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Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2022 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 7th January 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

Baba’s Explainer

Baba's Explainer - Free Foodgrain Scheme

 ARCHIVES Syllabus GS-3: Public Distribution System- objectives, functioning, limitations, revamping 
 GS-3: Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilization, of resources, growth, development and employment. Context: Centre decided to provide 5 kg of free foodgrains per month for the 81 crore beneficiaries of the National Food Security Act (NFSA) during 2023, rather than charging them a subsidised amount of ₹3 a kg of rice, ₹2 a kg of wheat and ₹1 a kg of coarse cereal as is currently done. This will soften the blow of the termination of the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY). What was Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY)? It was introduced by the Narendra Modi government during the first nationwide lockdown due to  Covid-19 in March 2020. Under this scheme, the center provides 5kg of free food grains per month to the poor. This is in addition to the subsidized ration provided under the National Food Security Act (NFSA) to families covered under the Public Distribution System (PDS). The scheme which can be availed through the One Nation One Ration Card (ONORC) plan was first introduced from April to June 2020 during the stringent lockdown in India and has been extended six times ever since Its nodal Ministry is the Ministry of Finance. The overall expenditure of PMGKAY will be about Rs. 3.91 lakh crore for all the phases. It was initially announced for a three-month period (April, May and June 2020), covering 80 crore ration cardholders. Later it was extended till September 2022. What is National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013? It was 10 September, 2013. Objective: To provide for food and nutritional security in the human life cycle approach, by ensuring access to adequate quantities of quality food at affordable prices to people to live a life with dignity. Coverage: 75% of the rural population and upto 50% of the urban population for receiving subsidized foodgrains under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS). Overall, NFSA caters to 67% of the total population. Eligibility: Priority Households to be covered under TPDS, according to guidelines by the State government. Households covered under existing Antyodaya Anna Yojana. Provisions: 5 Kgs of foodgrains per person per month at Rs. 3/2/1 per Kg for rice/wheat/coarse grains. The existing AAY household will continue to receive 35 Kgs of foodgrains per household per month. Meal and maternity benefit of not less than Rs. 6,000 to pregnant women and lactating mothers during pregnancy and six months after the child birth. Meals for children upto 14 years of age. Food security allowance to beneficiaries in case of non-supply of entitled foodgrains or meals. What is the fiscal impact of government’s latest decision of providing free foodgrains under NFSA? In a normal year, without COVID disruptions, the Centre’s food subsidy bill on account of the NFSA amounted to around ₹2 lakh crore. The PMGKAY effectively doubled that sum for the past two years. Now that the Centre plans to give free foodgrains under the NFSA for a year, it will spend an additional ₹15,000 crore to ₹16,000 crore on that. However, the Centre will save around ₹2 lakh crore by ending the PMGKAY scheme. Overall, the move will relieve a major burden on the Union Budget. What is the impact of latest decision on foodgrain stocks? The move will be even more of a relief for stressed foodgrain stocks. The annual foodgrain requirement for the NFSA is about 520 lakh tonnes, while the PMGKAY required an additional 480 lakh tonnes. The difference comes from the fact that the poorest families coming under the Antyodaya Anna Yojana category received 35 kg a family every month under the NFSA, but received 5 kg per person under the PMGKAY. At the time when the PMGKAY was launched, foodgrain production, government procurement and government stocks were regularly breaching record levels. In 2022, however, the situation is different. Rice and wheat harvests have both been lower this year, hit by climatic events and fertilizer shortages in some areas. The global stress due to the Russia-Ukraine war has also led to a situation of high foodgrain inflation. Continuing the PMGKAY would have been unsustainable without further increasing procurement levels. India’s wheat stocks in particular, have dipped dangerously close to the required buffer stock levels, with the Centre resorting to a ban on exports to ensure food security for the domestic market. It is estimated that the Central pool may have just 159 lakh tonnes of wheat on January 1, 2023, barely above the buffer norm of 138 lakh tonnes. At the end of the day, continuing PMGKAY was more a problem of grain, not cash. What is the impact of latest decision on beneficiaries? Ration card holders who have received 10 kg of grains a person every month for the past two years will see their entitlement abruptly halved. Of course, their expenditure on their NFSA entitlement will also come down — for instance, someone spending ₹8 for four kg of wheat and ₹3 for a kg of rice under NFSA will now get those grains free, saving ₹11 a month. However, that is dwarfed by the additional ₹150-₹175 they will need to spend to buy the 5 kg previously provided free under the PMGKAY in the open market (estimating market prices for rice and wheat at around ₹30-₹35 per kg). The Right to Food Campaign estimates that poor families will be forced to spend ₹750-₹900 a month to access the current level of ration entitlement. The increased expenditure will be even more stark for those in States which anyway provide free NFSA rations, since beneficiaries in those States will not even receive any savings due to the Centre’s announcement. What are the political implications of the free foodgrain decision? This is definitely a political move. A purely economic decision here would have been to end the PMGKAY, which was always meant to be a temporary measure, and return to a normal pre-COVID situation. But this free foodgrain announcement is damage control, to combat any adverse fallout from ending PMGKAY. However, it is unclear what will happen at the end of 2023, when the free foodgrain measure is set to end. Of course, this will have to be continued beyond one year. This is because the government can ill afford to roll back free foodgrains in 2024, in the run-up to general election. The more subtle political fallout will be in the States, especially those such as Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka, West Bengal and Jharkhand, which all provide free foodgrains anyway, using their own money to further subsidise the Central allocation. A handful of others such as Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Telangana also provide further subsidies, though their ration is not completely free. This will give them a financial surplus, but it takes away an important political plank for States. The Centre will now take full credit for something they had been providing previously. It is also unclear whether States or Centre will now bear the cost of transportation of foodgrains. A senior food official in Tamil Nadu estimated that the State is set to save more than ₹1,300 crore through the Centre’s announcement. Tamil Nadu already provides universal food security. The focus now needs to be on nutrition security. If the States do not already do so, it is suggested that they spend their new savings on providing subsidised or free pulses, spices or edible oil through the public distribution system in addition to foodgrains. Main Practice Question: With income levels increased since liberation period, do you think that government should continue to provide highly subsidised food grains through its public distribution? Discuss. Note: Write answer his question in the comment section. table{ border: 1px solid; } table tr, table td{ border: 1px solid; }

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 6th January 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Black Carbon and black carbon aerosols Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: A recent study conducted on Tibetan plateau showed that increase in South Asian black Carbon aerosols is increasing loss of glaciers from Tibetan Plateau. Key highlights of the study: Black carbon deposition in snow reduces the albedo of surfaces which accelerate melting of glaciers and snow cover and changes hydrological process and water resources in the region. Albedo is ability to reflect back Sun’s radiations. Black carbon aerosols in South Asia heat up the middle and upper atmosphere and increases North South temperature gradient. This increases convective activity in South Asia which causes convergence of water vapour in South Asia. Black carbon also increases the number of cloud condensation nuclei in the atmosphere. About Black Carbon: Black carbon is the sooty black material emitted from gas and diesel engines, coal-fired power plants, and other sources that burn fossil fuel. It comprises a significant portion of particulate matter or PM, which is an air pollutant. Impact of black carbon: Climate impacts: It has a warming impact that is 460-1,500 times stronger than CO2 on climate. It converts incoming solar radiation to heat. It influences cloud formation and impacts regional circulation and rainfall patterns. Health impacts- With size of 2.5 micrometres (PM2.5) or smaller, it can penetrate into lungs and facilitate transport of toxic compounds into the bloodstream. 5 can cause premature death and cause heart and lung disease, strokes, heart attacks, chronic respiratory disease like bronchitis, asthma and pneumonia. Impacts on ecosystem and vegetation- if deposited on plant leaves it will decrease its capability of photosynthesis and thus reduce food production. It can reduce sunlight that reaches the earth and modify rainfall patterns. About Black Carbon aerosols: It is produced by the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels and biomass. It has strong absorption of solar radiation like- visible and infrared radiation. It is also called soot and is part of particulate matter above PM2.5. Thus, it contributes to pollution and Global warming. It can increase the temperature of atmosphere and darken surfaces, specifically snow and ice. It has short lifetime in atmosphere and gets removed in 1-2 weeks, so its impacts tend to be more regional rather than global. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide ? (2022) Cotton Rice Sugarcane Wheat Q.2) In the Guidelines, statements: context of WHO consider the Air Quality following The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m³ and annual mean of PM 2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only Green Urban Oases Programme Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: Recently, Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) launched report on Urban forestry and urban greening in drylands. Key findings of the report: 35% of the world’s largest cities are built in the world’s drylands. It includes Cairo, Mexico City and New Delhi. They are home to 2 billion people, 90% of them in developing countries. Urban forestry and urban greening in drylands, these sprawling and crowded dryland cities face a high risk of social, environmental and economic crisis as they grow. They are becoming hotter and more polluted and face mounting pressure on their scarce natural resources. Weak infrastructure, making them among the most vulnerable places in the world to external shocks from the extreme weather events that climate change brings. More than half of the global population lives in cities and 95% of urban growth between now and 2050 is expected to take place in the global South. Thus, preserving and planting trees has been shown beneficial effect on the lives and health of the people. About Green Urban Oases Programme: It was Launched in 2021 by FAO. It contributes to the FAO Green Cities initiative, which was launched in 2020. It aims to improve the resilience of dryland cities by tackling climate, health, food and economic challenges. To transform dryland cities into ‘green urban oases’ by strengthening their overall resilience to climatic, health, food and economic crises for the improved health and well-being of urban communities. It focuses on developing policy, technical capacity and outlines several pathways for transforming urban spaces by planting trees. Key Recommendation from report: Community Level: Boosting participation and a sense of ownership, providing incentives to encourage tree planting and building capacity through environmental education, awareness raising campaigns towards public engagement. Government Level: Implementing robust policies for protection of urban greenery. Several initiatives including the Great Green Wall in Africa and the Three-North Shelter Forest Programme in China have been put in place to support the implementation of climate adaptation and mitigation strategies in dryland rural areas. Source:  FAO Previous Year Question Q.1) The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the: (2022) Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces Development of gardens genetically modified flora using Creation of mini forests in urban areas Q.2) Consider the following statements: The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Article 19 of the Indian Constitution Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Governance Context: By ruling that a citizen can seek enforcement of the fundamental rights to freedom of speech not just against the state, the Supreme Court has, effectively, extended the ground for seeking these rights against other citizens. About Article 19: Article 19(1) of the Constitution of India guarantees six fundamental freedoms to every citizen of India, namely: Freedom of speech and expression; Freedom to assemble peacefully and without arms; Freedom to form associations, unions or co-operative societies; Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India; Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India, and Freedom to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business. Importance of Article 19 This freedom is essential because the censorial power lies in the people over and against the Government and not in the Government over and against the people. The freedom of speech and expression is required to fulfil the following objectives : To discover truth Non self-fulfilment Democratic value To ensure pluralism Reasonable Restrictions under Article 19: The State can impose restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression in the interests of Sovereignty And Integrity Of India, The Security Of The State, Friendly Relations With Foreign States, Public Order, Decency Or Morality, Or In Relation To Contempt Of Court, Defamation, Or Incitement To An Offence. Key details of the Supreme Court ruling: The court took this view while ruling that the right of free speech and expression guaranteed under the Article 19(1)(a) cannot be curbed by any additional grounds other than those already laid down in Article 19(2). Article 19 which guarantees freedom of speech and expression is a right invoked against the state. The court, extending free speech against private citizens, opens up a range of possibilities in Constitutional law. This interpretation could also bring an obligation on the state to ensure private entities also abide by Constitutional norms. K S Puttaswamy case: The Court relied on the 2017 verdict in Puttaswamy where a nine-judge bench unanimously upheld privacy as a fundamental right. One of the key arguments by the government was that privacy is a right enforceable against other citizens and, therefore, cannot be elevated to the status of a fundamental right against the state. Under Indian Constitution, all the Fundamental Rights are available against the State but only 4 fundamental Rights are available against both State and individuals. Article 15(2) – no citizen shall be subjected to any form of discrimination based on caste, religion, place of birth, or caste. Article 17 – abolition of Untouchability. Article 23 – Prohibits trafficking of humans and forced labour. Article 24 – Prohibits employment of children in factories and hazardous place. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) What is the position of the Right to Property in India? (2021) Legal right available to citizens only Legal right available to any person Fundamental Right available to citizens only Neither fundamental Right nor legal right Q.2) A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of the application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India? (2021) Article 14 Article 28 Article 32 Article 44 National Skill Development Mission Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Union Education and Skill Development & Entrepreneurship Minister chaired the  3rd meeting of the steering committee of National Skill Development Mission. About National Skill Development Mission: The National Skill Development Mission was approved by the Union Cabinet on 01.07.2015, and officially launched by the Hon’ble Prime Minister on 15.07.2015 on the occasion of World Youth Skills Day. The Mission has been developed to create convergence across sectors and States in terms of skill training activities. Further, to achieve the vision of ‘Skilled India’, the National Skill Development Mission would not only consolidate and coordinate skilling efforts, but also expedite decision making across sectors to achieve skilling at scale with speed and standards. It will be implemented through a streamlined institutional mechanism driven by Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE). Key institutional mechanisms for achieving the objectives of the Mission have been divided into three tiers, which will consist of a Governing Council for policy guidance at apex level, a Steering Committee and a Mission Directorate (along with an Executive Committee) as the executive arm of the Mission. Mission Directorate will be supported by three other institutions: National Skill Development Agency (NSDA), The NSDA focuses on policy research via National Skills Research Division, quality assurance and implementation of quality standards across all skilling agencies. It develops protocols for training and accreditations for private trainers, etc. National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) NSDC overlooks training, capacity building aspects of trainers, both public and private, lead the engagement with industries, drive the sectors skills councils., and Directorate General of Training (DGT) The DGT maintains the skill training structures of Advanced Training Institutes (ATIs), Regional Vocational Training Institute (RVTIs) and other such institutes, advises on training policies, trains instructors, provides technical support, runs women-centric training institutes, etc. all of which will have horizontal linkages with Mission Directorate to facilitate smooth functioning of the national institutional mechanism. Seven sub-missions have been proposed initially to act as building blocks for achieving overall objectives of the Mission. They are: (i) Institutional Training, (ii) Infrastructure, (iii) Convergence, (iv) Trainers, (v) Overseas Employment, (vi) Sustainable Livelihoods, (vii) Leveraging Public Infrastructure. Source: NewsOnAir Previous Year Questions Q.1) In India under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (2020) Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Halteria Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Scientists made a monumental breakthrough by identifying an organism, Halteria  that dines entirely on viruses. About Halteria: Halteria is a microscopic ciliates (a single-celled organism with minuscule hairs) that populate freshwater worldwide which can thrive wholly on a virus-only diet or ‘virovory’. Virovory is sufficient to support an organism’s physiological development and even population increase. They’re made up of nucleic acids, a lot of nitrogen and phosphorous. Source:  ScienceAlert Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements: Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Broadcasting Infrastructure and Network Development (BIND) scheme Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance In News: The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approved regarding “Broadcasting Infrastructure and Network Development” (BIND) scheme at a cost of ₹2,539.61 crore. Broadcasting Infrastructure and Network Development (BIND): Aim: For infrastructure development and for providing financial support to Prasar Bharati for expenses related to expansion and upgradation of its broadcasting infrastructure, content development and civil work related to the organization. The BIND scheme will enable the public broadcaster to undertake a major upgradation of its facilities with better infrastructure which will widen its reach, including in the LWE, border and strategic areas Development of high-quality content for both domestic and international audience and ensuring availability of diverse content to the viewers by upgradation of capacity of DTH platform to accommodate more channels. About the scheme: Central Sector Scheme Under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting Purchase of OB vans and digital upgradation of DD and AIR Studios to make them HD ready will be also be done as part of the project. The Scheme will increase coverage of AIR FM transmitters in the country to 66% by geographical area and 80% by population up from 59% and 68% respectively. The Scheme also envisages free distribution of over 8 lakh DD Free Dish STBs to people living in remote, tribal, LWE and border areas. The Project for modernization and augmentation of broadcast infrastructure also has the potential to generate indirect employment by way of manufacturing and services related to supply and installation of broadcast equipment. Content generation and content innovation for AIR & DD has the potential of indirect employment of persons with varied experience of different media fields in the content production sector including TV/Radio production, transmission and associated media related services. Government of India reiterates its commitment to the development, modernization and strengthening of Doordarshan and Akashvani (Prasar Bharati) infrastructure and services, which is a continuous process. Prasar Bharti: Prasar Bharati is the public broadcaster of the country and consists of All India Radio (AIR) and Doordarshan (DD) It is the most important vehicle of information, education, entertainment and engagement for the people especially in the remote areas of the country through Doordarshan and All India Radio. Prasar Bharati played a stellar role in communicating public health messages and awareness to the public during the covid pandemic. At present, Doordarshan operates 36 TV channels including 28 regional channels and All India Radio operates more than 500 broadcasting centres. Source: PIB Silent Valley National Park Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment In News: A bird survey conducted at the Silent Valley National Park identified 141 species, of which 17 were new. So far, 175 species of birds have been spotted in Silent Valley. About the survey The survey was held in association with the Kerala Natural History Society. Brown wood owl, Banded bay cuckoo, Malabar wood shrike, White-throated kingfisher, Indian nightjar, Jungle nightjar, and Large cuckoo shrike were among the 17 species newly identified in the Silent Valley. Silent valley national park Silent Valley National Park is a national park in Kerala, India. It is located in the Nilgiri hills, has a core area of 89.52 km2 which is surrounded by a buffer zone of 148 km2 Declared national park in 1984, inaugurated in 1985 In 1914, Silent Valley forests were declared as Reserved Forest. During 1921, it came under control of Palakkad Forest Division This national park has some rare species of flora and fauna. This area was explored in 1847 by the botanist Robert Wight. It is located in the rich biodiversity of Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. Mukurthi peak, the fifth-highest peak in South India, and Anginda peak are also located in its vicinity. Bhavani River, a tributary of Kaveri River, and Kunthipuzha River, a tributary of Bharathappuzha river, originate in the vicinity of Silent Valley. The Kadalundi River has also its origin in Silent Valley. 41 mammals, 211 birds, 49 reptiles, 47 amphibians, 12 fishes, 164 butterflies and 400 species of moths are found here. Lion tailed macaques is the flagship species of the Park. The indigenous tribal groups that live within park boundaries include Irulas, Kurumbas, Mudugas and Kattunaikkars, the ethnic heritage of these communities is well protected. Karimpuzha Wildlife Sanctuary, New Amarambalam Reserved Forest, and Nedumkayam Rainforest in Nilambur Taluk of Malappuram district, Attappadi Reserved Forest in Mannarkkad Taluk of Palakkad district, and Mukurthi National Park of Nilgiris district, are located around Silent Valley National Park. Source: The hindu Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements are correct? (2020) It is spread over two districts. There is no human habitation inside the Park. It is one of the natural habitats of Great Indian Bustard. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Sustainable Aquaculture In Mangrove Ecosystem (SAIME) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment In News: A new initiative of sustainable shrimp cultivation provides hope for mangrove restoration in Sundarbans. SAIME: The community-based initiative of sustainable shrimp cultivation is being conceived by NEWS and Global Nature Fund (GNF), Naturland Bangladesh Environment and Development Society (BEDS). The initiative started in 2019, has established a collaborative ecosystem integrating several key stakeholders from government departments, academia, and research institutes for co-creation and comprehensive advancement of this project. Farmers have taken up cultivation of shrimp in West Bengal including indigenous varieties of shrimps such as black tiger shrimp (P. monodon) and giant freshwater prawn (M. rosenbergii ). A research program on the contribution of mangrove leaf litter in the nutritional dynamics in SAIME ponds has been initiated in collaboration with the Centre for Excellence in Blue Economy (CoE-BE) of the Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISER), Kolkata Fishing, particularly shrimp cultivation, is one of the key occupations of the people of Sundarbans, which is a complex network of rivers and low-lying islands that face a tide surge twice a day. Shrimp cultivation is practised in about 15,000 to 20,000 hectares of the unique ecosystem in India. T The Sundarbans forest is about 10,000 sq. km across India and Bangladesh, of which 40% lies in India. MUST READ: Sunderbans Source: The hindu Previous Year Question Q.1) Consider the following protected areas Bandipur Bhitarkanika Manas Sunderbans Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves? 1 and 2 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 American foulbrood (AFB) disease Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology In News: The United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) has granted a conditional license for world’s first vaccine for honeybees to curb American foulbrood (AFB), a fatal bacterial disease for the insect, reported The Guardian. Honeybee populations are declining sharply, spurred by habitat loss, pesticide use and the climate crisis. Fewer honeybees mean not just less honey but also less food — honeybees are critical to pollinating up to 95 crops in the US. AFB AFB is caused by the spore-forming bacterium Paenibacillus larvae. Infected broods usually die at the pre-pupal or pupal stage. It is not a stress-related disease and can infect the strongest to the weakest colony in an apiary. Heavy infections can affect most of the brood, severely weakening the colony and eventually killing it. The disease cannot be cured, meaning that the destruction of infected colonies and hives or irradiation of infected material is the only way to manage AFB. The bacteria Melissococcus plutonius causes another similar disease, European foulbrood. However, the incidence of EFB is generally higher when the colony is under stress. Vaccine: The first such vaccine, developed by biotechnology company Dalan Animal Health, gives hope of a new weapon against diseases that routinely ravage colonies relied upon for food pollination. The vaccine technology exposes queen bees to inactive (ie, “dead”) bacteria, which enables the larvae hatched in the hive to resist infection. The vaccine is mixed in queen candy — the primary food source for both the queen bees and the attendant bees living in cages. Worker bees consume the vaccine with the queen candy, which is then digested and transferred to the glands that produce the royal jelly. Worker bees then feed the royal jelly containing the vaccine to the queen bee. The queen digests the royal jelly and the vaccine is transferred to her ovaries. She is then released into the hive. The vaccine gets transferred to the developing eggs. The developing larvae get vaccinated and are more immune to infection as they hatch. Tests also showed no negative impact on honey. Source DTE Previous Year Question Q.1) The term ‘ACE2’ is talked about in the context of (2021) genes introduced in the genetically modified plants development of India’s own satellite navigation system radio collar for wildlife tracking spread of viral diseases National Green Hydrogen Mission Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Environment) Context: The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister has approved India’s Rs 20,000 cr National Green Hydrogen Mission (NGHM). About Hydrogen: Hydrogen is the chemical element with the symbol H and atomic number 1. Hydrogen is the lightest element and the most abundant chemical substance in the universe, constituting roughly 75% of all normal matter. It is colourless, odourless, tasteless, non-toxic, and highly combustible. Hydrogen fuel is a zero-emission fuel burned with oxygen. It can be used in fuel cells or internal combustion engines and as a fuel for spacecraft propulsion. Extraction of Hydrogen: Hydrogen exists in combination with other elements. Hence, for using it as a source of energy, it has to be extracted from naturally occurring compounds like water (which is a combination of two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom). The sources and processes by which hydrogen is derived are categorised by different colours. Benefits of Green Hydrogen Creation of export opportunities for Green Hydrogen and its derivatives Decarbonisation of industrial, mobility and energy sectors Self-Reliance: Reduction in dependence on imported fossil fuels and feedstock Make in India, for India: Development of indigenous manufacturing capabilities Creation of employment opportunities Development of cutting-edge technologies Major Challenges in harnessing Green Hydrogen: Lack of fuel station infrastructure: India will need to compete with around 500 operational hydrogen stations in the world today which are mostly in Europe, followed by Japan and South Korea. Energy-intensive nature of Hydrogen generation process: The technology is in an infant stage and the energy requirement for splitting water or Methane is high. Besides, the whole process is costly at present. High R and D requirement for the newer technology for making the process cheap and operational and scalable. Multiplicity of regulatory authorities: Involvement of multiple Ministries and Departments causes red tape in government functioning. Risks associated with the transportation of hydrogen: Hydrogen in gaseous form is highly inflammable and difficult to transport, thereby making safety a primary concern. About National Green Hydrogen Mission (NHM): NGHM is a part of National Hydrogen Mission (NHM) which was announced by the finance minister in the Union Budget 2021-22. The Prime Minister of India also announced the National Hydrogen Mission on India’s 75th Independence Day. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) will formulate the scheme guidelines for implementation of the respective components. Objectives of the mission: To make India a global hub for the production and export of green hydrogen. To harness green hydrogen energy to fulfill India’s Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs). Key Components of the mission: The NGHM will facilitate demand creation, production, utilization and export of Green Hydrogen. The Mission will also support pilot projects in emerging end-use sectors and production pathways. An enabling policy framework will be developed to support establishment of the Green Hydrogen ecosystem. A public-private partnership framework for R&D will be facilitated under the Mission. R&D projects will be goal-oriented, time bound, and suitably scaled up to develop globally competitive technologies. Significance of the NGHM: Renewable Energy Capacity Enhancement: Development of green hydrogen production capacity of at least 5 MMT (Million Metric Tonne) per annum. An associated renewable energy capacity addition of about 125 GW in the country It will boost Investment opportunities for India and create sustainable employment. Cumulative reduction in fossil fuel imports. Green House Gas Emission Reduction: Abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions and help government in achievement the commitments made at COP 26. Initiatives taken by the world countries and India: Japan: Basic Hydrogen Strategy 2017 and plan to develop the international hydrogen supply chain by 2030. South Korea: Hydrogen Economy Development and Safe Management of Hydrogen Act, 2020. The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) issued a notification proposing amendments to the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989 with safety evaluation standards for hydrogen fuel cell-based vehicles. Delhi State Government: Hydrogen Spiked Compressed Natural Gas Buses (H-CNG) i.e. 18% blend of hydrogen with CNG (Plan to have 80% H-CNG buses by 2025) NTPC Ltd is operating a pilot to run 10 hydrogen fuel cell-based electric buses and fuel cell electric cars in Leh and Delhi. Way Forward: The National Hydrogen Mission have the capability of  ensuring integration of India’s clean energy supply chains with that of the world when Inter-Ministerial and various departments work together. The National Hydrogen Mission  will also will ensure realization of the goal of making India carbon neutral and global hub of clean hydrogen energy and will have multiplier effects on the $5 trillion economy. Source: Indian Express India and France relations Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 International Relations Context: 36th India-France Strategic Dialogue between National Security Adviser Ajit Doval and Diplomatic Adviser to the President of France, Emmanuel Bonne was held in New Delhi. India and France reiterated their commitment to take forward their strategic partnership to ensure peace, stability and security in the Indo-Pacific based on common beliefs in the rules-based international order and strategic autonomy. Both sides reiterated that in view of the emerging uncertainties and volatile global security environment, there was a need for closer cooperation between India and France, including in the UNSC and other multilateral forums..  Bilateral relationship: The new French Indo-Pacific strategy advances three key threats to be met by Paris, beyond dealing with North Korean belligerence: Transnational terrorism Chinese challenges to the multilateral order in the region Climate change Indo Pacific: France is a preferred partner in the Indo-Pacific and there is now a blueprint for cooperation in this field in the form of a Joint Strategic Vision for cooperation in the Indian Ocean Region concluded by both countries in 2018. Economic: France is the 7th largest foreign investor in India with a cumulative FDI stock of USD 9 billion from 2000 to 2020, which represents 2 % of the total FDI inflows into India. In FY 2020-21, bilateral trade stood at $ 9.12 Bn and has increased to $ 9.87 Bn during the period April 2021 – January 2022. Launch of Unified Payment Interface (UPI) in France “Co-localisation of production” with India as a priority indicates urgency to take steps for ensuring a more diversified and stable Indo-Pacific and global periphery. Security: Bilateral defence ties are in fine fettle and France has largely stuck to the promised delivery of Rafale aircrafts to India. The challenge here is to move from a buyer-seller relationship to an investor-investee one by making defence equipment in India accompanied by a transfer of technology. Safran Group’s decision to set up their largest and first aircraft engine MRO (maintenance, repair, and overhaul) facility in Hyderabad. The facility will be set up with an investment of Rs 1200 cr and is expected to create about 1,000 high-skilled jobs in Telangana. India and France have conducted joint patrols from the Reunion Island for the first time. The patrol was conducted by a P-8I aircraft with French Navy personnel on board. Bilateral military exercises Exercise Shakti (Army) Exercise Varuna (Navy) Exercise Garuda (Air Force) IMEX 22 Technology: For the first time, the two countries concluded a Joint Vision for Space Cooperation in 2018. The vision document talks of bringing societal benefits of space technology, situational awareness in space domain and cooperation in satellite navigation and related technologies. As for nuclear energy, the two leaders must review progress in the joint construction of the world’s largest nuclear park in Jaitapur, Maharashtra. The French tech services multinational Atos, for instance, provides India with supercomputing hardware and quantum computing simulation software. A recent Track 1.5 Dialogue hosted jointly by think tanks — Gateway House in Mumbai and Ifri in Paris — revealed the importance of Bangalore for the French economy, noting the large number of tech engineers from France who are located in the southern city. France also has a special tech visa for Indian engineers, enabling robust exchanges. Digital cooperation is being stepped up in cyber security and on building standards for public digital infrastructure. Environment and Ecology: India will be the first “country of honour” at the Sea Tech . Week in Brest, France, a major international event bringing  together Blue Economy stakeholders. France announced its support for Prime Minister Modi’s Lifestyle for the Environment (LIFE) initiative, and will seek to work with India on promoting sustainable lifestyles to fight climate change. Regarding solar alliance, India has started having annual summits with France and Germany from 2000. 2021: Year Of Indo-French Alliance Towards A Greener Planet To strengthen Indo-French cooperation in sustainable development, increase the effectiveness of actions in favour of global environment protection and give them greater visibility. Based on five main themes: (1) Environmental protection; (2) Climate change; (3) Biodiversity conservation; (4) Sustainable urban development; (5) Development of renewable energies and energy efficiency. Suggestions for future: France holds the rotating presidency of the EU In this regard, discussion on FTA and the Investment Agreement that India is negotiating with the EU and persuade France to weigh in favourably with the Brussels bureaucracy and other stakeholders. More can be done in the area of digital sovereignty where India is a potential model for France with its use of open platforms and open-source public goods like India Stack and MOSIP; regulation, especially personal data empowerment and protection; health data and health tech. France and India must now invest in preventing digital platforms from being weaponised and avert threats to critical infrastructure. They must use their unique strengths — India in conceptualising and deploying large-scale open-source platforms, foundational IDs, IT services and fintech, and France in AI, cyber, quantum technologies, data empowerment and protection, to create the next-gen solutions for the world. Accelerate investment between two countries in low carbon alternatives like wind, solar PV, biomethane, heat pumps, nuclear and clean hydrogen. India has the market, France has the technology and capital, and the EU has the political will and incentives to drive the transition to green hydrogen. Major French multinationals such as Air Liquide, Engie and TotalEnergies are already pursuing hydrogen energy, and pilot projects with Indian partners can be planned They discussed expanding the scope of defence cooperation to include the co-development of futuristic technologies in line with India’s priorities of Make in India and Atmanirbhar Bharat. Way forward: Newer areas of cooperation such as connectivity, climate change, cyber-security and science and technology. In these important areas, the two leaders will be briefed by officials about progress made so that roadblocks, if any, can be tackled. France has supported India’s G20 presidency and it goes a long way in strengthening ties between the two countries. Source: The hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) With reference to ‘Silent Valley National Park’, consider the following statements? Lion tailed macaque is its flagship species It comes under Annamalai Biosphere reserve Which of the following statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to ‘American foulbrood (AFB) disease’, consider the following statements? The disease affects pollination in maize plants. It is caused by spore-forming bacteria Which of the following statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) Consider the following: Households Agriculture Fossil fuels Transportation Which of the are sources of Black carbon which has serious consequences on climate change? 1 2 and 3 only 2 3 and 4 only 1 3 and 4 only 1 2 3 and 4 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 6th January 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 5th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – d Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Baba’s Explainer

Baba's Explainer - Remote Voting by ECI

 ARCHIVES Syllabus GS-1: Indian Society, Urbanisation and problems GS-2: Important aspects of governance, transparency and accountability, e-governance- applications, models, successes, limitations, and potential GS-2: Fundamental Rights. Context: The Election Commission (EC) has recently announced that it is ready to pilot remote voting for domestic migrants, so they don’t have to travel back to their home states to vote. This comes on the back of EC’s acknowledgement of migration-based disenfranchisement. What is the scenario of India’s internal migration? Huge Numbers: India has an estimated 600 million migrants. In other words, roughly half of India is living in a place where it wasn’t born. Intra-State Migration: An estimated 400 million Indians “migrate” within the district they live in. The next 140 million migrate from one district to another but within the same state. Inter-State Migration: And only about 60 million — that is, just 10% of all internal migrants — move from one state to another. Rural Migration: The most dominant form of migration is from rural to rural areas. Only about 20% of the total migration (600 million) is from rural to urban areas. Urban Migration: 20% of the total migration is from one urban area to another urban area. As such, urban migration (rural to urban as well as urban to urban) accounts for 40% of the total migration. Potential for increase in future: As India adopts a strategy of rapid urbanisation — for example, by building so-called smart cities and essentially using cities as centres of economic growth — levels of internal migration will increase further. COVID-19 induced Shock: It is estimated that close to 60 million moved back to their “source” rural areas in the wake of pandemic-induced lockdowns. That number is roughly six-times the official estimates. That estimate also gives a measure of the sense of labour shock that India’s economy faced as migrants moved back. The concern of “vulnerable circular migrants” 200 million were broadly affected by the Covid disruption. The worst-hit were “vulnerable circular migrants”. These are people who are “vulnerable” because of their weak position in the job market and “circular” migrants because even though they work in urban settings, they continue to have a foothold in the rural areas. Such migrants work in construction sites or small factories or as rickshaw pullers in the city but when such employment avenues dwindle, they go back to their rural setting.  They constitute 75% of the informal economy outside agriculture — most shocks, be it demonetisation or GST or the pandemic disruption, tend to rob them of their livelihood. How significant is the migrant vote? While registered voters do not end up voting for a variety of reasons, domestic migration is a major contributor in the Indian context. In a concept note, the EC has admitted that the absence of a central database for migrants poses a problem on the issue of remote voting. However, the EC recognises that “migration-based disenfranchisement is indeed not an option in the age of technological advancement.” As per the 2011 census, 45.36 crore Indians (37% of the population) were internal migrants, settled in a place different from that of their registered residence. While 67.4% of the eligible 91.2 crore Indians voted in the 2019 Lok Sabha election, about one-third or close to 30 crore voters did not cast their vote. Voters who are absent from their home locations on the day of polling, even if they wish to vote, are unable to travel to vote due to various reasons. This means that there is a large chunk of the population which is denied its franchise due to exigencies of work or lack of resources to travel. This goes directly against the EC’s “No voter left behind” goal. Inability to vote due to internal migration (domestic migrants) is one of the prominent reasons to be addressed to improve voter turnout and ensure participative elections. What is the Remote EVMs, the proposed solution to migrant voting problem? To further understand this issue, the EC had formed a “Committee of Officers on Domestic Migrants”, which submitted a report in late 2016 after considering various possible solutions such as internet voting, proxy voting, early voting and postal ballots for migrant workers. However, all of these ideas were rejected due to reasons such as the lack of secrecy of the vote, the lack of sanctity of one person one vote principle, issues of accessibility for unlettered voters, etc. Thus, a technological solution was proposed which relies on the creation of a robust electoral roll and identification mechanisms (to stop duplicate voting), and allow voters to vote remotely, in a safe and controlled environment. ECI has developed a prototype for a Multi-Constituency Remote Electronic Voting Machine (RVM) that can handle multiple constituencies from a single remote polling booth. The RVMs are “stand alone, non-networked systems,” effectively providing the voter the same experience as currently used EVMs. They will be set up in remote locations outside the state under similar conditions as current polling booths. The unique feature of RVMs is that a single Remote Ballot Unit (RBU) will be able to cater to multiple constituencies (as many as 72) by using a “dynamic ballot display board” instead of the usual printed paper ballot sheet on EVMs. The Ballot Unit Overlay Display (BUOD) will show the requisite candidates based on the constituency number read on the voter’s Constituency card. A barcode scanning system will be used to read these cards. The voting process will be as follows: after verifying a voter’s identity, their constituency card will be read with a public display showing the constituency details and candidates. This will also be displayed privately, on the BUOD in the RVM’s RBU. The voter will then vote and each vote will be stored constituency-wise in the control unit of the voting machine. The VVPAT system is expected to work along the same lines with the new technology. The EC has invited all recognised eight national and 57 state political parties on January 16 to demonstrate the functioning of the RVM and has asked for their written views by January 31. The RVM was developed with the assistance of Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) and the Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL). It is based on the currently used EVM system. What are the hurdles? The system has issues, some of which the EC has itself acknowledged. Non-Uniform Constituency: Migrants are not a uniform and defined class, with fluid identities, locations and situations. In context of the transience of migration in India, the problem for the EC is to create an inclusive definition of migrants which at the same time does not open the system up to misuse. Trust on technology: As various countries reject EVMs for paper-based ballots, does this move have the potential to raise further questions on the sanctity of the electoral process itself. While the EC claims that RVMs are as secure as currently used EVMs, more technological components are bound to raise further questions. Favours Rich & National Parties: There are questions raised as to how remote voting affect elections and campaigning? In a playing field which is far from level, remote voting can theoretically provide an added edge to bigger parties and richer candidates who can campaign across the constituency and beyond. Main Practice Question: Elaborate on the technological measures taken by Election Commission of India to fulfil its Constitutional mandate? Note: Write answer his question in the comment section. table{ border: 1px solid; } table tr, table td{ border: 1px solid; }

