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[2 DAYS TO GO] REGISTER NOW for Baba’s GURUKUL ADVANCED for Veterans’ ENTRANCE TEST

GURUKUL ADVANCED FOR VETERANS 'A Rigorous, Intensive Tests & Mentorship Based Programme' The Registrations for Baba’s GURUKUL ADVANCED 2022 Entrance Test which is scheduled for 28th September, will close on 27th September (6 PM). Hurry Up and Register Now! REGISTER NOW! - CLICK HERE Only a limited number of students who are highly dedicated will be selected through multiple rounds of scrutiny. Seats are limited as one on one mentorship is possible only with a limited number of students. The selection process will be similar to UPSC standards, comprising of Prelims Test (50 MCQs – 100 marks; Syllabus will include current affairs of last one year and static GS topics + Objective CSAT questions), Mains Test – 150 marks (it will include an essay based on Current Issues and case studies of Ethics to check the approach of candidates) and Personality Test (it will be conducted to check the dedication of candidates and their level of understanding of Current Issues). Date of Entrance Test - 28th September (Wednesday) at 11 AM. Last Date to Register - 27th September (6 PM) Mode of Test - ONLINE only. Timings – 11:00 am (2 Hours and 30 Minutes) The results of the Entrance Test will be out on the 30th of September (Friday). Interviews will be starting on 1st October (Saturday) The final results will be out on 4th October (Tuesday) The login credentials for the Entrance Test will be shared with registered students on 27th September by 10 PM. KNOW MORE ABOUT BABA's GURUKUL ADVANCED 2022 - CLICK HERE CONTACT US You can call us on 91691 91888 or mail us at support@iasbaba.com Or visit our centres: Delhi: Plot 22-B, 3rd floor, Pusa Road, Bada Bazar Marg, Rajinder Nagar, New Delhi- 110060 Landmark: Above Dominos Bengaluru: IASbaba Headquarters (HQ) – 2nd floor, Ganapathi Circle, 80 Feet Rd, Chandra Layout, Bengaluru. Lucknow: B-1/66, Sector J, Aliganj, Lucknow – 226024 Landmark: Near Mr Brown / Opp to Sahu Studio  

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 26th September 2022

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Elephant Conservation Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: Tamil Nadu Forest officials learn the ‘language of elephants’, thanks to calf rescue missions. Over the last one year, the department has successfully reunited three elephant calves that got separated from their herds in Nilgiris district of Tamil Nadu. Asian Elephants and African Elephants: About African Elephants: African Savanna (or bush) elephant IUCN Red List: Endangered African Forest Elephants IUCN Red List: Critically Endangered Note: Previously, IUCN listed both African elephants as “vulnerable”. But now it has opted to list them separately. It is after genetic evidence has proved that both are different species. Habitat: The distribution of African elephants is throughout the savannas of sub-Saharan Africa and the rainforests of Central and West Africa. African Savanna (or bush) elephant: They are larger animals that roam the plains of sub-Saharan Africa. African Forest Elephants: They are smaller animals that live in the forests of Central and West Africa. Characteristics: African elephants are the largest land animals on Earth. They are slightly larger than Asian Elephants and can be identified by their larger ears. (Asian elephants have smaller, rounded ears) Elephants are matriarchal. It means they live in female-led groups. The matriarch is usually the biggest and oldest. Keystone Species: African elephants are keystone species, i.e., they play a critical role in their ecosystem. They are also known as “ecosystem engineers” as they shape their habitat in many ways. About Asian Elephants: The Asian elephant is the largest land mammal on the Asian continent. They inhabit dry to wet forest and grassland habitats in 13 range countries spanning South and Southeast Asia. IUCN Red List: Endangered CITES: Appendix I. Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I. Elephant Reserves in India: The Indian elephant Elephas maximus occurs in the central and southern Western Ghats, North-east India, eastern India, and northern India and in some parts of southern peninsular India. It occurs in 16 of the 28 states in the country and is showing an increasing trend across its distributional range. Its population in 2007 was estimated to be in the range from 27,657 to 27,682, whereas in 2012 the population was estimated to be between 27,785 and 31,368. Karnataka has highest elephant population followed by Kerala, according to recent report of MoEF&CC. PROJECT ELEPHANT : was launched by the Government of India in the year 1992 as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme with following objectives: To protect elephants, their habitat & corridors To address issues of man-animal conflict Welfare of captive elephants The Project is being mainly implemented in 16 States / UTs , viz. Andhra Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Kerala, Maharashtra, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Orissa, Tamil Nadu, Tripura, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change provides the financial and technical support to major elephant range states in the country through Project Elephant. Source: The Hindu                  Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements : Wild animals are the sole property of the government. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements: The leader of an elephant group is a female The maximum gestation period can be 22 months An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  (2020) 1 and 2 only 2 and 4 only 3 only 1, 3 and 4 only Q.3) Consider the following statements: Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2020) 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Ambedkar Tourist Circuit Open in new window Syllabus Prelims: Modern India In News: The Central government has announced a special tourist circuit encompassing five key sites associated with Dr. B.R. Ambedkar The Five Key Sites – The “Panchateerths” Mhow: His Birthplace Nagpur: Where he studied London: Where he resided and studied Delhi: Where he breathed his last Mumbai: Where he was cremated Other sites of relevance Raigarh, Maharashtra: Where Dr. Ambedkar led the Mahad Satyagraha, one of the greatest incidents of expression of freedom for Dalits On March 20, 1927 To allow untouchables to use water in a public tank in Mahad Pune, Maharashtra: Where he held the first negotiations with Mahatma Gandhi in Yerwada jail On a separate electorate for depressed classes in the legislature of British India in 1932. The result was the Poona Pact signed by Dr. Ambedkar on behalf of the depressed classes and by Madan Mohan Malviya on behalf of upper caste Hindus. Kolhapur, Maharashtra: In March 1920, another legendary social reformer, Chatrapati Shahuji Maharaj, declared Dr. Ambedkar as the true leader of the oppressed classes in India. March 2020 marked the centenary year of this event. Sri Lanka: Where he attended a Buddhist conclave that is said to have influenced him to convert to Buddhism. MUST READ: Bharat Ratna Dr. B.R. Ambedkar-The man and His Vision Source: The Hindu                        Status of Cannabis Open in new window Syllabus GS Prelims and GS-II – Health In News: In September last year, the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) said it was reviewing the status of cannabis, which is prohibited in competition. This followed the positive test of USA’s sprinting star Sha ‘Carri Richardson during the US Olympic Track and Field trials in June. She was banned and missed the Olympics. However, recently WADA said the recreational drug would remain on its list. Cannabis and Marijuana Cannabis is sourced from the cannabis sativa plant. There are over 500 chemical substances in the plant but the one on Wada’s prohibited list is tetrahydrocannabinol (THC). THC gives users of marijuana a high. So, cannabis in Wada’s books is marijuana, the chemical in which is THC. The Ban of Cannabis Cannabis is banned only in-competition. This means that an athlete faces a risk of getting banned only for a positive test from a sample collected during a competition. For example, an athlete can smoke marijuana in the off-season and test positive but is unlikely to be banned. From 2021 onwards, a positive test for cannabis can result in as short a ban as one month, according to Wada. For a reduced ban; down from two to four years earlier, athletes must prove that the use of cannabis was before entering a competition, which means the athlete did not intend to experience its effects while competing. Review by WADA Code Under the Wada code, cannabis is defined as a ‘substance of abuse’. Wada says the current limit of 150 nanograms per millilitre in urine will be found in athletes who are frequent users and are impaired because of the effects of cannabis. The threshold limit in 2013 was just 15 ng/ml. Potential to enhance performance, health risk to athletes and the spirit of the sport are the criteria these experts looked at. A substance needs to meet two of these three criteria to be included in the prohibited list. Wada says that use of cannabis violates the spirit of the sport but didn’t specify which of the other two criteria the recreational drug met. Is cannabis performance enhancing in sports? Cannabis is known to delay fatigue, mask pain and improve concentration but at the same time can increase heartbeat which is not good Cannabis, like all drugs, has its pros and cons but it is still unclear if it can help an athlete. There are studies that show it can reduce motor movement. Evidence of an increasing number of runners using cannabis during training was documented in the book Runners’ High by Josiah Hesse. A research paper titled ‘Cannabis in sport, anti-doping perspective’ says There are benefits for athletes such as ‘improved oxygenation to tissues, improvement of vision for goalkeepers, and muscle relaxation. Cannabis can also reduce anxiety, fear, and tension. Athletes under the influence of cannabis indicate that their thoughts flow more easily and their decision-making and creativity is enhanced; others claim that cannabis improves their concentration or reduces pain. Health professionals have encountered athletes including gymnasts, divers, football players and basketball players who claim smoking cannabis before play helps them to focus better. World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)  A foundation initiated by the International Olympic Committee based in Canada to promote, coordinate, and monitor the fight against drugs in sports. \ Set up on 10 November 1999 in Lausanne, Switzerland, as a result of what was called the “Declaration of Lausanne” Headquarters: In Montreal, Quebec, Canada. The agency’s key activities include scientific research, education, development of anti-doping capacities, and monitoring of the World Anti-Doping Code, whose provisions are enforced by the UNESCO International Convention Against Doping in Sport. It delegates work in individual countries to Regional and National Anti-Doping Organizations (RADOs and NADOs) and mandates that these organisations are compliant with the World Anti-Doping Code. Source:  Indian Express            FSSAI releases draft notification on star rating for packaged food Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Current Affairs In News: The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India has issued a draft notification on front-of-package labelling, which proposes “Indian Nutrition Rating” (INR) modelled on the health star-rating system. Requires packaged food to display the prescribed format of INR by assigning a rating from 1/2 star (least healthy) to five stars (healthiest). The INR is to be calculated on the basis of the contribution of energy, saturated fat, total sugar, sodium, and the positive nutrients per 100 gm of solid food or 100 ml of liquid food. The star assigned to a product “shall be displayed close in proximity to the name or brand name of the product on front of pack,” says the draft notification. Certain food products such as milk and milk-based products, egg-based desserts, infant formula, salads and sandwich spreads and alcoholic beverages have been exempted. Public health experts have been opposed to the health-star rating system According to them, it gives a “health halo” because of its positive connotation making it harder to identify harmful products. They instead recommend warning labels such as an octagonal “stop” symbol which global studies have shown is the only format that has led to a positive impact on food and beverage purchases forcing the industry For example, in Chile, to reformulate their products and remove major amounts of sugar and salt. About Food Safety and Standards Authority of India It is an autonomous statutory body established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 (FSS Act). The Act aims to establish a single reference point for all matters relating to food safety and standards, by moving from multi- level, multi-departmental control to a single line of command. Ministry: Ministry of Health & Family Welfare. It comprises a chairperson and twenty-two members out of which one – third are to be women. The Chairperson of FSSAI is appointed by the Central Government. The primary responsibility for enforcement is largely with the State Food Safety Commissioners Source:  The Hindu                  Flex Fuel Technology Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science & Technology In News: India’s first ‘flex fuel’ car, a Toyota sedan has been developed as part of a new pilot. The nationwide pilot has been initiated as part of a government-led push to car – makers for adopting alternative fuels and to replicate the commercial deployment of this particular technology in other markets such as Brazil, Canada, and the US. There are over 21 million flex fuel vehicles in the United States Brazil is the leader in this segment. The Mechanics of Flex Fuel Technology: A flex fuel, or flexible fuel, vehicle has an internal combustion engine (ICE), but unlike a regular petrol or diesel vehicle, this can run on more than one type of fuel, or even a mixture of fuels. The ICE can use a blend of petrol and ethanol or methanol and can also run on 100 per cent petrol or ethanol as well. This is made possible by equipping the engine with a fuel mix sensor and an engine control module (ECM) programming that senses and automatically adjusts for any ratio of designated fuels. Flex fuel vehicles have one fuel system, and most components are the same as those found in a conventional petrol-only car. Modifications such as special ethanol-compatible components are required to adjust to the different chemical properties and energy content in ethanol or methanol. The ECM is also calibrated to accommodate the higher oxygen content of ethanol.   