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The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.
20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.
It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects.
Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday)
Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule.
Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday)
CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.
Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published.
Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.
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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022.
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Question 1 of 35
1. Question
Consider following pairs:
Species Name IUCN status
Himalayan Wolf Least Concerned
Polar bear Endangered
Lesser Florican Endangered
How many of the above are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (d)
The Himalayan Wolf (Canis lupus chanco), a prominent lupine predator found across the Himalayas the taxonomic status of which was a puzzle till late, has been assessed for the first time in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)’s Red List. The animal has been categorised as ‘Vulnerable’ on the IUCN Red List. (Hence pair 1 is incorrect)
Polar bears endemic to the region are listed as “vulnerable” in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List of Endangered Species for its loss of habitat — sea ice. (Hence pair 2 is incorrect)
Lesser floricans are one of the four species of birds of the bustard family that occur in India. They have been categorised as critically endangered species on the Red List of Threatened Species drawn by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). (Hence pair 3 is incorrect)
Incorrect
Solution (d)
The Himalayan Wolf (Canis lupus chanco), a prominent lupine predator found across the Himalayas the taxonomic status of which was a puzzle till late, has been assessed for the first time in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)’s Red List. The animal has been categorised as ‘Vulnerable’ on the IUCN Red List. (Hence pair 1 is incorrect)
Polar bears endemic to the region are listed as “vulnerable” in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List of Endangered Species for its loss of habitat — sea ice. (Hence pair 2 is incorrect)
Lesser floricans are one of the four species of birds of the bustard family that occur in India. They have been categorised as critically endangered species on the Red List of Threatened Species drawn by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). (Hence pair 3 is incorrect)
Question 2 of 35
2. Question
Which of the following best describes “Piscivores raptors”?
a) Predatory birds that feed primarily on small mammals.
b) Birds of prey specialized in hunting and consuming fish.
c) Raptors that exclusively target reptiles as their main food source.
d) Avian hunters with a preference for insects and arachnids.
Correct
Solution (b)
Piscivores are organisms that primarily feed on fish. In the context of raptors, which are birds of prey, piscivores are those that specialize in hunting and consuming fish. (Hence option b is correct)
These raptors often have adaptations such as sharp talons and keen eyesight, enabling them to catch fish from water bodies. Examples of piscivorous raptors include ospreys and certain eagles.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Piscivores are organisms that primarily feed on fish. In the context of raptors, which are birds of prey, piscivores are those that specialize in hunting and consuming fish. (Hence option b is correct)
These raptors often have adaptations such as sharp talons and keen eyesight, enabling them to catch fish from water bodies. Examples of piscivorous raptors include ospreys and certain eagles.
Question 3 of 35
3. Question
Consider the following statements about Sundarban Tigers:
It is different subspecies of Panthera tigris tigris.
Sundarban tigers exhibit trait of man eater tigers more than other tigers.
They have adapted to a semi-aquatic lifestyle and are capable of hunting in water.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (a)
There are 5 subspecies of Tigers (current living population) that have been identified and they are as follows Indian or Royal Bengal Tiger (Panthera tigris tigris), Indochinese Tiger (Panthera tigris corbetti), Siberian (Amur) Tiger (Panthera tigris altaica), South China Tiger (Panthera tigris amoyensis), Sumatran Tiger (Panthera tigris sumatrae).(Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
Considering the mutation rates that led to a genetic change, usually an animal that was isolated for a period of 1 million years was classified as different species and one that was genetically isolated for between 20,000 and 50,000 years was a different sub-species.
In the case of Sundarban Tiger, it was a part of a contiguous region with others and was perhaps separated about 500 to 1000 years ago.
An estimate provided by the forest department claims that 410 people were attacked by tigers between 1985 and 2010, leaving just 95 survivors. It is not established that Sunderban tigers are distinctly more man-eaters. Statistics make it myth. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
The Sundarban Tiger exhibits certain distinctive morphological adaptations that make it particularly suited to the mangrove habitat of Sundarban islands and capable of hunting in water. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (a)
There are 5 subspecies of Tigers (current living population) that have been identified and they are as follows Indian or Royal Bengal Tiger (Panthera tigris tigris), Indochinese Tiger (Panthera tigris corbetti), Siberian (Amur) Tiger (Panthera tigris altaica), South China Tiger (Panthera tigris amoyensis), Sumatran Tiger (Panthera tigris sumatrae).(Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
Considering the mutation rates that led to a genetic change, usually an animal that was isolated for a period of 1 million years was classified as different species and one that was genetically isolated for between 20,000 and 50,000 years was a different sub-species.
In the case of Sundarban Tiger, it was a part of a contiguous region with others and was perhaps separated about 500 to 1000 years ago.
An estimate provided by the forest department claims that 410 people were attacked by tigers between 1985 and 2010, leaving just 95 survivors. It is not established that Sunderban tigers are distinctly more man-eaters. Statistics make it myth. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
The Sundarban Tiger exhibits certain distinctive morphological adaptations that make it particularly suited to the mangrove habitat of Sundarban islands and capable of hunting in water. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
Question 4 of 35
4. Question
Consider the following statements about ‘Crystalline Silicon technology’:
It primarily utilizes organic materials for energy conversion.
It is limited to large-scale applications due to its efficiency.
It is exclusively employed in wind energy systems.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (d)
Crystalline Silicon technology primarily uses crystalline semiconductor materials, not organic polymers. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
It is not limited to small-scale applications; it is widely used in both small-scale and large-scale solar energy systems. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
Crystalline Silicon solar cells are made from semiconductor materials with a crystalline structure. There are two main types: monocrystalline silicon and polycrystalline silicon.
It is used in both photovoltaic (PV) systems and concentrated solar power systems. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect)
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Crystalline Silicon technology primarily uses crystalline semiconductor materials, not organic polymers. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
It is not limited to small-scale applications; it is widely used in both small-scale and large-scale solar energy systems. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
Crystalline Silicon solar cells are made from semiconductor materials with a crystalline structure. There are two main types: monocrystalline silicon and polycrystalline silicon.
It is used in both photovoltaic (PV) systems and concentrated solar power systems. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect)
Question 5 of 35
5. Question
Consider the following statements about Corals:
Corals can reproduce either asexually or sexually.
Black corals are carnivores.
Reef building corals can be found in both shallow and deep waters across the oceans.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
Corals have multiple reproductive strategies – they can be male or female or both, and can reproduce either asexually or sexually.
Asexual reproduction is important for increasing the size of the colony, and sexual reproduction increases genetic diversity and starts new colonies that can be far from the parents.(Hence statement 1 is correct)
Black corals are carnivores. Black corals can be found growing both in shallow waters and down to depths of over 26,000 feet (8,000 meters), and some individual corals can live for over 4,000 years. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
Black corals are filter feeders and eat tiny zooplankton that are abundant in deep waters. While colourful shallow-water corals rely on the sun and photosynthesis for energy.
Corals are found across the world’s ocean, in both shallow and deep water, but reef-building corals are only found in shallow tropical and subtropical waters. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect)
This is because the algae found in their tissues need light for photosynthesis and they prefer water temperatures between 70-85°F (22-29°C).
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Corals have multiple reproductive strategies – they can be male or female or both, and can reproduce either asexually or sexually.
Asexual reproduction is important for increasing the size of the colony, and sexual reproduction increases genetic diversity and starts new colonies that can be far from the parents.(Hence statement 1 is correct)
Black corals are carnivores. Black corals can be found growing both in shallow waters and down to depths of over 26,000 feet (8,000 meters), and some individual corals can live for over 4,000 years. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
Black corals are filter feeders and eat tiny zooplankton that are abundant in deep waters. While colourful shallow-water corals rely on the sun and photosynthesis for energy.
Corals are found across the world’s ocean, in both shallow and deep water, but reef-building corals are only found in shallow tropical and subtropical waters. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect)
This is because the algae found in their tissues need light for photosynthesis and they prefer water temperatures between 70-85°F (22-29°C).
Question 6 of 35
6. Question
Consider the following statements draughts in India:
India recognises and monitors only four types of droughts meteorological, hydrological, agricultural and ecological.
Ecological drought is episodic deficit in water availability that drives ecosystems beyond thresholds of vulnerability, impacts ecosystem services.
