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Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 11th December 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 9th December 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Infinity Forum 2.0 Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi will address the 2nd Edition of the flagship Financial Technology event – Infinity Forum 2.0. Background:- Distinguished speakers from the Central and State Governments include Chief Minister of Gujarat Bhupendra Patel, Union Minister of Commerce and Industry Piyush Goyal, and Minister for Railways, Communications and IT Ashwini Vaishnaw will witness the event. About Infinity Forum 2.0:- Hosted by: International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) and Gujarat International Finance Tec-City, GIFT City. Theme ‘GIFT-IFSC: Nerve Centre for New Age Global Financial Services. It is Organized as a pre-cursor event to the Vibrant Gujarat Global Summit 2024. The 2nd edition of the Infinity Forum 2.0, will be held in hybrid mode, with an invite-only in-person event scheduled in GIFT City and for virtual participation from participants across the globe. The Infinity Forum is a global thought leadership platform on financial services, where progressive ideas, pressing problems, and innovative technologies from across the world get Discovered, Discussed and Developed into solutions and opportunities. The 1st edition of the Forum was organized in December 2021. It will also witness participation and insightful discussions by several luminaries from the financial sector in India and across the globe. The event will be preceded by an Investors Meet for FinTech entities which are authorized by IFSCA or recommended by institutions having MoU with IFSCA or accelerators which are authorized by IFSCA. The theme of the 2nd edition of Infinity Forum is ‘GIFT-IFSC: Nerve Centre for New Age Global Financial Services’, which will be dovetailed through the following three tracks: Plenary Track: Making of a New Age International Financial Centre Green Track: Making a case for a “Green Stack” Silver Track: Longevity Finance Hub at GIFT IFSC Each track will comprise an Infinity Talk by a senior industry leader and a discussion by a panel of industry experts and practitioners from the financial sector in India and across the globe, providing practical insights and implementable solutions. The Forum will witness the participation of 300+ CXOs with strong online participation from India and a global audience across 20+ countries including the USA, UK, Singapore, South Africa, UAE, Australia and Germany. The event will also be attended by Vice-Chancellors from foreign universities and representatives of foreign embassies. MUST READ: National Stock Exchange (NSE) and Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following:  (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) In India, the Central Bank’s function as the “lender of last resort” usually refers to which of the following? (2021) Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 and 2 2 only 2 and 3 3 only Egypt’s mummified baboons Syllabus Prelims –HISTORY Context: The mystery origin of Egypt’s mummified baboons has been finally cracked recently. Background:- The scientists have recently retrieved ancient mitochondrial DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid) from a mummified baboon found at the Gabbanat el-Qurud site in Egypt, which will help discover its origin. About Egypt’s mummified baboons:- The Egyptian god Thoth was represented by a baboon — which is odd because baboons aren’t native to Egypt. In 1905, Egyptologists Louis Lortet and Claude Gaillard discovered mummified baboons in Gabbanat el-Qurud. Gabbanat el-Qurud is also known as the ‘Valley of the Monkeys’. The baboons belonged to the ancient city of Adulis in present-day coastal Eritrea, a trade centre between the 1st and 7th centuries AD. The lost city of Punt can be one of the potential locations of its origin. The city of Punt was mentioned in accounts of Greco-Roman historians and was associated with the trade of leopard skin, gold, and live exotic animals. Significance of discovery:- The study aligns with historical accounts, drawing attention to the significance of the Red Sea in trade relationships between India, Egypt, and Europe.  About Baboons:- Baboons are some of the world’s largest monkeys. All baboons have a strong torso, a snoutlike face, the same dentition with long, sharp canine teeth, and powerful jaws. Distribution: Africa & Arabia. Habitat: prefer savanna and other semi-arid habitats, though a few live in tropical forests. Baboon social behaviour is matrilineal, in which a network of social relationships is sustained over three generations by the female members of the species. MUST READ: India-Egypt relations SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements: (2021) Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of the egg. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from the mother and not from the father. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Who among the following was associated as Secretary with Hindu Female School which later came to be known as Bethune Female School? (2021) Annie Besant Debandranath Tagore Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar Sarojini Naidu Thanjavur Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi has rrecently, replied to a social media post by Hollywood actor Michael Douglas on his visit to Thanjavur. Background:- Via a post on X, the Prime Minister said: “Thanjavur is beautiful indeed! And, there is a lot more to see in India which will leave tourists from across the world spellbound.” About Thanjavur:- Thanjavur (Tanjavur or Tanjore) is a temple site in the Tamil Nadu region of southern India. Thanjavur was the capital of the great Chola (Cola) king Rajaraja I. It was he who commissioned the site’s magnificent temple, the Brihadishvara, in the early 11th century CE. Many other temples and shrines were added over the centuries making Thanjavur one of the most important and most visited historical sites in India today. Thanjavur is listed by UNESCO as a World Heritage Site. About Brihadishvara temple:- Brihadishvara (or Brhadisvara) temple was constructed between c. 995 and 1025 CE using Chola war booty and tribute from Sri Lanka. The temple was dedicated to the Hindu god Shiva. The entire rectangular complex measures approximately 140 x 75 metres and is surrounded by a wall with regular interior niches. Inside the compound are various secondary shrines and a monumental double gateway entrance (gopuras). The two-storey Brihadishvara temple is built on a high dadoed-base platform. The granite tower (vimana), rises in thirteen diminishing levels above the sacred garbhagriha (inner shrine). It is topped by a dome structure which rests on a single 7.7 m square granite block weighing around 80 tons. The temple was laid out on a precise plan of 16 x 16 squares, a design known as padmagarbhamandala in the Dravida architecture of southern India. The garbhagriha contains a 4-metre tall Shiva linga (phallus). Murals decorate the interior walls, and, once hidden by later Nayaka period paintings, these include fine images of Rajaraja I, his spiritual advisor or guru, and his three queens. Other subjects include a Nataraja (Shiva as Lord of the Dance) who was the clan deity of the Cholas (kuladevata). MUST READ: Hoysala temples SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of the Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) With reference  to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: (2021) It is a circular temple built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. It is the only circular temple built in India. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Financial Stability Board (FSB) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, the Financial Stability Board (FSB) in their latest report assessed the risks associated with multi-function crypto-asset intermediaries (MCIs) Background:- The Financial Stability Board (FSB)’s latest report on crypto-asset intermediaries sought measures to enhance cross-border cooperation and information sharing among local authorities About Financial Stability Board (FSB):- Establishment: 2009. HQ: Basel, Switzerland. It was established in April 2009 after the G20 Summit in London as the successor to the Financial Stability Forum. The board includes all G20 major economies. The Financial Stability Board (FSB) is an international body that monitors and makes recommendations about the global financial system. Members: The FSB consists of 68 member institutions. It comprises several central banks, ministries of finance, and supervisory and regulatory authorities from 25 jurisdictions, as well as 10 international organizations and six Regional Consultative Groups (RCGs). India is an active Member of the FSB, having three seats in its Plenary represented by the Secretary (Dept of Economic Affairs), Deputy Governor-RBI, and Chairman-SEBI. The FSB’s decisions are not legally binding on its members. Objectives:- Assess vulnerabilities affecting the global financial system as well as identify and review, on a timely and ongoing basis within a macroprudential perspective, the regulatory, supervisory and related actions needed to address these vulnerabilities and their outcomes. Promote coordination and information exchange among authorities responsible for financial stability Monitor and advise on market developments and their implications for regulatory policy. Monitor and advise on best practices in meeting regulatory standards. Undertake joint strategic reviews of the international standard-setting bodies and coordinate their respective policy development work to ensure this work is timely, coordinated, focused on priorities and addresses gaps. Set guidelines for establishing and supporting supervisory college Functions:- It promotes international financial stability by coordinating national financial authorities and international standard-setting bodies as they work toward developing strong regulatory, supervisory and other financial sector policies. It fosters a level playing field by encouraging coherent implementation of these policies across sectors and jurisdictions. The FSB, working through its members, seeks to strengthen the financial system of the world. About Multifunction crypto-asset intermediaries (MCIs):- Multifunction crypto-asset intermediaries (MCIs) are individual firms, or groups of affiliated firms, that combine a broad range of crypto-asset services, products, and functions typically centred around the operation of a trading platform. (Cryptocurrency) MCIs typically combine many services, which may include exchange, brokerage, dealing, market-making, custody, clearing and asset management activities; issuing, promoting and distributing crypto-assets, including so-called stablecoins Additionally, some MCIs have substantial proprietary trading and investment functions, some of which are conducted in the course of offering some of the aforementioned services and others which are solely for the MCI’s own account.   