Significance: The use of ethanol blending sharply lowers harmful pollutants such as carbon monoxide, sulphur, and carbon and nitrogen oxides. It will deleverage the country’s dependence on oil imports for transportation Many flex fuel vehicles have improved acceleration performance when operating on higher ethanol blends. Concerns: It marginally decreases fuel efficiency when using ethanol for motive power. Over 90% of ethanol produced in the country, came from sugarcane alone and sugarcane production is usually very water-intensive. Further, since sugarcane is a politically important crop, there is a perceived political angle to the ethanol/methanol blending push. About ethanol production in India: Currently, around 9.5% ethanol blending with petrol has been achieved in fuel dispensed in pumps in most metros and it is likely that the targeted 10 per cent ethanol blending will be achieved by November 2022. But this is slated for a major bump up, with the government’s 2025 target of 20 per cent blending of ethanol in petrol envisaged in its National Biofuel Policy 2018. Source: The New Indian Express                Archaeological Survey of India Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – History and Art and Culture Context: Archeological Survey of India has discovered 12000-year-old artifacts at the Vadakkupattu village in Tamil Nadu. Key Findings: Mesolithic Period: ASI discovered hand axes, scrappers, cleavers, and choppers from the Mesolithic period. They were recovered 75 cm from beneath the surface. Sangam Era: They discovered Sangam era (almost 2,000 years ago) artefacts including rouletted pottery, Roman amphora sherds, and glass beads suggesting active commerce with Rome. Early and Later Pallavas: They discovered sculptures ranging from the early Pallava period (275 CE) to the late Pallavas on the floor inside the surrounding space (897 CE). Significance of the findings: With these discoveries, Vadakkupattu village site has now become a culturally and archaeologically important site. Archaeological Survey of India: The ASI is the premier organization for the archaeological researches and protection of the cultural heritage of the country. The prime objection of ASI is to maintain the archaeological sites, ancient monuments, and remains of national importance. Headquarters: New Delhi. Established: 1861 by Alexander Cunningham. It regulates all archaeological activities as per the provisions of the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958. It functions under the aegis of the Union Ministry of Culture. It also regulates Antiquities and Art Treasure Act, 1972. Source: Times of India            Previous Year Questions Q.1) Who among the following rulers advised his subjects through this inscription? (2020) “Whosoever praises his religious sect or blames other sects out of excessive devotion to his own sect, with the view of glorifying his own sect, he rather injures his own sect very severely.” Ashoka Samudragupta Harshavardhana Krishnadeva Raya Q.2) Which one of the following is not a Harappan site? (2018) Chanhudaro Kot Diji Sohgaura Desalpur Dragonflies Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: A survey of dragonflies and damselflies at Delhi’s biodiversity parks indicates that low rainfall this year may have impacted their life cycles and numbers. In a week-long survey that concluded recently, a total of 25 species of dragonflies and damselflies were recorded across the biodiversity parks and the Kamla Nehru Ridge. On August 18 every year, the World-Wide Fund for Nature (WWF-India) and the Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) commemorates Dragonfly Day in New Delhi and its surrounding areas. What are Dragonflies? It is an aerial predator insect most commonly found near freshwater habitats throughout most of the world. Their distinctive colors make them look beautiful. This makes them valuable subjects for research on insect behavior, both for ecology and art. Habitat: Most species of dragonflies live in the tropics and particularly in the rainforests. Significance: Dragonflies are important to their environments both as predators (particularly of mosquitos) and as prey to birds and fish. Because these insects require stable oxygen levels and clean water, scientists consider them reliable bioindicators of the health of an ecosystem. Dragonflies are essential bio-indicators of an area’s ecological health. Because they eat mosquitoes and other insects that transmit life-threatening diseases like Malaria and Dengue Fever. Threats: The rapid destruction of their habitat poses a direct threat to their survival making their conservation urgent. Key Findings of the survey: The Kamla Nehru Ridge recorded the maximum number of species – 25. The Yamuna Biodiversity Park recorded 23 species, a little less than the 25 species recorded in 2018. In terms of the number of individuals recorded, the Kalindi Biodiversity Park recorded the highest number at 3,348, followed by the Aravalli Biodiversity Park where 555 individuals were counted. The Neela Hauz biodiversity park also recorded a fewer number of species this year – just six – as compared to 2018, when nine species were counted. Species that were recorded include the Scarlet Skimmer, Picture Wing dragonfly and the Granite Ghost along with dragons mentioned below.(in pictures) Recent other discoveries of Dragonflies: Recently, Dragonfly enthusiasts have recorded the presence of a rare dragonfly species named “Spiny Horntail” that was not seen in Kerala until now. The Western Ghats are home to this species, which was discovered in Maharashtra earlier this year. Golden dartlet                                                                                                        Ditch jewel Pied paddy skimmer                                                   Spiny horntail Source: Indian Express                        Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Q.2) Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi? (2022) Ant Cockroach Crab Spider Q.3) Which one of the following is a filter feeder? (2021) Catfish Octopus Oyster Pelican Banking System Liquidity Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: Recently, For the first time since May 2019, the banking system liquidity situation turned into a deficit mode in September, 2022, by comparison, the liquidity surplus was to the tune of Rs 8 lakh crore in November 2021. As the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was providing liquidity support to the economy, which was dealing with the after-effects of the Covid pandemic. In this context let us know about Banking system liquidity: What is banking system liquidity? Liquidity in the banking system refers to readily available cash that banks need to meet short-term business and financial needs. On a given day, if the banking system is a net borrower from the RBI under Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF), the system liquidity can be said to be in deficit and if the banking system is a net lender to the RBI, the system liquidity can be said to be in surplus. The LAF refers to the RBI’s operations through which it injects or absorbs liquidity into or from the banking system. What has triggered present banking liquidity deficit? Economists say that there are various factors over the last few months that have led to the current situation. If an improvement in demand for credit has led to the same, the recent advance tax outflow has further aggravated the situation. Besides, there is the continuous intervention of the RBI to counter the fall in the rupee against the US dollar. As per the, chief economist, India Ratings. “The deficit in the liquidity situation has been caused by an uptick in the bank credit, advance tax payments by corporates, intervention of the RBI into the forex market, and also incremental deposit growth not keeping pace with credit demand.” Latest data by RBI: The outstanding bank credit stood at Rs 124.58 lakh crore in August 26, 2022 and has increased by 4.77% (Rs 5.7 lakh crore) from Rs 118.9 lakh crore in March 25, 2022. However, deposit growth was just 3.21% (Rs 5.3 lakh crore) at Rs 169.94 lakh crore in August 26, 2022, from Rs 164.65 lakh crore in March 25, 2022. How can a tight liquidity condition impact consumer? A tight liquidity condition could lead to a rise in the government securities yields and subsequently lead to a rise in interest rates for consumers too. The 10-year government bond yield increased to 7.23% on September 21, 2022, from 7.18% on August 20, 2022. Short-term rates would increase at a faster pace as the direct reflection of tighter liquidity and RBI’s rate hike would be on these papers. Expected rise in repo rate: A rise in the repo rate will lead to a higher cost of funds. Banks will increase their repo-linked lending rates and the marginal cost of funds-based lending rate (MCLR), to which all loans are linked to. This rise will result in higher interest rates for consumers. What can RBI do to deal with this situation? As per the Economist, RBI’s actions will depend upon the nature of the liquidity situation. If the current liquidity deficit situation is temporary and is largely on account of advance tax flow, the RBI may not have to act, as the funds should eventually come back into the system. However, if it is long-term in nature then the RBI may have to take measures to improve the liquidity situation in the system. Way Forward: Slow deposit growth could constrain robust credit growth. Banks need to increase deposit rates to incentivize greater deposit mobilization. Many banks have started special deposit schemes over the past month, offering more than 6 per cent interest on fixed deposits. RBI will have to infuse liquidity through different tools to ensure a steady flow of credit. Going forward, the rise in inflation and interest rates could also pose a threat to credit growth. MUST READ: RBI’s monetary policy  Source:   Indian Express                        G4 Countries and UNSC Reforms Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – international groupings Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) Context: Reform of the United Nations has been a central theme of External Affairs Minister visit to the United Nations and he also met with his counterparts from Germany, Brazil and Japan under The Group of Four (G4). The group is primarily focused on U.N. Security Council (UNSC) reform, and permanent membership of the body for G4 members, among others. In this regard, let us discuss what is G4 grouping and why they aim for urgent need of UN Reforms. About G4 Countries: The G4 nations comprising Brazil, Germany, India, and Japan are four countries which support each other’s bids for permanent seats on the United Nations Security Council. Basis for these demands: Each of these four countries have figured among the elected non-permanent members of the council since the UN’s establishment. Their economic and political influence has grown significantly in the last decades, reaching a scope comparable to the permanent members (P5). About Coffee Club/Uniting for Consensus: An informal “coffee club”, comprising 40-odd members states, has been instrumental in holding back reforms to the United Nations Security Council. Most members of the club are middle-sized states who oppose bigger regional powers grabbing permanent seats in the UN Security Council. The prime movers of the club include Italy, Spain, Australia, Canada, South Korea, Argentina, and Pakistan. While Italy and Spain are opposed to Germany’s bid for Security Council’s permanent membership, Pakistan is opposed to India’s bid. Similarly, Argentina is against Brazil’s bid and Australia opposes Japan’s. Canada and South Korea are opposed to developing countries, often dependent on their aid, wielding more power than them at the UN. Need for UN Reforms: Equitable world order – There is a need for a more equitable world order to uphold the principles of democracy at the global level. Inclusivity – Developing countries like the African countries, need to be made stakeholders in the multilateral institutions and involved in the decision-making process. Mitigation of new threats – In the era of corona pandemic, rising protectionism, increased incidents of terrorism and the threat of climate change, multilateral system must become more resilient and responsive. Desperate times call for desperate measures – There is already a precedent of expansion of G-20 in the face of 2008 Global Financial Crisis. Rules of Procedure of General Assembly – For e.g., the type of majority required to pass a resolution, requirement of approval of the United Nations Security Council etc. What reforms are required in the United Nations: Methods of working of General Assembly – For e.g., before a document is adopted, each document must be translated to six languages. After that, many times the discussion veers towards the accuracy of the 6 languages. This process has many times delayed the adoption of texts in the UN Membership of United Nations Security Council (UNSC), including the permanent membership and veto power – Since its inception, the UNSC has been enlarged only once. Even after that, the Permanent members of UNSC have remained fixed. This is problematic as the membership of UN has grown almost four times since its formation. Veto Power – veto power has been the exclusive domain of P5 members. Many countries have put question mark on the existence of veto, which is contrary to democratic principles. Others have questioned the exclusivity of veto, which is limited to the P5 nations, as stated earlier. Challenges to reforms and G4 demand: Making a change in UN is a laborious process as the rules of procedure lean towards rigidity Lack of Consensus – Although there is a general agreement towards change in the system, but different countries have different perceptions of the requirement for change. For e.g. – G-4 nations demand a seat each as a permanent member, UFC asks for expansion of non-permanent seats, African union wants its representation at any cost etc. Narrow political considerations – Countries view change in their own self-interest, rather than taking a wide world view. For e.g. – many countries would like an expansion in the non-permanent space, so that they have an increased chance of getting elected to the membership of UN. PGA’s (see inset) opposition to India’s demand – Yet another Challenge to India’s demand for recognition of India, specifically, and G-4, in general, as the permanent members of UNSC is the current PGA of UN. The current PGA belongs to Turkey and is not friendly to India’s demand. In fact, he is biased towards Pakistan-led Coffee Club, which seeks to limit expansion of permanent membership of UNSC Veto power of P5 – Support of all five permanent, veto-wielding members is required for expansion of UNSC. India must be cautious that it keeps on enjoying support from all P5 members, especially China, which so-far has been ambiguous towards India’s candidature as a permanent member of UNSC African position – India has been generally supportive of African position where it has demanded one seat for its nominee. The problem is that Africa wants to reserve the right to nominate the country by itself, rather than leaving it to the UN General Assembly. This is not acceptable to many members. Lack of Records – One major issue is the lack of records of ongoing negotiations. Every time the meeting starts, the negotiations must start from scratch, as no records are maintained of previous discussions. Way Forward: Diplomatic outreach – India along with G4 needs to build upon its strengths through a diplomatic outreach to the major nations with whom it has friendly relations. For e.g., India is the only nation whose candidature to United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is not opposed by any veto-wielding nation. Even China, with whom India has been engaged in a border standoff, has never publicly opposed India’s stance. India’s soft power – India has continuously supported Least Developing Countries (LDCs) of Africa and Small Island nations in their developmental efforts. This has led to development of India’s image as a benevolent and friendly country. Contributions to United Nations – India needs to keep an eye on China, which has now become the biggest contributor of funds to the United Nations. Also, China has now started sending troops to United Nations peace-keeping missions, with the agenda of rebuilding its global reputation Diversification – Apart from United Nations Security Council, India needs to diversify its energy towards other agencies like International Monetary Fund, World Trade Organisation, World Health Organisation, to create a perception where it is considered as a natural leader. For e.g. – Indian Prime Minister recently spoke at Economic Council (ECOSOC) to attach a sense of importance to the institution Debate on India’s strategy – Reforming some institutions might require sacrifice on India’s part, for which we should have a clearly outlined strategy. For e.g. – India has been a major beneficiary of World Bank loans. If we need a leadership position, we might need to give up on these loans. MUST READ: UNSC Sanctions            Source: The Hindu                    Baba’s Explainer -Inflation Targeting as Monetary Policy Inflation Targeting as Monetary Policy Syllabus GS-3: Indian Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilization, of resources, growth, development and employment. Context: When, in May 2016, India adopted inflation targeting as a policy goal enshrined in law, it also embraced the idea of central bank “independence with accountability”. Read Complete Details on Inflation Targeting as Monetary Policy Daily Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Which of the following is not a Dragonfly? Spiny horntail Golden dartlet Spoonbill Ditch jewel Q.2) Consider the following statements about the Flex-Fuel Vehicles: They can operate on a mixture of flex fuel. They have two separate fuel system to mix the fuel for combustion. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) Consider the following statements, with respect to Banking system liquidity: It refers to readily available cash that banks need to meet long-term business and financial needs Cash in banking system turns deficit for the first time in over three years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’26th September 2022 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs. ANSWERS FOR 24th September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – b Q.3) – c table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Baba’s Explainer

Baba's Explainer - Inflation Targeting as Monetary Policy

ARCHIVES Syllabus GS-3: Indian Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilization, of resources, growth, development and employment. Context: When, in May 2016, India adopted inflation targeting as a policy goal enshrined in law, it also embraced the idea of central bank “independence with accountability”. What is inflation targeting mandate of RBI? In India, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) had earlier pursued a ‘multiple indicators approach’, implying concern for outcomes other than inflation, including even the balance of payments. However, the Indian government instituted inflation targeting as the sole objective of monetary policy since 2016-17. Under the new statutory framework, the central government would, in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), set an inflation target based on the consumer price index (CPI) once every five years. The Centre, under section 45ZA of the RBI Act, 1934, has fixed the CPI inflation target at 4% within a band of +/- 2 per cent. The RBI was entrusted with the responsibility of meeting this target (“accountability”), for which it would be given “independence” in the conduct of monetary policy. Therefore, Inflation targeting is a monetary policy framework in which a country’s central bank focuses solely on keeping inflation within a certain range. This was hailed by the government as the adoption of the ‘modern monetary policy framework’ by India. Why Inflation Targeting approach to Monetary Policy? Inflation targeting is founded on the assumption that preserving price stability, which is achieved by managing inflation, is the greatest way to generate long-term economic growth. Inflation targeting allows central banks to respond to shocks to the domestic economy and focus on domestic considerations. Stable inflation reduces investor uncertainty, allows investors to predict changes in interest rates, and anchors inflation expectations. A major advantage of inflation targeting is that it combines elements of both “rules” and “discretion” in monetary policy. This “constrained discretion” framework combines two distinct elements: a precise numerical target for inflation in the medium term a response to economic shocks in the short term. New Zealand was the first country to embrace inflation targeting, and since then, a large number of nations, including India, have chosen it as their primary monetary policy tool. In India, the Monetary Policy Framework Agreement agreed between the RBI and the government in 2015 established inflation targeting. The RBI is mandated to maintain a rate of inflation of 4% with a 2-percentage-point deviation, i.e. inflation must be kept between 2% and 6%. If consumer inflation is more than 6% or less than 2% for three consecutive quarters, the central bank will be considered to have missed its objective. What happens if RBI fails to meet its inflation target? If the central bank fails to meet its inflation target then: It will send a report to the government explaining why and what steps it will take to correct the problem. It will also have to provide an estimate of how long it will take to return to the target level. What are the benefits of Inflation Targeting? Autonomy with Accountability: The RBI has been given autonomy in managing the rate of inflation within the prescribed targets set by the government. If the RBI fails to keep inflation within the target range, it would be compelled to explain the reasons for its failure. Such a clause allows the RBI to have autonomy while also allowing the government to have greater accountability over the RBI’s actions. Greater clarity & Predictability: Inflation targeting specifies the rate of inflation that should be targeted in a given economy. With such publicly legislated aims, there is better clarity and predictability in terms of the inflation rate and monetary policy formulation. Promotes Growth: A high rate of inflation diminishes the buying power of the currency and eventually lowers the overall rate of GDP growth. Furthermore, a high rate of inflation is accompanied by larger levels of Fiscal and Current Account Deficits, putting the country’s macroeconomic stability at risk. As a result, a low or moderate amount of inflation would encourage investors to invest in the economy, promoting higher growth and development. International Best Practise: Inflation targeting has shown to be quite successful in certain advanced economies, such as the United Kingdom and New Zealand. These advanced economies have been able to keep inflation at a reasonable level for a longer period of time, resulting in enhanced macroeconomic stability. What are the concerns expressed with such monetary policy approach? Mixed Results During the Modi government’s first term, roughly from April 2014 to March 2019 (Modi 1.0), CPI inflation was above 6% only in 6 out of 60 months. Moreover, 5 of those 6 months were in 2014, well before the RBI Act was amended to provide a statutory basis for inflation targeting. One can say that the framework of inflation targeting and central bank “independence with accountability” worked well during Modi 1.0 However, actual year-on-year inflation in 2022 has ruled above 6% every single month from January to August. If it does so in September as well, the RBI, under section 45ZN of the same law, will have to submit a report to the Centre on “the reasons for failure to achieve the inflation target” and “remedial actions proposed to be taken by the Bank”. In the 41 months from April 2019, inflation has exceeded 6% in as many as 21. In other words, a failure rate of over 50% in Modi-II era. Things have been different in Modi 2.0. The last two years or less have seen a resurgence of inflation. Inefficiency of Monetary Policy tools There’s a simple reason for the RBI’s “failure” to adhere to its inflation-targeting mandate. It has to do with food and beverage items, which have a combined 45.86% weight in the overall CPI. Inflation led by rising prices of food stuff cannot quickly or easily be contained by the mode of control which RBI uses. During Modi 1.0 (2014-19), food inflation was lower than general inflation in 38 out of the 60 months. During Modi 2.0 (2019 onwards), the average CFPI inflation (Food Inflation) is at 6.3%, more than the 5.7% for general inflation. Also, the transmission of Monetary Policy Is Inadequate in India. Inflation targeting is better suited to mature economies since monetary policy transmission is more efficient in these countries. However, in India, the transmission of monetary policy is inefficient, which can impair the efficiency of inflation targeting. Monetary Dependence Monetary policy independence basically refers to the central bank being insulated from government interference or electoral pressure in setting its interest rates with a view to achieving low and stable inflation. The preponderant weight of food items in the Indian consumption basket is high as compared to that in developed countries and therefore, RBI is forced to rely more on government action to meet inflation targets. Far from acting independently, RBI has to depend on “supply-side” measures by the government to curb this food inflation. That translates into monetary dependence, not independence. To get an idea of the government’s supply-side actions that have made the RBI’s job easier, consider the following: In the last one year, the effective import duty on crude and refined palm oil has come down from 30.25% and 41.25% to 5.5% and 13.75%, respectively. It’s been even sharper — from 30.25% to nil — for crude soyabean and sunflower oil On May 13, 2022, the government banned exports of wheat. This was extended to wheat flour — including atta, maida and rava/ sooji (semolina) — on August 27, 2022. On September 8, exports of broken rice were prohibited. Besides, a 20% duty was imposed on shipments of all other non-parboiled non-basmati rice. In all the above instances the government is trying to increase the supply of food items in domestic market so as to ease the price rise Diverted Focus RBI’s responsibility to regulate the financial sector may have taken a back seat after adoption of inflation targeting as the main objective. Some of the crisis in financial sector which is partly attributed to short comings in regulations are: Within three years of adoption of inflation targeting as goal, a crisis engulfed IL&FS– It defaulted on several of its obligations, including repayment of bank loans and the redemption of commercial paper Punjab and Maharashtra Co-operative Bank- fictitious accounts created and deposits were siphoned off as loans to the promoters. At the global level, the 2008 Global Financial Crisis demonstrated that price stability alone does not guarantee financial stability and that a central bank’s excessive reliance on price stability may lead to the neglect of other critical functions such as regulation, resulting in an economic crisis. Former RBI Governor Subbarao has stated that there is a trade-off between pricing stability and financial stability and that the more successful a central bank is at maintaining price stability, the more likely it is to jeopardize financial stability. Disregards the RBI’s multifaceted role: It is impractical for a central bank in a developing country like India to focus just on inflation without considering the greater development context. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) must strike a balance between growth, price stability, and financial stability. Main Practice Question: How far do you think Inflation targeting as an approach to monetary policy has yielded its intended results? Note: Write answers to this question in the comment section. table{ border: 1px solid; } table tr, table td{ border: 1px solid; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2022 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 26th September 2022

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 24th September 2022

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Carbon Dating Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Current Affairs In news: A Varanasi district court has issued notice regarding carbon-dating of the disputed structure known to have been found inside the premises of the Gyanvapi mosque. What is Carbon Dating? Carbon dating, also called radiocarbon dating is method of age determination that depends upon the decay to nitrogen of radiocarbon (Carbon-14). This method was developed by the American physicist Willard F. Libby about 1946. Carbon-14 is continually formed in nature by the interaction of neutrons with nitrogen-14 in the Earth’s atmosphere. The neutrons required for this reaction are produced by cosmic rays interacting with the atmosphere. How it works? Radiocarbon present in molecules of atmospheric carbon dioxide enters the biological carbon cycle: it is absorbed from the air by green plants and then passed on to animals through the food chain. Radiocarbon decays slowly in a living organism, and the amount lost is continually replenished as long as the organism takes in air or food. Once the organism dies, however, it ceases to absorb carbon-14, so that the amount of the radiocarbon in its tissues steadily decreases. The half-life concepts: Carbon-14 has a half-life of 5,730 ± 40 years—i.e., half the amount of the radioisotope present at any given time will undergo spontaneous disintegration during the succeeding 5,730 years. Because carbon-14 decays at this constant rate, an estimate of the date at which an organism died can be made by measuring the amount of its residual radiocarbon. Its uses: It has proved to be a versatile technique of dating fossils and archaeological specimens from 500 to 50,000 years old. The method is widely used by geologists, anthropologists, archaeologists, and investigators in related fields. Source: Indian Express The Kyrgyzstan-Tajikistan conflict Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Current Affairs (Maps) Context: Nearly 100 people have been killed and scores injured in violent border clashes between Kyrgyzstan and Tajikistan. The borders of the two republics were demarcated under Joseph Stalin’s leadership. Historically, the Kyrgyz and Tajik populations enjoyed common rights over natural resources. Ferghana valley continues to be a site of struggle and frequent violent outbursts, with the location consisting primarily of Tajiks, Kyrgyz, and Uzbeks, who have historically shared common sociological specificities, economic activities, and religious practices. This ‘development project’ resulted in the large-scale displacement of nomadic communities, eventually contributing to the ‘environment driver’ of the current conflict. Source:   The Hindu             Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs: Region often mentioned in the news:   Country Anatolia                  Turkey Amhara                  Ethiopia Cabo Delgado       Spain Catalonia                Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? (2022) Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) Which one of the lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert? (2022) Lake Victoria Lake Faguibine Lake Oguta Lake Volta Q.3) The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions? (2022) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa The entire coastal Mediterranean Sea of areas Q.4) Consider the following countries: Azerbaijan Kyrgyzstan Tajikistan Uzbekistan Turkmenistan Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan? (2022) 1, 2 and 5 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 only 3, 4 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 BrahMos Missiles Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: The Defence Ministry signed a ₹1,700-crore contract with BrahMos Aerospace Pvt Ltd for 35 combat and three practice BrahMos supersonic surface-to-surface cruise missiles for two P-15B class of stealth guided missile destroyers of the Indian Navy. About Brahmos: BrahMos is a joint venture between the DRDO and Russia’s NPO Mashinostroyeniya and the missile derives its name from Brahmaputra and Moskva rivers. On June 12, 2001, the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile was first tested from a land-based launcher in Chandipur. In the 21 years since, BrahMos has been upgraded several times, with versions tested on land, air, and sea platforms. Background and development: Since the early 1980s, the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme, conceived and led by Dr A P J Abdul Kalam, started developing a range of missiles including Prithvi, Agni, Trishul, Akash and Nag. An Inter-Governmental Agreement was signed with Russia in Moscow in 1998 This led to the formation of BrahMos Aerospace, a joint venture between DRDO and NPO Mashinostroyenia (NPOM), the Indian side holding 50.5% and the Russians 49.5%. In 1999, work on development of missiles began in labs of DRDO and NPOM after BrahMos Aerospace received funds from the two governments. The first successful test in 2001 was conducted from a specially designed land-based launcher. Strategic significance: BrahMos is a two-stage missile with a solid propellant booster engine. Its first stage brings the missile to supersonic speed and then gets separated. The liquid ramjet or the second stage then takes the missile closer to three times the speed of sound in cruise phase. The missile has a very low radar signature, making it stealthy, and can achieve a variety of trajectories. The ‘fire and forget’ type missile can achieve a cruising altitude of 15 km and a terminal altitude as low as 10 m to hit the target. Cruise missiles such as BrahMos, called “standoff range weapons”, are fired from a range far enough to allow the attacker to evade defensive counter-fire. The BrahMos has three times the speed, 2.5 times flight range and higher range compared to subsonic cruise missiles. Versions deployed in all three-Armed forces are still being tested regularly: LAND-BASED: The land-based BrahMos complex has four to six mobile autonomous launchers, each with three missiles on board that can be fired almost simultaneously. Batteries of the land-based systems have been deployed along India’s land borders in various theatres. The upgraded land attack version, with capability of cruising at 2.8 Mach, can hit targets at a range up to 400 km with precision. Advanced versions of higher range and speed up to 5 Mach are said to be under development. The ground systems of BrahMos are described as ‘tidy’ as they have very few components. SHIP-BASED: The Navy began inducting BrahMos on its frontline warships from 2005. These have the capability to hit sea-based targets beyond the radar horizon. The Naval version has been successful in sea-to-sea and sea-to-land modes. The BrahMos can be launched as a single unit or in a salvo of up to eight missiles, separated by 2.5-second intervals. These can target a group of frigates with modern missile defence systems. AIR-LAUNCHED: On November 22, 2017, BrahMos was successfully flight-tested for the first time from a Sukhoi-30MKI against a sea-based target in the Bay of Bengal. BrahMos-equipped Sukhoi-30s, which have a range of 1,500 km at a stretch without mid-air refuelling, are considered key strategic deterrence for adversaries both along land borders and in the strategically important Indian Ocean Region. SUBMARINE-LAUNCHED: This version can be launched from around 50 m below the water surface. The canister-stored missile is launched vertically from the pressure hull of the submarine, and uses different settings for underwater and out-of-the-water flights. This version was successfully tested first in March 2013 from a submerged platform off the coast of Visakhapatnam. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media?  (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its. Q.2) With reference to India’s satellite launch  vehicles, consider the following statements: PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct.? (2018) 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only Q.3) With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements : (2018) IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only None India Hypertension Control Initiative (IHCI) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently India won a United Nations (UN) award for its ‘India Hypertension Control Initiative (IHCI)’, a large-scale hypertension intervention under the National Health Mission that saw 3.4 million hypertensive people identified and put on treatment at various government health facilities. About IHCI: India Hypertension Control Initiative (IHCI) is a multi-partner initiative involving the Indian Council of Medical Research, WHO-India, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, and State governments to improve blood pressure control for people with hypertension. The project initiated in 26 districts in 2018 has expanded to more than 100 districts by 2022. More than two million patients were started on treatment and tracked to see whether they achieved BP control. The project demonstrated that blood pressure treatment and control are feasible in primary care settings in diverse health systems across various States in India. Before IHCI, many patients travelled to higher-level facilities such as community health centres (block level) or district hospitals in the public sector for hypertension treatment. Over three years, all levels of health staff at the primary health centres and health wellness centres were trained to provide treatment and follow-up services for hypertension. About 2022 United Nations Inter-Agency Taskforce and the WHO Special Programme on Primary Health Care Awards: Eighteen organizations received the UN Inter-Agency Task Force on the Prevention and Control of Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs) and the WHO Special Programme on Primary Health Care (PHC) awards. Awards were made in three categories: (i) ministries of health (or government agency under a ministry of health); (ii) ministries (or government agencies) beyond health; and (iii) non-state actors (non-governmental organization, academic institutions, and philanthropy). Winners were selected on the basis of demonstrative commitment to multisectoral action in the prevention and control of NCDs, mental health or other NCD-related SDGs. Nominations were specifically encouraged for organizations working with children and youth groups as well as those working with minority communities. Nominations were also encouraged that highlighted action maintaining focus on the NCD-related SDGs as part of COVID-19 responses. 2022 is the 1st year the awards were run in partnership with PHC however, the 5th year that the Task Force have ran awards. Self-nominations are not allowed. MUST READ: Non-Communicable Diseases            Source:   Hindustan Times                    Rabies control and Animal Welfare Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently death of a 12-year-old girl in Pathanamthitta has sharpened the focus on the rising number of rabies cases and the growing population of stray dogs in Kerala. About Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960: Seeks to “prevent the infliction of unnecessary pain or suffering on animals”. The Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) was established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Act. This Act provides for punishment for causing unnecessary cruelty and suffering to animals. The Act defines animals and different forms of animals. It provides the guidelines relating to experimentation on animals for scientific purposes. Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (Care and Maintenance of Case Property Animals) Rules, 2017: Framed under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960. The Rules allow a Magistrate to forfeit the animal of an owner facing trial under the Act. The animals are then sent to infirmaries, animal shelters, etc. The authorities can further give such animals for “adoption”. About Animal Welfare Board of India: The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body on Animal Welfare Laws and promotes animal welfare in the country. Established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960, the Animal Welfare Board of India was started under the stewardship of Late Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale, well known humanitarian. From ensuring that animal welfare laws in the country are diligently followed, to provide grants to Animal Welfare Organizations and advising the Government of India on animal welfare issues, the Board has been the face of the animal welfare movement in the country for the last 50 years. The Board consists of 28 Members. The term of office of Members is for a period of 3 years. Headquaters at Chennai. MUST READ: Rabies Vaccine                Source: The Hindu                        Previous Year Question Q.1) What is the importance of using \ Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines in India? (2020) These vaccines are effective against pneumonia as well as meningitis and sepsis. Dependence on antibiotics that are not effective against drug-resistant bacteria can be reduced. These vaccines have no side effects and cause no allergic reactions. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 1 and 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Rupee Depreciation Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Indian Economy, Interest rate, IMF etc Mains – GS 3 (Fiscal policy, Monetary policy, Impact of free fall of the rupee) Context: There has been a consistent deterioration of Indian Rupee’s (INR) exchange rate with respect to the US Dollar ($) over the last few month. It breached the psychologically significant exchange rate level. The fall in Rupee has been going on since the war in Ukraine began, and crude oil prices started going up. What is Depreciation? Currency depreciation is a fall in the value of a currency in a floating exchange rate system. For example: USD 1 used to equal to Rs. 70, now USD 1 is equal to Rs. 77, implying that the rupee has depreciated relative to the dollar i.e., it takes more rupees to purchase a dollar. Impact of Depreciation of Indian Rupee: Depreciation in rupee is a double-edged sword for the Reserve Bank of India. Positive: Weaker rupee should theoretically give a boost to India’s exports, but in an environment of uncertainty and weak global demand, a fall in the external value of rupee may not translate into higher exports. Negative: It poses risk of imported inflation, and may make it difficult for the central bank to maintain interest rates at a record low for longer. India meets more than two-thirds of its domestic oil requirements through imports. India is also one of the top importers of edible oils. A weaker currency will further What determines the rupee’s value? The value of any currency is determined by demand for the currency as well as its supply. When the supply of a currency increases, its value drops. In the wider economy, central banks determine the supply of currencies, while the demand for currencies depends on the amount of goods and services produced in the economy. In the forex market, the supply of rupee is determined by the demand for imports and various foreign assets. So, if there is high demand to import oil, it can lead to an increase in the supply of rupees in the forex market and cause the rupee’s value to drop. The demand for rupees in the forex market, on the other hand, depends on foreign demand for Indian exports and other domestic assets. When there is great enthusiasm among foreign investors to invest in India, it can lead to an increase in the supply of dollars in the forex market which in turn causes the rupee’s value to rise against the dollar. What is causing the rupee to lose value against the dollar? Since March this year, the U.S. Federal Reserve has been raising its benchmark interest rate causing investors seeking higher returns to pull capital away from emerging markets such as India and back into the U.S. This, in turn, has put pressure on emerging market currencies which have depreciated significantly against the U.S. dollar so far this year. Even developed market currencies such as the euro and the yen have depreciated against the dollar and the dollar index is up more than 9% so far this year. Some analysts believe that the RBI’s surprise decision to raise rates in May could have simply been to defend the rupee by preventing any rapid outflow of capital from India. India’s current account deficit, which measures the gap between the value of imports and exports of goods and services, is expected to hit a 10 year high of 3.3% of gross domestic product in the current financial year. Foreign investors are unlikely to plough capital into India when investment yields are rising in the U.S. What lies ahead? It is neither wise nor possible for the RBI to prevent the Rupee from falling indefinitely. Defending the Rupee will result in India exhausting its forex reserves over time because global investors have much bigger financial clout. Most analysts believe that the better strategy is to let the Rupee depreciate and act as a natural shock absorber to the adverse terms of trade. Thus, RBI should focus on containing inflation which is its legal mandate. The Government should contain its borrowings. Higher borrowings (fiscal deficit) by the Government consume domestic savings. Hence, the Industrial and other sectors of economy are forced to borrow from abroad. Over the long run, the Rupee is likely to continue to depreciate against the Dollar given the significant differences in long-run inflation between India and the U.S. The U.S. Federal Reserve has raised rates to tackle historically high inflation in the US that hit a 41-year high of 8.6%. This will induce other countries and emerging markets in particular to raise their own interest rates to avoid disruptive capital outflows and to protect their currencies. As interest rates rise across the globe, the threat of a global recession also rises as economies readjust to tighter monetary conditions. Conclusion: Analysts believe that, over the long run, the rupee is likely to continue to depreciate against the dollar given the significant differences in long run inflation between India and the U.S. The exchange rate has fallen to its historical low of 80, however Indian Rupee has shown a better performance in comparison to currencies of emerging economies. The inflation divides between the U.S and India will continue to further depreciate the Rupee. Nonetheless, with proactive fiscal and monetary measures, India can stabilize its currency value. MUST READ: Rupee Appreciation vs Rupee Depreciation            Source: The HINDU                      Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee? (2019) Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala Bonds Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing Following an expansionary monetary policy Q.3) Consider the following statements: The effect of devaluation of a currency is that it necessarily improves the competitiveness of the domestic exports in the foreign markets increases the foreign value of domestic currency improves the trade balance Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Adani’s global footprint and India’s infrastructure diplomacy Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Current Affairs Mains – GS 3 (Economy- Infrastructure) Context: From mines to ports and logistics, the Adani conglomerate has been expanding across sectors, regions. This has gone hand in hand with India’s diplomatic and strategic outreach towards infrastructure diplomacy. What is infrastructure diplomacy? Infrastructure diplomacy is to promote infrastructure cooperation and economic ties overseas through political means and to enhance political trust between countries via collaboration in infrastructure development. Background: Foreign presence much earlier: In fact, the Adani group had been scouting abroad much earlier. Since 2010, the Adani group has been in Australia, developing the Carmichael coal mine in Queensland. A greenfield multi-purpose port: In 2017, Adani Ports and Special Economic Zones (Ltd) signed an MoU for a greenfield multi-purpose port for handling containers at Carey Island in Selangor state, about 50 km southwest of Kuala Lumpur. What is the situation now? Company pursues international infrastructure projects aggressively: The last two years, however, have seen the company pursue international infrastructure projects aggressively. In May 2022, APSEZ made a winning bid of $1.18 billion for Israeli state-owned Haifa Port, jointly with Israeli chemicals and logistics firm Gadot. Strategic joint investments: In August this year, APSEZ and Abu Dhabi’s AD Ports Group signed MoU for “strategic joint investments” in Tanzania. The new ASEZ-AD MoU will look at a bouquet of infrastructure projects besides Bagamoyo in the East African Indian Ocean nation — rail, maritime services, digital services, and industrial zones. India’s strategic objectives than has been possible so far: Is it just a coincidence that Adani’s global expansion closely shadows the Chinese footprint along its Belt and Road Initiative? Or is it that as Delhi competes with China for influence in the neighbourhood and beyond, the Adani group’s size, resources and capacity are seen as a key element in achieving India’s strategic objectives than has been possible so far. India’s infrastructure diplomacy: Is now becoming identified the world over with one company. Public and Private investment to bridge gaps: For the Adani group, described as India’s biggest ports and logistics company, there couldn’t be a better time. As the Quad grouping of Australia, India, Japan, and the US, competes with China in the Indo-Pacific, it has committed “to catalyse infrastructure delivery” by putting more than $50 billion on the table for “assistance and investment” in the Indo-Pacific over the next five years and “drive public and private investment to bridge gaps”. Implications of infrastructure diplomacy: Win-Win deal: Adani’s new “no-hands” model of doing business with neighbours a power plant in Jharkhand, exporting all its output to Bangladesh has been seen as a “win-win” deal. Economic interests lie at the heart of geopolitics: The link between diplomacy and commercial interests has generated its share of debate, especially in the US, where its diplomats, intelligence agencies and military interventions abroad have actively pushed the interests of big business first the hunt for cheaper raw materials, then for markets abroad, then to shift industry where manpower was cheaper. As seen in the new age trading blocs the US-led IPEF, and the Chinese dominated RCEP economic interests lie at the heart of geopolitics. Conclusion: At a time when global rivalries are growing sharper in the shadow of the war in Europe, and as India looks out for its own interests, pushing powerful corporates to the centre-stage of its diplomacy, whether it is to build ports, buy or sell weapons or make chips, is inevitable. Source: Indian Express                  Daily Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding rabies? It is a zoonotic viral disease. Rabies is 100% fatal but 100% vaccine-preventable. One third of global rabies deaths are recorded in India. Select the correct option using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) The term  ‘Carbon dating’ often mentioned in news related to : a process of treatment of diseases in animals. a process to determine the age of archaeological samples. a medicine for the treatment of cancer. a process to determine the age of a meteorite. Q.3) Consider the following statements, with reference the BrahMos missile: It is a ramjet supersonic cruise missile The missile functions on the Fire and Forget principle with high accuracy. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’24th September 2022 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs. ANSWERS FOR 23rd September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – a table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2022 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 24th September 2022

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 23rd September 2022

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) India’s first Dugong Conservation Reserve Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology In news: Recently, the Tamil Nadu government has decided to go ahead with the establishment of India’s first conservation reserve for the Dugong in Gulf of Manner, Palk Bay. It facilitates India to act as the leading nation in the South Asia Sub-region with respect to dugong conservation. About Dugongs: Dugong (Dugong dugon) also called ‘Sea Cow’ is one of the four surviving species in the Order Sirenia and it is the only existing species of herbivorous mammal that lives exclusively in the sea including in India. Dugongs are an important part of the marine ecosystem and their depletion will have effects all the way up the food chain. Distribution and Habitat: They are found in over 30 countries and in India are seen in the Gulf of Manner, Gulf of Kutch, Palk Bay, and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. IUCN Red List status: Vulnerable Wild (Life) Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I CITES: Appendix I Steps Taken for Conservation: In February 2020, India hosted the 13th Conference of Parties (CoP) of the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS), an environmental treaty under the aegis of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). The Government of India has been a signatory to the CMS since 1983. India has signed non-legally binding Memorandums of Understanding (MoU) with CMS on the conservation and management of Siberian Cranes (1998), Marine Turtles (2007), Dugongs (2008) and Raptors (2016). The Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change constituted a ‘Task Force for Conservation of Dugongs’ to look into issues related to conservation of dugongs and implementation of the ‘UNEP/CMS Dugong MoU’ in India. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Q.2) Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi? (2022) Ant Cockroach Crab Spider Q.3) Consider the following animals    (2021) Hedgehog Marmot Pangolin To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/protect its/their vulnerable parts? 1 and 2 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 Radio Technology in Banking Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Indian Economy In News: The Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT) develops a new low-cost financial network called LoRa (Long Range Radio) technology to take banking to remote areas. They are the first in the world to develop this network. The Mechanics: LoRa or Long-Range Radio technology is a wireless modulation technique which allows long-range communication using chirp spread spectrum. It uses dedicated radios and limits interferences from other devices. Presently, banks use a third-party network which based either on satellite link or wired (fibre) Now, banks can use this technology as their own private network and send encrypted texts to conduct financial transactions. Connectivity to remote areas begins from where the last branch of a bank stands in a remote village or hilly region. A 30-mile connectivity for bank transactions can be achieved at a cost of ₹30,000 and the same is extendable. Significance: Last mile connectivity: it will be possible for people in remote hilly and forest areas without satellite signal to access banking services. More secure: better safety from cyber attacks Cheaper: estimated to be 20% cheaper than alternative network technologies Easy recoverability and upgradation Almost no maintenance & ensures portability of devices. About IDRBT: It is an engineering training institution exclusively focused on banking technology. Established by the RBI in 1996, the institution works at the intersection of banking and technology. Its foundations were laid by the Rangarajan Committee It is located in Hyderabad, India. Source: The Hindu               Previous Year Question Q.1) In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used? (2018) Mobile phone operations Banking operations Controlling the power grids Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3      Plastic pollution Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment In news: A 3-year period MoU was signed between National Cadet Corps (NCC) and United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) to tackle plastic pollution and achieve the universal goal of clean water bodies through ‘Puneet Sagar Abhiyan’ and ‘Tide Turners Plastic Challenge programme’. Objective: To consolidate, develop and detail cooperation of youth in achieving common objectives in the field of environment. To engage in capacity building, information sharing and awareness on environmental sustainability through training initiatives. To promote opportunities for NCC cadets to participate in national and international platforms. About Puneet Sagar Abhiyan: Launched by The NCC on December 1, 2021 It is a nationwide campaign to clean sea shores of plastic and other waste material and to raise awareness about the importance of cleanliness It was started initially for one month and was subsequently extended as a pan-India round-the-year campaign It covers rivers and other water bodies as well. Achievements: Since the launch of ‘Puneet Sagar Abhiyan’, over 100 tonnes of plastic waste have been collected from nearly 1,900 locations by more than 12 lakh NCC cadets, impacting 1.5 crore people. Of the approximately 100 tonnes of collected plastic waste, more than 60 tonnes have been recycled. About National Cadet Corps (NCC):                                              It is the youth wing of the Indian Armed Forces as a Tri-Services Organisation, comprising the Army, the Navy, and the Air Force Headquarters are in New Delhi, India. It is open to school and college students on voluntary basis, To develop the youth of the country into disciplined and patriotic citizens. The emblem of the NCC consists of 3 colours; red, dark blue and light blue representing the Indian Army, Indian Navy and Indian Air Force respectively. The 17 lotuses indicate the 17 directories of India. About United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP): The UNEP is a leading global environmental authority established on 5th June 1972 in the aftermath of Stockholm Conference (Declaration on the Human Environment). Functions: It sets the global environmental agenda, promotes the sustainable development within the United Nations system, and serves as an authoritative advocate for global environment protection. Major Reports: Emission Gap Report, Global Environment Outlook, Frontiers, Invest into Healthy Planet. Major Campaigns: Beat Pollution, UN75, World Environment Day, Wild for Life. Headquarters: Nairobi, Kenya. The UNEP engages in developing global conventions on the environment and related issues. It hosts the secretariats of various conventions such as: Minamata Convention on Mercury United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) Basel Convention- Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes Stockholm Convention – on Persistent Organic Pollutants Rotterdam Convention – on Hazardous Chemicals and Pesticides in International Trade Vienna Convention – Protection of the Ozone Layer Montreal Protocol – on reducing substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer Convention on Migratory Species Source: The Hindu Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to an initiative called “The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB)” which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) It is an initiative hosted by UNEP, IMF, and World Economic Forum. It is a global initiative that focuses on drawing attention to the economic benefits of biodiversity. It presents an approach that can help decision-makers recognize, demonstrate, and capture the value of ecosystems and biodiversity. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Indian Olympic Association Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Current Affairs In News: The Supreme Court tasked former SC judge LN Rao with amending the Constitution of the Indian Olympic Association (IOA), preparing the electoral college as well as conducting elections. About Indian Olympic Association (IOA): It is the body responsible for selecting athletes to represent India & managing the Indian teams at the Olympic Games, Asian Games, Commonwealth Games, and other international athletic meets. It was founded in 1927 with Sir Dorabjee Tata and Dr. A.G. Noehren. It is registered as a Non-Profit Organisation under the Societies Registration Act of 1860 It plays with the name of Team India & is an affiliated member of the International Olympic Committee. Structure: A 32-member Executive Council, headed by President and assisted by different Standing Committees that includes subject-field experts for effective governance. The election for the Executive Council is held once in every 4 years. Objective: to develop, promote and protect the Olympic Movement in the country. Source:  Indian Express       Basel III Norms Open in new  window Syllabus Prelims – Indian Economy In News: Fundraising via Basel III-compliant and infrastructure bonds seen continuing over next few months, say analysts. What is the Basel Framework: The Basel Framework are capital regulations developed by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS) in response to the deficiencies in financial regulation revealed by the financial crisis of 2007–08. Objective: To improve the banking sector’s ability to absorb shocks arising from financial and economic stress, to reduce the risk of spill over from the financial sector to the real economy, to raise capital standard and to implement strong international compensation standards aimed at ending practices that lead to excessive risk-taking They were first enforced in the G-10 countries in 1992. Evolution: Basel I Adopted in 1999 It defined capital and structure of risk weights for banks and focussed on credit risk Minimum capital requirement fixed at 8% of risk-weighted assets (RWA) Basel II Adopted in 2004 It defined three types of risk as – operational risk, market risk, capital risk Its 3 pillars were as follows:        About Basel III norms: The new standards will come into effect on January 2023 Risk-based capital requirements (RWAs) and interest rate risk were introduced for the first time. The new standards aim at increasing capital requirements, it introduces requirements on liquid asset holdings and funding stability Key difference between the Basel II and Basel III: Basel III framework prescribes more of common equity, creation of capital buffer, introduction of Leverage Ratio, Introduction of Liquidity coverage Ratio (LCR) and Net Stable Funding Ratio (NSFR). Leverage Ratio: The leverage ratio is calculated by dividing Tier 1 capital by the bank’s average total consolidated assets. Banks are expected to maintain a leverage ratio in excess of 3% under Basel III Liquidity Coverage Ratio: The liquidity coverage ratio (LCR) denotes to highly liquid assets held by financial institutions to meet short-term obligations. The LCR is a requirement under Basel III for a bank to hold high-quality liquid assets (HQLAs) sufficient to cover 100% of its stressed net cash requirements over 30 days. The LCR is calculated as: LCR = HQLAs / Net cash outflows. Net stable funding (NSF): The net stable funding is to ensure that banks maintain a stable funding profile in relation to the composition of their assets and off-balance sheet activities. About Basel III compliant Bonds: The bonds qualify as tier II capital of the bank, and has a face value of Rs 10 lakh each, bearing a coupon rate of 6.24 per cent per annum payable annually for a tenor of 10 years. There is a call option after 5 years and on anniversary thereafter. Call option means the issuer of the bonds can call back the bonds before the maturity date by paying back the principal amount to investors. Source:  The Hindu Previous Year Question Q.1) ‘Basel III Accord’ or simply ‘Basel III’, often seen in the news, seeks to: (2015) develop national strategies for the conservation and sustainable use of biological diversity improve banking sector’s ability to deal with financial and economic stress and improve risk management reduce the greenhouse gas emissions but places a heavier burden on developed countries transfer technology from developed countries to poor countries to enable them to replace the use of chlorofluorocarbons in refrigeration with harmless chemicals Live streaming of Supreme Court proceedings Open in new  window Syllabus  Prelims – Polity and Constitution Mains: GS 2 Polity In News: The Supreme Court decided to live stream its proceedings in crucial Constitution Bench cases. Following the SC’s decision, Gujarat High Court began live streaming its proceedings in July 2021. Currently, the Jharkhand, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Orissa, and Patna High Courts live stream their proceedings. Historical Reference: In 2018, a three-judge Bench comprising then CJI agreed to hear a public interest litigation seeking live streaming of judicial proceedings on matters of constitutional and national importance citing the principle of open access to justice. Methods of live streaming: Synchronous: real-time live streaming Asynchronous: uploading recordings after certain delay such as the next day The Example of Gujarat HC: The High Court of Gujarat implemented an in-house technical solution for live streaming of the Court Proceedings using computer systems, web cameras, digital audio interface and public address systems. The Court is now equipped with microphones and speakers. The live streaming is being done on the official YouTube Channel of the High Court which is now touching a subscriber base of 75000 and total cumulative views of 53 lacs. Global Perspective: Brazil: Allowed live video and audio broadcast including deliberations and voting process. A public television channel, a radio channel, and YouTube channels have been set up apart from broadcasting proceedings live. South Africa: Allowed broadcasting as an extension of the right to freedom of expression Canada: Proceedings are broadcast live on Cable accompanied by explanations of each case, overall processes, and powers of the court. United Kingdom: Proceedings are broadcast live but coverage can be withdrawn in sensitive appeals. USA: Supreme Court has rejected pleas for broadcast of its proceedings but allowed audio recording and transcripts of oral arguments. Concerns: Video clips of proceedings from Indian courts are already on YouTube and other social media platforms with sensational titles that creates fears of irresponsible or motivated use of content and spread of misinformation among the public. Justices may behave like politicians when given free television time, they act to maximize their individual exposure (as per a 2018 paper by titled ‘Television and Judicial Behaviour in Brazilian Supreme Court) Broadcast of proceedings corresponded with a growth in the frequency of filibustering. A judge must not be swayed by popular opinion and public gaze. Significance: Help in addressing gendered disruptions in oral arguments, with women being interrupted at disproportionate rates by their male colleagues. Help in improving transparency and greater access to justice system. It will lead to de-congestion of courts and improving physical access to courts. It is crucial for dissemination of information, free speech, and fundamental rights. Way forward – AGI’s Recommendations: Introduce live streaming as a pilot project and only in Constitution Bench cases. The court must retain the power to withhold broadcasting, and to also not permit it in sensitive cases like matrimonial matters, juveniles matter and matters of national security. Ensure that victims, witnesses, or defendants can depose truthfully and without any fear. Special protection must be given to vulnerable or intimidated witnesses such as face distortion. Protect privacy and security of victims and witnesses such as relating to sexual assault or rape matters or in cases which may provoke sentiments and arouse passion and provoke enmity among communities. Source: Indian Express                Freeing the caged parrot Open in new  window Syllabus Prelims – Current Affairs Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Supreme Court of India (SC) has made several observation and comment against the inefficient functioning of the CBI and still this is continuing without much improving the situation. In 2013, the SC once again made strong observations against the functioning of the CBI and referring to the “Vineet Narain” judgment, said that nothing had improved since 1997, when this judgment was delivered. CBI, ED must be reformed if they are not to be used as instruments of intimidation, blackmail by governments. What Challenges are Faced by the CBI? Political Interference: The Supreme Court of India has criticised the CBI by calling it a “caged parrot speaking in its master’s voice”, due to excessive political interference in its functioning. Delayed Investigations: It has been accused of enormous delays in concluding investigations – For example, the inertia in its probe against the high dignitaries in Jain hawala diaries case [of the 1990s]. Loss of Credibility: Improving the image of the agency is one of the biggest challenges till now as the agency has been criticised for its mismanagement of several cases involving prominent politicians and mishandling of several sensitive cases like Bofors scandal, Hawala scandal, Sant Singh Chatwal case, Bhopal gas tragedy, 2008 Noida double murder case(Aarushi Talwar). Lack of Accountability: CBI is exempted from the provisions of the Right to Information Act, thus, lacking public accountability. Acute shortage of personnel: A major cause of the shortfall is the government’s sheer mismanagement of CBI’s workforce, through a system of inefficient, and inexplicably biased, recruitment policies – used to bring in favoured officers, possibly to the detriment of the organisation. Limited Powers: The powers and jurisdiction of members of the CBI for investigation are subject to the consent of the State Govt., thus limiting the extent of investigation by CBI. Restricted Access: Prior approval of Central Government to conduct inquiry or investigation on the employees of the Central Government, of the level of Joint Secretary and above is a big obstacle in combating corruption at higher levels of bureaucracy. The following steps can be taken to improvement of the functioning of the CBI under the supervision of the CVC, can be improved in order to enhance efficiency: One, the CVC Act should be amended, providing for a five/seven-member Central Vigilance Commission, which could broadly assume the role visualised for the Lokpal The selection process of the CVC members should be broader based to prevent favouritism or from controversial persons being appointed. Currently, three members are drawn from the IAS, IPS and the Banking services. It should include one retired judge of the Supreme Court appointed by the CJI in consultation with the next four senior most judges. Since the legislative wing of our democracy is crucial for matters of governance, it would be worthwhile to include one Member of Parliament, selected from those who have been members of either House for the longest duration. In addition, two to three members should have engineering expertise, to assess the scams like the Commonwealth Games and one person should have a chartered accountancy background to examine financial scams. These selections should be made as transparent as possible. Two, the CVC should constitute an advisory committee of at least 11 members drawn from criminologists and forensic science experts. This will augment the professional input in its functioning. Further, to reduce the burden on the CVC, it should be given the power to go to any expert or professional to assist it in screening complaints Three, the jurisdiction of CVC, which presently covers all employees of the central government and the CPSUs, should remain unchanged. There is already an administrative arrangement to delegate the vigilance administration over class II and lower formations to the ministries/departments concerned. To make this arrangement more effective, it would be important that the CVC exercises complete control over the selection, appointment and functioning of the CVOs. Four, the CVC should have an adequately experienced team to technically examine and assess the gravity of a complaint, which can then be assigned to the CBI for investigation or can be investigated by this team. After assessing a complaint by this broad-based CVC, there should be no need to seek prior permission from the government. Five, in the cases assigned to it by the CVC, the CBI should be made functionally and financially independent of the controls of any government ministry/department. The professional supervision over the investigations of the CBI should rest only with the CVC. Six, the manner of the appointment of the CBI Director should be broad based as in the case of the CVC members, whereas the other inductions/appointments in the CBI should be brought under the overarching supervision of the CVC. Seven, to achieve better synergy between anti-corruption laws and grievance handling, the laws relating to the whistle-blowers and grievance redressal should be placed within the jurisdiction of the CVC. Eight, effective administration of anti-corruption laws at the grass roots is the key to responsible governance. The state and their anti-corruption agencies would, therefore, need to be equally insulated from the state government’s interference on similar lines. Conclusion: As, the CBI, DRI and income tax agencies would do their duty, ensure proper investigations, and take the case to its logical conclusion, therefore it become necessary that they perform their functions in transparent manner without fear and favour to individual or group or party It is for the national interest that the country’s premier investigating agencies like the CBI, income tax authorities and the ED are not used as instruments of blackmail and intimidation by the government of the day. Rather they should work with complete objectivity and in the interest of the nation. MUST READ:  Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)        Source: Indian Express       Internal Democracy and Election Commission of India (ECI) Open in new  window Syllabus Prelims – Polity and Constitution Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Constitution) Context: Recently, the Election Commission of India (ECI) has rejected the idea of a ‘permanent president’ for a party. A party from Andhra Pradesh reportedly elected states’ Chief Minister as its president for life. As per the ECI, such a step is inherently anti-democratic. What is ‘Internal Democracy’ or ‘Intra-party democracy’? It refers to the level and methods of including party members in the decision making and deliberation within the party structure. It is usually known to nurture citizens’ political competencies and/or producing more capable representatives which in turn ensures that the party produces better policies and political programmes. Any party that participates in a democratic process, and wants to govern and legislate, should include formal and periodic election of office-bearers as part of the way it functions as an association. At present, in India and South Asia, almost all political parties are centralised. They are family-controlled parties, and dynastic politics has become a norm. Reason behind centralised control in a party: The fragmentation of India’s polity into a federalised, multi-party system has also given way to domination by “charismatic” individuals or their families, mainly because of the nature of support that these parties enjoy or due to their financing structures which necessitates centralised control by a single coterie or a family. Because of this, several political parties do not insist on thoroughgoing internal elections to secure their leadership; and even if they do conduct polls, they lack sufficient contestation and are done to reaffirm the dominance of the high command. Framework to ensure Intra-party democracy: RPA,1951: ECI uses guidelines issued for registration of parties under Section 29A, RPA,1951 to remind parties to conduct elections and to ensure that their leadership is renewed, changed, or re-elected every five years. Constitution: All rules and regulations apply more to candidates than to political parties in India. Nothing in Article 324, or Section 29A, RPA,1951 tells us that the ECI can actually regulate internal structures, organisations, or elections of the party. However, ECI does not have any statutory power to enforce internal democracy in parties or to mandate elections. The ECI does not question the result or the procedure the parties followed. The ECI expects political parties to abide by their constitution, a copy of which is also submitted to the commission when the parties are registered. It is not for the commission to step in or criticise if anyone is elected unopposed. In the 1990s, when N. Sheshan was at the helm at ECI, by an executive order political parties were ordered to conduct organisational elections. Framework in other countries: In the U.S. election, the selection of the candidate to be the presidential nominee is done via debate, in which the contenders condemn and criticise each other. Something similar is seen in the U.K. Democracy. Suggestions in this regard: 1999 Law Commission Report: It strongly recommended that India should have some mechanism for internal regulation of political parties. The CEC in 2011 also submitted a draft on this to the Union Law Ministry. New interpretation of the existing laws by the ECI, as happened in the 1990s. Conclusion: Political parties don’t have to be homogeneous in terms of both ideas and leadership. Political parties are aggregations of interests, so, there are going to be differences within. Having these internal elections, meetings and contests of ideas is important. The lack of substantive power with ECI only leads to parties carrying out the ECI’s edicts in a mechanical manner. However, with dynasticism and a lack of internal democracy becoming a matter of public debate, perhaps public pressure would finally bear upon parties to do the right thing. Internal elections are key for upward mobility. MUST READ:  Election Commission of India            Source:  The Hindu                     Previous Year Question Q,1) With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements: (2021) The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and by-elections. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties. Select the correct code: 1 and 2 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only PM CARES Fund Open in new  window Syllabus Prelims – Government schemes Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Central Government recently appointed Ratan Tata, a veteran industrialist, former Supreme Court judge K.T. Thomas and former Deputy Lok Sabha Speaker Kariya Munda as trustees of the PM CARES Fund. About the PM CARES Fund: The Prime Minister’s Citizen Assistance and Relief in Emergency Situations Fund (PM CARES Fund) was created as a dedicated fund in March 2020 (and registered as a Public Charitable Trust), following the COVID-19 pandemic in India. The stated purpose of the fund is for combating, containment and relief efforts against the coronavirus outbreak and similar emergency or distress situations in the future. The fund is administered on an honorary basis by a Joint Secretary (Administration) in the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) as Secretary to the fund. Constitution of the Trust: Although the documentation for the constitution of the fund has not been made public, the Government of India has stated that the Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of the PM CARES Fund. The Minister of Defence, Minister of Home Affairs and Minister of Finance are ex-officio Trustees of the Fund. The Chairperson of the Board of Trustees (the Prime Minister) shall have the authority to appoint 3 trustees to the Board of Trustees. Any Trustee appointed shall serve on a non-profit The PMO provides the Trustees with administrative and secretarial support for the Trust’s management and administration as needed. Other details of the Fund: The fund consists entirely of voluntary contributions from individuals or organisations and does not get any budgetary support. Donations to PM CARES Fund would qualify for 100% exemption under the Income Tax Act, 1961. Donations to PM CARES Fund will also qualify to be counted as Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) expenditure under the Companies Act, 2013 PM CARES Fund has also got exemption under the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) and a separate account for receiving foreign donations has been opened. This is consistent with respect to the Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund (PMNRF). PMNRF has also received foreign contributions as a public trust since 2011. According to the most recent audited statement, the PM CARES Fund’s corpus nearly tripled to 10,990 crores in the 2020-21 fiscal, while disbursals increased to 3,976 crores. Performance out of the Fund till now: So far, an amount of ~ Rs. 4000 Crore has been allocated from PM CARES Fund for the following activities – ₹2000 Crore: For supply of 50,000 ‘Made-in India’ ventilators to Government Hospitals run by Centre/States/UTs. ₹1000 Crore: For care of migrant labourers (funds allotted to State/UT Governments). Over ₹1,392 crore for procurement of Covid vaccine doses. With the help of the PM CARES Fund, the PM CARES for Children scheme was launched. At present this scheme supports 4,345 children. The PM CARES for Children scheme was launched on 29th May 2021. It was launched to support children who have lost both the parents or legal guardian or adoptive parents or surviving parent to COVID-19 pandemic during the period starting from 11th March 2020. Controversies about the Fund: Lack of transparency and accountability in relation to its establishment, functioning and accounts. The total amount donated and the names of donors have not been made public, and the fund is being audited privately. Even though the Fund uses government infrastructure and national emblem, the Government initially claimed that the fund is a private fund and is outside the purview of the Right to Information (RTI) Act 2005. Later, the Government reversed its stance, admitting that the PM CARES Fund was a public fund but still refusing to disclose information about it under the RTI Act 2005. Source: The Hindu                Economically weaker Section (EWS) Quota Open in new  window Syllabus Prelims – Current Affairs (Polity and Governance) Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Constitution and Governance) Context: Recently, the Attorney-General of India articulated that the 10% quota for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of society does not erode the rights of the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes, or the Other Backward Classes. What is Economically Weaker Section (EWS) Quota? The 10% EWS quota was introduced under the 103rd Constitution (Amendment) Act, 2019 by amending Articles 15 and 16. It inserted Article 15 (6) and Article 16 (6). It is for economic reservation in jobs and admissions in educational institutes for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS). It was enacted to promote the welfare of the poor not covered by the 50% reservation policy for Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs) and Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBC). It enables both the Centre and the States to provide reservations to the EWS of society. Significance: Addresses Inequality: The 10% quota is progressive and could address the issues of educational and income inequality in India since the economically weaker sections of citizens have remained excluded from attending higher educational institutions and public employment due to their financial incapacity. Recognition of the Economic Backwards: There are many people or classes other than backward classes who are living under hunger and poverty-stricken conditions. The proposed reservation through a constitutional amendment would give constitutional recognition to the poor from the upper castes. Reduction of Caste-Based Discrimination: Moreover, it will gradually remove the stigma associated with reservation because reservation has historically been related to caste and most often the upper caste looks down upon those who come through the reservation. Concerns: Unavailability of Data: The Union or state governments have no such data to prove that ‘upper’ caste individuals, who have less than Rs 8 lakh annual income, are not adequately represented in government jobs and higher educational institutions. There is a strong possibility that they are actually over-represented in these places. Arbitrary Criteria: The criteria used by the government to decide the eligibility for this reservation is vague and is not based on any data or study. Even the SC questioned the government whether they have checked the GDP per capita for every State while deciding the monetary limit for giving the EWS reservation. Statistics show that the per capita income in states differs widely – Goa is the state having the highest per capita income of almost Rs. 4 lakhs whereas Bihar is at the bottom with Rs.40,000. Additional Information: Judicial Scrutiny of Reservation The State of Madras v. Smt. Champakam Dorairajan (1951) case was the first major verdict of the Supreme Court on the issue of Reservation. The case led to the First amendment in the constitution. The Supreme Court in the case pointed out that while in the case of employment under the State, Article 16(4) provides for reservations in favour of backward class of citizens, no such provision was made in Article 15. Pursuant to the Supreme Court’s order in the case the Parliament amended Article 15 by inserting Clause (4). In Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992) case the court examined the scope and extent of Article 16(4). The Court has said that the creamy layer of OBCs should be excluded from the list of beneficiaries of reservation, there should not be reservation in promotions; and total reserved quota should not exceed 50%. The Parliament responded by enacting 77th Constitutional Amendment Act which introduced Article 16(4A). The