Aldabra Giant Tortoise is the second-largest species of land tortoise in the world. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The Galapagos Giant Tortoise is the largest species of land tortoise in the world. It can live for 100 years and has a fascinating history. This tortoise evolved from the ancestors of Aldabrachelys abrupta, one of two giant tortoises that inhabited Madagascar for 15 million years. Four million years ago, the Aldabrachelys abrupta lineage migrated, likely via a combination of drifting with floating vegetation and assisted by their natural buoyancy and good swimming abilities, to Seychelles. It is endemic to the Aldabra Atoll of the Seychelles,  an archipelago nation in the western Indian Ocean about 930 miles east of Africa and northeast of Madagascar. Hence statement 2 is correct. Its largest populations are found on grasslands called “platins”. Hence statement 3 is correct. These are terrestrial and occur in a wide variety of habitats, including scrub forests, mangrove swamps, and coastal dunes and beaches, each with their respective vegetation. It is listed as vulnerable on the IUCN Red List. Hence statement 4 is correct. It is listed in Appendix II of CITES. Incorrect Solution (c) The Aldabra Giant Tortoise is the second-largest species of land tortoise in the world. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The Galapagos Giant Tortoise is the largest species of land tortoise in the world. It can live for 100 years and has a fascinating history. This tortoise evolved from the ancestors of Aldabrachelys abrupta, one of two giant tortoises that inhabited Madagascar for 15 million years. Four million years ago, the Aldabrachelys abrupta lineage migrated, likely via a combination of drifting with floating vegetation and assisted by their natural buoyancy and good swimming abilities, to Seychelles. It is endemic to the Aldabra Atoll of the Seychelles,  an archipelago nation in the western Indian Ocean about 930 miles east of Africa and northeast of Madagascar. Hence statement 2 is correct. Its largest populations are found on grasslands called “platins”. Hence statement 3 is correct. These are terrestrial and occur in a wide variety of habitats, including scrub forests, mangrove swamps, and coastal dunes and beaches, each with their respective vegetation. It is listed as vulnerable on the IUCN Red List. Hence statement 4 is correct. It is listed in Appendix II of CITES. Question 29 of 35 29. Question Consider the following statements regarding the World Sustainable Development (WSDS) Summit: It is the annual flagship event of The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI). The theme of WSDS 2024 is ‘Mainstreaming Sustainable Development and Climate Resilience for Collective Action’. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) The World Sustainable Development (WSDS) Summit is the annual flagship event of The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI). Hence statement 1 is correct. It is the only independently convened international summit on sustainable development and environment, based in the Global South. It strives to provide long-term solutions for the benefit of global communities by assembling the world’s most enlightened leaders and thinkers on a single platform. The theme of WSDS 2024 is ‘Leadership for the Sustainable Development and Climate Justice’. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Note: TERI is a leading think tank dedicated to conducting research for sustainable development of India and the Global South. It is an independent, multi-dimensional organization, with capabilities in research, policy, consultancy, and implementation.   Incorrect Solution (a) The World Sustainable Development (WSDS) Summit is the annual flagship event of The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI). Hence statement 1 is correct. It is the only independently convened international summit on sustainable development and environment, based in the Global South. It strives to provide long-term solutions for the benefit of global communities by assembling the world’s most enlightened leaders and thinkers on a single platform. The theme of WSDS 2024 is ‘Leadership for the Sustainable Development and Climate Justice’. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Note: TERI is a leading think tank dedicated to conducting research for sustainable development of India and the Global South. It is an independent, multi-dimensional organization, with capabilities in research, policy, consultancy, and implementation.   Question 30 of 35 30. Question The 3M22 Zircon, or SS-N-33, is a scramjet-powered manoeuvring anti-ship hypersonic cruise missile. It is developed by which of the following country? a) The United States b) France c) Russia d) China Correct Solution (c) The 3M22 Zircon, or SS-N-33, is a scramjet-powered manoeuvring anti-ship hypersonic cruise missile. It is developed by Russia. Hence option c is correct. It is reportedly capable of flying with speeds up to Mach 9 and a range of 1000 km. It’s a two-stage missile that uses solid fuel in the first stage and a scramjet motor in the second stage. Zircon cruise missiles use cooled supersonic combustion ramjet engines, which power combustion by compressing air flowing at supersonic speeds due to the missile’s forward motion.   Incorrect Solution (c) The 3M22 Zircon, or SS-N-33, is a scramjet-powered manoeuvring anti-ship hypersonic cruise missile. It is developed by Russia. Hence option c is correct. It is reportedly capable of flying with speeds up to Mach 9 and a range of 1000 km. It’s a two-stage missile that uses solid fuel in the first stage and a scramjet motor in the second stage. Zircon cruise missiles use cooled supersonic combustion ramjet engines, which power combustion by compressing air flowing at supersonic speeds due to the missile’s forward motion.   Question 31 of 35 31. Question Find the lowest 4-digit number which when divided by 3, 4 or 5 leaves a remainder of 2 in each case? a) 1020 b) 1026 c) 1022 d) 1030 Correct Solution (c) Lowest 4-digit number is 1000. LCM of 3, 4 and 5 = 3 × 4 × 5 = 60. Dividing 1000 by 60, we get the remainder 40. Thus, the lowest 4-digit number that exactly divisible by 3, 4 and 5 is 1000 + (60 – 40) = 1020. Now, add the remainder 2 that’s required. Thus, the answer is (1020 + 2 = 1022). Solution (c) Lowest 4-digit number is 1000. LCM of 3, 4 and 5 = 3 × 4 × 5 = 60. Dividing 1000 by 60, we get the remainder 40. Thus, the lowest 4-digit number that exactly divisible by 3, 4 and 5 is 1000 + (60 – 40) = 1020. Now, add the remainder 2 that’s required. Thus, the answer is (1020 + 2 = 1022). Incorrect Solution (c) Lowest 4-digit number is 1000. LCM of 3, 4 and 5 = 3 × 4 × 5 = 60. Dividing 1000 by 60, we get the remainder 40. Thus, the lowest 4-digit number that exactly divisible by 3, 4 and 5 is 1000 + (60 – 40) = 1020. Now, add the remainder 2 that’s required. Thus, the answer is (1020 + 2 = 1022). Solution (c) Lowest 4-digit number is 1000. LCM of 3, 4 and 5 = 3 × 4 × 5 = 60. Dividing 1000 by 60, we get the remainder 40. Thus, the lowest 4-digit number that exactly divisible by 3, 4 and 5 is 1000 + (60 – 40) = 1020. Now, add the remainder 2 that’s required. Thus, the answer is (1020 + 2 = 1022). Question 32 of 35 32. Question The average weight of a group of 5 boys is 26. If we replace a boy of weight 20 in the group with another boy so that new average increases by 3.8 kgs, find the weight of the new boy. a) 56 b) 39 c) 40 d) 33 Correct Solution (b) The weight of new boy = Weight of the removed boy + No. of boys ×Increase in average. = 20+5×3.8 =20+19 = 39 kgs Incorrect Solution (b) The weight of new boy = Weight of the removed boy + No. of boys ×Increase in average. = 20+5×3.8 =20+19 = 39 kgs Question 33 of 35 33. Question A man whose bowling average is 12.4 takes 5 wickets for 26 runs and thereby decreases his average by 0.4. The number of wickets, taken by him, before his last match is a) 85 b) 78 c) 72 d) 64 Correct Solution (a) The bowling average indicates the number of runs given by a bowler to take a wicket. Let the bowler of 12.4 bowling average has taken x wickets before his last match. So, number of runs conceded by him are 12.4x. Number of runs conceded including present match are 12.4x+26 and total wickets taken are x+5 and the new bowling average is 12.4−0.4=12. To find x, Bowling average = Number of runs conceded / Number of wickets taken ​ or, 12.4x+26 /x+5 ​ =12 or,x=85 Therefore number of wickets taken by him his last match is 85     Incorrect Solution (a) The bowling average indicates the number of runs given by a bowler to take a wicket. Let the bowler of 12.4 bowling average has taken x wickets before his last match. So, number of runs conceded by him are 12.4x. Number of runs conceded including present match are 12.4x+26 and total wickets taken are x+5 and the new bowling average is 12.4−0.4=12. To find x, Bowling average = Number of runs conceded / Number of wickets taken ​ or, 12.4x+26 /x+5 ​ =12 or,x=85 Therefore number of wickets taken by him his last match is 85     Question 34 of 35 34. Question In a conference, out of a total 80 participants, 65 are Indians. If 40 of the total participants are vegetarian, then which of the following statements is/are correct? At least 25 Indian participants are vegetarian. At least 25 Indian participants are non- vegetarian.  Select the correct answer using the codes given below:   a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Let’s try to maximise the number of Indian-Vegetarians. Out of 65 Indians, all vegetarians (i.e., 40) can be Indians. So, at least 25 Indians will be there who will be non- vegetarians. This number can increase depending on the number of vegetarian-Indians. Let’s try to minimise the number of Indian-Vegetarians. For that we have maximise the number of non-Indian-Vegetarians. Out of 15 Non-Indians, at max all can be vegetarian. Still 25 vegetarians remain which will fall under Indian category. So, at least 25 Indians will be there who will be vegetarians. Hence both statements are correct. Incorrect Solution (c) Let’s try to maximise the number of Indian-Vegetarians. Out of 65 Indians, all vegetarians (i.e., 40) can be Indians. So, at least 25 Indians will be there who will be non- vegetarians. This number can increase depending on the number of vegetarian-Indians. Let’s try to minimise the number of Indian-Vegetarians. For that we have maximise the number of non-Indian-Vegetarians. Out of 15 Non-Indians, at max all can be vegetarian. Still 25 vegetarians remain which will fall under Indian category. So, at least 25 Indians will be there who will be vegetarians. Hence both statements are correct. Question 35 of 35 35. Question Shamanth and Manoj go for a swim after a gap of every 3 days and every 4 days respectively. If on 1st January both of them went for a swim together, when will they go together next?   a) 7th January b) 8th January c) 21st January d) 13th January Correct Solution (d) Shamanth goes to swim every 3th day and Manoj goes to swim every 4th day. They will go to swim together every 12th day (LCM of 3 and 4 is 12). So, on the 12th day after January 1, they will go together to swim i.e., on January 13.   Incorrect Solution (d) Shamanth goes to swim every 3th day and Manoj goes to swim every 4th day. They will go to swim together every 12th day (LCM of 3 and 4 is 12). So, on the 12th day after January 1, they will go together to swim i.e., on January 13.   window.wpProQuizInitList = window.wpProQuizInitList || []; window.wpProQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpProQuiz_3670', init: { quizId: 3670, mode: 1, globalPoints: 70, timelimit: 1800, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 704, qpp: 0, catPoints: [70], formPos: 0, lbn: "Test-summary", json: {"32862":{"type":"single","id":32862,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32863":{"type":"single","id":32863,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32866":{"type":"single","id":32866,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32868":{"type":"single","id":32868,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32871":{"type":"single","id":32871,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32873":{"type":"single","id":32873,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32874":{"type":"single","id":32874,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32876":{"type":"single","id":32876,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32877":{"type":"single","id":32877,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32878":{"type":"single","id":32878,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32881":{"type":"single","id":32881,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32883":{"type":"single","id":32883,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32887":{"type":"single","id":32887,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32889":{"type":"single","id":32889,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32892":{"type":"single","id":32892,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32893":{"type":"single","id":32893,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32895":{"type":"single","id":32895,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32897":{"type":"single","id":32897,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32898":{"type":"single","id":32898,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32899":{"type":"single","id":32899,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32902":{"type":"single","id":32902,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32904":{"type":"single","id":32904,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32905":{"type":"single","id":32905,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32908":{"type":"single","id":32908,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32910":{"type":"single","id":32910,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32913":{"type":"single","id":32913,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32914":{"type":"single","id":32914,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32915":{"type":"single","id":32915,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32918":{"type":"single","id":32918,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32920":{"type":"single","id":32920,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32922":{"type":"single","id":32922,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32925":{"type":"single","id":32925,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32928":{"type":"single","id":32928,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32930":{"type":"single","id":32930,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32933":{"type":"single","id":32933,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]}} } }); All the Best IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 23rd April 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Indelible ink used in election Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: With the first phase of voting for the 2024 Lok Sabha elections beginning on April 19, the classic symbol of Indian polls is visible everywhere – a left hand with only its index finger extended, marked by a purple-black indelible ink. Background:- Devised as a method to prevent a person from casting more than one vote, the indelible ink has been used for decades in India. It has also travelled to other parts of the world to help in conducting elections. About the Indelible ink used in elections The Section 61 of Representation of the People Act (RoPA) of 1951 mentions the ink. It states that rules may be made under the Act “for the marking with indelible ink of the thumb or any other finger of every elector who applies for a ballot paper or ballot papers for the purpose of voting at a polling station before delivery of such paper or papers to him.” Why papers? Because before EVMs, ballot papers existed at polling stations. They contained the list of contesting candidates alongside their party symbols and names. Voters had to mark their preference on the paper and then drop it in ballot boxes to vote. Indelible ink contains silver nitrate. It is a colourless compound which becomes visible when exposed to ultraviolet light, including sunlight. The water-based ink also contains a solvent like alcohol to allow its faster drying. Silver nitrate is an inorganic compound with the chemical formula AgNO3.The higher silver nitrate’s concentration, say around 20 percent, the higher will be the ink’s quality, according to a report from the United Nations Development Programme. For up to 72 hours after application it can remain resistant to soap, liquids, home-cleansing, detergents, etc. The indelible ink was first manufactured at the ECI’s request by the government’s Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR). It was later patented by the National Research Development Corporation (NRDC), New Delhi. Mysore Paints & Varnish Ltd. has been licensed to manufacture the ink and has been in the business since 1962. Earlier called Mysore Lac & Paint Works Ltd, it was established in 1937 by Nalwadi Krishnaraja Wodeyar, then the Maharaja of Mysore. This Karnataka Government Undertaking is the sole manufacturer of the ink in India. Today, once a voter has her credentials checked at the polling booth, and before she casts her vote by pressing a button on the Electronic Voting Machine (EVM), the indelible ink is applied on her finger. This has been the case for decades, although the mode of voting has changed. Currently, the indelible ink is exported to more than 25 countries that include Canada, Ghana, Nigeria, Mongolia, Malaysia, Nepal, South Africa and the Maldives. Source: Hindu Fourth global mass coral bleaching Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Environment Context: The fourth global mass coral bleaching event has been triggered by extraordinary ocean temperatures, the US National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) said on Monday (April 15). This could have serious consequences for ocean life and millions of people who rely on reefs for food, jobs, and coastal defence. Background: Since mid-March 2023, the average sea surface temperature (SST) has been abnormally high. What are corals and coral reefs? Corals are essentially animals, which are sessile, meaning they permanently attach themselves to the ocean floor. They use their tiny tentacle-like hands to catch food from the water and sweep into their mouth. Each individual coral animal is known as a polyp and it lives in groups of hundreds to thousands of genetically identical polyps that form a ‘colony’. Corals are largely classified as either hard coral or soft coral. It is the hard corals that are the architects of coral reefs — complex three-dimensional structures built up over thousands of years. “Unlike soft corals, hard corals have stony skeletons made out of limestone that are produced by coral polyps. When polyps die, their skeletons are left behind and used as foundations for new polyps,” according to NOAA. Coral reefs, also referred to as “rainforests of the sea”, have existed on the Earth for nearly 450 million years. Australia’s Great Barrier Reef is the largest in the world, stretching across 2,028 kilometres. What is the significance of corals? Coral reefs have a crucial role in marine ecosystems. Thousands of marine species can be found living on one reef. For instance, the Great Barrier Reef contains over 400 coral species, 1,500 fish species, 4,000 mollusc species and six of the world’s seven sea turtle species. Research has shown that there could be millions of undiscovered species of organisms living in and around reefs. These massive structures also provide economic goods and services worth about $375 billion each year. More than 500 million people across the world depend on coral reefs for food, income and coastal protection from storms and floods. Coral reefs can absorb up to 97% of the energy from waves, storms, and floods, which prevents loss of life, property damage, and soil erosion. Therefore, the absence of coral reefs would not only result in severe ramifications for marine life but also for humans. What is coral bleaching? Most corals contain algae called zooxanthellae — they are plant-like organisms — in their tissues. Corals and zooxanthellae have a symbiotic relationship. While corals provide zooxanthellae a safe place to live, zooxanthellae provide oxygen and organic products of photosynthesis that help corals to grow and thrive. Zooxanthellae also give bright and unique colours to corals. Corals are very sensitive to light and temperature and even a small change in their living conditions can stress them. When stressed, they expel zooxanthellae and turn entirely white. This is called coral bleaching. Coral bleaching doesn’t immediately lead to the death of corals. They rather go under more stress and are subject to mortality. Coral bleaching reduces the reproductivity of corals and makes them more vulnerable to fatal diseases. If the bleaching is not too severe, corals have been known to recover. Global mass bleaching of coral reefs is when significant coral bleaching is confirmed in the Atlantic, Indian and Pacific oceans, according to a report published by The Conversation. Such events are a relatively new phenomenon. The first one took place in 1998 in which 20% of the world’s reef areas suffered bleaching-level heat stress. The next two global bleaching events occurred in 2010 (35% of reefs affected) and between 2014 and 2017 (56% of reefs affected). What is happening right now? NOAA has confirmed that the fourth global bleaching event is currently underway. Nearly 54 countries, territories and local economies — from Florida, the US, Saudi Arabia to Fiji — have confirmed bleaching, according to a report by The New York Times. The Great Barrier Reef is witnessing its most severe bleaching event. “About a third of the reefs surveyed by air showed prevalence of very high or extreme bleaching, and at least three quarters showed some bleaching,” the NYT report said. On Monday (April 15), bleaching was also confirmed in the Western Indian Ocean, including Tanzania, Kenya, Mauritius, Seychelles, and off the western coast of Indonesia. The key driver behind the current event is higher ocean temperatures. However, the situation has been exacerbated by El Niño, a weather pattern which is associated with warmer oceans. Given that El Niño is weakening and a cooler La Niña may set in by the end of the year, the event may not last for very long. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Question Q) Consider the following statements: Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters. More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are located in territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 NATIONAL ORGAN AND TISSUE TRANSPLANT ORGANISATION (NOTTO) Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: As per the recent directive by the Union Health Ministry, all cases of organ transplants will now be assigned a unique National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation (NOTTO)-ID for both the donor and the recipient. Background: This initiative aims to streamline and enhance the process of organ allocation and transplantation across the country. About NATIONAL ORGAN AND TISSUE TRANSPLANT ORGANISATION (NOTTO): The National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation (NOTTO) is the apex body in India for the coordination and networking of organ and tissue procurement and transplantation. It operates under the Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India. NOTTO also oversees the National Human Organ and Tissue Removal and Storage Network and the National Biomaterial Centre (National Tissue Bank), which are crucial for maintaining the supply and quality of transplantable tissues. Primary Functions: Coordination and Networking: Facilitating the procurement and distribution of organs and tissues across the country. Registry Maintenance: Keeping a registry of organ and tissue donations and transplants. Policy and Protocol Development: Establishing guidelines, protocols, and standard operating procedures for tissue procurement, distribution, and transplantation. Training and Assistance: Providing training and assisting in the registration of other tissue banks. Quality Assurance: Ensuring the quality of tissues available for transplantation. Public Awareness: Promoting organ and tissue donation awareness. Source: Hindu IRAN Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Iran recently launched a series of air strikes on Israel, employing 200-300 drones and ballistic missiles. Background: The attacks, executed by Iran’s para-military force, the Iranian Revolutionary Guard Corps, were in response to Israeli war jets targeting an Iranian consulate in Syria. Iran dubbed the attack “Operation True Promise”. About Iran : Iran, officially known as the Islamic Republic of Iran, is situated in Western Asia. The vast majority of Iranians adhere to Islam. Specifically, they follow the Ithnā ʿAsharī (Twelver) branch of Shi’a Islam, which is the official state religion. Iran has one of the longest land borders of any country in the region, covering approximately 3,662 miles. Iran shares this extensive land border with seven countries: Iraq: To the west. Turkmenistan: To the north. Afghanistan: To the east. Pakistan: To the southeast. Turkey: To the northwest. Armenia: To the north. Azerbaijan: To the north. Additionally, Iran has maritime borders with several countries, including Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates. Source: Hindu MOUNT RUANG VOLCANO Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Indonesia witnessed a series of eruptions from Mount Ruang. Background: At least 16 eruptions have been recorded from Mount Ruang, with the first one occurring in 1808. About MOUNT RUANG VOLCANO: Mount Ruang is situated in Indonesia’s North Sulawesi province. It is a stratovolcano, characterized by a tall, steep, cone-shaped structure. Stratovolcanoes are known for their explosive eruptions due to the build-up of gas pressures in their more viscous lavas. The volcano is part of the Pacific Ring of Fire, which is prone to frequent seismic and volcanic activity due to its position on subduction zones. Source: Times of India Global Methane Tracker 2024 Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Environment Context: The International Energy Agency’s Global Methane Tracker 2024 indicates that methane emissions from fuel usage in 2023 were nearly at their highest level on record, representing a slight increase compared to 2022. Background: Methane is responsible for around 30 per cent of the rise in global temperatures since the preindustrial era. The energy sector— including oil, natural gas, coal and bioenergy — accounts for over a third of methane emissions from human activity. Key highlights of the Global Methane Tracker 2024: In 2023, methane emissions from fossil fuels totalled close to 120 million tonnes (Mt). Bioenergy (largely from biomass use) contributed a further 10 Mt methane emissions. This level has stayed constant since 2019. Major methane emissions events increased by over 50% in 2023 compared to 2022. These events included more than 5 million metric tons of methane emissions from significant fossil fuel leaks globally. One prominent incident was a major well blowout in Kazakhstan that lasted over 200 days. Nearly 70% of methane emissions from fossil fuels come from the top 10 emitting countries. The United States is the largest emitter of methane from oil and gas operations, closely followed by Russia. China is the highest emitter of methane in the coal sector. Cutting methane emissions from fossil fuels by 75% by 2030 is crucial for limiting global warming to 1.5 °C. The IEA estimated that this goal would require about USD 170 billion in spending. This is less than 5% of the income generated by the fossil fuel industry in 2023. Around 40% of emissions from fossil fuels in 2023 could have been avoided at no net cost. Methane: It is the simplest hydrocarbon, consisting of one carbon atom and four hydrogen atoms (CH4). It is the primary component of natural gas. It is odourless, colourless, and tasteless gas. It is lighter than air and burns with a blue flame in complete combustion, yielding carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O) in the presence of oxygen. Methane ranks as the second most important greenhouse gas (GHG) after carbon dioxide (CO2). Its 20-year global warming potential (GWP) is 84, indicating that it traps 84 times more heat per mass unit than CO2 over a 20-year period, making it a potent GHG. It is a significant contributor to global warming, accounting for about 30% of the rise in global temperatures since the preindustrial era. It contributes to the formation of ground-level ozone. Major sources of Methane Emission: Wetlands, both natural and human-made, are significant sources of methane emissions due to anaerobic decomposition of organic matter. Growing paddy fields release methane due to anaerobic conditions in flooded rice paddies. Excreta from cattle and other livestock undergo enteric fermentation, producing methane as a byproduct. Burning of fossil fuels, including oil and natural gas, releases methane emissions. Biomass burning, such as wood and agricultural residues, also contributes to methane levels. Industrial activities like landfills and wastewater treatment plants generate methane during organic waste decomposition in anaerobic environments. Fertilizer factories and other industrial processes can also release methane during production and transportation. Source: Down To Earth Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) With reference to the National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation (NOTTO), consider the following statement: NOTTO is the apex body in India for the coordination and networking of organ and tissue procurement and transplantation. It operates under the Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Which of the statements given above are not correct? 