Baba’s Explainer

Baba's Explainer - Jallikattu & the controversy

  ARCHIVES Syllabus GS-1: Indian Society and History GS-2: Federalism; Judiciary GS-3: Animal Conservation and Rural Economy Context: With the Supreme Court recommencing its work after the winter vacation, all eyes in Tamil Nadu are on the verdict of a five-member Constitution Bench of the Court on a batch of petitions seeking to strike down a 2017 Tamil Nadu law that protects jallikattu, a traditional event involving bulls. As the conduct of the event will coincide with the Pongal festival, the Supreme Court’s verdict is keenly watched. What is Jallikattu? A tradition over 2,000 years old, Jallikattu is a competitive sport as well as an event to honour bull owners who rear them for mating. It is a violent sport in which contestants try to tame a bull for a prize; if they fail, the bull owner wins the prize. In an age when the farm sector is largely mechanised, there are no major monetary benefits for bull owners in breeding Jallikattu bulls other than the prizes they get during the Jallikattu events. Traditionally, these used to be a dhoti, a towel, betel leaves, bananas and a cash prize of Rs 101. Over the last two decades, the prizes have included grinders, a fridge and small furniture. The bull-taming sport is popular in Madurai, Tiruchirappalli, Theni, Pudukkottai and Dindigul districts — known as the Jallikattu belt. Jallikattu is celebrated in the second week of January, during the Tamil harvest festival, Pongal. It is a controversial sport which has faced long legal battles over cruelty to animals, and which at the same time is a symbol of Tamil culture. Is there any historical evidence of Jallikattu being conducted since ancient times? Jallikattu has been known to be practiced during the Tamil classical period (400-100 BC). It was common among the Ayyar people who lived in the ‘Mullai’ geographical division of the ancient Tamil country. Later, it became a platform for display of bravery and prize money was introduced for participation encouragemen A seal from the Indus Valley Civilization depicting the practice is preserved in the National Museum, New Delhi. A cave painting in white kaolin discovered near Madurai depicting a lone man trying to control a bull is estimated to be about 1,500 years old. Why is Jallikattu important in Tamil culture? Preservation of Native Breeds: Jallikattu is considered a traditional way for the peasant community to preserve their pure-breed native bulls. Prevents Slaughtering: At a time when cattle breeding is often an artificial process, conservationists and peasants argue that Jallikattu is a way to protect these male animals which are otherwise used only for meat if not for ploughing. Pride associated with rearing premium breeds: Kangayam, Pulikulam, Umbalachery, Barugur and Malai Maadu are among the popular native cattle breeds used for Jallikattu. The owners of these premium breeds command respect locally. Agrarian Economy: The political economy of such games is about showcasing the quality of cattle, the breeding skills of cattle rearers, the centrality of cattle in an agrarian economy, and the power and pride they bring to farmers. Symbol of Tamil Culture: Jallikattu’s linkages with Pongal has lifted it above its regional and community origins and transformed it into a symbol of Tamil culture and pride. Such games are a cultural manifestation of this political economy. As a tradition, it links an agrarian people to the elemental aspect of their vocation. Shapes Political Discourse: Pride in Tamil culture is central to Dravidian nationalism, which continues to shape the political discourse in Tamil Nadu. Cultural Representation & Continuity: There exists tangible evidence to show that this battle between man and beast is a cultural representation. What are the arguments against the Jallikattu? Ethical issues: An investigation by the Animal Welfare Board of India concluded that “Jallikattu is inherently cruel to animals”. Human deaths: The event has caused several human deaths and injuries and there are several instances of fatalities to the bulls. Cruelty to animal: A report submitted by the AWBI before the Supreme Court in this case highlighted unimaginable torture inflicted- tails twisted and fractured, chemicals poured into eyes, ears mutilated, sharp edged weapons used to poke the animal. Manhandling of animals: Animal welfare concerns are related to the handling of the bulls before they are released and also during the competitor’s attempts to subdue the bull. What is the legal battle that Jallikattu is facing? In India, legal battles surrounding animal rights issues emerged in the early 1990s. A notification from the Environment Ministry in 1991 banned the training and exhibition of bears, monkeys, tigers, panthers and dogs, which was challenged by the Indian Circus Organisation in the Delhi High Court. In 1998, dogs were excluded from the notification. Jallikattu first came under legal scrutiny in 2007 when the Animal Welfare Board of India and the animal rights group PETA moved petitions in the Supreme Court against Jallikattu as well as bullock cart races. The Tamil Nadu government, however, worked its way out of the ban by passing a law in 2009, which was signed by the Governor. In 2011, the UPA regime at the Centre added bulls to the list of animals whose training and exhibition is prohibited. The Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) and PETA filed a petition in the Supreme Court again and contested that – the regulations were not being followed and that bulls were indeed being subjected to cruelty as defined under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960. In May 2014, days before the BJP was elected to power, the Supreme Court banned the bull-taming sport, ruling on a petition that cited the 2011 notification In January 2016, in what could be seen as a clearly political move, the union environment ministry revoked the ban by issuing a notification months before the elections in Tamil Nadu were due to be held. The Supreme Court stayed this 2016 Union Government notification, as it was challenged by the Animal Welfare Board of India(AWBI) and PETA. PETA – People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals – is an international NGO (having presence in India as well) founded in 1980 and is dedicated to establishing and defending the rights of all animals. PETA operates under the simple principle that animals are not ours to experiment on, eat, wear, use for entertainment, or abuse in any other way In January 2017, several hundreds of protesters conducted a rally at Chennai Marina opposing the ban on Jallikattu. Tamil Nadu passed the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (Tamil Nadu Amendment) Act of 2017 and Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (Conduct of Jallikattu) Rules of 2017. The statutes had re-opened the gates for the conduct of the popular bull-taming sport in the name of culture and tradition despite the 2014 ban by the Supreme Court. In the aftermath of Jallikattu comeback due to Tamil Nādu legislation the Supreme Court had referred a bunch of petitions to the Constitution Bench in February 2018. The main question to be resolved is whether the Jallikattu tradition can be protected as a cultural right of the people of Tamil Nadu which is a fundamental right. Article 29 (1) mandates that “any section of the citizens residing in the territory of India or any part thereof having a distinct language, script or culture of its own shall have the right to conserve the same”. How is the case being presented now? The primary question involved is whether jallikattu should be granted constitutional protection as a collective cultural right under Article 29 (1) — a fundamental right guaranteed under Part III of the Constitution to protect the educational and cultural rights of citizens. The court examined if the laws — the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (Tamil Nadu Amendment) Act of 2017 and the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (Conduct of Jallikattu) Rules of 2017 — “perpetuate cruelty to animals” or were actually a means to ensure “the survival and well-being of the native breed of bulls”. This assumes relevance in the context of the Court quashing 2014 the Tamil Nadu Regulation of Jallikattu Act, 2009, which had allowed jallikattu. The Court had then talked of how bulls were being “tortured to the hilt” in the process of performing for the event. The apex court then scrutinised the question of whether the new jallikattu laws were “relatable” to Article 48 of the Constitution which urged the state to endeavour to organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines. The Constitution Bench also looked into whether jallikattu and bullock-cart race laws of Karnataka and Maharashtra would actually sub-serve the objective of “prevention” of cruelty to animals under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act of 1960. Main Practice Question: What is Jallikattu and what are the legal challenges it is facing? Note: Write answer his question in the comment section. table{ border: 1px solid; } table tr, table td{ border: 1px solid; }

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 6th January 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Black Carbon and black carbon aerosols Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: A recent study conducted on Tibetan plateau showed that increase in South Asian black Carbon aerosols is increasing loss of glaciers from Tibetan Plateau. Key highlights of the study: Black carbon deposition in snow reduces the albedo of surfaces which accelerate melting of glaciers and snow cover and changes hydrological process and water resources in the region. Albedo is ability to reflect back Sun’s radiations. Black carbon aerosols in South Asia heat up the middle and upper atmosphere and increases North South temperature gradient. This increases convective activity in South Asia which causes convergence of water vapour in South Asia. Black carbon also increases the number of cloud condensation nuclei in the atmosphere. About Black Carbon: Black carbon is the sooty black material emitted from gas and diesel engines, coal-fired power plants, and other sources that burn fossil fuel. It comprises a significant portion of particulate matter or PM, which is an air pollutant. Impact of black carbon: Climate impacts: It has a warming impact that is 460-1,500 times stronger than CO2 on climate. It converts incoming solar radiation to heat. It influences cloud formation and impacts regional circulation and rainfall patterns. Health impacts- With size of 2.5 micrometres (PM2.5) or smaller, it can penetrate into lungs and facilitate transport of toxic compounds into the bloodstream. 5 can cause premature death and cause heart and lung disease, strokes, heart attacks, chronic respiratory disease like bronchitis, asthma and pneumonia. Impacts on ecosystem and vegetation- if deposited on plant leaves it will decrease its capability of photosynthesis and thus reduce food production. It can reduce sunlight that reaches the earth and modify rainfall patterns. About Black Carbon aerosols: It is produced by the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels and biomass. It has strong absorption of solar radiation like- visible and infrared radiation. It is also called soot and is part of particulate matter above PM2.5. Thus, it contributes to pollution and Global warming. It can increase the temperature of atmosphere and darken surfaces, specifically snow and ice. It has short lifetime in atmosphere and gets removed in 1-2 weeks, so its impacts tend to be more regional rather than global. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide ? (2022) Cotton Rice Sugarcane Wheat Q.2) In the Guidelines, statements: context of WHO consider the Air Quality following The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m³ and annual mean of PM 2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only Green Urban Oases Programme Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: Recently, Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) launched report on Urban forestry and urban greening in drylands. Key findings of the report: 35% of the world’s largest cities are built in the world’s drylands. It includes Cairo, Mexico City and New Delhi. They are home to 2 billion people, 90% of them in developing countries. Urban forestry and urban greening in drylands, these sprawling and crowded dryland cities face a high risk of social, environmental and economic crisis as they grow. They are becoming hotter and more polluted and face mounting pressure on their scarce natural resources. Weak infrastructure, making them among the most vulnerable places in the world to external shocks from the extreme weather events that climate change brings. More than half of the global population lives in cities and 95% of urban growth between now and 2050 is expected to take place in the global South. Thus, preserving and planting trees has been shown beneficial effect on the lives and health of the people. About Green Urban Oases Programme: It was Launched in 2021 by FAO. It contributes to the FAO Green Cities initiative, which was launched in 2020. It aims to improve the resilience of dryland cities by tackling climate, health, food and economic challenges. To transform dryland cities into ‘green urban oases’ by strengthening their overall resilience to climatic, health, food and economic crises for the improved health and well-being of urban communities. It focuses on developing policy, technical capacity and outlines several pathways for transforming urban spaces by planting trees. Key Recommendation from report: Community Level: Boosting participation and a sense of ownership, providing incentives to encourage tree planting and building capacity through environmental education, awareness raising campaigns towards public engagement. Government Level: Implementing robust policies for protection of urban greenery. Several initiatives including the Great Green Wall in Africa and the Three-North Shelter Forest Programme in China have been put in place