Supreme Court in M. Nagaraj v. Union of India 2006 case while upholding the constitutional validity of Art 16(4A) held that any such reservation policy in order to be constitutionally valid shall satisfy the following three constitutional requirements: The SC and ST communities are not adequately represented in public employment. Such reservation policy shall not affect the overall efficiency in the administration. In Jarnail Singh vs Lachhmi Narain Gupta case of 2018, Supreme Court holds that reservation in promotions does not require the state to collect quantifiable data on the backwardness of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes. The Court held that creamy layer exclusion extends to SC/STs and, hence the State cannot grant reservations in promotion to SC/ST individuals who belong to the creamy layer of their community. In May 2019 the Supreme Court upheld the Karnataka law that allows reservations in promotions for SCs and STs with consequential seniority. Source: The Hindu                 Previous Year Question Q.1) Consider the following statements:            (2022) Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Baba’s Explainer -The office of the Governor  The office of the Governor Syllabus GS-2: Appointment to various Constitutional posts, powers, functions and responsibilities of various Constitutional Bodies. Context: The role, powers, and discretion of the Governor’s Office in multiple States have been the subject of constitutional, political, and legal debate for decades. Recently, the prolonged silence of Jharkhand’s Governor over Chief Minister Hemant Soren’s possible disqualification as an MLA resulted in political uncertainty. The deadlock between the Tamil Nadu government and Governor R.N. Ravi over assenting to the National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET) exemption Bill is another instance of a tussle between the Governor and the elected government in a State. Read Complete Details on The office of the Governor  Daily Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Which one of the following is the context in which the term “LoRa (Long Range Radio) technology ” is mentioned: Banking services Wireless Local Area Network GPS navigation systems DNA Barcoding Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the Indian Olympics Association (IOA): It was founded in 1956. It plays with the name of “Team Bharat”. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Q.3) Consider the following statements, with respect to PM CARE Fund: Home minister is ex-officio chairman of Board of trustee of fund. The fund consists entirely of voluntary contributions from individuals and organizations and does not get any budgetary support. It is audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India in every financial year Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 ,2 and 3 2 and 3 only 2 only 1 and 2 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’23rd September 2022 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs. ANSWERS FOR 22nd September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – b Q.3) – a table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Baba’s Explainer

Baba's Explainer - The office of the Governor

ARCHIVES Syllabus GS-2: Appointment to various Constitutional posts, powers, functions and responsibilities of various Constitutional Bodies. Context: The role, powers, and discretion of the Governor’s Office in multiple States have been the subject of constitutional, political, and legal debate for decades. Recently, the prolonged silence of Jharkhand’s Governor over Chief Minister Hemant Soren’s possible disqualification as an MLA resulted in political uncertainty. The deadlock between the Tamil Nadu government and Governor R.N. Ravi over assenting to the National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET) exemption Bill is another instance of a tussle between the Governor and the elected government in a State. It thus becomes pertinent to understand what the framers of the Constitution had envisaged for the post of the Governor, and what powers have been specifically granted to the Office of Governors and Lieutenant Governor in the Constitution. How did the post of Governor come about? Since 1858, when India was administered by the British Crown, provincial Governors were agents of the Crown, functioning under the supervision of the Governor-General. Over the following decades, the Indian nationalist movement sought various reforms from British rule, aiming for better governance. These efforts culminated in the Government of India Act, 1935, which came into force in 1937, bringing provincial autonomy. Post this, the Indian National Congress commanded a majority in six provinces. With the 1935 law, the Governor was now to act in accordance with the advice of Ministers of a province’s legislature, but retained special responsibilities and discretionary power Upon Independence, when the Provisional Constitution of 1947 was adapted from the 1935 Act, the post of Governor was retained but the phrases ‘in his discretion, ‘acting in his discretion, and ‘exercising his individual judgement’, were omitted. The post of the Governor was extensively debated in the Constituent Assembly, which too decided to retain it while re-orienting its role from the British era. Under the parliamentary and cabinet systems of governance adopted by India, the Governor was envisaged to be the Constitutional Head of a State. What aspects of the post were debated in the Constituent Assembly? 1.Elected Vs Nominated Governor While it is now enshrined in Articles 154 and 155 of the Constitution that the Governor is to be nominated by the President as the executive head of the State, members had questioned whether a nominated Governor could be impartial. Biswanath Das, a member from Orissa, expressed his apprehension and asked how a Governor nominated by the President and the Central Government would co-operate with the elected State Government. In his defence of a “nominated Governor”, Jawaharlal Nehru reasoned that an elected Governor would fuel separatist provincial tendencies. He proposed that the Governor, nominated as such, could be a “detached figure” who could rise above party politics. Ambedkar concurred by asking why, if the Governor’s post was a “purely ornamental” one, should money and effort be spent on an election. Whether discretionary power be given to Governor? Article 143 of the draft Constitution (now Article 163) states that the Council of Ministers of a State with the Chief Minister as the head should “aid and advise” the Governor in carrying out his functions, “except in so far as he is by or under this Constitution required to exercise his functions or any of them in his discretion”. Multiple members of the Assembly raised concern about the “discretion” clause. However, Dr. Ambedkar contended that vesting the Governor with certain discretionary powers was in no sense contrary to the concept of responsible government. He said that the phrase “except in so far as he is by or under this Constitution” in Article 143 meant that the discretion was a “very limited” clause Role in Administration Members also raised doubts about Article 147 (now 167), which empowers the Governor to ask the Chief Minister to furnish any information regarding the administration of the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation”. The article also empowers the Governor to ask the Chief Minister for reconsideration of the decision taken. Some argued that this Article would enable the Governor to interfere with and obstruct the administration carried out by the State Government Ambedkar said this notion was “completely mistaken” as the Article nowhere said that the Governor could overrule the Ministry. He added that if the Governor’s limited duties of advising and warning Ministers was also taken away, then he would be rendered a “completely unnecessary functionary”. However, in the recent past, multiple State Governments have routinely expressed discontent over Governors interfering with day-to-day administration The prolonged discord between former West Bengal Governor and ruling government resulted in state writing to the Centre multiple times to recall the Governor. There was similar conflict when Kiran Bedi was serving as the Governor of Puducherry. provisions talk about the Governor’s role? The other important provisions defining the Governor’s role state that the Governor appoints the Chief Minister after an election and the Council of Ministers on the advice of the CM (Article 164). The Governor can also summon, prorogue, and dissolve the Legislative Assembly (Article 174). By convention, he does this on the advice of the Council of Ministers while they enjoy the confidence of the Assembly. The M Punchhi Commission’s report on Centre-State relations points out that the exercise of his discretion happens only when following the Council’s advice would be unconstitutional or if the Council has lost the confidence of the Assembly. Every Bill passed in an Assembly has to be sent to the Governor (Article 200), after which he has four options —        to assent to the Bill        withhold assent        reserve the Bill for the consideration of the President        return the Bill to the legislature, asking it to reconsider the Bill or an aspect of it. The Governor can also suggest an amendment to the Bill. The legislature is supposed to quickly consider the recommendations but if it chooses to pass the Bill in the same form again, “the Governor shall not withhold assent therefrom”. As for the role of the Lieutenant Governor, Article 239, introduced through an amendment in 1956, states that each Union Territory will be administered by the President through an administrator appointed by him and given a designation he specifies. The administrators in some UTs are designated as Lieutenant Governors, with a special provision (Article 239AA) for the National Capital Territory of Delhi, which was inserted in 1991. The Lt. Governor of Delhi also acts on theadvice of the Council of Ministers except on the subjects of police, public order, and land. The Lt. Governor can exercise his discretion when required by any law. In case of a difference of opinion with the Ministers, he would have to consult the President. How has the Supreme Court interpreted the role of the Governor? The role of the Governor was first questioned after the 1952 elections in undivided Madras, when, ignoring the United Democratic Front’s (UDF) claim as the party with the majority, Governor Sri Prakasa invited the Congress to form the government, which it did after engineering several splits and defections, with Rajaji as Chief Minister. The Governor’s position was subject to much debate after the fourth general elections of 1967 when the Congress lost power in eight States while retaining it at the Centre. In 1975, after the declaration of national Emergency, the DMK regime offered political support to dissidents, which led to realignments in State politics. Then Tamil Nadu Governor K. K. Shah sent a report to the President to dismiss the DMK government for pervasive corruption. President’s Rule was imposed on February 3, 1976. In the subsequent decades, the formation of regional parties and fragile alliances to form governments led to politically volatile situations in many States. In many such cases, Governors started being called upon to exercise their discretion, thus inviting allegations of partisanship. The calling for President’s Rule by Governors became a regular practice and it was imposed in States over a 100 times prior to 1994. It was with this backdrop that the Supreme Court’s nine-judge Bench gave its historic verdict in the R. Bommai case in 1994, ruling that imposition of President’s Rule shall be only in the event of a breakdown of constitutional machinery. R. Bommai was the Chief Minister of the Janata Dal government in Karnataka in April 1989, when his government was dismissed. The dismissal was on the grounds that the Bommai government had lost majority following large-scale defections. Then Governor P. Venkatasubbaiah refused to give Bommai an opportunity to test his majority in the Assembly. The Supreme Court ruled that the floor of the Assembly should be the only forum that should test the majority of the government of the day, and not the subjective opinion of the Governor. In another judgement, Shamsher Singh vs State of Punjab (1974), the Supreme Court said that President and Governor shall “exercise their formal constitutional powers only upon and in accordance with the advice of their Ministers except in a few well-known exceptional situations”. In late 2015, a political crisis arose in Arunachal Pradesh, where the Governor, acting without the advice of the Chief Minister, advanced the Assembly session and listed removal of the Speaker as the agenda. The Supreme court held that the Governor can summon, prorogue and dissolve the House only on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister as the head. And not at his own will The Supreme Court has time and again highlighted that “the area for the exercise of his (Governor’s) discretion is limited”. Even in this limited area, his choice of action should not be arbitrary or fanciful. It must be a choice dictated by reason, actuated by good faith and tempered by caution. What have commissions suggested on the role of Governor? The Sarkaria Commission, headed by Justice R. S. Sarkaria, said in its 1988 report that it would not be desirable to appoint a Governor who is a member of the ruling party at the Centre, in a State where an Opposition party is governing. It said that the Governor appointee should be a detached outsider and a person of eminence in some walks of life. Later, in 2007, the M.M Punchhi Commission report stated that Governors were expected to be independent, and to act in a manner devoid of any political consideration. It pointed out that independence of such actions would include keeping the State Legislature and the political executive shielded from the political will of the Union Government Main Practice Question: The Governor been acting more of an ‘agent of the centre’ rather than being the ‘constitutional head of state’.” Analyse the statement in the light of recent controversies involving the post of Governor in India. Note: Write answers to this question in the comment section. table{ border: 1px solid; } table tr, table td{ border: 1px solid; }

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2022 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 23rd September 2022

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here