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2.) Consider the following countries: Iraq Israel Jordan Pakistan Turkey Armenia How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Iran? Only two Only three Only four Only five Q3.)  With reference to the Mount Ruang, consider the following statements: It is a stratovolcano situated in Italy. It is a part of the Pacific Ring of Fire. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  23rd April  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  22nd April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – c Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 23rd April 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

[DAY 44] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding demographic transition theory: It can be used to predict the future population of any area. The lower birth and death rates are characteristics of urban, industrial, and literate societies. It explains demographic transition in two stages. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Demographic transition theory can be used to describe and predict the future population of any area. The theory tells us that the population of any region changes from high births and high deaths to low births and low deaths as society progresses from rural agrarian and illiterate to urban industrial and literate society. These changes occur in the stages which are collectively known as the demographic cycle. Three Stage demographic transition theory: The first stage has high fertility and high mortality because people produce more to compensate for the deaths due to epidemics and variable food supply. The population growth is slow and most of the people are engaged in agriculture where large families are an asset. Life expectancy is low, people are mostly illiterate and have low levels of technology. Second Stage: The fertility rate remains high at the beginning of the second stage but it declines with time. This is accompanied by a reduced mortality rate. Improvements in sanitation and health conditions lead to a decline in mortality. Because of this gap, the net addition to the population is high. In the last stage, both fertility and mortality decline considerably. The population is either stable or grows slowly. The population becomes urbanized, literate and has the high technical know-how, and deliberately controls the family size. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Demographic transition theory can be used to describe and predict the future population of any area. The theory tells us that the population of any region changes from high births and high deaths to low births and low deaths as society progresses from rural agrarian and illiterate to urban industrial and literate society. These changes occur in the stages which are collectively known as the demographic cycle. Three Stage demographic transition theory: The first stage has high fertility and high mortality because people produce more to compensate for the deaths due to epidemics and variable food supply. The population growth is slow and most of the people are engaged in agriculture where large families are an asset. Life expectancy is low, people are mostly illiterate and have low levels of technology. Second Stage: The fertility rate remains high at the beginning of the second stage but it declines with time. This is accompanied by a reduced mortality rate. Improvements in sanitation and health conditions lead to a decline in mortality. Because of this gap, the net addition to the population is high. In the last stage, both fertility and mortality decline considerably. The population is either stable or grows slowly. The population becomes urbanized, literate and has the high technical know-how, and deliberately controls the family size. Question 2 of 35 2. Question Which of the following statements is/ are correct regarding different forms of Urbanization? Conurbation: It is essentially a metropolitan area including an urban region and its adjacent towns and suburbs. Counter-urbanization: The outward growth of towns and cities to engulf surrounding villages and rural areas. Select the correct answer using the code given below. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Urbanization Urbanization means the increase in the proportion population of a country who lives in urban areas. The most important cause of urbanization is rural-urban migration. Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The term conurbation was coined by Patrick Geddes in 1915 and applied to a large area of urban development that resulted from the merging of originally separate towns Counter-urbanization is a process involving the movement of population away from inner urban areas to a new town, a new estate, a commuter town or a village on the edge or just beyond the city limits or rural-urban fringe. Incorrect Solution (a) Urbanization Urbanization means the increase in the proportion population of a country who lives in urban areas. The most important cause of urbanization is rural-urban migration. Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The term conurbation was coined by Patrick Geddes in 1915 and applied to a large area of urban development that resulted from the merging of originally separate towns Counter-urbanization is a process involving the movement of population away from inner urban areas to a new town, a new estate, a commuter town or a village on the edge or just beyond the city limits or rural-urban fringe. Question 3 of 35 3. Question Which among the following is/ are the indicator(s) used in calculating the Multi-Dimensional Poverty Index? Years of schooling Nutrition level Sanitation Drinking Water Type of cooking fuel Electricity Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1, 2, 3 and 6 only c) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 Correct Solution (d) Multi-dimensional Poverty Index The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index(MPI) has been developed by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) for the United Nations Development Programme . It is composed of ten indicators. Years of schooling and child enrollment (education); Child mortality and nutrition (health) Electricity, flooring, drinking water, sanitation, cooking fuel and assets (standard of living). Each education and health indicator has a 1/6 weight, each standard. So all the above-mentioned indicators are used in the Multi-dimensional Poverty Index (MPI). Incorrect Solution (d) Multi-dimensional Poverty Index The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index(MPI) has been developed by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) for the United Nations Development Programme . It is composed of ten indicators. Years of schooling and child enrollment (education); Child mortality and nutrition (health) Electricity, flooring, drinking water, sanitation, cooking fuel and assets (standard of living). Each education and health indicator has a 1/6 weight, each standard. So all the above-mentioned indicators are used in the Multi-dimensional Poverty Index (MPI). Question 4 of 35 4. Question There are various problems associated with urbanisation in India. So, which of the following recommendations can be incorporated for mitigating the adverse effects of urbanization in India? Activity mapping for local bodies. Populist policies to increase community participation Municipal bonds as the ratio of own revenue User charge fees for water supply Centralized planning Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1, 3 and 4 only c) 2, 4 and 5 only d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Correct Solution (b) Urbanization According to the census 2011 data 31% of the total population of India lives in urban areas. About 60% population of the country will live in cities by 2050 at current India’s rate of urbanization.   Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Statement 5 Correct Incorrect Correct Correct Incorrect The use of geographical information system to map all the properties in a city can have a huge impact on the assessment rate of properties that are not in the tax net Populist policies instead worsen the adverse effects of urbanization Municipal bonds are also famous, which work on the concept of pooled financing. There is a need to broaden the user charge fee for water supply, sewerage and garbage disposal. For financing urban projects The decentralized approach has proven to be helpful in mitigating the adverse impacts of urbanization. Incorrect Solution (b) Urbanization According to the census 2011 data 31% of the total population of India lives in urban areas. About 60% population of the country will live in cities by 2050 at current India’s rate of urbanization.   Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Statement 5 Correct Incorrect Correct Correct Incorrect The use of geographical information system to map all the properties in a city can have a huge impact on the assessment rate of properties that are not in the tax net Populist policies instead worsen the adverse effects of urbanization Municipal bonds are also famous, which work on the concept of pooled financing. There is a need to broaden the user charge fee for water supply, sewerage and garbage disposal. For financing urban projects The decentralized approach has proven to be helpful in mitigating the adverse impacts of urbanization. Question 5 of 35 5. Question Consider the following statements: In this type of village, the general living area is distinct and separated from surrounding farms and pastures. The close build-up area and its intervening streets present some recognizable pattern or geometric shape. This type of settlement sometimes forms for defence and security reasons. Such settlements are generally found in fertile alluvial plains. The above statements represent which of the following type of rural settlements in India? a) Hamletted settlement b) Dispersed settlement c) Semi-clustered settlement d) Clustered settlement. Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Correct Hamletted Settlements: Sometimes settlement is fragmented into several units physically separated from each other bearing a common name. These units are locally called Panna, Para, Palli, Nagla, Dhani, etc. in various parts of the country. Dispersed or isolated settlement pattern in India appears in the form of isolated huts or hamlets of few huts in remote jungles, or on small hills with farms or pasture on the slopes. Extreme dispersion of settlement is often caused by the extremely fragmented nature of the terrain and land resource base of habitable areas. Semi-clustered or fragmented settlements may result from tendency of clustering in a restricted area of dispersed settlement. More often such a pattern may also result from the segregation or fragmentation of a large compact village. The clustered rural settlement is a compact or closely built-up area of houses. In this type of village, the general living area is distinct and separated from the surrounding farms, barns and pastures. The closely built-up area and its intervening streets present some recognizable pattern or geometric shape, such as rectangular, radial, linear, etc. Such settlements are generally found in fertile alluvial plains and in the northeastern states. Sometimes, people live in a compact village for security or defence reasons, such as in the Bundelkhand region of central India and in Nagaland In Rajasthan, scarcity of water has necessitated compact settlement for maximum utilization of available water resources. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Correct Hamletted Settlements: Sometimes settlement is fragmented into several units physically separated from each other bearing a common name. These units are locally called Panna, Para, Palli, Nagla, Dhani, etc. in various parts of the country. Dispersed or isolated settlement pattern in India appears in the form of isolated huts or hamlets of few huts in remote jungles, or on small hills with farms or pasture on the slopes. Extreme dispersion of settlement is often caused by the extremely fragmented nature of the terrain and land resource base of habitable areas. Semi-clustered or fragmented settlements may result from tendency of clustering in a restricted area of dispersed settlement. More often such a pattern may also result from the segregation or fragmentation of a large compact village. The clustered rural settlement is a compact or closely built-up area of houses. In this type of village, the general living area is distinct and separated from the surrounding farms, barns and pastures. The closely built-up area and its intervening streets present some recognizable pattern or geometric shape, such as rectangular, radial, linear, etc. Such settlements are generally found in fertile alluvial plains and in the northeastern states. Sometimes, people live in a compact village for security or defence reasons, such as in the Bundelkhand region of central India and in Nagaland In Rajasthan, scarcity of water has necessitated compact settlement for maximum utilization of available water resources. Question 6 of 35 6. Question Which of the following is/are push factors for migration? Unpleasant climate Natural disasters and epidemics Better job opportunities Peace and stability Select the correct answer using the code given below. a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 and 4 only c) 3 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 and Statement 2 Statement 3 and Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Push factors are negative things that make people want to move to a new area. Reasons include less economic opportunities, poor living conditions, political turmoil, unpleasant climate, epidemics, natural disasters, etc. Pull factors are positive aspects that attract people to move to a place. It includes better job opportunities and living conditions, peace and stability, security of life and property, and a pleasant climate. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 and Statement 2 Statement 3 and Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Push factors are negative things that make people want to move to a new area. Reasons include less economic opportunities, poor living conditions, political turmoil, unpleasant climate, epidemics, natural disasters, etc. Pull factors are positive aspects that attract people to move to a place. It includes better job opportunities and living conditions, peace and stability, security of life and property, and a pleasant climate. Question 7 of 35 7. Question Consider the following pairs: Expansive pyramid – Populations with a large number of adults and a longer average life expectancy. Constrictive pyramid – Populations with high fertility rates and Below-average life expectancies. Stationary pyramids – Very even age/ sex distribution. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct These types of pyramids are usually found in populations with very large fertility rates and lower-than-average life expectancies. The age-sex distributions of Latin America and many Third World countries would probably display expansive population pyramids. These pyramids typically reflect populations with a large number of adults and a longer average life expectancy, like those found in the United States and some European countries. These pyramids usually reflect nations with a very even age/sex distribution. Several European countries fall under this population Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct These types of pyramids are usually found in populations with very large fertility rates and lower-than-average life expectancies. The age-sex distributions of Latin America and many Third World countries would probably display expansive population pyramids. These pyramids typically reflect populations with a large number of adults and a longer average life expectancy, like those found in the United States and some European countries. These pyramids usually reflect nations with a very even age/sex distribution. Several European countries fall under this population Question 8 of 35 8. Question Which of the following statements is/ are correct regarding the Census of India Act, 1948? Under this act central government can ask for the service of any citizen for census work. Every citizen of a country has to compulsorily answer the questions as a part of the census truthfully and honestly. It has provisions for penalties to punish false answers or not giving answers to the census questionnaire. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Census of India Act, 1948 It gives the central government powers to notify a date for census and to ask for the service of any citizen for census work. The act lays down those services of any citizen can be requisitioned for census work The Census of India Act, 1948 obligatory on every person occupying a house, enclosure etc. to allow access to census officers, It makes it compulsory for every citizen of a country to answer the questions as a part of census truthfully and honestly. It has provisions for penalties to punish false answers or not giving answers to the census questionnaire. According to it, the census records are not to be inspected and also, they are not admissible as evidence. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Census of India Act, 1948 It gives the central government powers to notify a date for census and to ask for the service of any citizen for census work. The act lays down those services of any citizen can be requisitioned for census work The Census of India Act, 1948 obligatory on every person occupying a house, enclosure etc. to allow access to census officers, It makes it compulsory for every citizen of a country to answer the questions as a part of census truthfully and honestly. It has provisions for penalties to punish false answers or not giving answers to the census questionnaire. According to it, the census records are not to be inspected and also, they are not admissible as evidence. Question 9 of 35 9. Question Which of the following is/are the government deficits in urban governance? Fragmented functional assignments resulting in unclear accountability at the city level. Inappropriately targeted inter-governmental transfers resulting in inadequate local government financial resources. Insufficient provision and maintenance of municipal services and networks. Accountability deficit in transparency. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1, 2 and 4 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution (d) According to the World Bank, the challenges in urban governance have arisen from the following governance deficits: Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct Empowerment deficit: Limited, overlapping and fragmented functional assignments resulting in unclear accountability at the city level. Resource deficit: Limited revenue-generation powers and inappropriately targeted intergovernmental transfers resulting in inadequate local government financial resources Delivery deficit: Insufficient provision and maintenance of municipal services and networks. Accountability deficit: Despite elections and the right to information, transparency structures, roles and mandates are unclear.   Incorrect Solution (d) According to the World Bank, the challenges in urban governance have arisen from the following governance deficits: Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct Empowerment deficit: Limited, overlapping and fragmented functional assignments resulting in unclear accountability at the city level. Resource deficit: Limited revenue-generation powers and inappropriately targeted intergovernmental transfers resulting in inadequate local government financial resources Delivery deficit: Insufficient provision and maintenance of municipal services and networks. Accountability deficit: Despite elections and the right to information, transparency structures, roles and mandates are unclear.   Question 10 of 35 10. Question Consider the following pairs: Age sex pyramid – Representative Population Triangular Pyramid with flat base: Expanding population Bell shaped pyramid: Declining population Narrow base with tapered top: Constant population How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) None Correct Solution (a) Age-Sex Pyramid: The age-sex structure of a population refers to the number of females and males in different age groups. A population pyramid is used to show the age-sex structure of the population. The shape of the population pyramid reflects the characteristics of the population. The left side shows the percentage of males while the right side shows the percentage of women in each age group. Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Expanding Populations: The age-sex pyramid of Nigeria for example is a triangular shaped pyramid with a wide base and is typical of less developed countries. These have larger populations in lower age groups due to high birth rates. Ex: Bangladesh and Mexico etc. Constant Population: In the case of Australia age-sex pyramid is bell shaped and tapered towards the top. This shows birth and death rates are almost equal leading to a near constant population. Declining Populations: The Japan pyramid has a narrow base and a tapered top showing low birth and death rates. The population growth in developed countries is usually zero or negative. Incorrect Solution (a) Age-Sex Pyramid: The age-sex structure of a population refers to the number of females and males in different age groups. A population pyramid is used to show the age-sex structure of the population. The shape of the population pyramid reflects the characteristics of the population. The left side shows the percentage of males while the right side shows the percentage of women in each age group. Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Expanding Populations: The age-sex pyramid of Nigeria for example is a triangular shaped pyramid with a wide base and is typical of less developed countries. These have larger populations in lower age groups due to high birth rates. Ex: Bangladesh and Mexico etc. Constant Population: In the case of Australia age-sex pyramid is bell shaped and tapered towards the top. This shows birth and death rates are almost equal leading to a near constant population. Declining Populations: The Japan pyramid has a narrow base and a tapered top showing low birth and death rates. The population growth in developed countries is usually zero or negative. Question 11 of 35 11. Question Majority of the population in India resides in rural areas. In this context consider the following statements associated with the concept of Rural settlements: Dispersed rural settlement demands that the farmer should live on his own land. Caste structure or a functional need of people decides the shape and size of rural settlements. A compact settlement is found on the highly productive alluvial plains of the country. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) As per the census, 2011 data about 69% of the total population in India resides in rural areas. Rural settlements are of 3 types: Compact, Semi-compact and dispersed. Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Dispersed settlements are generally found in hills, plateaus and grasslands. These are found in areas where it is essential that the farmer should live on his own land. Overpopulation is one of the reasons for dispersed settlement. Compact settlement is based on farming. These are mostly found in highly productive alluvial plains like Indo-Gangetic Plains, the Hwang Ho Valley and the Nile valley.   Socio-cultural factors like the caste structure of the people living in a village and the functional needs of the people also have a close bearing on the shapes and size of rural settlements. Incorrect Solution (c) As per the census, 2011 data about 69% of the total population in India resides in rural areas. Rural settlements are of 3 types: Compact, Semi-compact and dispersed. Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Dispersed settlements are generally found in hills, plateaus and grasslands. These are found in areas where it is essential that the farmer should live on his own land. Overpopulation is one of the reasons for dispersed settlement. Compact settlement is based on farming. These are mostly found in highly productive alluvial plains like Indo-Gangetic Plains, the Hwang Ho Valley and the Nile valley.   Socio-cultural factors like the caste structure of the people living in a village and the functional needs of the people also have a close bearing on the shapes and size of rural settlements. Question 12 of 35 12. Question Which of the following statements best represents the features and pattern of Indian urbanization? Lopsided urbanization induces the growth of class I cities. High decadal growth in urban population is attributed to large-scale migration from rural to urban area. In terms of the absolute number of persons living in urban areas, the maximum lives in Maharashtra state. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Following are the some basic feature of Urbanization in India: Lopsided urbanization induces the growth of class I cities. Urbanization occurs without industrialization and a strong economic base. Urbanization is mainly a product of demographic explosion and poverty-induced rural-urban migration. Rapid urbanization leads to the massive growth of slums followed by misery, poverty, unemployment, exploitation, inequalities, and degradation in the quality of urban life. Urbanization occurs not due to urban pull but due to rural push. Poor quality of rural-urban migration leads to poor quality of urbanization. Distress migration initiates urban decay. The decadal growth of 2001-11 suggests that there has been 31.80% growth in the urban population in contrast to only 12.18% in the rural population during the same time. This high urban growth is attributed to the large-scale rural-urban migration. Statement 3 is correct: In terms of the absolute number of persons living in urban areas, Maharashtra continues to lead with 50.8 million persons which comprise 13.5 per cent of the total urban population of the country. Uttar Pradesh accounts for about 44.4 million, followed by Tamil Nadu at 34.9 million Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Following are the some basic feature of Urbanization in India: Lopsided urbanization induces the growth of class I cities. Urbanization occurs without industrialization and a strong economic base. Urbanization is mainly a product of demographic explosion and poverty-induced rural-urban migration. Rapid urbanization leads to the massive growth of slums followed by misery, poverty, unemployment, exploitation, inequalities, and degradation in the quality of urban life. Urbanization occurs not due to urban pull but due to rural push. Poor quality of rural-urban migration leads to poor quality of urbanization. Distress migration initiates urban decay. The decadal growth of 2001-11 suggests that there has been 31.80% growth in the urban population in contrast to only 12.18% in the rural population during the same time. This high urban growth is attributed to the large-scale rural-urban migration. Statement 3 is correct: In terms of the absolute number of persons living in urban areas, Maharashtra continues to lead with 50.8 million persons which comprise 13.5 per cent of the total urban population of the country. Uttar Pradesh accounts for about 44.4 million, followed by Tamil Nadu at 34.9 million Question 13 of 35 13. Question Consider the following pairs related to rural settlement patterns: Settlement pattern                       Regions found Linear settlement pattern – along mountain ranges Rectangular Pattern – an agricultural area Radial pattern – for defence purpose How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Linear pattern: In such settlement’s houses are located along a road, railway line, river, canal edge of a valley or along a levee. Rectangular area: Such patterns of rural settlements are found in plain areas, agricultural area and wide intermontane valleys. The roads are rectangular and cut each other at right angles. Radial Pattern: In this type, a number of streets converge in one centre which may be a source of water (pond, well), a temple or mosque, a centre of commercial activity or simply an open space. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Linear pattern: In such settlement’s houses are located along a road, railway line, river, canal edge of a valley or along a levee. Rectangular area: Such patterns of rural settlements are found in plain areas, agricultural area and wide intermontane valleys. The roads are rectangular and cut each other at right angles. Radial Pattern: In this type, a number of streets converge in one centre which may be a source of water (pond, well), a temple or mosque, a centre of commercial activity or simply an open space. Question 14 of 35 14. Question India is home to the three big religions of the world: Hindu, Islam and Christianity, and ‘other religions. In light of this, consider the following statements: India has the highest percentage of the Muslim population in the world. India has about 99% of the Hindu population of the world. India has the largest share of all members of the ‘other religions of the world. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct India has the 2nd percentage of the Muslim population in the world after Indonesia. 13% live in Indonesia and 11% live in India. 3 countries India, Mauritius and Nepal together have 97% of the Hindu population of the world. One interesting fact is that Nepal’s 81.3% population is Hindu while India’s 80.5% population is Hindu. India has the largest share of all members of other religions of the world (47%) including Sikhs and Jains. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct India has the 2nd percentage of the Muslim population in the world after Indonesia. 13% live in Indonesia and 11% live in India. 3 countries India, Mauritius and Nepal together have 97% of the Hindu population of the world. One interesting fact is that Nepal’s 81.3% population is Hindu while India’s 80.5% population is Hindu. India has the largest share of all members of other religions of the world (47%) including Sikhs and Jains. Question 15 of 35 15. Question Which of the following pairs of tribes is/are correctly matched? Malasar tribe – Andhra Pradesh Jatapu tribes – Kerala PahadiKorva tribes – Chhattisgarh Asur tribe – Jharkhand How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Correct Malasar Tribe – Kerala Malasar is a designated Scheduled Tribe in the Indian states of Kerala and Tamil Nadu. The Malasar are one of the earliest known inhabitants of the Western Ghats, in Anaimalai Hills. Malasar is an unclassified Southern Dravidian language spoken by a Scheduled tribe of India. Jatapu Tribe – Andhra Pradesh The Jatapu people are designated Scheduled Tribe in the Indian states of Andhra Pradesh and Odisha Jatapus are an Adivasi tribe and are traditionally pastoral farmers. Through acculturation, the Jatapus speak Telugu and have in many ways adopted the culture of the surrounding Telugu people. PahadiKorva tribes Chattisgarh The Korwa people are a Munda, a Scheduled Tribe ethnic group of India. They live mainly on the border between Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand. A small number of Korwa are also found in the Mirzapur district of Uttar Pradesh. The Government has implemented several facilities for them, such as roads to their settlements, boys’ hostels for education, providing agricultural aid, etc. They are a hunter-gatherer community. The tribe is divided into several subdivisions: the Agaria, Dandh, Dil and Pahadi Koreas Asur tribe Jharkhand Asur people are a very small Austroasiatic ethnic group living primarily in the Indian state of Jharkhand, mostly in the Gumla, Lohardaga, Palamu and Latehar districts. They speak Asur language, which belongs to Munda family of Austro-asiatic languages Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Correct Malasar Tribe – Kerala Malasar is a designated Scheduled Tribe in the Indian states of Kerala and Tamil Nadu. The Malasar are one of the earliest known inhabitants of the Western Ghats, in Anaimalai Hills. Malasar is an unclassified Southern Dravidian language spoken by a Scheduled tribe of India. Jatapu Tribe – Andhra Pradesh The Jatapu people are designated Scheduled Tribe in the Indian states of Andhra Pradesh and Odisha Jatapus are an Adivasi tribe and are traditionally pastoral farmers. Through acculturation, the Jatapus speak Telugu and have in many ways adopted the culture of the surrounding Telugu people. PahadiKorva tribes Chattisgarh The Korwa people are a Munda, a Scheduled Tribe ethnic group of India. They live mainly on the border between Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand. A small number of Korwa are also found in the Mirzapur district of Uttar Pradesh. The Government has implemented several facilities for them, such as roads to their settlements, boys’ hostels for education, providing agricultural aid, etc. They are a hunter-gatherer community. The tribe is divided into several subdivisions: the Agaria, Dandh, Dil and Pahadi Koreas Asur tribe Jharkhand Asur people are a very small Austroasiatic ethnic group living primarily in the Indian state of Jharkhand, mostly in the Gumla, Lohardaga, Palamu and Latehar districts. They speak Asur language, which belongs to Munda family of Austro-asiatic languages Question 16 of 35 16. Question Consider the following statements concerning mineral reserves in India The peninsular rocks contain most of the reserves of coal in India Sedimentary rocks on the Western and Eastern flanks of the peninsula, in Gujarat and Assam have most of the petroleum deposits in India The vast alluvial plains of North India contain huge reserves of economic minerals How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) India is fortunate to have fairly rich and varied mineral resources. However, these are unevenly distributed. Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Peninsular rocks contain most of the reserves of coal(mostly bituminous) metallic minerals, mica, and many other non-metallic minerals. Sedimentary rocks on the Western and Eastern flanks of the peninsula, in Gujarat and Assam, have most of the petroleum deposits. In Assam petroleum reserves can be found around the Digboi region and  Ankleshwar and Khambhat are two major areas in western India. The vast alluvial plains of North India are almost devoid of economic minerals. These variations exist largely because of the differences in the geological structure, processes, and time involved in the formation of minerals. Also the alluvial plains being the youngest geological structure keeps getting covered with alluvium leaving very little scope for Mineral formation. Incorrect Solution (b) India is fortunate to have fairly rich and varied mineral resources. However, these are unevenly distributed. Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Peninsular rocks contain most of the reserves of coal(mostly bituminous) metallic minerals, mica, and many other non-metallic minerals. Sedimentary rocks on the Western and Eastern flanks of the peninsula, in Gujarat and Assam, have most of the petroleum deposits. In Assam petroleum reserves can be found around the Digboi region and  Ankleshwar and Khambhat are two major areas in western India. The vast alluvial plains of North India are almost devoid of economic minerals. These variations exist largely because of the differences in the geological structure, processes, and time involved in the formation of minerals. Also the alluvial plains being the youngest geological structure keeps getting covered with alluvium leaving very little scope for Mineral formation. Question 17 of 35 17. Question The process of ‘sub-urbanisation’ is related to: a) Mushrooming of slums in urban areas. b) Construction of planned gated communities within urban areas for middle- and upper-class people. c) People moving away from congested urban areas to cleaner areas outside the city for better quality of living. d) Emergence of mega cities or megalopolis. Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Incorrect This is referred to as Ghettoization. This refers to an isolated and underprivileged urban area. It refers to the segregation/isolation of a group and placement of that group into a figurative or literal position of little power which leads to mushrooming if urban settlements. A gated community (or walled community) is a form of residential community or housing estate containing strictly controlled entrances for pedestrians, bicycles, and automobiles, and often characterized by a closed perimeter of walls and fences. Sub Urbanisation is a new trend of people moving away from congested urban areas to cleaner areas outside the city in search of a better quality of living. Important suburbs develop around major cities and everyday thousands of people commute from their homes in the suburbs to their work places in the city. Like in case of Delhi, people residing in Gautam Buddha Nagar (Noida) and commuting everyday to work in their offices based in Delhi. Megalopolis: This Greek word meaning “great city”, was popularised by Jean Gottman (1957) and signifies ‘super- metropolitan’ region extending, as union of conurbations. The urban landscape stretching from Boston in the north to south of Washington in U.S.A. is the best known example of a megalopolis. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Incorrect This is referred to as Ghettoization. This refers to an isolated and underprivileged urban area. It refers to the segregation/isolation of a group and placement of that group into a figurative or literal position of little power which leads to mushrooming if urban settlements. A gated community (or walled community) is a form of residential community or housing estate containing strictly controlled entrances for pedestrians, bicycles, and automobiles, and often characterized by a closed perimeter of walls and fences. Sub Urbanisation is a new trend of people moving away from congested urban areas to cleaner areas outside the city in search of a better quality of living. Important suburbs develop around major cities and everyday thousands of people commute from their homes in the suburbs to their work places in the city. Like in case of Delhi, people residing in Gautam Buddha Nagar (Noida) and commuting everyday to work in their offices based in Delhi. Megalopolis: This Greek word meaning “great city”, was popularised by Jean Gottman (1957) and signifies ‘super- metropolitan’ region extending, as union of conurbations. The urban landscape stretching from Boston in the north to south of Washington in U.S.A. is the best known example of a megalopolis. Question 18 of 35 18. Question Consider the following pairs Mines        Minerals Kudremukh – Bauxite Khetri – Copper Sundergarh – Iron Bilaspur – Manganese Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 2 only Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Incorrect The Ballari-Chitradurga-Chikkamagaluru-Tumakuru belt in Karnataka has large reserves of iron ore. The Kudremukh mines located in the Western Ghats of Karnataka are a 100 percent export unit. Kudremukh deposits are known to be one of the largest in the world. The ore is transported as slurry through a pipeline to a port near Mangaluru.   The Balaghat mines in Madhya Pradesh, the Khetri mines in Rajasthan and the Singhbhum district of Jharkhand are leading producers of copper. Sundergarh mines in the state of Odisha is one of the important mines for manganese deposits. India’s bauxite deposits are mainly found in the Amarkantak plateau, Maikal hills, and the plateau region of Bilaspur-Katni Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Incorrect The Ballari-Chitradurga-Chikkamagaluru-Tumakuru belt in Karnataka has large reserves of iron ore. The Kudremukh mines located in the Western Ghats of Karnataka are a 100 percent export unit. Kudremukh deposits are known to be one of the largest in the world. The ore is transported as slurry through a pipeline to a port near Mangaluru.   The Balaghat mines in Madhya Pradesh, the Khetri mines in Rajasthan and the Singhbhum district of Jharkhand are leading producers of copper. Sundergarh mines in the state of Odisha is one of the important mines for manganese deposits. India’s bauxite deposits are mainly found in the Amarkantak plateau, Maikal hills, and the plateau region of Bilaspur-Katni Question 19 of 35 19. Question Which of the following statements is/are a correct representation of the population density pattern of the world? Physiological density refers to the total population of an area divided by total arable land. North-East USA and Europe, and South and Southeast Asia have high population densities. Rainfall zones of the equator and West Australia represent a sparse population density pattern. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Population density refers to the ratio of the number of people to the size of land.  95% of the world’s population is concentrated on just 10% of the world’s land. Arithmetic Density- Total Population of an area divided by the total area of the land they inhabit. Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Physiological density = Total population of area divided by total arable land Northeast USA has a very high population density. While the Southeast specialized in cultivating cash crops (especially cotton) for export to Europe, the Northeast industrialized, and its cities grew rapidly. The Equator and West Australia represent sparse population density patterns. Incorrect Solution (c) Population density refers to the ratio of the number of people to the size of land.  95% of the world’s population is concentrated on just 10% of the world’s land. Arithmetic Density- Total Population of an area divided by the total area of the land they inhabit. Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Physiological density = Total population of area divided by total arable land Northeast USA has a very high population density. While the Southeast specialized in cultivating cash crops (especially cotton) for export to Europe, the Northeast industrialized, and its cities grew rapidly. The Equator and West Australia represent sparse population density patterns. Question 20 of 35 20. Question Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Placer deposits’ These are the minerals that occur as alluvial deposits in the sands of valley floors and the base of hills These deposits generally contain minerals, which are not corroded by water Tin is one of the important minerals found in Placer deposits How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Explanation: Minerals generally occur in various forms In igneous and metamorphic rocks minerals may occur in the cracks, crevices, faults, or joints. In most cases, they are formed when minerals in liquid/ molten and gaseous forms are forced upward through cavities toward the earth’s surface. In sedimentary rocks several minerals occur in beds or layers. They have been formed as a result of deposition, accumulation, and concentration in horizontal strata. Other groups of sedimentary minerals include gypsum, potash salt, and sodium salt. These are formed as a result of evaporation, especially in arid regions. Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Placer Deposits minerals occur as alluvial deposits in the sands of valley floors and the base of the hills. Minerals that form placer deposits have high specific gravity, are chemically resistant to weathering, and are durable. The deposits  called ‘placer deposits’ generally contain minerals, which are not corroded by water The most important among such minerals are such minerals include gold, platinum, cassiterite, magnetite, chromite, ilmenite, rutile, native copper, zircon, monazite, tin  and various gemstones.   Incorrect Solution (c) Explanation: Minerals generally occur in various forms In igneous and metamorphic rocks minerals may occur in the cracks, crevices, faults, or joints. In most cases, they are formed when minerals in liquid/ molten and gaseous forms are forced upward through cavities toward the earth’s surface. In sedimentary rocks several minerals occur in beds or layers. They have been formed as a result of deposition, accumulation, and concentration in horizontal strata. Other groups of sedimentary minerals include gypsum, potash salt, and sodium salt. These are formed as a result of evaporation, especially in arid regions. Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Placer Deposits minerals occur as alluvial deposits in the sands of valley floors and the base of the hills. Minerals that form placer deposits have high specific gravity, are chemically resistant to weathering, and are durable. The deposits  called ‘placer deposits’ generally contain minerals, which are not corroded by water The most important among such minerals are such minerals include gold, platinum, cassiterite, magnetite, chromite, ilmenite, rutile, native copper, zircon, monazite, tin  and various gemstones.   Question 21 of 35 21. Question Which of the following is correct regarding the ‘Wheat Blast Disease’ (WB)? a) It is a highly destructive bacterial infection that primarily affects wheat crops. b) It is a highly destructive fungal infection that primarily affects wheat crops. c) It is a highly destructive viral infection that primarily affects wheat crops. d) None Correct Solution (b) Wheat blast disease is a highly destructive fungal infection that primarily affects wheat crops. It is caused by the fungus Magnaporthe oryzae pathotype Triticum (MoT). It poses a significant threat to food security and safety, particularly in tropical regions of South America and South Asia. Hence option b is correct.   Incorrect Solution (b) Wheat blast disease is a highly destructive fungal infection that primarily affects wheat crops. It is caused by the fungus Magnaporthe oryzae pathotype Triticum (MoT). It poses a significant threat to food security and safety, particularly in tropical regions of South America and South Asia. Hence option b is correct.   Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements regarding the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976: It added three new words – socialist, secular, and integrity in the Preamble. It provided for administrative tribunals and tribunals for other matters. It curtailed the power of judicial review and writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and high courts. It shifted five subjects from the state list to the concurrent list – education, forests, protection of wild animals and birds, weights and measures and administration of justice, constitution, and organisation of all courts except the Supreme Court and the high courts. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 made the following provisions: It added three new words – socialist, secular, and integrity in the Preamble. It provided for administrative tribunals and tribunals for other matters. It curtailed the power of judicial review and writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and high courts. It shifted five subjects from the state list to the concurrent list – education, forests, protection of wild animals and birds, weights and measures and administration of justice, constitution, and organisation of all courts except the Supreme Court and the high courts. It empowered the Parliament to decide from time to time the rights and privileges of its members and committees. It provided for the creation of the All-India Judicial Service. It shortened the procedure for disciplinary action by taking away the right of a civil servant to make representation at the second stage after the inquiry (i.e., on the penalty proposed). It empowered the centre to deploy its armed forces in any state to deal with a grave situation of law and order. It facilitated the proclamation of a national emergency in a part of the territory of India. It extended the one-time duration of the President’s rule in a state from 6 months to one year. It added three new Directive Principles viz., equal justice and free legal aid, the participation of workers in the management of industries, and protection of the environment, forests, and wildlife. It provided that the laws made for the implementation of Directive Principles cannot be declared invalid by the courts on the grounds of violation of some Fundamental Rights. Hence option d is correct. Incorrect Solution (d) The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 made the following provisions: It added three new words – socialist, secular, and integrity in the Preamble. It provided for administrative tribunals and tribunals for other matters. It curtailed the power of judicial review and writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and high courts. It shifted five subjects from the state list to the concurrent list – education, forests, protection of wild animals and birds, weights and measures and administration of justice, constitution, and organisation of all courts except the Supreme Court and the high courts. It empowered the Parliament to decide from time to time the rights and privileges of its members and committees. It provided for the creation of the All-India Judicial Service. It shortened the procedure for disciplinary action by taking away the right of a civil servant to make representation at the second stage after the inquiry (i.e., on the penalty proposed). It empowered the centre to deploy its armed forces in any state to deal with a grave situation of law and order. It facilitated the proclamation of a national emergency in a part of the territory of India. It extended the one-time duration of the President’s rule in a state from 6 months to one year. It added three new Directive Principles viz., equal justice and free legal aid, the participation of workers in the management of industries, and protection of the environment, forests, and wildlife. It provided that the laws made for the implementation of Directive Principles cannot be declared invalid by the courts on the grounds of violation of some Fundamental Rights. Hence option d is correct. Question 23 of 35 23. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Cassini Spacecraft: It consisted of NASA’s Cassini orbiter, which was the first space probe to orbit Saturn. It consisted of the ESA’s Huygens probe, which landed on Titan, Jupiter’s largest moon. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Cassini-Huygens was a joint NASA/European Space Agency (ESA)/Italian Space Agency (ASI) space mission to Saturn. It was launched on October 15, 1997. The Cassini Spacecraft consisted of NASA’s Cassini orbiter, which was the first space probe to orbit Saturn. Hence statement 1 is correct. The Cassini orbiter weighed 2,125 kg (4,685 pounds) and was 6.7 metres (22 feet) long and 4 metres (13 feet) wide. The instruments on board Cassini included radar to map the cloud-covered surface of Titan and a magnetometer to study Saturn’s magnetic field. The disk-shaped Huygens probe was mounted on the side of Cassini. It weighed 349 kg (769 pounds), was 2.7 metres (8.9 feet) across, and carried six instruments designed to study the atmosphere and surface of Titan. It consisted of the ESA’s Huygens probe, which landed on Titan, Saturn’s largest moon. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It orbited Saturn from 2004 to 2017, circling the planet 294 times and teaching us almost everything we know about Saturn. It measured the structure of Saturn’s atmosphere and rings, as well as how they interact with the planet’s moons. It also discovered six named moons and revealed Enceladus and Titan as promising locations to search for extraterrestrial life. Incorrect Solution (a) Cassini-Huygens was a joint NASA/European Space Agency (ESA)/Italian Space Agency (ASI) space mission to Saturn. It was launched on October 15, 1997. The Cassini Spacecraft consisted of NASA’s Cassini orbiter, which was the first space probe to orbit Saturn. Hence statement 1 is correct. The Cassini orbiter weighed 2,125 kg (4,685 pounds) and was 6.7 metres (22 feet) long and 4 metres (13 feet) wide. The instruments on board Cassini included radar to map the cloud-covered surface of Titan and a magnetometer to study Saturn’s magnetic field. The disk-shaped Huygens probe was mounted on the side of Cassini. It weighed 349 kg (769 pounds), was 2.7 metres (8.9 feet) across, and carried six instruments designed to study the atmosphere and surface of Titan. It consisted of the ESA’s Huygens probe, which landed on Titan, Saturn’s largest moon. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It orbited Saturn from 2004 to 2017, circling the planet 294 times and teaching us almost everything we know about Saturn. It measured the structure of Saturn’s atmosphere and rings, as well as how they interact with the planet’s moons. It also discovered six named moons and revealed Enceladus and Titan as promising locations to search for extraterrestrial life. Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Baltic Sea: It is a semi-enclosed inland sea located in Northern Europe. It is connected to the North Sea’s German Bight via the White Sea Canal. It connects to the Atlantic Ocean through the Danish Straits. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Baltic Sea is a semi-enclosed inland sea located in Northern Europe. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is an arm of the North Atlantic Ocean, extending northward from the latitude of southern Denmark almost to the Arctic Circle and separating the Scandinavian Peninsula from the rest of continental Europe. It has a coastline of approximately 8,000 km, shared by several countries, including Sweden, Poland, Lithuania, Latvia, Finland, Estonia, Germany, Denmark, and Russia. It is connected to the North Sea’s German Bight via the Kiel Canal. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It is connected to the White Sea via the White Sea Canal. The Baltic Sea contains three major gulfs: the Gulf of Bothnia to the north, the Gulf of Finland to the east, and the Gulf of Riga slightly to the south. It connects to the Atlantic Ocean through the Danish Straits. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is often cited as the world’s largest brackish inland water body. Its water salinity levels are lower than that of the World Oceans due to the inflow of fresh water from the surrounding land and the sea’s shallowness. Incorrect Solution (b) The Baltic Sea is a semi-enclosed inland sea located in Northern Europe. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is an arm of the North Atlantic Ocean, extending northward from the latitude of southern Denmark almost to the Arctic Circle and separating the Scandinavian Peninsula from the rest of continental Europe. It has a coastline of approximately 8,000 km, shared by several countries, including Sweden, Poland, Lithuania, Latvia, Finland, Estonia, Germany, Denmark, and Russia. It is connected to the North Sea’s German Bight via the Kiel Canal. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It is connected to the White Sea via the White Sea Canal. The Baltic Sea contains three major gulfs: the Gulf of Bothnia to the north, the Gulf of Finland to the east, and the Gulf of Riga slightly to the south. It connects to the Atlantic Ocean through the Danish Straits. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is often cited as the world’s largest brackish inland water body. Its water salinity levels are lower than that of the World Oceans due to the inflow of fresh water from the surrounding land and the sea’s shallowness. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements regarding Micellar Water: It contains micelles which are formed by special molecules known as surfactants. It contains clusters of molecules that are very effective at removing oily substances. It is used as a skincare product that helps remove impurities and makeup from your skin. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Micellar Water contains micelles which are formed by special molecules known as surfactants. Hence statement 1 is correct. The compounds that lower the surface tension between two phases, like between two liquids, a gas and a liquid, or a liquid and a solid are called surface active agents or surfactants. These micelles have a hydrophilic exterior, meaning that they are very happy to remain mixed throughout the water. It contains clusters of molecules that are very effective at removing oily substances. Hence statement 2 is correct. When you apply some micellar water to a cotton pad, another convenient interaction occurs. Wet cotton is hydrophilic (loves water). Consequently, some of the micelles will unravel, with the hydrophilic heads being attracted to the wet cotton pad. Now, sticking out from the surface will be a layer of hydrophobic tail groups. These hydrophobic tails cannot wait to attract themselves to makeup, sunscreen, oils, dirt, grease, and other contaminants on your face. As you sweep the cotton pad across your skin, these contaminants bind to the hydrophobic tails and are removed from the skin. It is used as a skincare product that helps remove impurities and makeup from your skin. Hence statement 3 is correct.   Incorrect Solution (c) Micellar Water contains micelles which are formed by special molecules known as surfactants. Hence statement 1 is correct. The compounds that lower the surface tension between two phases, like between two liquids, a gas and a liquid, or a liquid and a solid are called surface active agents or surfactants. These micelles have a hydrophilic exterior, meaning that they are very happy to remain mixed throughout the water. It contains clusters of molecules that are very effective at removing oily substances. Hence statement 2 is correct. When you apply some micellar water to a cotton pad, another convenient interaction occurs. Wet cotton is hydrophilic (loves water). Consequently, some of the micelles will unravel, with the hydrophilic heads being attracted to the wet cotton pad. Now, sticking out from the surface will be a layer of hydrophobic tail groups. These hydrophobic tails cannot wait to attract themselves to makeup, sunscreen, oils, dirt, grease, and other contaminants on your face. As you sweep the cotton pad across your skin, these contaminants bind to the hydrophobic tails and are removed from the skin. It is used as a skincare product that helps remove impurities and makeup from your skin. Hence statement 3 is correct.   Question 26 of 35 26. Question Consider the following statements regarding the National Generic Document Registration System: It is a common, generic, and configurable application developed for registration departments across the country. It is initiated by the Department of Land Resources, Ministry of Home Affairs. It facilitates states to create state-specific instances and configure the software as per requirements. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The National Generic Document Registration System (NGDRS) is a common, generic, and configurable application developed for registration departments across the country. Hence statement 1 is correct. The NGDRS application is developed by the National Informatics Centre in Pune. It is initiated by the Department of Land Resources, Ministry of Rural Development. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The application is specifically designed for the use of sub-registrars, citizens, and apex users from registration departments. It offers a complete user interface for property and document registration, the application enables citizens to proceed with land buying online. They can find out the circle rate for land, calculate property valuation as per prevailing rates, and understand the type of land. Transactions of prohibited properties are restricted for sale like government land, tribal land, mortgaged land, etc., and are also available, which ultimately helps them decide where and what type of land they should buy. Thereafter, they can apply online for document submission, make instant payments, and take prior appointments. It facilitates states to create state-specific instances and configure the software as per requirements. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) The National Generic Document Registration System (NGDRS) is a common, generic, and configurable application developed for registration departments across the country. Hence statement 1 is correct. The NGDRS application is developed by the National Informatics Centre in Pune. It is initiated by the Department of Land Resources, Ministry of Rural Development. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The application is specifically designed for the use of sub-registrars, citizens, and apex users from registration departments. It offers a complete user interface for property and document registration, the application enables citizens to proceed with land buying online. They can find out the circle rate for land, calculate property valuation as per prevailing rates, and understand the type of land. Transactions of prohibited properties are restricted for sale like government land, tribal land, mortgaged land, etc., and are also available, which ultimately helps them decide where and what type of land they should buy. Thereafter, they can apply online for document submission, make instant payments, and take prior appointments. It facilitates states to create state-specific instances and configure the software as per requirements. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements regarding ‘Brumation’: It describes a period of dormancy or slowed activity in reptiles. It typically occurs during warmer months, when temperatures rise. It allows reptiles to conserve energy and minimise their resource requirements. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Brumation describes a period of dormancy or slowed activity in reptiles. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is much like hibernation in mammals. Brumation is crucial for reptiles to survive cold climates and endure challenging environmental conditions until they can re-emerge to feed and reproduce in more favourable climes. It typically occurs during colder months, when temperatures drop. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. During brumation, reptiles may retreat to underground burrows, rock crevices, or other sheltered areas where temperatures are relatively more stable. Their metabolism slows significantly, allowing them to go weeks or even months without eating. It allows reptiles to conserve energy and minimise their resource requirements. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) Brumation describes a period of dormancy or slowed activity in reptiles. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is much like hibernation in mammals. Brumation is crucial for reptiles to survive cold climates and endure challenging environmental conditions until they can re-emerge to feed and reproduce in more favourable climes. It typically occurs during colder months, when temperatures drop. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. During brumation, reptiles may retreat to underground burrows, rock crevices, or other sheltered areas where temperatures are relatively more stable. Their metabolism slows significantly, allowing them to go weeks or even months without eating. It allows reptiles to conserve energy and minimise their resource requirements. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 28 of 35 28. Question Consider the following statements: A bond is a fixed-income instrument that represents a loan made by an investor to a borrower for a set period of time in return for regular interest payments. The time from when the bond is issued to when the borrower has agreed to pay the loan back is called its ‘term to maturity’. Bond Yield is the return an investor expects to receive each year over its term to maturity. As the price of a bond goes up, its yield goes down, and as yield goes up, the price of the bond goes down. Choose the correct code: a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) A bond is a fixed-income instrument that represents a loan made by an investor to a borrower for a set period of time in return for regular interest payments. Hence statement 1 is correct. The time from when the bond is issued to when the borrower has agreed to pay the loan back is called its ‘term to maturity’. Hence statement 2 is correct. The bond issuer uses the money raised from bonds to undertake various activities, such as funding expansion projects, refinancing existing debt, undertaking welfare activities, etc. Bond Yield is the return an investor expects to receive each year over its term to maturity. Hence statement 3 is correct. It partially depends on coupon payments, which refer to the periodic interest income obtained as a reward for holding bonds. The bondholders receive the bond’s face value at the end of the bond’s life. However, one may buy bonds at par value, discount (at a price lower than par value), or premium (at a price higher than par value) as they trade in the secondary market. Therefore, the prevailing market price of bonds also affects the bond yield. As the price of a bond goes up, its yield goes down, and as yield goes up, the price of the bond goes down. Hence statement 4 is correct. Incorrect Solution (d) A bond is a fixed-income instrument that represents a loan made by an investor to a borrower for a set period of time in return for regular interest payments. Hence statement 1 is correct. The time from when the bond is issued to when the borrower has agreed to pay the loan back is called its ‘term to maturity’. Hence statement 2 is correct. The bond issuer uses the money raised from bonds to undertake various activities, such as funding expansion projects, refinancing existing debt, undertaking welfare activities, etc. Bond Yield is the return an investor expects to receive each year over its term to maturity. Hence statement 3 is correct. It partially depends on coupon payments, which refer to the periodic interest income obtained as a reward for holding bonds. The bondholders receive the bond’s face value at the end of the bond’s life. However, one may buy bonds at par value, discount (at a price lower than par value), or premium (at a price higher than par value) as they trade in the secondary market. Therefore, the prevailing market price of bonds also affects the bond yield. As the price of a bond goes up, its yield goes down, and as yield goes up, the price of the bond goes down. Hence statement 4 is correct. Question 29 of 35 29. Question Consider the following statements regarding ‘Hastsal Minar’: Its construction was finished during the reign of Mughal emperor Akbar. It was constructed using lakhori bricks and clad with red sandstone. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Hastsal Minar construction was finished during the reign of Mughal emperor Shah Jahan. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is located in a small village in western Delhi. It is also known as Mini Qutab Minar. Among the locals, it is also known as Hastsal Ki Laat and Kaushal Minar. It was constructed using lakhori bricks and clad with red sandstone. Hence statement 2 is correct. The minar is 17 metres (five storeys) tall, standing on a square platform, and with an octagonal body. A staircase inside the five-storey tower led to the domed Chhatri pavilion at the top. It has three storeys, each with a reducing diameter, and is accessible through a narrow staircase Shah Jahan utilised Hastsal as one of his hunting lodges during the 17th century. Incorrect Solution (b) Hastsal Minar construction was finished during the reign of Mughal emperor Shah Jahan. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is located in a small village in western Delhi. It is also known as Mini Qutab Minar. Among the locals, it is also known as Hastsal Ki Laat and Kaushal Minar. It was constructed using lakhori bricks and clad with red sandstone. Hence statement 2 is correct. The minar is 17 metres (five storeys) tall, standing on a square platform, and with an octagonal body. A staircase inside the five-storey tower led to the domed Chhatri pavilion at the top. It has three storeys, each with a reducing diameter, and is accessible through a narrow staircase Shah Jahan utilised Hastsal as one of his hunting lodges during the 17th century. Question 30 of 35 30. Question It is the smallest tiger reserve in India by area located in the Wardha District of Maharashtra. It is a wildlife sanctuary which was declared a tiger reserve in July 2014. The above paragraph is related to which tiger reserve? a) Bor Tiger Reserve b) Satpura Tiger Reserve c) Pench Tiger Reserve d) Melghat Tiger Reserve Correct Solution (a) Bor Tiger Reserve is the smallest tiger reserve in India by area located in the Wardha District of Maharashtra. It is a wildlife sanctuary which was declared a tiger reserve in July 2014. It is centrally located among several other Bengal Tiger habitats. Towards the northeast lies the Pench Tiger Reserve, towards the east is Nagzira Navegaon Tiger Reserve, and to the southeast is Karhandla Wildlife Sanctuary. The Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve is located to the southeast, the Melghat Tiger Reserve stands to the west, and the Satpura Tiger Reserve lies to the northwest. The area is populated by dry deciduous forest types. Hence option a is correct. Incorrect Solution (a) Bor Tiger Reserve is the smallest tiger reserve in India by area located in the Wardha District of Maharashtra. It is a wildlife sanctuary which was declared a tiger reserve in July 2014. It is centrally located among several other Bengal Tiger habitats. Towards the northeast lies the Pench Tiger Reserve, towards the east is Nagzira Navegaon Tiger Reserve, and to the southeast is Karhandla Wildlife Sanctuary. The Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve is located to the southeast, the Melghat Tiger Reserve stands to the west, and the Satpura Tiger Reserve lies to the northwest. The area is populated by dry deciduous forest types. Hence option a is correct. Question 31 of 35 31. Question A simple mathematical operation with respect to the difference between cube and square in each number results in a sequence 4, 18, 48, 100, 180, 294, ….. . Which one of the following is the next number in the sequence? a) 512 b) 500 c) 448 d) 440 Correct Solution (c) As per the given condition in question: 23 – 22 = 8 – 4 = 4 33 – 32 = 27 – 9 = 18 43 – 42 = 64 – 16 = 48 53 – 52 = 125 – 25 = 100 63 – 62 = 216 – 36 = 180 73 – 72 = 343 – 49 = 294 83 – 82 = 512 – 64 = 448 Next number is 448 Hence, option (c) is the correct answer. Incorrect Solution (c) As per the given condition in question: 23 – 22 = 8 – 4 = 4 33 – 32 = 27 – 9 = 18 43 – 42 = 64 – 16 = 48 53 – 52 = 125 – 25 = 100 63 – 62 = 216 – 36 = 180 73 – 72 = 343 – 49 = 294 83 – 82 = 512 – 64 = 448 Next number is 448 Hence, option (c) is the correct answer. Question 32 of 35 32. Question A number n > 7 is divisible by 7 but not divisible by 14. Which one of the following is divisible by 11? a) 2n b) 3n c) 2n + 1 d) 3n + 3 Correct Solution (d) Given that n is a number greater than 7, and is divisible by 7 but not divisible by 14. Let n = 21 Now checking with options, (a) 2n = 2 × 21 = 42, which is not divisible by 11. (b) 3n = 3 × 21 = 63, which is not divisible by 11. (c) 2n + 1 = 2 × 21 + 1 = 43, which is not divisible by 11. (d) 3n + 3 = 3 × 21 + 3 = 66, which is divisible by 11. Hence, the correct answer is option (d). Incorrect Solution (d) Given that n is a number greater than 7, and is divisible by 7 but not divisible by 14. Let n = 21 Now checking with options, (a) 2n = 2 × 21 = 42, which is not divisible by 11. (b) 3n = 3 × 21 = 63, which is not divisible by 11. (c) 2n + 1 = 2 × 21 + 1 = 43, which is not divisible by 11. (d) 3n + 3 = 3 × 21 + 3 = 66, which is divisible by 11. Hence, the correct answer is option (d). Question 33 of 35 33. Question Consider the following information: P is a perfect number and numbers a, b, c and d are all the possible factors of number P. Sum of a, b, c and d is equal to p Sum of a, b, c and d is equal to 2p Which of the above is/are true? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 1 and 2 only d) None of the above Correct Solution (b) A number for which sum of all its factors is equal to twice the number is called a perfect number. Incorrect Solution (b) A number for which sum of all its factors is equal to twice the number is called a perfect number. Question 34 of 35 34. Question Madhavi’s salary is 75% more than Kamal’s. Madhavi got a raise of 40% on her salary while Kamal got a raise of 25% on her salary. By what percent is Madhavi’s salary more than Kamal’s? a) 96% b) 93% c) 55.6% d) 52.1% Correct Solution (a) Let Kamal’s salary = 100; Kamal’s salary after rise = 125 Then Madhavi’s salary = 175 Madhavi’s salary after rise of 40% = 245 [As 10% of Madhavi’s salary is 17.5 then 40% = 17.5 × 4 = 70] Difference between Madhavi’s salary and Kamal’s salary = 245 – 125 = 120 % more Madhavi’s salary than Kamal’s = ((120*100)/125) = 96% Incorrect Solution (a) Let Kamal’s salary = 100; Kamal’s salary after rise = 125 Then Madhavi’s salary = 175 Madhavi’s salary after rise of 40% = 245 [As 10% of Madhavi’s salary is 17.5 then 40% = 17.5 × 4 = 70] Difference between Madhavi’s salary and Kamal’s salary = 245 – 125 = 120 % more Madhavi’s salary than Kamal’s = ((120*100)/125) = 96% Question 35 of 35 35. Question The average temperature for Wednesday, Thursday and Friday was 400C. The average for Thursday, Friday and Saturday was 41oC. If temperature on Saturday was 42oC, what was the temperature on Wednesday? a) 39o C b) 44o C c) 38o C d) 41o C Correct Solution (a) Average temperature for Wednesday, Thursday and Friday = 40° C Total temperature = 3 × 40 = 120° C Average temperature for Thursday, Friday and Saturday = 41° C Total temperature = 41 × 3 = 123° C Temperature on Saturday = 42° C Now, (Thursday + Friday + Saturday) – (Wednesday + Thursday + Friday) = 123 – 120; Saturday – Wednesday = 3 Wednesday = 42 – 3 = 39° C   Incorrect Solution (a) Average temperature for Wednesday, Thursday and Friday = 40° C Total temperature = 3 × 40 = 120° C Average temperature for Thursday, Friday and Saturday = 41° C Total temperature = 41 × 3 = 123° C Temperature on Saturday = 42° C Now, (Thursday + Friday + Saturday) – (Wednesday + Thursday + Friday) = 123 – 120; Saturday – Wednesday = 3 Wednesday = 42 – 3 = 39° C   window.wpProQuizInitList = window.wpProQuizInitList || []; window.wpProQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpProQuiz_3667', init: { quizId: 3667, mode: 1, globalPoints: 70, timelimit: 1800, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 704, qpp: 0, catPoints: [70], formPos: 0, lbn: "Test-summary", json: {"32789":{"type":"single","id":32789,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32792":{"type":"single","id":32792,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32793":{"type":"single","id":32793,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32795":{"type":"single","id":32795,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32796":{"type":"single","id":32796,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32798":{"type":"single","id":32798,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32799":{"type":"single","id":32799,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32802":{"type":"single","id":32802,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32803":{"type":"single","id":32803,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32805":{"type":"single","id":32805,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32807":{"type":"single","id":32807,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32808":{"type":"single","id":32808,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32810":{"type":"single","id":32810,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32811":{"type":"single","id":32811,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32812":{"type":"single","id":32812,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32813":{"type":"single","id":32813,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32814":{"type":"single","id":32814,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32815":{"type":"single","id":32815,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32816":{"type":"single","id":32816,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32818":{"type":"single","id":32818,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32821":{"type":"single","id":32821,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32824":{"type":"single","id":32824,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32827":{"type":"single","id":32827,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32830":{"type":"single","id":32830,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32832":{"type":"single","id":32832,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32834":{"type":"single","id":32834,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32836":{"type":"single","id":32836,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32838":{"type":"single","id":32838,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32841":{"type":"single","id":32841,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32843":{"type":"single","id":32843,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32845":{"type":"single","id":32845,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32846":{"type":"single","id":32846,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32847":{"type":"single","id":32847,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32850":{"type":"single","id":32850,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32851":{"type":"single","id":32851,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]}} } }); All the Best IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 22nd April 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Fall in household savings Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Economy Context: The fall in household savings has been at the heart of recent debates in India. The decline in household savings is brought about by a drastic reduction in net financial savings as the household net financial savings to GDP ratio attained a four-decade low.The sharp reduction in household net financial savings in 2022-23 has been associated with an overall fall in household savings despite marginal recovery in physical savings. Background:- The net financial savings of the household is the difference between its gross financial savings and borrowing. The gross financial savings of a household is the extent to which its financial assets change during a period. The financial assets of households typically comprise bank deposits, currency and financial investments in mutual funds, pension funds, etc. Though household borrowing includes credit from non-bank financial corporations and housing corporations, the bulk of the borrowing comprises credit from commercial banks. Key Takeaways In general, there are at least three distinct factors that can potentially bring about a reduction in household net financial savings: First, households typically finance their additional consumption expenditure by increasing their borrowing or depleting their gross financial savings. By financing higher consumption expenditure at any given level of disposable income, lower net financial savings provide stimulus for aggregate demand and output in this case. Secondly, when households finance higher tangible (physical) investment by increasing their borrowing or depleting their gross financial savings. The reduction in net financial savings in this case stimulates aggregate demand and output through the investment channel. Third, when interest payment of a household increases say due to higher interest rates, households can meet the increased burden through borrowing or through depleting gross financial savings thereby inducing a reduction in net financial savings. The first factor hardly played any role in the sharp reduction in gross financial savings in 2022-23 as the consumption to GDP ratio remained largely unchanged between 2021-22 (60.95%) and 2022-23 (60.93%). The second factor played only a limited role. While the gross financial savings to GDP ratio declined by 3 percentage points (7.3% to 5.3%) in 2022-23, household physical investment to GDP ratio increased only by 0.3 percentage point (12.6% to 12.9%) during the same period. Though higher borrowing is partly financed by interest income from financial assets, it can be largely attributed to higher interest payments of the household in the recent period. The share of household borrowing in household (disposable) income registered a sharp spike in 2022-23. Implication of higher debt burden The rise in household debt burden has two concerns for the macroeconomy. The first concern is about debt repayment and financial fragility. Since the repayment capacity depends on the income flow, a key criterion for evaluating a household’s debt sustainability is the difference between interest rate and the income growth rate. On the flip side, the interest payments from the households are the interest income of the financial sector. If households fail to meet their debt repayment commitments, then it reduces the income of the financial sector and deteriorates their balance sheets, which in turn can have a cascading effect on the macroeconomy if the latter responds by reducing their credit disbursement to the non-financial sector. The second concern pertains to the implication on consumption demand. Over and above disposable income, the consumption expenditure of the household can be affected by their wealth, debt, and interest rate. Reduction in household wealth can lead to lower consumption expenditure as households may attempt to preserve their wealth position by increasing their savings. Higher household debt can also reduce consumption expenditure in at least two ways. First, if higher household leverage is perceived as an indicator of higher default risk, then it may induce banks to indulge in credit rationing and reduce the credit disbursement. The consequent reduction in credit disbursement can adversely affect consumption. Second, higher debt can reduce consumption expenditure by increasing the interest burden, not to mention the effect of higher interest rates on consumption expenditure. Source: Hindu Rwanda Plan of the United Kingdom Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Current Event Context: The British parliament is set to finally approve a divisive law this week to pave the way for asylum seekers to be deported to Rwanda, but further legal hurdles could yet hold up or derail one of Prime Minister Rishi Sunak’s key policies. Background: The Prime Minister Rishi Sunak belongs to the Conservative Party.He has invested huge political capital in the Rwanda scheme whose success or failure might be crucial to his political party.He has promised that this scheme will stop migrants arriving without permission in the country. ‘About the Rwanda Plan’ Under a five-year agreement, the government said some asylum seekers arriving in the UK would besent to Rwanda, to have their claims processed there. If successful, they could be granted refugee status and allowed to stay. If not, they could apply to settle in Rwanda on other grounds, or seek asylum in another “safe third country”.No asylum seeker would be able to apply to return to the UK. Under the policy, anyone “entering the UK illegally” after 1 January 2022 could be sent to Rwanda, with no limit on numbers. Ministers have argued the plan would deter people from arriving in the UK on small boats across the English Channel. No asylum seeker has yet been sent to Rwanda – a small landlocked country central Africa – 4,000 miles (6,500km) from the UK. The first flight was scheduled to go in June 2022, butwas cancelled after legal challenges.Prime Minister Rishi Sunak has repeatedly said flights will take off by spring but refused to specify a date. What was the Supreme Court ruling and is Rwanda safe? In November 2023, the UK Supreme Courtruled unanimously that the Rwanda scheme was unlawful. It said genuine refugees would be at risk of being returned to their home countries, where they could face harm. This breachesthe European Convention on Human Rights (ECHR), which prohibits torture and inhuman treatment. The UK is a signatory to the ECHR. Theruling also cited concerns about Rwanda’s poor human-rights record, and its past treatment of refugees. Judges said that in 2021, the UK government had itself criticised Rwanda over “extrajudicial killings, deaths in custody, enforced disappearances and torture”. They also highlighted a 2018 incident, when Rwandan police opened fire on protesting refugees. What is in the Rwanda bill? After the Supreme Court ruling, the government introduced a bill tomake clear in UK law that Rwanda is a safe country. The legislation – which must be approved by both Houses of Parliament – orders the courts to disregard key sections of the Human Rights Act, in an attempt to sidestep the Supreme Court’s judgement. It also compels the courts to disregard other British laws or international rules – such as the international Refugee Convention – which stand in the way of deportations to Rwanda. Source: BBC NATIONAL SECURITY GUARD (NSG) Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Security Context: Senior IPS officer Nalin Prabhat has been appointed as the Director-General of National Security Guard (NSG). Background: The NSG plays a pivotal role in protecting India from terrorist threats and maintaining security during critical situations. About NATIONAL SECURITY GUARD (NSG): The National Security Guard (NSG), commonly known as the “Black Cats,” is a specialized counter-terrorism unit in India. It operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs. It was established on October 16, 1984, following the Operation Blue Star. Mission and Vision: Mission: To train, equip, and maintain a special force capable of swiftly and effectively combating terrorism, living up to its motto: “Sarvatra Sarvottam Suraksha” (Everywhere and Always Supreme Security). Vision: To be a world-class “zero error force.” Role and Functions: The NSG is a federal contingency deployment force that handles various critical tasks: Anti-hijack operations: Responding to hijacking threats. Rescue operations: Providing assistance during crises. Tough support: Backing up Central Para Military forces. Composition: The NSG comprises officers and personnel from the Central Armed Police Forces, Indian Army, and State Police Forces. Source: Indian Express NAGORNO-KARABAKH REGION Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Russian peacekeepers have initiated their withdrawal from Nagorno-Karabakh as Azerbaijan regains control, sparking tension and potential further conflicts. Background: This process signifies the departure of Russian troops from the region, where they have served as peacekeepers since the end of the 2020 war. About NAGORNO-KARABAKH REGION : Nagorno-Karabakh is a region of conflict between Azerbaijan and Armenia. The historical and territorial disputes surrounding this mountainous area have led to decades of tension, military clashes, and wars. The region’s status remains unresolved, and it continues to be a point of contention in the South Caucasus. Geographical Context: Nagorno-Karabakh is a mountainous, land-locked region within the boundaries of Azerbaijan, predominantly populated by ethnic Armenians. Nagorno-Karabakh region covers the southeastern stretch of the Lesser Caucasus Mountain range. Although it does not directly border Armenia, it is connected to Armenia through the Lachin corridor, a mountain pass controlled by Russian peacekeeping forces in Nagorno-Karabakh. Source: Hindu FOOD SAFETY AND STANDARDS AUTHORITY OF INDIA (FSSAI) Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: The Union Consumer Affairs Ministry asked the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) to initiate “appropriate action” against the Nestle group for allegedly selling baby products with high sugar content in India. Background: The violations are primarily found in Asian, African, and Latin American countries, while in developed nations like the United Kingdom and Germany, these products remain sugar-free. About FOOD SAFETY AND STANDARDS AUTHORITY OF INDIA (FSSAI) : Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is an autonomous statutory body established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006. It operates under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India, with its headquarters in Delhi. The FSS Act, 2006 consolidated various acts & orders related to food safety previously handled by different Ministries and Departments. Functions: Framing regulations for food safety standards and guidelines. Granting food safety licenses and certification for food businesses. Laying down procedures for food testing laboratories. Advising the government on policy-making. Collecting data on food contaminants and managing risks. Creating a national information network on food safety. Promoting awareness about food safety and standards. Legislative Framework: The FSS Act aims to establish a single reference point for all matters relating to food safety and standards. It established FSSAI and State Food Safety Authorities for each state. The Food Safety and Standards Rules, 2011, provide for the Food Safety Appellate Tribunal and the Registrar of the Appellate Tribunal. Recent Development: In May 2023, FSSAI established a committee to examine issues relating to nutraceuticals and highly processed foods, focusing on sustainable standards and reducing adulteration. Source: Hindu Previous Year Question Q)Consider the following statements: The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 The Supreme Court of India Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Judiciary Context: The Prime Minister inaugurated the Diamond Jubilee celebration of the Supreme Court of India at the Supreme Court auditorium in Delhi on January 28th, 2024. Background: The Prime Minister said that the makers of the Indian constitution saw the dream of a free India based on freedom, equality and justice and the Supreme Court has continuously tried to preserve these principles. The Supreme Court: According to Article 124(1) of the Indian Constitution, the Supreme Court of India must have a Chief Justice of India (CJI) and a maximum of seven additional justices unless Parliament specifies a higher number through a statute. Currently, the Supreme Court comprises the Chief Justice and 33 other Judges. The Supreme Court’s powers and jurisdiction are outlined in Articles 124 to 147 of the Indian Constitution. Key Features of the Supreme Court of India: The Supreme Court is the highest appeal court is also known as the apex court of India and even the last resort, where the citizens of India can seek justice if they are not satisfied with the judgment of the High Court. As per Article 143 of the Constitution, the SC can advise the President of India that is related to the question of law, and the nature of the matter is associated with public importance. The Court resolves disputes between the Union and the states and between different states (Article 131). The Supreme Court reviews laws and actions of the executive to ensure they comply with the Constitution. The Court protects the fundamental rights of citizens by issuing writs and orders (Article 32). The Court can take up cases on its own or on behalf of the public interest. In some matters, the Supreme Court also acts on its own and can pass suo moto. Issues/Challenges Faced by Supreme Court: As of 2023, there were over 80,439 cases pending in the Supreme Court alone. Judicial Activism vs. Judicial Restraint debate revolves around the appropriate role of the judiciary in policy-making and governance. The Law Commission of India’s 230th Report highlighted a concern about potential favouritism in the appointment of judges to the High Court and Supreme Court, impacting the impartiality and fairness of the judicial system. The judiciary and executive have faced rising conflicts, marked by delays in judicial appointments, the tribunalisation of justice, and public criticism of the executive during COVID-19. There have been concerns about the public perception of the judiciary, including issues related to transparency, accountability, and judicial independence. Way Forward: Implementing case management systems and leveraging technology for e-filing, video conferencing, and virtual hearings can help reduce case backlog and improve efficiency. Implementing judicial reforms, such as increasing the number of judges, improving infrastructure, and filling up vacancies promptly, can help address the backlog and ensure timely justice delivery. Transparency in the appointment of judges and making judgments more accessible to the public can help improve public trust in the judiciary Ensuring that the judiciary is free from undue influence and interference from the executive or other branches of government can help maintain the integrity of the judicial system. Source: PIB Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) With reference to the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI), consider the following statements: It is an autonomous statutory body established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006. It operates under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2.) Nagorno-Karabakh region, recently seen in news is related to Israel – Hamas war Russia – Ukraine war Azerbaijan- Armenia conflict China – Philippines territorial dispute Q3.) With reference to the National Security Guard (NSG), consider the following statements: The National Security Guard (NSG) is a specialized counter-terrorism unit in India. It operates under the Ministry of Defence. The NSG comprises officers and personnel from the Central Armed Police Forces, Indian Army, and State Police Forces. How many of the statement given above are not correct? Only one Only two All three None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  22nd April  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  20th April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 22nd April 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

[DAY 43] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question Which of the following is included under the Gross cropped area Net sown area Current fallow lands Area sown more than once in an agricultural year Select the correct answer using the codes given below a) 3 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3 only Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Net sown area Area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus the net sown area is known as gross cropped area. Fallow lands are not part of gross cropped area. Current fallow – (left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year) Other than the current fallow – (left uncultivated for the past 1 to 5 agricultural years Gross cropped area ● Area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus the net sown area is known as gross cropped area. ● Gross Cropped Area (GCA) is the total area sown once as well as more than once in a particular year. Example: When the crop is sown on a piece of land twice a year, then the area is counted twice while calculating the Gross Cropped Area (GCA) Land resources are used for the following purposes ● Forests ● Land not available for cultivation Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Net sown area Area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus the net sown area is known as gross cropped area. Fallow lands are not part of gross cropped area. Current fallow – (left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year) Other than the current fallow – (left uncultivated for the past 1 to 5 agricultural years Gross cropped area ● Area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus the net sown area is known as gross cropped area. ● Gross Cropped Area (GCA) is the total area sown once as well as more than once in a particular year. Example: When the crop is sown on a piece of land twice a year, then the area is counted twice while calculating the Gross Cropped Area (GCA) Land resources are used for the following purposes ● Forests ● Land not available for cultivation Question 2 of 35 2. Question Consider the following statements with respect to wheat cultivation It requires a cool growing season and bright sunshine at the time of ripening Wheat is also grown in the black soil region of the Deccan. Aus, Aman, and Boro are the three important varieties of wheat grown in India How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Wheat is the second most important cereal crop after rice. It is the main food crop in the North and NorthWestern parts of the country. This rabi crop requires a cool growing season and bright sunshine at the time of ripening. ● It requires 50 to 75 cm of annual rainfall evenly distributed over the growing season. There are two important wheat-growing zones in the country – the Ganga-Satluj plains in the North-West and the black soil region of the Deccan. ● The major wheat-producing states are Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, and Rajasthan. Recently, paddy has also become an important crop in Punjab and Haryana. In states like Assam, West Bengal, and Odisha, three crops of paddy are grown in a year namely, Aus Aman and Boro (these are not varieties of wheat) Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Wheat is the second most important cereal crop after rice. It is the main food crop in the North and NorthWestern parts of the country. This rabi crop requires a cool growing season and bright sunshine at the time of ripening. ● It requires 50 to 75 cm of annual rainfall evenly distributed over the growing season. There are two important wheat-growing zones in the country – the Ganga-Satluj plains in the North-West and the black soil region of the Deccan. ● The major wheat-producing states are Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, and Rajasthan. Recently, paddy has also become an important crop in Punjab and Haryana. In states like Assam, West Bengal, and Odisha, three crops of paddy are grown in a year namely, Aus Aman and Boro (these are not varieties of wheat) Question 3 of 35 3. Question It is an equatorial crop, but under special conditions, it is also grown in tropical and sub-tropical areas. It requires a moist and humid climate with rainfall of more than 200 cm and temperatures above 25°C. It is mainly grown in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Andaman Nicobar Islands, and the Garo hills of Meghalaya. The above description refers to which among the following crops? a) Sugarcane b) Rubber c) Tea d) Rice Correct Solution (b) RUBBER It is an equatorial crop, but under special conditions, it is also grown in tropical and sub-tropical areas. It requires a moist and humid climate with rainfall of more than 200 cm and temperature above 25°C. The rainfall should be well distributed throughout the year. Rubber is an important industrial raw material that is mainly grown in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Andaman, Nicobar Islands, and the Garo hills of Meghalaya. Rubber tree (Heveabrasiliensis) is a quick-growing tall tree acquiring 20-30 meters in height. It begins to yield latex in 5-7 years after planting. Dry Spell and low temperatures are harmful. Deep well-drained loamy soils on the hill slopes at elevations ranging from 300 to 450 meters above sea level provide the best conditions for its growth. Top Rubber Producing States: Kerala > Tamil Nadu > Karnataka Incorrect Solution (b) RUBBER It is an equatorial crop, but under special conditions, it is also grown in tropical and sub-tropical areas. It requires a moist and humid climate with rainfall of more than 200 cm and temperature above 25°C. The rainfall should be well distributed throughout the year. Rubber is an important industrial raw material that is mainly grown in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Andaman, Nicobar Islands, and the Garo hills of Meghalaya. Rubber tree (Heveabrasiliensis) is a quick-growing tall tree acquiring 20-30 meters in height. It begins to yield latex in 5-7 years after planting. Dry Spell and low temperatures are harmful. Deep well-drained loamy soils on the hill slopes at elevations ranging from 300 to 450 meters above sea level provide the best conditions for its growth. Top Rubber Producing States: Kerala > Tamil Nadu > Karnataka Question 4 of 35 4. Question Consider the following statements regarding coffee production in India Majority of Indian coffee is grown in the shade area rather than under direct sunlight. The traditional coffee growing regions are Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu. White stem borer is the most serious pest of Robusta coffee in India. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Direct sunlight is harmful for coffee plants; therefore, these are planted under shade of taller trees such as bananas, Orange, Cardamon and Pepper vines. In parts of Madikeri and Chikkamangaluru of Karnataka, leguminous plants are used which not only provide shade but also enrich soil with nitrogen. Coffee is largely produced in the southern part of India. Karnataka is the largest producer accounting for about 70% of the total coffee production in India. Kerala is the second-largest producer of coffee but lags far behind, accounting only for about 23% of the total production. Tamil Nadu is the third-largest producer, where India’s 6% of the coffee is produced. Nearly half of Tamil Nadu’s coffee is made in the Nilgiri district, a major Arabica growing region. Orissa and the northeastern areas have a smaller proportion of production. White stem borer is the most serious pest of Arabica coffee in India. White stem borer in coffee Coffee white stem borer (Xylotrechus quadripes) is a serious pest of arabica coffee causing a yield loss up to 40 per cent in all coffee growing areas of India. It is a blackish brown coloured beetle with three pairs of white stripes. The other plants on which this pest attack are rose sandal wood, teak etc. Infested plants show yellowing and wilting of leaves, presence of ridges on the stem, wilting of branches and occasional drying Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Direct sunlight is harmful for coffee plants; therefore, these are planted under shade of taller trees such as bananas, Orange, Cardamon and Pepper vines. In parts of Madikeri and Chikkamangaluru of Karnataka, leguminous plants are used which not only provide shade but also enrich soil with nitrogen. Coffee is largely produced in the southern part of India. Karnataka is the largest producer accounting for about 70% of the total coffee production in India. Kerala is the second-largest producer of coffee but lags far behind, accounting only for about 23% of the total production. Tamil Nadu is the third-largest producer, where India’s 6% of the coffee is produced. Nearly half of Tamil Nadu’s coffee is made in the Nilgiri district, a major Arabica growing region. Orissa and the northeastern areas have a smaller proportion of production. White stem borer is the most serious pest of Arabica coffee in India. White stem borer in coffee Coffee white stem borer (Xylotrechus quadripes) is a serious pest of arabica coffee causing a yield loss up to 40 per cent in all coffee growing areas of India. It is a blackish brown coloured beetle with three pairs of white stripes. The other plants on which this pest attack are rose sandal wood, teak etc. Infested plants show yellowing and wilting of leaves, presence of ridges on the stem, wilting of branches and occasional drying Question 5 of 35 5. Question Which of the following is/are plantation crops? Cashew Coffee Banana Cotton Sugarcane Select the correct answer using the codes given below a) 2, 3, and 5 only b) 2, 3, 4, and 5 only c) 1, 2, 3, and 5 only d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Correct Solution (d) The term plantation crop refers to those crops which are cultivated on an extensive scale Plantations are a type of commercial farming where a single crop of tea, coffee, sugarcane, cashew, rubber, banana, or cotton is grown. The term plantation crop refers to those crops which are cultivated on an extensive scale Large amounts of labour and capital are required. The produce may be processed on the farm itself or in nearby factories. The development of a transport network is thus essential for such farming. Major plantations are found in the tropical regions of the world. Rubber in Malaysia, coffee in Brazil, and tea in India and Sri Lanka are some examples. These are high-value commercial crops of greater economic importance and play a vital role in improving the Indian economy, especially given their export potential and employment generation. Incorrect Solution (d) The term plantation crop refers to those crops which are cultivated on an extensive scale Plantations are a type of commercial farming where a single crop of tea, coffee, sugarcane, cashew, rubber, banana, or cotton is grown. The term plantation crop refers to those crops which are cultivated on an extensive scale Large amounts of labour and capital are required. The produce may be processed on the farm itself or in nearby factories. The development of a transport network is thus essential for such farming. Major plantations are found in the tropical regions of the world. Rubber in Malaysia, coffee in Brazil, and tea in India and Sri Lanka are some examples. These are high-value commercial crops of greater economic importance and play a vital role in improving the Indian economy, especially given their export potential and employment generation. Question 6 of 35 6. Question Consider the following pairs regarding the local names of shifting cultivation across the world Milpa – Mexico Jhumming – Malaysia Ladang – Brazil Roca – India How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (a) Shifting cultivation is known by different names in different parts of the world Shifting cultivation is practised in the thickly forested areas of the Amazon basin, tropical Africa, parts of Southeast Asia, and Northeast India. These are the areas of heavy rainfall and quick regeneration of vegetation. A plot of land is cleared by felling the trees and burning them. The ashes are then mixed with the soil and crops like maize, yam, potatoes, and cassava are grown. After the soil loses its fertility, the land is abandoned and the cultivator moves to a new plot. Shifting cultivation is also known as ‘slash-and-burn agriculture. Statement Analysis: Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Milpa – Mexico Jhum – North-East India Ladang – Malaysia Roca – Brazil. Incorrect Solution (a) Shifting cultivation is known by different names in different parts of the world Shifting cultivation is practised in the thickly forested areas of the Amazon basin, tropical Africa, parts of Southeast Asia, and Northeast India. These are the areas of heavy rainfall and quick regeneration of vegetation. A plot of land is cleared by felling the trees and burning them. The ashes are then mixed with the soil and crops like maize, yam, potatoes, and cassava are grown. After the soil loses its fertility, the land is abandoned and the cultivator moves to a new plot. Shifting cultivation is also known as ‘slash-and-burn agriculture. Statement Analysis: Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Milpa – Mexico Jhum – North-East India Ladang – Malaysia Roca – Brazil. Question 7 of 35 7. Question Consider the following pairs Pisciculture – Cultivation of grapes Sericulture – Rearing of honey bees Viticulture – Rearing of silkworms Apiculture – Breeding of fish in specially constructed tanks and ponds. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) None Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Pisciculture: Breeding of fish in specially constructed tanks and ponds. The breeding, rearing, and transplantation of fish by artificial means is called pisciculture. Pisciculture is a process of growing fish and selling it or using its products for domestic or commercial use. Sericulture: Commercial rearing of silkworms. It may supplement the income of the farmer. Sericulture is an alternate crop to tobacco, maize, etc., which gives frequent returns to a farmer in every alternate month by an income of Rs.35000/- to Rs.45000/- per crop, such crops can be harvested 4 to 5 in a year per acre. So that the farmer can sustain his family economically. Viticulture: Cultivation of grapes. Viticulture is the study and practice of cultivating grapevines, usually with the overall goal of producing fruit that is suitable for some specific end purpose. Apiculture: Rearing of honey bees The scientific method of rearing honey bees is called apiculture. It is also called beekeeping, where bees are bred commercially in apiaries, are well maintained, taken care of and managed, to produce wax and honey. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Pisciculture: Breeding of fish in specially constructed tanks and ponds. The breeding, rearing, and transplantation of fish by artificial means is called pisciculture. Pisciculture is a process of growing fish and selling it or using its products for domestic or commercial use. Sericulture: Commercial rearing of silkworms. It may supplement the income of the farmer. Sericulture is an alternate crop to tobacco, maize, etc., which gives frequent returns to a farmer in every alternate month by an income of Rs.35000/- to Rs.45000/- per crop, such crops can be harvested 4 to 5 in a year per acre. So that the farmer can sustain his family economically. Viticulture: Cultivation of grapes. Viticulture is the study and practice of cultivating grapevines, usually with the overall goal of producing fruit that is suitable for some specific end purpose. Apiculture: Rearing of honey bees The scientific method of rearing honey bees is called apiculture. It is also called beekeeping, where bees are bred commercially in apiaries, are well maintained, taken care of and managed, to produce wax and honey. Question 8 of 35 8. Question Consider the following statements with respect to organic farming It makes use of organic manure and natural pesticides instead of chemical fertilizers and pesticides. Genetic modification is done to increase the yield of the crop It aims to protect the long-term fertility of the soil by encouraging soil biological activity. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Organic farming is a method of the farming system aimed at cultivating the land and raising crops in such a way, as to keep the soil alive and in good health by use of organic wastes (crop, animal and farm wastes, aquatic wastes) and other biological materials along with beneficial microbes (biofertilizers) to release nutrients to crops for increased sustainable production in an eco-friendly pollution free environment. In this type of farming, organic manure and natural pesticides are used instead of chemicals No genetic modification is done to increase the yield of the crop.   Protecting the long-term fertility of soils by maintaining organic matter levels, encouraging soil biological activity, and careful mechanical intervention ● Nitrogen self-sufficiency through the use of legumes and biological nitrogen fixation, as well as effective recycling of organic materials including crop residues and livestock manure ● Weed, disease, and pest control relying primarily on crop rotations, natural predators, diversity, organic manuring, resistant varieties, and limited (preferably minimal) thermal, biological, and chemical intervention ● The extensive management of livestock, paying full regard to their evolutionary adaptations, behavioural needs, and animal welfare issues with respect to nutrition, housing, health, breeding, and rearing Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Organic farming is a method of the farming system aimed at cultivating the land and raising crops in such a way, as to keep the soil alive and in good health by use of organic wastes (crop, animal and farm wastes, aquatic wastes) and other biological materials along with beneficial microbes (biofertilizers) to release nutrients to crops for increased sustainable production in an eco-friendly pollution free environment. In this type of farming, organic manure and natural pesticides are used instead of chemicals No genetic modification is done to increase the yield of the crop.   Protecting the long-term fertility of soils by maintaining organic matter levels, encouraging soil biological activity, and careful mechanical intervention ● Nitrogen self-sufficiency through the use of legumes and biological nitrogen fixation, as well as effective recycling of organic materials including crop residues and livestock manure ● Weed, disease, and pest control relying primarily on crop rotations, natural predators, diversity, organic manuring, resistant varieties, and limited (preferably minimal) thermal, biological, and chemical intervention ● The extensive management of livestock, paying full regard to their evolutionary adaptations, behavioural needs, and animal welfare issues with respect to nutrition, housing, health, breeding, and rearing Question 9 of 35 9. Question Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Green Revolution’. It was characterized by the use of genetically modified seeds. It promoted dependence on chemical fertilizers. It brought with itself inter-regional inequalities too. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect correct correct The Green Revolution was centered around the use of the High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds (and not genetically modified). These seeds were popularly called the ‘dwarf’ variety of seeds. The level of nutrients HYV seeds required could not be supplied with the traditional compost because they have a low concentration of nutrients. Hence, high-concentration fertilizers were required—urea (N), phosphate (P), and potash (K). The methods undertaken under the green revolution were region-specific and limited only to Haryana, Punjab, and western Uttar Pradesh. Thus, while north-western regions developed, the regions in the northern plains like Bihar, and Odisha were not focused upon. This has increased the inter-regional disparities in India. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect correct correct The Green Revolution was centered around the use of the High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds (and not genetically modified). These seeds were popularly called the ‘dwarf’ variety of seeds. The level of nutrients HYV seeds required could not be supplied with the traditional compost because they have a low concentration of nutrients. Hence, high-concentration fertilizers were required—urea (N), phosphate (P), and potash (K). The methods undertaken under the green revolution were region-specific and limited only to Haryana, Punjab, and western Uttar Pradesh. Thus, while north-western regions developed, the regions in the northern plains like Bihar, and Odisha were not focused upon. This has increased the inter-regional disparities in India. Question 10 of 35 10. Question Consider the following statements with reference to the Cropping patterns in India: The tea plantations require a warm and moist, frost-free climate throughout the year. The black soil region of the Deccan is an important wheat-growing region in India. Barley and mustard are Rabi Crops which are aided in growth by western temperate cyclones. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 correct Correct Correct Tea is a plantation crop used as a beverage. It is grown over the undulating topography of hilly areas. The tea plant grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates endowed with deep and fertile well-drained soil, rich in humus and organic matter. Tea bushes require a warm and moist frost-free climate all through the year. Frequent showers evenly distributed over the year ensure continuous growth of tender leaves. Tea is a labour-intensive industry It requires abundant labour as well. There are two important wheat-growing zones in the country – the Ganga- Satluj plains in the northwest and the black soil region of the Deccan. The major wheat-producing states are Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan and parts of Madhya Pradesh. Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer from April to June. Some of the important rabi crops are wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard. The availability of precipitation during winter months due to the western temperate cyclones helps in the success of these crops. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 correct Correct Correct Tea is a plantation crop used as a beverage. It is grown over the undulating topography of hilly areas. The tea plant grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates endowed with deep and fertile well-drained soil, rich in humus and organic matter. Tea bushes require a warm and moist frost-free climate all through the year. Frequent showers evenly distributed over the year ensure continuous growth of tender leaves. Tea is a labour-intensive industry It requires abundant labour as well. There are two important wheat-growing zones in the country – the Ganga- Satluj plains in the northwest and the black soil region of the Deccan. The major wheat-producing states are Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan and parts of Madhya Pradesh. Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer from April to June. Some of the important rabi crops are wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard. The availability of precipitation during winter months due to the western temperate cyclones helps in the success of these crops. Question 11 of 35 11. Question Consider the following statements. Tea plantations require well-drained soil, rich in humus and organic matter. The tea plant grows in tropical and subtropical climates. In India, tea plantations are only in Assam, the hills of Darjeeling, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect The tea plant grows well in well-drained fertile soil that is rich in humus and organic matter. Tea bushes require a warm and moist frost-free climate all through the year. Frequent showers evenly distributed over the year ensure the continuous growth of tender leaves. Tea cultivation is an example of plantation agriculture. The tea plant grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates endowed with deep and fertile well-drained soil, Major tea-producing states are Assam, the hills of Darjeeling and Jalpaiguri districts, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala. Apart from these, Himachal Pradesh, Uttaranchal, Meghalaya, Andhra Pradesh, and Tripura are also tea-producing states in the country. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect The tea plant grows well in well-drained fertile soil that is rich in humus and organic matter. Tea bushes require a warm and moist frost-free climate all through the year. Frequent showers evenly distributed over the year ensure the continuous growth of tender leaves. Tea cultivation is an example of plantation agriculture. The tea plant grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates endowed with deep and fertile well-drained soil, Major tea-producing states are Assam, the hills of Darjeeling and Jalpaiguri districts, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala. Apart from these, Himachal Pradesh, Uttaranchal, Meghalaya, Andhra Pradesh, and Tripura are also tea-producing states in the country. Question 12 of 35 12. Question Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in – a) desert margins, liable to strong wind action b) low flat plains, close to stream courses, liable to flooding c) scrublands, liable to spread of weed growth d) None of the above Correct Solution (d) Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in employed in hilly areas. Earthen embankments are built across the slope of the land, following the contour as close as possible. This helps in reducing the flow of water down the slope. Incorrect Solution (d) Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in employed in hilly areas. Earthen embankments are built across the slope of the land, following the contour as close as possible. This helps in reducing the flow of water down the slope. Question 13 of 35 13. Question Match the following crops according to the types of tillage used: Tillages      Crops Deep Tillage – Cotton Subsoiling – Pigeon pea Year-Round tillage – Paddy How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Deep ploughing turns out large-sized clods, which are baked by the hot sun when it is done in summer. These clods crumble due to alternate heating and cooling and due to occasional summer showers. This process of the gradual disintegration of clods improves soil structure. The rhizomes and tubers of perennial weeds (the world’s problematic weeds viz., Cynodon dactylon and Cyperus rotundus) die due to exposure to the hot sun. Summer deep ploughing kills pests due to exposure of pupae to the hot sun. A deep tillage of 25-30 cm depth is necessary for a deep-rooted crop like pigeon pea while moderate deep tillage of 15-20 cm is required for maize. Deep tillage also improves soil moisture content.  However, the advantage of deep tillage in dry farming conditions depends on rainfall patterns and crops. It is advisable to go for deep ploughing only for long-duration, deep-rooted crops. Depth of ploughing should be related to the amount of rainfall that can wet Hard pans may be present in the soil which restricts the root growth of crops. These may be silt pans, iron or aluminium pans, clay pans, or -man-made pans. Man-made pans are tillage pans induced by repeated tillage at the same depth. Root growth of crops is confined to the top few centimetres of soil where deep penetration of roots is inhibited by hard pans. For example, cotton roots grow to a depth of 2 m in deep alluvial soil without any pans. When hard pans are present, they grow only up to hard pans, say 15-20 cm. Similarly, the vertical root growth of sugarcane is restricted due to hard pans and it is not compensated by the horizontal spread. Subsoiling is breaking the hard pan without inversion and with less disturbance of topsoil. A narrow cut is made in the topsoil while a share of the subsoiler shatters hard pans. Chisel ploughs are also used to break hard pans present even at 60-70 cm. The effect of subsoiling does not last long. To avoid the closing of subsoil furrow, vertical mulching is adopted. Tillage operations carried out throughout the year are known as year-round tillage. In dry farming regions, field preparation is initiated with the help of summer showers. Repeated tillage operations are carried out until the sowing of the crop. Even after harvesting the crop, the field is repeatedly ploughed or harrowed to avoid weed growth in the off-season. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Deep ploughing turns out large-sized clods, which are baked by the hot sun when it is done in summer. These clods crumble due to alternate heating and cooling and due to occasional summer showers. This process of the gradual disintegration of clods improves soil structure. The rhizomes and tubers of perennial weeds (the world’s problematic weeds viz., Cynodon dactylon and Cyperus rotundus) die due to exposure to the hot sun. Summer deep ploughing kills pests due to exposure of pupae to the hot sun. A deep tillage of 25-30 cm depth is necessary for a deep-rooted crop like pigeon pea while moderate deep tillage of 15-20 cm is required for maize. Deep tillage also improves soil moisture content.  However, the advantage of deep tillage in dry farming conditions depends on rainfall patterns and crops. It is advisable to go for deep ploughing only for long-duration, deep-rooted crops. Depth of ploughing should be related to the amount of rainfall that can wet Hard pans may be present in the soil which restricts the root growth of crops. These may be silt pans, iron or aluminium pans, clay pans, or -man-made pans. Man-made pans are tillage pans induced by repeated tillage at the same depth. Root growth of crops is confined to the top few centimetres of soil where deep penetration of roots is inhibited by hard pans. For example, cotton roots grow to a depth of 2 m in deep alluvial soil without any pans. When hard pans are present, they grow only up to hard pans, say 15-20 cm. Similarly, the vertical root growth of sugarcane is restricted due to hard pans and it is not compensated by the horizontal spread. Subsoiling is breaking the hard pan without inversion and with less disturbance of topsoil. A narrow cut is made in the topsoil while a share of the subsoiler shatters hard pans. Chisel ploughs are also used to break hard pans present even at 60-70 cm. The effect of subsoiling does not last long. To avoid the closing of subsoil furrow, vertical mulching is adopted. Tillage operations carried out throughout the year are known as year-round tillage. In dry farming regions, field preparation is initiated with the help of summer showers. Repeated tillage operations are carried out until the sowing of the crop. Even after harvesting the crop, the field is repeatedly ploughed or harrowed to avoid weed growth in the off-season. Question 14 of 35 14. Question Consider the following crops Cotton Groundnut Rice Wheat Which of these are Kharif crops? a) 1 and 4 b) 2 and 3 only c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution (c) The kharif cropping season is from July –October during the south-west monsoon. The kharif crops include rice, maize, sorghum, pearl millet/bajra, finger millet/ragi (cereals), arhar (pulses), soyabean, groundnut (oilseeds), cotton etc. Incorrect Solution (c) The kharif cropping season is from July –October during the south-west monsoon. The kharif crops include rice, maize, sorghum, pearl millet/bajra, finger millet/ragi (cereals), arhar (pulses), soyabean, groundnut (oilseeds), cotton etc. Question 15 of 35 15. Question Consider the following statements with regards to the footloose Industries: They are largely dependent on component parts which can be obtained anywhere. Footloose industries significantly contribute to pollution in the region. These industries should be located in remote areas. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) The footloose industry is a general term for an industry that can be placed and located at any location without effect from factors such as resources or transport. Statement 1 Statement 2 and Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Footloose industries can be located in a wide variety of places. They are not dependent on any specific raw material, weight loss, or otherwise. They largely depend on component parts that can be obtained anywhere. The reason for the growth of footloose industries lies in the rapid development of highly sophisticated products requiring a great deal of scientific research and development. Footloose industries enable quick product improvement of their products to suit the market demand. Characteristic features of footloose Industries which favor the free choice of location: o light industries that often do not use raw materials but component parts o power requirements, usually only electricity — available from the national grid o the end product is small and often cheaper and easier to move; o employs a small labor force o non-polluting industries which can be located near residential areas o accessibility – needs to be near a road network Incorrect Solution (a) The footloose industry is a general term for an industry that can be placed and located at any location without effect from factors such as resources or transport. Statement 1 Statement 2 and Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Footloose industries can be located in a wide variety of places. They are not dependent on any specific raw material, weight loss, or otherwise. They largely depend on component parts that can be obtained anywhere. The reason for the growth of footloose industries lies in the rapid development of highly sophisticated products requiring a great deal of scientific research and development. Footloose industries enable quick product improvement of their products to suit the market demand. Characteristic features of footloose Industries which favor the free choice of location: o light industries that often do not use raw materials but component parts o power requirements, usually only electricity — available from the national grid o the end product is small and often cheaper and easier to move; o employs a small labor force o non-polluting industries which can be located near residential areas o accessibility – needs to be near a road network Question 16 of 35 16. Question Consider the following pairs concerning methods involved in the extraction of minerals Open cast mining – Boring deep wells to take out minerals from far below the Earth’s surface Drilling – Digging out minerals near the surface Shaft Mining – Minerals at shallow depths are taken out by removing the Surface layer Quarrying – Deep bores to reach mineral deposits at great depth. How many of the above pairs are not correctly matched? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) The process of taking out minerals from rocks buried under the Earth’s surface is called mining. Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect OPEN CAST MINING Minerals that lie at shallow depths are taken out by removing the surface layer, this is known as open-cast mining. DRILLING Petroleum and natural gas occur far below the Earth’s surface. Deep wells are bored to take them out, this is called drilling SHAFT MINING Deep bores called to have to be made to reach mineral deposits that lie at great depths. This is called shaft mining. QUARRYING Minerals that lie near the surface are simply dug out, by the process known as quarrying. Incorrect Solution (d) The process of taking out minerals from rocks buried under the Earth’s surface is called mining. Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect OPEN CAST MINING Minerals that lie at shallow depths are taken out by removing the surface layer, this is known as open-cast mining. DRILLING Petroleum and natural gas occur far below the Earth’s surface. Deep wells are bored to take them out, this is called drilling SHAFT MINING Deep bores called to have to be made to reach mineral deposits that lie at great depths. This is called shaft mining. QUARRYING Minerals that lie near the surface are simply dug out, by the process known as quarrying. Question 17 of 35 17. Question Which of the following is/are prominent mineral deposit regions in North America? The Appalachians region Canadian Shield region Ruhr region Western Cordilleras Select the correct answer using the codes given below a) 2 and 4 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 1, 2, and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Incorrect Correct The Appalachian region and the mountain ranges of the West. coal is mined predominantly in this region. The Canadian shield region north of the Great Lakes. Iron ore, nickel, gold, uranium, and copper are mined in this Region Ruhr region which is rich in coal and iron ore deposits is situated in the European continent Western Cordilleras have vast copper, lead, zinc, gold, and silver deposits. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Incorrect Correct The Appalachian region and the mountain ranges of the West. coal is mined predominantly in this region. The Canadian shield region north of the Great Lakes. Iron ore, nickel, gold, uranium, and copper are mined in this Region Ruhr region which is rich in coal and iron ore deposits is situated in the European continent Western Cordilleras have vast copper, lead, zinc, gold, and silver deposits. Question 18 of 35 18. Question Consider the following statements: Pulses need high moisture and wet conditions. Pulses help in restoring soil fertility by fixing oxygen from the air. Which of the above statements are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect Pulses need less moisture and survive even in dry conditions. Being leguminous crops, all these crops except arhar help in restoring soil fertility by fixing nitrogen from the air. Therefore, these are mostly grown in rotation with other crops. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect Pulses need less moisture and survive even in dry conditions. Being leguminous crops, all these crops except arhar help in restoring soil fertility by fixing nitrogen from the air. Therefore, these are mostly grown in rotation with other crops. Question 19 of 35 19. Question Consider the following statements regarding Minerals They are created by natural processes without any human interference. A non-ferrous metallic mineral does not contain iron There is an inverse relationship in quality and quantity of minerals How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) A naturally occurring substance that has a definite chemical composition is a mineral. Minerals are not evenly distributed over space. They are concentrated in a particular area or rock formations. Some minerals are found in areas that are not easily accessible such as the Arctic Ocean bed and Antarctica. Statement Analysis Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Minerals are formed in different types of geological environments, under varying conditions. They are created by natural processes without any human interference. They can be identified based on their physical properties such as colour, density, and hardness, and chemical properties such as solubility. Based on composition, minerals are classified mainly as metallic and non-metallic minerals ● Metallic minerals contain metal in raw form. Metals are hard substances that conduct heat and electricity and have a characteristic lustre or shine. Iron ore, bauxite, and manganese ore are some examples. ● Metallic minerals may be ferrous or non-ferrous. Ferrous minerals like iron ore, manganese, and chromites contain iron. A non-ferrous mineral does not contain iron but may contain some other metal such as gold, silver, copper, or lead. There is an inverse relationship in quality and quantity of minerals i.e. good quality minerals are less in quantity as compared to low quality minerals and vice versa. Incorrect Solution (c) A naturally occurring substance that has a definite chemical composition is a mineral. Minerals are not evenly distributed over space. They are concentrated in a particular area or rock formations. Some minerals are found in areas that are not easily accessible such as the Arctic Ocean bed and Antarctica. Statement Analysis Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Minerals are formed in different types of geological environments, under varying conditions. They are created by natural processes without any human interference. They can be identified based on their physical properties such as colour, density, and hardness, and chemical properties such as solubility. Based on composition, minerals are classified mainly as metallic and non-metallic minerals ● Metallic minerals contain metal in raw form. Metals are hard substances that conduct heat and electricity and have a characteristic lustre or shine. Iron ore, bauxite, and manganese ore are some examples. ● Metallic minerals may be ferrous or non-ferrous. Ferrous minerals like iron ore, manganese, and chromites contain iron. A non-ferrous mineral does not contain iron but may contain some other metal such as gold, silver, copper, or lead. There is an inverse relationship in quality and quantity of minerals i.e. good quality minerals are less in quantity as compared to low quality minerals and vice versa. Question 20 of 35 20. Question Consider the following statements with reference to mica: India has a near-monopoly in the production of mica, producing more than half of the world’s total production. In India, Rajasthan has the largest deposits of mica. Mica has a unique combination of elasticity, toughness, flexibility, and transparency and therefore is mainly used in the electronic industry. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct India has a near-monopoly in the production of mica, producing about 60% of the world’s total production. Andhra Pradesh leads with a 41% share of the country’s total resources followed by Rajasthan (28%), Odisha (17%), Maharashtra (13%),  and Bihar (2%), and a small number of resources are found in Jharkhand and Telangana. Among the non-metallic minerals produced in India, mica has a unique combination of elasticity, toughness, flexibility, and transparency. It possesses resistance to heat and sudden changes in temperature and high dielectric strength. It is chemically inert, stable, and does not absorb water. Mica is mainly used in the electrical and electronic industries. It can be split into very thin sheets which are tough and flexible. Mica has been declared a minor mineral by Government of India. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct India has a near-monopoly in the production of mica, producing about 60% of the world’s total production. Andhra Pradesh leads with a 41% share of the country’s total resources followed by Rajasthan (28%), Odisha (17%), Maharashtra (13%),  and Bihar (2%), and a small number of resources are found in Jharkhand and Telangana. Among the non-metallic minerals produced in India, mica has a unique combination of elasticity, toughness, flexibility, and transparency. It possesses resistance to heat and sudden changes in temperature and high dielectric strength. It is chemically inert, stable, and does not absorb water. Mica is mainly used in the electrical and electronic industries. It can be split into very thin sheets which are tough and flexible. Mica has been declared a minor mineral by Government of India. Question 21 of 35 21. Question Consider the following statements regarding Payments Bank: It was set up based on the recommendations of the Nachiket Mor Committee. It is registered as a public limited company under the Companies Act 2013 and licensed under the Banking Regulation Act 1949. The minimum paid-up equity capital for payments banks shall be Rs. 100 crores. It cannot issue loans, or credit cards and cannot accept time deposits or NRI deposits. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) Payments Bank was set up based on the recommendations of the Nachiket Mor Committee. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is like any other bank but operates on a smaller scale without involving any credit risk. Its objective is to advance financial inclusion by offering banking and financial services to the unbanked and underbanked areas, helping the migrant labour force, low-income households, small entrepreneurs, etc. It is registered as a public limited company under the Companies Act 2013 and licensed under the Banking Regulation Act 1949. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is governed by a host of legislation, such as the Banking Regulation Act, 1949; RBI Act, 1934; Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, etc. The minimum paid-up equity capital for payments banks shall be Rs. 100 crores. Hence statement 3 is correct. They are differentiated, and not universal banks. They operate on a smaller scale. The minimum initial contribution of the promoter to the Payment Bank to the paid-up equity capital shall be at least 40% for the first five years from the commencement of its business. It can take deposits up to Rs. 2,00,000. It can accept demand deposits in the form of savings and current accounts. It cannot issue loans, or credit cards and cannot accept time deposits or NRI deposits. Hence statement 4 is correct. It cannot set up subsidiaries to undertake non-banking financial activities. Incorrect Solution (d) Payments Bank was set up based on the recommendations of the Nachiket Mor Committee. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is like any other bank but operates on a smaller scale without involving any credit risk. Its objective is to advance financial inclusion by offering banking and financial services to the unbanked and underbanked areas, helping the migrant labour force, low-income households, small entrepreneurs, etc. It is registered as a public limited company under the Companies Act 2013 and licensed under the Banking Regulation Act 1949. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is governed by a host of legislation, such as the Banking Regulation Act, 1949; RBI Act, 1934; Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, etc. The minimum paid-up equity capital for payments banks shall be Rs. 100 crores. Hence statement 3 is correct. They are differentiated, and not universal banks. They operate on a smaller scale. The minimum initial contribution of the promoter to the Payment Bank to the paid-up equity capital shall be at least 40% for the first five years from the commencement of its business. It can take deposits up to Rs. 2,00,000. It can accept demand deposits in the form of savings and current accounts. It cannot issue loans, or credit cards and cannot accept time deposits or NRI deposits. Hence statement 4 is correct. It cannot set up subsidiaries to undertake non-banking financial activities. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements: Ankasamudra Bird Conservation Reserve is a human-made village irrigation tank in Telangana. Aghanashini Estuary is formed at the confluence of the Aghanashini River with the Arabian Sea. Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary is one of the largest inland wetlands of Tamil Nadu. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Ankasamudra Bird Conservation Reserve is a human-made village irrigation tank in Karnataka. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It supports more than 1% of the biogeographic population of Painted Stork and Black-headed Ibis. Aghanashini Estuary is formed at the confluence of the Aghanashini River with the Arabian Sea. Hence statement 2 is correct. The brackish water of the estuary provides diverse ecosystem services including flood and erosion risk mitigation, biodiversity conservation, and livelihood support. The wetland helps in traditional fish farming in the estuarine rice fields (locally known as Gazni rice fields), bivalve shell collection, and salt production. Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary is one of the largest inland wetlands of Tamil Nadu. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is a significant source of groundwater recharge for the area. Note: Recently, five wetlands were added to the Ramsar list. They are Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve, Ankasamudra Bird Conservation Reserve, Aghanashini Estuary from Karnataka Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary, and Longwood Shola Reserve Forest from Tamil Nadu. Incorrect Solution (b) Ankasamudra Bird Conservation Reserve is a human-made village irrigation tank in Karnataka. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It supports more than 1% of the biogeographic population of Painted Stork and Black-headed Ibis. Aghanashini Estuary is formed at the confluence of the Aghanashini River with the Arabian Sea. Hence statement 2 is correct. The brackish water of the estuary provides diverse ecosystem services including flood and erosion risk mitigation, biodiversity conservation, and livelihood support. The wetland helps in traditional fish farming in the estuarine rice fields (locally known as Gazni rice fields), bivalve shell collection, and salt production. Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary is one of the largest inland wetlands of Tamil Nadu. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is a significant source of groundwater recharge for the area. Note: Recently, five wetlands were added to the Ramsar list. They are Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve, Ankasamudra Bird Conservation Reserve, Aghanashini Estuary from Karnataka Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary, and Longwood Shola Reserve Forest from Tamil Nadu. Question 23 of 35 23. Question Consider the following statements regarding the ‘One Stop Centre Scheme’: It is a centrally sponsored scheme under the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD). It provides integrated support and assistance to women affected by violence, both in private and public spaces under one roof. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) The One Stop Centre Scheme is a centrally sponsored scheme under the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD). Hence statement 1 is correct. It will be funded through the Nirbhaya Fund. The Central Government will provide 100% financial assistance under the scheme. The day-to-day implementation and administrative matters would be the responsibility of the District Collector/District Magistrate. It supports all women including girls below 18 years of age affected by violence, irrespective of caste, class, religion, region, sexual orientation, or marital status. It aims to facilitate immediate, emergency, and non-emergency access to a range of services including medical, legal, psychological, and counselling support under one roof to fight against any forms of violence against women. It provides integrated support and assistance to women affected by violence, both in private and public spaces under one roof. Hence statement 2 is correct.   Incorrect Solution (c) The One Stop Centre Scheme is a centrally sponsored scheme under the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD). Hence statement 1 is correct. It will be funded through the Nirbhaya Fund. The Central Government will provide 100% financial assistance under the scheme. The day-to-day implementation and administrative matters would be the responsibility of the District Collector/District Magistrate. It supports all women including girls below 18 years of age affected by violence, irrespective of caste, class, religion, region, sexual orientation, or marital status. It aims to facilitate immediate, emergency, and non-emergency access to a range of services including medical, legal, psychological, and counselling support under one roof to fight against any forms of violence against women. It provides integrated support and assistance to women affected by violence, both in private and public spaces under one roof. Hence statement 2 is correct.   Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Martand Sun Temple’: It is a Hindu temple located in the Kashmir Valley of Jammu and Kashmir. It is dedicated to the Sun and was built by King Lalitaditya Muktapida around the 18th Century CE. Its architecture is a blend of the local Kashmiri style with the architectural styles of Gupta, Chinese, Gandhara, Roman, and Greek. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Martand Sun Temple is a Hindu temple located in the Kashmir Valley of Jammu and Kashmir. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is located on top of a plateau and has been constructed entirely out of stone. It stands in the middle of a large courtyard with 86 fluted columns. The courtyard is connected to the main shrine, where Sun God’s idol was installed. It is dedicated to the Sun and was built by King Lalitaditya Muktapida around the 8th Century CE. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Lalitaditya Muktapida was the third ruler of the Karkota Dynasty. The construction of the main shrine was such that during most of the days’ time, especially during sunrise and sunset, the rays would directly fall on the idol. Its architecture is a blend of the local Kashmiri style with the architectural styles of Gupta, Chinese, Gandhara, Roman, and Greek. Hence statement 3 is correct. There are 84 smaller shrines around the main Sun Temple. They are lined along the perimeter of the complex. Incorrect Solution (b) The Martand Sun Temple is a Hindu temple located in the Kashmir Valley of Jammu and Kashmir. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is located on top of a plateau and has been constructed entirely out of stone. It stands in the middle of a large courtyard with 86 fluted columns. The courtyard is connected to the main shrine, where Sun God’s idol was installed. It is dedicated to the Sun and was built by King Lalitaditya Muktapida around the 8th Century CE. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Lalitaditya Muktapida was the third ruler of the Karkota Dynasty. The construction of the main shrine was such that during most of the days’ time, especially during sunrise and sunset, the rays would directly fall on the idol. Its architecture is a blend of the local Kashmiri style with the architectural styles of Gupta, Chinese, Gandhara, Roman, and Greek. Hence statement 3 is correct. There are 84 smaller shrines around the main Sun Temple. They are lined along the perimeter of the complex. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements regarding the recent analysis of radioactive discharges carried out by the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC): The radioactive discharges from nuclear plants were found to have a minimal impact on the environment. Gaseous waste released into the atmosphere includes Argon 41, radioiodine, and particulate radionuclides. The concentrations of caesium-137 and strontium-90 in sediments were within the statistical variation of values observed in natural sediments. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) The recent analysis of radioactive discharges carried out by the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) reveals the following: The radioactive discharges from nuclear plants were found to have a minimal impact on the environment. Hence statement 1 is correct. The concentrations of fission products beyond a 5 km radius have been below the minimum detectable activity of the instruments used, implying that the monitored values are “insignificant”. Gaseous waste released into the atmosphere includes Argon 41, radioiodine, and particulate radionuclides. Hence statement 2 is correct. Liquid discharge consists of fission product radionuclides, radioiodine, tritium, strontium -90, caesium-137 — and activation products like cobalt-60. The average gross alpha activity in air particulates at all seven nuclear plants was less than 0.1 megabecquerel (mBq) per cubic meter. The Narora Atomic Power Station, Uttar Pradesh, exhibited higher maximum values, attributed to a higher atmospheric dust load. The concentrations of caesium-137 and strontium-90 in sediments were within the statistical variation of values observed in natural sediments. Hence statement 3 is correct. Tritium was detectable above the minimum detectable activity at all sites except the Kudankulam Nuclear Power Station. Incorrect Solution (c) The recent analysis of radioactive discharges carried out by the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) reveals the following: The radioactive discharges from nuclear plants were found to have a minimal impact on the environment. Hence statement 1 is correct. The concentrations of fission products beyond a 5 km radius have been below the minimum detectable activity of the instruments used, implying that the monitored values are “insignificant”. Gaseous waste released into the atmosphere includes Argon 41, radioiodine, and particulate radionuclides. Hence statement 2 is correct. Liquid discharge consists of fission product radionuclides, radioiodine, tritium, strontium -90, caesium-137 — and activation products like cobalt-60. The average gross alpha activity in air particulates at all seven nuclear plants was less than 0.1 megabecquerel (mBq) per cubic meter. The Narora Atomic Power Station, Uttar Pradesh, exhibited higher maximum values, attributed to a higher atmospheric dust load. The concentrations of caesium-137 and strontium-90 in sediments were within the statistical variation of values observed in natural sediments. Hence statement 3 is correct. Tritium was detectable above the minimum detectable activity at all sites except the Kudankulam Nuclear Power Station. Question 26 of 35 26. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry (APAAR): It is a specialised identification system designed for all students in India. All students in India of all ages must register with APAAR. It is introduced in accordance with the National Education Policy (NEP) of 2020 and the National Credit and Qualifications Framework (NCrF). How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry (APAAR) is a specialised identification system designed for all students in India. Hence statement 1 is correct. It aims to streamline and enhance the academic experience for students throughout India by assigning a unique and permanent 12-digit ID to each student, consolidating their academic records into a single accessible platform. It is not mandatory but voluntary for all students in India of all ages to register with APAAR. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It is emphasised as not only a vital tool for tracking the educational progress of 260 million students in India but also as an aspirational and globally recognized document for students. It is introduced in accordance with the National Education Policy (NEP) of 2020 and the National Credit and Qualifications Framework (NCrF). Hence statement 3 is correct. It ensures accountability and transparency in education by tracking student progress and streamlining academic records. It enhances efficiency, combats fraud, and includes co-curricular achievements for holistic student development. Incorrect Solution (b) The Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry (APAAR) is a specialised identification system designed for all students in India. Hence statement 1 is correct. It aims to streamline and enhance the academic experience for students throughout India by assigning a unique and permanent 12-digit ID to each student, consolidating their academic records into a single accessible platform. It is not mandatory but voluntary for all students in India of all ages to register with APAAR. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It is emphasised as not only a vital tool for tracking the educational progress of 260 million students in India but also as an aspirational and globally recognized document for students. It is introduced in accordance with the National Education Policy (NEP) of 2020 and the National Credit and Qualifications Framework (NCrF). Hence statement 3 is correct. It ensures accountability and transparency in education by tracking student progress and streamlining academic records. It enhances efficiency, combats fraud, and includes co-curricular achievements for holistic student development. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements regarding ‘India Stack’: It is a government-led initiative that focuses on building a robust digital infrastructure. Its key components include Aadhaar, Unified Payments Interface, and Digital Locker. It is used only by governments and is limited to one country. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) India Stack is a government-led initiative that focuses on building a robust digital infrastructure. Hence statement 1 is correct. It aims to streamline and enhance identity verification, data exchange, and digital payment processes to make them more accessible and efficient for citizens. Its key components include Aadhaar, Unified Payments Interface, and Digital Locker. Hence statement 2 is correct. It includes digital public goods, which are digital resources and tools made available to the public to support various digital services and initiatives. It is a set of APIs (Application Programming Interface) used by governments, businesses, start-ups, and developers to utilize a unique digital Infrastructure to solve India’s hard problems towards presence-less, paperless, and cashless service delivery. The vision of India Stack is not limited to one country (India); it can be applied to any nation, be it a developed one or an emerging one. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (b) India Stack is a government-led initiative that focuses on building a robust digital infrastructure. Hence statement 1 is correct. It aims to streamline and enhance identity verification, data exchange, and digital payment processes to make them more accessible and efficient for citizens. Its key components include Aadhaar, Unified Payments Interface, and Digital Locker. Hence statement 2 is correct. It includes digital public goods, which are digital resources and tools made available to the public to support various digital services and initiatives. It is a set of APIs (Application Programming Interface) used by governments, businesses, start-ups, and developers to utilize a unique digital Infrastructure to solve India’s hard problems towards presence-less, paperless, and cashless service delivery. The vision of India Stack is not limited to one country (India); it can be applied to any nation, be it a developed one or an emerging one. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Question 28 of 35 28. Question Consider the following statements regarding ‘Fungus’:  They include eukaryotic microorganisms and macroorganisms. They are primarily decomposers as they obtain nutrients by absorbing organic matter from their surroundings. Mycorrhizal fungi form symbiotic relationships with plant roots. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Fungus includes eukaryotic microorganisms and macroorganisms. Hence statement 1 is correct. Like plants, animals, and protists, fungi have complex, membrane-bound cell organelles and a true nucleus. So they are called eukaryotic. They are primarily decomposers as they obtain nutrients by absorbing organic matter from their surroundings. Hence statement 2 is correct. Hence, they are called heterotrophic. Fungi secrete enzymes to break down complex organic compounds into simpler substances, which they can then absorb. Fungi play a vital role in soil carbon storage by participating in the carbon cycle. They decompose organic matter, cycle carbon from dead plants, and form symbiotic relationships with plant roots. Mycorrhizal fungi form symbiotic relationships with plant roots. Hence statement 3 is correct. Fungi have been found to help degrade various pollutants from the environment,  such as plastic and other petroleum-based products, pharmaceuticals and personal care products, and oil. Incorrect Solution (c) Fungus includes eukaryotic microorganisms and macroorganisms. Hence statement 1 is correct. Like plants, animals, and protists, fungi have complex, membrane-bound cell organelles and a true nucleus. So they are called eukaryotic. They are primarily decomposers as they obtain nutrients by absorbing organic matter from their surroundings. Hence statement 2 is correct. Hence, they are called heterotrophic. Fungi secrete enzymes to break down complex organic compounds into simpler substances, which they can then absorb. Fungi play a vital role in soil carbon storage by participating in the carbon cycle. They decompose organic matter, cycle carbon from dead plants, and form symbiotic relationships with plant roots. Mycorrhizal fungi form symbiotic relationships with plant roots. Hence statement 3 is correct. Fungi have been found to help degrade various pollutants from the environment,  such as plastic and other petroleum-based products, pharmaceuticals and personal care products, and oil. Question 29 of 35 29. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Sahel Region: It forms a transitional zone between the arid Sahara desert to the north and the belt of humid savannas to the south. It includes Burkina Faso, Cameroon, the Gambia, Guinea, Mali, Mauritania, Niger, Nigeria, Senegal, and Chad. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) The Sahel Region forms a transitional zone between the arid Sahara desert to the north and the belt of humid savannas to the south. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is a semiarid region of western and north-central Africa extending from Senegal eastward to Sudan. It is one of the world’s richest, gifted with vast energy and mineral resources such as oil, gold, and uranium. However, political instability hinders development progress. The United Nations limits the Sahel region to 10 countries. It includes Burkina Faso, Cameroon, the Gambia, Guinea, Mali, Mauritania, Niger, Nigeria, Senegal, and Chad. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) The Sahel Region forms a transitional zone between the arid Sahara desert to the north and the belt of humid savannas to the south. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is a semiarid region of western and north-central Africa extending from Senegal eastward to Sudan. It is one of the world’s richest, gifted with vast energy and mineral resources such as oil, gold, and uranium. However, political instability hinders development progress. The United Nations limits the Sahel region to 10 countries. It includes Burkina Faso, Cameroon, the Gambia, Guinea, Mali, Mauritania, Niger, Nigeria, Senegal, and Chad. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 30 of 35 30. Question Consider the following statements regarding the “Bharat Ratna Award”: It is the highest civilian award in India. Its recipients rank seventh in the Indian order of precedence. The rule of a maximum of five awards in a year is a guideline for the Bharat Ratna. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Bharat Ratna Award is the highest civilian award in India. Hence statement 1 is correct. It was instituted on 2 January 1954, and the award is conferred in recognition of “exceptional service/performance of the highest order”. It is bestowed upon individuals who have made exceptional contributions to the nation in various fields, such as arts, literature, science, and public service. However, the Government, in 2011, expanded the criteria to include “any field of human endeavour”. The recommendations for the award are made by the Prime Minister to the President. Its recipients rank seventh in the Indian order of precedence. Hence statement 2 is correct. The Order of Precedence of the Republic of India is a protocol list under which the authorities and the functionaries of the Union and State Government are recorded by rank and office. The recipients receive a Sanad (certificate) signed by the President and a peepal leaf-shaped medallion with no monetary grant associated with the award. There is no formal provision that recipients of the Bharat Ratna should be Indian citizens. It has been conferred on one naturalized citizen, Mother Teresa, and two non-Indians: Abdul Ghaffar Khan (born in British India and later a citizen of Pakistan) and Nelson Mandela, a citizen of South Africa. The rule of a maximum of three awards in a year is a guideline for the Bharat Ratna. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. The rule was broken for the first time in 1999, when four recipients were conferred the award: Jayaprakash Narayan, Amartya Sen, Gopinath Bordoloi, and Ravi Shankar. The rule was broken again in 2024 when five recipients were conferred the award: Karpoori Thakur, Mankombu Sambasivan (MS) Swaminathan, Pamulaparthi Venkata (P. V.) Narasimha Rao, Lal Krishna Advani, and Chaudhary Charan Singh.   Incorrect Solution (b) The Bharat Ratna Award is the highest civilian award in India. Hence statement 1 is correct. It was instituted on 2 January 1954, and the award is conferred in recognition of “exceptional service/performance of the highest order”. It is bestowed upon individuals who have made exceptional contributions to the nation in various fields, such as arts, literature, science, and public service. However, the Government, in 2011, expanded the criteria to include “any field of human endeavour”. The recommendations for the award are made by the Prime Minister to the President. Its recipients rank seventh in the Indian order of precedence. Hence statement 2 is correct. The Order of Precedence of the Republic of India is a protocol list under which the authorities and the functionaries of the Union and State Government are recorded by rank and office. The recipients receive a Sanad (certificate) signed by the President and a peepal leaf-shaped medallion with no monetary grant associated with the award. There is no formal provision that recipients of the Bharat Ratna should be Indian citizens. It has been conferred on one naturalized citizen, Mother Teresa, and two non-Indians: Abdul Ghaffar Khan (born in British India and later a citizen of Pakistan) and Nelson Mandela, a citizen of South Africa. The rule of a maximum of three awards in a year is a guideline for the Bharat Ratna. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. The rule was broken for the first time in 1999, when four recipients were conferred the award: Jayaprakash Narayan, Amartya Sen, Gopinath Bordoloi, and Ravi Shankar. The rule was broken again in 2024 when five recipients were conferred the award: Karpoori Thakur, Mankombu Sambasivan (MS) Swaminathan, Pamulaparthi Venkata (P. V.) Narasimha Rao, Lal Krishna Advani, and Chaudhary Charan Singh.   Question 31 of 35 31. Question A tap drips at a rate of one drop per second. 600 drops make 100ml. The number of litres wasted in 300 days is a) 4320 b) 43200 c) 53200 d) 432000 Correct Solution (a) We know that, 1 days = 24 hours = 24 * 60 * 60 seconds So, 300 days = 300 * 24 * 60 * 60 seconds Number of drops in 300 days = 300 * 24 * 60 * 60 600 drops = 100 ml i.e. 1 drop = 1/6 ml and 1000 ml = 1L 1/6 ml = 1/ (6*1000)L So, the number of litres wasted in 300 days is, (300*24*60*60)*1/(6*1000) L = 4320 litres Hence, the correct answer is 4320 litres Incorrect Solution (a) We know that, 1 days = 24 hours = 24 * 60 * 60 seconds So, 300 days = 300 * 24 * 60 * 60 seconds Number of drops in 300 days = 300 * 24 * 60 * 60 600 drops = 100 ml i.e. 1 drop = 1/6 ml and 1000 ml = 1L 1/6 ml = 1/ (6*1000)L So, the number of litres wasted in 300 days is, (300*24*60*60)*1/(6*1000) L = 4320 litres Hence, the correct answer is 4320 litres Question 32 of 35 32. Question Three times the first of three consecutive odd integers is 3 more than twice the third. The third integer is a) 11 b) 13 c) 15 d) 9 Correct Solution (c) Let the three integers be x, x + 2 and x + 4 Then, 3x = 2(x + 4) + 3    ⇔    x = 11 ∴ Third integer = x + 4 = 15 Incorrect Solution (c) Let the three integers be x, x + 2 and x + 4 Then, 3x = 2(x + 4) + 3    ⇔    x = 11 ∴ Third integer = x + 4 = 15 Question 33 of 35 33. Question A man takes 6 hours 15 minutes in walking a distance and riding back to starting place. He could walk both ways in 7 hours 45 minutes. The time taken by him to ride back both ways is: a) 4 hours b) 4 hours 30 min c) 4 hours 45 min d) 4 hours 35 min Correct Solution (c) Time taken in walking both the ways = 7 hours 45 minutes ——– (i) Time taken in walking one way and riding back = 6 hours 15 minutes ———– (ii) By the equation (ii) × 2 – (i), we have, Time taken by the man in riding both ways, = 12 hours 30 minutes – 7 hours 45 minutes = 4 hours 45 minutes. Incorrect Solution (c) Time taken in walking both the ways = 7 hours 45 minutes ——– (i) Time taken in walking one way and riding back = 6 hours 15 minutes ———– (ii) By the equation (ii) × 2 – (i), we have, Time taken by the man in riding both ways, = 12 hours 30 minutes – 7 hours 45 minutes = 4 hours 45 minutes. Question 34 of 35 34. Question The difference between a two-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the digits is 36. What is the difference between the sum and the difference of the digits of the number if the ratio between the digits of the number is 1:2? a) 4 b) 8 c) 16 d) None of these Correct Solution (b) Since the number is greater than the number obtained on reversing the digits, so the ten’s digit is greater than the unit’s digit. Let ten’s and unit’s digits be 2x and x respectively. Then, (10 × 2x + x) – (10x + 2x) = 36 ⇒ 9x = 36 ⇒ x = 4 ∴ Required difference = (2x + x) – (2x – x) = 2x = 8 Incorrect Solution (b) Since the number is greater than the number obtained on reversing the digits, so the ten’s digit is greater than the unit’s digit. Let ten’s and unit’s digits be 2x and x respectively. Then, (10 × 2x + x) – (10x + 2x) = 36 ⇒ 9x = 36 ⇒ x = 4 ∴ Required difference = (2x + x) – (2x – x) = 2x = 8 Question 35 of 35 35. Question Find out the wrong term: 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, 64 a) 17 b) 26 c) 37 d) 64 Correct Solution (d) The term of the series are (1^2 + 1)(2^2 + 1)(3^2 + 1)(4^2 + 1)(5^2 + 1)(6^2 + 1)(7^2 + 1),………….. So, 64 is wrong and must be replaced by (8^2 + 1) i.e., 65 Incorrect Solution (d) The term of the series are (1^2 + 1)(2^2 + 1)(3^2 + 1)(4^2 + 1)(5^2 + 1)(6^2 + 1)(7^2 + 1),………….. 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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 20th April 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Report flags sweetened Nestle products Syllabus Prelims – Science Context: Nestlé’s products for babies in Asia, Africa and Latin America were found to contain added sugars, while the same products sold in Europe did not have it, according to a recent report. Background:- The report (‘How Nestlé gets children hooked on sugar in lower-income countries’) faulted Nestlé for employing different nutritional standards in its offerings, depending on the country it served. Nestlé also did not make the quantity of sugar content clear on the products’ packaging, it said. Key Takeaways Sugar is a simple carbohydrate.Some food items have sugar that is naturally occurring. According to the American Heart Association (AHA), it is “found in milk (lactose) and fruit (fructose). Any product that contains milk (such as yogurt, milk or cream) or fruit (fresh, dried) contains some natural sugars.” Free sugar or added sugar is added separately to a food item during preparation or processing. In 2015, the WHO’s guideline recommended that “adults and children reduce their daily intake of free sugars to less than 10% of their total energy intake.” WHO advises against the introduction of added sugars before the age of 2. Excessive sugar consumption can lead to increased overall energy intake in a person’s overall diet. It may be at the cost of food items having nutritionally adequate calories, eventually leading to an unhealthy diet. The risks of contracting non-communicable diseases, such as diabetes, obesity and heart-related ailments, are then increased. Tooth decay is also associated with early exposure to sugar. A 2017 report from the WHO (‘Incentives and disincentives for reducing sugar in manufactured foods’) said, “The fact that sugar is a relatively cheap and abundant ingredient is not a direct incentive to use it, but means there is little incentive from the supply side not to use it.” Adding sugar to a food item often makes it more palatable, meaning consumers will opt for it repeatedly. Source: Indian Express Anti-Maoist operations Syllabus Mains – Internal Security Context: At least 29 alleged Maoists were killed in a gunfight with security forces in the forests of southern Chhattisgarh’s Kanker district on Tuesday (April 16). Background: The operation is the largest (in terms of Maoists’ bodies recovered) since the creation of Chhattisgarh in 2000, and among the biggest successes for security forces in their decades-long fight against left-wing extremism (LWE). What happened in the operation? The operation saw security forces push deep into the Maoist stronghold of Abujhmad (literally, “the unknown hills”) — a 4,000 sq km swathe of forest land in southern Chhattisgarh’s Bastarregion, mainly covering the districts of Narayanpur, Bijapur, and Dantewada, just south of  Only a small part of the forest falls in Kanker. The difficult terrain, absence of roads, and presence of LWE has meant that 90% of Abujhmad, bigger in terms of area thanGoa, remains unsurveyed by the government. These jungles are, thus, used both as safe havens and transit corridors by Maoists to travel betweenMaharashtra (to the west), Andhra Pradesh (to the south), Telangana (to the southwest), and Odisha (to the east) via Chhattisgarh’s Sukma district. LWE in Chhattisgarh Chhatisgarh is the only state in which Maoists continue to have a significant presence, and retain the capability to mount big attacks. According to the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) website, there are 70 LWE-affected districts in the country. Of these, 15 are in Chhattisgarh alone. Of the 25 “Most LWE affected Districts”, seven are in Chhattisgarh, while eight are in Jharkhand. The government’s ‘final push’ against LWE Chhattisgarh, and to a lesser extent Jharkhand, is a part of the government’s “final push” against LWE. This has seen central forces such as CRPF setting up bases deeper inside Maoist strongholds such as the jungles of Abujhmad. In the past few years, more than two dozen bases have been set up in Abujhmad, with Kanker’s Rowghat jungles too seeing new camps. Criticism Critics say that there are major flaws in the government’s approach to tackling the Naxal problem. There is no overall strategic plan and the states have been tackling the challenge as per their perception and the political appreciation of its gravity. States consider LWE a national problem. The problem will not be conclusively dealt with until state forces take the lead in anti-Naxal operations and the central armed police forces play a subsidiary role only. India’s forest cover is being gradually denuded. Tribals inhabiting these forest areas were displaced in the process. Deprived of their land and any regular means of livelihood, many of them gravitated towards the Naxals. Source: Indian Express Cervical Cancer Syllabus Mains – Health Context: The first-ever Global Cervical Cancer Elimination Forum took place in Colombia last month. Background: The Forum aimed to catalyse governments, donors, civil society, and others to commit to cervical cancer elimination and galvanize the global community. Cervical Cancer: Cancer is a disease in which cells in the body grow out of control. When cancer starts in the cervix, it is called cervical cancer. It occurs most often in women over age 30 and is the fourth most common cancer in women globally. It is the second most common cancer among females in India. The main cause of cervical cancer is the persistent infection with the human papillomavirus (HPV). Initiatives for the prevention of cervical cancer: The Cervical Cancer Elimination Initiative (by the World Health Organization) has outlined the ‘90-70-90’ targets for each country by 2030 – 90% of girls fully vaccinated with the HPV vaccine by the age of 15; 70% of women screened by the age of 35, and again by the age of 45; 90% of women with pre-cancer treated and 90% of women with invasive cancer managed. The Union Government in India proposed it in the Interim Budget 2024-25. The programme will be for girls in the age group of 9 to 14 years for the prevention of cervical cancer. Human Papilloma Virus (HPV): HPV is a common sexually transmitted infection that can affect the skin, genital area, and throat. In most cases, the immune system clears HPV from the body. Persistent infection with high-risk HPV can cause abnormal cells to develop, which go on to become cancer. There is currently no treatment for HPV infection. Preventive steps taken regarding HPV: There are 6 HPV vaccines available globally. All protect against the high-risk HPV 16 and 18, which cause most cervical cancers. HPV vaccines (1 or 2 doses) should be given to all girls aged 9–14 years. Screening, every 5-10 years, from the age of 30 (25 years in women living with HIV) can detect cervical disease, which when treated, also prevents cervical cancer. Early detection is followed by prompt quality treatment. There is no treatment for the virus itself. However, there are treatments for the health problems that HPV can cause like cervical cancer. Source: WHO PRADHAN MANTRI UJJWALA YOJANA (PMUY) Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: The government under its flagship Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana has been able to extend the benefits of clean cooking fuel to 103.3 million households between the start of the scheme and the end of 2023-24, according to data from the Petroleum Planning and Analysis Cell. Background: This significant achievement underscores the positive impact of PMUY in improving the lives of millions of families by ensuring access to LPG connections and reducing reliance on traditional solid fuels. About PMUY: The Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) is a flagship scheme introduced by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MOPNG) in India. Its primary objective is to provide clean cooking fuel, specifically liquefied petroleum gas (LPG), to rural and deprived households. These households were previously reliant on traditional cooking fuels like firewood, coal, and cow-dung cakes, which had adverse effects on both women’s health and the environment. The applicant must be an adult woman belonging to a BPL household. The scheme prioritizes women from SC, ST, and other marginalized communities. Key features of the PMUY: Empowering Women and Health Protection: By making LPG available, the scheme aims to empower women and safeguard their health. Traditional fuels often led to respiratory illnesses due to indoor air pollution. Reducing Deaths: The PMUY seeks to reduce deaths caused by unclean cooking fuels in India. Financial Support: The scheme provides a financial support of ₹1600 for each LPG connection to below poverty line (BPL) households. Ujjwala 2.0: Under this extension of the scheme, beneficiaries receive a deposit-free LPG connection, the first refill, and a hotplate at no cost. Source: Financial Express ARTEMIS ACCORDS Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Sweden has officially joined the Artemis Accords. Background: Sweden became the 38th country join in Artemis Accords. About ARTEMIS ACCORDS: The Artemis Accords are a set of principles for space exploration cooperation among nations, particularly those participating in NASA’s Artemis program. The Artemis Accords were established by the U.S. State Department and NASA in 2020, with seven other founding members: Australia, Canada, Italy, Japan, Luxembourg, the UAE, and the UK. They aim to set common principles to govern civil exploration and use of outer space, the moon, Mars, comets, and asteroids for peaceful purposes. The Accords build upon the Outer Space Treaty of 1967, emphasizing space as a shared resource for humanity, prohibiting national appropriation, and encouraging the peaceful use of space. Key Commitments: Conduct space activities for peaceful purposes and in accordance with international law. Recognize the importance of common exploration infrastructure to enhance scientific discovery and commercial utilization. Ensure registration and data sharing of relevant space objects and openly share scientific data in a timely manner. Preserve heritage, including historic landing sites and artifacts on celestial bodies. Support sustainable and safe utilization of space resources without interfering with other signatories’ activities. Plan for the safe disposal of spacecraft and limit the generation of harmful debris. Significance for India: India joined the Artemis Accords in 2023, becoming the 27th country to sign the nonbinding agreement. This will involve collaboration between NASA and ISRO, including sending Indian astronauts to the International Space Station (ISS) in 2024. By joining the Artemis Accords, India agrees to follow the finest space exploration practices and firmly backs a US-led alliance on space issues, which currently excludes significant spacefaring states like Russia and China. Source: Wion LAKSHMANA TIRTHA RIVER Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: The Lakshmana Tirtha River has completely dried up due to severe drought conditions and intense heat. Background: This year, by early April, the river has run dry, leaving no trace of water. The drying up of Lakshmana Tirtha can be attributed to the extreme weather conditions exacerbated by last year’s deficit rainfall in Kodagu, which recorded only 40% of its average rainfall. About LAKSHMANA TIRTHA RIVER: The Lakshmana Tirtha River is a significant river in Karnataka. The Lakshmana Tirtha River originates in the Brahmagiri hills of Kodagu (Coorg) District, Karnataka. It flows eastward, traversing a flat area south of Coorg. Eventually, it joins the Cauvery River in the Krishna Raja Sagara Lake. The total length of the Lakshmana Tirtha River is approximately 180 kilometers. The Lakshmanatirtha Falls, also known as the Irupu Falls, is located on the river. It borders Kerala and lies on the way to Nagarhole National Park. It is a significant tributary of the Cauvery River. Notable tributaries of the Cauvery River include the Harangi, Hemavati, Shimsha, and Arkavati on the left bank, and the Lakshmantirtha, Kabbani, Suvarnavati, Bhavani, Noyil, and Amaravati on the right bank. Source: Hans India Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) With reference to the Artemis Accords, consider the following statements: Artemis Accords are a set of principles for space exploration cooperation among nations. The Artemis Accords were established by the ISRO. The Accords build upon the Outer Space Treaty of 1967. How many of the statements given above are not correct? Only one Only two All three None Q2.) Consider the following rivers: Lakshmantirtha Kabbani Bhavani Amaravati How many of the above-mentioned rivers are the tributaries of the river Cauvery? Only one Only two Only three All four Q3.) With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY), consider the following statements: It is a flagship scheme introduced by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. Its primary objective is to provide clean cooking fuelto rural and deprived households. It aims to empower women and safeguard their health. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  20th April  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  19th April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – a