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[INTERVIEW INITIATIVE] Think, Rethink and Perform (TRP) [DAY 4] 2023 for UPSC/IAS Personality Test!

ARCHIVES (of TRP) – > CLICK HERE Those who have appeared for UPSC Mains 2023, fill up the Google form given below. Students who fill out the form will be added to a telegram group so that there can be healthy discussions with other students who will be appearing for the Interview/Personality Test. Also, Mohan sir, Bureaucrats and Ex-Bureaucrats will be interacting one-on-one with all the students who will be appearing for the same. REGISTER HERE – CLICK HERE Interview Discussion: Think, Rethink and Perform; (TRP) – Day 4 Set 1: Ask these questions to yourself; contemplate and come out with a concrete answer (not to be discussed on this forum). Invest at least 30 minutes in this set of questions. Recall a moment of personal failure or disappointment. How did you deal with it, and what lessons did you take away from that experience? Consider a time when you helped someone in a significant way. What motivated you, and how did this experience impact your perspective on helping others? Reflect on a personal habit you’ve changed or want to change. Why is this change important to you, and how are you approaching it? Set 2: Analyse the following issue:  The Israel-Palestine conflict has been a part of global news for as long as many of us can remember. It’s a complex mix of history, politics, and emotions. With each new development, the world watches and wonders: Is there a path to peace? Let’s talk about this – If you were advising the Indian diplomatic establishment, how would you suggest it navigate this delicate situation? What could be done to help both sides without making things worse? It’s a tightrope walk, isn’t it? How do you think countries should balance their own interests with the desire to promote peace? We expect you to discuss the above question (Set 2) in the comments below and come out with a balanced view of the issues. Thank You IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 19th December 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   National Geoscience Data Repository Portal Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: Recently, the Mines Ministry launched the National Geoscience Data Repository Portal To Foster Innovation in Exploration. Background:- The launch ceremony will be graced by Union Minister of Coal, Mines and Parliamentary Affairs Shri Pralhad Joshi in the presence of Shri Raosaheb Patil Danve, Minister of State for Coal, Mines and Railways. About National Geoscience Data Repository Portal:- Launched on : 19th December 2023. Launched by: Ministry of Mines. The National Geoscience Data Repository (NGDR) Portal will be launched in a ceremony in New Delhi. (National Geoscience Awards -2022) Objective: to Foster Innovation in Exploration. NGDR is a comprehensive online platform for accessing, sharing, and analyzing geospatial information across the nation. The NGDR initiative, spearheaded by the Geological Survey of India (GSI) and Bhaskarachaya Institute of Space Applications and Geoinformatics (BISAG-N). It represents a significant leap forward in democratizing critical geoscience data, empowering stakeholders across industries and academia with unprecedented access to invaluable resources. About the Geological Survey of India:- Established: 1851. HQ: Kolkata. It has six regional offices located in Lucknow, Jaipur, Nagpur, Hyderabad, Shillong and Kolkata and state unit offices in almost all states of the country. GSI is an attached office of the Ministry of Mines. The Geological Survey of India (GSI) was set up primarily to find coal deposits for the Railways. Its main functions relate to creating and updating national geoscientific information and mineral resource assessment. These objectives are achieved through ground surveys, air-borne and marine surveys, mineral prospecting and investigations, multi-disciplinary geoscientific, geo-technical, geo-environmental and natural hazards studies, glaciology, seismo-tectonic study and carrying out fundamental research. About BISAG-N:- Ministry: MeitY, Government of India. (Indian Bureau of Mines) At present, BISAG is a state agency of the Department of Science and Technology Government of Gujarat, located at Gandhinagar, Gujarat. Bhaskaracharya National Institute for Space Applications and Geo-informatics [BISAG (N)] is an Autonomous Scientific Society registered under the Societies Registration Act, of 1860. Objective: to undertake technology development & and management, research & and development, facilitate National and international cooperation, capacity building and support technology transfer & and entrepreneurship development in the area of geo-spatial technology. BISAG has implemented GIS and geospatial technologies for major Ministries and almost all States. For this purpose, geo-spatial science (GIS Remote Sensing, Image Processing, Photogrammetry, GPS, Cell Phone etc.), Information Science Systems (MIS, Database, ERP, Project Management, Web, Artificial Intelligence etc.) and Mathematics Science Systems (Geometry, Fluid, Mechanics, Trigonometry, Algebra etc.) have been integrated in-house by BISAG. MUST READ: ‘Wetlands of India’ Portal SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)? (2022) CCO is the major source of coal Statistics in the Government of India. It monitors the progress of the development of Captive Coal/ Lignite blocks. It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to the acquisition of coal-bearing areas. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 3 3 and 4 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Kawal Tiger Reserve Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY/ ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Kawal Tiger Reserve turned into a haven for smooth-coated otters recently. Background:- These creatures live along the banks of the Kadam River, on the bunds of the canals, and also on the banks of the Godavari River. About Kawal Tiger Reserve:- IMAGE SOURCE: adivasiresurgence.com Location: Telangana. Kawal Tiger Reserve is in the North Eastern part of Telangana. The reserve is flanked by the Godavari River on one side and shares its border with Maharashtra on the other. The River Kadam (a tributary of Godavari) flows through this area. It forms a significant part of the Deccan peninsula-central highlands. Additionally, Kawal serves as a catchment for the rivers Godavari and Kadam, both flowing southward within the sanctuary. Kawal Wildlife Sanctuary was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2012. (Amrabad Tiger Reserve) Vegetation: Southern Tropical Dry Deciduous Forest. Flora: Teak and Bamboo stands, Anogeissus latifolia, Mitragyna parviflora, Terminalia crenulata, Terminalia arjuna, Boswellia serrata, and many more. Fauna: nilgai, chousinga, chinkara, black buck, sambar, spotted deer, wild dog, wolf, jackal, fox, tiger, leopard, and jungle cat etc. About Smooth-Coated Otter:- Scientific name: Lutrogale perspicillata. Smooth-coated otter is characterised by a very smooth, sleek pelage. Their eyes and ears are small, the tail is flattened, limbs are short and strong, and the fore and hind paws are large and well-webbed. These otters have generally been described as fish specialists. They are strong swimmers. They hunt in groups. They are mostly found in lowlands, coastal mangrove forests, peat swamp forests, freshwater wetlands, large forested rivers, lakes, and rice paddies. Threats:- Construction of large hydroelectric projects Conversion of wetlands for settlements and agriculture Reduction in prey biomass Poaching and Contamination of waterways by pesticides. Conservation Status:- IUCN Red List: Vulnerable MUST READ: Global Conservation Assured|Tiger Standards (CA|TS) SOURCE: THE NEW INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”?  (2020) Corbett Ranthambore Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Sundarbans Q.2) The term M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of    (2017) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna Maintenance of Tiger Reservoirs Indigenous Satellite Navigation System Security of National Highways Direct Tax Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Gross Direct Tax collections for the current Financial Year registered over 17 per cent growth recently. Background:- The Ministry of Finance has said that the Direct Tax collections for this finance year up to 17th December, show that net collections are at 13 lakh 70 thousand crore rupees which is an increase of 20.66 per cent. ( Increase in Direct Tax Collections) About Direct Tax:- A direct tax is one that is levied directly on the taxpayer. It is paid directly to the government by those who are subjected to it. The Central Board of Direct Taxes is responsible for levying and collecting direct taxes as well as formulating other direct tax policies. Examples of Direct Tax: Income Tax, Corporation Tax, Minimum Alternate Tax, Capital Gain Tax etc. (Tax-GDP ratio) Advantages of Direct Tax:- Economic Balance: The tax rate is set according to the country’s economic position. Ensures equality: Individuals and businesses with larger profits must pay higher taxes. Gives Certainty: The direct tax provides both the government and the taxpayers with a sense of certainty because the amount of tax that must be paid and collected is known to both the taxpayer and the government. During periods of high inflation, the government raises taxes in order to limit the demand for goods and services, resulting in a fall in inflation. It ensures that the government is held accountable. Disadvantages of Direct Tax:- It can be easily evaded. Taxes are set arbitrarily by the Finance Minister if they are progressive. High taxes disincentivize people from saving and investing, causing the country’s economy to suffer. Paying direct taxes is quite inconvenient. MUST READ: CBDT and Income Tax Return Forms SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which among the following steps is most likely to be taken at the time of an economic recession? (2020) Cut in tax rates accompanied by an increase in interest rate Increase in expenditure on public projects Increase in tax rates accompanied by reduction of interest rate Reduction of expenditure on public projects Q.2) Consider the following statements (2018) The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt-to-GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Government. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of the war of GDP of the State 2 Governments. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to obtain the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Voyager 1 Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Scientists recently suspected a major glitch in NASA’s Voyager 1 as it sent weird signals to Earth. Background:- Voyager 1, is facing difficulties in transcribing data to planet Earth, scientists have suspected a major crack in the spacecraft. NASA’s Voyager 1 has been travelling in space for the past 46 years and has travelled 24 billion kilometres. About Voyager 1:- Launch: September 5, 1977. Launch Site: Cape Canaveral, Fla. / Launch Complex 41. Launch Vehicle: Titan IIIE-Centaur (TC-6 / Titan no. 23E-6 / Centaur D-1T). Agency: NASA (NASA’s DART mission) Objective: It was launched to fly by Jupiter and Saturn. Voyager 1 is the oldest human-made spacecraft in history. No spacecraft has gone farther than NASA’s Voyager 1. It crossed into interstellar space in August 2012 and continues to collect data. Voyager 1 has been exploring our solar system for more than 45 years. The probe is now in interstellar space, the region outside the heliopause, or the bubble of energetic particles and magnetic fields from the Sun. Voyager 1 and its sister ship Voyager 2 have been flying longer than any other spacecraft in history. Scientific Instruments:- Imaging Science System (ISS) Ultraviolet Spectrometer (UVS) Infrared Interferometer Spectrometer (IRIS) Planetary Radio Astronomy Experiment (PRA) Photopolarimeter (PPS) Triaxial Fluxgate Magnetometer (MAG) Plasma Spectrometer (PLS) Low-Energy Charged Particles Experiment (LECP) Plasma Waves Experiment (PWS) Cosmic Ray Telescope (CRS) Radio Science System (RSS) Journey Timeline:- 5, 1977: Launched March 5, 1979: Jupiter flyby 12, 1980: Saturn flyby 17, 1998: Became the most distant human-made object after overtaking NASA’s Pioneer 10 1, 1990: Voyager Interstellar Mission (VIM) officially began 16, 2006: 100 astronomical units reached 1, 2012: Voyager 1 enters interstellar space Significance:- Not only are the Voyager missions providing humanity with observations of truly uncharted territory. They are also helping scientists understand the very nature of energy and radiation in space—key information for protecting future missions and astronauts. MUST READ: SpaceTech Innovation Network (SpIN) SOURCE: FINANCIAL EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? (2014) Spacecraft                          Purpose Cassini-Huygens           Orbiting Venus and transmitting data to the Earth Messenger                     Mapping and investigating the Mercury Voyager 1 and 2          Exploring the outer solar system Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometres long, with lasers shining between the craft.” The experiment in question refers to     (2021) Voyager-2 New Horizons LISA Pathfinder Evolved LISA Smart India Hackathon 2023 Syllabus Prelims – GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi will interact with the participants of the Grand Finale of Smart India Hackathon 2023 through video conferencing on 19th Dec,2023. Background:- Mr Modi will also address the participants on the occasion. About Smart India Hackathon 2023:- Launched: August 2023. Objective: to inculcate a culture of product innovation and a mindset of problem-solving. Smart India Hackathon is a nationwide initiative to provide students with a platform to solve some of the pressing problems we face in our daily lives. (Agri India Hackathon) It is an initiative by the Ministry of Education, All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE), Persistent Systems and Inter-Institutional Inclusive Innovation Centre (i4C). SIH has been conducted every year since 2017 in two formats, SIH Software and SIH Hardware Editions for higher education students. The first four editions SIH2017, SIH2018, SIH2019, SIH2020 and SIH2022 proved to be extremely successful in promoting innovative out-of-the-box thinking in young minds, especially engineering students from across India. The Grand Finale of the Smart India Hackathon 2023 is being held from the 19th to the 23rd December 2023. Participants: This year, more than 50 thousand ideas were received from 44 thousand teams, which is almost a sevenfold increase compared to the first edition of the Smart India Hackathon. Over 12 thousand participants and more than two thousand 500 mentors will take part in the grand finale, scheduled to be held at 48 nodal centres across the country. Themes: A total one thousand 282 teams have been shortlisted this year for the grand finale to provide solutions on various themes including Space Technology, Smart Education, Disaster Management, Robotics and Drones, Heritage and Culture and others. MUST READ: ‘Hack The Crisis-India’ Hackathon SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements : (2018) It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’? (2017) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations the government’s education system and local communities. Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power. Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them. Asian Development Bank (ADB) Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT ORGANIZATIONS Context: Recently, the Government of India and the Asian Development Bank (ADB)  signed $250 million loan for Industrial Corridor Development in India. Background:- The loan will continue support to industrial corridor development to make manufacturing more competitive, strengthen national supply chains and links with regional and global value chains, and create more and better jobs. About Asian Development Bank (ADB):- IMAGE SOURCE: CORPORATEFINANCEINSTITUTE.COM The Asian Development Bank (ADB) is a regional development bank. It was established in 1966. First President: Takeshi Watanabe HQ: Manila, Philippines Objective: to promote social and economic development in Asia. (Multi-tranche financing facility) Membership: the bank admits members of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP) and non-regional developed countries. Shareholders: Japan and the United States (each with 15.6% of total shares), the People’s Republic of China (6.4%), India (6.3%), and Australia (5.8%). Voting rights: votes are distributed in proportion to members’ capital subscriptions. ADB is the official United Nations Observer. Roles and functions:- It is dedicated to reducing poverty in Asia and the Pacific through inclusive economic growth, environmentally sustainable growth, and regional integration. Key Publications:- ADB Annual Report 2022 Asian Development Outlook April 2023 Asian Economic Integration Report 2023: Trade, Investment, and Climate Change in Asia and the Pacific Key Indicators for Asia and the Pacific 2022 India and ADB India is a founding member of ADB. India is the bank’s fourth-largest shareholder. ADB operations promote private sector development, gender empowerment, regional integration, knowledge solutions, and capacity development. ADB supports India’s priorities for robust, climate resilient, and inclusive growth, aligned with ADB’s Strategy 2030 and the forthcoming country partnership strategy, 2023–2027. ADB Projects in India:- Visakhapatnam-Chennai Industrial Corridor Development Program (Tranche 2) Himachal Pradesh Subtropical Horticulture, Irrigation, and Value Addition Project Nhava Sheva Container Terminal Financing Project Strengthening Vocational High Schools in South Asia Olam Global Agri Food Security Support Project Improving Bengaluru’s Livability Through Transit-Oriented Development Proposed projects:- State Road Safety Incentive Program Manipur State Road Connectivity Investment Program Nashik Metro Neo