Choose the correct code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (b)
India monitors three types of droughts – meteorological, hydrological and agricultural. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
Ecological drought defines it as “an episodic deficit in water availability that drives ecosystems beyond thresholds of vulnerability, impacts ecosystem services and triggers feedbacks in natural and/or human systems.” (Hence statement 2 is correct)
What sets ecological drought apart is its emphasis on the interconnectedness between humans and ecosystems within the context of drought
Incorrect
Solution (b)
India monitors three types of droughts – meteorological, hydrological and agricultural. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
Ecological drought defines it as “an episodic deficit in water availability that drives ecosystems beyond thresholds of vulnerability, impacts ecosystem services and triggers feedbacks in natural and/or human systems.” (Hence statement 2 is correct)
What sets ecological drought apart is its emphasis on the interconnectedness between humans and ecosystems within the context of drought
Question 7 of 35
7. Question
Consider the following statements about Bears in India:
Sloth bear species is the smallest bear species found across the globe.
Himalayan brown Bear is least concerned based on its global stable population.
Recently a Tibetan brown bear has been spotted in India for the first time.
Sun Bear occurs in the North-eastern region is adapted to ‘myrmecophagy’.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Correct
Solution (b)
The Sun Bear (Helarctos malayanus) is mostly distributed in South-East Asia. In India it occurs in the North-eastern region, though it is not common. It is the smallest of the eight bear species found across the globe. The Sun Bear is threatened by trade both for pets and to provide various products. IUCN lists the Sun Bear as Vulnerable. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
The Brown Bear (Ursus arctos) is distinguished from the Himalayan Black Bear by its heavier built and brown coat. IUCN lists this species as one of Least Concern based on its globally stable population trend. However in much of its range in Asia (and India) it occurs patchily with little information about its population or connectivity of these scattered pockets. It is speculated that it is already extinct in Bhutan. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
India has recorded its first-ever confirmed record of a rare Tibetan Brown Bear. The bear was spotted in high altitudes of Northern Sikkim in the camera traps installed by the Sikkim Forest Department and WWF-India. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
The Sloth Bear (Melursus ursinus) is endemic to the Indian subcontinent and occurs in India, Nepal, Bhutan and Sri Lanka.
This particular species is the inspiration for the much loved character Baloo in Rudyard Kipling’s Junglebook.
The Sloth Bear is unique among the bear species in being adapted to ‘myrmecophagy’, i.e to eating ants and termites, which form a large proportion of its diet. IUCN lists the Sloth Bear as Vulnerable. (Hence statement 4 is incorrect)
Incorrect
Solution (b)
The Sun Bear (Helarctos malayanus) is mostly distributed in South-East Asia. In India it occurs in the North-eastern region, though it is not common. It is the smallest of the eight bear species found across the globe. The Sun Bear is threatened by trade both for pets and to provide various products. IUCN lists the Sun Bear as Vulnerable. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
The Brown Bear (Ursus arctos) is distinguished from the Himalayan Black Bear by its heavier built and brown coat. IUCN lists this species as one of Least Concern based on its globally stable population trend. However in much of its range in Asia (and India) it occurs patchily with little information about its population or connectivity of these scattered pockets. It is speculated that it is already extinct in Bhutan. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
India has recorded its first-ever confirmed record of a rare Tibetan Brown Bear. The bear was spotted in high altitudes of Northern Sikkim in the camera traps installed by the Sikkim Forest Department and WWF-India. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
The Sloth Bear (Melursus ursinus) is endemic to the Indian subcontinent and occurs in India, Nepal, Bhutan and Sri Lanka.
This particular species is the inspiration for the much loved character Baloo in Rudyard Kipling’s Junglebook.
The Sloth Bear is unique among the bear species in being adapted to ‘myrmecophagy’, i.e to eating ants and termites, which form a large proportion of its diet. IUCN lists the Sloth Bear as Vulnerable. (Hence statement 4 is incorrect)
Question 8 of 35
8. Question
What is the meaning of the term ‘Dark Fermentation’?
a) It is a process aimed at decreasing atmospheric CO2 levels.
b) It is a technique for generating Hydrogen fuel from wastewater.
c) It is a method for the disposal of nuclear wastes.
d) It is a process for producing methane from organic waste.
Correct
Solution (b)
Dark fermentation is the fermentative conversion of organic substrate to bio-hydrogen.
It is a complex process manifested by diverse groups of bacteria, involving a series of biochemical reactions using three steps similar to anaerobic conversion.
Wastewater is used as a potential substrate for bio-hydrogen production in the dark fermentation process.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Dark fermentation is the fermentative conversion of organic substrate to bio-hydrogen.
It is a complex process manifested by diverse groups of bacteria, involving a series of biochemical reactions using three steps similar to anaerobic conversion.
Wastewater is used as a potential substrate for bio-hydrogen production in the dark fermentation process.
Question 9 of 35
9. Question
Arrange following National Park in North to South order:
Jim Corbett National Park
Dudhwa National Park
Govind Pashu Vihar National Park
Rajaji National Park
Choose correct code from below.
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 2, 3. 4. 1
c) 3, 4, 1, 2
d) 4, 1, 2, 3
Correct
Solution (c)
Three national parks are of Uttarakhand and only one is from Uttar Pradesh. Knowing that national park of UP gives correct answer.
As Dudhwa National Park is located in Uttar Pradesh and other three are north of it, option c is correct.
Important Points/Value Additions:
Govind Pashu Vihar National Park is located in Uttarkashi district, Uttarakhand. Nestled in the western Himalayas is known for its diverse flora and fauna. It encompasses alpine meadows, glaciers, and high-altitude landscapes, providing habitat to species like snow leopards, Himalayan tahr, and numerous bird species.
Rajaji National Park spread across the Shivalik ranges in Uttarakhand and named after C. Rajagopalachari, the last Governor-General of India. It is a national park and tiger reserve, known for its rich biodiversity, including elephants, tigers, leopards, and several species of deer. The park is characterized by diverse landscapes, including river valleys and dense forests.
Jim Corbett National Park located in the Nainital district of Uttarakhand. It is India’s oldest national park, established in 1936, renowned for its diverse wildlife, including Bengal tigers, elephants, and various bird species. It is spread across the Himalayan foothills, encompassing riverine belts, grasslands, and dense forests.
Dudhwa National Park situated on the India-Nepal border in the Lakhimpur Kheri district of Uttar Pradesh, India. It is a protected area known for its swamp deer population. Dudhwa National Park features grasslands, dense forests, and the enchanting Terai ecosystem. The park is home to tigers, leopards, and a variety of bird species.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Three national parks are of Uttarakhand and only one is from Uttar Pradesh. Knowing that national park of UP gives correct answer.
As Dudhwa National Park is located in Uttar Pradesh and other three are north of it, option c is correct.
Important Points/Value Additions:
Govind Pashu Vihar National Park is located in Uttarkashi district, Uttarakhand. Nestled in the western Himalayas is known for its diverse flora and fauna. It encompasses alpine meadows, glaciers, and high-altitude landscapes, providing habitat to species like snow leopards, Himalayan tahr, and numerous bird species.
Rajaji National Park spread across the Shivalik ranges in Uttarakhand and named after C. Rajagopalachari, the last Governor-General of India. It is a national park and tiger reserve, known for its rich biodiversity, including elephants, tigers, leopards, and several species of deer. The park is characterized by diverse landscapes, including river valleys and dense forests.
Jim Corbett National Park located in the Nainital district of Uttarakhand. It is India’s oldest national park, established in 1936, renowned for its diverse wildlife, including Bengal tigers, elephants, and various bird species. It is spread across the Himalayan foothills, encompassing riverine belts, grasslands, and dense forests.
Dudhwa National Park situated on the India-Nepal border in the Lakhimpur Kheri district of Uttar Pradesh, India. It is a protected area known for its swamp deer population. Dudhwa National Park features grasslands, dense forests, and the enchanting Terai ecosystem. The park is home to tigers, leopards, and a variety of bird species.
Question 10 of 35
10. Question
“It is one of the few and one of the smallest national parks located within a city. One of the few remaining remnants of Southern Tropical Dry Evergreen Forests forms a pattern of mosaic with grasslands and scrubs. Well-developed Banyan trees typically dominate the woodlands. Blackbucks, Spotted Deer, Jackals, Palm Civets are well-adapted to open grasslands of diverse sizes.”
Which of the following National Park is associated with above description?
a) Sanjay Gandhi National Park
b) Guindy National Park
c) Mount Harriet National Park
d) Bannerghatta National Park
Correct
Solution (b)
Sanjay Gandhi National Park located in the northern part of Mumbai, this national park is known for its biodiversity and the ancient Kanheri Caves. The most dominating habitat-type here is the Forest habitat. Of flowering plants alone, an estimated 1300 species exist. Much of the forest here conforms to the southern mixed-deciduous forest, dominated by the Tectona, Albizzia, Terminalia, Holarrhena, Firmiana, Dalbergia etc. In fauna Spotted Deer, Sambhar, Barking Deer, Black-naped Hare and Leopard dominate. (Hence option a is incorrect)
Guindy National Park is situated in the city of Chennai. It is one of the smallest national parks in India. It is home to various species of flora and fauna. It is one of the few national parks located within a city. One of the few remaining remnants of Southern Tropical Dry Evergreen Forests forms a pattern of mosaic with grasslands and scrubs in the National Park, but well-developed Banyan trees typically dominate the woodlands. Blackbucks and Spotted Deer are well-adapted to open grasslands of diverse sizes. (Hence option b is correct)
Mount Harriet National Park is situated on the northern part of South Andaman Island, approximately 15 kilometers by road from Port Blair, the capital city of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. The national park is known for its diverse flora and fauna. The forested area is home to a variety of plant species, including orchids, ferns, and other tropical vegetation. The park is also inhabited by various bird species, making it a destination for birdwatching. (Hence option c is incorrect)
Bannerghatta National Park is a national park in India, located near Bangalore, Karnataka. The park has evergreen primary forests, and at Chiriyatapu the forest type is mixed deciduous, a combination of primary and secondary forests. The three types of forests are categorized as tropical evergreen, hilltop tropical evergreen and littoral. Overall 134 plant and tree species are reported, including 74 native and 51 introduced species. (Hence option d is incorrect)
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Sanjay Gandhi National Park located in the northern part of Mumbai, this national park is known for its biodiversity and the ancient Kanheri Caves. The most dominating habitat-type here is the Forest habitat. Of flowering plants alone, an estimated 1300 species exist. Much of the forest here conforms to the southern mixed-deciduous forest, dominated by the Tectona, Albizzia, Terminalia, Holarrhena, Firmiana, Dalbergia etc. In fauna Spotted Deer, Sambhar, Barking Deer, Black-naped Hare and Leopard dominate. (Hence option a is incorrect)
Guindy National Park is situated in the city of Chennai. It is one of the smallest national parks in India. It is home to various species of flora and fauna. It is one of the few national parks located within a city. One of the few remaining remnants of Southern Tropical Dry Evergreen Forests forms a pattern of mosaic with grasslands and scrubs in the National Park, but well-developed Banyan trees typically dominate the woodlands. Blackbucks and Spotted Deer are well-adapted to open grasslands of diverse sizes. (Hence option b is correct)
Mount Harriet National Park is situated on the northern part of South Andaman Island, approximately 15 kilometers by road from Port Blair, the capital city of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. The national park is known for its diverse flora and fauna. The forested area is home to a variety of plant species, including orchids, ferns, and other tropical vegetation. The park is also inhabited by various bird species, making it a destination for birdwatching. (Hence option c is incorrect)
Bannerghatta National Park is a national park in India, located near Bangalore, Karnataka. The park has evergreen primary forests, and at Chiriyatapu the forest type is mixed deciduous, a combination of primary and secondary forests. The three types of forests are categorized as tropical evergreen, hilltop tropical evergreen and littoral. Overall 134 plant and tree species are reported, including 74 native and 51 introduced species. (Hence option d is incorrect)
Question 11 of 35
11. Question
Consider the following statements in context of ‘Dark Sky Park’:
Pench Tiger Reserve becomes India’s first Dark Sky Park.
It is primarily driven by the need to shield the night sky from light pollution.
It is funded by the District Planning Community (DPC), designates the area for immersive stargazing.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (c)
The Pench Tiger Reserve (PTR) in Maharashtra has attained the distinction of becoming India’s inaugural Dark Sky Park and the fifth in Asia. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
The decision to designate Pench as the first Dark Sky Park is driven by the need to shield the night sky from light pollution. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
As India’s first and Asia’s eighth Dark Sky Park, the Pench Tiger Reserve underscores its commitment to preserving an unspoiled night sky.
The recently inaugurated night sky observatory, funded by the District Planning Community (DPC), designates the area near Bagholi for immersive stargazing. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
A dark-sky preserve is an area, typically surrounding a park or observatory, that limits artificial light pollution.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
The Pench Tiger Reserve (PTR) in Maharashtra has attained the distinction of becoming India’s inaugural Dark Sky Park and the fifth in Asia. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
The decision to designate Pench as the first Dark Sky Park is driven by the need to shield the night sky from light pollution. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
As India’s first and Asia’s eighth Dark Sky Park, the Pench Tiger Reserve underscores its commitment to preserving an unspoiled night sky.
The recently inaugurated night sky observatory, funded by the District Planning Community (DPC), designates the area near Bagholi for immersive stargazing. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
A dark-sky preserve is an area, typically surrounding a park or observatory, that limits artificial light pollution.
Question 12 of 35
12. Question
Consider following statements:
Balaram Ambaji and Jessore (Banaskantha district), Jambughoda (Panchmahal district), Ratanmahal (Dahod district) are wildlife sanctuaries located in a state.
They offer safe homes to flagship species of sloth bears along with leopards, striped hyenas, jackals, wolves, jungle cats, blue bulls, wild boars, Indian foxes etc.
CAG report highlighted widespread violations, poor management and encroachments.
Which of the following state is associated with above mentioned description?
a) Gujarat
b) Madhya Pradesh
c) Uttar Pradesh
d) Rajasthan
Correct
Solution (a)
A series of violations and other discrepancies have been threatening wildlife in Gujarat, especially in six sanctuaries managed by the state forest department, flagged the Comptroller Auditor General of India (CAG).
Six sanctuaries in Gujarat — Balaram Ambaji and Jessore (Banaskantha district); Jambughoda (Panchmahal district), Ratanmahal (Dahod district), Shoolpaneshwar (Narmada district) and Purna (Tapi and Dangs districts) — offer safe homes to sloth bears, leopards, striped hyenas, jackals, wolves, jungle cats, blue bulls, wild boars, Indian foxes, Indian hares, common langurs, reptiles, birds, barking deers, antelopes and chitals, among others.
The Ratanmahal sanctuary hosts sloth bears, a flagship species in the area.
Poor spending of funds has led to mismanagement, leaving the forests open for encroachment, mining and deforestation, added CAG in its report tabled in the state assembly on September 16, 2023.
Less than 1 per cent of the allotted fund was spent by the forest department in 2016-17. Though the state government allocated Rs 85,557.78 crore, just Rs 1,000 crore or 0.78 per cent was spent, CAG pointed out.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
A series of violations and other discrepancies have been threatening wildlife in Gujarat, especially in six sanctuaries managed by the state forest department, flagged the Comptroller Auditor General of India (CAG).
Six sanctuaries in Gujarat — Balaram Ambaji and Jessore (Banaskantha district); Jambughoda (Panchmahal district), Ratanmahal (Dahod district), Shoolpaneshwar (Narmada district) and Purna (Tapi and Dangs districts) — offer safe homes to sloth bears, leopards, striped hyenas, jackals, wolves, jungle cats, blue bulls, wild boars, Indian foxes, Indian hares, common langurs, reptiles, birds, barking deers, antelopes and chitals, among others.
The Ratanmahal sanctuary hosts sloth bears, a flagship species in the area.
Poor spending of funds has led to mismanagement, leaving the forests open for encroachment, mining and deforestation, added CAG in its report tabled in the state assembly on September 16, 2023.
Less than 1 per cent of the allotted fund was spent by the forest department in 2016-17. Though the state government allocated Rs 85,557.78 crore, just Rs 1,000 crore or 0.78 per cent was spent, CAG pointed out.
Question 13 of 35
13. Question
“The National Park encompasses the catchments of Kiar, Nath and Kibar Nalas, all of which drain south-west into Marwah River (also known as Marusudar River). The terrain is generally rugged and steep with narrow valleys bounded by high ridges opening out in their upper glacial parts. It encompasses breathtaking alpine meadow.”
The above description reflects which one of the following National Park?
a) Kishtwar National Park
b) Dachigam National Park
c) Hemis National Park
d) Salim Ali National Park
Correct
Solution (a)
Recently, the research team of the Department of Wildlife Protection has confirmed the presence of snow leopard in Kishtwar High Altitude National Park through camera trap photographs. (Hence option a is correct)
Camera traps had captured two snow leopards in Nant Nullah area. In Marwah and Dachhan areas, camera traps have captured images of three snow leopards.
Important Points/Value Additions:
Snow leopard listed as vulnerable on the International Union for Conservation of Nature red list in view of their depleting numbers.
There are estimated to be fewer than 10,000 mature snow leopards across the globe.
These animals usually live above the tree line on alpine meadows and in rocky regions at elevations of 2,700 metres to 6,000 metres during summer. In winter, they come down to elevations around 1,200 m to 2,000 m.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Recently, the research team of the Department of Wildlife Protection has confirmed the presence of snow leopard in Kishtwar High Altitude National Park through camera trap photographs. (Hence option a is correct)
Camera traps had captured two snow leopards in Nant Nullah area. In Marwah and Dachhan areas, camera traps have captured images of three snow leopards.
Important Points/Value Additions:
Snow leopard listed as vulnerable on the International Union for Conservation of Nature red list in view of their depleting numbers.
There are estimated to be fewer than 10,000 mature snow leopards across the globe.
These animals usually live above the tree line on alpine meadows and in rocky regions at elevations of 2,700 metres to 6,000 metres during summer. In winter, they come down to elevations around 1,200 m to 2,000 m.
Question 14 of 35
14. Question
Consider following pairs:
Protected Area State
Kaimur Wildlife Sanctury: Bihar
Yeslur Forest Range: Jharkhand
Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctury: Punjab
How many of the above pairs are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (a)
The much-awaited second tiger reserve of Bihar is all set to come up either by the end of 2023 or early 2024, according to the officials of the Bihar Forest, Environment and Climate Change Department.
The officials have been working towards obtaining the National Tiger Reserve Conservation Authority’s (NTCA) approval for declaring Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary as the state’s second tiger reserve after the Valmiki Tiger Reserve (VTR). (Hence option 1 is correct)
The state of Karnataka’s beloved elephant Arjuna was killed in a freak encounter with a wild tusker during an elephant capture operation in the Yeslur forest range in Hassan district. The operation was part of a mass radio collaring of elephants as per an order by the forest department. (Hence option 2 is incorrect)
Restraining the Delhi government’s Forest department from holding a proposed event ‘Walk with Wildlife’ inside the city’s Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary, the Delhi High Court said that the department gave permission for the event in a mechanical manner. It added that the department did not analyse the threat perception as the event has trappings of a misadventure.
The high court in its order also remarked that while wildlife sanctuaries are made for the preservation and protection of wildlife in their natural habitats, “lately, man has been encroaching on the habitat of wildlife”. (Hence option 3 is incorrect)
Incorrect
Solution (a)
The much-awaited second tiger reserve of Bihar is all set to come up either by the end of 2023 or early 2024, according to the officials of the Bihar Forest, Environment and Climate Change Department.
The officials have been working towards obtaining the National Tiger Reserve Conservation Authority’s (NTCA) approval for declaring Kaimur Wildlife Sanctuary as the state’s second tiger reserve after the Valmiki Tiger Reserve (VTR). (Hence option 1 is correct)
The state of Karnataka’s beloved elephant Arjuna was killed in a freak encounter with a wild tusker during an elephant capture operation in the Yeslur forest range in Hassan district. The operation was part of a mass radio collaring of elephants as per an order by the forest department. (Hence option 2 is incorrect)
Restraining the Delhi government’s Forest department from holding a proposed event ‘Walk with Wildlife’ inside the city’s Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary, the Delhi High Court said that the department gave permission for the event in a mechanical manner. It added that the department did not analyse the threat perception as the event has trappings of a misadventure.
The high court in its order also remarked that while wildlife sanctuaries are made for the preservation and protection of wildlife in their natural habitats, “lately, man has been encroaching on the habitat of wildlife”. (Hence option 3 is incorrect)
Question 15 of 35
15. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to the recently released report titled ‘Elephant Corridors of India, 2023’:
It mentioned an increase of 40 per cent of elephant corridors since 2010.
Karnataka has the highest number of identified elephant corridors in India, accounting for over 17% of all the reported elephant corridors in the country.
The Southern region harbors the largest elephant population in India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
A total of 150 elephant corridors were reported from 15 elephant range states across the four elephant-bearing regions of India. Elephant Task Force of the Government of India listed 88 corridors in to the Gajah report published during 2010. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
West Bengal has the highest number of identified elephant corridors in India, accounting for over 17% of all the reported elephant corridors in the country. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
Among the four elephant-bearing regions, nearly 35% of the elephant corridors were in the East-central region, followed by 32% in the North-east region.
The Southern region, which harbors the largest elephant population in India accounts for 21% of the elephant corridors in India. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
The Northern region that harbors the smallest of the four regional elephant populations, has the least number of elephant corridors, accounting for 12% of all the reported elephant corridors in the country.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
A total of 150 elephant corridors were reported from 15 elephant range states across the four elephant-bearing regions of India. Elephant Task Force of the Government of India listed 88 corridors in to the Gajah report published during 2010. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
West Bengal has the highest number of identified elephant corridors in India, accounting for over 17% of all the reported elephant corridors in the country. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
Among the four elephant-bearing regions, nearly 35% of the elephant corridors were in the East-central region, followed by 32% in the North-east region.
The Southern region, which harbors the largest elephant population in India accounts for 21% of the elephant corridors in India. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
The Northern region that harbors the smallest of the four regional elephant populations, has the least number of elephant corridors, accounting for 12% of all the reported elephant corridors in the country.
Question 16 of 35
16. Question
Consider the following statements about POEM platform of ISRO:
It will help perform in-orbit experiments using the final, and otherwise discarded stage of Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV).
It has a dedicated Navigation Guidance and Control (NGC) system for attitude stabilization.
It allows space agencies and private companies to design, develop and validate experimental orbital payloads.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
POEM (PSLV Orbital Experimental Module) is an experimental mission by ISRO which performs in-orbit scientific experiments during the fourth stage of the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) launch vehicle as an orbital platform. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
According to ISRO, POEM has a dedicated Navigation Guidance and Control (NGC) system for attitude stabilisation, which stands for controlling the orientation of any aerospace vehicle within permitted limits. The NGC will act as the platform’s brain to stabilize it with specified accuracy. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
The space agency’s POEM platform has standard interfaces and packaging for power generation, telemetry, tele-command stabilisation, orbital-station keeping and orbital maneuvering. This allows space agencies and private companies to design, develop and validate experimental orbital payloads. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (b)
POEM (PSLV Orbital Experimental Module) is an experimental mission by ISRO which performs in-orbit scientific experiments during the fourth stage of the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) launch vehicle as an orbital platform. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
According to ISRO, POEM has a dedicated Navigation Guidance and Control (NGC) system for attitude stabilisation, which stands for controlling the orientation of any aerospace vehicle within permitted limits. The NGC will act as the platform’s brain to stabilize it with specified accuracy. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
The space agency’s POEM platform has standard interfaces and packaging for power generation, telemetry, tele-command stabilisation, orbital-station keeping and orbital maneuvering. This allows space agencies and private companies to design, develop and validate experimental orbital payloads. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
Question 17 of 35
17. Question
‘Wetland City Accreditation (WCA)’ was established by which one of the following organizations?
a) Wetlands International
b) Ramsar Convention
c) UN Environment Programme
d) World Wildlife Fund
Correct
Solution (b)
Wetlands International is a non-profit organization that works to restore and sustain wetlands and their resources for biodiversity and people. It is the only global organization dedicated to this purpose. (Option a is incorrect)
The Wetland City Accreditation (WCA) is a voluntary program that recognizes cities that have made exceptional efforts to protect their urban wetlands. The Ramsar Convention established the WCA during the 2015 Conference of the Contracting Parties (COP) 12, and the accreditation is valid for six years. (Option b is correct)
The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) is the United Nations’ leading environmental authority. It was established in 1972 by Maurice Strong and is responsible for coordinating responses to environmental issues within the United Nations system. (Option c is incorrect)
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Wetlands International is a non-profit organization that works to restore and sustain wetlands and their resources for biodiversity and people. It is the only global organization dedicated to this purpose. (Option a is incorrect)
The Wetland City Accreditation (WCA) is a voluntary program that recognizes cities that have made exceptional efforts to protect their urban wetlands. The Ramsar Convention established the WCA during the 2015 Conference of the Contracting Parties (COP) 12, and the accreditation is valid for six years. (Option b is correct)
The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) is the United Nations’ leading environmental authority. It was established in 1972 by Maurice Strong and is responsible for coordinating responses to environmental issues within the United Nations system. (Option c is incorrect)
Question 18 of 35
18. Question
Consider the following points with reference to Namami Gange Programme:
Sewerage Treatment Infrastructure
River-Front Development
River-Surface Cleaning
Ganga Gram
How many of the points above are part of the main pillars of the Namami Gange Programme?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Correct
Solution (d)
‘Namami Gange Programme’, is an Integrated Conservation Mission, approved as ‘Flagship Programme’ by the Union Government in June 2014 with budget outlay of Rs.20,000 Crore to accomplish the twin objectives of effective abatement of pollution, conservation and rejuvenation of National River Ganga.
Sewerage Treatment Infrastructure is a core aspect of the Namami Gange Programme, aiming to enhance the capacity and efficiency of sewage treatment across the Ganga basin to reduce the direct discharge of untreated sewage into the river. (Statement 1 is correct)
River-front development projects, including ghats and crematoria, are integral to the Namami Gange Programme. These projects aim to improve cleanliness, aesthetics, and environmental sustainability along the riverbanks. (Statement 2 is correct)
River-Surface Cleaning involves removing floating waste from the surface of the Ganga and its tributaries. The initiative is crucial for improving water quality and maintaining the ecological health of the river. (Statement 3 is correct)
The Ganga Gram initiative focuses on the holistic development of villages along the Ganges with improved sanitation, solid and liquid waste management, and water conservation practices. (Statement 4 is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (d)
‘Namami Gange Programme’, is an Integrated Conservation Mission, approved as ‘Flagship Programme’ by the Union Government in June 2014 with budget outlay of Rs.20,000 Crore to accomplish the twin objectives of effective abatement of pollution, conservation and rejuvenation of National River Ganga.
Sewerage Treatment Infrastructure is a core aspect of the Namami Gange Programme, aiming to enhance the capacity and efficiency of sewage treatment across the Ganga basin to reduce the direct discharge of untreated sewage into the river. (Statement 1 is correct)
River-front development projects, including ghats and crematoria, are integral to the Namami Gange Programme. These projects aim to improve cleanliness, aesthetics, and environmental sustainability along the riverbanks. (Statement 2 is correct)
River-Surface Cleaning involves removing floating waste from the surface of the Ganga and its tributaries. The initiative is crucial for improving water quality and maintaining the ecological health of the river. (Statement 3 is correct)
The Ganga Gram initiative focuses on the holistic development of villages along the Ganges with improved sanitation, solid and liquid waste management, and water conservation practices. (Statement 4 is correct)
Question 19 of 35
19. Question
Which one of the following best describes the process of “coal gasification”?
a) A process that converts fossil-based carbonaceous materials into carbon monoxide, hydrogen, and carbon dioxide.
b) The extraction of methane gas from coal seams without converting the coal into synthetic gas.
c) A technique that prevents carbon dioxide from coal combustion from entering the atmosphere.
d) The direct combustion of coal in power plants to generate electricity without any intermediate process.
Correct
Solution (a)
Coal gasification is a process that involves the conversion of coal or any other carbonaceous material into synthetic gas (syngas), which primarily consists of carbon monoxide and hydrogen.
The syngas produced can then be used for various applications, including electricity generation, production of chemical feedstocks, and as a fuel for heating. This process allows for more efficient use of coal and can reduce environmental impact compared to direct combustion. (Option a is correct)
The statement describes the process of coal bed methane extraction, not coal gasification. Coal bed methane extraction involves the removal of methane gas directly from coal seams, which is distinct from the gasification process that produces synthetic gas from coal. (Option b is incorrect)
This option refers to carbon capture and storage (CCS), a technology aimed at capturing carbon dioxide emissions from sources like power plants and storing it underground to prevent it from entering the atmosphere. While CCS can be associated with coal gasification, it is not a description of the gasification process itself. (Option c is incorrect)
This option describes the traditional method of using coal for energy production through direct combustion. Coal gasification, however, involves a conversion process to produce syngas before any combustion for energy production takes place, making this process more versatile and potentially more environmentally friendly than direct combustion. (Option d is incorrect)
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Coal gasification is a process that involves the conversion of coal or any other carbonaceous material into synthetic gas (syngas), which primarily consists of carbon monoxide and hydrogen.
The syngas produced can then be used for various applications, including electricity generation, production of chemical feedstocks, and as a fuel for heating. This process allows for more efficient use of coal and can reduce environmental impact compared to direct combustion. (Option a is correct)
The statement describes the process of coal bed methane extraction, not coal gasification. Coal bed methane extraction involves the removal of methane gas directly from coal seams, which is distinct from the gasification process that produces synthetic gas from coal. (Option b is incorrect)
This option refers to carbon capture and storage (CCS), a technology aimed at capturing carbon dioxide emissions from sources like power plants and storing it underground to prevent it from entering the atmosphere. While CCS can be associated with coal gasification, it is not a description of the gasification process itself. (Option c is incorrect)
This option describes the traditional method of using coal for energy production through direct combustion. Coal gasification, however, involves a conversion process to produce syngas before any combustion for energy production takes place, making this process more versatile and potentially more environmentally friendly than direct combustion. (Option d is incorrect)
Question 20 of 35
20. Question
Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) is primarily used as a measure of –
a) The concentration of oxygen dissolved in freshwater bodies.
b) The oxygen consumption rate of microorganisms in soil.
c) The efficiency of oxygen usage in aerobic exercise.
d) The total quantity of oxygen required to decompose organic and inorganic matter in water.
Correct
Solution (d)
Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) is an important environmental parameter used to assess the pollution level in water bodies.
This option describes dissolved oxygen (DO), which measures the amount of oxygen freely available in water bodies, crucial for the survival of aquatic life. It does not relate to the COD, which focuses on the oxygen demand of water pollutants. (Option a is incorrect)
Oxygen consumption rate of microorganisms in soil relates to soil respiration, a process different from COD. COD pertains specifically to water bodies and is unrelated to soil microbial activity. (Option b is incorrect)
This option is related to the physiological measurement of oxygen efficiency during physical activities and is unrelated to COD, which is an environmental metric for water quality. (Option c is incorrect)
Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) measures the total quantity of oxygen required to chemically oxidize organic and inorganic pollutants in water. It is a critical parameter for assessing the pollution level of water, indicating the amount of oxygen needed to break down pollutants present. (Option d is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) is an important environmental parameter used to assess the pollution level in water bodies.
This option describes dissolved oxygen (DO), which measures the amount of oxygen freely available in water bodies, crucial for the survival of aquatic life. It does not relate to the COD, which focuses on the oxygen demand of water pollutants. (Option a is incorrect)
Oxygen consumption rate of microorganisms in soil relates to soil respiration, a process different from COD. COD pertains specifically to water bodies and is unrelated to soil microbial activity. (Option b is incorrect)
This option is related to the physiological measurement of oxygen efficiency during physical activities and is unrelated to COD, which is an environmental metric for water quality. (Option c is incorrect)
Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) measures the total quantity of oxygen required to chemically oxidize organic and inorganic pollutants in water. It is a critical parameter for assessing the pollution level of water, indicating the amount of oxygen needed to break down pollutants present. (Option d is correct)
Question 21 of 35
21. Question
Consider the following statements about Pompeii
It lies at the southeastern base of Mount Vesuvius.
It is a preserved ancient Roman city located near modern-day Naples, Italy.
It was built on a spur formed by a prehistoric lava flow to the north of the mouth of the Sarno River.
It featured a complex municipal water system, an amphitheatre, and a gymnasium.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Correct
Solution (d)
Pompeii lies at the southeastern base of Mount Vesuvius. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It was conquered and absorbed into the Roman Empire in 80 BCE.
At its height, the small city had a thriving economy based on trade and agriculture.
The population of the town has been estimated at 10-12,000, with one-third being slaves.
It is a preserved ancient Roman city located near modern-day Naples, Italy. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The area was originally settled in the Bronze Age on an escarpment at the mouth of the Sarnus(modern Sarno) River.
It was built on a spur formed by a prehistoric lava flow to the north of the mouth of the Sarno River. Hence statement 3 is correct.
The city was buried in volcanic ash following the eruption of Mt. Vesuvius in 79 CE.
Pompeii was lost and forgotten until it was rediscovered in 1748.
Its excellent state of preservation gives an invaluable insight into Roman everyday life.
It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
It featured a complex municipal water system, an amphitheatre, and a gymnasium. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Pompeii lies at the southeastern base of Mount Vesuvius. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It was conquered and absorbed into the Roman Empire in 80 BCE.
At its height, the small city had a thriving economy based on trade and agriculture.
The population of the town has been estimated at 10-12,000, with one-third being slaves.
It is a preserved ancient Roman city located near modern-day Naples, Italy. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The area was originally settled in the Bronze Age on an escarpment at the mouth of the Sarnus(modern Sarno) River.
It was built on a spur formed by a prehistoric lava flow to the north of the mouth of the Sarno River. Hence statement 3 is correct.
The city was buried in volcanic ash following the eruption of Mt. Vesuvius in 79 CE.
Pompeii was lost and forgotten until it was rediscovered in 1748.
Its excellent state of preservation gives an invaluable insight into Roman everyday life.
It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
It featured a complex municipal water system, an amphitheatre, and a gymnasium. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Question 22 of 35
22. Question
Consider the following statements about Bumblebees
They are large, hairy, social bees belonging to the family Apidae.
They occur throughout much of the world but are most common in tropical climates.
They make honey like honeybees as they need to store food for winter.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (a)
Bumblebees are large, hairy, social bees belonging to the family Apidae. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The family Apidae includes the well-known honey bees and bumble bees, as well as carpenter bees, cuckoo bees, digger bees, stingless bees, and orchid bees.
They are large, yellow, and black flying insects with a distinct buzz.
There is variation in coloration among bumblebees, and some species have bands of red, yellow, and black.
They have stocky bodies that are covered with many hairs to which pollen adheres.
They occur throughout much of the world but are most common in temperate climates. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
There are over 250 known species, existing primarily in the Northern Hemisphere.
They are known for their ability to collect nectar from flowers and pollinate plants.
Bumblebees have four wings; the two rear wings are small and usually attached to the fore wings by a row of hooks called hamuli.
The wings move rapidly, at 130-240 beats per second.
They are social insects that live in colonies. The queen bee, drones, and worker bees all have specific tasks to help support the colony.
Unlike the honeybee, bumblebees do not make honey, as they do not need to store food for winter. Instead, the season’s new queens hibernate and emerge to find their nests in the spring. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Bumblebees are large, hairy, social bees belonging to the family Apidae. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The family Apidae includes the well-known honey bees and bumble bees, as well as carpenter bees, cuckoo bees, digger bees, stingless bees, and orchid bees.
They are large, yellow, and black flying insects with a distinct buzz.
There is variation in coloration among bumblebees, and some species have bands of red, yellow, and black.
They have stocky bodies that are covered with many hairs to which pollen adheres.
They occur throughout much of the world but are most common in temperate climates. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
There are over 250 known species, existing primarily in the Northern Hemisphere.
They are known for their ability to collect nectar from flowers and pollinate plants.
Bumblebees have four wings; the two rear wings are small and usually attached to the fore wings by a row of hooks called hamuli.
The wings move rapidly, at 130-240 beats per second.
They are social insects that live in colonies. The queen bee, drones, and worker bees all have specific tasks to help support the colony.
Unlike the honeybee, bumblebees do not make honey, as they do not need to store food for winter. Instead, the season’s new queens hibernate and emerge to find their nests in the spring. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Question 23 of 35
23. Question
Consider the following statements about Sudan
It is mainly composed of vast plains and plateaus that are drained by the Nile River and its tributaries.
It shares a border only with its five neighbours South Sudan, Egypt, Libya, Chad, and the Central African Republic.
Khartoum is its capital and its official languages are Arabic and English.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
Sudan is mainly composed of vast plains and plateaus that are drained by the Nile River and its tributaries. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Much of Sudan consists of deserts and arid grasslands with little in the way of vegetation. The northern part of this plain is a primarily rocky desert area called the Nubian Desert.
It is located in northeastern Africa. It is the third largest nation in all of Africa occupying an area of 1,886,068 sq. km.
It shares a border only with its seven neighbours South Sudan, Ethiopia, Eritrea, Egypt, Libya, Chad, and the Central African Republic. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Sudan also has a significant coastline along the Red Sea. This narrow strip of water gives vital access to the Indian Ocean as well as the Mediterranean Sea through the Suez Canal.
Before the secession of the south in 2011, Sudan was the largest African country, with an area that represented more than 8 percent of the African continent
It is dominated by Muslims who identify themselves as Arabs.
Khartoum is its capital and its official languages are Arabic and English. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Sudan is mainly composed of vast plains and plateaus that are drained by the Nile River and its tributaries. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Much of Sudan consists of deserts and arid grasslands with little in the way of vegetation. The northern part of this plain is a primarily rocky desert area called the Nubian Desert.
It is located in northeastern Africa. It is the third largest nation in all of Africa occupying an area of 1,886,068 sq. km.
It shares a border only with its seven neighbours South Sudan, Ethiopia, Eritrea, Egypt, Libya, Chad, and the Central African Republic. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Sudan also has a significant coastline along the Red Sea. This narrow strip of water gives vital access to the Indian Ocean as well as the Mediterranean Sea through the Suez Canal.
Before the secession of the south in 2011, Sudan was the largest African country, with an area that represented more than 8 percent of the African continent
It is dominated by Muslims who identify themselves as Arabs.
Khartoum is its capital and its official languages are Arabic and English. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Question 24 of 35
24. Question
Consider the following statements about the Laccadive Sea
It is a body of water bordering India, the Maldives, and Sri Lanka.
It is part of the Indian Ocean, the world’s third-largest body of water.
It touches the Nine Degree Channel to its north.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
The Laccadive Sea is a body of water bordering India, the Maldives, and Sri Lanka. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It is 303,476 square miles in area.
It is part of the Indian Ocean, the world’s third-largest body of water. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Lakshadweep Sea meets the Arabian Sea in the north, while to the northeast, it borders the Kerala state of India.
It touches the Nine Degree Channel to its south. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
With an average depth of 6,329 feet, the Lakshadweep Sea is only half as deep as the average depth of the entire Indian Ocean.
This warm sea has a stable water temperature throughout the year and is rich in marine life; the Gulf of Mannar alone hosts about 3,600 species.
Considering the coral reefs of the Lakshadweep Sea alone, there are nearly 120 observed living species.
Major cities along its shores include Trivandrum, Kochi, Quilon, Colombo, and Male.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
The Laccadive Sea is a body of water bordering India, the Maldives, and Sri Lanka. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It is 303,476 square miles in area.
It is part of the Indian Ocean, the world’s third-largest body of water. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Lakshadweep Sea meets the Arabian Sea in the north, while to the northeast, it borders the Kerala state of India.
It touches the Nine Degree Channel to its south. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
With an average depth of 6,329 feet, the Lakshadweep Sea is only half as deep as the average depth of the entire Indian Ocean.
This warm sea has a stable water temperature throughout the year and is rich in marine life; the Gulf of Mannar alone hosts about 3,600 species.
Considering the coral reefs of the Lakshadweep Sea alone, there are nearly 120 observed living species.
Major cities along its shores include Trivandrum, Kochi, Quilon, Colombo, and Male.
Question 25 of 35
25. Question
Consider the following statements about the Athletics Federation of India (AFI)
It is a statutory top governing body responsible for overseeing athletics in India.
It organises the National Championships and selects the Indian Athletics Teams for various international competitions.
It is affiliated with the World Athletics, the Asian Athletics Association (AAA), and the Indian Olympic Association.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
The Athletics Federation of India (AFI) is a non-governmental, non-profitable autonomous top governing body responsible for overseeing athletics in India. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
It was formerly called the Amateur Athletic Federation of India (AAFI).
The AFI has as many as 32 affiliated state units and institutional units.
It organises the National Championships and selects the Indian Athletics Teams for various international competitions. Hence statement 2 is correct.
It trains the Indian Athletics National Campers, selects the Indian Athletics Teams for various international competitions, including the Olympics, Asian Games, CWG, World Championships, Asian Championships, and other international meets, and conducts the National Championships for various age categories.
The AFI conducts international and national championships and various meets to promote the sport, popularise it amongst the masses, and make athletics commercially attractive for the further growth of the athlete and the sport.
It supervises and assists its state units in their activities, plans and sets up special coaching camps, coaches training, and takes initiatives for development programme and grassroots promotion of athletics in India.
It is affiliated with the World Athletics, the Asian Athletics Association (AAA), and the Indian Olympic Association. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
The Athletics Federation of India (AFI) is a non-governmental, non-profitable autonomous top governing body responsible for overseeing athletics in India. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
It was formerly called the Amateur Athletic Federation of India (AAFI).
The AFI has as many as 32 affiliated state units and institutional units.
It organises the National Championships and selects the Indian Athletics Teams for various international competitions. Hence statement 2 is correct.
It trains the Indian Athletics National Campers, selects the Indian Athletics Teams for various international competitions, including the Olympics, Asian Games, CWG, World Championships, Asian Championships, and other international meets, and conducts the National Championships for various age categories.
The AFI conducts international and national championships and various meets to promote the sport, popularise it amongst the masses, and make athletics commercially attractive for the further growth of the athlete and the sport.
It supervises and assists its state units in their activities, plans and sets up special coaching camps, coaches training, and takes initiatives for development programme and grassroots promotion of athletics in India.
It is affiliated with the World Athletics, the Asian Athletics Association (AAA), and the Indian Olympic Association. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Question 26 of 35
26. Question
Which of the following factors causes Imported Inflation?
Exchange rates
Commodity prices
Trade policies
Transportation costs
Choose the correct code:
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Correct
Solution (d)
Imported inflation is a general and sustainable price increase due to an increase in the costs of imported products.
Factors that cause Imported Inflation:
The most significant driver of imported inflation is fluctuations in exchange rates. The more the currency depreciates on the foreign exchange market, the higher the price of imports. Effectively, more money is needed to buy goods and services outside the country. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Many countries, particularly smaller countries, are highly dependent on imported commodities like oil, metals, and agricultural products. When commodity prices rise globally, it directly impacts the cost of imports and can lead to higher inflation in the importing country. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Changes in trade policies, such as tariffs and quotas, can influence the cost of imported goods. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Fluctuations in transportation costs, influenced by factors like fuel prices and logistical challenges, can affect the final cost of imported goods. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Imported inflation is a general and sustainable price increase due to an increase in the costs of imported products.
Factors that cause Imported Inflation:
The most significant driver of imported inflation is fluctuations in exchange rates. The more the currency depreciates on the foreign exchange market, the higher the price of imports. Effectively, more money is needed to buy goods and services outside the country. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Many countries, particularly smaller countries, are highly dependent on imported commodities like oil, metals, and agricultural products. When commodity prices rise globally, it directly impacts the cost of imports and can lead to higher inflation in the importing country. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Changes in trade policies, such as tariffs and quotas, can influence the cost of imported goods. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Fluctuations in transportation costs, influenced by factors like fuel prices and logistical challenges, can affect the final cost of imported goods. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Question 27 of 35
27. Question
Consider the following statements about Ashwagandha
It is an evergreen shrub native to India, Northern Africa, and the Middle East.
It belongs to the Solanaceae family, the same family as tomatoes and potatoes.
It is called an adaptogen as it helps the body adapt to stressors and restore balance.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (c)
Ashwagandha is an evergreen shrub native to India, Northern Africa, and the Middle East. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It is scientifically known as Withania somnifera, the shrub got its name Ashwagandha because its roots are said to smell like a wet horse (‘ashwa’ for horse and ‘gandha’ for smell).
It belongs to the Solanaceae family, the same family as tomatoes and potatoes. Hence statement 2 is correct.
It has been in use as a medicinal plant for thousands of years, especially in traditional Ayurvedic medicine.
It helps reduce inflammation, increase energy, alleviate anxiety, ease pain, and improve sleep.
It is called an adaptogen as it helps the body adapt to stressors and restore balance. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Ashwagandha is an evergreen shrub native to India, Northern Africa, and the Middle East. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It is scientifically known as Withania somnifera, the shrub got its name Ashwagandha because its roots are said to smell like a wet horse (‘ashwa’ for horse and ‘gandha’ for smell).
It belongs to the Solanaceae family, the same family as tomatoes and potatoes. Hence statement 2 is correct.
It has been in use as a medicinal plant for thousands of years, especially in traditional Ayurvedic medicine.
It helps reduce inflammation, increase energy, alleviate anxiety, ease pain, and improve sleep.
It is called an adaptogen as it helps the body adapt to stressors and restore balance. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Question 28 of 35
28. Question
Consider the following statements about Lake Kariba
It is the world’s largest man-made lake and reservoir by volume.
It lies upstream from the Indian Ocean, along the border between Zambia and Zimbabwe.
Choose the correct code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (c)
Lake Kariba is the world’s largest man-made lake and reservoir by volume. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It is 200 kilometers downstream of Victoria Falls.
The lake was filled following the completion of the Kariba Dam wall at its northeastern end, flooding the Kariba Gorge on the Zambezi River.
The Kariba Dam consists of a double-arch wall. It is 128 meters in height, 617 meters in length, 13 meters wide at its top, and 24 meters wide at the base.
The wall extends across the Kariba Gorge, creating a border crossing between Zambia and Zimbabwe.
It took up to three years for the dam wall to be completed. Construction began on the 6th of November, 1956, and was finished in 1959.
It provides considerable electric power to both Zambia and Zimbabwe and supports a thriving commercial fishing industry.
It is roughly estimated to be about 280 km long and 40 km at its widest. It covers an area of nearly 6,000 square kilometres.
It lies upstream from the Indian Ocean, along the border between Zambia and Zimbabwe. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Lake Kariba is the world’s largest man-made lake and reservoir by volume. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It is 200 kilometers downstream of Victoria Falls.
The lake was filled following the completion of the Kariba Dam wall at its northeastern end, flooding the Kariba Gorge on the Zambezi River.
The Kariba Dam consists of a double-arch wall. It is 128 meters in height, 617 meters in length, 13 meters wide at its top, and 24 meters wide at the base.
The wall extends across the Kariba Gorge, creating a border crossing between Zambia and Zimbabwe.
It took up to three years for the dam wall to be completed. Construction began on the 6th of November, 1956, and was finished in 1959.
It provides considerable electric power to both Zambia and Zimbabwe and supports a thriving commercial fishing industry.
It is roughly estimated to be about 280 km long and 40 km at its widest. It covers an area of nearly 6,000 square kilometres.
It lies upstream from the Indian Ocean, along the border between Zambia and Zimbabwe. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Question 29 of 35
29. Question
Consider the following statements about Tachyons
They are hypothetical subatomic particles that move faster than the speed of light.
They are familiar and include protons, electrons, and neutrons.
Choose the correct code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (a)
Tachyons are hypothetical subatomic particles that move faster than the speed of light. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The term “tachyon” was coined by physicist Gerald Feinberg in 1967.
They are distinguished from “bradyons,” particles that travel at less than the speed of light.
While bradyons are familiar and include protons, electrons, and neutrons, tachyons have never been observed. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Tachyons are thought to have imaginary mass, meaning their mass squared is a negative value. This implies that they could potentially travel faster than light without violating the laws of physics as we currently understand them.
Tachyons would slow down if they gained energy, and accelerate if they lost energy.
There have been a few experiments to find tachyons using a detector called a Cerenkov detector. This detector can measure the speed of a particle traveling through a medium.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Tachyons are hypothetical subatomic particles that move faster than the speed of light. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The term “tachyon” was coined by physicist Gerald Feinberg in 1967.
They are distinguished from “bradyons,” particles that travel at less than the speed of light.
While bradyons are familiar and include protons, electrons, and neutrons, tachyons have never been observed. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Tachyons are thought to have imaginary mass, meaning their mass squared is a negative value. This implies that they could potentially travel faster than light without violating the laws of physics as we currently understand them.
Tachyons would slow down if they gained energy, and accelerate if they lost energy.
There have been a few experiments to find tachyons using a detector called a Cerenkov detector. This detector can measure the speed of a particle traveling through a medium.
Question 30 of 35
30. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the State Emblem of India
It was carved out of a single block of polished sandstone.
The words Satyameva Jayate inscribed on the national emblem are taken from Mundaka Upanishad.
Choose the correct code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (c)
The State Emblem of India was carved out of a single block of polished sandstone. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The state emblem of Indiais an adaptation of the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka.
In the original, there are four lions, standing back to back, mounted on an abacus with a frieze carrying sculptures in high relief of an elephant, a galloping horse, a bull, and a lion separated by intervening wheels over a bell-shaped lotus.
The words Satyameva Jayate inscribed on the national emblem are taken from Mundaka Upanishad. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
The State Emblem of India was carved out of a single block of polished sandstone. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The state emblem of Indiais an adaptation of the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka.
