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Baba’s Explainer

Baba's Explainer - New Data Protection Bill – Part 2

  ARCHIVES Syllabus GS-2: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation. GS-3: Digital Economy  Context: The latest draft of the data protection law — the Digital Personal Data Protection Bill, 2022 (DPDP Bill, 2022) — has now been made open for public comments. This article deals with various themes within the Bill including data localisation requirements, whether children are considered as data principals, the regulatory framework of the Bill and the penalties it imposes. What are some of the data protection rights that the Bill is missing? The DPDP Bill, 2022 misses out on two main rights for data principals. The first is the right of data portability. The right to data portability allowed the data principal to receive in a structured format all the personal data they had provided to the data fiduciary. This empowered data principals by allowing them to choose between different platforms and enhanced competition between data fiduciaries to increase consumer welfare. For example, if the data principal was not satisfied with the social media platform they were currently using, they could request for porting of their data to another social media platform and avail of its services without having to provide all their personal data again. The DPDP Bill, 2022 does not provide for this right. The second right foregone is the right to be forgotten. While not a right per se, the right to be forgotten allows the data principal to ask the data fiduciary to stop the continuing disclosure of their personal data. This has to be balanced with the right to freedom of speech and expression and the right to information for all other individuals. The DPDP Bill, 2022 subsumes this right under the right to erasure. This conflation between the general right to erasure with the right to be forgotten which is specific to disclosure of personal data compromises on the right to freedom of speech and expression of other individuals. How does the draft Bill treat the personal data processing of children? With regard to the personal data processing of children, the DPDP Bill, 2022 carries forward the approach of its previous iterations. A major issue that remains is that the age of digital consent, which is the age at which an individual can consent to their personal data being processed, continues to be 18. This means that parental/guardian consent would be required to process the personal data of children and adolescents below the age of 18 years. In effect, this would mean parental consent would be required every time they want to access the internet. Such high threshold of 18 years becomes an issue for two reasons. First, it does not recognise that the consent of a toddler is different from that of a teenager. Second, requiring consent from parents would hamper autonomous development of children since parents may not want them to be exposed to viewpoints contradictory to their own. Such restrictions are in violation of India’s obligations under the Convention on Rights of the Child. What changes have been made to data localisation requirements? One of the most emphatic departures of the DPDP Bill, 2022 from the Personal Data Protection (PDP) Bill 2019, has been in the context of cross border data flows. The PDP Bill, 2019 had provided for a three-tiered categorisation based on which personal data could be moved across borders. The government was interested in restricting cross border data flows of sensitive personal data and critical personal data to allow for ease of lawful access and to maintain “digital sovereignty”. However, these data localisation requirements were severely contested by the industry as they would lead to significant increase in compliance and operational costs in terms of higher data storage charges and security risks. The DPDP Bill, 2022 aims to strike a balance between these concerns by allowing for cross border data flow to “countries and territories” notified by the Central government. However, the draft legislation fails to provide any guidance or criteria for the consideration of the Union government while making this notification. The criteria is left to the Central government itself to be specified under its rule making power. What is the design of the regulatory framework proposed under the Bill? The previous bill proposed regulator, the Data Protection Authority, with significant powers of regulation making, enforcement and adjudication. However, the current draft considerably reduces the scope of the proposed Data Protection Board of India (DPB). Out of the 22 clauses in the DPDP Bill, the Central government has been provided with rule making power in around 14 clauses. Such kind of diluting the powers of data authority becomes problematic for several reasons. It is necessary that the data regulatory authority making the rules should be at an arm’s length from the government so as to ensure impartial protection of the interests of data principals. Vesting these powers with the Union government creates conflict of interest. For example, the government has the power to specify “fair and reasonable” purposes for which it can process personal data without consent. Moreover, the DPDP Bill, 2022 fails to provide adequate legislative guidance for framing these rules. This leads to the concern of excessive delegation of legislation. Lastly, the Central government exercises greater control over the proposed DPB because it will appoint members of the DPB, set out the terms and conditions of appointment and lay out the functions that the DPB will perform. What is the framework for state based processing of personal data? Carrying forward the approach from the PDP Bill, 2019, the current Bill also provides considerable exemptions to the state’s processing of personal data. First, as stated above, the Union government has the power to specify “fair and reasonable” purposes for which it can process personal data without consent. Second, an exemption from most data protection obligations is provided if the processing is undertaken “in the interests of prevention, detection, investigation of any offence or any other violation of any law”. A complete exemption can be provided for when personal data is being processed “in the interests of sovereignty and integrity of India, security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, maintenance of public order or preventing incitement to any cognizable offence relating to any of these”. Such kind of exemptions may be in violation of the “necessity and proportionality” test laid down by the Supreme Court in Puttaswamy vs Union of India. Moreover, storage limitation does not apply to government agencies which means they can continue to retain personal data for an unlimited period of time even when the purpose of processing ceases to exist and there is no legal requirement to store the data. What is the nature of penalties provided for in the Bill? The DPDP Bill, 2022 marks a number of departures from the PDP Bill, 2019 in the way it conceptualises penalties. First, the quantum of penalties that can be imposed, with the cap being placed at ₹500 crore, are of a much higher magnitude than provided for under the PDP Bill, 2019. Second, unlike the PDP Bill, 2019 the DPDP Bill, 2022 creates no offences. Third, in a move that can be seen as disempowering the data principals, the DPDP Bill, 2022 does not allow them to seek compensation from data fiduciaries for harms they have suffered due to unlawful processing. Fourth, in a very unusual move and perhaps the only one of its kind among data protection legislations, the DPDP Bill, 2022 places duties on data principals. If they are non-compliant, it could lead to penalties upto ₹10,000. Some of these duties include being in compliance with the “provision of all applicable laws” when exercising rights and not registering “false or frivolous” complaints with the data fiduciary or the DPB. Such provisions may hinder data principles from exercising their rights for fear of penalties. Main Practice Question: How does the new design framework and data localisation requirements of new data protection bill impacts data economy? Note: Write answer his question in the comment section. table{ border: 1px solid; } table tr, table td{ border: 1px solid; }

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 25th November 2022

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Buddhist Nyingma sect Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – History and Art and Culture Context: Recently in a significant development in the Tibetan Buddhist circles, the Nyingma sect has identified a boy from Spiti in Himachal Pradesh as the “reincarnation” of the late Taklung Setrung Rinpoche, a scholar known for his knowledge of Tibetan Tantric school. About Nyingma Sect: The Nyingmapa order has the longest history establishment history of transmitting all the four major traditions of Tibetan Buddhism. This is reflected in the name Nyingma, which literary means “Old Order”. The Other three main Tibetan Buddhism schools, Sakya, Kagyu, and Gelug, collectively refer to New Order (Sarma). They rely on the translation of Buddhist script from India during the second dissemination of Buddhism to Tibet. Nyingmapa’s trace their translation lineage back to the Samye Monastery, the first Tibetan Buddhist monastery in Tibet. During the time, hundreds of scholars and translators translated Sutras and Tantras to the Tibetan Language. The Same Monastery where the first seven locals are ordained as monk marks the bugging of Monkshood in Tibet. The Rinpoche used to live in the Takthok monastery of Ladakh, one of the oldest monasteries related to the sect. Its followers are spread across Tibet, Bhutan, Ladakh, Sikkim and other Himalayan pockets. Nyingma in Tibetan means “ancient” and has roots going back to the 8th century. The Nyingma sect is also known as the Red Hat sect because its Lamas wear red robes and hats. Some Unique Aspects Nyingmapa Tradition: The practice of Dzogchen (Great Perfection). It the highest perfection in deity visualization. It seeks to directly examine the fundamental mind without the aid of Visualization like statue and Thangkha. The tradition of Terma. Padmasambhava has hidden lots of scriptures in a different location for the future master to find and preach. Teachings of the Nyingma Sect: Its teachings are mainly based on those of Padmasambhava, called Guru Rinpoche and Shantarakshita who were brought to Tibet through the rule of the Emperor Trisong Detsen from 742 to 797 CE. Buddhist teachings are classified into nine yanas with ‘Dzogchen’ being most important. Dzogchen (Great Perfection) philosophy revolves around pure awareness which can be achieved through meditation. This Vajrayana tradition involves use of ritual, symbols and tantric practices to achieve nirvana. Therefore, Nyingma stresses on teachings attributed to Padmasambhava, the Dzogchen doctrines as well as Tantric practices. The Nyingma School is also associated with Termas (hidden treasures). Some major Monasteries of Nyingmapa Sect in Tibet There is the monastery of Nyingmapa in every corner of Tibet. The most important monastery in Tibet is Mindrolling monastery near Lhasa airport, Dorjee dark monastery, Rongbuk Monastery at Everest Basecamp and Samye Monastery. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to Indian history, consider the following pairs: Historical person                                Known as Aryadeva                                  Jaina scholar Dignaga                                    Buddhist scholar Nathamuni                              Vaishnava scholar How many pairs given above are correctly matched ? (2022) None of the pairs Only one pair Only two pairs All three pairs Q.2) With reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world? (2018) Avalokiteshvara Lokesvara Maitreya Padmapani Pangolins Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: During recently concluded the 19th Conference of Parties (COP19) to the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) urged countries, to remove references to parts and derivatives of pangolins “from the official pharmacopoeia” to help save the species. About Pangolins: Scientific Name: Manis crassicaudata The Indian pangolin is the largest among eight pangolin species. Of the eight species of pangolin worldwide, two are found in India. They are Chinese pangolin (manis pentadactyla), mostly found in northeast India and Indian pangolin (Manis crassicaudata). Animal Description: It has large, overlapping scales on its body that act as armour. It can also curl itself into a ball (volvation) as self-defence against predators such as the tiger. The nocturnal animal lives in burrows and feed on ants and termites. Habitat and  Distribution: The species is understood to occur in various types of tropical forests as well as open land, grasslands and degraded habitats, including close to villages. The species can adapt well to modified habitats, provided its ant and termite prey remains abundant It is widely distributed in India, except in the arid region, high Himalayas and the North-East. It can be found at elevations up to 2500 m. The species also occurs in Bangladesh, Pakistan, Nepal and Sri Lanka. Threats: Poaching for its meat and scales, which are used and consumed by local people, but are also increasingly traded internationally. The scales serves as base component for indigenous (traditional) psychotropic substances. China is main illicit hub (market) for smuggled scales of Pangolins, where they have huge demand for medicinal and magical purposes. Protection status : Indian Pangolins Schedule I under Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Appendix I of the International Convention of Trade in Endangered Species (CITES). Endangered in IUCN Red List. Chinese pangolin has been listed as “critically endangered” by UN affiliated International Union for Conservation of Nature’s (IUCN) Red List. About CITES: CITES (the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora, also known as the Washington Convention) is a multilateral treaty to protect endangered plants and animals from the threats of international trade. It was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1963 at a meeting of members of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). AIM: Its aim is to ensure that international trade (import/export) in specimens of animals and plants included under CITES, does not threaten the survival of the species in the wild. Although CITES is legally binding on the Parties it does not take the place of national laws. Rather it provides a framework to be respected by each Party, which has to adopt its own domestic legislation to ensure that CITES is implemented at the national level. Source: DownToEarth Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to India’s biodiversity, Ceylon Frogmouth, Coppersmith Barbet, Gray Chinned Minivet and White-throated Redstart are  (2021) Birds Primates Reptiles Amphibians Q.2) With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which of the following statements is/are correct?  (2015) IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national laws Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Agni-3 missile Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology In news: India carried out a successful training launch of the Intermediate Range Ballistic Missile (IRBM) Agni-3 developed by DRDO, from APJ Abdul Kalam Island, Odisha, as part of routine user training launches conducted by the Strategic Forces Command. About Agni-3 missile: Two-stage solid propellent powered, nuclear capable, Intermediate range ballistic missile (IRBM) It is 16-meter-long, weighing more than 48 tonnes, has a range of over 3000 kilometres and can carry a payload of over 1.5 tonnes. It was subsequently successfully flight tested in 2007. It is under operational purview of the Strategic Forces Command, which is part of India’s Nuclear Command Authority. The Agni-3 test comes over a month after India’s Strategic Strike Nuclear Submarine, INS Arihant, carried out a successful launch of a Submarine Launched Ballistic Missile (SLBM). The strategic postures of “credible minimum deterrence” and “no first use” are pivotal to India’s nuclear doctrine.   Source: Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (2014) It is surface-to-surface missile. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only. It can deliver one tonne nuclear warhead about 7500 km away. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Champions of the Earth award 2022 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Current Affairs In news: Indian wildlife biologist Dr Purnima Devi Barman has been honoured with the U.N. Environment Programme’s (UNEP) 2022 Champions of the Earth award in the Entrepreneurial Vision category. About the award: Established in 2005, it is U.N.’s highest environmental honour. It is an annual award accorded for transformative action to prevent, halt and reverse ecosystem degradation. In 2017, the program was expanded to include Young Champions of the Earth. The initiative is run in partnership with the Covestro, a plastics company. awarded every year to seven young environmentalists between ages 18 and 30 Dr. Purnima Devi Barman: She leads the “Hargila Army“, an all-female grassroots conservation movement dedicated to protecting the Greater Adjutant Stork from extinction. The bird Greater Adjutant Stork is the second-rarest stork species in the world, known locally as “hargila” in Assamese (meaning “bone swallower”). Today the “Hargila Army” consists of over 10,000 women. They protect nesting sites, rehabilitate injured storks which have fallen from their nests and arrange “baby showers” to celebrate the arrival of new-born chicks. The women create and sell textiles with motifs of the bird, helping to raise awareness about the species while building their own financial independence. Significance of her work: Conflict between humans and wildlife can be resolved to the benefit of all. Highlighting the damaging impact that the loss of wetlands has had on the species who feed and breed on them Importance of protecting and restoring ecosystems mobilised a group of village women to help her. Source: The Hindu 1st Biodiversity Heritage site in TN Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment In News: The Tamil Nadu Government, issued a notification declaring Arittapatti and Meenakshipuram villages in Madurai district the first biodiversity heritage site in the State. Biodiversity Heritage sites (BHS): “Biodiversity Heritage Sites” (BHS) are well defined areas that are unique, ecologically fragile ecosystems – terrestrial, coastal and inland waters and, marine  having rich biodiversity comprising components such as species richness, high endemism, presence of threatened species, keystone species or land races, or biological components having cultural or aesthetic values. As per Section 37 of the Biological Diversity Act, State Governments are empowered to notify such sites, in consultation with ‘local bodies’. State Government in consultation with the Central Government may frame rules for the management and conservation. Significance: protecting its rich and exclusive ecosystem conservation ethics in the community About Arittapatti: Arittapatti BHS is 139.63 hectares in Arittapatti village (Melur block) and 53.8 hectares in Meenakshipuram village (Madurai East taluk). Arittapatti village, known for its ecological and historical significance, houses around 250 species of birds including three important raptors – birds of prey, namely the Laggar Falcon, the Shaheen Falcon and Bonelli’s Eagle. It is also home to wildlife such as the Indian Pangolin, Slender Loris and pythons The area is surrounded by a chain of seven hillocks or inselbergs that serve as a watershed, charging “72 lakes, 200 natural springs and three check dams The Anaikondan tank, built during the reign of Pandiyan kings in the 16th century is one among them. Several megalithic structures, rock-cut temples, Tamil Brahmi inscriptions and Jain beds add to the historical significance of the region. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Question Q1.) The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the establishment of (2014) biosphere reserves botanical gardens national parks wildlife sanctuaries Jallikattu Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Current Affairs In News: the Supreme Court observed while hearing the Jallikattu case that, prevention of cruelty is not an “absolute idea”. The Constitution commands us to be compassionate to all living creatures, but it should have a balance. The Bench also referred to the killing of stray dogs, saying it extinguished the life of an animal. About Jallikattu: It is an ancient ‘sport’ or bull taming event typically practiced in Tamil Nadu as a part of Pongal celebrations on Mattu Pongal day, third day of the four-day Pongal festival. Jalli refers to gold or silver coins and Kattu means ‘tied’. Therefore, combined it refers to coins being tied to the bulls’ horns, which is considered the prize for whoever tames the bull. The bull that wins is used to service numerous cows preserving the native breed. It is believed to have been practised some 2500 years ago. It is controversial because the sport often results in major injuries and even deaths. About the case: In 2018, the apex court had referred to a Constitution Bench the question whether the people of Tamil Nadu could preserve jallikattu as their cultural heritage under Article 29 (1) of the Constitution and demand for its protection. The People for Ethical Treatment of Animals (PETA) filed a petition to strike down the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (Tamil Nadu Amendment) Act of 2017 and Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (Conduct of Jallikattu) Rules of 2017. In 2021, the Environment Ministry declared that the sport could carry on irrespective of the imposed ban. A research conducted by PETA’s investigators found that the bulls were being disoriented, deliberately. The bulls’ tails were allegedly bitten and twisted; stabbed, punched, and dragged on the ground. Source The Hindu Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to India’s culture and tradition, what is `Kalaripayattu’? (2014) It is an ancient Bhakti cult of Shaivism still prevalent in some parts of South India It is an ancient style bronze and brasswork still found in southern part of Coromandel area It is an ancient form of dance-drama and a living tradition in the northern part of Malabar It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of South India Global Hunger Index (GHI) and India’s malnutrition problems Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2022 has brought more unwelcome news for India, as far as its global ranking on a vital indicator of human development is concerned. India ranked 107 out of 121 countries. The Government of India attempted to discredit the index immediately in its attempt to deny the findings of the report, even going so far as to term it a conspiracy against India. About Malnutrition: It refers to deficiencies, excesses or imbalances in a person’s intake of energy and/or nutrients. It is a chronic problem and a longstanding challenge for the public administration of India. The term malnutrition addresses 3 broad groups of conditions: Undernutrition: It includes wasting (low weight-for-height), stunting (low height-for-age) and underweight (low weight-for-age) Together, the stunted and wasted children are considered to be underweight, indicating a lack of proper nutritional intake and inadequate care post-childbirth. Micronutrient-related malnutrition: It includes micronutrient deficiencies (a lack of important vitamins and minerals) or micronutrient excess; and Overweight: It includes obesity and diet-related noncommunicable diseases (such as heart disease, stroke, diabetes and some cancers). About Global Hunger Index: The GHI is an important indicator of nutrition, particularly among children, as it looks at 4 factors: Child stunting Child wasting Child mortality Undernutrition (calorific deficiency) across the population. GHI is a tool for comprehensively measuring and tracking hunger at global, regional, and national levels. It is an annual by European NGOs of Concern Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe. India’s performance in GHI 2022: India has a score of 29.1 which places it under ‘serious’ category. Among the South Asian countries, India (107) is ranked below Sri Lanka (64), Nepal (81), Bangladesh (84), and Pakistan (99). Afghanistan (109) is the only country in South Asia that performs worse than India on the index. Issues with addressing the problem of malnutrition: Manpower constraints: Over 50% Child Development Project Officer (CDPO) posts were vacant in Jharkhand, Assam, Uttar Pradesh, and Rajasthan, pointing to severe manpower constraints in successfully implementing the scheme of such importance. No routine in social audits: Social audits that are meant to allow for community oversight of the quality of services provided in schools are not carried out routinely. Inadequate funding & implementation: Gaps remain in how the already existing centrally-sponsored schemes are funded and implemented. The budgets being allocated are nowhere near the scale of the funds that are required to improve nutrition in the country. For example, the Saksham Anganwadi and Prime Minister’s Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nutrition (POSHAN) 2.0 scheme (which now includes the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) scheme), which seeks to work with adolescent girls, pregnant women, nursing mothers and children below three. However, the budget for this scheme for FY2022-23 was less than 1% more than the actual spend in FY2020-21. Issues with cash transfers: Cash transfers seem to be a favoured solution for several social sector interventions in India today, and this includes the health and nutrition sectors. But evidence of the impact of cash transfer on child nutrition in India is limited so far. The effect of cash transfers is also limited in a context where food prices are volatile and inflation depletes the value of cash. Social Factors: Equally, there are social factors such as ‘son preference’, which sadly continues to be prevalent in India and can influence household-level decisions when responding to the nutrition needs of sons and daughters. Other factors: Malnutrition persists due to depressed economic conditions in large parts of the country, the poor state of agriculture in India, persistent levels of unsafe sanitation practices, etc. Measures Taken to Tackle Malnutrition: Poshan Abhiyan: It is a multi-ministerial convergence mission with the vision to ensure the attainment of malnutrition free India by 2022. The Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) is implementing POSHAN Abhiyaan. Prime Minister’s Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nutrition (POSHAN) 2.0 scheme: It now includes the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) scheme, which seeks to work with adolescent girls, pregnant women, nursing mothers and children below three. Integrated Child Development Services: It represents one of the world’s largest and unique programmes for early childhood care and development. The beneficiaries under the Scheme are children in the age group of 0-6 years, pregnant women and lactating mothers. The Ministry of Women and Child Development is the implementing agency. Mid-Day Meal Scheme: The Mid-day Meal Scheme is a school meal programme in India designed to better the nutritional standing of school-age children It covers all school students studying in Classes 1 to 8 of government schools, government-aided schools, special training centres, including madrasas supported under Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan. National Food Security Mission: It was launched in 2007-08 by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. It focuses on the sustainable increase in the production of targeted crops through area expansion and productivity enhancement. National Nutrition Mission: It is the government’s flagship programme to improve nutritional outcomes for children, pregnant women and lactating mothers. To reduce stunting and wasting by 2 percent per year (total 6 per cent until 2022) among children and anaemia by 3 percent per year (total 9 per cent until 2022) among children, adolescent girls and pregnant women and lactating mothers. The Ministry of Women and Child Development is the nodal ministry for implementation. Suggestions Measures to Improve Malnutrition in India: Need of a comprehensive programme: A comprehensive programme targeting adolescent girls is required if the intergenerational nature of malnutrition is to be tackled. Cash transfers: Cash transfers can also be used to incentivise behavioural change in terms of seeking greater institutional support. Food rations through PDS and special supplements for the target group of pregnant and lactating mothers, and infants and young children, are essential. Fixing the pre-existing schemes: Fixing the pre-existing schemes is the obvious answer to addressing India’s multi-dimensional nutrition challenge. Getting the already existing schemes right requires greater involvement of local government and local community groups in the design and delivery of tailored nutrition interventions. Keeping it a top priority: The need of the hour is to make addressing child malnutrition the top priority of the government machinery, and all year around. Source: The Hindu Tenant Farmers in India Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Since tenant farmers do not have land ownership documents, the Central Government has excluded them from receiving PM Kisan. However, the Odisha government has included tenant farmers under the KALIA scheme. About KALIA Scheme: KALIA stands for “Krushak Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation”. It was launched by the Odisha government in January 2018. Eligibility: Small and marginal farmers, landless Agricultural households, vulnerable Agricultural households, landless Agricultural laborers, and sharecroppers (Actual cultivators) all growth is eligible under different components of the scheme. Benefits: Financial assistance of Rs.25,000/- per farm family over five seasons will be provided to small and marginal farmers so that farmers can purchase inputs like seeds, fertilizers, and pesticides and use assistance towards labour and other investments. Financial Assistance of Rs.12500/-will be provided to each landless Agricultural Household for Agricultural allied activities like small goat rearing units, mini-layer units, duckery units, fishery kits for fishermen, mushroom cultivation and bee-keeping, etc. This will particularly benefit to SC & ST population of our State. The vulnerable cultivators/landless agricultural laborers will get financial assistance of Rs. 10,000/- per family per year to enable them to take care of their sustenance. The vulnerable cultivator/landless Agricultural Laborers who are in old age, have a disability/disease, and are vulnerable for any other reason. About the Odisha model: The Direct Benefits Transfer (DBT) scheme facilitates the transfer of subsidies to beneficiaries’ bank accounts, but identifying the appropriate beneficiaries is complex. The Odisha Government’s move stands out and should prompt every other State to adopt it. The Odisha Government restricts land leasing; however, it includes tenant farmers as one of the beneficiaries to receive KALIA under the three-stage process of the unification-verification-exclusion framework. Unification: Unification begins with unifying State databases with green forms. Verification: Verification is done through multiple databases like the Agricultural Census, Socio-Economic Caste Census, National Food Security Act, National Population Registry, HRMS database of State government employees, bank account validation through bank databases, and de-duplication through Aadhaar. Exclusion: The last phase excludes ineligible recipients, such as government employees, taxpayers, large farmers, and anybody who voluntarily opted out. Algorithms for data integration were created by employing the concept of unification, verification, and exclusion. This is a technology-led transformation to receive direct income support for tenant farmers even without having land documents. So, hereafter, no State can say that tenant farmers are not eligible to receive such payments. Restricted Agricultural Land Leasing Rights: Kerala is the only State to completely prohibit leasing. Most of the other States have some exceptions. For instance, Karnataka enables soldiers and seamen to lease their property, whereas Madhya Pradesh allows leasing to handicapped individuals and widows. And in Gujarat, the leasing regulations differ by area. Some States allow leasing with few terms and conditions. In Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and Telangana, the landlord does not get all of the lands back. The landowners, therefore, have no clue what they will get when they lease out their property. This puts the profitability of leasing fully contingent on external circumstances. This has caused the official land leasing market to be severely depressed. What do the surveys indicate? Based on household surveys, the Sample Survey Office estimates that 13 percent of land in India is leased. However, according to the Agri Census statistics based on land records, just 0.36 percent of the land is shown as officially leased. Plight of tenant farmers: 36 percent of India’s tenant farmers were completely landless and 56 percent owned less than one hectare. Across the country, over 20 percent of land holdings are farmed by tenant farmers who cannot access facilities like credit and other support services. Impending investment: Restrictive land leasing legislation has ultimately resulted in impeding investments in the agriculture sector and, thus, impacted Agri-productivity. Adoption of model land leasing act: To mitigate this disparity, States have to come forward to adopt the Model (Agricultural) Land Leasing Act proposed by NITI Aayog in 2016. This Act would allow for the profitable use of fallow land and provide tenant farmers with access to credit and insurance services. Way Forward: With the PM-Kisan comprising the largest component in the agriculture budget, there is a need to address its deficiencies drawing from the experiences of Odisha’s KALIA scheme and Telangana’s Rythu Bandhu Scheme. A land reforms agenda, particularly the land leasing legislations and updated land records, should receive the highest priority to increase the incomes of smallholders, tenant farmers, and sharecroppers. So, the time is right for States to amend the existing laws related to land leasing for securing the rights of tenant farmers. Source: The Hindu India’s transparency regime Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 Governance Context: India’s transparency regime is in trouble as the very institution mandated to guard it (Central Information Commission or CIC) has become responsible for its downfall. It had passed orders seeking transparency in many cases of public importance. However, the present set of Information Commissioners have together adopted a new jurisprudence that has created additional hurdles in a citizen’s quest for accountability. Central Information Commission: Established under the Right to Information (RTI) Act 2005, it is the apex body under India’s transparency regime. Its most vital mandate is to decide the disclosure or the non-disclosure of information. Citizens can file applications under the Right to Information Act with any public body and are guaranteed a reply from the public information officer of that public body within 30 days. Under the RTI Act, when an applicant is denied information by a government department, the first appeal is made to the appellate authority in the department. If unresolved, the RTI applicant can move the office of the Central Information Commission (CIC)—for queries related to central government—or State Information Commission. Information Commissioners (ICs) appointed to the CIC are equal in status to the Chief Election Commissioner, and that of a Supreme Court judge; having a a five-year fixed term and terms of service. In its current form, Section 8 of the RTI Act lists ten exemptions, ranging from any information that may hurt national security, impede the process of ongoing investigations to cabinet papers and deliberations of the council of ministers. Challenges to RTI: Centre’s dominance: After the amendments of 2019, the Centre gave itself powers to change and decide these terms whenever it wished, thereby striking at the independence of the commission and those who man it. Lack of public welfare orientation: The CIC has become more like a walking dead institution, where records will show that not a single order for disclosure has been forthcoming in matters of public importance. Delay in hearings: Cases at the CIC come up for a hearing roughly after a two year wait. If the matter is not already infructuous or lost its significance, one can look forward to the commission deciding one’s case. In a case seeking disclosure of documents relating to the making of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Act, 2019, the commission has resorted to keeping the matter pending for final order for more than three months now, something which is unheard of. Lack of transparency: In matters of public importance, such as cases seeking disclosure of files related to the national lockdown during COVID-19, or the case seeking disclosure of data pertaining to phone tapping orders passed by the Home Ministry, the Commission has adopted a new way of delegating its mandate — to decide cases — to the Ministry before it. Vagueness: In most cases, the Ministries reiterate their stand of non-disclosure, most often under vague grounds of national interest. Lack of procedure: The CIC refuses to accept any further challenge to such orders, therefore, refusing to do its duty of deciding the cases. One of the cardinal rules of natural justice is that no one should be a judge in their own cause. However, the commission now allows, or rather wants, the very Ministry that stands accused of violating the RTI Act to act as the judge in their own cause and decide whether a disclosure is necessary. Such as, CIC refused to hear the Internet Freedom Foundation’s challenge to the fresh non-disclosure order passed by the Home Ministry in the phone tapping case. Ultra-virus actions: In another case related to disclosure of non-performing assets and top defaulters of a co-operative bank, the matter was listed out-of-turn to issue a “stay” order against the Bank’s First Appellate Authority’s order for disclosure. A stay order is unheard of and there is no provision in the RTI Act for the same. High number of vacancies: information commissions are purposely deprived of commissioners to scuttle the effective functioning of the RTI Act. Suggestions for future: Simplicity: Unlike court cases, RTI matters do not involve complex legal arguments and are simple to adjudicate. Reduce pendency: In May 2014, close to 35,000 appeals were pending before the CIC. In June 2019, about 31,000 appeals were pending, over 9,000 of those pending for over a year. Fill vacancy: Currently, four out of the ten positions of information commissioners are vacant. Several information commissions in the states were either non-functional or working at a reduced capacity. Prune the exemption list: In an RTI ratings report by the Canada-based Centre for Law and Democracy, India’s rank slipped from second position in 2011 to eighth in 2018. It flagged blanket exemptions from the RTI to “security, intelligence, research and economic institutes” and “information held by private entities which perform a public function”. Protect whistle-blowers: In March 2018, Nanji Sondarva was allegedly clubbed to death in Gujarat’s Rajkot district after filing an RTI application seeking details of a newly constructed road in his village. 84 RTI activists have been murdered since 2005 for seeking information on illegal construction, alleged scams in social welfare scheme. CIC as a constitutional body: the RTI is safeguarding a fundamental right guaranteed under the Constitution. Article 19 (1)(a) of the Constitution guarantees freedom of speech and expression to citizens, but without the RTI, one cannot express oneself, including while making an electoral choice. the Supreme Court has also interpreted RTI as a fundamental right—in 1975 and 1982. Political parties under RTI: Political parties are reluctant to share information with citizens. The CIC classified political parties as a public authority since they benefit from land allotted by the government at cheap rates, free air time with state broadcasters during elections, and are allowed to claim income tax exemptions. Way forward: Citizens must mount intense pressure on authorities to act and appoint commissioners of integrity. Lawyers must help willing citizens take matters to court and seek justice. If there is a failure to do so, India will lose its cherished right to know. Source: LiveMint Baba’s Explainer – New Data Protection Bill New Data Protection Bill Syllabus GS-2: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation. GS-3: Digital Economy  Context: The latest draft of the data protection law — the Digital Personal Data Protection Bill, 2022 (DPDP Bill, 2022) — has now been made open for public comments and the government is expected to introduce the Bill in Parliament in the budget session of 2023. Read Complete Details on New Data Protection Bill Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) With reference to Biodiversity Heritage sites, consider the following statements: They are unique, ecologically fragile ecosystems that need protection. As per Biodiversity Act 2000, Central Governments may notify such sites. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) ‘Champions of the Earth’ is an award launched by The World Meteorological Organisation The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change The UNEP The UNFCCC Secretariat Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding the Nyingma Sect of Buddhism: Nyingmapa’s trace their translation lineage back to the Samye Monastery, the first Tibetan Buddhist monastery in Tibet. The Nyingma sect is also known as the orange Hat sect because its Lamas wear red robes and hats. Which of the following statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’25th November 2022 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 24th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Baba’s Explainer

Baba's Explainer - New Data Protection Bill

  ARCHIVES Syllabus GS-2: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation. GS-3: Digital Economy  Context: The latest draft of the data protection law — the Digital Personal Data Protection Bill, 2022 (DPDP Bill, 2022) — has now been made open for public comments and the government is expected to introduce the Bill in Parliament in the budget session of 2023. Is this the first draft? This is the fourth iteration of a data protection law in India. The first draft of the law — the Personal Data Protection Bill, 2018, was proposed by the Justice Srikrishna Committee set up by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) with the mandate of setting out a data protection law for India. The government made revisions to this draft and introduced it as the Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019 (PDP Bill, 2019) in the Lok Sabha in 2019. On the same day, the Lok Sabha referred it to a joint committee of both the Houses of Parliament. Due to delays caused by the pandemic, the Joint Committee on the PDP Bill, 2019 (JPC) submitted its report on the Bill after two years in December, 2021. The report was accompanied by a new draft bill, namely, the Data Protection Bill, 2021 that incorporated the recommendations of the JPC. However, in August 2022, citing the report of the JPC and the “extensive changes” that the JPC had made to the 2019 Bill, the government withdrew the PDP Bill. Why have there been so many revisions and changes? Constant interactions with digital devices have led to unprecedented amounts of personal data being generated round the clock by users (data principals). When coupled with the computational power available today with companies (data fiduciaries), this data can be processed in ways that increasingly impair the autonomy, self-determination, freedom of choice and privacy of the data principal. The current legal framework for privacy enshrined in the Information Technology Rules, 2011 (IT Rules, 2011) is wholly inadequate to combat such harms to data principals, especially since the right to informational privacy has been upheld as a fundamental right by the Supreme Court ( S. Puttaswamy vs Union of India [2017]). It is inadequate on four levels; First, the extant framework is premised on privacy being a statutory right rather than a fundamental right and does not apply to processing of personal data by the government; Second, it has a limited understanding of the kinds of data to be protected; Third, it places few obligations on the data fiduciaries which, moreover, can be overridden by contract Fourth, there are only minimal consequences for the data fiduciaries for the breach of these obligations. While the need to have an effective personal data protection regime is undisputed, India like other jurisdictions has struggled to come up with an optimum formulation for several reasons. First, while protecting the rights of the citizens, data protection laws need to ensure that the compliances for firms (data fiduciaries) are not so burdensome as to make even legitimate processing impractical. Second, the challenge lies in finding an adequate balance between the right to privacy and reasonable exceptions, especially where government processing of personal data is concerned. Third, given the rate at which technology evolves, an optimum data protection law design needs to be future proof — it should not be unduly focused on contemporary concerns while ignoring problems that may emerge going forward. Fourth, the law must also address the unequal bargaining power of data principals with respect to data fiduciaries. What is the scope of the present formulation of the Bill? The DPDP Bill, 2022 applies to all processing of personal data that is carried out digitally. This would include both personal data collected online and personal data collected offline but is digitised for processing. In effect, by being completely inapplicable to data processed manually, this provides for a somewhat lower degree of protection as the earlier drafts only excluded data processed manually specifically by “small entities” and not generally. Furthermore, as far as the territorial application of the law is concerned, the Bill covers processing of personal data which is collected by data fiduciaries within the territory of India and which is processed to offer goods and services within India. The current provision seems to exclude data processing by Indian data fiduciaries that collect and process personal data outside India, of data principals who are not located in India. This would impact statutory protections available for clients of Indian start-ups operating overseas, thereby impacting their competitiveness. This position further seems to be emphasised with the DPDP Bill, 2022 exempting application of most of its protections to personal data processing of non-residents of India by data fiduciaries in India. How well does the DPDP Bill, 2022 protect data principals? The bulwark of most data protection legislations consists of allowing maximum control to the data principal over their personal data. This happens by mandating a comprehensive notice to the data principal (users) on different aspects of data processing based on which the users can provide explicit consent to such processing. Also, the data fiduciary is placed with the obligation of data minimisation, which is to collect only such personal data as is required to fulfil the purpose of processing (collection limitation); process it only for the purposes stated and no more (purpose limitation) and to retain it in its servers only for so long as is required to fulfil the stated purpose (storage limitation). The current draft removes collection limitation. This would allow a data fiduciary to collect any personal data consented to by the data principal. Making collection solely contingent on consent, ignores the fact that data principals often do not have the requisite know-how of what kind of personal data is relevant for a particular purpose. It also does away with the concept of “sensitive personal data”. Depending on the increased potential of harm that can result from unlawful processing of certain categories of personal data, most data protection legislations classify these categories as “sensitive personal data”. Illustratively, this includes biometric data, health data, genetic data etc. This personal data is afforded a higher degree of protection in terms of requiring explicit consent before processing and mandatory data protection impact assessments. By doing away with this distinction, the DPDP Bill, 2022 does away with these additional protections. Additionally, the Bill also reduces the information that a data fiduciary is required to provide to the data principal. While the previous iterations required considerable information in terms of the rights of the data principals, grievance redressal mechanism, retention period of information, source of information collected etc to be provided for the data principal, the current draft reduces the scope of this information to the personal data sought to be collected and the purpose of processing the data. Moreover, the DPDP Bill, 2022 seems to have a limited understanding of the purpose of notice. It says that notice is only to be provided to take consent of the data principal. This A notice is also important for the data principal to exercise data protection rights such as the right to know what personal data is being processed by whom, whether that data needs correction or updation or not. The DPDP Bill, 2022 also introduces the concept of “deemed consent”. In effect, it provides for “reasonable purposes” for which personal data processing could be undertaken under the ground of “deemed consent”. However, there exist some concerns around this due to the vaguely worded grounds for processing such as “public interest” and the removal of additional safeguards for protection of data principals’ interests. An important addition to the right of data principals is that it recognises the right to post mortem privacy which was missing from the PDP Bill, 2019 but had been recommended by the JPC. The right to post mortem privacy would allow the data principal (user) to nominate another individual in case of death or incapacity. Main Practice Question: Previous data protection bill was inadequate that necessitated new draft legislation. Elucidate. Note: Write answer his question in the comment section. table{ border: 1px solid; } table tr, table td{ border: 1px solid; }

[INTERVIEW INITIATIVE] Think, Rethink and Perform (TRP) [DAY 6] 2022 for UPSC/IAS Personality Test!

ARCHIVES (of TRP) - > CLICK HERE Those who have appeared for UPSC Mains 2022, fill up the Google form given below. Students who fill the form will be added to a telegram group so that there can be healthy discussions with other students who will be appearing for the Interview/Personality Test. Also, Mohan sir, Bureaucrats and Ex-Bureaucrats will be interacting one on one with all the students who will be appearing for the same. REGISTER HERE – CLICK HERE Interview Discussion: Think, Rethink and Perform; (TRP) - Day 6 Set 1: Ask these questions to yourself; contemplate and come out with a concrete answer (not to be discussed on this forum). Invest at least 30 minutes in this set of questions. Which incident has inspired you the most in your life? (It can be personal or professional both) Why? Have you ever inspired someone? What was the event? Who inspires you more, common people or famous personalities? Set 2: Analyse the following issue:  Why can't freedom of speech and expression be an absolute right? Do you think celebrities and public figures should be careful in what they post and share on social media platforms? Why or why not? Substantiate your response with the help of relevant examples. We expect you to discuss the above question (Set 2) in the comments below and come out with a balanced view of the issues. Thank You IASbaba

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2022 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 25th November 2022

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 24th November 2022

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Guru Tegh Bahadur Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – History and Art and Culture Context: Recently the Shaheedi Divas of Guru Tegh Bahadur, the ninth guru of the Sikhs was commemorated. About Guru Tegh Bahadur: Tegh Bahadur was born in Amritsar on April 21, 1621 to Mata Nanki and Guru Hargobind, the sixth Sikh guru, who raised an army against the Mughals and introduced the concept of warrior saints. After Guru Ram Das, the fourth Sikh guru, the guruship became hereditary. Aurangzeb was the ruling Mughal emperor at the time Guru Tegh Bahadur’s guruship. His sermons, delivered in a mix of Sadukhri and Braj languages. While the guru was on the way back from Dhaka, Raja Ram Singh sought his help to broker a truce with the Ahom king. Gurdwara Dhubri Sahib on the banks of the Brahmaputra commemorates this peace accord. The guru was also honoured at Guwahati’s Kamakhya temple. The Guru himself went to Delhi where he revealed his identity, and was arrested by the Mughals. Aurangzeb ordered the public execution of the Guru on November 11, 1675 after the guru declined to embrace Islam. Gurdwara Sis Ganj was built on the site on which they were executed. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to Indian history, who of the following were known as “Kulah-Daran” ? (2022) Arab merchants Qalandars Persian calligraphists Sayyids Tippu Sultan Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – History and Art and Culture Context: The birth anniversary of Tippu Sultan was observed recently, bringing his contested legacy to the forefront of political discourse once again. About Tippu Sultan: Tippu Sultan was born Sultan Fateh Ali Sahab Tippu on November 10, 1750 in Devanahalli, present-day Bangalore. He was born to Hyder Ali, who rose through the ranks of the army of the Wodeyars, the then Hindu rulers of Mysore. Tipu Sultan was also known as the Tiger of Mysore. He expanded the iron-cased Mysorean rockets and commissioned the military manual Fathul Mujahidin. He deployed the rockets against advances of British forces and their allies during the Anglo-Mysore Wars, including the Battle of Pollilur and Siege of Srirangapatna. He negotiated the 1784 Treaty of Mangalore with the British, ending the Second Anglo-Mysore War. Tipu’s conflicts with his neighbours included the Maratha–Mysore War, which ended with the signing of the Treaty of Gajendragad. In the Third Anglo-Mysore War, he was forced into the Treaty of Seringapatam, losing a number of previously conquered territories. In the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War, a combined force of British East India Company troops, supported by the Marathas and the Nizam of Hyderabad defeated Tipu in 1799. Contributions and conflicts associated with Tippu Sultan: He made regular endowments during this period to many Hindu temples, including the famed Ranganathaswami Temple at Srirangapatna. Many sources mention the appointment of Hindu officers in Tipu’s administration] and his land grants and endowments to Hindu temples, which are cited as evidence for his religious tolerance. Among the punishments Tipu applied to rebels or conspirators were forced conversion and the transfer of people from their home territories to Mysore. His religious legacy has become a source of controversy in India, with some groups proclaiming him a great warrior for the faith or Ghazi for both religious and political reasons. Various sources describe the massacres, imprisonment and forced conversion of Hindus (Kodavas of Coorg, Nair’s of Malabar) and Christians (Catholics of Mangalore), the destruction of churches and temples, and the clamping down on Muslims (Mappila of Kerala, the Mahdavia Muslims, the rulers of Savanur and the people of Hyderabad State), which are sometimes cited as evidence for his intolerance. Reforms Introduced: Tippu is credited for the introduction of iron-cased rockets in warfare. Tippu Sultan introduced first modern war rockets in the Anglo Mysore Wars (though some sources say that it was his father Hyder Ali who introduced these and Tipu only improved upon existing models). Tipu Sultan also pioneered administrative and economic reforms. coinage system: Haidar Ali added pagodas on coins with Persian legends, always in the name of the Mughal emperor Shah Alam II. His successor, Tipu Sultan, continued to issue pagodas, mohurs and rupees, with legends that were completely new. As for copper, the new large paisa was commenced by Haidar Ali and was continued throughout the reign of Tipu Sultan, who added other denominations. He started a new land revenue system in Mysore, as well as introduced sericulture, which continues to employ many Kannadigas to date. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which one of the following statements does not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley? (2018) To maintain a large standing army at others expense To keep India safe from Napoleonic danger To secure a fixed income for the Company To establish British paramountcy over the Indian States Kali Tiger Reserve Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Recently Karnataka’s principal chief conservator of forest (wildlife) has requested the National Tiger Conservation Authority (Project Tiger Division) to include the Kali Tiger Reserve in the phase III of the economic valuation of tiger reserves in India. About Kali Tiger Reserve: Kali Tiger Reserve is located in Uttara Kannada District of Karnataka State. Covering the taluks of Haliyal, Karwar and Joida, the Kali Tiger Reserve (KTR) is part of the Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka. The Tiger Reserve comprises of two important protected areas of the region viz., Dandeli Wildlife Sanctuary and Anshi National Park. Dandeli Wildlife Sanctuary (475.018 sq. km) and Anshi National Park (339.866 sq km) are contiguous to each other and form a single tract of protected area located in biologically sensitive Western Ghats. The park is a habitat of Bengal tigers, black panthers and Indian elephants. Kali Tiger Reserve (KTR) in Karnataka is located in the biologically sensitive Western Ghats and a UNESCO world heritage site and a global biodiversity hotspot. The Kali River flows through the tiger reserve hence the name Kali Tiger Reserve. The park is in the ecoregions of North Western Ghats montane rain forests and North Western Ghats moist deciduous forests, both of which are deemed endangered by the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF). Other large mammals here include: Indian bison, sloth bear, Indian wild boar, bonnet macaque, northern plains grey langur, grey slender loris, barking deer (muntjac), mouse deer (chevrotain), sambar deer and spotted deer (chital or axis deer). MUST READ:   National Tiger Conservation Authority and TR’s in India Source:  The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”?  (2020) Corbett Ranthambore Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Sundarbans Q.2) The term M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in news in the context of    (2017) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna Maintenance of Tiger Reservoirs Indigenous Satellite Navigation System Security of National Highways Q.3) Consider the following statements : Animal Welfare Board of India is established under the Environments (Protection) Act, 1986 National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister Which if the statements given above is/are correct?  (2014) 1 only 2 and 3 only 2 only 1, 2 and 3 Les Phryges Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Miscellaneous Current Affairs Context: The mascots of Paris 2024 Olympic and Paralympic Games are designed like the red Phrygian cap and are called Les Phryges. About Les Phryges: The Phryges are the official mascots of Paris 2024 Olympic and Paralympic Games. They are two little female anthropomorphic Phrygian caps that are a strong symbol of France. The Phrygian cap, a soft, generally red hat, was worn by freed slaves in Phrygia, an ancient Greek kingdom in what is now Turkey. The Phrygian cap originated in the ancient country of Phrygia (in modern Turkey. The French Revolution was also the time that the earliest representations of a woman wearing a Phrygian cap — the allegorical Marianne — made an appearance in art. It is also an international symbol of liberty present in many emblems in North and South America. Source: Indian Express Climate Change Performance Index(CCPI) 2023 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment In news: CCPI 2023 was released in COP 27, assessing 59 countries and the European Union on climate change policies and actions. About CCPI: Published annually since 2005, the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) is an independent monitoring tool for tracking the climate protection performance of 59 countries and the EU. These 59 countries together account for 92% of global greenhouse gas emissions. Published by German Watch, New Climate Institute and Climate Action Network International based in Germany. The CCPI aims to enhance transparency in international climate politics and enables comparison of climate protection efforts and progress made by individual countries. The climate protection performance is assessed in four categories: GHG Emissions (40% of overall score), Renewable Energy (20% of overall score), Energy Use (20% of overall score) and Climate Policy (20% of overall score). India’s performance: India jumps 2 spots higher, and  now ranks 8th. India has been ranked amongst top 5 countries in the world, and the best among the G20 countries, based on its Climate Change performance. CCPI places India as the only G-20 country in the top 10 rank. Denmark, Sweden, Chile and Morocco as the only four small countries that were ranked above India as 4th, 5th, 6th and 7th respectively. The first, second and third ranks were not awarded to any country. In effect therefore, India’s rank is the best amongst all large economies. India earned a high rating in the GHG Emissions and Energy Use categories, while a medium for Climate Policy and Renewable Energy. As per the CCPI report, India is on track to meet its 2030 emissions targets (compatible with a well-below-2°C scenario). Various demand side flagship programs such as UJALA, PAT Scheme and Standards and Labelling Programme that have contributed significantly to this notable achievement. Source: PIB Polygraph test Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Current Affairs In news: Delhi Police approached a court to conduct a polygraph test on Aaftab Poonawala, suspected of killing his partner Shraddha Walkar, to help investigators find the missing weapon and other evidence in the murder case. About polygraph test: A polygraph test is a lie detector test. It assumes that physiological responses (heartbeat, changes in breathing, sweating, etc.) triggered when a person is lying are different from what they would be otherwise. Instruments like cardio-cuffs or sensitive electrodes are attached to the person, and variables such as blood pressure, pulse, blood flow, etc., are measured as questions are put to them. A numerical value is assigned to each response to conclude whether the person is telling the truth, is deceiving, or is uncertain. First done in the 19th century by the Italian criminologist Cesare Lombroso, who used a machine to measure changes in the blood pressure of criminal suspects during interrogation. Neither polygraph tests nor narco tests have been proven scientifically to have a 100% success rate, and remain contentious in the medical field as well. The results of the tests cannot be considered “confessions”. However, any information or material subsequently discovered with the help of such a voluntarily-taken test can be admitted as evidence, the Supreme Court said, in ‘Selvi & Ors vs State of Karnataka & Anr’ (2010). No lie detector tests should be administered except based on consent of the accused. The consent should be recorded before a judicial magistrate. Those who volunteer must have access to a lawyer, and have the physical, emotional, and legal implications of the test explained to them by police and the lawyer. the ‘Guidelines for the Administration of Polygraph Test on an Accused’ published by the National Human Rights Commission in 2000, must be strictly followed. The Supreme Court took into consideration international norms on human rights, the right to a fair trial, and the right against self-incrimination under Article 20(3) of the Constitution, as it is feared that a false confession could be obtained at times when a case needs to be solved quickly. A forcible intrusion into a person’s mental processes is an affront to human dignity and liberty, often with grave and long-lasting consequences. Source: Indian Express Loan write-off Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy In News: Banks wrote off more than Rs 10 lakh crore in loans over the last five years, according to RBI under the Right to Information (RTI) Act. They have been able to recover only 13% of the $123.86 billion they wrote off. Public sector banks write-offs accounted for 72.78% includes SBI, PNB and BOB. Private sector banks accounted for 27.2% includes ICICI (highest reduction), Axis Bank, HDFC Bank. About Loan Write Offs: A loan is an asset on the balance sheet of a bank, lent out of depositor’s money. Writing off a loan essentially means it will no longer be counted as an asset. The bank writes off a loan after the borrower has defaulted on the loan repayment and there is a very low chance of recovery. The lender then moves the defaulted loan, or NPA, out of the assets side and reports the amount as a loss. After the write-off, banks are supposed to continue their efforts to recover the loan using various options and make provisioning as well. Significance: By writing off loans, a bank can reduce the level of non-performing assets (NPAs) on its books. Amount so written off reduces the bank’s tax liability. Due to low chances of recovery from written-off loans, it raises questions about the assets or collateral against which the banks lent funds to these defaulters. MUST READ NPAs Source: Indian Express Previous Year Question Q1.) What is the importance of the term “Interest Coverage Ratio” of a firm in India?(2020) It helps in understanding the present risk of a firm that a bank is going to give loan to. It helps in evaluating the emerging risk of a firm that a bank is going to give loan to. The higher a borrowing firm’s level of Interest Coverage Ratio, the worse is its ability to service its debt. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Credit-deposit (CD) ratio Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy In News: RBI’s data on State-wise C-D ratio of scheduled commercial banks according to place of utilisation was released. Ratio of the Northern and Western Regions declined in 2022 even as that of the North-Eastern, Eastern, Central and Southern Regions improved. States that saw improvement are: Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, and Rajasthan States that saw a decline are: Punjab, Chandigarh, and Delhi About CD ratio: Credit-Deposit Ratio = Total Advances/Total Deposits *100 It is the ratio of how much a bank lends out of deposits it has mobilised. It indicates how much of each rupee of deposit goes towards credit markets in a particular region. For example, a CD ratio of 75% means that three-fourth of deposits of banks has been given out as loans. A very low ratio indicates banks are not making full use of their resources (i.e. deposits), shows poor credit growth. Alternatively, a high ratio indicates more reliance on deposits for lending purposes and may be risky. It may become difficult to cover any unforeseen fund requirements, may affect capital adequacy and asset-liability mismatch. CD ratio helps in assessing a bank’s liquidity and indicates its health. RBI does not stimulate a minimum or maximum level for the ratio. It is used as a broad indicator for measuring the inter-State disparities in banking development and the role of banking in economic activity. Source The Hindu BusinessLine Previous Year Question Q.1) Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to (2018) weak administrative machinery illiteracy high population density high capital-output ratio Q.2) A decrease in tax to GDP ratio of a country indicates which of the following? (2015) Slowing economic growth rate Less equitable distribution of national income Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither1 nor 2 Development of Great Nicobar Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change gave environmental clearance for the ambitious Rs 72,000 crore development project on the strategically important Great Nicobar Island. The project is to be implemented in three phases over the next 30 years. About the Great Nicobar Island: Great Nicobar, the southernmost of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, has an area of 910 sq km. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are a cluster of about 836 islands in the eastern Bay of Bengal, the two groups of which are separated by the 150-km wide Ten Degree Channel. The Andaman Islands lie to the north of the channel, and the Nicobar Islands to the south. Indira Point on the southern tip of Great Nicobar Island is India’s southernmost point, less than 150 km from the northernmost island of the Indonesian archipelago. Great Nicobar is home to two national parks, a biosphere reserve, and the Shompen and Nicobarese tribal peoples, along with ex-servicemen from Punjab, Maharashtra, and Andhra Pradesh who were settled on the island in the 1970s. The Shompen are hunter-gatherers who depend on forest and marine resources for sustenance. An estimated 237 Shompen and 1,094 Nicobarese individuals now live in a 751 sq km tribal reserve, some 84 sq km of which is proposed to be denotified. The approximately 8,000 settlers who live on the island are engaged in agriculture, horticulture, and fishing. The Great Nicobar Island has tropical wet evergreen forests, mountain ranges reaching almost 650 m above sea level, and coastal plains. Fourteen species of mammals, 71 species of birds, 26 species of reptiles, 10 species of amphibians, and 113 species of fish are found on the island, some of which are endangered. The leatherback sea turtle is the island’s flagship species. About proposed projects: A “greenfield city” has been proposed, including an International Container Transhipment Terminal (ICTT), a greenfield international airport, a power plant, and a township for the personnel who will implement the project. As per NITI Ayog, “The proposed port will allow Great Nicobar to participate in the regional and global maritime economy by becoming a major player in cargo transhipment,’’ The port will be controlled by the Indian Navy, while the airport will have dual military-civilian functions and will cater to tourism as well. Roads, public transport, water supply and waste management facilities, and several hotels have been planned to cater to tourists. A total 166.1 sq km along the southeaster and southern coasts of the island have been identified for project along a coastal strip of width between 2 km and 4 km. Some 130 sq km of forests have been sanctioned for diversion, and 9.64 lakh trees are likely to be felled. Development activities are proposed to commence in the current financial year, and the port is expected to be commissioned by 2027–28. More than 1 lakh new direct jobs and 1.5 lakh indirect jobs are likely to be created on the island over the period of development Benefits of the Projects: The island has a lot of tourism potential, but the government’s greater goal is to leverage the locational advantage of the island for economic and strategic reasons. Great Nicobar is equidistant from Colombo to the southwest and Port Klang and Singapore to the southeast, and positioned close to the East-West international shipping corridor, through which a very large part of the world’s shipping trade passes. The proposed ICTT can potentially become a hub for cargo ships travelling on this route. The proposal to develop Great Nicobar was first floated in the 1970s, and its importance for national security and consolidation of the Indian Ocean Region has been repeatedly underlined. Increasing Chinese assertion in the Bay of Bengal and the Indo-Pacific has added great urgency to this imperative in recent years. Environmental and other concerns: The proposed massive infrastructure development in an ecologically important and fragile region, including the felling of almost a million trees, has alarmed many environmentalists. The loss of tree cover will not only affect the flora and fauna on the island, it will also lead to increased runoff and sediment deposits in the ocean, impacting the coral reefs in the area, they have cautioned. Coral reefs, already under threat from warming oceans, are of enormous ecological importance. Environmentalists have also flagged the loss of mangroves on the island as a result of the development project. India has successfully translocated a coral reef from the Gulf of Mannar to the Gulf of Kutch earlier. Government’s stand on the projects: According to the government, expediting the project is of paramount national security and strategic importance. The project site is outside the eco-sensitive zones of Campbell Bay and Galathea National Park. The Centre has said that the development area is only a small percentage of the area of the island and its forest cover, and that 15 per cent of the development area itself will be green cover and open spaces. The Zoological Survey of India is currently in the process of assessing how much of the reef will have to be relocated for the project. The government has said that a conservation plan for the leatherback turtle is also being put in place. Thus, the developmental of project is necessary while recognising its significance of national security, strategic location along with socio-economic importance, however the project need to be carried out after proper Social-economic assessment and its impact. The culture , traditional and practices of local tribal communities should not be compromised at the cost of development then only this development will be a sustainable development. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) “Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations? (2022) Restoration of damaged coral reefs Development of building materials using plant residues Identification of areas for exploration/extraction of shale gas Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests/protected areas Local Governance in mitigating climate change Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Environment and Disaster Management) Context: If India has to achieve the set of goals enunciated in the ‘Panchamrit’ resolution of the COP26 climate summit in Glasgow 2021, it is necessary that panchayati raj institutions, the third tier of government which are closest to the people, are involved. India’s climate action commitments: The latest updated Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) of India is a step towards India’s goal to reach net-zero emissions (NZE) by 2070. Indian Prime Minister at UNFCCC CoP-26 (Glasgow, 2021) announced its enhanced climate commitments — the “Panchamrit” : strengthening emissions intensity of its GDP by 45% by 2030 from its 2005 levels 50% of cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel-based energy resources by 2030. Reduce 1 billion carbon emissions by 2030 Produce 500GW non-fossil fuel energy capacity by 2030 Achieving NZE by 2070 Role of panchayat Raj System in climate action: Although international and national policies have been formulated with large-scale investments, it is necessary to have a suitable local action plan for implementation and enforcement, initiated and coordinated by local governments. In the context of greater devolution that has taken place, panchayats, as local governments, can play a pivotal role in tackling many of the causes and effects of climate change. Over the past few decades, there has been a manyfold increase in the number of climate-related national disasters. Much of India’s population still lives in the rural areas and is involved in agriculture and other Agri-based activities. The greater variability in rainfall and temperatures, etc. experienced of late has directly affected the livelihood and well-being of millions of rural households. India’s National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) 2008 identifies a range of priority areas for coordinated intervention at the national and State levels. However, there would have been better results had panchayati raj institutions been given a greater role. Through the ongoing decentralisation process which ensures people’s participation, panchayats can play a crucial and frontline role in coordinating effective responses to climate risks, enabling adaptation and building climate-change resilient communities. Case study 1: The Meenangadi movement in Kerala In recent years, many panchayats have come forward with the concept of carbon neutrality, a prominent example being Meenangadi gram panchayat in Kerala’s Wayanad district. In 2016, the panchayat envisaged a project called ‘Carbon neutral Meenangadi’ with following activities: There were campaigns, classes and studies to begin with. An awareness programme was conducted initially. A greenhouse gases emission inventory was prepared. The panchayat was found to be carbon positive. An action plan was prepared by organising gram sabha meetings. Socio-economic surveys and energy-use mapping were carried out. Several multi sector schemes were implemented to reduce emissions, increase carbon sequestration, and preserve the ecology and bio-diversity. ‘Tree banking’ was one of landmark schemes introduced to aid carbon neutral activities which encouraged the planting of more trees by extending interest-free loans. The planted trees were geo-tagged to monitor their growth. The entire community was involved in the process, with school students, youth, and technical and academic institutions given different assignments. Local economic development was another thrust area where LED bulb manufacturing and related micro-enterprises were initiated. Case study 2: Palli gram panchayat in Jammu and Kashmir The Palli gram panchayat in Jammu and Kashmir that has followed the same people-centric model, with specific local activities. The panchayat has prepared a climate-resilient plan where villagers have been made aware of climate change Mitigation factors such as: reducing energy consumption cutting down on the use of fossil fuels use of solar energy abandoning plastics promoting plantation and water conservation measures Bio-gas plants A solar plant (500KW) has been installed to power households. A Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP) for 2022-23 is being prepared by integrating a climate-resilient plan. The other examples include: In Seechewal gram panchayat, the Kali Bein River was rejuvenated with people’s involvement. Odanthurai panchayat in Tamil Nadu has its own windmill Tikekarwadi gram panchayat in Maharashtra is well known for its extensive use of biogas plants and green energy production. Chapparapadavu gram panchayat in Kerala has several green islands that have been nurtured by the community. Suggestive measures for the local governance system: The Ministry of Panchayati Raj has focused its attention on localising the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) on a thematic basis. ‘Clean and Green Village’ has been identified as the fifth theme where panchayats can take up activities on: natural resource management biodiversity protection waste management afforestation activities. According to the latest data, 1,09,135 gram panchayats have prioritised ‘Clean & Green Village’ as one of their focus areas for 2022-23.The Ministry has highlighted the need for the documentation of best practices and for wider dissemination. The net result is that many panchayats are coming forward with their eco plans. The integrated Panchayat Development Plan prepared by all panchayats is a stepping stone towards addressing many of the environmental concerns of villages. Therefore, in this modern age of rapid technological advancements and digital transformation, India’s rural local bodies are silently contributing their strength to ensuring the global target of carbon neutrality, as envisaged in the UN conference on climate change. Source: The Hindu Gender Equality in Labour markets Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 1 Women Empowerment, GS 3 Economy Context: As the world hits a population milestone of 8 billion, India is all set to become the world’s most populous country in 2023, much before 2027, as predicted earlier by the United Nations Population Division. India is poised to gain a massive number of working-age individuals in the next 25 years, almost every fifth in the world. Such a huge potential of human resources will not benefit Indian economy, unless we are able to enhance women’s participation on a significant scale. Challenges for females: Low Female labour force participation rate (FLFPR) India was placed at 140 of 156 countries in 2021 by The Global Gender Gap Report of the World Economic Forum. Further, it remains in declining mode, having fallen from 30.5% in 2000 to 21.1% in 2019, and 18.6% in 2020, by International Labour Organisation figures; It hit a record low of 15.5% during the first covid lockdown when many urban women either quit or lost their jobs Non-diverse growth: A 2020 research study observed that a structural shift and sectoral transformation in the Indian economy (1983-2018) made no impact on the pattern of women’s employment in India, both quantitatively and qualitatively. In terms of absolute numbers, it decreased from 148.6 million in 2004-05 to 104.1 million in 2017-18. Overdependence on agriculture: With little space for job diversification, women continued to overcrowd the agriculture sector, despite its declining share of the economy. Non-farm sectors did not open many opportunities for them. Workplace Discrimination: 90% of working women are in the informal sector and hence, they are subject to high degrees of gender discrimination in wages, job and social security. Oxfam India’s India Discrimination Report 2022 – wages are lower for women overwhelmingly because of discriminatory practices and only slightly due to lack of education and work experience. In 2019-20, about 60% of men (aged 15 years and above) had either regular salaried and self-employed jobs, while only 20% for women. Social hurdles: A significant number of qualified women were found unwilling to join the labour market due to ‘family responsibilities’. The Economic Survey of 2020, 60% of women in the 15-59-years age group are engaged in full-time housework, as compared to 1% of men. 84% of Indians agree to the view that in a situation of job scarcity, “men have more right to opportunities than women”. Low GDP Contribution: Bloomberg Economics analysis estimated that though Indian women represent 48% of India’s population, they contribute only around 17% of GDP, compared to 40% in China. Other factors: Several cross-cutting factors like a disproportionate burden of child care, an income effect, logistical barriers of mobility and safety, and socio-cultural norms around marriage, etc, have also acted as deterrents to Indian women entering our labour market. A 2019 UNDP study – India has so far seen only a downward trend in women’s workforce participation as their education has risen, and that combined participation (labour market and/or educational) covered only 55-60% of young working age women. Suggestions for future: India’s trend of female labour supply doesn’t follow a U-shaped curve in keeping with the typical pattern of GDP growth and a rise in female literacy; there is a persistent demand-supply mismatch which must be addressed. Increase participation in STEM: even though 43% of India’s Science, Technology, engineering, and Math (STEM) graduates were women, only 14% of the STEM workforce is female (AISHE Report). Fill Academia-Industry gap: Better educational achievements have not necessarily converted to women’s sustained workforce participation. Investment in social sectors: Many Asian countries like Singapore, Taiwan, China and South Korea have harnessed the benefits of a growing youth population by imparting quality education and industry-relevant skills, and offering the youth good health services. India’s investment in education is 3.1% of GDP (2021-22), and only 1% on health. There is high level of unfulfilled requirements for reproductive health services (by the National Family Health Survey of 2019-21). Focus on skilling: Only 4.7% of India’s total workforce have undergone any formal skills training (3.8% of adult women and 9.3% of adult men, by NSSO’s 68th round). Skill programmes in India also suffer from a gender bias, which reinforces our labour market imbalance. Securing their future: Employed women are at greater risk of being displaced by automation, as a McKinsey Global Institute report cautioned. Gender differentials in access to education and skill development must be removed on a priority basis Social infrastructure to relieve women from their ‘double burden’ of work should be expanded, and a ‘women-friendly’ work culture fostered. Way forward: India expects to gain eight million youth annually. Unless this human capital, particularly of women, is optimally utilized, our economy will perform worse than it can. An Asian Development Bank study said that if the participation of women were to equal that of men, India’s GDP could be 60% higher in 2025. India has an ambitious Amrit Kaal target of having half its workforce female by 2047. Source: LiveMint Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) With reference to Indian economy, consider the following statements: A loan write-off refers to the selling of advances by a bank. Credit-deposit ratio reflects the liquidity and capital adequacy of a bank Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) ‘Global Gender Gap Report’ is prepared by the The World Bank International Monetary Fund World Economic Forum Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Guru Tegh Bahadur: His sermons delivered in a mix of Sanskrit and Braj languages. He was the contemporary of Aurangzeb. He was also honoured at Guwahati’s Kamakhya temple. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’24th November 2022 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 23rd November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2022 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 24th November 2022

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

[MOST TRUSTED] TLP (Phase I) – ONLINE FREE Initiative for UPSC Mains 2023 – Daily Mains Answer Writing Programme- Starting from 28th November!

Hello Friends,Do you remember that brilliant six that Virat Kohli hit against Haris Rauf? Wasn’t that surreal? Everything about the shot – Kohli’s stance, back lift, hand eye coordination, and follow through were spot on. It was a picture perfect moment. But any picture of that shot couldn’t capture the process behind the shot. To produce that seemingly effortless shot in the match, Kohli must have practised the same shot hundreds of times in the nets. He has spent years to perfect his fitness and strength to be able to play that spectacular shot. While he is getting all the accolades today, his success is a great example of the significance of process for producing desirable resultsIn the game of UPSC also, particularly the Mains stage, process is crucial. To produce 20 perfect answers in a paper, you have to start the process of mastering the art of answer writing, one that involves commitment, consistency and eagerness to learn from mistakes. You must commit to the process of perfecting your writing game on a consistent basis. This is where IASbaba’s Think, Learn and Perform (TLP) initiative comes into play. Consider TLP as a net practice set up where you will be challenged with all sorts of deliveries in the form of daily questions. Your job is to tackle those with patience, fail in the beginning and learn from your failures in a quest to improve your game. If you make TLP a routine process of your preparation, you will definitely do better in the real test. The philosophy of TLP is simple – make answer writing a small but integral part of your preparation to improve your answer writing skills continuously and consistently over a period of time. IASbaba posts 3 questions on a daily basis based on a micro plan that is shared in advance. You visit IASbaba’s TLP portal, answer the questions in a time-bound manner, share the same with IASbaba and other aspirants on the portal, get access to quality synopsis, receive feedback from IASbaba and peers, learn from your mistakes and move on to the next set of questions the coming day. Now, imagine sticking to this process for a couple of months! We are pretty sure that you will experience a huge improvement in the level of your answers – a fact that has been mentioned by hundreds of toppers who were part of the TLP initiative in the past. Peer feedback is also promoted to have engaging discussions on the questions posted. Peer review is an important practice as when you are reviewing your fellow aspirant’s answer, you have turned the table and you are acting as an evaluator. It is important because, this way you will tend to find the mistakes in the answer which in turn will improve your own answers as you will refrain from committing them. We also provide detailed synopsis to ensure that you get a ready reference to all the questions posted under the TLP initiative. The synopsis that are provided are articulated in such a way that you can prepare an entire topic from them.Click Here To Read The Complete Details & Schedule

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 23rd November 2022

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Rani Lakshmibai Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – History and Art and Culture Context: The Prime Minister of India has remembered  Rani Lakshmibai on her Jayanti and said that her courage and monumental contribution to our nation can never be forgotten. About Rani Lakshmibai: The Lakshmibai, the Rani of Jhansi, was an Indian queen of the Maratha princely state of Jhansi in North India currently present in Jhansi district in Uttar Pradesh, India. She was one of the leading figures of the Indian Rebellion of 1857 and became a symbol of resistance to the British Raj for Indian nationalists. When growing up with Nana Sahib and Tatya Tope, she got training in martial arts, sword fighting and horse riding and became proficient in them. She was more independent than other girls of her age, due to her unconventional upbringing. In 1853, when the Maharaja of Jhansi died, the East India Company took advantage of the situation and applied the Doctrine of Lapse to annex Jhansi. The Lakshmibai fought bravely against the British and gave a tough fight to Sir Hugh Rose so as to save her empire from annexation. She died fighting on the battlefield on June 17, 1858. When the Indian National Army started its first female unit (in 1943), it was named after the valiant queen of Jhansi. About Doctrine of Lapse: It was an annexation policy followed widely by Lord Dalhousie when he was India’s Governor-General from 1848 to 1856. According to this, any princely state that was under the direct or indirect control of the East India Company where the ruler did not have a legal male heir would be annexed by the company. As per this, any adopted son of the Indian ruler could not be proclaimed as heir to the kingdom. By applying the doctrine of lapse, Dalhousie annexed the States of: Satara (1848 A.D.), Jaitpur, and Sambalpur (1849 A.D.), Baghat (1850 A.D.), Udaipur (1852 A.D.), Jhansi (1853 A.D.), and Nagpur (1854 A.D.) Source: PIB Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to the history of India, “Ulgulan” or the Great Tumult is the description of which of the following events? (2020) The Revolt of 1857 The Mappila Rebellion of 1921 The Indigo Revolt of 1859 – 60 Birsa Munda’s Revolt of 1899-1900 Sukhatal Lake and Nainital Lake Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Hearing a suo motu Public Interest Litigation (PIL) on preservation of Sukhatal Lake in Nainital, the Uttarakhand High Court recently directed the State to stop all construction activities on the lakebed and posted the matter for further hearing. About Sukha Tal Lake: Sukha Tal cocooned in Mallital was earlier a part of the pristine Nainital Lake. Sukha Tal or Suka Tal literally suggests dry lake which is located half a km from the picturesque lake of Nainital. It is a fresh water lake surrounded by the dense pine and oak forests. It is believed that Sukhatal is a feeder lake for Naini Lake, as it acts as upstream storage for Naini Lake during monsoon by holding the runoff from catchment of water that would have otherwise flown out, thereby increasing erosion and silt deposition in Naini Lake. About Naini Tal Lake: Nainital Lake, notably known as Naini Lake is the main attraction of Nainital town as well of Uttarakhand. Bounded by panoramic seven hills, Nainital Lake is a much loved spot among romantic travellers around the planet. This lake was found long back in 1839 by P.Baron and is at an altitude of 2,000 meters above sea level which makes it one of the most visited lakes in India. At the foot of the Kumaon Hills in the Indian state of Uttarakhand lies a stunning hill-station called Nainital surrounded by a number of hills; Mount Ayarpatha, Mount Naina and Mount Deopatha being the most important ones. In fact, the name of the town, Nainital, which can be decoded to ‘Lake of the Eye’ with ‘Naina’ meaning ‘eye’ and ‘tal’ meaning ‘lake’, originated from this lake’s name. Legend has it that the three sages Atri, Pulaha and Pulastya had visited the town and could not find any water and so they dug up land for a lake and filled the hollow area with water brought from Lake Mansarovar in Tibet. That is why a dip in this lake is measured very holy, the same to a dip in the sacred Mansarovar Lake. Naini Lake has two parts namely Mallital and Tallital. Northern division is called as Mallital while Southern division known as Tallital. Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) Consider the following pairs: Wetland/Lake:                                         Location Hokera Wetland                            Punjab Renuka Wetland                     Himachal Pradesh Rudrasagar Lake                           Tripura Sasthamkotta                           Tamil Nadu How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) Which one of the following is an artificial lake? (2018) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh) Nainital (Uttarakhand) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh) Olive ridley Turtle Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: A large number of the endangered Olive Ridley turtles have started arriving for mating at the Gahirmatha marine sanctuary in Odisha. About Olive ridley Turtle: The Olive ridley turtles are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world, inhabiting warm waters of the Pacific, Atlantic and Indian oceans. These turtles, along with their cousin the Kemps ridley turtle, are best known for their unique mass nesting called Arribada, where thousands of females come together on the same beach to lay eggs. Though found in abundance, their numbers have been declining over the past few years, and the species is recognized as Vulnerable by the IUCN Red list. Males and females grow to the same size; however, females have a slightly more rounded carapace as compared to the male. They are carnivores, and feed mainly on jellyfish, shrimp, snails, crabs, molluscs and a variety of fish and their eggs. These turtles spend their entire lives in the ocean, and migrate thousands of kilometers between feeding and mating grounds in the course of a year. Interestingly, females return to the very same beach from where they first hatched, to lay their eggs. During this phenomenal nesting, up to 600,000 and more females emerge from the waters, over a period of five to seven days, to lay eggs. The coast of Orissa in India is the largest mass nesting site for the Olive-ridley, followed by the coasts of Mexico and Costa Rica. They usually mate between November and January and the breeding period is of eight months from October to May. To reduce accidental killing in India, the Odisha government has made it mandatory for trawls to use Turtle Excluder Devices (TEDs), a net specially designed with an exit cover which allows the turtles to escape while retaining the catch. About Gahirmatha marine sanctuary: It is Located within the close vicinity of the Bhitarkanika National Park is Odisha’s only Turtle Sanctuary. A part of the Gahirmatha Beach, the Turtle Sanctuary is the place where one can spot Olive Ridley Turtles. These turtles travel all the way from South Pacific Ocean to breed on the coast of Gahirmatha. About half a million of these species visit the beach every year for mating. It extendes from Dhamara river mouth in the north to Brahmani River moth in the south. The Gahirmatha Marine Wildlife Sanctuary is the only marine sanctuary of Orissa. In 1997 the Government of Orissa declared the area as Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary considering its ecological significance and diverse floral and faunal resources. The Gahirmatha beach has been a cradle to adult sea turtles and their babies since time immemorial. Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) Consider the following statements: Some species of turtles are herbivores Some species of fish are herbivores. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores Some species of snakes are viviparous Which of the statements given above are correct? (2019) 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) If you want to see gharials in their natural best habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit? (2017) Bhitarkanika Mangroves Chambal River Pullicat Lake Deepor Beel Central Depositories Services India Ltd (CDSL) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently certain services at CDSL were disrupted due to a suspected cyber-attack. About CDSL: Central Depository Services Limited (“CDSL”) was found in 1999 to fulfil one goal: Convenient, Dependable and secured depository services. CDSL is a government-registered share depository, alongside its other state-owned counterpart National Securities Depository Ltd (NSDL). Over two decades later, everything they are involved in the values we have built on, dematerialisation of various asset classes, e-services – have all been in support of that singular goal, at an affordable cost. They are a Market Infrastructure Institution (MII) and a crucial part of the Capital market structure, providing services to all Market participants – Exchanges, Clearing Corporations, Depository Participants (DPs), Issuers and Investors. A Depository is a facilitator for holding of securities in the dematerialised form and an enabler for securities transactions. Arth is a CSR Initiative from Central Depository Services (India) Ltd. with a mission to make financial education simple and accessible for all. Share depositories hold shares in an electronic or dematerialized form and enable securities transactions, playing a similar role as banks in handling cash and fixed deposits. While banks keep customers cash in electronic form, share depositories help consumers store shares in a dematerialized form. Regulation: The Depository Act of 1996 regulates the establishment and operation of a depository in India. SEBI is the governing body that regulates the functioning of any depository. About National Securities Depository Limited (NSDL): NSDL is India’s first & largest depository. It was set up on November 8, 1996, formed with the purpose of handling the securities held in dematerialized form in the Indian capital market. National Securities Depository Limited (NSDL) is promoted by the National Stock Exchange, Industrial Development Bank of India, and Unit Trust of India. Benefits of Share Depository: Fast transfer: Depository holds security in electronic form, allowing for its easy transfer between seller and buyer. Safety: Depository maintains and safeguards the securities on behalf of the investors. These investors do not need to spend time on its maintenance. Liquidity creation: Depositories offer mortgages or loans against securities held by investors which may be used for the purchase of other securities. Easy investment: The process of investment in share market has been simplified with the introduction of depository. There is no need for the procedure to change ownership. Faster settlement: The depository enables T-2 rolling settlement, which is faster than the traditional method using physical share certificate. Reduction in brokerage: Transfer of securities through depositories reduces the back office paper work. As a result, the brokerage charged by brokers is also reduced considerably. Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: Retail investors through Demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market The “Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching” is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. The “Central Depository Services Ltd” is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Lachit Barphukan Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Medieval History In news: The Assam Chief Minister launched an event to mark the 400th anniversary of Lachit Barphukan, a celebrated general of the Ahom dynasty, who ruled Assam for 600 years. The minister claimed that the Mughals never conquered northeastern India and South India but these facts have been distorted. Ahom kingdom: It was a late medieval kingdom in the Brahmaputra Valley in Assam. It was established by Sukaphaa, a Tai prince from Mong Ma. The kingdom is well known for maintaining its sovereignty for nearly 600 years and successfully resisting Mughal expansion in Northeast India. Between 1615 and 1682, the Mughal Empire made a series of attempts, under Jahangir and then Aurangzeb, to annex the Ahom kingdom. In January 1662, Mughal Governor of Bengal Mir Jumla’s forces engaged with the Ahom army and went on to occupy part of the territory under Ahom rule. Between 1667 and 1682, the Ahoms under a series of rulers, starting with Chakradhwaj Singha, (reigned 1663-70) launched a counter-offensive to reclaim lost territories. This resulted in the battle of Saraighat and Battle of Alaboi. Battle of Alaboi: It was fought on August 5, 1669 in the Alaboi Hills near Dadara in North Guwahati. Aurangzeb dispatched the Rajput Raja Ram Singh I to recapture territories won back by the Ahoms. Borphukan relied on his knowledge of the territory and engaged in guerrilla warfare, carrying out assaults on the Mughals. After initial setbacks, Ram Singh sent his entire battery of Rajput soldiers and Mughal veterans and turned the tide of the battle and Mughals had won. Ten thousand Ahoms died in the battle. Battle of Saraighat: It was fought in 1671 on the Brahmaputra river at Saraighat, now in Guwahati. Between the Mughal Empire (led by the Kachwaha raja, Ram Singh I), and the Ahom Kingdom (led by Lachit Borphukan). Unlike in Alaboi, Borphukan in Saraighat enticed the Mughals into a naval battle. They lured the Mughal fleet into moving ahead by feigning an attack with a few ships from the front. The Mughals vacated the waters behind them, from where the main Ahom fleet attacked and achieved a decisive victory. Every Assamese soldier showed specimens of versatility – expertise in rowing boats, shooting arrows, digging trenches and wielding guns and cannons. Lachit Barphukan: He was an able commander of Ahom Kingdom and is known for his leadership in the 1671 ‘Battle of Saraighat’ where he defeated Mughal army. Lachit Barphukan represented a time when the “Assamese race was united and able to fight an alien, formidable force such as the Mughals”. His courage is even more lauded because he was terribly ill during the war. Today, Lachit Barphukan’s victory is honoured with a gold medal given every year to the best cadet graduating from the National Defence Academy (NDA). A bust of Lachit stands at the NDA’s entrance. Source: The Hindu Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment In news: A group of women of the La Carbonera community, led by Janet Arteaga, brought a natural spring in central Mexico back to life and used their traditional botanical knowledge to transform the land around it into an orchard of medicinal plants. An agreement between Janet and Provital — a Spanish company on exchanging knowledge on the properties of medicinal plants was sealed under the Nagoya Protocol of the CBD. About CBD: The Convention was opened for signature at the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro 1992 and entered into force on 29 December 1993. It is the international legal instrument for the conservation of biological diversity the sustainable use of its components the fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources It has been ratified by 196 nations including India. Its main function is to assist governments in the implementation of the CBD and its programmes of work. The CBD’s governing body – the Conference of the Parties (COP) meets every two years. The Secretariat is in Montreal, Canada The 15th COP will be held in Montreal, Canada. Supplementary agreements: Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety (2000): is an international treaty governing the movements of living modified organisms (LMOs) resulting from modern biotechnology from one country to another. Nagoya Protocol About Nagoya Protocol: The Nagoya Protocol was adopted on 29 October 2010 in Nagoya, Japan, and entered into force on 12 October 2014. The Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization (ABS) to the Convention on Biological Diversity is a supplementary agreement to the CBD. It provides a transparent legal framework for the effective implementation of one of the three objectives of the CBD: the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources. Mexico became one of the founding members of the CBD and signed the Nagoya Protocol in 2011. Miscellaneous: Axolotl is a Mexican endemic salamander that has regenerative properties and can grow back its limbs and organs. In Mexico, it is found exclusively in the Xochimilco Lake Complex. IUCN status: critically endangered Dioscorea composita is a Mexican yam that is used to control women’s menstrual cycles. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Question Q1.) With reference to ‘Global Environment Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct?(2014) It serves as financial mechanism for ‘Convention on Biological Diversity’ and ‘United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change’ It undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at global level It is an agency under OECD to facilitate the transfer of technology and funds to underdeveloped countries with specific aim to protect their environment Both (a) and (b) Kosasthalaiyar river & Ennore Creek Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Geography In News: The Water Resources Department has called for tenders to build a training wall at the mouth of Ennore creek to prevent sand deposit and flooding along the Kosasthalaiyar river, based on the recommendations of the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT). About the project: Training walls are a collection of boulders. While they are like groynes, the training walls would prevent sedimentation and flooding near the creek. The structure would divert the silt towards the ocean side and enable the mouth to be open. The training wall would provide better access to small fishing boats and also shelter them in the creek during storms, in the Ennore Creek. About Kosasthalaiyar river: Kosasthalaiyar river or Kortalaiyar, is one of the three rivers that flow in the Chennai metropolitan area. the Kosasthalaiyar to the north the Adyar river to the south the Cooum flowing between them across central Chennai It originates near Pallipattu in Thiruvallur district and drains into the Bay of Bengal. Its catchment area is spread over Vellore, Chitoor, North Arcot, Thiruvallur and Chennai districts. Tributaries: Nagari river (north) From Poondi reservoir, the river flows through Thiruvallur District, enters the Chennai metropolitan area, and joins the sea at Ennore Creek. Ennore Creek: Ennore Creek is a backwater located in Chennai along the Coromandel Coast of the Bay of Bengal. It is in the zone comprising lagoons with salt marshes and backwaters, submerged under water during high tide and forming an arm of the sea with the opening to the Bay of Bengal at the creek. The creek sustains the livelihood of the fisherfolk families in many neighbouring villages. Kosasthalaiyar river had a maximum flood discharge capacity of nearly 1.25 lakh cusecs (cubic feet per second) near the creek. As the creek’s mouth was open for a width of up to 80 metres, areas upstream of the Kosasthalaiyar river, including Manali New Town, were inundated whenever the river had a peak flow.                    National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT): Established in 1993 as an autonomous society under the Ministry of Earth Sciences in India. NIOT is managed by a Governing Council and is headed by a director. It is based in Chennai. The major aim is to develop reliable indigenous technologies to solve various engineering problems associated with harvesting of non-living and living resources in India’s exclusive economic zone, which is about two-thirds of the land area of India. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Question Q1.) Consider the following pairs: (2019) Famous place                          River Pandharpur             Chandrabhaga Tiruchirappalli             Cauvery Hampi                        Malaprabha Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Hwasong-17 missile Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology In News: North Korea test fired its massive new Hwasong-17 intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM). The missile flew nearly 1000 km for 69 minutes and reached a maximum altitude of 6,041 km. Hwasong-15 was first tested in 2017 About the missile: The Hwasong-17 is nuclear-armed North Korea’s biggest missile yet. It is the largest road-mobile, liquid-fuelled Intercontinental Ballistic Missile (ICBM) in the world. Its diameter is 2.4-2.5 meters and total mass when fully fuelled is 80,000-110,000 kg. It is launched directly from a transporter, erector, launcher (TEL) vehicle. It can travel as far as 15,000 km, enough to reach continental United States. It can potentially be used for a multiple independently targetable reentry vehicle (MIRV) system, allowing a single missile to drop nuclear warheads on different targets. India’s ballistic missiles: Agni series: The Agni-V is an Indian intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) with a range of over 5,000 km with 3 stages. India first tested the solid-fueled missile in 2012 Prithvi series: The Prithvi-II is an Indian short-range ballistic missile with a range of 350 km. In service with the Indian Air Force since 2003, the Prithvi-II serves as a nuclear delivery vehicle. Prahaar: The Prahaar is a short-range, solid propellant, road-mobile ballistic missile designed for tactical strikes against close range targets to replace its shorter range Prithvi-1. Sagarika/Shaurya: The K-15 Sagarika is an Indian submarine-launched ballistic missile (SLBM) with a range of approximately 700 km and is powered by a two-stage solid propellant motor. Source Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?(2014) It is surface-to-surface missile. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only. It can deliver one tonne nuclear warhead about 7500 km away. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Sufism in India Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (History and Art and Culture) Context: In ‘In Search of the Divine: Living Histories of Sufism in India’, Rana Safvi weaves together a narrative that combines history and geography, myth and contemporary practices of Sufism. About Sufism in India: Meaning of Sufi: It literally refers to “the act of wearing wool,” perhaps referring to the shawls worn by the itinerant preachers who travelled the length and breadth of the Middle East, Central Asia and South Asia. Philosophy: The philosophy of Sufism believes in one God and regards every individual and everything else as part of Him. The Sufi saints preached that ‘God is one’, all is in God’ , ‘nothing is beyond outside Him’ and ‘one can find God by renouncing everything except loving devotion to God.’ Sufism in the Indian Subcontinent: The Sufi movement started in Persia and evolved into a well-developed movement by the 11th century. Sufism found its way into India during the eleventh and twelfth centuries when many Sufi saints came to India particularly in Multan and Lahore of the Indian subcontinent. Bifurcated into Orders: During this time, the Sufis were organized in orders (silsilahs). The orders were generally led by a prominent mystic who lived in Khanqah (hospice) along with his disciples. The connection between the Pir (teacher) and his murids (disciples) was a vital part of the Sufi system. Every Pir nominated a successor or wali to carry on his work. The Sufi orders are divided into two groups: Ba-shara, which followed the Islamic Law (shara) and Be-shara, which was not bound by it (shara). Both types of orders prevailed in India, the latter being followed more by wandering saints and qalandars. Orders of Sufism: The Sufis organized into several orders or silsilahs. Abul Fazal mentioned fourteen such orders. Some of them became quite popular in India. The Chisti Order: It originated outside India and its founder saint was Khawaja Abdul Chisti. In India, it was introduced by Khawaja Muinuddin Chishti and was born in Persia. He visited different places of Islamic learning in Central Asia and, finally, reached India in 1200 A.D. He settled himself at Ajmer and became very popular all over Northern India. Both the Hindus and Muslims paid homage to him. The Mughal emperor, Akbar paid homage at his Dargah. Among his disciples were Sheikh Hamiduddin of Nagaur and Qutubuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki. Shaikh Farid or Baba Farid was also a famous Chisti Saint. He raised the Chisti order to the status of an all-India organization. The most famous Chisti Saint was Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya who was the disciple of Baba Farid. He had the chance of watching the reigns of several Sultans of Delhi. Amongst his followers was noted writer Amir Khusrau. Another famous Saint was Shaikh Nasiruddin Mahmud, popularly known as Nasiruddin Chirag-i-Dilli (The Lamp of Delhi). Suhrawardi Order: Established by Shaikh Shahabuddin Suhravardi at Baghdad. The Suhravardi order of the Sufis became popular in the North Western part of India. The first popular Saint of this order was Shaikh Bahauddin Zakariya who settled down at Multan. He led a comfortable life and received wealth and land from his rich disciples. He emphasized the external form of Islam. He did not believe in fasting, self-mortification etc. with a view to purify souls. Shaikh Sharfuddin Yahya Manairi propagated Sufi-doctrines in Bihar. He was a good scholar and compiled several books. He also laid great stress on the services of humanity. The Qadri Order: The Qadrisilsilah was popular in Punjab. Shaikh Abdul Qadir and his sons were supporters of the Mughals under Akbar. The Pirs of this order supported the concept of Wahadat al Wajud (this doctrine postulates that God and His creation are one). Among the famous Sufis of this order was Miyan Mir who had enrolled the Mughal Princess Jahanara and her brother Dara Shikoh as his disciples. Naqshbandi Order: The Naqshbandi order of the Sufis was introduced in India by Khwaja Baqi Billah. Khawaja Baqi Billah opposed the listening of Sama (religious music) and the practice of pilgrimage to the tombs of saints. He opposed interaction with Hindus and Shias. He criticised the withdrawal of the Jizyah and the ban on cow slaughter (by Akbar). He maintained that the relationship between man and God was that between the slave and the master and not the relation of a lover and beloved. He tried to harmonise the doctrines of mysticism and the teachings of Islam. His successor was Shaikh Ahmed Sirhindi. This order emphasized an observance of the laws of Shariat and denounced all innovations which were added afterwards to Islamic doctrines. Contribution of the Sufi Movement Peaceful: Their efforts were directed towards the creation of a healthy social order free from dissensions, discords and conflicts. Like the Bhakti saints who were engaged in breaking down of barriers within Hinduism, the Sufis too infused a new liberal outlook within Islam. The interaction between early Bhakti and Sufi Ideas laid the foundation of more liberal movements of the fifteenth century. Unity: The contribution of the Indian Sufis to society lies in their sincere and dedicated struggle to find unity for the heterogeneous elements in the society. Promoted hetero-ethnicity: They appreciated the multi-racial, multi-religious and multilingual pattern of Indian society. Influence on Hinduism: Sufism influenced Hindu society and religion. The saints of Bhakti-cult like Kabir, Nanak, Dadu Dayal were certainly influenced by Sufi saints. Many Bhakti saints were influenced by monotheism of Islam. Efforts were made by several of them to remove the barriers of caste. Probably, the concept of Guru or the preceptor among the saints of Bhakti Cult was also influenced by the concept of Pir among the Sufis. Helping oppressed: A notable contribution of Sufis was their service to the poorer and downtrodden sections of society. While the Sultan and Ulema often remained aloof from the day to day problems of the people, the Sufi saints maintained close contact with the common people. Nizamuddin Auliya was famous for distributing gifts amongst the needy irrespective of religion or caste. Brotherhood: The Sufi movement encouraged equality and brotherhood. In fact, the Islamic emphasis upon equality was respected far more by the Sufis than by the Ulema. Sufis helped the spread of Islam in India by emphasizing social equality of all the people. Sufis were guides to good life. They bridged the gulf between our societies. Additional Information: The shrine of Baba Fariduddin Ganjshakar (1188-1266) in Pakpattan, Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti’s (1143-1236) resting place in Ajmer, The mausoleum of Hazrat Nizamuddin Auliya (1238-1325) in Delhi, and even as far south as Nagore in present day Tamil Nadu, where Hazrat Syed Shahul Hameed (d. 1570) was welcomed by the king of Thanjavur with a land grant to build a khanqah, or seminary. The last named saint is revered as “Nagore Andavar” by locals and is one among thousands of examples where Hindus and Muslims continue to share sacred spaces in India. Source:   Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) Consider the following statements: Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2019) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Quasi-Judicial Courts Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The functioning of quasi-judicial courts is of paramount importance as they deal with vital land and related issues. Their failure to administer speedy justice leads to harassment of citizens, besides abetting criminal activity by unscrupulous elements. About Quasi-Judicial Courts: A Quasi-Judicial Body is a body, usually of a Public Administrative Agency, that has powers and processes similar to those of a Court of Law or Judge and is required to impartially establish the facts and draw conclusions from them in order to serve as the foundation for an official action. According to another definition, a quasi-judicial body is “an organ of government other than a court or legislature, which impacts the rights of private parties either through adjudication or rulemaking.” National Human Rights Commission, National Commission for Women, National Commission for Minorities, etc. are examples of quasi-judicial bodies. Features of Quasi-judicial bodies: Similar to law imposing bodies: Quasi-Judicial bodies are institutes which have power similar to law imposing bodies but these are not courts. The courts have the power to supervise over all types of disputes but the quasi-judicial bodies are the ones with the powers of imposing law on administrative agencies. Specific purpose: These are created for specific purpose. For example, National Human right commission: National Human Rights Commission is a quasi-judicial body which looks into cases of specifically Human Rights violation. It was established under the Human right act 1993. They can investigate human right abuse and can recommend the steps to be taken. Election commission: It is constitutional bodies that mainly function for the conduct, control, supervise the election. It also performs judicial function e.g., determination of disqualification of Member of legislator or examining the violation of model code of conduct. National river water dispute tribunal: National River water dispute tribunal has the power to grant the award to share the water among disputing states. Central administrative tribunal: This is constituted to look into the matter related to service dispute of civil servants. For example, determination of age of civil servant in case of dispute etc. Other regulatory bodies: SEBI, TRAI, IRDA etc. are some other quasi-judicial regulatory bodies. Their main function is to ensure transparency in the market economy. They also take judicial measures e.g., punishing in case of violation of rules through fines etc. Nature of bodies: They can be statutory, regulatory or constitutional in nature. For example, the National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body, while Finance Commission is a constitutional body created under Article 280. Whereas SEBI is a regulatory body which performs judicial functions too. Expertise: These bodies need not only be headed by a judge rather experts too can be included having sectoral knowledge like Finance, Economics, and Law etc. Judicial review: Verdict of these bodies can be challenged in a court of law which is the final authority. Issues associated with  the quasi-judicial bodies: Lack of access to electronic platforms: Computers and video recorders are not available in many of these courts. Only a few states such as Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan have electronic platforms for supporting activities such as the filing of cases, publication of cause lists and sending summons. Lack proper knowledge of law and procedures: Several of the presiding officers lack proper knowledge of law and procedures which has landed many a civil servant in deep trouble in sensitive matters such as those related to arms licences. Understaffed: The maladies that these agencies suffer from are far graver than judicial set-ups, as they are staffed by revenue authorities who have several other functions. Usually, many of these offices are understaffed. Burdened with duties other than court work: Their engagement with duties such as law and order, protocol, coordination, and other administrative functions leaves them with much less time for court work. Their access to court clerks and record keepers is limited. Lack of adequate supervision: The most critical issue faced by these systems is the lack of adequate supervision and ownership by the administrative and political leadership. Lack of compilation of data: Data on the level of pendency or the speed of disposal is not compiled in many states. This is why there is scarcely any attempt to increase staff strength. There is hardly any public scrutiny say by the press or legislature. Suggestive measures to improve their functioning: Establishment of Electronic platforms: An electronic platform should be established to handle all ancillary work related to the administration of justice, such as filing of complaints, issue of summons, movement of case records between courts, issuing copies of the judgments and so on. It could establish a sound basis for analysing the functioning of these bodies and facilitate the publication of statistics. Annual Audit process: Annual inspections of the subordinate courts should be made mandatory. This should be an important indicator for assessment by the superior authority. The inspections could become the basis of customised training of presiding officers. Efficient functioning: The government should make the efficient functioning of these agencies a priority and clearly articulate its position on the issue. Detailed data collection and its utilization: Detailed data on the functioning of these agencies must be collected and published from time to time — at least annually. These should be laid before the concerned legislatures. These results should be the basis of decisions regarding the rationalising of staff strength. If the pendency exceeds a certain threshold, additional officials should be posted to exclusively handle judicial functions. This data should be used to enforce accountability. Interdisciplinary Research: Interdisciplinary research on the functioning of these courts should be encouraged. This would identify the areas of improvement such as legal reforms or issue of clear guidelines. Regular training and orientation: Regular training and orientation of the adjudicating authorities should be taken up from time to time. If it is possible to deliver customised orientation to the adjudicating officers in their areas of weakness, the benefit is likely to be multiplied. State index of performance: The state index of performance of these quasi-judicial courts be made and published. It would draw the attention of the states to their performance in comparison to others and help them identify areas of weakness. Compilation of important decisions and guidelines: Important decisions, guidelines and directions could be compiled and published on the portal of the apex adjudicating forum such as the Board of Revenue. These would be helpful to lower-level agencies. Rigorous Induction Training: More rigorous induction training of officials handling judicial work would help. Usually, training academies, at the Central or state levels, largely focus on the executive magistrate’s courts, rather than on revenue courts. The importance of judicial work should be instilled among the trainees and the skill and confidence in handling them should be developed. Procedural Reforms: Procedural reforms such as minimising adjournments, mandatory filing of written arguments and other such reforms proposed by bodies like the Law Commission for reform of the Civil Procedure Code should be adopted by these adjudicating bodies. Way Forward: A multi-pronged action plan inclusive of legal, governance and HR reforms is required to move ahead. For the ease of living of citizens, it is not only required to ensure the reduction of licences and regulations but also to make adjudication by administrative authorities timely, accessible, and affordable. Adjudicating authorities should embrace procedural reforms such reducing adjournments, requiring the submission of written arguments, and other similar improvements suggested by organisations like the Law Commission for revision of the Civil Procedure Code. As a whole, a quasi-judicial body is a good concept as it reduces the burden on Judiciary but there are some loopholes there in this system also. Govt should choose individuals with both technical and legal knowledge and providing them with power to take decisions will be a booster to this organ of Government. Source: Indian Express Gender Equality Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 1 Women Empowerment Context: The world is faced with a global increase in reported domestic violence, child marriage, trafficking, sexual exploitation, and abuse. The coup in Myanmar, a Taliban takeover in Afghanistan, and Russia’s invasion of Ukraine — that have all occurred in the last 18 months — have each underscored the fact that women bear a disproportionate burden in conflict, especially those forced to flee their homes and seek refuge in other countries. Important markers in gender equality and the protection of civilians have been reversed in many countries. What is 16 Days of Activism campaign: The 16 Days of Activism against Gender-Based Violence is an annual international campaign that kicks off on the International Day for the Elimination of Violence against Women, and runs until Human Rights Day. It was started at the inauguration of the Women’s Global Leadership Institute in 1991. It continues to be coordinated each year by the Center for Women’s Global Leadership. It is used as an organizing strategy by individuals and organizations around the world to call for the prevention and elimination of violence against women and girls. The global theme for this year is “UNITE! Activism to end violence against women and girls”, to reverse gender and protection deficits. Challenges of women refugees: There are over 2,12,000 refugees in India, more than half of whom are women and girls. For those refugees registered directly by the Government such as those from Sri Lanka, they are entitled to Aadhaar cards and PAN cards to enable their economic and financial inclusion; they can have access to national welfare schemes and contribute effectively to the Indian economy. However, for those registered with UNHCR, such as refugees from Afghanistan, Myanmar and other countries, while they have access to protection and limited assistance services, they do not possess government-issued documentation. Thus, they are unable to open bank accounts, benefit from all government welfare schemes, and are thus inadvertently left behind. Refugee and migrant women and girls face specific challenges and protection risks in transit, including family separation, psychosocial stress and trauma, health complications, particularly for pregnant women, physical harm and injury , and risks of exploitation and gender-based violence. Women are traditionally also confronted with additional household and childcare duties. Significant steps in India: Indian women received universal suffrage during India’s independence in 1947. During the drafting of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, India was instrumental in ensuring that gender sensitive norms were respected by changing the language from ‘all men are created equal’ to ‘all human beings are…. ’ India has also ratified key international conventions to end discrimination against women which include the Convention on the Elimination of all Forms of Discrimination against Women (CEDAW). Women have overcome “the glass ceiling” in the armed forces and can also serve as commanders since 2020. Today, India has the largest number of women in the United Nations peacekeeping forces, thus showcasing the equal role that women can play in conflict-emerging countries and territories. The central and State governments have launched new schemes, policies and programmes ranging from the welfare of the girl child to supporting aspiring female entrepreneurs, to empower both urban and rural women and promote gender equality. The ‘Nari Shakti for New India’ campaign represents the aspirations of millions of women in India, who not only participate but lead development initiatives — a clear display that women are leading from the front. Suggestions for future: The governments must ensure women’s effective inclusion in social protection systems, which will be aligned to India’s commitment to protection and empowerment of women, regardless of their legal status. Governments must ensure that refugees can access protection services that are on a par with their fellow Indian hosts. Initiatives for skill enhancement and creation of quality jobs are important. It will help female refugees develop confidence and improve social and communication skills on the one hand, and become aware of their professional objectives and integrate more strongly into society. The OECD (2020) reports that only 4% of development aid was funded to programs dedicated to gender equality and women’s empowerment in 2016 and 2017. In contrast, 64% of aid was gender blind. Hence, gender sensitive data collection and financing must be adopted. Way forward: Uniting to end violence against women and girls and empowering them to stand up for themselves and their communities, and supporting men to become agents of change, must remain the priority. The commitment to prioritise gender equal programming by the Government of India is commendable and its resulting economic and social potential for women will build societal resilience to handle future shocks. As Prime Minister Narendra Modi recently observed: “The progress of humanity is incomplete without the empowerment of women”. Source The Hindu Business line Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) With reference to Indian history, which of the following statements is/are correct? The Battle of Alaboi was fought in 1669 between Mughals and Rajput Raja Ram Singh I. The Battle of Saraighat 1671 was won by Lachit Bophukan of Ahom kingdom. While the battle of Alaboi was a naval battle, the battle of Saraighat was guerrilla warfare. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only Q.2) What is “Hwasong-17”, sometimes seen in the news? A Chinese Navigation Satellite System A North Korean ballistic missile system A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea. A rover for international space station Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Central Depositories Services India Ltd (CDSL): CDSL is a government-registered share depository, alongside its other state-owned counterpart National Securities Depository Ltd (NSDL). Arth is a CSR Initiative from Central Depository Services (India) Ltd. with a mission to make financial education simple and accessible for all. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’23rd November 2022 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 22nd November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2022 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 23rd November 2022

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here