Project Road Sector Development in Tripura Promoting Disaster Risk Insurance MUST READ: ( Differences between the World Bank and the Asian Development Bank (ADB). ) SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following: (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements: (2022) It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. It is an initiative to support Low-Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Guru Teg Bahadur Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi paid tributes to Sikh Guru Teg Bahadur recalling his martyrdom. Background:- He said his teachings, emphasizing unity and righteousness, “light our way” in the pursuit of brotherhood and peace. About Guru Teg Bahadur:- Born: at Amritsar in 1621. Died: 17 December,1675. Guru Tegh Bahadur was the ninth of ten Gurus of the Sikh religion., was the youngest son of Guru Hargobind. He was born to Mata Nanki and Guru Hargobind, the sixth Sikh guru, who raised an army against the Mughals and introduced the concept of warrior saints. After Guru Ram Das, the fourth Sikh guru, the guruship became hereditary. He is known as a great teacher. Guru Tegh Bahadur was also an excellent warrior, thinker, and poet, who wrote detailed descriptions of the nature of God, mind, body, and physical attachments among other things spiritual. His writings are housed in the sacred text, ‘Guru Granth Sahib,’ in the form of 116 poetic hymns. During one such mission, he founded the town of Chak-Nanki in Punjab, which later became a part of Punjab’s Anandpur Sahib. He was publicly killed in 1675 on the orders of Mughal emperor Aurangzeb in Delhi for refusing Mughal rulers and defying them. Gurudwara Sis Ganj Sahib and Gurdwara Rakab Ganj Sahib in Delhi mark the places of execution and cremation of his body. MUST READ: Guru Nanak Dev SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to Indian history, who of the following was known as “Kulah-Daran”? (2022) Arab merchants Qalandars Persian calligraphists Sayyids Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: MISSIONS AGENCY MARS ODYSSEY ESA NEW HORIZON NASA SHUKRAYAAN ISRO How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Guru Teg Bahadur was the ninth of ten Gurus of the Sikh religion. Statement-II : He was the oldest Guru in Sikhism. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Voyager 1, consider the following statements: It is the oldest human-made spacecraft in history. It was launched from Cape Canaveral, Fla. / Launch Complex 41. It was launched to fly by Jupiter and Neptune. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  19th December 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 18th December – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 19th December 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 18th December 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   INDIAN FOREST AND WOOD CERTIFICATION SCHEME Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, the Indian Forest & Wood Certification Scheme was launched. Background:- It was launched by Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change. This national forest certification scheme offers voluntary third-party certification designed to promote sustainable forest management and agroforestry in the country. About INDIAN FOREST AND WOOD CERTIFICATION SCHEME:- Launched: 2023. Objective: to promote Sustainable Management of forests and agroforestry(Forest Conservation (FC) Act, 1980) Ministry: Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change. The scheme includes forest management certification, tree outside forest management certification, and chain of custody certification. The Indian Forest and Wood Certification Scheme can provide market incentives to various entities that adhere to responsible forest management and agroforestry practices in their operations. This includes state forest departments, individual farmers, or Farmer Producer Organizations engaged in agroforestry and farm forestry, as well as other wood-based industries in the value chain. The Forest Management certification is based on the Indian Forest Management Standard, consisting of 8 criteria, 69 indicators and 254 verifiers, which is an integral part of the National Working Plan Code 2023, launched earlier this year. A separate Trees Outside Forests Standard, is now introduced as a part of the newly launched Indian Forest & Wood Certification Scheme. Supervision: The Indian Forest and Wood Certification Scheme, will be overseen by the Indian Forest and Wood Certification Council, which will act as a multistakeholder advisory body. The Council is represented by members from eminent institutions such as Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education, Forest Survey of India, Quality Council of India, Indian Institute of Forest Management including representatives from the Ministries of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare and Ministry of Commerce and Industry, State Forest Departments, Forest Development Corporations, and representatives from wood-based industries. Implementation: The Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal will act as the scheme operating agency and will be responsible for overall management of the Indian Forest and Wood Certification Scheme. Accreditation: The National Accreditation Board for Certification Bodies under the Quality Council of India will accredit the certification bodies which will carry out independent audits and assess adherence of various entities on the standards prescribed under the scheme. MUST READ: Natural Farming SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) ‘The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: The nationwide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at (2017) expanding the cultivable area under irrigation. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Surrender value Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, insurance stocks declined up to 5 per cent in trade after the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) proposed a higher surrender value and lower charges for life insurance companies in a consultation paper. Background:- An exposure draft released by the insurance regulator pitched for a significant increase in the surrender value specifically for non-participating insurance products. Some modifications have also been suggested in the calculation of surrender charges. About Surrender value:- In insurance policies, ‘surrender’ indicates the voluntary conclusion of a life insurance policy opted by the policyholder prior to its maturity or before the occurrence of the insured event. It applies only to those term insurance policies with a surrender benefit. The surrender value is usually a percentage of the total premiums paid minus any applicable charges or fees. The IRDAI rules say that anyone with a term plan can give up their insurance policy. (Digital India – Financial Inclusion) However, only after the policy has been in effect for three years will the policyholder get the payout of the surrender value. As per the existing norms, a policy can be surrendered at any time during the policy term, provided two full years’ premiums have been paid. However, in the first year, the regulator now proposes to offer Adjusted Surrender Value to the policyholder. About the Insurance Regulatory Development Authority of India (IRDAI):- Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Finance Head Office: It is an autonomous and statutory body established under the IRDA Act 1999. It is the apex body that supervises and regulates the insurance sector in India. Objective: To protect the interests of policyholders, to regulate, promote and ensure orderly growth of the insurance industry in India. Composition: IRDAI is a 10-member body. It has a Chairman, five full-time members, and four part-time members. They are appointed by the Government of India. Functions:- To have a fair regulation of the insurance industry while ensuring financial soundness of the applicable laws and regulations. Registering and regulating insurance companies. Protecting policyholders’ interests. Licensing and establishing norms for insurance intermediaries. Regulating and overseeing premium rates and terms of non-life insurance covers. MUST READ: The Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) SOURCE: HINDU BUSINESS LINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recent National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) data revealed that Delhi leads in the rate of FIRs of crimes against women in 2022.  Background:- Delhi logged the highest rate of FIRs linked to crimes against women in the country in 2022. About National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB):- Established: 1986. HQ: New Delhi. Ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs. Objective: To function as a repository of information on crime and criminals so as to assist the investigators in linking crime to the perpetrators. NCRB was set up to function as a repository of information on crime and criminals to assist the investigators in linking crime to the perpetrators. It was recommended by the Tandon Committee, the National Police Commission (1977-1981) and the MHA’s Task force (1985). NCRB is entrusted with the responsibility for monitoring, coordinating, and implementing the Crime and Criminal Tracking Network & Systems (CCTNS) project. (Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022) Important publications of NCRB:- Accidental Deaths & Suicides in India. Prison Statistics India. Fingerprints in India. Report on missing women and children in India. MUST READ: CBI and ED SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following organizations/bodies in India: (2023) The National Commission for Backward Classes The National Human Rights Commission The National Law Commission The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha? (2022) To ratify the declaration of Emergency To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers To impeach the President of India Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only E-waste Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recent data shows that over 500,000 tonnes of e-waste were collected and processed in 2021-22. Background:- In the financial year 2021-22, 527,131.57 tonnes of e-waste was collected, dismantled and recycled, Ashwini Kumar Choubey, minister of state in the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change told the Rajya Sabha. About E-waste:- E-Waste is short for Electronic-Waste and the term is used to describe old, end-of-life or discarded electronic appliances. It includes their components, consumables, parts and spares. Electronic waste, also called e-waste, is various forms of electric and electronic equipment that have ceased to be of value to their users or no longer satisfy their original purpose. E-waste is not hazardous if it is stocked in safe storage recycled by scientific methods or transported from one place to the other in parts or totality in the formal sector. E-Waste in India:- India generates about 18.5 lakh metric tonnes (MT) of electronic waste every year, with Mumbai and Delhi-NCR accounting for the biggest chunk. The figure is likely to reach up to 30 lakh MT per year by 2018. Bangalore, Chennai, Kolkata, Ahmadabad, Hyderabad, Pune, Surat, and Nagpur are other important cities generating a substantial amount of e-waste. Among the eight largest e-waste generating states, Maharashtra ranks first followed by Tamil Nadu (2nd), Andhra Pradesh (3rd), Uttar Pradesh (4th), Delhi (5th), Gujarat (6th), Karnataka (7th), and West Bengal (8th). Over half of the e-waste generated in the developed world is exported to developing countries, mainly to China, India, and Pakistan, where metals like copper, iron, silicon, nickel, and gold are recovered during the recycling process. Unlike developed countries, which have specifically built facilities for recycling of e-waste, recycling in developing countries often involves manual participation thus exposing workers to toxic substances present in e-waste. E-waste Management Rules, 2016: The Central Government, in the exercise of the powers provided under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, had notified e-waste management rules in 2016. These rules supersede the E-waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011. (Draft E-waste Management Rules) The rules aim to enable the recovery and/or reuse of useful material from e-waste, and to ensure the environmentally sound management of all types of waste of electrical and electronic equipment. For the first time, the rules brought the producers under Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR), along with targets. Producers have been made responsible for the collection of E-waste and for its exchange. The manufacturers, dealers, e-retailers, and refurbishers have been brought under the ambit of these rules to ensure that the e-waste is effectively channelized and disposed of. The urban local bodies have been assigned the responsibility of collecting back the e-waste arising from the orphan products and channelizing it to authorized dismantler or recycler MUST READ: Extended Producer Responsibility SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a :  (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organizations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by the United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Q.2) Consider the following statements (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Khelo India Para Games Syllabus Prelims –SPORTS Context: Recently, the First-ever Khelo India Para Games concluded in New Delhi. Background:- Addressing the closing ceremony, Union Sports and Youth Affairs Minister Anurag Thakur hailed the Khelo India Para Games as a celebration of human passion and spirit. About Khelo India Para Games:- Date: December 10 and 17,2023. Venue: New Delhi. Ministry: Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. Over 1400 athletes from across the nation will compete in seven para sports—athletics, shooting, archery, football, badminton, table tennis, and weightlifting. (Grand Slam) The grand opening ceremony will take place at the KD Jadhav Indoor Hall, Indira Gandhi Sports Complex. The Delhi Police band will showcase a grand performance, followed by a lively dance performance by ‘We Are One’ group. Objective behind organizing the Khelo India Para Games is to empower para-athletes. Several key projects have been initiated for the welfare of the physically challenged, and the inaugural Khelo India Para Games marks a significant step in this direction. Results:- Haryana winning the inaugural title by securing 105 medals including 40 gold, 39 silver, and 26 bronze. Uttar Pradesh came second with 62 medals including 25 gold, 23 silver, and 14 bronze. Tamil Nadu finished third with 20 gold, eight silver, and 14 bronze medals. Athletes from 32 states and Union Territories participated in the Games. MUST READ: Chess Olympiad SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. · How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this Olympics. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Anthrobots Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Scientists have created Anthrobots recently. Background:- These are tiny living robots from human cells that can move around in a lab dish and may one day be able to help heal wounds or damaged tissue, according to a new study. About Anthrobots:- Anthrobots are novel bioengineered robots created from human tracheal cells. These biobots possess the remarkable ability to autonomously configure into diverse forms and sizes. WORKING:- The process involves cultivating groups of human tracheal skin cells to create anthrobots equipped with cilia functioning as paddles. When positioned on damaged neural tissue, the anthrobots amalgamate into a ‘superbot,’ facilitating full recovery within three days without the need for genetic alterations. Significance:- The researchers anticipate employing personalized anthrobots for various functions such as arterial clearance, mucus disruption, or drug administration, showcasing potential uses in the field of regenerative medicine. In contrast to earlier xenobots derived from frog cells, anthrobots possess self-assembling capabilities and are crafted from human tissue, offering a promising avenue for personalized medicine. MUST READ: Robo Sapiens- Future of the Work SOURCE: INDIATIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Triclosan” considered harmful when exposed to high levels for a long time, is most likely present in which of the following? (2021) Food preservatives Fruit-ripening substances reused plastic containers Toiletries Q.2) Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastics? (2021) Low-density polyethene Polycarbonate Polyethene terephthalate Polyvinyl Chloride Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: ORGANIZATION HQ SEBI Kolkata NCRB New Delhi NIA Pune How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Khelo India Para Games were held in New Delhi. Statement-II : It was organized by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Anthrobots, consider the following statements: These are tiny living robots created from human cells. They have potential uses in the field of regenerative medicine. They possess self-assembling capabilities. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 2 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  18th December 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 17th December – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 18th December 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

[INTERVIEW INITIATIVE] Think, Rethink and Perform (TRP) [DAY 3] 2023 for UPSC/IAS Personality Test!

ARCHIVES (of TRP) – > CLICK HERE Those who have appeared for UPSC Mains 2023, fill up the Google form given below. Students who fill out the form will be added to a telegram group so that there can be healthy discussions with other students who will be appearing for the Interview/Personality Test. Also, Mohan sir, Bureaucrats and Ex-Bureaucrats will be interacting one-on-one with all the students who will be appearing for the same. REGISTER HERE – CLICK HERE Interview Discussion: Think, Rethink and Perform; (TRP) – Day 3 Set 1: Ask these questions to yourself; contemplate and come out with a concrete answer (not to be discussed on this forum). Invest at least 30 minutes in this set of questions. Describe a situation where you had to choose between a practical decision and an ethical one. How did you resolve it? How do you define ethical leadership? Give an example of a leader who embodies this concept. What role do ethics play in public administration, in your view? Set 2: Analyse the following issue:  Climate change isn’t just an environmental issue; it’s a challenge that affects everything from our weather to our food supply. India, with its vast landscapes and diverse population, is in a unique position. It’s not just about how India is impacted; it’s also about how India’s actions impact the global fight against climate change. Let’s ponder over this – How can India lead the charge against climate change while still pursuing its developmental goals? Do you think India can find innovative ways to be a global leader in sustainable practices and green technologies? We expect you to discuss the above question (Set 2) in the comments below and come out with a balanced view of the issues. Thank You IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 16th December 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Vijay Diwas Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT DAYS/DEFENSE Context: Vijay Diwas was commemorated recently. Background:- PM Narendra Modi paid tribute to all the brave hearts who dutifully served India in 1971 on Vijay Diwas. About Vijay Diwas:- Vijay Diwas or Victory Day is commemorated on December 16. It marks the end of the 1971 Indo-Pak War and the liberation of Bangladesh. India declared victory on this day 51 years ago after Pakistan signed the Instrument of Surrender. Ceremonies, parades, wreath-laying, and various events are organized across India, particularly in Delhi and Kolkata, to commemorate this significant day. Historical Background of the war:- After the partition of India following the end of British rule in 1947, two independent countries were formed – India and Pakistan. The latter consisted of East Pakistan (now Bangladesh) and West Pakistan (present-day Pakistan). The two Pakistans had their share of problems since the beginning because of a number of reasons – the most glaring one being the geographical disconnect between them. East Pakistan was often overlooked in terms of administration as the top posts were held by those in the West. In the mid-1960s, leaders such as Sheikh Mujibur Rahman, who is also known as the founder of Bangladesh actively began protesting against these policies and helped form the Awami League. Soon, their demand became one for freedom and greater autonomy. The League ended up winning a stunning 160 of the 162 seats in East Pakistan in the 1970 elections and won no seats in the West. However, instead of recognizing the mandate, on March 25, 1971, the Pakistani military began a brutal crackdown that saw the mass slaughter of Bengalis. India had declared support for the League previously but without direct intervention. But when the Pakistan Air Force launched pre-emptive strikes towards Western India (including Amritsar, Pathankot, Srinagar, Avantipura, Ambala, Sirsa and Agra) on December 3, 1971, India formally declared war on December 4. On December 6, India formally recognised Bangladesh as an independent nation. Two days later, the Indian Navy launched an attack on Karachi. From December 12 to 16, Indian forces pushed through to Dhaka and entered the city, ending the war with a total victory. Significance:- This war not only reshaped regional geopolitics but also underscored the importance of upholding human rights during conflicts. Vijay Diwas is a day to honor the courage, sacrifice, and bravery of the soldiers who fought and to pay tribute to the martyrs. (The new defence systems handed over to Army) MUST READ: India-Bangladesh Relations SOURCE: INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements with respect to the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002: (2023) Statement-I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm. Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3: 2. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of Constitution Day: (2023) Statement-I: Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens. Statement-II: On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the chairmanship of Dr B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft ·Constitution of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Kashi Tamil Sangamam Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi will inaugurate the second phase of Kashi Tamil Sangamam on 17th December 2023. Background:- The Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi today called Kashi Tamil Sangamam forum a testament to the unity and diversity of India, strengthening the spirit of ‘Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat’. About Kashi Tamil Sangamam:- Date: 17th to the 30th of December 2023 VENUE: Varanasi. Inauguration: Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi will inaugurate Kashi Tamil Sangamam 2023 at Namo Ghat on 17 December 2023. The second phase of Kashi Tamil Sangamam will commence from 17th to 30th December, 2023 at the holy city of Kashi (Varanasi). It will celebrate the many aspects of the historical and civilizational connection between India’s North and South. Nearly 1400 (7 Groups of 200 persons each) people are expected to be travelling from different parts of Tamil Nadu, representing varied walks of life. The 7 groups of Students (Ganga), Teachers (Yamuna), Professionals (Godavari), Spiritual (Saraswati), Farmers and Artisans (Narmada), Writers (Sindhu) and Traders and Businessmen (Kaveri) have been named after seven sacred rivers of India will travel from Chennai, Coimbatore and Kanyakumari to Kashi. The Ministry of Education, Government of India, will be the nodal agency for this event with participation from the Ministries of Culture, Tourism, Railways, Textiles, Food Processing (ODOP), MSME, Information & Broadcasting, Skill Development & Entrepreneurship, IRCTC and related departments of Government of Uttar Pradesh. IIT Madras will be acting as the implementing agency in Tamil Nadu and Banaras Hindu University (BHU) in Uttar Pradesh. History of ties between Kashi and Tamil Nadu:- Many households in Tamilnadu adopted the names of Kailasanatha and Kashinatha for naming their children, like those who are living in Kashi and Uttar Pradesh. King Adhiveera Rama Pandiyan of the Pandya Dynasty dedicated a Shiva Temple at Tenkasi of Tamilnadu after his pilgrimage to Kashi , whose ancestors established Sivakasi. Saint Kumaragurupara from Sri Vaikundam, Tuthukudi District of Tamil Nadu has excelled in bargaining with the Sultanate of Kashi with audacity and drove a lion to his courtyard to get back the Kedarghat and a place for the consecration of Vishweshwara Lingam. He has written “Kashi Kalambakam” a grammatical composition of poems on Kashi. MUST READ: India’s Cultural Renaissance SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Th Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of the Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) With reference  to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: (2021) It is a circular temple built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. It is the only circular temple built in India. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Election Commission of India Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, Justice Nariman said that the new CEC law be struck down as ‘arbitrary it severely imperils the independence of the Election Commission of India. Background:- Justice (Retired) Rohinton F Nariman, former Supreme Court judge and former Solicitor General of India, on Friday said the recent Bill to regulate the appointment process of the Election Commission of India, once it becomes an Act, be struck down as “arbitrary” and “severely imperilling the independence of ECI”. “If it is not (struck down), it is fraught with the greatest danger to democracy,” he said. The Bill seeks to regulate the appointment of the Election Commission of India (ECI) by constituting a three-member selection committee comprising the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition or leader of the single largest Opposition party in the Lok Sabha and a Cabinet Minister named by the PM. About the Election Commission of India:- The Election Commission is a permanent and independent body established by the Constitution of India. (Election Commission) Objective: to ensure free and fair elections in the country. Article 324 of the Constitution: provides that the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to parliament, state legislatures, the office of president of India and the office of vice-president of India shall be vested in the election commission. Composition Election Commission of India:- Members: The election commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and a such number of other election commissioners, if any, as the President may from time to time fix. Appointment: The appointment of the chief election commissioner and other election commissioners shall be made by the Head: When any other election commissioner is so appointed the chief election commissioner shall act as the chairman of the election commission. Regional commissioners: The president may also appoint after consultation with the election commission such regional commissioners as he may consider necessary to assist the election commission. Procedure of Removal:- The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only through a process of removal similar to that of a Supreme Court judge by Parliament. Judges of High Courts and Supreme Court, CEC, Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) may be removed from office through a motion adopted by Parliament on grounds of ‘Proven misbehaviour or incapacity’. Removal requires a special majority of 2/3rd members present and voting supported by more than 50% of the total strength of the house. Conditions of service: it shall be such as the President may by rule. Tenure of office: President may by rule determine it. Key Functions of ECI:- ECI superintendents, direct and control the entire process of conducting elections. These include elections to Parliament and Legislature of every State and to the offices of President and Vice-President of India. It decides the election schedules for the conduct of periodic and timely elections, whether general or bye-elections. It prepares electoral rolls and issues Electronic Photo Identity Cards (EPIC). It decides on the location of polling stations, assignment of voters to the polling stations, location of counting centres, and other related arrangements to be made. It grants recognition to political parties. It allots election symbols to them along with settling disputes related to it. Advisory jurisdiction: it can advise in the matter of post-election disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures. It issues the Model Code of Conduct in elections for political parties and candidates. Model Code of Conduct: a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission of India for the conduct of political parties and candidates during elections. It sets limits of campaign expenditure per candidate to all the political parties and also monitors the same. MUST READ: Cohort on Election Integrity SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean? (2023) The principle of natural justice The procedure established by law Fair application of law Equality before law Q.2) With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements : (2023) When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Indira Gandhi Zoological Park (IGZP) Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY/ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, the Indira Gandhi Zoological Park (IGZP) , got two new species from Warangal Zoo as part of an animal exchange programme.  Background:- As part of the exchange, the IGZP has received Mouse Deer (1 male, 2 female) and Chowsinga (four Horned antelope) (1 male, 2 female). In return, the zoo is sparing hog deer (1 male, 2 female), barking deer (1 male, 2 female) and Lutino Parakeets (1 male, 2 female) About Indira Gandhi Zoological Park (IGZP):- Location: Visakhapatnam district of Andhra Pradesh. Area : 625 acres Indira Gandhi Zoological Park is located amidst Seethakonda Reserve Forest . The construction for this ex-situ facility started in the very year 1972 when Wildlife Protection Act of this country came into existence. It was opened to public on 19th May, 1977. It is surrounded by beautiful and scenic hills of Eastern Ghats on three sides and the Bay of Bengal on the fourth side. Being a Large category Zoo recognized by the Central Zoo Authority it houses 843 number of animals like mammals, carnivores, lesser carnivores, canids, ungulates, reptiles, birds and butterflies belonging to 123 species in a natural ambience. (Wildlife Institute of India (WII)) This place is also home to many free-ranging animals and birds owing to its existence in a forest area close to Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary. MUST READ: Wildlife Protection SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat? (2020) Askot Wildlife Sanctuary Gangotri National Park Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary Manas National Park Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 and 4 only 1 and 4 only Nyholm prize Syllabus Prelims –AWARDS Context: Recently, Mumbai professor bagged Royal Society of Chemistry’s Nyholm prize. Background:- Professor Savita Ladage from Mumbai’s Homi Bhabha Centre for Science Education, Tata Institute of Fundamental Research, received the Royal Society of Chemistry’s Nyholm Prize for Education in recognition of her contributions to chemistry education. Ladage bagged the award for her advocacy of the significance of chemical education. Her efforts include mentoring chemistry educators and spearheading impactful teacher and student programs that advance chemistry education in the country. In addition to the prize, Prof. Ladage will be awarded £5,000, along with a medal and a certificate. About Nyholm prize:- Presented by: The Royal Society of Chemistry. Nyholm Prize, celebrate individuals working across various levels of education.( Chess Olympiad) It recognizes the dedication of teachers, technicians, and education professionals. This prize recognizes inspirational, innovative and dedicated individuals or teams making a substantial and sustained impact within education. It is run annually. The prize alternates between being open to nominees both in the UK and Ireland and internationally, and open only to nominations from the UK and Ireland. For 2023, the prize is open to nominees based anywhere in the world. The winner(s) receives £5000, a medal and a certificate. The winner(s) will complete a series of lectures or workshops in the UK. The winner(s) will be chosen by the Education Prize Committee. MUST READ: Sastra Ramanujan Prize SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000: (2021) American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award. The award has been received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players so far. Roger Federer received this award a maximum number of times compared to others. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Social Stock Exchange Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, Unnati became the first entity to list on the social stock exchange. Background:- There are 38 more NPOs registered with the NSE SSE, and more listings could be in the offing in the next few months. About Social Stock Exchange:- Social Stock Exchange(SSE) is a platform that allows investors to invest in select social enterprises or social initiatives. Objectives: The SSE would function as a separate segment within the existing stock exchange and help social enterprises raise funds from the public through its mechanism. The Union Budget ( 2019 –20 )proposed to initiate steps for creating a stock exchange under the market regulator’s ambit. SEBI constituted a group under the chairmanship of Tata group veteran Ishaat Hussain in 2019. In 2020, SEBI again set up the Technical Group(TG) under Harsh Bhanwala, ex-Chairman, NABARD to get further expert advice and clarity on SSE. The Social Stock Exchange (SSE) is a novel concept in India and such a course is meant to serve private and non-profit sector providers by channeling greater capital to them. Global Examples: SSE exists in countries such as Singapore, and the UK among others. Salient Features: It is meant to serve private and non-profit sector providers by channelling greater capital to them. As per the proposal, SSE can be housed within the existing stock exchange such as the BSE and/or National Stock Exchange (NSE). Retail investors can only invest in securities offered by for-profit social enterprises (SEs) under the Main Board. In all other cases, only institutional investors and non-institutional investors can invest in securities issued by SEs. Eligibility: Any non-profit organization (NPO) or for-profit social enterprise (FPSEs) that establishes the primacy of social intent would be recognized as a social enterprise (SE), which will make it eligible to be registered or listed on the SSE. NPOs can raise money either through the issuance of Zero Coupon Zero Principal (ZCZP) Instruments from private placement or public issue, or donations from mutual funds. About Zero Coupon Zero Principal (ZCZP) Instruments : These are issued by a Not for Profit Organisation (NPO) which will be registered with the Social Stock Exchange (SSE) segment of a recognized stock exchange. The Finance Ministry has declared zero coupons zero principal instruments (ZCZP) as securities for the purposes of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956. These instruments will be governed by rules made by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) About Zero-coupon bond It is a debt security that does not pay interest but instead trades at a deep discount, rendering a profit at maturity, when the bond is redeemed for its full face value. The difference between the purchase price of a zero-coupon bond and the par value indicates the investor’s return. MUST READ: Allowing non-profit organisations to list on social stock exchanges recommended SOURCE: BUISINESSLINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements with reference to India : (2023) According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, the ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between (‘ 15 crore and(’25 crore). All bank loans to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to (2023) the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms · an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward. a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible. a numeric value that measures the fluctuations. of stock to changes in the overall stock market. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: OPERATIONS YEAR Operation Polo 1979 Operation Meghdoot 1984 Operation Vijay 1961 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Indira Gandhi Zoological Park (IGZP)  is located in Karnataka. Statement-II : It is located amidst Seethakonda Reserve Forest. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Election Commission of India, consider the following statements: It does not grant recognition to political parties. It allots election symbols to them along with settling disputes related to it. It is not a permanent and independent body. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  16th December 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 15th December – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 16th December 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test  Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 15th December 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Climate Change Performance Index 2023 Syllabus Prelims-IMPORTANT INDICES Context: Recently, India ranked 7th on the climate change performance index 2023. Background:- India ranked up one spot from the previous one and also remained among the highest performers. About Climate Change Performance Index:- Published since: 2005. Time period: annual. Published by German Watch, New Climate Institute and Climate Action Network International based in Germany. Objective: to enhance transparency in international climate politics and enables comparison of climate protection efforts and progress made by individual countries. Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) is an independent monitoring tool for tracking the climate protection performance of 59 countries and the EU. These 59 countries together account for 92% of global greenhouse gas emissions. The climate protection performance is assessed in four categories: GHG Emissions (40% of overall score), Renewable Energy (20% of overall score), Energy Use (20% of overall score) and Climate Policy (20% of overall score). Key highlights:- Denmark retained the top spot with a score of 75.59 per cent. Estonia and the Philippines occupied the second and third ranks respectively, with 72.07 and 70.70. Saudi Arabia was at the bottom 67th in the performance list, The host country United Arab Emirates occupied the 65th position. India’s performance:- While India is the world’s most populous country, it has relatively low per capita emissions, the index said. The Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) country experts reported that India is trying to meet its Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs), with clear long-term policies in place that focus on promoting renewable energy and providing financial support for domestic manufacturing of renewable energy components. India’s growing energy needs are still being met by its heavy reliance on coal, along with oil and gas, the report pointed out. “This dependence is a major source of greenhouse gas emissions and causes severe air pollution, especially in the cities.( Green future for Indian cities) India has relatively high taxes on petrol and diesel, which are intended to act as carbon taxes. The impact of these taxes on consumption remains disputed. Suggestions:- The policies are largely mitigative, yet they should also focus on transformative adaptation and disaster risk management. The policymakers should also adopt ecosystem-based solutions and consider equity. MUST READ: Mitigating Climate Change SOURCE: INDIA TODAY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of India’s preparation for Climate-smart Agriculture, consider the following statements: (2021) The ‘Climate-Smart Village’ approach in India is part of a project led by Climate Change, Agriculture, and Food Security (CCAFS), an international research program. The project of CCAFS is carried out under the Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’s research centres. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) has invested Rs 27,105 crore in exchange-traded funds (ETFs) during the current fiscal till October, Parliament was informed recently. Background:- EPFO had invested Rs 53,081 crore in the ETFs during the fiscal 2022-23, higher than Rs 43,568 crore in 2021-22, Minister of State for Labour and Employment Rameshwar Teli said in a written reply to the Lok Sabha. About Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs):- An exchange-traded fund (ETF) is a collection of investments such as equities or bonds. ETFs will let one invest in a large number of securities at once. They often have cheaper fees than other types of funds. ETFs are also more easily traded. However, ETFs, like any other financial product, are not a one-size-fits-all solution. Advantages of Investing in ETFs:- Easy to trade: they can be bought and sold at any time of day. ETFs are more tax efficient than actively managed mutual funds because they generate less capital gain distributions. They allow investors to avoid the risk of poor security selection by the fund manager while offering a diversified investment portfolio. The stocks in the indices are carefully selected by index providers and are rebalanced periodically. They offer anytime liquidity through the exchanges. Risks of ETFs:- Trading cost: If you invest modest sums frequently, dealing directly with a fund company in a no-load fund may be less expensive. Market risk: ETFs are subject to the same market fluctuations and volatility. Liquidity risk: ETFs may experience low trading volume or wide bid-ask spreads, which can affect their liquidity and price. Regulatory risk: ETFs are subject to changing laws and regulations that may affect their structure, operation, or taxation. About Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO):- The EPFO is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India. It is one of the World’s largest Social Security Organisations in terms of clientele and the volume of financial transactions undertaken. It into existence with the promulgation of the Employees’ Provident Funds Ordinance on the 15th of November 1951. It was replaced by the Employees’ Provident Funds Act, of 1952. The Employees’ Provident Funds Bill was introduced in the Parliament in the year 1952 as a Bill to provide for the institution of provident funds for employees in factories and other establishments. (EPFO’s New Facility on UMANG App started) The Act is now referred to as the Employees’ Provident Funds & Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 which extends to the whole of India. Schemes under EPFO:- EPF Scheme 1952 It provides for the accumulation plus interest upon retirement and death. Partial withdrawals are allowed for education, marriage, illness and house construction. (Nidhi Aapke Nikat 2.0) Pension Scheme 1995 (EPS) It provides monthly benefits for superannuation/retirement, disability, survivor, widow(er) and children. It provides a minimum pension on disablement. It provides past service benefits to participants of the erstwhile Family Pension Scheme, 1971. Insurance Scheme 1976 (EDLI) It provides the benefit in case of the death of an employee who was a member of the scheme at the time of death. It provides the benefit amount 20 times the wages. Maximum benefit is 6 lakhs. MUST READ: Alternate Investment Fund and Credit Default Swap SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022) An increase in the Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of the rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements is correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Retail investors through Demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market The “Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching” is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. The “Central Depository Services Ltd” is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 Stonehenge Syllabus Prelims –HISTORY Context: As per recent reports, Stonehenge is at risk of being ‘de-listed’ as a UNESCO World Heritage site if the A303 tunnel goes ahead. Background:- Recently, the efforts to stop the construction of a two-mile road tunnel close to the Great Circle of Stonehenge in the United Kingdom were seen by a (New sites added to India’s tentative list of UNESCO world) About Stonehenge:- Location: Salisbury Plain in England. It is not clear who built Stonehenge. The site has been used for ceremonial purposes and modified by many different groups of people at different times. Archaeological evidence suggests that the first modification of the site was made by early Mesolithic hunter-gatherers. (Bhimbetka cave) The monument called Stonehenge was built in six stages between 3000 and 1520 BCE. The site was used for ceremonial purposes beginning about 8000–7000 BCE. Stonehenge is constructed from sarsen stones, a type of silicified sandstone found in England, and bluestones, a dolomite variation extracted from western Wales. There is debate surrounding the original purpose of Stonehenge. Previously thought to be a Druid temple, Stonehenge may instead be, according to researchers and others, a burial monument, a meeting place between chiefdoms, or even an astronomical “computer.” MUST READ: Archaeological Survey of India SOURCE: BBC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Who among the following rulers advised his subjects through this inscription? (2020) “Whosoever praises his religious sect or blames other sects out of excessive devotion to his own sect, with the view of glorifying his own sect, he rather injures his own sect very severely.” Ashoka Samudragupta Harshavardhana Krishnadeva Raya Q.2) Which one of the following is not a Harappan site? (2018) Chanhudaro Kot Diji Sohgaura Desalpur Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, a first-of-its-kind Eastern Ghats Nature Interpretation Centre, located along the periphery of the Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary opened up. Background:- The new Nature Interpretation Centre, a separate section at the recently-inaugurated Eastern Ghats Biodiversity Centre near PM Palem, is an immersive experience of traversing through the diverse ecosystems of the region, that has long awaited systematic documentation. About Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary:- Location: Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh. Area: Approximately 71 square kilometers. Vegetation: Dry evergreen forests and scrubland. The sanctuary derives its name from the local hill, Kambalakonda. It was declared a Wildlife Sanctuary in 1970 under the Wildlife Protection Act of India,1972. he sanctuary features considerable hilly terrain with steep slopes. Biodiversity:- It is Home to Indian leopards, deer species, wild boar, jackals, reptiles, birds, and medicinal plants. Flora: Predominantly dry evergreen forests with moist deciduous patches. Fauna: The indicator species is the Indian leopard. Other species found here are Indian clouded gecko, bulbuls, barbets, cuckoos, flycatchers, hornbills and leafbirds, starlings. (Wildlife Institute of India (WII)) MUST READ: Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary (KWS) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat? (2020) Askot Wildlife Sanctuary Gangotri National Park Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary Manas National Park Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 and 4 only 1 and 4 only Organization of Islamic Cooperation (OIC) Syllabus Prelims – INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS /POLITY Context: Recently, India rejected a statement by the Organization of Islamic Cooperation on the Supreme Court verdict on Article 370. Background:- The OIC had expressed concern over the apex court order, which on Monday, ruled that Article 370 was a temporary provision. The OIC General Secretariat reiterated its call to reverse all illegal and unilateral measures taken by India ever since, seeking to change the internationally-recognised disputed status of the territory. About the Organization of Islamic Cooperation (OIC):- Established at: 1969 summit in Rabat (Morocco). HQ: Jeddah, Saudi Arabia. Official languages: Arabic, English, and French. Members: It has a membership of 57 states spread over four continents. Objective: It endeavours to establish solidarity among member states, support restoration of complete sovereignty and territorial integrity of any member state under occupation; protect, defend and combat defamation of Islam, prevent growing dissention in Muslim societies and work to ensure that member states take a united stand on the international stage. The Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC) is the second largest intergovernmental organization after the United Nations with a membership of 57 states. It is the collective voice of the Muslim world. It endeavors to safeguard and protect the interests of the Muslim world in the spirit of promoting international peace and harmony among various people of the world. The OIC has consultative and cooperative relations with the UN and other inter-governmental organisations to protect the interest of Muslims. Objectives:- It is the collective voice of the Muslim world. It endeavours to safeguard and protect the interests of the Muslim world. It aims to promote international peace and harmony among various people of the world. India is not a member of the OIC.  MUST READ: India Rejects OIC’s Proposal SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements (2020) The value of Indo-Sri Lanka Trade has consistently increased in the last decade. Textile and textile articles constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1,2, and 3 Q.2)  With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC)’, consider the following statements: (2015) It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills. It is an alliance meant for maritime security only Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Endotheliotropic herpesvirus subtypes (EEHV) Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY / GOVERNANACE Context: A recently undertaken study of endotheliotropic herpesvirus subtypes (EEHV) might help in the development of diagnostics & therapeutics. Background:- The research on the path-epidemiology or the study of the determinants, occurrence, and distribution of the disease can help develop sero-diagnostics, vaccines and therapeutics against the disease. The study by ICAR-Indian Veterinary Research Institute (ICAR-IVRI), Izatnagar, Bareilly, supported by Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB), an attached institution of Department of Science and Technology, has found the exact status of EEHV and its subtypes circulating among Asian elephant population in India. About Endotheliotropic herpesvirus subtypes (EEHV):- The EEHV is a type of herpesvirus that can cause a highly fatal haemorrhagic disease in young Asian elephants. When EEHV is triggered, the elephant dies of massive internal bleeding and symptoms which are hardly visible. EEHV belongs to the Herpesviridae family and specifically affects elephants. It comprises several subtypes, with EEHV1A being the most common and associated with severe disease in young Asian elephants. EEHV1B and EEHV2 are also identified but with varying prevalence and impact. Each subtype may exhibit genetic diversity, contributing to differences in virulence and disease manifestation. (Elephant Conservation) Transmission:- EEHV spreads primarily through contact with infected bodily fluids like saliva, blood, or urine. Additionally, indirect transmission via contaminated objects, including equipment and surfaces, poses a risk. Diagnosis:- Diagnosis involves various methods, including PCR testing to detect the virus in bodily fluids, serology to identify antibodies, and biopsies for microscopic examination. Treatment:- Presently, there’s no specific antiviral treatment for EEHV-HD. Supportive care through intravenous fluids, blood transfusions, and other measures aims to alleviate symptoms and enhance survival chances.  MUST READ: Endangered Asian elephant in Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Recently, there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites? (2017) Corbett National Park Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Sariska National Park Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: ORGANIZATIONS HQ OPEC New York World Meteorological Organisation (WMO) Geneva, Switzerland WTO Switzerland How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Organization of Islamic Cooperation (OIC) has headquarters in Jeddah, Saudi Arabia. Statement-II : It is the world’s largest organization. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Endotheliotropic herpesvirus subtypes (EEHV) , consider the following statements: EEHV spreads primarily through contact with infected bodily fluids like saliva, blood, or urine. Presently, there’s no specific antiviral treatment for EEHV-HD. It comprises several subtypes, with EEHV1A is most common. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  15th December 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 13th December – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 15th December 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test  Click Here