Structure:- MCIs typically operate their platforms using a global website that serves as a primary entry point for services. Some MCIs have chosen, in some jurisdictions, to create country-specific local versions of their platforms with legal structures purportedly separate from their main operations. Additionally, some MCIs also establish local subsidiaries (sometimes by buying a local licensed firm) that may receive some level of regulatory permission to provide crypto-asset services to domestic residents, while still connecting to the global platform. Governance:- MCIs do not generally disclose their internal governance, but there are strong indications that independent and robust risk management functions are lacking. Vulnerabilities of MCIs:- Leverage: MCIs engaging in proprietary trading or market-making on their own trading platforms could exacerbate the build-up of leverage. Liquidity mismatch: MCI investment programmes, including staking-as-a-service and yield/earn programmes, create liquidity mismatch. Technological and operational vulnerabilities: MCIs are susceptible to several technological and operational vulnerabilities. MCIs have been a target of cyber-attacks and a number of them have had funds stolen by hackers in the past. MUST READ: Crypto Asset Regulation SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements: (2022) They enable the digital representation of physical assets. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to ‘Bitcoins’, sometimes seen in the news which of the following statements is/are correct (2016) Bitcoins are tracked by the Central Banks of the countries. Anyone with a Bitcoin address can send and receive Bitcoins from anyone else with a Bitcoin address. Online payments can be sent without either side knowing the identity of the other. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Aditya-L1 Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, the payload onboard Aditya-L1 captured full-disk images of the Sun. Background:- The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) announced that the Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (SUIT) instrument on board the Aditya-L1 spacecraft has successfully captured the first full-disk images of the Sun. About Aditya-L1:- Aditya L1 shall be the first space-based Indian mission to study the Sun. Launched by: ISRO. Launch Vehicle: PSLV-XL. (PSLV-C54 launch) Destination site: The spacecraft shall be placed in a halo orbit around the Lagrange point 1 (L1) of the Sun-Earth system, which is about 1.5 million km from the Earth. Lagrange points: specific locations in space where the gravitational forces of two large bodies, such as a planet and its moon or a planet and the Sun, produce enhanced regions of gravitational equilibrium. There are five primary Lagrangian points, labeled L1 through L5, in a Sun-Earth system. L1 (Lagrange Point 1):- Founded by: Joseph Louis Lagrange. Location: about 1.5 million kilometres inside Earth’s orbit, between the Sun and the Earth. The L1 point of the Earth-Sun system gives a clear view of the sun all the time, without any occultation/ eclipses. Significance of Aditya L1: It will provide a greater advantage in observing solar activities and their effect on space weather in real-time. Objectives of Aditya L1:- Study of Solar upper atmospheric Study of chromospheric and coronal heating, physics of the partially ionized plasma, initiation of the coronal mass ejections, and flares. Sun’s corona: the outermost layer of its atmosphere Study of the Physics of the solar corona and its heating mechanism. Study of Diagnostics of the coronal and coronal loops plasma: Temperature, velocity, and density. Study of Magnetic field topology and magnetic field measurements in the solar corona. Paylaods in Aditya L1:- There are a total of seven payloads on board. (IN-SPACe) Four of them carry out remote sensing of the Sun. Three of them carrying in-situ observation. Remote Sensing Payloads:- Visible Emission Line Coronagraph(VELC) Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (SUIT) Solar Low Energy X-ray Spectrometer (SoLEXS) High Energy L1 Orbiting X-ray Spectrometer(HEL1OS) In-situ Payloads:- Aditya Solar wind Particle Experiment(ASPEX) Plasma Analyzer Package For Aditya (PAPA) Advanced Tri-axial High-Resolution Digital Magnetometers MUST READ: Shukrayaan SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Indian Bison Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, the Koya tribe rode the eco-friendly wave to help conserve the Indian Bison of Eastern Ghats. Background:- In a move to conserve the Indian Bison in their forests, the indigenous Koya tribe inhabiting the Papikonda hill range in Andhra Pradesh have made an exemplary transition by shedding the use of bison horns to make their traditional flute, Permakore, and replacing it with an instrument made of eco-friendly palm leaf. About Indian Bison:- Indian Bison are one of the largest extant bovines. (Wildlife Institute of India (WII)) It is one of the largest species among the wild cattle, reaching a shoulder height of up to 220 cm. The Indian gaur, a reclusive beast that lives in the wild. They are found on the forested hills and grassy areas of south to southeast Asia. In India, they are found in Nagarhole, Bandipur, Masinagudi National Parks and BR Hills. Threats:- Food Scarcity Poaching Habitat Loss due to deforestation and commercial plantations. Human-Animal Conflict Conservation status:- Wild Life Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I. International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List: Vulnerable. About Koya tribe:- The Koya population is primarily found in Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha. They speak the Koya language, which belongs to the Dravidian language family. They practice Podu form of shifting cultivation, as practiced by various tribal groups in forest areas has for long been an economic survival versus environmental sustenance issue. The held ST status in Chattisgarh but they were not granted ST status in their migrated states such as Telangana. Koyas popularly call themselves as Dorala Sattam (Lords group) and Putta Dora (original lords). The Godavari and Sabari rivers which flow through their area of habitation exercise profound influence on Koyas’ economic, social and cultural life. MUST READ: New Breeds of Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)-National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources (NBAGR) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following organisms ·perform the waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food? (2023) Butterflies Dragonflies Honeybees Wasps Q.2) Consider the following fauna : (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: SPECIES IUCN STATUS Kondana Rat Vulnerable Javan Rhinoceros Critically Endangered Ganges Shark Least concern How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : The Financial Stability Board (FSB) was established in 2005. Statement-II : The board includes all G20 major economies. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Infinity Forum 2.0, consider the following statements: The theme is Nerve Centre for New Age Global Financial Services. It is Organized as a pre-cursor event to the Vibrant Gujarat Global Summit 2024. The 1st edition of the Forum was organized in December 2020. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  9th December 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 8th December – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – a

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[RESULTS] UPSC Civil Services MAINS Examination 2023 Results Announced!

Dear Students UPSC has announced UPSC Civil Services Mains Examination 2023 Results. We congratulate all the aspirants who have cleared the Mains Exam and wish you the best for UPSC CSE Exam – Personality Test. DOWNLOAD MAINS WRITTEN RESULT – CLICK HERE DOWNLOAD MAINS WRITTEN RESULT (NAME-WISE) – CLICK HERE IASbaba’ INTERVIEW MENTORSHIP PROGRAMME (IMP) IASbaba’s Interview Mentorship Programme (IMP) is the most comprehensive initiative for the personality test. The program has helped many previous year rankers to qualify for the Civil Services Exam. We have designed IMP in such a way that it is not just a ritual that has to be done by the aspirants but personal attention will be given to each and every candidate and guidance will be provided according to the individual needs of the candidates. Following the feedback of the toppers is a testimony of that. To Know More about ‘INTERVIEW MENTORSHIP PROGRAM’ – CLICK HERE Those who are interested in the IMP Programme, please fill out the Registration Form below: REGISTRATION FORM – CLICK HERE IMPORTANT NOTE: Students, who have filled the Registration Form, can use the DISCUSSION ROOMS at Bengaluru, Delhi, Bhopal and Lucknow Centres. The Discussion Rooms will be specially reserved for interview purposes. Also, to make the discussion more streamlined, a mentor will oversee the discussions. For further queries with regard to the interview, you can mail us at support@iasbaba.com or call us on 91691 91888 (10 am to 5:30 pm).  All the Best IASbaba Team

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 8th December 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   National Mission for Clean Ganga Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, Under the National Mission for Clean Ganga a total of 450 projects have been taken up at an estimated cost of Rs. 38,022.37 Crore, out of which 270 projects have been completed and made operational. Background:- So far, a total of 450 projects have been taken up at an estimated cost of Rs. 38,022.37 Crore, out of which 270 projects have been completed and made operational. About National Mission for Clean Ganga:- Launched: 12th August 2011. Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti. Objective: to ensure effective control of pollution and rejuvenation of the river Ganga by adopting a river basin approach to promote inter-sectoral coordination for comprehensive planning and management. ( Cleaning of River Ganga) NMCG was listed as a society under the Societies Registration Act, of 1860. It is responsible for implementing the government’s ambitious Namami Gange programme. It acted as the implementation arm of the National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) which was constituted under the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act (EPA),1986. NGRBA was dissolved in 2016 and replaced by the National Council for Rejuvenation, Protection, and Management of River Ganga NMCG is an initiative taken by the Government of India to address the pollution of the river Ganga by providing financial and technical assistance. Further, to maintain minimum ecological flows in the river Ganga to ensure water quality and environmentally sustainable development. The National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) has undertaken comprehensive public awareness campaigns to foster a sense of responsibility and engagement among the public in efforts to clean and conserve the Ganga River. Through educational materials, community outreach, school programs, mass media campaigns, and online engagement. Challenges:- Land Acquisition: In many instances, the Detailed Project Reports (which prescribe all the steps necessary to execute a project, and the roles of agencies) needed revision. Lack of Local Initiatives: State Governments are under the impression that building treatment plants was entirely the Centre’s responsibility. Improper Funding: Though NMCG is a ₹20,000 crore mission, the government has so far given in-principle approval for projects worth ₹37,396 crore, of which only ₹14,745 crore has been released to States for infrastructure work, as of June 2023. Municipal Solid Waste Management: The mission faced criticism for not adequately addressing the problem of municipal solid waste flowing into the Ganga. Inadequate Sewerage Coverage: Much of India’s urban population resides outside sewerage networks, resulting in a substantial portion of waste not reaching STPs. Improper Waste Disposal: The study by the Quality Council of India revealed that rubbish heaps are found near ghats in numerous towns along the river, indicating improper waste disposal practices. This poses a threat to the cleanliness of the Ganga. MUST READ: River Cities Alliance SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1)  Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers? (2022) Cauvery Manjira Pennar Tungabhadra Q.2) R2 Code of Practices” constitutes a tool available for promoting the adoption of (2022) Environmentally responsible practices in the electronics recycling industry Ecological management of ‘’Wetlands of International Importance” under the Ramsar Convention Sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands Environmental Impact Assessment’’ in the exploitation of natural resources Ethics Committee Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, the ethics committee of the Lok Sabha is believed to have recommended the expulsion of Trinamool Congress Member of Parliament (MP) Mahua Moitra from the Lok Sabha for her “unethical conduct” and “breach of privileges”. Background:- Ethics Committee, tasked with overseeing the moral conduct of parliamentarians. About the ethics committee:- The ethics committee was constituted in 2000. Objective: to oversee the moral and ethical conduct of members and examine cases of ‘unethical conduct’ referred to it. The Committee examines complaints filed against members of the House by other members; outsiders through a member; or referred by the Speaker. The Committee makes a prima facie inquiry before deciding to examine a complaint. It presents its report to the Speaker, who places it before the House for consideration. The term ‘unethical’ is not defined. It is left to the Committee to decide whether any act is unethical or not. Privileges Committees:- While the Ethics Committee handles cases of unethical conduct, the Privileges Committee, or Special Inquiry Committee, deals with more severe accusations against a member. These committees have historical precedence, with a special committee in 1951 finding a member guilty of promoting a business interest through questions in return for financial benefits. About Committees of Parliament:- Parliamentary committees are broadly categorized as Standing Committees and Ad Hoc Committees. Standing Committees are permanent and operate continuously, while Ad Hoc Committees are temporary and disband upon task completion. It includes Financial Committees, Departmental Standing Committees, Committees to Enquire, Committees to Scrutinise and Control, Committees Relating to the Day-to-Day Business of the House, and House-Keeping Committees. Ad Hoc Committees are subdivided into Inquiry Committees and Advisory Committees. The Parliamentary committees draw their authority from the constitution. Article 105: Powers, privileges, etc., of the houses of Parliament and of the members and committees thereof. Article 118: Each House of Parliament may make rules for regulations, subject to the provisions of this constitution, its procedure and the conduct of its business. Functions of the Parliamentary Committees:- Reviewing and scrutinising the work of the government. Power to summon ministers and officials. Parliamentary committees play a key role in the legislative process by examining and reviewing bills before they are passed into law. They can make recommendations for changes to the bill and ensure that it is consistent with the Constitution and the laws of the land. Signification of Parliamentary Committees- Parliamentary committees are crucial for legislative decision-making, offering expertise to MPs who may lack in-depth knowledge on specific issues. These committees, acting as mini-parliaments, comprise MPs from various parties, elected proportionally. They serve as instruments for meticulous scrutiny, closely examining bills and seeking input from external stakeholders, including the public. MUST READ: Joint Parliamentary Committee SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 per cent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model? (2021) As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the parliament to legislate is limited. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee (INC) Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, the Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee (INC), under the United Nations Environment Programme, met in Nairobi. Key highlights:- It met for its third round of negotiations (INC-3) to develop an international legally binding instrument to end plastic pollution worldwide. Under the UNEA Resolution 5/14, the INC is responsible for delivering a global plastics treaty by 2025 INC-3 was a make-or-break opportunity as countries came together to negotiate the ‘zero draft’ text developed by the Committee’s Secretariat, with various options for core obligations and control measures. UNEA Resolution 5/14- UNEA adopted a resolution to develop an international legally binding instrument on plastic pollution, including in the marine environment. A zero draft is a preliminary version of a document that contains various options for potential provisions or elements of the document. The zero draft as prepared by the Secretariat contained strong options for an international legally binding treaty to end plastic pollution. The zero draft was a good starting point for the negotiations because it catered to ambitions at all levels: strong and binding, moderate and flexible, weak and voluntary. About Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee (INC):- Establishment: 2022. It was established at the 5th session of the United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA-5.2). The Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee (INC) was established to develop an international legally binding instrument on plastic pollution, including in the marine environment between 2022 and 2024. ( Plastic Pollution) The instrument must include marine, land, and water plastic pollution, and promote the sustainable production and consumption of plastics through environmentally sound waste management policies based on the circular economy approaches. Under the legally binding agreement, countries are expected to develop, implement and update national action plans reflecting country-driven approaches to contribute to the objectives of the instrument. They will be expected to promote national action plans to work towards the prevention, reduction and elimination of plastic pollution and to support regional and international cooperation. It aims to engage with stakeholders across the value chain of plastics production including manufacture, use, recycling, and disposal at the sub-national, national, regional, and global levels. The INC is assisted by the IUCN whose prior expertise in international negotiations and initiatives regarding the implementation of circular economies locally, regionally, and globally, as part of ensuring a strong and effective global plastics treaty. Mitigation Efforts to Reduce Plastic in India:- The Indian government has implemented bans on certain single-use plastic items known to cause environmental harm. National Frameworks and Policies: The Plastic Waste Management Rules (2016), focus on reducing plastic waste, enhancing recycling, and phasing out the use of non-recyclable plastics. The Swachh Bharat Mission, a nationwide campaign to clean up the streets, roads, and infrastructure of India’s cities and rural areas, addresses plastic waste as a significant component of municipal solid waste. Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR): Under the EPR framework, producers, importers, and brand owners are held responsible for the collection and processing of post-consumer plastic waste, ensuring a reduction in plastic waste leakage into the environment. Recycling and Waste Management Innovations Public Awareness Campaigns (Plastic Waste management) Numerous NGOs and community-based organizations in India are actively involved in beach clean-ups, awareness drives, and promoting sustainable practices at the local level. MUST READ: Global Treaty on Pollution SOURCE: THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements: (2023) None of them uses seawater. None of them is set up in a water-stressed district. None of them is privately owned. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency Garba Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, the Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi today expressed happiness on the inscription of the Garba of Gujarat on the Intangible Heritage List of UNESCO. Background:- The Prime Minister posted on X; “Garba is a celebration of life, unity and our deep-rooted traditions. Its inscription on the Intangible Heritage List showcases to the world the beauty of Indian culture. This honour inspires us to preserve and promote our heritage for future generations. Congrats on this global acknowledgement.” Garba, was included in the UNESCO list of Intangible Cultural Heritage. About Garba:- Garba is a traditional dance form from Gujarat. Garba is the 15th cultural item from India to be featured on the UNESCO list. It is a traditional dance form primarily performed during the Navratri festival to worship the Hindu goddess Durga. It celebrates fertility, honour womanhood, and pay respect to any of an array of mother goddesses. The term “Garba” comes from “Garbha” (womb) and “Deep” (lamp). The dance is performed around a central lamp or a representation of the Goddess, symbolizing life, death, and rebirth. The light (the Garba Deep) or a picture of the Goddess Durga is put in the centre of concentric rings, and the people dance around it, bending sideways with each step and making sweeping gestures with their arms, each movement concluding with a clap. Women wear a chaniya choli (a colourful, embroidered skirt set) and men don a kediyu and dhoti or pyjama, often embellished with mirrors and embroidery. Garba is often followed by Dandiya Raas, another dance form using sticks (dandiyas), especially after the Aarti (worship ritual). (Mohiniyattam)  MUST READ: Lavani SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (2017) It is a song and dance performance Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Q.2) With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements: (2014) Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Sovereign Green Bonds Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, Sovereign Green Bonds of Rs. 16,000 crores were raised by the government in 2022-23 for financing renewable energy projects. About Sovereign Green Bonds:- A sovereign green bond is a financial instrument that is issued by a sovereign entity, inter-governmental group, alliance, or corporation. Green bonds are issued by companies, countries and multilateral organizations to exclusively fund projects that have positive environmental or climate benefits and provide investors with fixed-income payments. The proceeds of the sovereign green bond are utilized for projects classified as environmentally sustainable. These are issued with a longer maturity period. The first green bond was issued in 2007 by the European Investment Bank, the EU’s lending arm. This was followed a year later by the World Bank. Significance:- It will catalyze domestic market development and provide impetus to institutional investors. It will provide benchmark pricing, liquidity and a demonstration effect for local issuers, helping to support the growth of a local market. Challenges associated with Sovereign Green Bonds:- Monitoring challenge: There would be a challenge with respect to monitoring how this green grading performs. This will be a challenge until such time the system of evaluation is streamlined as deviations from the norm are hard to capture. Pricing issue: Should they be lower than the regular bond or higher is the major question here. Ideally, it needs to be higher; this is because investors need to be rewarded for choosing to promote ESG goals. On the other side it can be argued that the rates can be lower than normal because investors like to reward green projects, anyway. Overseas launch: The downside is that once the government goes global, then credit rating will matter a lot as all bonds issued globally need to be rated. Once one is rated by them, there is constant scrutiny of domestic policies. Presently, this does not matter because the government of India does not borrow from the overseas market. MUST READ: Climate Finance SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a : (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organizations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by the United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Q.2)With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”? Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs. IIGs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Betelgeuse Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recent studies show that Betelgeuse Is Set to Almost Disappear. Background:- Betelgeuse, one of the most visible stars in our skies, has been behaving strangely over the past few years. The red supergiant, which sits in the constellation of Orion, abruptly dimmed in 2019 causing astronomers to wonder if it was about to explode. About Betelgeuse:- Betelgeuse is a red supergiant star in the constellation Orion. Supergiant star: over 20 times bigger than the Sun. It is one of the largest visible to the naked eye. It is the second-brightest in the constellation of Orion. The star is approximately 650 light-years from Earth. Betelgeuse is called ‘Thiruvathirai’ or ‘Ardra’ in Indian astronomy. ( IN-SPACe) It is a distinctly reddish, semiregular variable star whose apparent magnitude, varies between +0.0 and +1.6. At near-infrared wavelengths, Betelgeuse is the brightest star in the night sky. It is known for its periodic dimming and brightening up. In massive stars like Betelgeuse, the carbon-burning stage lasts only up to a few hundred years, after which the star ‘dies’ and collapses into a supernova within a few months. Supernova A supernova is the name given to the explosion of a massive star. They are the largest explosion that takes place in space. A star can go supernova in one of two ways:- Type I supernova: Star accumulates matter from a nearby neighbour until a runaway nuclear reaction ignites. Type II supernova: Star runs out of nuclear fuel and collapses under its own gravity. Orion constellation The Orion constellation is named after the hunter in Greek mythology. Orion, is one of the most prominent and recognizable constellations in the sky and can be seen throughout the world. In total, Orion is home to 10% of the seventy brightest stars, despite covering only 1.4% of the sky. MUST READ: SpaceTech Innovation Network (SpIN) SOURCE: SCIENCE ALERT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometres long, with lasers shining between the craft.” The experiment in question refers to (2020) Voyager-2 New Horizons LISA Pathfinder Evolved LISA Q.2) Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘black holes’ billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation? (2019) ‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected. ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected. Possibility of intergalactic space travel through a ‘wormhole’ was confirmed. It enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: INTERNATIONAL ORGANIZATIONS HQ United Nations Environment Programme Nairobi World Wide Fund for Nature Sweeden United Nations Conference on Trade and Development New York How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Garba is the 10th cultural item from India to be featured on the UNESCO list. Statement-II : The term “Garba” comes from “Garbha” (womb) and “Deep” (lamp). Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to sovereign green bonds consider the following statements: The proceeds of the sovereign green bond are utilized for projects classified as environmentally sustainable. These are issued with a shorter maturity period. The first green bond was issued in 2002. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  8th December 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 7th December – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 8th December 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 7th December 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Gram Manchitra application Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: Recently, the Panchayati Raj Ministry Launched the  “Gram Manchitra” App. Background:- This information regarding the “Gram Manchitra” App was given by the Union Minister of State for Panchayati Raj, Shri Kapil Moreshwar Patil in a written reply in Lok Sabha. About Gram Manchitra application:- Launched: October 2019. Ministry: Ministry of Panchayati Raj Objectives: to encourage Spatial Planning by the Gram Panchayat. Salient Features:- The Geographic Information System (GIS) application “Gram Manchitra” (https://grammanchitra.gov.in) facilitates and supports Gram Panchayats to perform planning at the Gram Panchayat level using geospatial technology. A geographic information system (GIS) is an online system that analyses and displays geographically referenced information. It uses data that is attached to a unique location. Gram Manchitra provides a single/ unified Geo-Spatial platform to better visualize the various developmental works to be taken up across the different sectors and provide a decision support system for the Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP). Complementing “Gram Manchitra,” the Ministry has introduced “mActionSoft,” a mobile-based solution designed to capture photos with Geo-Tags, incorporating GPS coordinates. ( Bharat Net Project) This feature facilitates the geo-tagging of assets at three crucial stages: before the commencement of work, during the work, and upon completion. The resulting repository of information encompasses various sectors such as natural resource management, water harvesting, sanitation, agriculture, check dams, and irrigation channels. The assets geo-tagged using the “mActionSoft” application seamlessly integrate with “Gram Manchitra,” offering an enhanced visualization of developmental works in Gram Panchayats. This integration ensures transparency and accessibility of information related to assets created under finance commission funds. This application is also linked with the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) report and Mission Antyodaya. All this information is available in a single window, which will assist the Gram Panchayat user in better visualization of works during planning. Real-time monitoring of activities or development work implementation status and progress of execution of various schemes can be easily tracked. Benefits:- Gram Manchitra provides several planning tools that use GIS technology to help Gram Panchayat officials develop realistic and achievable development plans. These tools provide a decision support system in the preparation of development plans viz. tools for identifying potential sites for development projects, asset tracking, estimating the costs of projects, and assessing the impact of projects. It will help Gram Panchayat officials develop realistic and achievable development plans. MUST READ: E-PANCHAYAT FACILITY SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) With reference to Urban Cooperative Banks in India, consider the following statements: (2020) They are supervised and regulated by local boards set up by the State Governments. They can issue equity shares and preference shares. They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, of 1949 through an Amendment in 1996 Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Electoral bonds Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Political funding through anonymous electoral bonds shot up by over 400% during the recent Assembly elections in Telangana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Mizoram, as compared to the last polls in these states in 2018. Background:- The latest sales (29th tranche) under the electoral bond scheme saw the highest sales in Telangana’s capital of Hyderabad (Rs 359 crore), followed by Mumbai (Rs 259.30 crore), and Delhi (Rs 182.75 crore). About Electoral bonds:- IMAGE SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS An Electoral Bond is like a promissory note that may be purchased by a person who is a citizen of India or incorporated or established in India. A person being an individual can buy Electoral Bonds, either singly or jointly with other individuals. The bonds are like banknotes that are payable to the bearer on demand and are interest-free. Historical Background:- The electoral bonds system was introduced in 2017 by way of a Finance bill. It was implemented in 2018. Salient Features:- Electoral Bonds serve as a means for individuals and entities to make donations to registered political parties while maintaining donor anonymity. State Bank of India (SBI) issues the bonds in denominations of Rs 1,000, Rs 10,000, Rs 1 lakh, Rs 10 lakh, and Rs 1 crore. It is payable to the bearer on demand and interest-free. It is purchased by Indian citizens or entities established in India. It can be bought individually or jointly with other individuals. It is valid for 15 calendar days from the date of issue. The State Bank of India (SBI) is the authorized issuer. Electoral Bonds are issued through designated SBI branches. Electoral Bonds can be purchased digitally or through cheques. Encashment only through an authorized bank account of the political party. Political Parties must disclose their bank account with the Election Commission of India (ECI). Eligibility:- Only the Political Parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951 and which secured not less than one per cent of the votes polled in the last General Election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly of the State, shall be eligible to receive the Electoral Bonds. Advantages of Electoral Bonds:- Ensures Accountability: Donations through Electoral Bonds will only be credited to the party bank account disclosed with the ECI. Discourage Cash: The Purchase will be possible only through a limited number of notified banks and that too through cheque and digital payments. More Transparency: It helps the political parties to operate in a more transparent manner with the election commission, regulatory authorities and the general public at large. Maintains Anonymity: The individuals, groups of individuals, NGOs, religious and other trusts are permitted to donate via electoral bonds without disclosing their details. Therefore, the identity of the donor is being preserved. Disadvantages of Electoral Bonds:- Hindering Right to Know: Voters will not know which individual, company, or organisation has funded which party, and to what extent. Before the introduction of electoral bonds, political parties had to disclose details of all their donors, who have donated more than Rs 20,000. The change infringes the citizen’s ‘Right to Know’ and makes the political class even more unaccountable. Unauthorized Donations: In a situation where the contribution received through electoral bonds is not reported, it cannot be ascertained whether the political party has taken any donation in violation of provision under Section 29B of the RPA, 1951 which prohibits the political parties from taking donations from government companies and foreign sources. Leads to Crony-Capitalism: It could become a convenient channel for businesses to round-trip their cash parked in tax havens to political parties for a favour or advantage granted in return for something. Anonymous funding might lead to an infusion of black money. MUST READ: Supreme Court Ruling on Electoral Bonds SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider · the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day : (2023) Statement-I : Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens. Statement-II: On 26 November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India· set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft of the Constitution of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022) This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people. This would create a local self-governing body in that area. This would convert that area into a Union Territory. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State. UNFCCC COP 28 Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: The Adaptation Fund head expressed worries about not receiving adequate funds at UNFCCC COP 28. Background of the issue:- The Adaptation Fund, the global body that finances projects for vulnerable communities in developing countries to adapt to climate change. It was established under the Kyoto Protocol of the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change. It finances projects and programmes that help vulnerable communities in developing countries adapt to climate change. It has only received around half of the funds at the ongoing COP28 compared to what it minimally requires. In March, the Adaptation Fund Board has calculated that at least $300 million is required and expected that fund to be raised at COP28. But so far, only around $165 million has been promised. Earlier, during informal consultations, developing countries expressed disappointment that the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change’s Standing Committee on Finance had failed to arrive at a baseline for the doubling of adaptation finance. About COP28:- Date: November 30 to December 12, 2023. Venue: Dubai. COP, the Conference of Parties, is the supreme decision-making body of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). Its primary role is to review and guide the implementation of the Convention, making it a crucial platform for discussing global climate policies. The ‘parties’ are the governments around the world that have signed the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). The UNFCCC entered into force on 21st March 1994 and has been ratified by 197 countries. It is the parent treaty of the 2015 Paris Agreement. It is also the parent treaty of the 1997 Kyoto Protocol. Every year, the COP is hosted by a different nation. The office of the COP President normally rotates among the five United Nations regional groups which are – Africa, Asia, Latin America and the Caribbean, Central and Eastern Europe and Western Europe and Others. The first such COP meeting – ‘COP1’ took place in Germany in 1995. (27th COP of UNFCCC) COP28 represents the 28th iteration of this global summit. COP28 is expected to focus on aggressive measures to combat climate change, with particular attention on the transition to sustainable energy production and the reduction of reliance on fossil fuels. Key Issues at COP28:- The Global Divide in Climate Responsibility: There remains a stark division between historically responsible developed countries and developing nations, who feel they are being asked to bear an unfair burden of climate action. 5 Degree Celsius Target. (Climate Change) Addressing the Resource and Trust Deficit: The gap between the required resources for climate action and their availability exemplifies a deeper trust deficit between developed and developing nations. Paris Agreement and the Kyoto Protocol. Principles of ‘Common but Differentiated Responsibilities’: Both the Kyoto Protocol and the Paris Agreement recognize the principle of ‘Common but Differentiated Responsibilities’, albeit in different capacities. Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM): an emerging concept designed to adjust the carbon content of imports to match domestic prices, thereby preventing carbon leakage and encouraging cleaner production methods. Delivery of $100 Billion: Developed countries pledged to mobilize $100 billion annually in climate finance from 2020, a commitment that remains unfulfilled. Progress: Developed nations are expected to claim fulfilment of this promise at COP28, though it remains inadequate compared to the trillions required for climate action. Issue: The greater challenge lies in negotiating additional funding beyond the $100 billion annually, commencing next year. MUST READ: COP 27: A field guide to climate jargon SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution? (2020) Automobile exhaust Tobacco smoke Woodburning Using varnished wooden furniture Using products made of polyurethane Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) With reference to ‘fuel cells’ in which hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to generate electricity, consider the following statements : (2015) If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by-products. Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop computers. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Goods and Services Tax Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: The Goods and Services Tax (GST) has yielded almost ₹3.4 lakh crore through October and November. Background:- While revenues in October marked the second-highest monthly collections, November’s kitty is the third-highest. About Goods and Services Tax:- Launched:2017. Goods and Services Tax is an indirect tax used in India on the supply of goods and services. It is a value-added tax levied on most goods and services sold for domestic consumption. It was launched as a comprehensive indirect tax for the entire country. It is of three types:- CGST: levied by the Centre SGST: levied by the States and IGST: levied on all Inter-State supplies of goods and/or services. GST Council:- The 101st Amendment Act of 2016 (122nd Amendment Bill), paved the way for the implementation of GST. (GST Appellate Tribunal) The GST Council is a joint forum of the Centre and the states under Article 279-A of the constitution. Article 279-A. gives the President the authority to appoint a GST Council by executive order. The members of the Council include the Union Finance Minister (chairperson), and the Union Minister of State (Finance) from various states. As per Article 279, it is meant to “make recommendations to the Union and the states on important issues related to GST, like the goods and services that may be subjected or exempted from GST, model GST Laws”. It also decides on various rate slabs of GST. Benefits of GST:- Automated tax ecosystem: It helped the country in transitioning to an automated indirect tax ecosystem. Better Compliance: GST helped in achieving better tax compliance by subsuming multiple taxation and reducing in taxation burden in the last four years. E-invoice and More Revenue: The E-invoicing system helped reduce fake invoicing. The use of technology with online bill generation has resulted in smoother consignment movement and much fewer disputes with officials. Logistical efficiency and production cost cut: Another major achievement of this regime is the fact that over 50% of logistics effort and time is saved since GST has ensured the removal of multiple checkpoints and permits at state border checkpoints. Lesser transaction costs: After the introduction of GST, there has been a significant reduction in transaction costs. Cooperative Federalism: The customs portals are linked with the GST portal for credit availing on imports constitution of the GST Council and ensuring Centre-State partnership in the decision-making process. Challenges of GST:- Refund delay issues. Lack of Dispute redressal mechanism: There is no statutory mechanism under the GST regime that could ensure uniformity in the rulings passed by the Authorities. Constant amendments: Over the last few years, the GST law has seen many amendments. During this time, all these revisions often confused the taxpayer and the tax administrators which created misunderstandings and misconceptions. Adaption and Technical Issues: Small and medium businesses are still grappling to adapt to the tech-enabled regime MUST READ: GST- Five years on SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India, the Central Bank’s function as the “lender of last resort” usually refers to which of the following? (2021) Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 and 2 2 only 2 and 3 3 only Q.2) What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’? (2017) It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves. It will enormously increase the growth and size of the economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Deepfakes Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, the Government reviewed social network progress in curbing deepfakes. Background:- Union Minister Rajeev Chandrasekhar met social media platforms to review progress made by them in tackling misinformation and deepfakes and asserted that advisories will be issued in the next two days to ensure 100 per cent compliance by platforms. About Deepfakes:- The term deepfake originated in 2017, when an anonymous Reddit user called himself “Deepfakes.” The term deepfake