In the original, there are four lions, standing back to back, mounted on an abacus with a frieze carrying sculptures in high relief of an elephant, a galloping horse, a bull, and a lion separated by intervening wheels over a bell-shaped lotus.
The words Satyameva Jayate inscribed on the national emblem are taken from Mundaka Upanishad. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Question 31 of 35
31. Question
Segmenting the labour market and creating a separate labour market for migrant workers — who are easy to exploit — has been a common strategy of employers across India. The pathetic conditions migrant workers face have been widely documented. They earn low wages, work very long hours without any overtime benefits, and are almost without any leave or social protection. Lakhs of unskilled and migrant workers live on worksites in makeshift huts (usually made of tin sheets) or on roads, slums and in illegal settlements not served by municipalities. They are neither able to save much to improve their conditions back in their home States nor save enough to live comfortably in a migrating state. They go back home only once or twice to celebrate festivals. Semi-skilled workers with some education and skills (such as those in diamond cutting and polishing units, power looms and factories) get slightly higher wages and earn some leave. However, these workers are also exploited in multiple ways and are mostly unprotected. Factory owners, employers and traders are only too happy with such a situation as they earn huge profits from wage labour exploitation.
On the basis of the above passage, the following inferences have been made:
More than 50% of the migrant workers in India are engaged in either unskilled or semi-skilled jobs.
Semi-skilled workers with some education and skills, are not exploited as they earn huge profits for their employers.
Which of the above statements is/are valid?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (d)
The passage mentions the poor conditions of unskilled and semi-skilled migrant workers. But there is no clarity in the passage about what proportion of migrant workers are unskilled and semi-skilled. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The passage clearly mentions that though the wages of semi-skilled workers are slightly higher, they are also exploited by their employers. Therefore, it would be incorrect to infer that they are not exploited by their workers. Hence statement 2 is also INCORRECT.
Hence the CORRECT answer is option ‘D’.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
The passage mentions the poor conditions of unskilled and semi-skilled migrant workers. But there is no clarity in the passage about what proportion of migrant workers are unskilled and semi-skilled. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The passage clearly mentions that though the wages of semi-skilled workers are slightly higher, they are also exploited by their employers. Therefore, it would be incorrect to infer that they are not exploited by their workers. Hence statement 2 is also INCORRECT.
Hence the CORRECT answer is option ‘D’.
Question 32 of 35
32. Question
Segmenting the labour market and creating a separate labour market for migrant workers — who are easy to exploit — has been a common strategy of employers across India. The pathetic conditions migrant workers face have been widely documented. They earn low wages, work very long hours without any overtime benefits, and are almost without any leave or social protection. Lakhs of unskilled and migrant workers live on worksites in makeshift huts (usually made of tin sheets) or on roads, slums and in illegal settlements not served by municipalities. They are neither able to save much to improve their conditions back in their home States nor save enough to live comfortably in a migrating state. They go back home only once or twice to celebrate festivals. Semi-skilled workers with some education and skills (such as those in diamond cutting and polishing units, power looms and factories) get slightly higher wages and earn some leave. However, these workers are also exploited in multiple ways and are mostly unprotected. Factory owners, employers and traders are only too happy with such a situation as they earn huge profits from wage labour exploitation.
What is the crucial message conveyed by the above passage?
a) Labour laws in India are not being implemented properly.
b) The migrant workers are being exploited by the employers across India.
c) In the long term migrant workers are able to improve their life back home.
d) Migrant labourers constitute majority of the workforce in India.
Correct
Solution (b)
The passage does not delve into the details of labour laws. We do not know whether labour laws in India are being implemented properly or not. Hence option A is INCORRECT.
The passage extensively talks about the exploitation of migrant workers by the employers across India. Hence, option B is correct.
The passage only talks about the poor conditions of migrant workers. There is no mention about its improvement in the long term. Hence, statement C is INCORRECT.
The passage only mentions that there is a separate labour market for migrant workers. There is no clear mention about the proportion of migrant workers in India’s total workforce. Hence, statement D is INCORRECT.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
The passage does not delve into the details of labour laws. We do not know whether labour laws in India are being implemented properly or not. Hence option A is INCORRECT.
The passage extensively talks about the exploitation of migrant workers by the employers across India. Hence, option B is correct.
The passage only talks about the poor conditions of migrant workers. There is no mention about its improvement in the long term. Hence, statement C is INCORRECT.
The passage only mentions that there is a separate labour market for migrant workers. There is no clear mention about the proportion of migrant workers in India’s total workforce. Hence, statement D is INCORRECT.
Question 33 of 35
33. Question
Families around the world look, feel, and live differently today. Families can be “make or break” for women and girls when it comes to achieving their rights. They can be places of love, care, and fulfilment but, too often, they are also spaces where women‘s and girls’ rights are violated, their voices are stifled, and where gender inequality prevails. In today‘s changing world, laws and policies need to be based on the reality of how families live.
With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
Families can thrive in happiness and security at the expense of its women‘s rights.
Families are universally patriarchal.
Laws and regulations regarding family do not adequately address the concerns of women.
Freedom of expression within family and family fulfilment are mutually exclusive goals for a woman.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
a) 1 and 4
b) 2 and 4
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1: Family is depicted as the place for love, care and fulfilment and also the place where women’s rights are subjugated. Hence this assumption is valid.
Statement 2: The first line mentions that families around the world look and feel different today and that families can make or break a woman with respect to achieving rights. There is thus a possibility that families are not entirely patriarchal.
Statement 3: The final sentence of the passage mentions that laws and policies need to be based on the reality of how families live. This implies that current laws are inadequate in dealing with issues of women’s rights.
Statement 4: According to the passage, gender inequality exists within many families and suppression of Women’s expression is one of the manifestations. However, it does not imply that securing women’s rights to express her opinion would run contrary to the goal of family fulfilment. Both should be possible and that is what laws and policies should aim for.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1: Family is depicted as the place for love, care and fulfilment and also the place where women’s rights are subjugated. Hence this assumption is valid.
Statement 2: The first line mentions that families around the world look and feel different today and that families can make or break a woman with respect to achieving rights. There is thus a possibility that families are not entirely patriarchal.
Statement 3: The final sentence of the passage mentions that laws and policies need to be based on the reality of how families live. This implies that current laws are inadequate in dealing with issues of women’s rights.
Statement 4: According to the passage, gender inequality exists within many families and suppression of Women’s expression is one of the manifestations. However, it does not imply that securing women’s rights to express her opinion would run contrary to the goal of family fulfilment. Both should be possible and that is what laws and policies should aim for.
Question 34 of 35
34. Question
Statements followed by Conclusions are given below. You have to take the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows/follow from the statements, disregarding the commonly known facts:
Statements:
Some ants are parrots.
All the parrots are apples.
Conclusions:
All the apples are parrots.
Some ants are apples.
Choose the correct code:
a) Only (1) conclusion follows
b) Only (2) conclusion follows
c) Either (1) or (2) follows
d) Neither (1) nor (2) follows
Correct
Solution (b)
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Question 35 of 35
35. Question
Statements followed by Conclusions are given below. You have to take the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows/follow from the statements, disregarding the commonly known facts:
Statements:
All Trucks are Cars
All Vans are Cars
No Bike is Van.
Conclusions:
Some Bike is Car
All Truck are Bikes
Some Cars are not Bikes
Choose the correct code:
a) Only II and III
b) Only III
c) None of the conclusions follow
d) I, II and III
Correct
Solution (b)
Here, as shown in the first figure, the set of Trucks and Bikes can be the same only in one case but not always. In this case, conclusion II definitely does not follow. In the second figure, no car is a bike. Hence, conclusion I does not follow. Also, some Cars are not Bikes implies at least one car is not a bike. Since no bike is a van and all vans are cars, any car that is a van cannot be a bike. Hence, some cars are definitely not bikes. Hence, conclusion III follows. Hence, only conclusion III follows. Hence, option b.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Here, as shown in the first figure, the set of Trucks and Bikes can be the same only in one case but not always. In this case, conclusion II definitely does not follow. In the second figure, no car is a bike. Hence, conclusion I does not follow. Also, some Cars are not Bikes implies at least one car is not a bike. Since no bike is a van and all vans are cars, any car that is a van cannot be a bike. Hence, some cars are definitely not bikes. Hence, conclusion III follows. Hence, only conclusion III follows. Hence, option b.
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IASbaba