to support the implementation of climate adaptation and mitigation strategies in dryland rural areas. Source:  FAO Previous Year Question Q.1) The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the: (2022) Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces Development of gardens genetically modified flora using Creation of mini forests in urban areas Q.2) Consider the following statements: The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Article 19 of the Indian Constitution Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Governance Context: By ruling that a citizen can seek enforcement of the fundamental rights to freedom of speech not just against the state, the Supreme Court has, effectively, extended the ground for seeking these rights against other citizens. About Article 19: Article 19(1) of the Constitution of India guarantees six fundamental freedoms to every citizen of India, namely: Freedom of speech and expression; Freedom to assemble peacefully and without arms; Freedom to form associations, unions or co-operative societies; Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India; Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India, and Freedom to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business. Importance of Article 19 This freedom is essential because the censorial power lies in the people over and against the Government and not in the Government over and against the people. The freedom of speech and expression is required to fulfil the following objectives : To discover truth Non self-fulfilment Democratic value To ensure pluralism Reasonable Restrictions under Article 19: The State can impose restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression in the interests of Sovereignty And Integrity Of India, The Security Of The State, Friendly Relations With Foreign States, Public Order, Decency Or Morality, Or In Relation To Contempt Of Court, Defamation, Or Incitement To An Offence. Key details of the Supreme Court ruling: The court took this view while ruling that the right of free speech and expression guaranteed under the Article 19(1)(a) cannot be curbed by any additional grounds other than those already laid down in Article 19(2). Article 19 which guarantees freedom of speech and expression is a right invoked against the state. The court, extending free speech against private citizens, opens up a range of possibilities in Constitutional law. This interpretation could also bring an obligation on the state to ensure private entities also abide by Constitutional norms. K S Puttaswamy case: The Court relied on the 2017 verdict in Puttaswamy where a nine-judge bench unanimously upheld privacy as a fundamental right. One of the key arguments by the government was that privacy is a right enforceable against other citizens and, therefore, cannot be elevated to the status of a fundamental right against the state. Under Indian Constitution, all the Fundamental Rights are available against the State but only 4 fundamental Rights are available against both State and individuals. Article 15(2) – no citizen shall be subjected to any form of discrimination based on caste, religion, place of birth, or caste. Article 17 – abolition of Untouchability. Article 23 – Prohibits trafficking of humans and forced labour. Article 24 – Prohibits employment of children in factories and hazardous place. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) What is the position of the Right to Property in India? (2021) Legal right available to citizens only Legal right available to any person Fundamental Right available to citizens only Neither fundamental Right nor legal right Q.2) A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of the application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India? (2021) Article 14 Article 28 Article 32 Article 44 National Skill Development Mission Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Union Education and Skill Development & Entrepreneurship Minister chaired the  3rd meeting of the steering committee of National Skill Development Mission. About National Skill Development Mission: The National Skill Development Mission was approved by the Union Cabinet on 01.07.2015, and officially launched by the Hon’ble Prime Minister on 15.07.2015 on the occasion of World Youth Skills Day. The Mission has been developed to create convergence across sectors and States in terms of skill training activities. Further, to achieve the vision of ‘Skilled India’, the National Skill Development Mission would not only consolidate and coordinate skilling efforts, but also expedite decision making across sectors to achieve skilling at scale with speed and standards. It will be implemented through a streamlined institutional mechanism driven by Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE). Key institutional mechanisms for achieving the objectives of the Mission have been divided into three tiers, which will consist of a Governing Council for policy guidance at apex level, a Steering Committee and a Mission Directorate (along with an Executive Committee) as the executive arm of the Mission. Mission Directorate will be supported by three other institutions: National Skill Development Agency (NSDA), The NSDA focuses on policy research via National Skills Research Division, quality assurance and implementation of quality standards across all skilling agencies. It develops protocols for training and accreditations for private trainers, etc. National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) NSDC overlooks training, capacity building aspects of trainers, both public and private, lead the engagement with industries, drive the sectors skills councils., and Directorate General of Training (DGT) The DGT maintains the skill training structures of Advanced Training Institutes (ATIs), Regional Vocational Training Institute (RVTIs) and other such institutes, advises on training policies, trains instructors, provides technical support, runs women-centric training institutes, etc. all of which will have horizontal linkages with Mission Directorate to facilitate smooth functioning of the national institutional mechanism. Seven sub-missions have been proposed initially to act as building blocks for achieving overall objectives of the Mission. They are: (i) Institutional Training, (ii) Infrastructure, (iii) Convergence, (iv) Trainers, (v) Overseas Employment, (vi) Sustainable Livelihoods, (vii) Leveraging Public Infrastructure. Source: NewsOnAir Previous Year Questions Q.1) In India under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (2020) Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Halteria Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Scientists made a monumental breakthrough by identifying an organism, Halteria  that dines entirely on viruses. About Halteria: Halteria is a microscopic ciliates (a single-celled organism with minuscule hairs) that populate freshwater worldwide which can thrive wholly on a virus-only diet or ‘virovory’. Virovory is sufficient to support an organism’s physiological development and even population increase. They’re made up of nucleic acids, a lot of nitrogen and phosphorous. Source:  ScienceAlert Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements: Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Broadcasting Infrastructure and Network Development (BIND) scheme Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance In News: The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approved regarding “Broadcasting Infrastructure and Network Development” (BIND) scheme at a cost of ₹2,539.61 crore. Broadcasting Infrastructure and Network Development (BIND): Aim: For infrastructure development and for providing financial support to Prasar Bharati for expenses related to expansion and upgradation of its broadcasting infrastructure, content development and civil work related to the organization. The BIND scheme will enable the public broadcaster to undertake a major upgradation of its facilities with better infrastructure which will widen its reach, including in the LWE, border and strategic areas Development of high-quality content for both domestic and international audience and ensuring availability of diverse content to the viewers by upgradation of capacity of DTH platform to accommodate more channels. About the scheme: Central Sector Scheme Under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting Purchase of OB vans and digital upgradation of DD and AIR Studios to make them HD ready will be also be done as part of the project. The Scheme will increase coverage of AIR FM transmitters in the country to 66% by geographical area and 80% by population up from 59% and 68% respectively. The Scheme also envisages free distribution of over 8 lakh DD Free Dish STBs to people living in remote, tribal, LWE and border areas. The Project for modernization and augmentation of broadcast infrastructure also has the potential to generate indirect employment by way of manufacturing and services related to supply and installation of broadcast equipment. Content generation and content innovation for AIR & DD has the potential of indirect employment of persons with varied experience of different media fields in the content production sector including TV/Radio production, transmission and associated media related services. Government of India reiterates its commitment to the development, modernization and strengthening of Doordarshan and Akashvani (Prasar Bharati) infrastructure and services, which is a continuous process. Prasar Bharti: Prasar Bharati is the public broadcaster of the country and consists of All India Radio (AIR) and Doordarshan (DD) It is the most important vehicle of information, education, entertainment and engagement for the people especially in the remote areas of the country through Doordarshan and All India Radio. Prasar Bharati played a stellar role in communicating public health messages and awareness to the public during the covid pandemic. At present, Doordarshan operates 36 TV channels including 28 regional channels and All India Radio operates more than 500 broadcasting centres. Source: PIB Silent Valley National Park Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment In News: A bird survey conducted at the Silent Valley National Park identified 141 species, of which 17 were new. So far, 175 species of birds have been spotted in Silent Valley. About the survey The survey was held in association with the Kerala Natural History Society. Brown wood owl, Banded bay cuckoo, Malabar wood shrike, White-throated kingfisher, Indian nightjar, Jungle nightjar, and Large cuckoo shrike were among the 17 species newly identified in the Silent Valley. Silent valley national park Silent Valley National Park is a national park in Kerala, India. It is located in the Nilgiri hills, has a core area of 89.52 km2 which is surrounded by a buffer zone of 148 km2 Declared national park in 1984, inaugurated in 1985 In 1914, Silent Valley forests were declared as Reserved Forest. During 1921, it came under control of Palakkad Forest Division This national park has some rare species of flora and fauna. This area was explored in 1847 by the botanist Robert Wight. It is located in the rich biodiversity of Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. Mukurthi peak, the fifth-highest peak in South India, and Anginda peak are also located in its vicinity. Bhavani River, a tributary of Kaveri River, and Kunthipuzha River, a tributary of Bharathappuzha river, originate in the vicinity of Silent Valley. The Kadalundi River has also its origin in Silent Valley. 41 mammals, 211 birds, 49 reptiles, 47 amphibians, 12 fishes, 164 butterflies and 400 species of moths are found here. Lion tailed macaques is the flagship species of the Park. The indigenous tribal groups that live within park boundaries include Irulas, Kurumbas, Mudugas and Kattunaikkars, the ethnic heritage of these communities is well protected. Karimpuzha Wildlife Sanctuary, New Amarambalam Reserved Forest, and Nedumkayam Rainforest in Nilambur Taluk of Malappuram district, Attappadi Reserved Forest in Mannarkkad Taluk of Palakkad district, and Mukurthi National Park of Nilgiris district, are located around Silent Valley National Park. Source: The hindu Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements are correct? (2020) It is spread over two districts. There is no human habitation inside the Park. It is one of the natural habitats of Great Indian Bustard. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Sustainable Aquaculture In Mangrove Ecosystem (SAIME) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment In News: A new initiative of sustainable shrimp cultivation provides hope for mangrove restoration in Sundarbans. SAIME: The community-based initiative of sustainable shrimp cultivation is being conceived by NEWS and Global Nature Fund (GNF), Naturland Bangladesh Environment and Development Society (BEDS). The initiative started in 2019, has established a collaborative ecosystem integrating several key stakeholders from government departments, academia, and research institutes for co-creation and comprehensive advancement of this project. Farmers have taken up cultivation of shrimp in West Bengal including indigenous varieties of shrimps such as black tiger shrimp (P. monodon) and giant freshwater prawn (M. rosenbergii ). A research program on the contribution of mangrove leaf litter in the nutritional dynamics in SAIME ponds has been initiated in collaboration with the Centre for Excellence in Blue Economy (CoE-BE) of the Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISER), Kolkata Fishing, particularly shrimp cultivation, is one of the key occupations of the people of Sundarbans, which is a complex network of rivers and low-lying islands that face a tide surge twice a day. Shrimp cultivation is practised in about 15,000 to 20,000 hectares of the unique ecosystem in India. T The Sundarbans forest is about 10,000 sq. km across India and Bangladesh, of which 40% lies in India. MUST READ: Sunderbans Source: The hindu Previous Year Question Q.1) Consider the following protected areas Bandipur Bhitarkanika Manas Sunderbans Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves? 1 and 2 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 American foulbrood (AFB) disease Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology In News: The United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) has granted a conditional license for world’s first vaccine for honeybees to curb American foulbrood (AFB), a fatal bacterial disease for the insect, reported The Guardian. Honeybee populations are declining sharply, spurred by habitat loss, pesticide use and the climate crisis. Fewer honeybees mean not just less honey but also less food — honeybees are critical to pollinating up to 95 crops in the US. AFB AFB is caused by the spore-forming bacterium Paenibacillus larvae. Infected broods usually die at the pre-pupal or pupal stage. It is not a stress-related disease and can infect the strongest to the weakest colony in an apiary. Heavy infections can affect most of the brood, severely weakening the colony and eventually killing it. The disease cannot be cured, meaning that the destruction of infected colonies and hives or irradiation of infected material is the only way to manage AFB. The bacteria Melissococcus plutonius causes another similar disease, European foulbrood. However, the incidence of EFB is generally higher when the colony is under stress. Vaccine: The first such vaccine, developed by biotechnology company Dalan Animal Health, gives hope of a new weapon against diseases that routinely ravage colonies relied upon for food pollination. The vaccine technology exposes queen bees to inactive (ie, “dead”) bacteria, which enables the larvae hatched in the hive to resist infection. The vaccine is mixed in queen candy — the primary food source for both the queen bees and the attendant bees living in cages. Worker bees consume the vaccine with the queen candy, which is then digested and transferred to the glands that produce the royal jelly. Worker bees then feed the royal jelly containing the vaccine to the queen bee. The queen digests the royal jelly and the vaccine is transferred to her ovaries. She is then released into the hive. The vaccine gets transferred to the developing eggs. The developing larvae get vaccinated and are more immune to infection as they hatch. Tests also showed no negative impact on honey. Source DTE Previous Year Question Q.1) The term ‘ACE2’ is talked about in the context of (2021) genes introduced in the genetically modified plants development of India’s own satellite navigation system radio collar for wildlife tracking spread of viral diseases National Green Hydrogen Mission Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Environment) Context: The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister has approved India’s Rs 20,000 cr National Green Hydrogen Mission (NGHM). About Hydrogen: Hydrogen is the chemical element with the symbol H and atomic number 1. Hydrogen is the lightest element and the most abundant chemical substance in the universe, constituting roughly 75% of all normal matter. It is colourless, odourless, tasteless, non-toxic, and highly combustible. Hydrogen fuel is a zero-emission fuel burned with oxygen. It can be used in fuel cells or internal combustion engines and as a fuel for spacecraft propulsion. Extraction of Hydrogen: Hydrogen exists in combination with other elements. Hence, for using it as a source of energy, it has to be extracted from naturally occurring compounds like water (which is a combination of two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom). The sources and processes by which hydrogen is derived are categorised by different colours. Benefits of Green Hydrogen Creation of export opportunities for Green Hydrogen and its derivatives Decarbonisation of industrial, mobility and energy sectors Self-Reliance: Reduction in dependence on imported fossil fuels and feedstock Make in India, for India: Development of indigenous manufacturing capabilities Creation of employment opportunities Development of cutting-edge technologies Major Challenges in harnessing Green Hydrogen: Lack of fuel station infrastructure: India will need to compete with around 500 operational hydrogen stations in the world today which are mostly in Europe, followed by Japan and South Korea. Energy-intensive nature of Hydrogen generation process: The technology is in an infant stage and the energy requirement for splitting water or Methane is high. Besides, the whole process is costly at present. High R and D requirement for the newer technology for making the process cheap and operational and scalable. Multiplicity of regulatory authorities: Involvement of multiple Ministries and Departments causes red tape in government functioning. Risks associated with the transportation of hydrogen: Hydrogen in gaseous form is highly inflammable and difficult to transport, thereby making safety a primary concern. About National Green Hydrogen Mission (NHM): NGHM is a part of National Hydrogen Mission (NHM) which was announced by the finance minister in the Union Budget 2021-22. The Prime Minister of India also announced the National Hydrogen Mission on India’s 75th Independence Day. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) will formulate the scheme guidelines for implementation of the respective components. Objectives of the mission: To make India a global hub for the production and export of green hydrogen. To harness green hydrogen energy to fulfill India’s Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs). Key Components of the mission: The NGHM will facilitate demand creation, production, utilization and export of Green Hydrogen. The Mission will also support pilot projects in emerging end-use sectors and production pathways. An enabling policy framework will be developed to support establishment of the Green Hydrogen ecosystem. A public-private partnership framework for R&D; will be facilitated under the Mission. R&D; projects will be goal-oriented, time bound, and suitably scaled up to develop globally competitive technologies. Significance of the NGHM: Renewable Energy Capacity Enhancement: Development of green hydrogen production capacity of at least 5 MMT (Million Metric Tonne) per annum. An associated renewable energy capacity addition of about 125 GW in the country It will boost Investment opportunities for India and create sustainable employment. Cumulative reduction in fossil fuel imports. Green House Gas Emission Reduction: Abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions and help government in achievement the commitments made at COP 26. Initiatives taken by the world countries and India: Japan: Basic Hydrogen Strategy 2017 and plan to develop the international hydrogen supply chain by 2030. South Korea: Hydrogen Economy Development and Safe Management of Hydrogen Act, 2020. The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) issued a notification proposing amendments to the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989 with safety evaluation standards for hydrogen fuel cell-based vehicles. Delhi State Government: Hydrogen Spiked Compressed Natural Gas Buses (H-CNG) i.e. 18% blend of hydrogen with CNG (Plan to have 80% H-CNG buses by 2025) NTPC Ltd is operating a pilot to run 10 hydrogen fuel cell-based electric buses and fuel cell electric cars in Leh and Delhi. Way Forward: The National Hydrogen Mission have the capability of  ensuring integration of India’s clean energy supply chains with that of the world when Inter-Ministerial and various departments work together. The National Hydrogen Mission  will also will ensure realization of the goal of making India carbon neutral and global hub of clean hydrogen energy and will have multiplier effects on the $5 trillion economy. Source: Indian Express India and France relations Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 International Relations Context: 36th India-France Strategic Dialogue between National Security Adviser Ajit Doval and Diplomatic Adviser to the President of France, Emmanuel Bonne was held in New Delhi. India and France reiterated their commitment to take forward their strategic partnership to ensure peace, stability and security in the Indo-Pacific based on common beliefs in the rules-based international order and strategic autonomy. Both sides reiterated that in view of the emerging uncertainties and volatile global security environment, there was a need for closer cooperation between India and France, including in the UNSC and other multilateral forums..  Bilateral relationship: The new French Indo-Pacific strategy advances three key threats to be met by Paris, beyond dealing with North Korean belligerence: Transnational terrorism Chinese challenges to the multilateral order in the region Climate change Indo Pacific: France is a preferred partner in the Indo-Pacific and there is now a blueprint for cooperation in this field in the form of a Joint Strategic Vision for cooperation in the Indian Ocean Region concluded by both countries in 2018. Economic: France is the 7th largest foreign investor in India with a cumulative FDI stock of USD 9 billion from 2000 to 2020, which represents 2 % of the total FDI inflows into India. In FY 2020-21, bilateral trade stood at $ 9.12 Bn and has increased to $ 9.87 Bn during the period April 2021 – January 2022. Launch of Unified Payment Interface (UPI) in France “Co-localisation of production” with India as a priority indicates urgency to take steps for ensuring a more diversified and stable Indo-Pacific and global periphery. Security: Bilateral defence ties are in fine fettle and France has largely stuck to the promised delivery of Rafale aircrafts to India. The challenge here is to move from a buyer-seller relationship to an investor-investee one by making defence equipment in India accompanied by a transfer of technology. Safran Group’s decision to set up their largest and first aircraft engine MRO (maintenance, repair, and overhaul) facility in Hyderabad. The facility will be set up with an investment of Rs 1200 cr and is expected to create about 1,000 high-skilled jobs in Telangana. India and France have conducted joint patrols from the Reunion Island for the first time. The patrol was conducted by a P-8I aircraft with French Navy personnel on board. Bilateral military exercises Exercise Shakti (Army) Exercise Varuna (Navy) Exercise Garuda (Air Force) IMEX 22 Technology: For the first time, the two countries concluded a Joint Vision for Space Cooperation in 2018. The vision document talks of bringing societal benefits of space technology, situational awareness in space domain and cooperation in satellite navigation and related technologies. As for nuclear energy, the two leaders must review progress in the joint construction of the world’s largest nuclear park in Jaitapur, Maharashtra. The French tech services multinational Atos, for instance, provides India with supercomputing hardware and quantum computing simulation software. A recent Track 1.5 Dialogue hosted jointly by think tanks — Gateway House in Mumbai and Ifri in Paris — revealed the importance of Bangalore for the French economy, noting the large number of tech engineers from France who are located in the southern city. France also has a special tech visa for Indian engineers, enabling robust exchanges. Digital cooperation is being stepped up in cyber security and on building standards for public digital infrastructure. Environment and Ecology: India will be the first “country of honour” at the Sea Tech . Week in Brest, France, a major international event bringing  together Blue Economy stakeholders. France announced its support for Prime Minister Modi’s Lifestyle for the Environment (LIFE) initiative, and will seek to work with India on promoting sustainable lifestyles to fight climate change. Regarding solar alliance, India has started having annual summits with France and Germany from 2000. 2021: Year Of Indo-French Alliance Towards A Greener Planet To strengthen Indo-French cooperation in sustainable development, increase the effectiveness of actions in favour of global environment protection and give them greater visibility. Based on five main themes: (1) Environmental protection; (2) Climate change; (3) Biodiversity conservation; (4) Sustainable urban development; (5) Development of renewable energies and energy efficiency. Suggestions for future: France holds the rotating presidency of the EU In this regard, discussion on FTA and the Investment Agreement that India is negotiating with the EU and persuade France to weigh in favourably with the Brussels bureaucracy and other stakeholders. More can be done in the area of digital sovereignty where India is a potential model for France with its use of open platforms and open-source public goods like India Stack and MOSIP; regulation, especially personal data empowerment and protection; health data and health tech. France and India must now invest in preventing digital platforms from being weaponised and avert threats to critical infrastructure. They must use their unique strengths — India in conceptualising and deploying large-scale open-source platforms, foundational IDs, IT services and fintech, and France in AI, cyber, quantum technologies, data empowerment and protection, to create the next-gen solutions for the world. Accelerate investment between two countries in low carbon alternatives like wind, solar PV, biomethane, heat pumps, nuclear and clean hydrogen. India has the market, France has the technology and capital, and the EU has the political will and incentives to drive the transition to green hydrogen. Major French multinationals such as Air Liquide, Engie and TotalEnergies are already pursuing hydrogen energy, and pilot projects with Indian partners can be planned They discussed expanding the scope of defence cooperation to include the co-development of futuristic technologies in line with India’s priorities of Make in India and Atmanirbhar Bharat. Way forward: Newer areas of cooperation such as connectivity, climate change, cyber-security and science and technology. In these important areas, the two leaders will be briefed by officials about progress made so that roadblocks, if any, can be tackled. France has supported India’s G20 presidency and it goes a long way in strengthening ties between the two countries. Source: The hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) With reference to ‘Silent Valley National Park’, consider the following statements? Lion tailed macaque is its flagship species It comes under Annamalai Biosphere reserve Which of the following statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to ‘American foulbrood (AFB) disease’, consider the following statements? The disease affects pollination in maize plants. It is caused by spore-forming bacteria Which of the following statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) Consider the following: Households Agriculture Fossil fuels Transportation Which of the are sources of Black carbon which has serious consequences on climate change? 1 2 and 3 only 2 3 and 4 only 1 3 and 4 only 1 2 3 and 4 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 6th January 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 5th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – d Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2022 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 6th January 2022

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 5th January 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Award (PBSA) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Miscellaneous Context: Guyana’s President Mohamed Irfaan Ali, US-based businessman Darshan Singh Dhaliwal, and DSB Group CEO Piyush Gupta are among 21 recipients of the 17th Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Award (PBSA). The 17th PBD Convention will be held from 8 – 10 January 2023 in Indore, Madhya Pradesh. The Pravasi Bharatiya Divas: Aims: to highlight the contribution of Overseas Indians (OICs) towards India’s development, to showcase India as a dynamic and attractive destination for investment, tourism, and business, and to recognize the services of the Indian diaspora in strengthening India’s ties with other countries. On the 9th of January every year, Pravasi Bharatiya Divas is celebrated. It denotes the day when Mahatma Gandhi, along with a group of Indian emigrants, returned to India from South Africa on 9 January 1915 after spending 21 years in the African country. It marks the homecoming of the Indian diaspora. The format of the PBD Convention was revised in 2015 and since then it has been organised every two years. The theme of the 17th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) Convention 2023 is: “Diaspora: Reliable Partners for India’s progress in Amrit Kaal”. About PBSA: The Pravasi Bharatiya Samman is the highest Indian award for Non-resident Indian and Overseas Citizen of India or an organisation or institution established and run by Non-Resident Indians or Persons of Indian Origin. It was constituted by the Ministry of Overseas Indian Affairs in conjunction with the Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (Non-Resident Indian Day), to honour exceptional and meritorious contribution in their chosen field/profession. The award is given by the President of India. It is conferred for outstanding contributions in any of the following areas: Better understanding of India Support to India’s causes and concerns in a tangible way Building closer links between India, the overseas Indian community and their country of residence; Social and humanitarian causes in India or abroad Welfare of the local Indian community Philanthropic and charitable work Eminence in one’s field or outstanding work, which has enhanced India’s prestige in the country of residence; Eminence in skills which has enhanced India’s prestige in that country (for non-professional workers). Source:  Indian Express Passport as a fundamental right under article 21 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Governance Context: The Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh High Court slammed the Passport Office, Srinagar, for not considering the application of the mother of PDP chief. Earlier interpretation of article 21 and Judicial pronouncements: The Supreme Court of India significantly broadened the interpretation of Article 21 of the Indian Constitution in Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, a historic judgement. It overruled K. Gopalan v. State of Madras, which had implied the exclusiveness of fundamental rights, and established a relationship between Articles 14, 19, and 21 of the Constitution (known as the ‘golden triangle’ or ‘trinity’). It held that  a law depriving a person of ‘personal liberty’ must not violate any of them. The decision also held that a procedure under Article 21 of the Constitution cannot be arbitrary, unfair, oppressive, or unreasonable. Recently the Delhi High Court also observed that every citizen has a fundamental right to go abroad and have a passport issued in his name. In Poulami Basu vs The Government of India: A Single Bench of Karnataka HC has held that, right to travel abroad is a fundamental right guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution of India. Source:  Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the constitution of India? (2021) Article 15 Article 19 Article 21 Article 29 Q.2) Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice? (2019) Article 19 Article 21 Article 25 Article 29 Q.3) Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement? (2018) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part. III Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution Mural Art Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – History and Art and Culture Context: The Wall of Peace, a great work of modern mural art on the 700-feet long compound wall of Government Vocational Higher Secondary School at Cherpulassery, was recently inaugurated. The mural, in dimmed golden shade done with cement and sand on the 10-ft-high wall, has already won many an accolade, including the Eurasia World Record for the largest public art project. About Mural Art: The word ‘mural’ derived from the Latin word ‘murus’ which means wall. It can be defined as any piece of artwork painted or applied directly onto a wall, ceiling or other larger permanent surfaces, flat, concave or convex, to be precise. India has a rich tradition of mural wealth. The treatises such as Vishnudharmottara, Silpashastra, Manasollasa, Shilparatna, Narada-shilpa-shastra and Kashyapa-shilpa, discuss at length all aspects of painting, including murals. Features of Indian Mural Paintings: It depict the activities of a particular civilization‘s people, encapsulating a moment in time, and range from scenes of hunting, gathering, and family life, to religious and funerary scenes. It is a combination of wide variety of artistic style, Realism with a dramatic sense of scale and amazing depth. Artwork depicts the expression of emotions through hand postures. It played an important role in reflecting changes in the political culture through the depiction of subjects ranging from religion to sex. It often served the role of creating public awareness of certain issues and in decisive ways performed the function of socio-political critique, as well as reinforcing political and community identities. It acts as a mediator between the public, the government, and artists. It is complex and very prickly at times, especially when, as is so often the case in Iran, art is politicized and politics is aestheticized. It is three-dimensional form of artwork. Types of Indian Mural Paintings: Tempera Painting: Tempera painting is done by preparation of pigment into a water-miscible medium. Oil Painting: Oil Painting is a standard of painting in oil colours which grips suspension of pigments into drying oils. Fresco Painting: Fresco Painting is an ancient practice that engrossed painting of water-based pigments on recently applied plaster, usually on wall façade. Mural Paintings in India: There are fragments of paintings of the time of Ajanta which survive at many Buddhist cave sites, including Pitalkhora near Ellora, in Maharashtra. Nine caves were excavated on the slopes of the Vindhya hills above the Bagh river during the reign of the Guptas, between the 4th and 6th centuries A.D. Very little of the paintings survive in the 6th century Hindu caves of Badami in Karnataka. Expression to themes relating to Siva in the paintings in the temples of Panamalai and Kailashanatar in Kancheepuram. In the 9th century Jain cave of Sittannavasal in Tamil Nadu, there is a marvellous lotus pond painted on the ceiling. The monastery of Alchi is an oasis of beauty and colour in the midst of the vast and barren landscape of Ladakh. One of the masterpieces of the Alchi paintings is the Green Tara. Mural Paintings at Lepakshi temple which was built in the 16th century by the Nayaka brothers, Virupanna and Viranna, at a centre of trade and pilgrimage in the Vijayanagar empire. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Question Q.1) Kalamkari painting refers to a hand-painted cotton textile in South India a handmade drawing on bamboo handicrafts in North East India. a block-painted woollen cloth in the Western Himalayan region of India a hand-painted decorative silk cloth in North-Western India African animal trypanosomosis (AAT) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently Ethiopia has released the first edition of an atlas to map Tsetse and Trypanosomosis affecting livestock in the country and the vector behind it. About ATT: Also known as nagana or nagana pest, Animal African Trypanosomosis (AAT), is a protozoan parasitic disease of vertebrate animals. It affects cattle, water buffalo, sheep, goats, horses, pigs, dogs and other species. The disease is caused by the protozoan parasites Trypanosoma congolense, Trypanosoma vivax and, to a lesser extent, Trypanosoma brucei brucei which are all mainly transmitted by tsetse flies. Distribution: From the southern edge of the Sahara desert to Zimbabwe, Angola and Mozambique in the South. Impact: Animal African Trypanosomosis (AAT) is estimated to kill 3 million cattle annually. Losses directly attributed to trypanosomosis from reduced meat and milk production, and the cost of treatment and vector control, are estimated to be USD $1.2 billion. Losses in agricultural gross domestic product for all tsetse-infested lands was estimated to be USD4.75 billion per annum. Epidemiology: Most trypanosomes develop for one to a few weeks in tsetse flies (Glossina spp.), which act as biological vectors. The parasites are transmitted to the host animal in saliva when a fly bites the host. Trypanosomes can also be spread by fomites such as surgical instruments and mechanical vectors like biting flies including horse flies—especially T. vivax. Trypanosomes infect the blood of the host causing fever, weakness, lethargy and anaemia, which lead to weight loss and a reduction in fertility and milk production. Control: AAT can be controlled by reducing tsetse fly populations with traps and insecticides. Animals can be given antiparasitic drugs prophylactically in areas with a high population of trypanosome-infected tsetse flies. No vaccine is available to prevent trypanosomiasis. Source:  DownToEarth Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022) They protect the body from environmental allergens. They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens. Q.2) With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements: Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Rani Velu Nachiyar Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – History and Art and Culture Context: Recently, the Prime Minister of India has paid tributes to Rani Velu Nachiyar on her birth anniversary. About QUEEN VELU NACHIAR (3 January 1730 – 25 December 1796): She was the first queen to fight against the British colonial power in India. She is known by Tamils as Veeramangai. She was the princess of Ramanathapuram and the only child of Raja Chellamuthu Vijayaragunatha Sethupathy and Rani Sakandhimuthal of the Ramnad kingdom. She was trained in war to match weapons usage, martial arts like Valari, Silambam (fighting using a stick), horse riding, and archery. She was a scholar in many languages and she had proficiency with languages like French, English and Urdu. She married the king of Sivagangai, with whom she had a daughter. She succeeded her husband in 1780 and She granted powers to the Marudu brothers to administer the country in 1780. She died a few years later, on 25 December 1796. Source: NewsOnAir Previous Year Questions Q.1) In the context of Indian history, the Rakhmabai case of 1884 revolved around Women’s right to gain education Age of consent Restitution of conjugal rights Select the correct answer using the code given below : (2020) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events: Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy Quit India Movement launched Second Round Table Conference What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events? (2017) 1-2-3 2-1-3 3-2-1 3-1-2 National Genome Editing and Training Centre Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology In News: Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) Science & Technology; Minister of State (Independent Charge) Earth Sciences; MoS PMO, Personnel, Public Grievances, Pensions, Atomic Energy and Space will be inaugurating the ‘National Genome Editing and Training Centre (NGETC)’ and ‘International Conference on Food and Nutritional Security-2023 (iFANS-2023)’ at NABI, Mohali. NGETC: NGETC is a one-roof state-of-the-art facility that will serve as a national platform to cater to the regional needs to adapt different genome editing methods, including CRISPR-Cas mediated genome modification. In the current climatic scenario, improving crops for better nutrition and tolerance to the changing environmental condition is a significant challenge. Genome editing could be a promising technology that Indian research could adapt to offer the desired tailor-made traits in crops. NABI has shown ability and can expand the genome editing tools to vast arrays of crops, including Banana, Rice, Wheat, Tomato, Maize and Millets. The International Conference on Food and Nutritional Security: iFANS-2023 will be jointly organized by the National Agri-Food Biotechnology Institute (NABI), Centre for Innovative and Applied Bioprocessing (CIAB), National Institute of Plant Biotechnology (NIPB), and International Centre for Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology (ICGEB) at NABI, Mohali. The conference envisages bringing together international experts and young researchers in the areas of agriculture  , food, and nutrition biotechnology, and genome editing. The theme of the conference is pertinent to inspire young students and researchers considering the fact that food and nutrition security is a global demand. Advanced biotechnology tool such as genome editing using CRISPR-Cas9 has potential to achieve these goals in a sustainable manner. National Agri-Food Biotechnology Institute (NABI): Aim Food and nutritional security for all through agri-food biotechnology research and innovation. To be a centre of excellence and provide leadership in agri-food biotechnology research Improving nutritional quality and availability of affordable agri-food and food products through innovations. It is the first Agri-Food Biotechnology Institute, established in India in 2010. The institute is part of agri-food cluster in the “Knowledge City” of Mohali (Punjab) along with its neighbouring institutes. Activities undertaken at NABI: Agricultural Biotechnology, Food and Nutritional Biotechnology, Human Resource Development, Meeting and Courses and Technology Transfer and Outreach. Source: PIB Previous Year Question Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2018) Terms sometimes                         Context/Topic seen in news Belle II experiment       —         Artificial Intelligence Blockchain technology —       Digital/Cryptocurrency CRISPR – Cas9             —        Particle Physics Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 NTPC Ltd. And Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Ltd (HPCL) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy In News: NTPC Green Energy Ltd (NGEL) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Ltd (HPCL) for Development of Renewable Energy based Power Projects to tap Business opportunities in RE and supply of 400 MW round the clock renewable power for requirements of HPCL. This MoU marks the first step for NGEL and HPCL to collaborate and cooperate in the field of development of Renewable Energy projects which shall help HPCL in meeting its Clean Energy Commitments. NTPC: NTPC is India’s largest energy conglomerate with roots planted way back in 1975 to accelerate power development in India. NTPC became a Maharatna company in May 2010. NTPC is ranked No. 2 Independent Power Producer(IPP) in Platts Top 250 Global Energy Company rankings. Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Ltd (HPCL) It is an Indian oil and gas refining company headquartered in Mumbai It was incorporated in 1974 after the takeover and merger of erstwhile Esso Standard and Lube India Limited In 2019, the company became a Maharatna PSU Since 2018, ONGC has owned a majority stake in the company The company is ranked 367th on the Fortune Global 500 list of the world’s biggest corporations as of 2016. Maharatna Companies Maharatna Scheme was introduced for Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs), in 2010, in order to empower mega CPSEs to expand their operations and emerge as global giants. The objective of the scheme is to delegate enhanced powers to the Boards of identified large-sized Navratna CPSEs so as to facilitate expansion of their operations, both in domestic as well as global markets. Following 10 CPSEs have been identified as Maharatnas: BHARAT HEAVY ELECTRICALS LTD. BHARAT PETROLEUM CORP.LTD. COAL INDIA LTD. GAIL (INDIA) LTD. HINDUSTAN PETROLEUM CORP.LTD. INDIAN OIL CORP.LTD. NTPC LTD. OIL & NATURAL GAS CORP.LTD. POWER GRID CORP.OF INDIA LTD. STEEL AUTHORITY OF INDIA LTD. Eligibility Criteria for grant of Maharatna status Having Navratna status Listed on the Indian stock exchange, with a minimum prescribed public shareholding under SEBI regulations An average annual turnover of more than 20,000 crore during the last three years An average annual net worth of more than 10,000 crore during the last three years An average annual net profit of more than 2,500 crore during the last 3 years Significant global presence or international operations Source: PIB National Conference of Chief Secretaries Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity In News: Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi will chair the second National Conference of Chief Secretaries in Delhi on 6th and 7th January, 2023. It will be another key step towards further boosting the partnership between the Centre and the State Governments. The first such Conference of Chief Secretaries was held in June 2022 The second Conference of Chief Secretaries will be held in 2023 in Delhi. The three day Conference will focus on achieving rapid and sustained economic growth in partnership with the States. Focused deliberations would be held on four topics, viz. (i) Vocal for Local; (ii) International Year of Millets; (iii) G20: Role of States; and (iv) Emerging Technologies. The Chief secretary of state: The Chief Secretary is the top-most executive official and senior-most officer of the Indian Administrative Service of the state government. It ranks 23rd on the Indian order of precedence. The Chief Secretary is the ex-officio head of the state Civil Services Board, the state cadre Indian Administrative Service and all civil services under the rules of business of the state government. Appointment: Appointed by the Chief Minister of state. The Chief Minister after short-listing the names can have an opinion of the Union government related to the appointment but this consultation is not mandatory. Usually, these