refers to digital representations (video and images), which are produced by artificial intelligence to replace the person in the original video with someone else. It is a method for manipulating videos, images, and audio utilizing powerful computers and deep learning. It is used to generate fake news and commit financial fraud among other wrongdoings. The algorithms of deepfake are intelligent enough to make decisions on their own. Deepfake technology employs sophisticated deep learning algorithms, particularly Generative Adversarial Networks (GANs) and autoencoder models, to analyze and synthesize realistic human faces, voices, and gestures. By analyzing large datasets of images and videos, deepfake algorithms learn to mimic facial expressions, speech patterns, and other human characteristics, enabling the creation of convincing and deceptive digital content. Applications:- Entertainment Industry: Deepfake technology has found applications in the entertainment industry, enabling the creation of engaging visual effects, digital doubles, and realistic character animations in movies and video games. Social Media and Misinformation: The proliferation of deepfake content on social media platforms has amplified concerns about the spread of misinformation, as manipulated videos and audio recordings can deceive the public and influence public opinion. Cybersecurity Threats: Deepfakes pose significant cybersecurity threats, as malicious actors can utilize this technology for identity theft, impersonation, and fraud, jeopardizing the security and privacy of individuals and organizations. Political Manipulation and Disinformation: The potential use of deepfake technology for political manipulation and disinformation campaigns raises concerns about the integrity of democratic processes and public trust in political institutions. Challenges:- Deepfake technology has raised concerns due to its potential misuse, posing significant challenges to various aspects of society. It has gained widespread attention for its applications in fake news, hoaxes, celebrity pornography, and identity theft. India’s Current Stand on Deepfakes:- India lacks a comprehensive legal framework dedicated to regulating deepfakes. India relies on pre-existing laws, such as Sections 67 and 67A of the Information Technology Act (2000), which may be applicable to some aspects of deepfakes, including defamation and explicit material dissemination. Defamation Provision: Section 500 of the Indian Penal Code (1860) offers punishment for defamation, which can be applied in cases involving deepfakes. Personal Data Protection Bill (2022): Although this bill might provide some protection against the misuse of personal data, it doesn’t explicitly address the issue of deepfakes MUST READ: Deepfake technology & China SOURCE: PTI  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics. Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 3 only 1 and 2 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to street lighting, how do sodium lamps differ from LED lamps? (2021) Sodium lamps produce light at 360 degrees but it is not so in the case of LED lamps. As street lights, sodium lamps have a longer life span than LED lamps. The spectrum of visible light from sodium lamps is almost monochromatic while LED lamps offer significant colour advantages in street lighting. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Garba Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, the Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi today expressed happiness on the inscription of the Garba of Gujarat on the Intangible Heritage List of UNESCO. Background:- The Prime Minister posted on X; “Garba is a celebration of life, unity and our deep-rooted traditions. Its inscription on the Intangible Heritage List showcases to the world the beauty of Indian culture. This honour inspires us to preserve and promote our heritage for future generations. Congrats on this global acknowledgement.” Garba, was included in the UNESCO list of Intangible Cultural Heritage. About Garba:- Garba is a traditional dance form from Gujarat. (Mohiniyattam) Garba is the 15th cultural item from India to be featured on the UNESCO list. It is a traditional dance form primarily performed during the Navratri festival to worship the Hindu goddess Durga. It celebrates fertility, honour womanhood, and pay respect to any of an array of mother goddesses. The term “Garba” comes from “Garbha” (womb) and “Deep” (lamp). The dance is performed around a central lamp or a representation of the Goddess, symbolizing life, death, and rebirth. The light (the Garba Deep) or a picture of the Goddess Durga is put in the centre of concentric rings, and the people dance around it, bending sideways with each step and making sweeping gestures with their arms, each movement concluding with a clap. Women wear a chaniya choli (a colourful, embroidered skirt set) and men don a kediyu and dhoti or pyjama, often embellished with mirrors and embroidery. Garba is often followed by Dandiya Raas, another dance form using sticks (dandiyas), especially after the Aarti (worship ritual). MUST READ: Kathakali dance SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (2017) It is a song and dance performance Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Q.2) With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements: (2014) Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Dance State Bharatnatyam Andhra Pradesh Kuchipudi Tamil Nadu Mohiniyattam Kerala How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : The term deepfake originated in 2017. Statement-II : India has a comprehensive legal framework dedicated to regulating deepfakes. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Electoral bonds, consider the following statements: It is purchased by Indian citizens or entities established in India. It can be bought individually only. It is valid for 25 calendar days from the date of issue. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 2 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  7th December 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 6th December – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 7th December 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 6th December 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Chandrayaan-3 Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, ISRO brought back the Chandrayaan-3 propulsion module from the Moon to Earth’s orbit. About Chandrayaan-3:- IMAGE SOURCE: IASBABA Chandrayaan-3 is the successor to the Chandrayaan-2 mission. Launch Vehicle: Mark-III (LVM3). Launched site: Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC), Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. Composition: It consists of an indigenous Lander module (LM), a Propulsion module (PM), and a Rover. Lander: a spacecraft that descends towards and comes to rest on, the surface of an astronomical body. Propulsion module: a box-like structure, mounted with a large solar panel on one side and a large cylinder on top. Rover: a small vehicle that can move over rough ground, often used on the surface of other planets, sometimes controlled from the earth. The Lander and the Rover have scientific payloads to carry out experiments on the lunar surface. There will not be any orbiters like Chandrayaan 2 in it. Objectives of Chandrayaan-3 mission:- To demonstrate a Safe and Soft Landing on the Lunar Surface. To demonstrate Rover roving on the moon. To conduct in-situ scientific experiments. Lander payloads:- Chandra’s Surface Thermophysical Experiment (ChaSTE): to measure the thermal conductivity and temperature Instrument for Lunar Seismic Activity (ILSA): for measuring the seismicity around the landing site Langmuir Probe (LP): to estimate the plasma density and its variations. A passive Laser Retroreflector Array from NASA is accommodated for lunar laser ranging studies. Rover payloads:- Alpha Particle X-ray Spectrometer (APXS) and Laser Induced Breakdown Spectroscope (LIBS): for deriving the elemental composition near the landing site. Propulsion Module Payload:- Spectro-polarimetry of Habitable Planet Earth (SHAPE): Future discoveries of smaller planets in reflected light would allow us to probe into a variety of Exo-planets which would qualify for habitability or for the presence of life. About GSLV-Mk III:- Weighs: 641 tones. Capacity: GSLV can take 10,000-kg satellites to lower earth orbits. It is also known as the Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM3). It is a three-stage vehicle. It has two solid motor strap-ons, a liquid propellant core stage, and a cryogenic stage. It is the heaviest and the shortest among India’s operational launch vehicles MUST READ: Gaganyaan SOURCE: INDIA TODAY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) Consider the following statements : (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) has recommended to the authorities that the Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary abutting the Bandipur Tiger Reserve be declared as a core critical tiger habitat. Background:- This followed a site visit by Assistant Inspector General of Forests, NTCA, Ms. Harini Venugopal. The visit followed a slew of issues raised by conservation activist Giridhar Kulkarni pertaining to Bandipur. About Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary:- Location: Mysuru district, Karnataka. Geographic Area: Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary encompasses 30.32 sq km. (Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary (KWS)) The northern part of Nugu WLS is occupied by the Nugu Reservoir. Nugu is a vulnerable area as far as human–elephant conflicts are concerned. In 1974, Nugu was declared a Wildlife Sanctuary. It was added to the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve in the year 2003-2004. The average amount of rainfall received in this area is Most of the vegetation in the forests is dry, deciduous, interspersed with patches of plantations. Flora: Anogeissus latifolia, Tectonia grandis, Terminalia tomentosa etc. Fauna: elephant, leopards, jungle cats, wild pig, spotted deer, sambar deer, barking deer, etc. MUST READ: Tungareshwar Wildlife Sanctuary SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following fauna : (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”? (2020) Corbett Ranthambore Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Sunderbans Guillain-Barre syndrome Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recent research found out that the risk of developing ‘extremely rare’ Guillain-Barre syndrome increases due to COVID-19. About Guillain-Barre syndrome:- Guillain-Barre (gee-YAH-buh-RAY) syndrome is a rare disorder in which the body’s immune system attacks your nerves. Weakness and tingling in your hands and feet are usually the first symptoms. These sensations can quickly spread, eventually paralyzing your whole body. In its most severe form Guillain-Barre syndrome is a medical emergency. Most people with the condition must be hospitalized to receive treatment. The exact cause of Guillain-Barre syndrome is unknown. But two-thirds of patients report symptoms of an infection in the six weeks preceding. These include COVID-19, respiratory or gastrointestinal infection or Zika virus. Symptoms:- A pins and needles sensation in your fingers, toes, ankles or wrists Weakness in your legs that spreads to your upper body Unsteady walking or inability to walk or climb stairs Difficulty with facial movements, including speaking, chewing or swallowing Double vision or inability to move the eyes Severe pain that may feel achy, shooting or cramp-like and may be worse at night Difficulty with bladder control or bowel function Rapid heart rate Low or high blood pressure Difficulty breathing Types:- Guillain-Barre syndrome has several forms. The main types are: Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculoneuropathy (AIDP): the most common form in North America and Europe. The most common sign of AIDP is muscle weakness that starts in the lower part of your body and spreads upward. Miller-Fisher syndrome (MFS): in which paralysis starts in the eyes. MFS is also associated with unsteady gait. MFS is less common in the U.S. but more common in Asia. Acute motor axonal neuropathy (AMAN) and acute motor-sensory axonal neuropathy (AMSAN):are less common in the U.S. But AMAN and AMSAN are more frequent in China, Japan and Mexico. Treatment:- There is no known cure for this syndrome. The most commonly used treatment is intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG), which is made from donated blood that contains healthy antibodies. MUST READ: iNCOVACC SOURCE: OPHTHALMOLOGY TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: (2022) Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022) They protect the environmental allergens. body They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) Syllabus Prelims – SPACE/ IMPORTANT INSTITUTIONS Context: Recently, it was revealed that ISRO chose to land Chandrayaan in the moon’s south pole region for water molecules. Background:- The Chandrayaan-3 Project Director said India has a road map for its space programmes until 2047. About ISRO:- Establishment: 1969. Agency: Department of Space (DOS). HQ: Bengaluru, Karnataka. (Gaganyaan) Objective: to harness space technology for national development while pursuing space science research and planetary exploration. Historic Background:- ISRO was previously the Indian National Committee for Space Research (INCOSPAR), set up by the Government of India in 1962, as envisioned by Dr. VikramA Sarabhai. ISRO was formed on August 15, 1969, and superseded INCOSPAR with an expanded role to harness space technology. Salient Features:- ISRO is the space agency under the Department of Space of the Government of India. The organization is involved in science, engineering and technology to harvest the benefits of outer space for India and mankind. ISRO is a major constituent of the Department of Space (DOS), Government of India. The department executes the Indian Space Programme primarily through various Centres or units within ISRO. Functions: Space Science & Exploration Satellites. Antrix Corporation Limited (ACL) is a Marketing arm of ISRO for the promotion and commercial exploitation of space products, technical consultancy services, and transfer of technologies developed by ISRO. ISRO Milestones:- The first Indian-made sounding rocket was the RH-75 (Rohini-75). The first Indian satellite, Aryabhata, was built by the ISRO. Development of the PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle) for placing satellites into polar orbits and the GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle) for placing satellites into geostationary orbits. ISRO also launched the first IRS (remote-sensing satellite) in 1988. ISRO launched its first lunar mission Chandrayaan I in 2008. In January 2014, ISRO used an indigenously built cryogenic engine for a GSLV-D5 launch of the GSAT-14 satellite making it one of the only six countries in the world to develop a cryogenic technology. It also launched the Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM) or the Mangalyaan in 2014. India launched Chandrayaan-2, its second lunar exploration mission after Chandrayaan-1 on 22nd July 2019. India launched Chandrayaan-3 in 2023. MUST READ: ISRO’s hybrid propulsion system SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct? (2023) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times that received at the poles. Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation. Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere. Infrared waves are a part of the visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation. Q.2) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Patriot Air Defence Missile System Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: The U.S. is sent the Patriot surface-to-air missile system to Middle East recently. Background:- The Pentagon recently said that it will send additional Patriot air defense missile system battalions to the Middle East in response to recent attacks on U.S. troops in the region. About Patriot Air Defence Missile System:- The Patriot is a surface-to-air guided missile system. It was first deployed in the 1980s. It is named after the Patriot (Phased Array Tracking Radar to Intercept on Target) radar system used in it. The Patriot system replaced the Nike Hercules system and the MIM-23 Hawk system as the U.S. Army’s primary High to Medium Air Defense (HIMAD) system and medium tactical air defense system respectively. It was initially developed as a system to intercept high-flying aircraft, by U.S. aerospace and defense giant Raytheon Technologies Corp. it was modified in the 1980s to counter other threats such as ballistic missiles. The Patriot system’s radar has a range of over 150 km . It can track over 50 potential targets at the same time. Currently, Patriot batteries can defend against ballistic missiles, cruise missiles, drones, jets and “other threats”. It has been deployed in 18 countries, including the U.S. It is operational across NATO geography. It is one of the most widely operated and reliable and proven air missile defense systems out there,” and the theater ballistic missile defense capability. Limitation:- It doesn’t offer protection against low-flying small drones. A Patriot battery can need as many as 90 troops to operate and maintain it. MUST READ: S-400 missile defence system SOURCE: MSN PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news? (2018) An Israeli radar system India’s indigenous anti-missile programme An American anti-missile system A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea. Parkinson's disease Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, Researchers have developed a blood test to identify individuals at risk of developing Parkinson’s disease. About Parkinson’s disease:- Parkinson’s disease is a progressive disorder that affects the nervous system and the parts of the body controlled by the nerves. Symptoms start slowly. The risk of developing it increases with age. Symptoms:- uncontrollable shaking and tremors slowed movement (bradykinesia) balance difficulties and eventual problems standing up stiffness in limbs Speech changes Writing changes Loss of automatic movements Causes:- Genes (Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs)) Environmental triggers The presence of Lewy bodies. Clumps of specific substances within brain cells are microscopic markers of Parkinson’s disease. These are called Lewy bodies. Parkinson’s disease is often accompanied by these additional problems like:- Thinking difficulties Depression and emotional changes Swallowing problems. Chewing and eating problems. Sleep problems and sleep disorders People also may experience rapid eye movement sleep behaviour disorder, which involves acting out dreams. Medicines may improve your sleep. Bladder problems. Constipation. Treatments:- Although there is no cure for Parkinson’s disease, medicines, surgical treatment, and other therapies can often relieve some symptoms. Medicines: Medicines can help treat the symptoms of Parkinson’s by: Increasing the level of dopamine in the brain Having an effect on other brain chemicals, such as neurotransmitters, which transfer information between brain cells Helping control non-movement symptoms Therapy: the main therapy for Parkinson’s is levodopa. Nerve cells use levodopa to make dopamine to replenish the brain’s dwindling supply. Deep brain stimulation: For people with Parkinson’s disease who do not respond well to medications, the doctor may recommend deep brain stimulation.  MUST READ: Rare Diseases SOURCE: MEDICAL EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy : (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents, and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following : (2022) Bacteria Fungi Virus Which of the above can be cultured in an artificial/ synthetic medium? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: DISEASE CAUSED BY Plague Yersinia pestis Pneumonia Streptococcus pneumoniae Tetanus Clostridium tetani How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Parkinson’s disease is a progressive disorder that affects the nervous system and the parts of the body controlled by the nerves. Statement-II : The risk of developing it increases with age. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to ISRO, consider the following statements: It launched Chandrayaan-2 in 2005. It launched Chandrayaan-3 in 2023. It launched the Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM) or the Mangalyaan in 2012. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  6th December 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 5th December – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 6th December 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 5th December 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   IBA Junior World Boxing Championship 2023 Syllabus Prelims –SPORTS Context: Recently, India bagged 3 gold, 5 silver and 1 bronze medals in IBA Junior World Boxing Championship 2023. About IBA Junior World Boxing Championship 2023:- Date: 23 November – 4 December Venue: MIKA Sports Arena, Yerevan Akansha won gold in the 70 kg category, Pari clinched the gold medal in the 48 kg weight category. Nisha won gold in the 52 kg category. (Sports Code) In the 52 kg weight category, Vini won the silver medal. Srishti Sathe won a silver medal in the 63 kg weight category. In the boys’ category, Jatin won the silver medal in the 54 kg category. While Hardik Panwar in the 80 kg category, Ameesha Kereta in the 54 kg category and Prachi Tokas in the 80 kg weight category had to settle for silver medals only. MUST READ: Chess Olympiad SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. · How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this Olympics. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Exchange rate Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: As per the recent exchange rate, the Indian rupee closed at 83 rupees and 36 paise against the US dollar. Background:- The dollar index, which indicates the US dollar’s strength against a basket of six other leading currencies, was up 0.15 per cent to trade at 103.42 in intra-day trade. About Exchange rate:- Exchange rate is a rate at which a currency of one country can be exchanged with the currency of another country. Under a fixed exchange rate system, devaluation and revaluation are official changes in the value of a country’s currency relative to other currencies. Devaluation is when the price of the currency is officially decreased in a fixed exchange rate system. Revaluation is when the price of the currency is increased within a fixed exchange rate system. Under a floating exchange rate system, market forces generate changes in the value of the currency, known as currency depreciation or appreciation. Currency appreciation refers to the increase in value of one currency relative to another in the forex markets. Currency depreciation is a fall in the value of a currency in a floating exchange rate system. (Rupee Depreciation) Effects of currency appreciation on India:- Export costs rise: If the Indian Rupee (INR) appreciates, foreigners will find Indian goods more expensive because they have to spend more for those goods in INR. That means that with the higher price, the number of Indian goods being exported will likely drop. This eventually leads to a reduction in gross domestic product (GDP). Cheaper imports: If Indian goods become more expensive on the foreign market; foreign goods, or imports, will become cheaper in India. Effects of currency depreciation:- Improves export competitiveness. May lead to pulling of foreign investment. A weaker currency may escalate imported oil and edible oil prices and lead to higher food inflation. MUST READ: Recent Trend of Current Account Deficit (CAD) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2021) The effect of the devaluation of a currency is that it necessarily Improves the competitiveness of the domestic exports in the foreign markets Increase the foreign value of the domestic currency Improves the trade balance Which of the above statements is/are 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of the Indian rupee? (2019) Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee-denominated Masala Bonds Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing Following an expansionary monetary policy Scattered Spiders Syllabus Prelims – SECURITY  Context: The FBI Issued Warning About Dangerous ‘Scattered Spiders’ Hackers recently. Background:- The Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) has issued a warning to organizations about a hacking group called Scattered Spiders. About Scattered Spiders:- Scattered Spiders is a hacking group notorious for invading various organizations across the world. This hacker group is known by other aliases as well, including Starfraud, UNC3944, Scatter Swine, and Muddled Libra. (Cybercrime) The members are as young as 16 years old and primary English speakers. It is known for sophisticated hacking techniques, including phishing, push bombing, SIM swap attacks, and social engineering. It impersonates IT support and help desk personnel to deceive employees into disclosing credentials, OTPs, and gaining access to networks. It Utilizes remote access tunnelling tools for monitoring and managing systems. (India’s cyber infrastructure) It evades detection by using living off-the-land techniques and frequently changing tactics, making them difficult to trace. Previous attacks targeted prominent companies such as Riot Games, DoorDash, and MailChimp. It even drew attention from companies like Microsoft. The criminals “frequently join incident remediation and response calls and teleconferences, likely to identify how security teams are hunting them and proactively develop new avenues of intrusion in response to victim defenses. MUST READ: Cyber Attacks in India SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (2020) Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following pairs of Terms sometimes seen in news vs Context /Topic: (2018) Belle II experiment: Artificial Intelligence Blockchain technology: Digital/ Cryptocurrency CRISPR — Cas9: Particle Physics Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 India Meteorological Department (IMD) Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, the India Meteorological Department (IMD) has declared a red alert in five districts of south coastal Andhra Pradesh and north coastal Tamil Nadu as well as an enclave of Puducherry Background:- Chennai is witnessing showers more severe than those experienced in the 1970s-80s, according to state minister KN Nehru. About India Meteorological Department (IMD):- Established: 1875. Ministry: Ministry of Earth Sciences. IMD Headquarters: New Delhi. It is the National Meteorological Service of the country. It is the principal government agency in all matters relating to meteorology and allied subjects. Objectives:- To take meteorological observations and provide current and forecast meteorological information for optimum operation of weather-sensitive activities like agriculture, irrigation, shipping, etc. To warn against severe weather phenomena tropical cyclones, duststorms, heavy rains and snow, cold and heat waves,, which cause the destruction of life and property. To conduct and promote research in meteorology and allied disciplines. To provide meteorological statistics required for agriculture, water resource management, industries, oil exploration and other nation-building activities. The IMD uses 4 colour codes:- Green (All is well): No advisory is issued. (Colour Coded Weather Warning) Yellow (Be Aware): Yellow indicates severely bad weather spanning several days. Orange/Amber (Be prepared): The orange alert is issued as a warning of extremely bad weather with the potential of disruption in commute with road and rail closures, and interruption of power supply. Red (Take Action): When extremely bad weather conditions are certainly going to disrupt travel and power and have significant risk to life, the red alert is issued.   MUST READ: The India Meteorological Department (IMD) may introduce new monsoon models SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following : (2023) Aerosols Foam agents Fire retardants Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Emmy Awards Syllabus Prelims –AWARDS Context: Recently, Ektaa Kapoor was honoured with the International Emmy Directorate Award. Background:- She became the First Indian Woman Producer to receive the International Emmy Directorate Award. Additionally, Vir Das, along with Derry Girls season 3, was honoured with the International Emmy for Comedy. About Emmy Awards:- The Emmy Awards are a set of prestigious honours specifically for television and emerging media. The Emmy Awards, initially conceptualized in 1948, made their debut on January 25, 1949. The different sectors within television:- Primetime Emmy Awards: Administered by the Television Academy, these honour American TV shows aired during primetime. International Emmy Awards: Recognize excellence in international television programs outside the United States. Daytime Emmy Awards: Awarded to American shows aired during late-morning and afternoon time slots. Sports, News, and Documentary Emmy Awards: Overseen by the National Academy of Television Arts & Sciences, these categories focus on excellence in sports, news, and documentary programming. Technology and Engineering Emmy Awards: Recognize achievements in technological advancements within the television industry. Regional Emmy Awards: Celebrate excellence in regional television markets, including local news, state-to-state programming, and locally produced shows. These awards are presented by three distinct organizations:- The Television Academy administers the Primetime Emmy Awards.( Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Award (PBSA)) The National Academy of Television Arts & Sciences oversees daytime, sports, news, and documentary categories. The International Academy of Television Arts & Sciences is responsible for the International Emmys. MUST READ: Golden Globes Award SOURCE: THE MINT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards: Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titled under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements is not correct? (2021) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000: American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award. The award has been received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players so far. Roger Federer received this award a maximum number of times compared to others. Which of the above statements is correct? (2021) 1 and 2 only and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 India Internet Governance Forum 2023 Syllabus Prelims – GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, the India Internet Governance Forum 2023 took place. About India Internet Governance Forum 2023:- Date: 05, December,2023. Venue: New Delhi .( India Internet Governance Forum (IIGF)) The forum is a multi-stakeholder platform bringing together representatives from various groups to discuss public policy issues related to the Internet. Theme: Moving Forward – Calibrating Bharat’s Digital Agenda. The event is an effort to discuss issues such as building a secure, trusted and resilient cyberspace for Bharat, Enabling Innovation for India’s Developmental Goals, Bridging Divides and Calibrating Bharat’s Digital Agenda. The India Internet Governance Forum is an initiative associated with the UN Internet Governance Forum. The session will be graced by the presence of Shri Rajeev Chandrasekhar, Minister of State for Electronics & Information Technology and Skill Development & Entrepreneurship. A special address will be delivered by Shri S Krishnan, Secretary, Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY), and the welcome address is slated to be given by Shri Sushil Pal, Joint Secretary, MeitY. The India Internet Governance Forum is aligned with the UN Internet Governance Forum (UN IGF). It was established in 2021. The Indian chapter, IIGF, is supported by a 14-member multi-stakeholder committee representing government, civil society, industries, the technical community, think tanks, and industry associations Significance:- It serves as a crucial platform for fostering a common understanding of maximizing internet opportunities while addressing associated risks and challenges.  MUST READ: Digital India Programme SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement/      set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Q.2) Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as the ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started implementation of its from 25th May 2018? (2019) Australia Canada The European Union The United States of America   Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: AWARD ESTABLISHED IN Bharat Ratna 1979 Saraswati Samman 1991 Jnanpith award 1961 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : The Emmy Awards, initially conceptualized in 1948, made their debut on January 25, 1959. Statement-II : The International Academy of Television Arts & Sciences is responsible for the International Emmys. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the, consider the following statements: It was established in 1875. It is under the Ministry of Earth Sciences. Its Headquarters are in Mumbai. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  5th December 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 4th December – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – c