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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 18th January 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary (KWS) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: Recently forest officials of Katarniaghat division says it has plan for the financial inclusion of the Tharu people that live near the Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary (KWS). About Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary (KWS): The Sanctuary is a protected area in the Upper Gangetic plain in Uttar Pradesh. It was brought under the purview of the ‘Project Tiger’ in 1987. KWS with the Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary and the Dudhwa National Park it forms the Dudhwa Tiger Reserve, which was established in 1975. Katerniaghat Forest provides strategic connectivity between tiger habitats of Dudhwa and Kishanpur in India and the Bardia National Park (Nepal). The Gairwa river flows in the sanctuary area is declared as a sanctuary for Mugger and Gharials. Fauna: Endangered species including, tiger, rhino, swamp deer, hispid hare, Bengal florican, the white-backed and long-billed vultures. It is among the few places in India where Gangetic dolphins (fresh water dolphins) are found in their natural habitat. Flora: Its fragile Terai ecosystem comprises a mosaic of sal and teak forests, lush grasslands, numerous swamps and wetlands. About Tharu People/tribe: The word Tharu is believed to be derived from sthavir, meaning followers of Theravada Buddhism. Community belongs to the Terai lowlands, amid the Shivaliks or lower Himalayas in India and Nepal. They live mostly in Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, and Bihar in Indian terai region. They speak various dialects of Tharu, a language of the Indo-Aryan subgroup, and variants of Hindi, Urdu, and Awadhi. In central Nepal, they speak a variant of Bhojpuri, while in eastern Nepal, they speak a variant of Maithili. Tribe worship Lord Shiva as Mahadev, and call their supreme being “Narayan”. They believe “Narayan” is the provider of sunshine, rain, and harvests. Tharu women have stronger property rights than is allowed to women in mainstream North Indian Hindu custom. Source:  Hindustan Times Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat? (2020) Askot Wildlife Sanctuary Gangotri National Park Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary Manas National Park Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 and 4 only 1 and 4 only Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Recently Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB) recommended names for the posts of managing directors of Bank of Baroda and Bank of India. About Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB): It’s a government body set up under the department of financial service by central government in 2022. The Secretariat of the Bureau currently comprises of Secretary and four officers. It replaced Banks Board Bureau (BBB). It aims to identify manpower capabilities and ensure proper selection of talent for senior positions at financial institutions owned by the government. The board is entrusted to making recommendations of full-time appointment of directors and non-executive chairman of state-run financial services / Public sector organization and on other matters relating to personnel management in the institution. It comprises of Ex-Officio members from Government other the Regulatory Bodies and experts from the respective field. Function of FSIB: To advise the Government on matters relating to appointments, transfer or extension of term of office and termination of services of the said directors. To advise the Government on the desired management structure at the Board level for Public Sector Bank, Public financial institution and Public Sector Insurers. To advice government for performance appraisal system and code of conduct and ethics for the directors. To ensure suitable training and development programmes for management in PSBs, FIs and PSIs. To Help institution for developing business strategy and raising capital plan. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act. Which of the above statements are correct? (2021) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Exercise ‘Varuna’ 2023 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: The 21st Edition of the Bilateral Naval Exercise between India and France – Exercise Varuna commenced recently. About Exercise Varuna: The Indian and French Navies have been conducting bilateral maritime exercises since 1993. Since 2001, these exercises have been called ‘VARUNA’. These interactions further underscore the shared values as partner navies, in ensuring freedom of seas and commitment to an open, inclusive Indo-Pacific and a rules-based international order. The joint-exercises are held either in the Indian Ocean or Mediterranean Sea with the aim of improving Indo-French coordination on capabilities like: cross-deck operations, replenishment-at-sea, minesweeping, anti-submarine warfare and information sharing. Other Indo-French Joint Exercises: Desert Knight-21 and Garuda (Air exercise) Shakti (Army exercise) Source: NewsOnAir Neelakurinji Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) has listed Neelakurinji ( Strobilanthes kunthiana) under Schedule III of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, including it on the list of protected plants. About Neelakurinji: It is a shrub that is found in the shola forests of the Western Ghats in Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. Locally known as Kurinji, the flowers grow at an altitude of 1,300 to 2,400 metres. Nilgiri Hills, which literally means the blue mountains, got their name from the purplish blue flowers of Neelakurinji that bloom only once in 12 years. Kurinjimala Sanctuary of Kerala protects the Kurinji in approximately 32 km2 core habitat in Kottakamboor and Vattavada villages in Idukki district. Kurinji Andavar temple located in Kodaikanal of Tamil Nadu dedicated to Tamil God Murugan also preserves these plants. The Paliyan tribal people living in Tamil Nadu used it as a reference to calculate their age. Karnataka has around 45 species of Neelakurinji and each species blooms at intervals of six, nine, 11 or 12 years. Besides the Western Ghats, Neelakurinji is also seen in the Shevroy in the Eastern Ghats, Sanduru hills of Bellary district in Karnataka. Source:  The Hindu Previous Year Question Q.1) Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone? (2019) Manas National Park Namdapha National Park Neora Valley National Park Valley of Flowers National Park Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology In News: A radio signal originating from atomic hydrogen in an extremely distant galaxy was detected by the Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope (GMRT) located in Pune, as per the scientific journal Monthly Notices of the Royal Astronomical Society. This is the largest astronomical distance over which such a signal has been picked up. Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope(GMRT): GMRT is a low-frequency radio telescope that helps investigate various radio astrophysical problems ranging from nearby solar systems to the edge of the observable universe. It is located in Pune, India Using GMRT data, scientists have detected a radio signal from atomic hydrogen in a distant galaxy at redshift z=1.29. The signal detected by the team was emitted from this galaxy when the universe was only 4.9 billion years old; in other words, the look-back time for this source is 8.8 billion years. The atomic hydrogen mass of this galaxy is almost twice as high as its stellar mass. These results demonstrate the feasibility of observing atomic gas from galaxies at cosmological distances in similar lensed systems with a modest amount of observing time. Redshift: Redshift represents the signal’s wavelength change depending on the object’s location and movement; a greater value of z indicates a farther object. Atomic hydrogen: It is the basic fuel required for star formation in a galaxy. When hot ionised gas from the surrounding medium of a galaxy falls onto the universe, the gas cools and forms atomic hydrogen. This then becomes molecular hydrogen and eventually leads to the formation of stars. Understanding the evolution of galaxies over cosmic time requires tracing the evolution of neutral gas at different cosmological periods. Atomic hydrogen emits radio waves of 21 cm wavelength, meaning the wavelength is a direct tracer of the atomic gas content in nearby and distant galaxies. However, this radio signal is feeble and nearly impossible to detect the emission from a distant galaxy using current telescopes due to their limited sensitivity. Until now, the most distant galaxy detected using 21 cm emission was at redshift z=0.376, corresponding to a look-back time – the time elapsed between detecting the signal and its original emission – of 4.1 billion years. Source: DTE Previous Year Question Q1) Which of the following is/are cited by the scientists as evidence/evidences for the continued expansion of universe? (2012) Detection of microwaves in space Observation of redshift phenomenon in space Movement of asteroids in space Occurrence of supernova explosions in space code 1 and 2 only 2 only 1, 3 and 4 None of the above FireAId initiative Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment In News: The FireAId initiative had a successful pilot as per the report at the World Economic Forum Annual Meeting 2023 being held in Davos, Switzerland. FireAId Initiative: It was launched in 2022 by the World Economic Forum (WEF) It aims at using artificial intelligence to effectively manage wildfire. The multistakeholder initiative that collaborates resources from governments, civil society and the private sector was formulated by Koç Holding, Turkey’s largest industrial conglomerate, and was joined by Deloitte, an international professional services network, that brought on board its own AI technology to develop a ‘digital twin’ for fire management. The project was made operational in the South Aegean and West Mediterranean region of Turkey, since a quarter of the country’s wildfires occurred there in 2010-2021 and accounted for 75 per cent of the total burned area during the period. From July-August 2021, Turkey experienced some of its worst wildfires that charred a total of 139,503 hectares. Static and meteorological data was used to map areas where fires can start, predicted the intensity and planned the logistics required for efficient response. The predictions reduced both response time and risk to firefighters The project can now be scaled up and expanded to other locations. Sources: DTE Mission Antyodaya Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance In News: Under The Health and Healthcare Community Dinner organized by World Economic Forum at Davos, Switzerland, Union Health Minister Mansukh Mandaviya said that India has initiated multiple schemes to strengthen health systems and improve health service delivery with focus on quality, accessibility, and affordability of healthcare services. Government is committed to implement the vision of Antyodaya as part of its pursuit of ensuring Universal Health Coverage. Mission Antyodaya: Adopted in Union Budget 2017-18, Mission Antyodaya is a convergence and accountability framework aiming to bring optimum use and management of resources allocated by 27 Ministries/ Department of the Government of India under various programmes for the development of rural areas. It is envisaged as state-led initiative with Gram Panchayats as focal points of convergence efforts. Annual survey in Gram Panchayats across the country is an important aspect of Mission Antyodaya framework. It is carried out coterminous with the People’s Plan Campaign (PPC) of Ministry of Panchayat Raj and its’ purpose is to lend support to the process of participatory planning for Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP). Mission Antyodaya focus on most backward districts. The convergence of multiple schemes under a single scheme could enable the government to migrate all these to the digital Aadhar-enabled platform thereby contributing further to the Digital India mission. Ministry of Rural Development offers mobile app. Source: DTE Purana Qila Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture In News: Archaeological Survey of India, ASI is all set to begin excavation at Delhi’s Purana Qila again – third time after excavations in the year 2013-14 and 2017-18. For the exposure and preservation of the trenches that were excavated in previous years. Evidence of layers predating the Mauryan period was found. Purana Qila: Located in South Eastern part of New Delhi Purana Qilla, the 16th-century fort, was built by Sher Shah Suri and second Mughal emperor Humayun. The fort is standing on a site with thousands of years of history. Identified as ancient settlement of Indraprastha, a continuous habitation of 2500 years at Purana Qila was established in earlier excavations. Painted grey ware, belonging to 900 BC, an earthen pottery sequence from Maurya to Shunga, Kushana, Gupta, Rajput, Sultanates, and Mughal periods. Excavated Artefacts such as sickles, parers, terracotta toys, kiln-burnt bricks, beads, terracotta figurines, seals and dealings excavated. Historian Alexander Cunningham identified the fort with that of Indraprastha A fortification wall about 30 metre long was also found. Three arched gateways: the Bara Darwaza (Big Gate) facing west, which is still in use today; the south gate, also popularly known as the ‘Humayun Gate’ and lastly, the ‘Talaqi Gate’, often known as the “forbidden gate”. All the gates are double-storeyed sandstone structures flanked by two huge semi-circular bastion towers, decorated with white and coloured-marble inlays and blue tiles. They are replete with detailing, including ornate overhanging balconies, or jharokhas, and are topped by pillared pavilions (chhatris), all features that are reminiscent of Rajasthani architecture as seen in the North and South Gates, and which were amply repeated in future Mughal architecture. It also has Qila-i Kuhna Mosque and the Shermandal, both credited to Sher Shah Source newsonair Previous Year Question Q1) Consider the following pairs: (2021) (Historical Place) (Well-known for) Burzahom : Rock-cut shrines Chandra-Ketugarh      : Terracotta art Ganeshwar : Copper artefacts Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Role of Microfinance Institutions in the Financial Inclusion and Economic growth Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: With the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (Irdai) increasing the maximum number of tie-ups for corporate agents and insurance marketing firms, insurance companies are approaching microfinance institutions for partnerships to leverage their last-mile connectivity for deeper penetration into the rural market. About Microfinance and Microfinance Institutions: Microfinance is a form of financial service which provides small loans and other financial services to poor and low-income households. The definition of “small loans” varies between countries. In India, all loans that are below Rs. 1 lakh can be considered as microloans. Microcredit is delivered through a variety of institutional channels viz: Scheduled commercial banks (SCBs) (including small finance banks (SFBs) and regional rural banks (RRBs)). Cooperative banks. Non-banking financial companies (NBFCs). Microfinance institutions (MFIs) registered as NBFCs as well as in other forms. MFIs are financial companies that provide small loans to people who do not have any access to banking facilities. MFI promotes financial inclusion which enables the poor and low-income households to come out of poverty, increase their income levels and improve overall living standards. It can facilitate achievement of national policies that target poverty reduction, women empowerment, assistance to vulnerable groups, and improvement in the standards of living. Significance of Microfinance Institutions: It makes credit available easily thereby bettering the income and employment scenario. It helps in serving the under-financed sections such as women, unemployed people and those with disabilities. It helps low-income households to stabilize their income flows and save for future needs. In good times, microfinance helps families and small businesses to prosper, and at times of crisis it can help them cope and rebuild. Families benefiting from microloans are more likely to provide better and continued education for their children. Challenges of MFI: Inadequate Data: Despite the fact that total loan accounts have been rising, it is unclear how these loans will actually affect clients’ levels of poverty because the available information is dispersed. Over-indebtedness: The two main issues that are straining the microfinance sector in India are the expanding trend of consumers taking out multiple loans and ineffective risk management. The microfinance industry offers loans with no security, which raises the possibility of bad debts. Eroding social objective: The social goal of MFIs—to enhance the lives of society’s marginalised groups—seems to have been weakening over time as they pursue development and profitability. Regulatory Issues: Microfinance institutions have entirely different needs and organisational structures than other traditional lending institutions. The microfinance sector is finding it difficult to survive due to a lack of an adequate regulatory framework. Poor structuring of organization: Lack of standardised data and fraud management system creates more NPAs and affects the credibility of the institution. Lending for Non-income Generating Purposes: The percentage of loans used for non-income generating purposes may be significantly greater than the RBI’s limit of 30% of the MFI’s total loans. Way Forward: MFIs should concentrate on developing a scalable and sustainable microfinance strategy with a clear mission for both economic and social welfare. The microfinance institutions should be encouraged by RBI to use a “social impact scorecard” to track their social impact. Best usage of technological integration will be able to assist MFIs in providing services as well as repayment collection processes. Source: Financial Express ChatGPT Open in new window Syllabus Mains –GS 3 Science and technology, GS 4 Ethics Context: In 2022, OpenAI opened its most recent and powerful AI chatbot, ChatGPT, to test its capability. It amazed netizens across the world by answering questions, fixing broken code, etc. Some users have been testing the bot’s capability to do nefarious things – Illicit actors have tried to bypass the tool’s safeguards and write malicious code. ChatGPT: ChatGPT is a ‘conversational’ AI based on OpenAI’s GPT 3.5 series of language learning models (LLM). This is a kind of computer language model that relies on deep learning techniques to produce human-like text based on inputs. It has gone viral is because of the kind of responses it gives, being seen as a replacement for much of the daily mundane writing, from an email to even college-style essays. The model is trained to predict what will come next, and that’s why one can technically have a ‘conversation’ with ChatGPT. It is trained using “Reinforcement Learning from Human Feedback (RLHF).” OpenAI uses Microsoft Azure’s cloud infrastructure to run these models. Users have the option of downvoting or upvoting a response. Applications: It will answer queries just like a human would. Such as tips on how to set up a birthday party, write an essay on why parliamentary democracy is better, and even a fictional meeting between two well-known personalities. It can answer follow-up questions and can also admit its mistakes, challenge incorrect premises, and reject inappropriate requests. It is being seen as a replacement for the basic emails, party planning lists, CVs, and even college essays and homework. It can also be used to write code, solve math equations, and even spot errors in code. It can write fiction but not at the level of a human. Ethical Challenges: Biased content – Since in case of machine learning, artificial intelligence is developed based on  input of information, incorrect or biased information can create “biased” content The chatbot displayed clear racial and sexist biases Lack of objectivity – Its knowledge of the world and events after 2021 is limited and may give inaccurate results. Lack of authenticity- It could give “plausible-sounding but incorrect or nonsensical” data that raises issues of credibility such as it can sometimes overuse certain phrases Lack of relevance – Although the chatbot gives grammatically correct answers, these lack context and substance. Write Malware– ChatGPT is programmed to block obvious requests to write malicious Code for amateur coders looking to build malware. However, the more seasoned ones could trick the bot into correcting or enhancing malicious code they have partially developed. They could get through the system by phrasing their request in an innocuous way. Phishing emails – OpenAI notes that asking its bot for illegal or phishing content may violate its content policy. But for someone trespassing such policies, the bot provides a starting point. Cybersecurity firm Check Point’s researchers tested the bot by asking it to draft a phishing email for a fictional webhosting firm – ChatGPT gave an impressive ‘phishing email’ in reply. The response section included a warning that read: “This content may violate our content policy. If you believe this to be in error, please submit your feedback – your input will aid our research in this area.” Plagiarism chokepoint In education sphere, the bot could be used to turn in plagiarised essays that could be hard to detect for time-pressed invigilators since GPT models write in a statistically vanilla way. New York City’s education department banned ChatGPT in its public schools. Privacy and security concerns – Large language models (LLM) can be easily automated to launch complicated attack processes to generate other malicious artifacts. Inherently buggy code Stack Overflow, a forum for software programmers, banned its users from using any AI-generated code on the platform. Suggestions for future: Provide a universal framework of values, principles and actions to guide States in the formulation of their legislation, policies or other instruments regarding AI, consistent with international law. Protect,  promote  and  respect  human  rights  and  fundamental  freedoms,  human  dignity  and equality, including gender equality; to safeguard the interests of present and future generations; to preserve  the  environment,  biodiversity  and  ecosystems;  and  to  respect  cultural  diversity  in  all stages of the AI system life cycle Promote equitable access to developments and knowledge in the field of AI and the sharing of benefits, with particular attention to the needs and contributions of LMICs, including LDCs, LLDCs and SIDS In education sphere – where the answers coming from a human and ChatGPT are in a similar zone, a different kind of pedagogy could help such as looking beyond summarisation and reporting based on what is available on the Internet can help. Proportionality and Do No Harm  – none  of  the  processes  related  to  the  AI  system  life cycle shall exceed what is necessary to achieve legitimate aims Right to Privacy, and Data Protection – Data for AI systems be collected, used, shared, archived and deleted in ways that are consistent with international law and in line with the values and principles Human oversight and determination – it is always possible to attribute ethical and legal responsibility for any  stage  of  the  life  cycle  of  AI  systems to  physical persons or to existing legal entities. Human oversight refers thus not only to individual human oversight, but to inclusive public oversight Way forward National  and  international  governmental  and  non-governmental organizations, as well as transnational corporations and scientific organizations must collaborate to generate universal ethical values for AI. In education sphere, helping educators think through the different types of prompts to best assess students to help them stay away from using ChatGPT is important Source DTE Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) With reference to ‘Mission Antyodaya’, consider the following statements It aims at providing free ration to the most backward districts of India. It is co-terminus with People’s Plan campaign of Ministry of Rural Development Which of the following statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2 Recently in news, Redshift phenomenon is a result of which of the following Doppler Effect Raman Effect Wave theory of light Quantum theory Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary (KWS): It is located in terai region of Bihar The Gairwa river flows in the sanctuary area is declared as a sanctuary for Mugger and Gharials. Tharu tribal group lives near the sanctuary Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 18th January 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 17th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2022 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 18th January 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 17th January 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Maghi Mela Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Maghi Mela has been celebrated in the city of Sri Muktsar Sahib in Punjab for centuries in memory of 40 Sikh warriors who were killed fighting the Mughals in the Battle of Khidrana in 1705. About Maghi Mela: The Maghi fair is held to honour the memory of the forty Sikh warriors killed during the Battle of Muktsar in 1705. It is held in the holy city of Sri Muktsar Sahib every year in January, or on the month of Magh according to the Nanakshahi calendar. Guru Gobind Singh chose Maghi as one of the three festivals to be celebrated by Sikhs (the others are Baisakhi and Bandhi chor divas (Diwali). Nanakshahi calendar was designed by Sikh scholar Pal Singh Purewal to replace the Bikrami calendar, to work out the dates of gurpurab and other festivals. It is one of the most important festivals for Sikhs. History of the battle: Muktsar, originally called Khidrana, was named as Muktsar (“the pool of liberation”). These forty Sikhs, led by their leader Mahan Singh, had formally deserted Sri Guru Gobind Singh in the need of hour, and signed a written memorandum to the effect. When Mai Bhago, heard of this cowardly act, she scolded the Singh’s and inspired them refresh with spirit of bravery for which Sikhs are known. Hence, the unit returned and joined the Guru who was already engaged in action at Khidrana. All forty of them attained martyrdom. The memorandum (bedawa) was torn down by the Guru himself just before Mahan Singh died. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs: Site of Ashoka’s major rock edicts            Location in the State of Dhauli                                                           Odisha Erragudi                                                 Andhra Pradesh Jaugada                                                  Madhya Pradesh Kalsi                                                             Karnataka How many pairs given above are correctly matched? (2022) Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) Consider the following statements: 21st February is declared to be International Mother Language Day by UNICEF. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Miniature votive stupas at Nalanda Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Archeological Survey of India (ASI) has recently discovered two 1200-year-old miniature votive stupas during landscaping activities near Sarai Tila mound on the premises of ‘Nalanda Mahavihara’, a world heritage site in Nalanda district. About Miniature votive stupas: A Stupa is a hemispherical structure which symbolizes the burial mound of Buddha. It rose to prominence after the advent of Buddhism and peaked during Ashoka’s reign. Stupas evolved as Chorten in Tibet and pagodas in East Asia. Archeologists suggest that the stupas must be around 1200 years old. During the beginning of 7th century CE, small miniature terracotta stupas became popular as votive offerings. Votive is the form of the stupa, with its distinctive domelike drum, originating in eight cylindrical structures in which the Buddha’s relics were placed after his death. About Nalanda Mahavihara at Nalanda, Bihar The Nalanda Mahavihara site is in the State of Bihar, in north-eastern India. It comprises the archaeological remains of a monastic and scholastic institution dating from the 3rd century BCE to the 13th century CE. It includes stupas, shrines, viharas (residential and educational buildings) and important art works in stucco, stone and metal. Nalanda was established during the Gupta Empire era and was supported by numerous Indian and Javanese patrons – both Buddhists and non-Buddhists. The historical development of the site testifies to the development of Buddhism into a religion and the flourishing of monastic and educational traditions. Source: Times of India Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs: Historical place                       Well-known for Burzahom                      Rock-cut shrines Chandraketugarh         Terracotta art Ganeshwar                     Copper artefacts Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements is correct? Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora river. Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of the Chambal river. Pandu – lena cave shrines lie in the gorge of the Narmada river. Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of the Godavari river. Exoplanets Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) recently announced that the James Webb Space Telescope has discovered its first new exoplanet. Researchers have labelled the planet as LHS 475 b, and it’s roughly the same size as Earth. About Exoplanets: An exoplanet is any planet beyond our solar system. Most orbit other stars, but free-floating exoplanets, called rogue planets, orbit the galactic centre and are untethered to any star. They can be gas giants bigger than Jupiter or as small and rocky as Earth. They are also known to have different kinds of temperatures — boiling hot to freezing cold. Scientists rely on indirect methods for discovering exoplanets, such as the transit method, which is measuring the dimming of a star that happens to have a planet pass in front of it. About red dwarf stars: Such types of stars are the most common and smallest in the universe. As they don’t radiate much light, it’s very tough to detect them with the naked eye from Earth. However, as red dwarfs are dimmer than other stars, it is easier to find exoplanets that surround them. Therefore, red dwarfs are a popular target for planet hunting. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface. Dolphins Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: A new study has found that noise generated by human activity makes it harder for dolphins to communicate and coordinate with each other. Highlights of the study: Dolphins are social mammals that communicate through squeaks, whistles and clicks. They also use echolocation in order to locate food and other objects. As the levels of underwater noise increase, these mammals have to “shout” to each other. Echolocation occurs when an animal emits a sound wave that bounces off an object, returning an echo that provides information about the object’s distance and size. Therefore, anthropogenic noise coming from large commercial ships, military sonars or offshore drilling can severely impact their well-being. About Dolphins: River Dolphins: There are only six extant species of river dolphins left in the world today and they are all endangered or critically endangered. This is because pollution, dams, shipping and bycatch have taken their toll on this iconic species. There are currently 42 species of dolphins and seven species of porpoises. Dolphins are marine mammals. They must surface to breathe air and give birth to live young. A dolphin pregnancy last between nine and 16 months. The mother feeds her offspring on milk. The sons and daughters of resident orcas stay with their maternal family for life. Dolphins eat fish, squid and crustaceans. They do not chew they food but may break it into smaller pieces before swallowing. All dolphins have conical-shaped teeth. A Risso’s dolphin has 14 while a spinner dolphin can have 240. The orca (killer whale) is the largest dolphin. Hector’s dolphin and Franciscana are two of the smallest. The four river dolphin species inhabit the large waterways of Asia and South America. Dolphins have an array of vocalisations such as clicks, whistles and squeals which they use for their well-developed communication and echolocation skills. Lifespan varies from around 20 years in the smaller dolphin species to 80 years or more for larger dolphins such as orcas. Maui’s dolphin (a sub-species of the New Zealand dolphin) is the most endangered dolphin. Consequences of noisy oceans: Marine animals are known to use sound to navigate, find food and protect themselves. As sound travels faster in water than air, it makes for an important mode of communication because it can convey a lot of information quickly and over long distances. Scientists believe that fish species rely on sounds during reproductive activities, including mate attraction, courtship and mate choice. Sounds made by drilling, commercial ships and military operations lead to disruption of marine life. Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi? (2022) Ant Cockroach Crab Spider Shukrayaan I Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology In News: P. Sreekumar, the Satish Dhawan Professor at the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and advisor to its space science programme, said that the organisation is yet to receive approval from the Indian government for the Venus mission and that the mission could as a result be postponed to 2031. ISRO had originally hoped to launch Shukrayaan I in mid-2023 but cited the pandemic when it pushed the date to December 2024. Optimal launch windows from Earth to Venus occur once around every 19 months. But even more optimal windows, which further reduce the amount of fuel required at liftoff, come around every eight years. Both the U.S. and the European space agencies have Venus missions planned for 2031 — referring to VERITAS and EnVision Shukrayaan I or the Venus mission: It will be an orbiter mission i.e. a spacecraft designed to orbit a celestial body without landing on its surface The spaceship, GSLV Mark II will be used to launch the mission with a launch mass of 2,500 kg. Its scientific payloads currently include a high-resolution synthetic aperture radar and a ground-penetrating radar. It will be the first Venus orbiter to carry a sub-surface radar or ground-penetrating radar. It is used for imaging the subsurface of the target, in this case, a planet, using radar pulses. It means that the investigation method for the study of asphalt, metals, etc, of ISRO’s Venus orbiter will be non-intrusive. The mission is expected to study Venus’s geological and volcanic activity, emissions on the ground, wind speed, cloud cover, and other planetary characteristics from an elliptical orbit. It will help uncover the mysteries hidden beneath the sulfuric acid clouds that surround the planet and explore the surface and atmosphere of Venus in relation to the Sun and the Earth. In the year 2020, scientists announced that they have detected Phosphine (a life-friendly element indicative of possible life on the planet) in the atmosphere of Venus. ‘Shukrayaan-I’ will also bring with it some instruments that will examine infrared, ultraviolet and submillimeter wavelengths to study the claims more deeply. Source: The hindu Previous Year Question Q1) Consider the following statements: (2016) The Mangalyaan launched by ISRO is also called the Mars Orbiter Mission made India the second country to have a spacecraft orbit the Mars after USA made India the only country to be successful in making its spacecraft orbit the Mars in its very first attempt Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 RBI’s contingency fund Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy In News: THE SURPLUS available with the Reserve Bank of India for transfer or the RBI dividend to the Union government is likely to remain low in the current financial year ending March 2023 because of higher expenditure incurred by the central bank due to rising interest rates and higher costs in managing surplus liquidity in the system. Contingency Fund This is a specific provision meant for meeting unexpected and unforeseen contingencies, including depreciation in the value of securities, risks arising out of monetary/exchange rate policy operations, systemic risks and any risk arising on account of the special responsibilities enjoined upon the Reserve Bank. This amount is retained within the RBI. Currency and Gold Revaluation Account (CGRA) It is maintained by the Reserve Bank to take care of currency risk, interest rate risk and movement in gold prices. Unrealised gains or losses on valuation of foreign currency assets (FCA) and gold are not taken to the income account but instead accounted for in the CGRA. Net balance in CGRA, therefore, varies with the size of the asset base, its valuation and movement in the exchange rate and price of gold. CGRA provides a buffer against exchange rate/ gold price fluctuations. It can come under pressure if there is an appreciation of the rupee vis-à-vis major currencies or a fall in the price of gold. When CGRA is not sufficient to fully meet exchange losses, it is replenished from the CF. IRA-FS and IRA-RS accounts: The unrealised gains or losses on revaluation in foreign dated securities are recorded in the Investment Revaluation Account Foreign Securities (IRA-FS). Similarly, the unrealised gains or losses on revaluation is accounted for in Investment Revaluation Account-Rupee Securities (IRA-RS). In the Investment Revaluation Account-Foreign Securities (IRA-FS), the foreign dated securities are marked-to market on the last business day of each week ending Friday and the last business day of each month and the unrealised gains or losses are transferred to the IRAFS. Economic capital framework Bimal Jalan-led panel was constituted to review the RBI’s Economic Capital Framework (ECF). The RBI transfers surplus to the government as per the economic capital framework (ECF) adopted by the RBI board The RBI normally pays the dividend from the surplus income it earns on investments and valuation changes on its dollar holdings and the fees it gets from printing currency, among others. The RBI should maintain a Contingent Risk Buffer, which mostly comes from the CF, of between 5.5-6.5% of the central bank’s balance sheet. RBI should put in place a framework for assessing the market risk of its off-balance sheet exposures in view of their increasing significance. The surplus distribution policy should move away from targeting total economic capital alone. A review of RBI’s economic capital framework should be conducted every five years. Repo and Reverse repo: Repurchase Agreements (Repo) are conducted whenever the Central Bank is mopping up excess liquidity from the domestic market. A Repo is a collateralized loan involving a contractual arrangement between two parties, whereby one party sells a security at a specified price with a commitment to buy back the same at a later date. The repo rate is the interest paid by RBI to Commercial Banks for lending money in the repo market. Reverse Repos, on the other hand, are conducted whenever the Central Bank is injecting liquidity into the domestic market. Reverse Repo transactions therefore, involve purchase of Government securities by RBI from Commercial Banks. The reverse repo rate is the interest paid by commercial banks for borrowing money from the Central bank. Under reverse repo, the RBI borrows from banks, while under the repo window, RBI lends to banks. The reverse repo rate is 3.35 per cent and the repo rate is 6.25 per cent. Sources: Indian express Previous Year Question Q.1) If the RBI decides to adopt an expansionist monetary policy, which of the following would it not do? (2020) Cut and optimize the Statutory Liquidity Ratio Increase the Marginal Standing Facility Rate Cut the Bank Rate and Repo Rate Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Saltwater crocodile Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment In News: As per Saltie census 2023, The population of saltwater crocodiles in the water bodies of Bhitarkanika National Park and its nearby areas in Odisha’s Kendrapara district has marginally increased in 2023. Bhitarkanika is the abode of 20 whitish estuarine crocodiles In 2006, the Guinness Book of World Records recorded a 23-foot long salt-water crocodile in Bhitarkanika as the largest crocodile in the world. Saltwater crocodile: Crocodylus porosus The saltwater crocodile is the largest of all crocodilians, and the largest reptile in the world. The species has a relatively large head, with a pair of ridges that run from the eye along the centre of the snout. Adults are generally dark in colour, with lighter tan or grey areas, and dark bands and stripes on the lower flanks. The juvenile is usually pale tan, with black stripes and spots on the body and tail, which gradually fade with age, although never disappear entirely. Female saltwater crocodiles are smaller in size than their male counterparts, normally reaching a maximum length of 2.5 to 3 m. As in all crocodilians, the eyes, ears and nostrils are located on top of the head, allowing the crocodile to remain almost totally submerged when lying in water, helping to conceal it from potential prey, while a special valve at the back of the throat allows the mouth to be opened underwater without water entering the throat. The saltwater crocodile is considered to be more aquatic than most crocodilians, and is less heavily armored along the back and neck. Juveniles are restricted to small insects, amphibians, reptiles, crustaceans, and small fish. Adults feed on crabs, turtles, snakes, birds, buffalo, wild boar, and monkeys. Saltwater crocodiles hide in the water exposing only their eyes and nose. They lunge at prey, often killing it with a single snap of the jaws, then drag the prey under water where it is more easily consumed. The total length of a crocodile is 7.5 times the length of the animal’s head. Distribution: Apart from the eastern coast of India, the saltwater crocodile is extremely rare on the Indian subcontinent The saltwater crocodile is also found in Bangladesh. A large population is present within the Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary of Odisha while smaller populations occur throughout the Sundarbans. Populations are also present within the mangrove forests and other coastal areas of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands in India. Saltwater crocodiles were once present throughout most of the island of Sri Lanka. Major Threats: Illegal hunting for its meat and eggs, as well as for its commercially valuable skin. Habitat loss and habitat alterations. Negative attitude towards the species make conservation measures difficult to implement. Source: DTE Antimicrobial-resistant gonorrhoea Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology In News: A strand of antimicrobial-resistant gonorrhoea outbreak has hit Kenya, according to researchers at the Kenya Medical Research Institute (Kemri). Gonorrhoea Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted disease (STD) caused by infection with the Neisseria gonorrhoeae bacterium. N. gonorrhoeae infects the mucous membranes of the reproductive tract, including the cervix, uterus, and fallopian tubes in women, and the urethra in women and men. N. gonorrhoeae can also infect the mucous membranes of the mouth, throat, eyes, and rectum. Gonorrhoea is the second-most common disease to be sexually transmitted across the world after chlamydia, according to the World Health Organization (WHO). Transmitted through sexual contact with the penis, vagina, mouth, or anus of an infected partner. Gonorrhea can also be spread perinatally from mother to baby during childbirth. Ejaculation does not have to occur for gonorrhea to be transmitted or acquired. Symptoms – urethral infection in men include dysuria or a white, yellow, or green urethral discharge, testicular or scrotal pain, etc. In women it includes dysuria, increased vaginal discharge, or vaginal bleeding between periods. People who have had gonorrhea and received treatment may be reinfected if they have sexual contact with a person infected with gonorrhea. CDC now recommends a single 500 mg intramuscular dose of ceftriaxone for the treatment of gonorrhea. Antimicrobial-resistant gonorrhoea Overuse of antibiotics, genetic mutations of the bacteria and repeated use of poor-quality drugs makes it drug-resistant Drug-resistant super gonorrhoea was first detected in samples taken from sex workers in the capital city, Nairobi, and other urban areas like Kiambu County. The incurable infection that is asymptomatic in some cases, can cause significant health challenges, including permanent damage to their reproductive systems. Other diseases that medics have expressed concern over due to total antimicrobial resistance include various strains of SARS-CoV-2, ebola virus disease, Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever, Lassa fever and marburg virus disease. Source NewsOnAIR Carbon Trading in the Agriculture Sector Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy and Environment) Context: Recently, The Union Ministry of Power has notified the implementation of the Energy Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2022, from January 1, 2023. The amendment empowers the Union government to lay down a carbon credit certificates trading scheme in India. About Carbon Trading and Carbon Credit: Carbon trading is a market-based system that aims to offer financial incentives to persuade enterprises to lessen their environmental footprint. In contrast to voluntary offsets, which allow consumers to pay to offset their carbon impact, carbon trading is a legally binding scheme. Carbon trading seeks to place a price on CO2 using the caps and trade principle and is calculated by individual governments and policymakers. The amount of emissions that are allowed for each carbon-producing industry, such as the power sector, the automobile industry, and air travel, is capped by the government. Carbon Credit: A carbon credit is a kind of tradable permit that, per United Nations standards, equals one tonne of carbon dioxide removed, reduced, or sequestered from the atmosphere. Carbon allowances or caps, meanwhile, are determined by countries or governments according to their emission reduction targets. Significance of Carbon Credit: Carbon credits allow carbon dioxide emissions to be traded as a commodity in the market which compensates sellers for investing in emission reduction practices and thus incentivises the net reduction of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. Corporations that cannot directly reduce their GHG emissions can offset their emissions indirectly by purchasing carbon credits from other individuals and entities. As the significance of climate and sustainability increases for countries, investors (especially ESG-driven investments), employees, and customers’ demand for these credits is also expected to significantly increase. Various practices could be eligible for earning carbon credits, including renewable energy, afforestation, ecological restoration, agriculture, waste management, etc. Advantages of carbon credit in Agricultural Sector: Carbon credits could be generated in agriculture based on carbon dioxide sequestered and stored by the soil from the atmosphere as well as the reduction in carbon dioxide emissions during the cultivation process from ploughing to the management of stubble. For instance, various activities related to agriculture such as tilling of fields before sowing seeds, use of chemical fertilizers, stubble burning, etc. result in carbon dioxide emissions. Agriculture is also the biggest contributor to GHG emissions within the entire food system. Being a major source of emissions, agriculture could also serve as an important sink to store carbon and thus reduce, avoid or sequester carbon dioxide emissions. The improvement in the carbon-storing capacity of the soil could improve fertility, crop yields, farmers’ income, water conservation, etc., thereby aiding in making agriculture resilient in the long run. Use of the direct-seeding method to cultivate rice instead of transplantation of saplings in flooded fields can reduce methane emissions (generated from bacteria in flooded fields) and water consumption, and also improve soil nutrition. The promotion of similar practices could help in reducing emissions and providing carbon credits to farmers. Farmers can then sell these credits in the market and earn additional income, thus further incentivising them to implement such activities and improve soil carbon. Encouraging activities like zero-tilling agriculture, agroforestry, improved water management, crop diversification and reduced use of chemical fertilizers can improve soil health and its capacity to store carbon. It is estimated that soil carbon sequestration is a cost-effective measure to mitigate climate change and can sequester around 2.6 gigaton emissions per year. Challenges before Carbon credit in the Agriculture sector: This nascent level of agricultural carbon trading can be attributed to various reasons such as – Low level of stakeholder awareness Low level of methodology for determination of emissions reduced, avoided, or sequestered due to agriculture activities Non-permanence of carbon sequestered in the soil Verification of the quality of carbon credits Monitoring of underlying projects, Determination of the fair value of carbon credits to incentivise farmers to adopt sustainable practices etc. The average landholding size of an Indian farmer is just over one hectare. Therefore, the amount of carbon credits received may not be enough for a small farmer to adopt regenerative agriculture practices. Low Participation of Agriculture Sector: The carbon credits conceptually seem encouraging for climate change and agriculture but there is low participation of the agricultural sector in carbon trading markets. For example, as per the Berkeley Carbon Trading Project, agricultural activities accounted for only 1 per cent of all carbon credits issued for emissions reduction projects in 2021. Way Forward: Farmers need to be made aware of the existence and benefits of carbon credit programmes, so that all farmers practicing regenerative agriculture can benefit from it. Need of a streamlined policy to address these challenges which will help in expanding the currently under-utilized space for carbon credit trading from commercial agriculture. Thus the governments at the state and central level could attempt to align existing natural farming, regenerative farming, and organic farming schemes so as to nudge farmers to participate in carbon credit programmes along with the associated organizations. Source:  The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a : (2022) Database created by coalition of research organisations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Q.2) Consider the following statements: The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Global Risks due to Climate Change Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Environment Context: The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change’s (IPCC) sixth assessment report highlights the risks of increasingly severe, interconnected and often irreversible impacts of climate change on ecosystems, biodiversity, and human systems. Similarly, the recent Global Risks Report 2023 released by the World Economic Forum (WEF), titled as Cooperation in a Fragmented World these Global Risks Global Risk:                        ‘Global risk’ is defined as the possibility of the occurrence of an event or condition which, if it occurs, would negatively impact a significant proportion of global gross domestic product, population or natural resources, according to the WEF. The findings by the WEF are concerning since the impact of natural disasters or extreme weather events disproportionately affects low- and middle-income countries. Such events figure among the top five risks in 25 countries, especially developing coastal countries across Latin America, Africa and South-East Asia including India. In 10 countries, natural disasters and extreme weather events were perceived to be the top most severe risk in the short term or in the next two years Findings ‘Failure to mitigate climate change’ as well as ‘failure of climate change adaptation’ are the two most severe risks facing the world in the next decade ‘Natural disasters and extreme weather events’ is also the second-most severe risk that the world needs to be prepared for in the next two years This is followed by ‘Biodiversity loss and ecosystem collapse’. Over the next 10 years or by 2033, the interconnections between biodiversity loss, pollution, natural resource consumption, climate change and socioeconomic drivers will makes for a dangerous mix In the meantime, the current global pandemic and war in Europe has been held responsible for the energy, inflation and food crises. ‘Cost of living’ ranks as the top most serious global risk in the short term (over the next two years). Concerns for India: India recorded extreme weather events on 291 of the 334 days between January 1 and November 30, 2022 according to India’s Atlas On Weather Disasters prepared by the Centre for Science and Environment and Down To Earth (CSE/DTE). The country witnessed an extreme weather event of some sort in one or more of its regions for more than 87 per cent of the time over these 11 months. These extreme events have a link with human-caused greenhouse gas emissions and the climate crisis as the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change said in its sixth assessment report. The IPCC assessment, titled Climate Change 2021: The Physical Science Basis dedicated a chapter to weather extremes for the first time. Further, Human-caused greenhouse gas emissions have led to an increased frequency and / or intensity of some weather and climate extremes since pre-industrial times Global challenges: Atmospheric levels of carbon dioxide, methane and nitrous oxide have all reached record highs. Emission trajectories make it very unlikely that global ambitions to limit warming to 1.5°C will be achieved. Existing measures to prevent or prepare for climate change have been “ineffective” or “highly ineffective”. Biodiversity within and between ecosystems is already declining faster than at any other point during human history. But unlike other climate-related risks, ‘Biodiversity loss and ecosystem collapse’ has not been perceived to be of concern over the short term. It has been ranked as the fourth most severe risk in the long term or over the next ten years (by 2033). Growing demands on public- and private-sector resources from these socio-economic short term crises attributed to geopolitical tensions, will likely reduce the speed and scale of mitigation efforts over the next two years. These have, in some cases, also reversed progress on climate change mitigation, at least over the short term. For example, the European Union spent at least 50 billion euros on new and expanded fossil-fuel infrastructure and supplies. Some countries including Austria, Italy, the Netherlands and France restarted coal power stations Suggestions for future: The Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF) adopted at 15th Conference of Parties (COP15) to the UN Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is thus a significant breakthrough as far as global action on biodiversity is concerned. COP 27 Commitments made in Sharm El-Sheikh like the loss and damage fund breakthrough agreement to provide funding for vulnerable countries hit hard by climate disasters. Accelerating Renewable Energy Transition in SIDS: Thirty-six small island developing States and their partners have come together to share strategies and galvanize momentum in the transition to renewable and resilient energy systems. Cool Coalition: See how the world is coming together to deliver efficient, climate-friendly cooling for all, including through enhanced national climate plans. The coalition highlights promising innovations such as “cooling paper” that keeps temperatures down in buildings. The Energy Efficiency Alliance: Three Percent Club: A coalition of government, corporate and non-governmental leaders, the alliance champions accelerated energy efficiency, helping individual countries prepare roadmaps to boost efficiency. The Three Percent Club sets a target of an annual 3 per cent improvement in energy efficiency. Coalition for Climate Resilient Investment of UN: This initiative mobilizes the global private financial industry, in partnership with key private and public institutions, to integrate climate risks in investment decision-making. It now has 65 members with nearly $10 trillion in assets and has helped develop tools for modelling risk-informed cash flow and infrastructure priorities. Ocean Risk and Resilience Action Alliance: ORRAA connects governments, financial institutions, the insurance industry, environmental organizations and actors from the Global South to build resilience to ocean risk. It pioneers finance and insurance products aimed at incentivizing $500 million in investment in nature-based solutions by 2030. Way forward At COP26 negotiations in Glasgow, India led a joint statement around phasing out coal. However, the progress towards the adaptation support required for those communities and countries increasingly affected by the impacts of climate change too will be insufficient. With G20 presidency in hand, India needs to act in global interest based on the principle of co-benefits to deal with climate change as the world is inter-related. Source DTE Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) With reference to ‘Shukrayan I’, consider the following statements It is India’s first and world’s fourth Venus mission. It will be launched using GSLV Mk IIIs Which of the following statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2 With reference to ‘Saltwater crocodile’, their largest population is found in which of the following protected areas? Sundarbans Guindy National Park Bhitarkanika National Park Nagarjuna Srisailam Tiger Reserve Q.3) With reference to recent discoveries in the field of Science, the term “ LHS 475 b” refers to Natural moon of Venus Exoplanet Black hole None of the above Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 17th January 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 16th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – d Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2022 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 17th January 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 16th January 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) New Dust Control Technology Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: Recently, Central Mine Planning and Design Institute Limited (CMPDIL) invented method for Controlling Generation and Movement of Fugitive Dust. About New Dust Control Technology: It aims to minimize and control the fugitive dust in mining areas. Useful in Coal Mines, Thermal Power Plants, Railway Sidings and Ports It will help in reducing the dust generation from open sources. it will provide noise attenuation. Fugitive dust is a type of particulate matter that causes air pollution because it is produced by many sources but is released into the atmosphere without passing through a confined flow stream. About Central Mine Planning and Design Institute Limited (CMPDIL): CMPDIL is a Government of India enterprise having its corporate headquarters at Ranchi in India. It is a fully owned subsidiary of Coal India Limited (CIL) and a Schedule-B company. It is a Mini Ratna (Category I) company since June 2019 and ISO 9001 certified since March 1998. In January 1974, CMPDI started functioning as a division of the then recently constituted Coal Mines Authority Limited (CMAL), and the planning wing of erstwhile National Coal Development Corporation (NCDC) forming its nucleus. In November 1975, CMAL was merged to form Coal India Limited, and CMPDI attained the status of a public limited company under CIL with declared scope of its business under its Memorandum of Association broadly in line with its original proposal. Source:  PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) Magnetite particles, suspected to cause neurodegenerative problems are generated as environmental pollutants from which of the following? (2022) Brakes of motor vehicles Engines of motor vehicles Microwave stoves within homes Power plants Telephone lines Select the correct answer using the code given below 1, 2, 3 and 5only 1, 2 and 4 only 3, 4 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) “R2 Code of Practices” constitute a tool available for promoting the adoption of (2022) Environmentally responsible practices in the electronics recycling industry Ecological management of ‘’Wetlands of International Importance” under the Ramsar Convention Sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands ‘’Environmental Impact Assessment’’ in the exploitation of natural resources National Clean Air Campaign Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: Four years since the Centre launched the National Clean Air Campaign (NCAP), analysts found that progress has been slow and pollution only incrementally reduced in most cities. About National Clean Air Campaign: It was launched by the Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change in January 2019. It is the first-ever effort in the country to frame a national framework for air quality management with a time-bound reduction target. It seeks to cut the concentration of coarse (particulate matter of diameter 10 micrometre or less, or PM10) and fine particles (particulate matter of diameter 2.5 micrometre or less, or PM2.5) by at least 20% in the next five years, with 2017 as the base year for comparison. The plan includes 103 non-attainment cities, across 23 states and Union territories, which were identified by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) on the basis of their ambient air quality data between 2011 and 2015. Non-attainment cities: These are those that have fallen short of the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) for over five years. About National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS): National Ambient Air Quality Standards are the standards for ambient air quality set by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB). The CPCB has been conferred this power by the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. Ambient Air Quality Standards contains 12 pollutants. The pollutants that are covered under the NAAQS include: Sulphur dioxide (SO2), Nitrogen dioxide (NO2), PM10, PM2.5, Ozone, Lead, Carbon monoxide (CO), Arsenic, Nickel, Benzene, Ammonia, and Benzopyrene. About Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB): The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), statutory organisation, was constituted under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. Further, CPCB was entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. It serves as a field formation and also provides technical services to the Ministry of Environment and Forests of the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Principal Functions of the CPCB, as spelt out in the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, to promote cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of the States by prevention, control and abatement of water pollution, and to improve the quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air pollution in the country. The National Air Monitoring Programme (NAMP) has been established with objectives to determine the present air quality status and trends and to control and regulate pollution from industries and other source to meet the air quality standards. It also provides background air quality data needed for industrial siting and towns planning. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) In the Guidelines, statements: context of WHO consider the Air Quality following The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m³ and annual mean of PM 2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only Q.2) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency Q.3) Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”? (2022) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound Non-inclusion of ecological/ environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country Ignoring the consequences disastrous ecological while infrastructure development undertaking Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme Gandhi Smarak Bhawan Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – History Context: Recently the former in-charge of the Gandhi Smarak Bhawan in Punjab was arrested and remanded him in three days of police custody. About Gandhi Smarak Bhavan: Gandhi Smarak Nidhi (GSN) was established by the Indian National Congress after the martyrdom of Mahatma Gandhi in 1948. It was inaugurated by Dr. Zakir Hussain then Vice-President of India. It is being run by GANDHI SMARAK NIDHI PUNJAB, HARYANA and HIMACHAL PRADESH and since its inception is contributing its share in spreading Gandhian thought and Ideology through Seminar, Meetings, Discussions and personal contacts. The ad hoc committee constituted as per the decision taken in February 1948 included great national leaders – Dr. Rajendra Prasad, Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, Chakravarty Rajagopalachari, Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad and Shri Jagjivan Ram amongst many others. In December 1948 the GSN was constituted as a public charitable Trust having a 24 member Board of Trustees including the above national leaders along with other equally eminent national leaders. The main purposes of the fund was to further the manifold constrictive activities in which Gandhiji was interested, and to preserve and propagate his teachings. When in 1966 the Punjab State divided into three states then Trust renamed as Gandhi Smarak Nidhi Punjab, Haryana and Himachal Pradesh. The Nidhi’s headquarter is situated in Swadhyay Ashram, Village Pattikalyana, Tehsil Samalkha, District Panipat, Haryana (India). Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Who among the following is associated with ‘Songs from Prison’, a translation of ancient Indian religious lyrics in English? (2021) Bal Gangadhar Tilak Jawaharlal Nehru Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi Sarojini Naidu Q.2) With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements: Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of ‘indentured labour’ In Lord Chelmsford’s ‘War Conference’, Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2019) 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Competition Commission of India Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Google has said that the order passed by India’s competition regulator — the Competition Commission of India (CCI) — against Android’s operating system policies will result in devices getting expensive in India and lead to proliferation of unchecked apps that will pose threats for individual and national security. About Competition Commission of India: The Competition Commission of India has been established to enforce the competition law under the Competition Act, 2002. It comes under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. It should be noted that on the recommendations of Raghavan committee, the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969 (MRTP Act) was repealed and replaced by the Competition Act, 2002. The Commission consists of a Chairperson and not more than 6 Members appointed by the Central Government. It is the statutory duty of the Commission to eliminate practices having an adverse effect on competition, promote and sustain competition, protect the interests of consumers and ensure freedom of trade carried on by other participants, in markets in India as provided in the Preamble as well as Section 18 of the Act. The Commission is also mandated to give its opinion on competition issues to government or statutory authority and to undertake competition advocacy for creating awareness of competition law. Advocacy is at the core of effective competition regulation. Competition Commission of India (CCI), which has been entrusted with implementation of law, has always believed in complementing robust enforcement with facilitative advocacy. It is a quasi-judicial body. CCI also approves combination under the act so that two merging entities do not overtake the market. The Competition Act The Competition Act, 2002, as amended by the Competition (Amendment) Act, 2007, follows the philosophy of modern competition laws. The Act prohibits anti-competitive agreements, abuse of dominant position by enterprises and regulates combinations (acquisition, acquiring of control and M&A), which causes or likely to cause an appreciable adverse effect on competition within India. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct? The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Trend in Investments Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy In News: A sharp 61.2% sequential rise in capital spending by the Central and State governments lifted fresh investment plans announced in the third quarter (Q3) of 2022-23 to ₹7.1 lakh crore, even though private sector investments dropped 41% from ₹6.31 lakh crore in Q2 to ₹3.71 lakh crore between October and December 2022. Rising input costs, hardening interest rates and the slowdown expected in developed economies are the headwinds making mid-size Indian companies go slow on their investment plans However, all other major sectors posted positive growth in terms of fresh investments during the first nine months of 2022-23. Capital Expenditure: Capital expenditure is the money spent by the government on the development of long term assets such as machinery, equipment, building, health facilities, education, etc. It also includes the expenditure incurred on acquiring fixed assets like land and investment by the government that gives profits or dividend in future. Capital spending is associated with investment or development spending, where expenditure has benefits extending years into the future. It includes –  Acquiring fixed and intangible assets, Upgrading an existing asset, Repairing an existing asset, Repayment of loan Significance of capital expenditure: It allows the economy to generate revenue for many years by adding or improving production facilities and boosting operational efficiency. It also increases labour participation, takes stock of the economy and raises its capacity to produce more in future.  Repayment of loan is also capital expenditure, as it reduces liability. Revenue expenditure: Unlike capital expenditure, which creates assets for the future, revenue expenditure is one that neither creates assets nor reduces any liability of the government. Salaries of employees, interest payment on past debt, subsidies, pension, etc, fall under the category of revenue expenditure. It is recurring in nature. Source: The hindu Previous Year Question Q1) If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will (2014) decrease the consumption expenditure in the economy increase the tax collection of the Government increase the investment expenditure in the economy increase the total savings in the economy Alternate Investment Fund and Credit Default Swap Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy In News: The Securities and exchange board of India has allowed alternative investment funds) to participate in credit default swaps (CDS) as protection for both buyers and sellers. Category I and Category II AIFs may buy CDS on underlying investment in debt securities, only for the purpose of hedging. Category III AIFs may buy CDS for hedging or otherwise, within permissible leverage Credit default swap market is very illiquid at present. Alternate Investment Fund(AIFs): In India, AIFs are defined in Regulation 2(1) (b) of Securities and Exchange Board of India (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012. Meaning – It refers to any privately pooled investment fund, (whether from Indian or foreign sources), in the form of a trust or a company or a body corporate or a Limited Liability Partnership (LLP). They include angel funds, commodities, real estate, venture capital, private equity, etc. Categories of AIFs Category I: Mainly invests in start- ups, SME’s or any other sector which Govt. considers economically and socially viable Category II: private equity funds or debt funds for which no specific incentives or concessions are given by the government or any other Regulator Category III : hedge funds or funds which trade with a view to make short term returns or such other funds which are open ended and for which no specific incentives or concessions are given by the government Benefits of AIF: Security against volatility – These schemes do not put their funds in investment options that trade publicly. Hence, they are not related to the broader markets and do not fluctuate with their ups and downs. Excellent portfolio diversification to a wide array of assets Profitable returns – as these funds have numerous investment options, They are a better source of passive income. Further, returns are less prone to fluctuations as these schemes are not linked to the stock market. Credit Default Swap (CDS) They are a type of insurance, introduced by JP Morgan It is used for hedging counter-party concentration risk and credit risks It is a contract between two parties, called protection buyer and protection seller against default risk by a particular company. The company is called the reference entity and the default is called credit event. Under the contract, the protection buyer is compensated for any loss emanating from a credit event in a reference instrument. In return, the protection buyer makes periodic payments to the protection seller. In the credit event, the buyer receives the face value of the bond or loan from the protection seller. From the seller’s perspective, CDS provides a source of easy money if there is no credit event. If the credit event does not occur before the maturity of the loan, the protection seller does not make any payment to the buyer. The settlement of the CDS takes place either through cash settlement or physical settlement. There are different varieties of CDS, like binary CDS, basket CDS, contingent CDS and dynamic CDS. There are different types of credit events such as bankruptcy, failure to pay, and restructuring. Asset-backed securities (ABS) is the most common type of CDS. CDS can be structured either for the event of shortfall in principal or shortfall in interest. There are three options for calculating the size of payment by the seller to the buyer. Fixed cap: The maximum amount paid by the protection seller is the fixed rate. Variable cap: The protection seller compensates the buyer for any interest shortfall and the limit set is Libor plus fixed pay. No cap: In this case, the protection seller has to compensate for shortfall in interest without any limit. Calculation: The modelling of the CDS price is based on modelling the probability of default and recovery rate in the event of a credit event. The value of CDS for the protection buyer = Expected present value of the contingent leg – Expected present value of fixed leg In the real world, modelling of the CDS price is difficult because of the problem in computing default probabilities and default correlation. Uses: Although used for hedging credit risks, credit default swap (CDS) has been held culpable for vitiating financial stability of an economy. This is particularly attributable to the capital inadequacy of the protection sellers. When big protection sellers are inadequately capitalised, the over-the-counter (OTC) CDS market raises its ugly head. Sources: Financialexpress Previous Year Question Q.1) What does venture capital mean? (2014) A short-term capital provided to industries A long-term start-up capital provided to new entrepreneurs Funds provided to industries at times of incurring losses Funds provided for replacement and renovation of industries Doppler Weather Radar Network Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology In News: Union Minister of State Science & Technology; Minister of State Earth Sciences; MoS PMO, Personnel, Public Grievances, Pensions, Atomic Energy and Space said, Entire Country will be covered by Doppler Weather Radar Network by 2025 According to the Annual Statement on Climate of India 2022 issued by the India Meteorological Department (IMD), 2,227 extreme weather-related deaths in India. Doppler Weather Radar Network: Aim – to predict extreme weather events more accurately. Doppler radar is a specialized tracking system that uses the Doppler effect to track weather conditions and calculate information about the location and velocity of a storm or other forms of extreme weather events. Forecasting with the help of doppler radar is more timely and accurate which can be critical during safe evacuations in the likelihood of extreme weather events. IMD has augmented Doppler Weather Radar network in HP, Uttarakhand, Ladakh and J&K which will help further to predict extreme weather events more accurately. Accuracy has increased by about 20-40% for different severe weather events forecast during last five years by making best use of Space based observation of INSAT-3D and 3DR, OceanSat satellites for prediction Benefits: Warning and advisory services are helping farmers and fishermen to improve their economy as found from a latest survey by National Centre for Applied Economic Research. For example, the investment in monsoon mission programme has resulted in return of 50 rupees for investment of each one rupee. Farmers below the poverty line specially have benefited immensely as Agromet Advisories at District and Block Levels are used effectively by crores of farmers during various stages of farming and the service is being expanded. Climate Services are very important for short and long term planning and strategy development Soon a National Framework will be created on priority to provide climate products and information for Sectoral applications. Other initiatives: Flash Flood Guidance in 2021 has been augmented further by increasing the number of watersheds from 30,000 to 1,00,000 of the country in 2022. It is being provided every 6 hours to Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh and Sri Lanka apart from our national use. The web GIS services launched by IMD in 2021 have been augmented further with addition of hazard and vulnerability element in collaboration with other state and central agencies is helping the public, disaster managers and stakeholders to initiate timely response action to mitigate the disasters further Doppler effect Doppler Effect refers to the change in Wave Frequency during the relative motion between a wave source and its observer. It was discovered by Christian Johann Doppler who described it as the process of increase or decrease of starlight that depends on the relative movement of the star. Doppler Effect works on both light and sound objects. For instance, when a sound object moves towards you, the frequency of the sound waves increases, leading to a higher pitch. Conversely, if it moves away from you, the frequency of the sound waves decreases and the pitch comes down. The drop in pitch of ambulance sirens as they pass by and the shift in red light are common examples of the Doppler Effect. Edwin Hubble made the discovery that the universe expands as a consequence of the Doppler Effect. It has important applications in the fields of astronomy and space technology. The use of Doppler Effect in astronomy in relation to light waves depends on the fact that the spectra of stars are not constant. Different stars exhibit different absorption lines at defined frequencies, but Doppler Effect is identifiable only when these absorption lines are away from these defined frequencies. There are various applications of Doppler Effect. It is used in: Sirens Astronomy Radar Medical imaging and blood flow managemen Flow management Velocity profile management Satellite communication Audio Vibration measurement Source: PIB Previous Year Question Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2018) Light is affected by gravity. The Universe is constantly expanding. Matter warps its surrounding space-time. Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in media? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 World Economic Forum Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – International Relations In News: The Annual Meeting of World Economic Forum (WEF) will begin at Davos in Switzerland. The theme for this year’s WEF meeting is, ‘Cooperation in a Fragmented World’. World Economic Forum (WEF) It is a Swiss nonprofit foundation established in 1971, based in Geneva, Switzerland. It is recognised by the Swiss authorities as an international institution for public-private cooperation. The Founder and Executive Chairman of WEF is Klaus Schwab Mission WEF is committed to improving the situation of the world by engaging business, political, academic, and other leaders of society to shape global, regional, and industry agendas. Major reports by WEF Energy Transition Index Global Competitiveness Report Global IT Report (WEF along with INSEAD, and Cornell University publishes this report), Global Gender Gap Report Global Risk Report Global Travel and Tourism Report Source: NewsOnAIR Previous Year Question Q.1) The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the (2019) International Monetary Fund United Nations Conference on Trade and Development World Economic Forum World Bank Regulation of Hate speech Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently, the Supreme Court reprimanded the government for its failure to stop hate speech and hate crimes in the country. About Hate Speech: Hate speech is defined as any speech, gesture, conduct, writing, or display that may incite violence or prejudicial action against or by any individual or group, or because it disparages or intimidates a particular individual or group. Significance of  Curbing Hate Speech: It is used to provoke individuals or society to commit acts of terrorism, genocides, ethnic cleansing etc. It undermines social equality as it reaffirms historical marginalization, oppression & discrimination. It is enacted to cause psychological and physical harm to its victims as it incites violence. It is a tool to create panic through rumour mongering against targeted people. For example, the Northeast exodus. Laws and regulations on hate speech in India: In India, hate speech is regulated by several laws and acts, including the Indian Penal Code (IPC), the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), and the Indian Information Technology (IT) Act. Indian Penal Code (IPC): It contains provisions that prohibit hate speech, such as : Section 153A: It deals with actions promoting enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc., and doing acts prejudicial to maintenance of harmony. Section 295A: It deals with deliberate and malicious acts, intended to outrage religious feelings of any class by insulting its religion or religious beliefs. Section 505: It pertains to statements creating or promoting enmity, hatred or ill-will between classes) Indian Information Technology (IT) Act: It regulates online speech, including hate speech. Under the act, intermediaries such as social media platforms are required to remove content that is in violation of the law within 36 hours of being notified. Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC): It provides for the arrest of individuals who have committed a cognizable offense, such as hate speech. Representation of People’s Act(1951): Section 8: It prevents a person convicted of the illegal use of the freedom of speech from contesting an election. Sections 123(3A) and 125 of the RPA: It bars the promotion of animosity on the grounds of race, religion, community, caste, or language in reference to elections and includes it under corrupt electoral practices. Court Judgements: In the past, The Supreme court of India has issued several judgments on hate speech. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015): The court struck down Section 66A of the IT Act, which had criminalized online speech, stating that it violated the right to freedom of speech and expression. Sukumar v. State of Tamil Nadu (2019): The court held that hate speech on social media platforms is not protected by the right to freedom of speech and expression. Freedom of speech: The right to freedom of speech is protected under Article 19 of the Constitution but it is not absolute and can be limited in certain circumstances, such as when it incites violence or discrimination. Online Hate speech: The internet has made it easier for hate speech to spread, and many social media platforms have policies in place to address hate speech on their platforms. However, the effectiveness of these policies can be limited, and more needs to be done to combat online hate speech. Prevention: It begins with education, raising awareness about the harmful effects of hate speech and promoting tolerance and inclusivity. In this regard, the government, civil society organizations and communities at large can play a role in preventing hate speech. Challenges before curbing Hate speech: Defining hate speech: There is no universally accepted definition of hate speech, and different countries and cultures have different norms and expectations in this area. This makes it difficult to establish clear guidelines for what constitutes hate speech and what does not. Addressing hate speech by public figures and politicians: Expression of hate is not limited to anonymous internet users, public figures and politicians also contribute to spreading hate speech. However, due to their public platform, it may be challenging to hold them accountable for their statements. Identifying and removing hate speech online: The vast majority of hate speech takes place online, and it can be difficult to identify and remove this content. Platforms like Facebook and Twitter have struggled to effectively moderate hate speech, and there is no consensus on how to approach this problem. Balancing free speech and hate speech: Hate speech laws are often viewed as a restriction on free speech. This can lead to legal challenges and pushback from civil liberties groups. Addressing hate speech in non-English languages: Hate speech is not limited to English-speaking countries, and it can be difficult to identify and remove hate speech in other languages. Additionally, cultural and linguistic nuances may not be well understood by those trying to moderate content. Lack of resources and legal framework: Many countries lack the resources and legal framework to effectively address hate speech. This can make it difficult to enforce laws and regulations, and it can also create a sense of impunity for those who engage in hate speech. Way Forward: India has a diverse population with different languages, religions, and cultures, thus there is a need to curb  incidents of hate speech and crimes that can have a detrimental impact on individuals and communities. It is a complex and multifaceted issue that poses significant challenges for regulators and policymakers which will require a multifaceted approach that includes education, technology, and legal enforcement. Thus, it becomes important for governments, civil society organizations, and individuals to work together to combat hate speech and promote a more inclusive and tolerant society. Source: The Hindu Deepfakes Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Science and Technology Context: In William Golding’s famous novel, Lord of the Flies, Jack emphasises the importance of following rules and establishing a system of governance among the boys. Self-regulation or no regulation can be disastrous at times. This lesson is particularly relevant in the context of Artificial Intelligence (AI) regulations and deepfakes in India. Deep synthesis: It is defined as the use of technologies, including deep learning and augmented reality, to generate text, images, audio and video to create virtual scenes. One of the most notorious applications of the technology is deepfakes, where synthetic media is used to swap the face or voice of one person for another. Deepfakes It leverages powerful techniques from machine learning (ML) and artificial intelligence (AI) to manipulate or generate visual and audio content with a high potential to deceive. Methodology: A neural network needs to be trained with lots of video footage of the person – including a wide range of facial expressions, under all kinds of different lighting, and from every conceivable angle – so that the artificial intelligence gets an in-depth ‘understanding’ of the essence of the person in question. The trained network will then be combined with techniques like advanced computer graphics in order to superimpose a fabricated version of this person onto the one in the video. The very latest technology, however, such as Samsung AI technology that has been created in a Russian AI lab, makes it possible to create deepfake videos using only a handful of images, or even just one. Application examples: Deepfake technology will enable us to experience things that have never existed, or to envision a myriad of future possibilities. Researchers at Samsung’s AI lab in Moscow, for instance, recently managed to transform Da Vinci’s Mona Lisa into video. Editing video footage without the need for doing reshoots, or recreating artists that are no longer with us to perform their magic, live. Produce speech from text and edit it just like you would images in Photoshop For example, Adobe’s VoCo software Deep generative models offer new possibilities in healthcare help researchers develop new ways of treating diseases without being dependent on actual patient data Issues: Lack of proper regulations creates avenues for individuals, firms and even non-state actors to misuse AI. Legal ambiguity, coupled with a lack of accountability and oversight, is a potent mix for a disaster. Policy vacuums on deepfakes are a perfect archetype of this situation. Since they are compelling, deepfake videos can be used to spread misinformation and propaganda. They seriously compromise the public’s ability to distinguish between fact and fiction. There has been a history of using deepfakes to depict someone in a compromising and embarrassing situation. For instance, there is no dearth of deepfake pornographic material of celebrities. Such photos and videos do not only amount to an invasion of privacy of the people reportedly in those videos, but also to harassment. Deepfakes have been used for financial fraud. Recently, scammers used AI-powered software to trick the CEO of a U.K. energy company over the phone into believing he was speaking with the head of the German parent company. As a result, the CEO transferred a large sum of money — €2,20,000 — to what he thought was a supplier. The audio of the deepfake effectively mimicked the voice of the CEO’s boss, including his German accent. Creating tensions in the neighbourhood: There are three areas where deepfakes end up being a lethal tool in the hands of India’s non-friendly neighbours and non-state actors to create tensions in the country. Influence elections Recently, Taiwan’s cabinet approved amendments to election laws to punish the sharing of deepfake videos or images due to becoming increasingly concerned that China is spreading false information to influence public opinion and manipulate election outcomes Espionage activities Doctored videos can be used to blackmail government and defence officials into divulging state secrets. In 2019, the Associated Press identified a LinkedIn profile under the name Katie Jones as a likely front for AI-enabled espionage. In March 2022, Ukrainian President Volodymyr Zelensky revealed that a video posted on social media in which he appeared to be instructing Ukrainian soldiers to surrender to Russian forces was actually a deepfake. These deepfakes could be used to radicalise populations, recruit terrorists, or incite violence. Deny the authenticity of genuine content, particularly if it shows them engaging in inappropriate or criminal behaviour, by claiming that it is a deepfake. This could lead to the ‘Liar’s Dividend,’ – This refers to the idea that individuals can exploit the increasing awareness and prevalence of deepfake technology to their advantage by denying the authenticity of certain content. Legislation and challenges: Currently, very few provisions under the Indian Penal Code (IPC) and the Information Technology Act, 2000 can be potentially invoked to deal with the malicious use of deepfakes. Section 500 of the IPC provides punishment for defamation. Sections 67 and 67A of the Information Technology Act punish sexually explicit material in explicit form. The Representation of the People Act, 1951, includes provisions prohibiting the creation or distribution of false or misleading information about candidates or political parties during an election period. The Election Commission of India has set rules that require registered political parties and candidates to get pre-approval for all political advertisements on electronic media, including TV and social media sites, to help ensure their accuracy and fairness. However, these rules do not address the potential dangers posed by deepfake content. There is often a lag between new technologies and the enactment of laws to address the issues and challenges they create. In India, the legal framework related to AI is insufficient to adequately address the various issues that have arisen due to AI algorithms. Suggestions: The Union government should introduce separate legislation regulating the nefarious use of deepfakes and the broader subject of AI. Legislation should not hamper innovation in AI, but it should recognise that deepfake technology may be used in the commission of criminal acts and should provide provisions to address the use of deepfakes in these cases. Antivirus for deepfakes – Sensity, an Amsterdam-based company that develops deep learning technologies for monitoring and detecting deepfakes, has developed a visual threat intelligence platform that uses the same deep learning processes used to create deepfakes, combining deepfake detection with advanced video forensics and monitoring capabilities. Social media deepfake policies – For instance, Instagram’s and Facebook’s policy is to remove ‘manipulated media’ – with the exception of parodies. Best  practices from the world: The European Union’s Code of Practice 2018 It brought together for the first time worldwide industry players to commit to counter disinformation. Signed by online platforms Facebook, Google, Twitter and Mozilla, as well as by advertisers and other players in the advertising industry including Microsoft and TikTok. If found non-compliant, these companies can face fines as much as 6% of their annual global turnover. U.S’s bipartisan Deepfake Task Force Act 2021 To assist the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) to counter deepfake technology. The measure directs the DHS to conduct an annual study of deepfakes — assess the technology used, track its uses by foreign and domestic entities, and come up with available countermeasures to tackle the same. China’s new policy to curb deepfakes The policy requires deep synthesis service providers and users to ensure that any doctored content using the technology is explicitly labelled and can be traced back to its source. Further, it requires to take the consent of the person in question Way forward: We can’t always rely on the policy of self-regulation hence regulations are much needed in the field of AI such as the proposed Digital India Bill In order to minimise deception and curb the undermining of trust, technical experts, journalists, and policymakers will play a critical role in speaking out and educating the public about the capabilities and dangers of synthetic media. With increased public awareness, we could learn to limit the negative impact of deepfakes, find ways to co-exist with them, and even benefit from them in the future. Source The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) With reference to ‘Alternate Investment Fund’, consider the following statements It is directly affected by volatility in securities market. It is regulated by The Reserve Bank of India. Which of the following statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Energy Transition Index is published by the International Energy Agency United Nations Conference on Trade and Development International Atomic Energy Agency World Economic Forum Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Central Mine Planning and Design Institute Limited (CMPDIL): It is a fully owned subsidiary of Coal India Limited (CIL). It is a Government of India enterprise having its corporate headquarters at Ranchi in India Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 16th January 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 14th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – d table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2022 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 16th January 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

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[SCHOLARSHIP TEST] SUPER 100 – Scholarship Test for Prelims Exclusive Program (PEP) 2023

Hello Everyone, Wish you all a very Happy New Year 2023. Thank you for an amazing response on our Prelims Exclusive Program (PEP) 2023 - Prelims Mentorship Program. PEP 2023 is meant for aspirants preparing for UPSC 2023. To know more details about the Program -> CLICK HERE The Scholarship Test for ‘Super  100’- PEP 2023 is going to be conducted on 18th January 2023, in the Online Mode and Offline Mode (Bangalore and Delhi). The Last day to register for Super 100 is 17th January 2023 (by 6 PM) TO REGISTER FOR ‘SUPER 100’ ->CLICK HERE 1. So what is Super 100? Super 100 is a Scholarship Test conducted for PEP 2023. Based on the performance in the Test, 1-20 Ranks Free of cost 21-60 Ranks 50% discount 61-100 Ranks 25% discount Please Note, the Scholarship Test will be held in ONLINE MODE and OFFLINE MODE (in Bangalore & Delhi). After you are selected for the scholarship test, you can avail of the PEP programme either in Offline Mode or Online Mode. 2. What is the Syllabus for Super 100?  All the students will be eligible for the test. No pre-conditions. FREE Registration !! (Please find the registration link below) The Scholarship Test will have two parts - Objective Static & Current Affairs Test – 50 MCQs Objective CSAT Test – 50 MCQs 3. What are the Total Marks and Duration of the Test? The total marks on the test will be 200. Duration of the Test: 100 Minutes Time Slot: 11 AM - 12:40 PM TO REGISTER FOR ‘SUPER 100’ ->CLICK HERE 4. Important Dates with regard to Super 100? The Test (Objective Type) will be held on 18th January 2023. The last Date to Register is 17th January 2023 (by 6 PM). 5. How to Register for SUPER 100? TO REGISTER FOR ‘SUPER 100’ ->CLICK HERE The last date to register for SUPER 100 is 17th January 2023 (by 6 PM). IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO FOLLOW FOR TAKING THE TEST ONLINE: The login credentials will be sent to the registered email address by 9 PM on 17th January. All other instructions about the test will be in the same email. IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO FOLLOW FOR TAKING THE TEST OFFLINE: Arrive at the centre 10 minutes before the Scholarship Test starts. It is mandatory to wear Masks and use Sanitizer in the Test Centre. Without Masks, you will not be allowed to take the test. Social distancing will be strictly followed. To Know More about PEP, Special Discounts & Payment Details  -> CLICK HERE FOR ANY QUERIES (Related to PEP 2023) You can reach us on Email id: support@iasbaba.com Mobile No:  91691 91888 (Please call between 10 am – 6 pm ONLY) Office Address: BANGALORE CENTRE: IASbaba Gurukul Centre: 4th Floor, Opposite Chandra Layout Bus Depot, Nagarbhavi 1st Stage, Chandra Layout, Attiguppe, Bengaluru-560040. Landmark: Opposite to Chandra Layout Bus Depot / Above SBI Bank Delhi Centre: Plot 22-B, 3rd floor, Pusa Road, Bada Bazar Rd, New Rajinder Nagar, New Delhi – 110060. Landmark: Above Dominos   Thank You IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 14th January 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Viscose Staple Fibre Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The Association of Man-made Fibre Industry of India (AMFII) has appealed to the Union Finance Ministry to accept the recommendations of the Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR) on levy of anti-dumping duty (ADD) on imports of Viscose Staple Fibre from Indonesia. About The Association of Man-made Fibre Industry of India (AMFII) The AMFII was set up in 1951 as “The Rayon Manufacturers’ Association”. In 1959, its name was changed to “Association of Man-Made Fibre Industry of India” to include all the modern Man-Made Fibres of 20th Century origin thereby expanding its scope and membership. Thus, the Membership of the AMFII varied from time to time and included both Synthetic and Cellulosic Man-Made Fibres and Filament Yarn Manufacturers. On 29th April 1987, the AMFII was registered as a Private Limited Company under section 25 A of the Companies Act 1956. It was also registered under section 12 of the Income Tax Act as an organization for charitable purpose for “advancement of an object of general public utility”. The main object of the Association is to help the man-made fibre industry in India to formulate general policy on production and development of the industry. The Association also acts as a liaison body on behalf of the industry and communicates with the Chambers of Commerce and other public bodies within and outside India, with a view to promote and protect the man-made fibre industry and trade. The Association has its Registered Office in Mumbai. It has a Branch Office in New Delhi. About Viscose Staple Fibre: Viscose Staple Fiber (VSF), is a natural and biodegradable fiber which has characteristics that are similar to cotton. Due to its versatility, VSF is widely used for manufacturing Apparels Home textiles Dress materials Knitted wear and Non-woven applications. About Anti-Dumping Duty: Anti-dumping is a protectionist tariff, imposed by a domestic government on foreign imports that are at a price lower than the price it normally charges in its own home market. Anti-dumping duty is imposed as a remedy to the distortive trade which arises due to the dumping of goods. The use of anti-dumping measures as an instrument of fair competition is permitted by the World Trade Organisation. Where dumping occurs, the WTO allows the government of the affected country to take legal action against the dumping country as long as there is evidence of genuine material injury to industries in the domestic market. The Government must show that dumping took place, the extent of the dumping in terms of costs, and the injury or threat to cause injury to the domestic market. Source:  The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India? (2022) An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India Q3.) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Rajmata Jijau Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – History and Art and Culture Context: Recently, the Prime Minister of India has paid tributes to Rajmata Jijau on her Jayanti. About Jijabai Bhonsle (12 January 1598 – 17 June 1674): Jijabai was born to Mahalasabai Jadhav and Lakhuji Jadhav of Deulgaon, near Sindkhed, in present-day Maharashtra. Jijabai was married at an early age to Shahaji Bhosle. She was the mother of Shivaji, founder of the Maratha Empire. She died at Pachad village near Raigad Fort. Role and Contributions of Jijabai Bhonsle: She managed her husband’s Jagir in Pune and developed it. Mentored a great person like Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj. She taught Shivaji about swarajya and raised him to be a warrior. She also renovated Kevareshwar Temple and Tambadi Jogeshwari Temple. Source: PIB Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs: King                         Dynasty Nannuka              Chandela Jayashakti            Paramara Nagabhata II       Gurjara-Pratihara Bhoja                    Rashtrakuta How many pairs given above are correctly matched? (2022) Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) Consider the following statements: It was during the reign of Iltutmish that Chengiz Khan reached the Indus in pursuit of the fugitive Khwarezm prince. It was during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughluq that Taimoor occupied Multan and crossed the Indus. It was during the reign of Deva Raya II of Vijayanagara Empire that Vasco da Gama reached the coast of Kerala. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Lantana Camara Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Weeding out the invasive tropical American shrub, Lantana camara, appears to alter the composition of bird species in a forest, according to a new study conducted in Central India. About Lantana Camera: Lantana camara (common lantana) is a species of flowering plant within the verbena family (Verbenaceae), native to the American tropics. Lantanas arrived in India as a decorative shrub during British colonial period but quickly took over several ecosystems as an invasive plant. The shrub can spread on the forest ground, climb over trees a creeper and entangle with other native plants with ease. It is a very adaptable species, which can inhabit a wide variety of ecosystems. Once it has been introduced into a habitat it spreads rapidly between 45ºN and 45ºS and more than 1,400 metres (4,600 feet) in altitude. MUST READ: Invasive Species Source:  DownToEarth Previous Year Questions Q.1) Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide ? (2022) Cotton Rice Sugarcane Wheat Q.2) If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, what is the implication? (2020) A licence is required to cultivate that plant Such a plant cannot be cultivated under any circumstances It is a Genetically Modified crop plant Such a plant is invasive and harmful to the ecosystem Human Rights Watch report Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently, The World Report 2023 of Human Rights Watch (HRW) said that Indian authorities had intensified and broadened their crackdown on activist groups and the media through 2022. Highlights of the report: According to the Hindu nationalist Bharatiya Janata Party-led government used abusive and discriminatory policies to repress Muslims and other minorities. The HRW said authorities across India arrested activists, journalists, and other critics of the government on what it called “politically motivated” criminal charges, including that of terrorism. It added that they also misused laws forbidding forced religious conversions to target Christians, especially from Dalit and Adivasi communities. On Jammu and Kashmir, the HRW said that even after three years of dilution of Article 370, the government continued to restrict free expression, peaceful assembly, and other basic rights there. It added that rights groups were harassed by Indian authorities throughout the country through tax raids, the use of the Foreign Contributions Regulation Act, and other allegations of financial irregularities. About Human Rights Watch: Human Rights Watch (HRW) is an international non-governmental organization headquartered in New York City. It conducts research and advocacy on human rights. The group pressures governments, policymakers, companies, and individual human rights abusers to denounce abuse and respect human rights. It often works on behalf of refugees, children, migrants, and political prisoners. In 1997, Human Rights Watch shared the Nobel Peace Prize as a founding member of the International Campaign to Ban Landmines. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Ebola Disease Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Uganda recently declared the end of the Ebola disease outbreak caused by Sudan ebolavirus. About Ebola Disease: Ebola spreads through EBOV (Ebola virus) which is a virus belonging to the Filoviridae family of viruses. It is mainly found in animals. Ebola is a virus that causes severe inflammation and tissue damage throughout the body. It is known as a haemorrhagic fever virus, because it can cause problems with the clotting system of the body and lead to internal bleeding, as blood leaks from small blood vessels. Six different species of the virus have been found, but only four are known to cause disease in humans. Ebola is spread through direct contact with body fluids ― blood, saliva, sweat, tears, mucus, vomit, faeces, breast milk, urine and semen of people infected with it. It is also spread by touching things that have been contaminated with these fluids. The virus is named after the Ebola river (Republic of Congo ) — as a village situated on its bank witnessed the first instance of the viral outbreak in 1976. Treatment: A vaccine for Ebola was approved by the Food and Drug Administration in 2019. It is a one-dose shot that protects against the variant of the Ebola virus that has caused the most serious outbreak so far. This vaccine is not likely to be effective against the Ebola Sudan strain that caused a 2022 outbreak in Uganda. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q,1) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics : Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Q.2) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Makar Sankrant and Lohri Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Culture About: Lohri is celebrated on the last day of Paush month (12-13 January) In Punjab. Generally, after Lohri farmers start cutting their winter crops. About Makar Sankrant Makar Sankranti is a festival day in the Hindu calendar, in reference to the deity Surya (sun). Makar Sankranti is observed according to solar cycles. It is held normally on the 14th of January, or a day before or after. In certain regions celebrations can go on for even four days and vary a lot in the rituals. It marks the – first day of sun’s transit into the Makara (Capricorn), marking the end of the month with the winter solstice and the start of longer days. It is also celebrated as a harvest Festival. Different names of the same festival Makar Sankranti – Odisha, Maharashtra-Goa, Andhra-Telengana, Kerala and most of north India Paush Parbon –  Bengal Pongal – Tamil Nadu Pongal is celebrated with the distribution of new crop “Shankarai Pongal” which is basically rice cooked in milk and jiggery distributed as a Prasadam. Bhogali Bihu –  Assam The farmers of Assam celebrate and cherish the efforts of cultivation. It marks the beginning of Assamese New Year. Assamese celebrate Bihu thrice a year, which signify the distinct cycles of farming – Bhogali/Magh Bihu (January), Bohag/Rongali Bihu (April), and Kongali Bihu (October). Lohri – Punjab and Jammu Maghi – Haryana and Himachal Khichdi Parwa –  parts of Bihar, Jharkhand and Uttar Pradesh News Source: News on AIR PM SVANidhi scheme Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Governance In News: Under the PM SVANidhi scheme loans worth around 4,606 crore rupees have been disbursed to over 45 lakh beneficiaries. Has provided a platform for financial inclusion by facilitating the street vendors to carry out digital transactions. Has enabled the onboarding of 9,326 street vendors on food delivery platforms. About the Scheme Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs launched a scheme PM Street Vendor’s Atma Nirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) to empower Street Vendors by not only extending loans to them, but also for their holistic development and economic upliftment. The scheme intends to facilitate collateral free working capital loans of up to INR10,000/- of one-year tenure, to approximately 50 lakh street vendors, to help resume their businesses in the urban areas, including surrounding peri-urban/rural areas. The PM SVANidhi scheme offers incentives in the form of: Interest subsidy @ 7% per annum on regular repayment of loan Cashback upto INR1200/- per annum on undertaking prescribed digital transactions Eligibility for enhanced next tranche of loans Close to 2 million applications have been received under this scheme, of which 752191 have been sanctioned, and 218751 loans have already been disbursed. Eligibility Criteria: The PM SVANidhi scheme is available to all street vendors who are engaged in vending in urban areas as on or before March 24, 2020. The eligible vendors are identified as per following criteria: Street vendors in possession of Certificate of Vending/Identity Card issued by Urban Local Bodies (ULBs). The vendors, who have been identified in the survey but have not been issued Certificate of Vending/Identity Card; Provisional Certificate of Vending would be generated for such vendors through an IT based Platform. ULBs are encouraged to issue such vendors the permanent Certificate of Vending and Identification Card immediately and positively within a period of one month Street Vendors, left out of the ULB led identification survey or who have started vending after completion of the survey and have been issued Letter of Recommendation (LoR) to that effect by the ULB/Town Vending Committee (TVC). The vendors of surrounding development/peri-urban/rural areas vending in the geographical limits of the ULBs and have been issued Letter of Recommendation (LoR) to that effect by the ULB/TVC. About New Extension: Extension of lending period till December 2024; Introduction of 3rd loan of upto ₹50,000 in addition to 1st & 2nd loans of ₹10,000 and ₹20,000 respectively. To extend ‘SVANidhi Se Samriddhi’ component for all beneficiaries of PM SVANidhi scheme across the country. News Source: News on AIR Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Governance In News: Telecom Regulatory Authority of India has released a Consultation Paper on Telecommunication Infrastructure Sharing, Spectrum Sharing and Spectrum Leasing. Objective: To promote optimum resource utilization among the licensees – it is proposed to allow sharing of all kinds of telecom infrastructure and network elements among all categories of service providers. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) It is a statutory body, established in 1997 by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997 It is headed by a chairman and not more than two full-time members and not more than two part-time members. TRAI is administered through a secretariat headed by a secretary. It comes under Ministry of Communications and Broadcasting. The TRAI Act was amended by an ordinance, effective from 24 January 2000, establishing a Telecommunications Dispute Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT) to take over the adjudicatory and disputes functions from TRAI. TDSAT was set up to adjudicate any dispute between a licensor and a licensee, between two or more service providers, between a service provider and a group of consumers, and to hear and dispose of appeals against any direction, decision or order of TRAI. TRAI has brought out the Mycall app, MySpeed app and Do not disturb (DND 2.0) apps to ensure that there is transparency between what consumers are paying for and what telecom operators are promising to provide at a certain rate. Ensures welfare of citizens: to create and nurture conditions for growth of telecommunications in India to enable the country to have a leading role in the emerging global information society. to provide a fair and transparent environment that promotes a level playing field and facilitates fair competition in the market. issue orders and directions on various subjects such as tariffs, interconnections, quality of service, Direct To Home (DTH) services and mobile number portability. to regulate telecommunication services, adjudicate disputes, dispose appeals and protect the interest of the service providers as well as consumers. To establish standards for Quality of Services (QoS) and supervise how service providers share revenue To conduct periodical surveys to ensure that telecom service providers are acting in the best interest of consumers and are opening in compliance with universal service obligations. Recommend government or the license providers on Efficient management of available spectrum, the introduction of new service provider, Revocation of license for non-compliance, Technological improvements in the services and so on. Connecting the dots: 5G: Roadblocks & Way Ahead Need for reforms in Telecom Sector India’s Waterways and its Potential Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Infrastructure In News: PM Modi unveils inland waterways projects worth over Rs 1000 crore to increase transport, trade & tourism in eastern India. He flagged off World’s Longest River Cruise-MV Ganga Vilas at Varanasi. Declared that this is the decade of transformation of infrastructure in the country. Potential of Waterways in India India has great potential in waterways transport. In 2014 there were only five waterways in the country now this number is 111 and around two dozen are functional and transportation of cargo has increased triple times. The inland water transport is a cheap, fuel-efficient, environment-friendly mode with a higher employment generation potential and is suitable for heavy and bulky goods. But, the share of inland water transport in total transport in India is only around 3.5 per cent. Status of inland water transport: The Government of India is working to develop inland waterways as an alternative mode of transport in the country, which is cleaner and cheaper than both road and rail transport. There are 111 National Waterways in the country today, after 106 waterways were declared as National Waterways, adding to the list of 5 existing NW, in 2016. Some of the National Waterways in the country are already operational/navigable and are being used for transportation. Some of these include Ganga system, Brahmaputra system, etc. The Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) is working on developing the new National Waterways and enhancing their navigational potential. As per the feasibility reports completed so far, 36 NWs have been found to be technically viable. Out of these 36 NWs, developmental activities have been initiated on the following 8 NWs in 2017-18. Exploring the untapped potential: RIS (River Information system) has been implemented in some places where RIS is a combination of tracking and meteorological equipment with specialized software designed to optimize traffic and transport processes in inland navigation. Moving a step ahead towards ensuring optimum use of National Waterways, the Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) also launched a portal LADIS – Least Available Depth Information System. The Jal Marg Vikas Project (JMVP), for capacity augmentation of navigation on National Waterway-1 (NW-1), has also been approved. New integrated systems are being developed wherein the waterway will form part of a larger multi-modal transport network having linkage with the Eastern Dedicated Rail Freight Corridor and also with the area’s existing network of highways. Economic benefits due to expansion of waterways: A well-coordinated inland waterways network could bring a fundamental alteration in the logistics scenario of the country. It represents a ready-built infrastructure network, which can be utilised without any further capital investment. Waterways do not involve challenges associated with land acquisition, which has always been a sensitive issue, causing time and cost overruns of numerous projects. The significant investment which India needs to build its roads/highways infrastructure network can be conserved through increased utilisation of the waterways. Waterways are a cheaper mode of transportation vis-à-vis the available alternatives, significantly reducing the point-to-point cost of goods transportation. As per a recent study of the Integrated National Waterways Transportation Grid, one litre of fuel will move 24 tons through one kilometre on road, 95 on rail and 215 kilometres on inland water transport. Movement of goods and passengers through inland waterways would necessitate setting up large number of landing and loading/unloading points. This has the potential to open up large and accessible hinterland for supply of goods which can be transported at a lower cost. Implementation of the national waterways network is, however, fraught with challenges like –  There is seasonal fall in water levels particularly rain-fed rivers of peninsular India which are almost dry during summer. Less flow of water due to diversion of water for irrigation. Hard for even steamboats to sail. Example: Ganga. Reduced navigability due to siltation, waterfalls and cataracts in rivers and salinity in coastal rivers. Dredging carried out to maintain a minimum depth of water may negatively affect the aquatic ecosystem, and entry of saline water into creeks in coastal areas. Lack of Public Funds: The financing requirement for NWs is huge and open-ended. Heavy investment will be needed to procure equipment, including dredgers, shipping vessels, and barges of different sizes. Disinterest by Private Players: Even after liberalisation and economic reforms, there has been very less active participation from private players in this sector. The channel draft of the national waterways is not uniform at 2 meters throughout the year, as is required. Some of these rivers are seasonal and do not offer navigability through the year. Around 20 out of the 111 identified national waterways have reportedly been found unviable. Further, all the identified waterways require intensive capital and maintenance dredging, which could be resisted by the local community on environmental grounds, including displacement fears, thereby posing implementation challenges. Way Forward As every riverine system is unique and presents diverse challenges, separate studies based on a detailed micro-level review to assess viability need to be done for each, before taking up implementation. An effective waterways network would necessitate drawing up a well-coordinated strategy on lines of complementarity between the national network and other waterways, not declared as such, as well as between waterways and roadways/railways. The said strategy should closely look into the various undercurrents, including competing uses/needs, possible local resistance and also work closely and in coordination with local governments for quick and successful implementation of this important national project. Map of important inland waterways [Source: Inland Waterways Authority of India] Image source: Maps of India Source: Centre and State powers over Water Resources Linking Rivers Need for stronger mental health strategy Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently, the 5th Global Mental Health Summit, cosponsored by more than a half-dozen mental health organizations, was held in Chennai in December 2022 to discuss mental health in the context of human rights, ethics, and justice. It emphasized the importance of mental health and issued a call to action against society’s general neglect and, in particular, the governments at the federal and state levels. About Mental Health: It is a state of mental well-being that enables people to cope with the stresses of life, realize their abilities, learn well and work well, and contribute to their community. The World Health Organization (WHO) defines health as ” a state of physical, mental, social and spiritual well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity”. WHO defines mental health as mental well-being in which an individual realizes his or her own abilities, can cope with the normal stresses of life, can work productively and is able to contribute to his or her community. In this sense, mental health is the foundation for individual well-being and the efficient operation of a community. It is a basic human right. And it is crucial to personal, community, and socio-economic development. Types of Mental Disorders: Causes of Mental Illness: Individual psychological and biological factors such as emotional skills, substance use and genetics can make people more vulnerable to mental health problems. associated with them have had a detrimental effect on mental well-being Early adverse life experiences, such as trauma or a history of abuse (for example, child abuse, sexual assault, witnessing violence, etc.) Exposure to unfavourable social, economic, geopolitical and environmental circumstances – including poverty, violence, inequality and environmental deprivation – also increases people’s risk of experiencing mental health conditions. Over the past two years, the pandemic-led lockdowns and the uncertainties lead mental illness Use of alcohol or drugs Having feelings of loneliness or isolation. Issues and Concerns associated with mental illness: Mental health problems have been growing rapidly over the last few decades. In 2015, the GOI carried out a National Mental Health Survey — 2015-16 to assess the prevalence of mental health in the country. The report showed mental disorders at 10.6 per cent among above 18-year-olds, 16 per cent among the productive age group of 30-49-year-olds — and lifetime morbidity affecting 150 million people with one per cent reporting high suicidal risk. The human resources and treatment facilities are woefully low. For policymakers, mental health is a low priority. Such poor policy attention is often ascribed to indifference among bureaucrats and politicians. Designing a policy is the most challenging piece of policy-making. National Mental Health Survey The Government of India conducted a National Mental Health Survey — 2015-16 in 2015 to assess the prevalence of mental health in the country. According to the report, mental disorders affect 10.6 percent of people over the age of 18, 16 % of people in the productive age group of 30-49 years old, and 150 million people have lifetime morbidity, with one percent reporting a high suicidal risk. Even so, human resources and treatment facilities are woefully inadequate. Madhya Pradesh 0.05 psychiatrists per lakh people, and the treatment gap in India is approximately 80%. In 2019, the Union government allocated Rs 600 crore to tertiary institutions such as NIMHANS and medical college psychiatry departments, leaving only Rs 40 crore for the District Mental Health Programme and other community-based initiatives, despite an estimated need of over Rs 93,000 crore investment to address this massive morbidity. Only Rs 2.91 crore of the pitiable sum of Rs 40 crore was spent. Need of Mental Health Policy Without the active participation of community leaders, implementation among the poorest and most marginalized, particularly criminalized groups, would have been impossible. Despite the fact that the central government fully funded the central sector program, each intervention was developed with active participation and dialogue among the states and, more importantly, the affected constituencies. A similar approach is required when developing a good, implementable mental health strategy. It is so intertwined with the type of society we live in — the pressures and stress caused by poverty and growing inequalities of opportunity, the frustrations of joblessness, the judgmental and discriminatory environment due to social barriers of caste, gender, religion, and so on are powerful triggers — that if completely unaddressed, the ailment can recur despite medication. The limitations of the biomedical approach and confining patients in hospitals are now recognized and supported by evidence. Mental health is even more complicated than HIV/AIDS because mental disorders are not a one-time ailment that can be cured with certain medications. Government of India Initiatives: The Government has developed comprehensive Training Modules for Healthcare Providers to deal with Post COVID Mental Health Issues to equip Doctors, Nurses, paramedical healthcare workers, community health workers and other frontline workers with knowledge and skills to provide psychosocial support to those affected by post COVID mental health issues. the Government has announced a “National Tele Mental Health Programme” in the Budget of 2022-23, to further improve access to quality mental health counselling and care services in the country. As mandated by the Mental Healthcare Act, of 2017, mental healthcare services have been integrated into general healthcare services like National Health Mission, PMSSY, Rashtriya Kishore Swasthya Karyakram, AYUSHMAN Bharat, PMJAY, etc. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding The Association of Man-made Fibre Industry of India (AMFII): AMFII was registered as a Private Limited Company under section 25 A of the Companies Act 1956 The Association also acts as a liaison body on behalf of the industry and communicates with the Chambers of Commerce The Association has its Registered Office in Delhi Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Q.2) The term “ Lantana Camara ” often mentioned in news, is related to Native plant species Malware Invasive plant species A bug Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Ebola Disease: It is a fungal disease It is mainly found in animals It is spread through direct contact with body fluids ― blood, saliva, sweat, tears, mucus, vomit, faeces, breast milk, urine and semen of people infected with it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 14th January 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 13th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2022 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 14th January 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here