three factors are considered: Seniority, service record, and Evaluation of the Chief Minister. Role: The Chief Secretary acts as the principal advisor to the chief minister on all matters of state administration. The Chief Secretary acts as an ex-officio secretary to the state cabinet, therefore called “Secretary to the Cabinet“. The status of this post is equal to that of a Secretary to the Government of India. A Chief Secretary functions as the central point of interdepartmental coordination at the departmental level. Source: PIB Siachen Glacier Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Geography In News: The Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi has applauded as Capt Shiva Chauhan of Fire and Fury Sappers became the first woman officer to be operationally deployed in Kumar Post, post completion of arduous training, at the highest battlefield of the world Siachen. The Siachen glacier: It is the highest battleground on Earth. Troops are deployed at elevations of up to 6,700 metres (22,000 feet) at minus 60 degrees C. India occupied Siachen glacier under Operation Meghdoot in 1984. Siachen Glacier, piedmont glacier located in the Karakoram Range. It lies in the heavily glaciated Himalayan region known as the “Third Pole,” because mountain glaciers in this region contain more fresh water than is found anywhere else on Earth except for the polar ice caps. The Siachen Glacier lies between the Saltoro Ridge, a subrange of the Karakorams, to the west and the main Karakoram Range to the east. It is 75 km (47 miles) long, which makes it the second longest nonpolar glacier in the world, after Fedchenko Glacier in Tajikistan. The Siachen Glacier is positioned from northwest to southeast. It originates at the base of the Indira Col West, a col (low point) on the Indira Ridge, at an altitude of 6,115 metres (20,062 feet), and it descends to an altitude of 3,570 metres (11,713 feet). On its left flank are three tributary glaciers: Teram Shehr, North Terong, and South Terong. On its right flank are tributary glaciers: Zingrulma, Gyongla, Lolofond Nubra River originates from Siachen glacier. The name Siachen refers to a land with an abundance of roses. Significance: The Siachen region is strategically important for India because it separates Pakistan from China. It also enables India to monitor the Gilgit and Baltistan regions of Pakistan. Effects of climate change are being felt as well, as faster-melting snows made living near the ice more hazardous. In addition, the presence of both countries’ military forces led to the dumping of large quantities of nonbiodegradable waste on and near the glacier, and that waste in turn passed as pollution into the Nubra, Shyok, and Indus rivers. Moreover, the troops’ presence posed a threat to indigenous wildlife, including the Himalayan brown bear (Ursus arctos isabellinus), the Siberian, or Asiatic, ibex (Capra sibirica), and the snow leopard (Panthera uncia or Uncia uncia). Source PIB  Previous Year Question Q.1) Siachen Glacier is situated to the (2020) East of Aksai Chin East of Leh North of Gilgit North of Nubra Valley Role of Digital Banks in Financial Inclusion Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: Recently NITI Aayog published a discussion paper titled “Digital Banks: A Proposal for Licensing & Regulatory Regime for India”, which explained the value proposition of full-stack digital banks and laid down an implementation plan. The reason behind the advocacy of full-stack digital banks is the lack of credit penetration among MSMEs and the full-stack digital banks are a potential solution for the persistent policy challenge of credit deepening and are seen as “the next stage of financial inclusion”. About Digital Bank:  A digital bank would be a bank defined in the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, and shall have its own balance sheet and legal existence. It is banking done through the digital platform, doing away with all the paperwork like cheques, pay-in slips, Demand Drafts, and so on. It means availability of all banking activities online. The shift from traditional to digital banking has been gradual and remains ongoing, and is constituted by differing degrees of banking service digitization. Difference between Digital Banks and Digital Banking Units: Digital banks are financial institutions that have no physical branches and offer banking services entirely online through their website and mobile banking app. Digital banks will be completely independent banks to be licensed under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, and they will follow the Reserve Bank norms on par with commercial banks. While Digital Banking Units do not have legal personality and are not separately licensed under the Act. Issues with Traditional Banks: Traditional banks find it difficult to assess creditworthiness of SMEs while manually curating information from physical documents such as financial statements, tax returns and payroll statements. The current delivery systems are largely paper-based, with high turnaround time and requiring multiple visits to bank branches. It entails high operational costs for lenders and opportunity costs for borrowers. MSME borrowers want a fast approval process and certainty regarding funds availability. They value speed and convenience and want a seamless, consistent lending experience that delivers instant decisions and immediate delivery of funds. Significance of Digital Banking: The flow of credit will improve in the rural areas. Poor will get easier access to money and loans. The establishment of these units will be cheaper than the conventional brick and mortar units. They will provide better technical support to customers. Digital Units will decrease the manpower requirement. For the scheduled banks, they will ensure steady profits. DBUs will help the government enhance digital literacy. Challenges of Digital Banking: The limitations of DBU include low public awareness and internet penetration in lower-tier cities. Digital banking forums are prone to vulnerabilities and hacks such as phishing, pharming, identity theft, and keylogging. Huge investment needed: Banking institutions are investing a lot in their security systems. Way Forward: Digital banks are best suited to usage of new age techniques like predictive analyses and artificial intelligence (AI) to arrive at real time decisions for time-busy MSMEs and Individuals at large. These technologies allow banks to move from traditional funding methods based on collaterals to advanced cash flow lending. Digital banks can rethink and retool lending mechanism, credit underwriting process and gradually shun security-oriented lending. All that which has been done to payments ecosystem in India needs to be replicated in the field of credit assessment and delivery which will further enhance financial inclusion in the country. Source: The Hindu Eco-sensitive Zones Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Environment In News: On June 3, a three-judge bench of the Supreme Court heard a PIL which sought to protect forest lands in the Nilgiris in Tamil Nadu, but was later expanded to cover the entire country. Context: The apex court directed all states to have a mandatory 1-km ESZ from the demarcated boundaries of every protected forest land, national park and wildlife sanctuary. It also stated that no new permanent structure or mining will be permitted within the ESZ. Protests erupted across the high ranges of Kerala in response to the apex court’s direction, similar to protests triggered by the recommendations of the Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP) led by Madhav Gadgil What are Eco-sensitive zones (ESZs): As per the National Wildlife Action Plan (2002-2016), issued by the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, land within 10 km of the boundaries of national parks and wildlife sanctuaries is to be notified as eco-fragile zones or Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZ). Areas beyond 10-km can also be notified by the Union government as ESZs, if they hold larger ecologically important “sensitive corridors.” They are created as “shock absorbers” for the protected areas, to minimize the negative impact on the “fragile ecosystems” by certain human activities taking place nearby. Furthermore, these areas are meant to act as a transition zone from areas requiring higher protection to those requiring lesser protection. ESZs are not meant to hamper the daily activities of people living in the vicinity, but are meant to guard the protected areas and “refine the environment around them”. Activities prohibited are commercial mining, saw mills, commercial use of wood, etc., apart from regulated activities like felling of trees. Permitted activities include ongoing agricultural or horticultural practices, rainwater harvesting, organic farming, among others. Various sections of society in the hill district have participated in public meetings, rallies, and door-to-door campaigns against the buffer zone regime. Kerala State Remote Sensing and Environment Centre report: In its order, the apex court had directed the Principal Chief Conservator of Forests of each State and Union Territory (UTs) to draw up a list of subsisting structures and other relevant details within the respective ESZs and furnish a report. The court also warned that in the event of any State/UT failing to submit a proposal, an area of 10 kilometre would be considered as buffer zone in respect of such sanctuaries or national parks and restrictions would be imposed in those areas. Findings: The KSRSEC had also reported that 115 villages in Kerala would come under the buffer zone of the protected areas of the State. a total area of 1,588.709 sq. km would come under ESZs. The sanctuaries and national parks in the State are spread over an area of 3,441.207 sq. km. The assessment found that 83 tribal settlements were located within the ESZs of the State. Challenges: Due to the high density of human population near the notified protected areas, farmer’s groups and political parties have been demanding that all human settlements be exempt from the ESZ ruling. Fearful farmers – the settler-farmers living around protected areas have become fearful that ESZ delineation would make farming impossible and they could be gradually evicted from their holdings. The ESZ demarcation move became an emotive issue for hundreds of farmers in the region who have successfully built their lives and settlements on forest fringes, battling inclement weather and wild beasts. Faulty KSRSEC report including allegations that the motive behind the survey was to relocate people from the forest fringes and thus expand forest cover in the State. The thick and dense canopy restricts the identification of all the subsisting structures and roads in the visual interpretation process. The price of land has plummeted following the release of the aerial survey report. Landowners worry that this will affect their plans based on the asset value of their holdings. This may affect the educational aspirations of students from rural areas Farmers are already burdened with fighting wild animal attacks and decreasing prices of agricultural produce Suggestions: Conducting a scientific study along the lines prescribed by the Supreme Court to identify the subsisting structures. Using cadastral maps and the present land use/land cover pattern of the boundary sharing villages from satellite data on the GIS platform Kerala proposed to exclude human habitations and settlements from the ambit of the buffer zone. Using aerial survey report to highlight the density of the population and the presence of human habitations in the zone to take advantage of the apex court’s suggestion that an ESZ may be diluted in overwhelming public interest. The apex court had suggested that the minimum width of the ESZ may be diluted in the public interest and State governments should be able to convince the Central Empowered Committee(CEC) and the Ministry of Environment on the same. Setting up help desks in the panchayats of the State that come under the ESZ regime for physical verification of the holdings and settlements that come under the zone. The Kerala government appointed an expert committee headed by a former Chief Justice of the Calcutta High Court, for field verification. Way forward: Kerela is a State sandwiched between the mountains and the sea, hence its ecological sustainability is a delicate subject Social changes due to modern environmental discourse in the form of tourism are disturbing the local ecological and social realities, in which the locals play an active role. There is a need for rethinking on the impacts of the environmental policies at the local level, the type and prospects of local participation and most importantly the prospects of alternate income generating opportunities for successful conservation initiatives. Source The Hindu Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to Eco-Sensitive Zones’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2014) Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities in those zones except agriculture. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) With reference to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’, which of the following statements is/are correct? Kerela has the highest number of Eco-Sensitive Zones. Felling of trees is completely prohibited in these areas. Which of the following statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following is not a criteria for a “Maharatna Company” in India? Status of Navratna company Net worth of more than Rs. 10,000 crore Significant international presence Debt to equity ratio of 2:1 Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding The Chief Secretary of a state: The Chief Secretary will be appointed by the Chief Minister of state. The Chief Secretary acts as an ex-officio secretary to the state cabinet, therefore called “Secretary to the Cabinet. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 5th January 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 4th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – a Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2022 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 5th January 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

[INTERVIEW INITIATIVE] Think, Rethink and Perform (TRP) [DAY 24] 2022 for UPSC/IAS Personality Test!

ARCHIVES (of TRP) - > CLICK HERE Those who have appeared for UPSC Mains 2022, fill up the Google form given below. Students who fill out the form will be added to a telegram group so that there can be healthy discussions with other students who will be appearing for the Interview/Personality Test. Also, Mohan sir, Bureaucrats and Ex-Bureaucrats will be interacting one-on-one with all the students who will be appearing for the same. REGISTER HERE – CLICK HERE Interview Discussion: Think, Rethink and Perform; (TRP) - Day 24 Set 1: Ask these questions to yourself; contemplate and come out with a concrete answer (not to be discussed on this forum). Invest at least 30 minutes in this set of questions. Do you think it is important to be highly aspirational in your life? What if your aspirations don’t conform to the social norms or expectations of your family? Is it fine to pursue one’s passion even if there is a lot of resistance from within the family or society? Set 2: Analyse the following issue:  How can India effectively finance its transition to a low-carbon economy and address the impacts of climate change, given the significant costs involved and the limitations of its domestic resources? Some argue that India should rely on international sources of climate finance, such as grants and loans from developed countries or multilateral organizations. Others believe that India should prioritize domestic sources of funding, such as carbon pricing or the diversion of subsidies from fossil fuels to clean energy. Which approach do you believe is more viable, and why? We expect you to discuss the above question (Set 2) in the comments below and come out with a balanced view of the issues. Thank YouIASbaba