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Jun 13, 2022 IASbaba's Courses

ANTHROPOLOGY OPTIONAL TEST SERIES for UPSC 2022 by C.A. Vijaya Sarathy Sir

Dear Students We are tiding over the testing times slowly and gradually. Now that you have done well in the Prelims, it’s time to assess your Mains writing abilities. It’s time to check where you stand in the competition. Now is the time to check your requirements of Anthropology Answer Writing Skills in both Paper 1, which tests your basic concepts of the subject, and Paper 2, which demands the application of the conceptual base to the applied aspects in the Indian context. We want you to take advantage of Anthropology Test Series, and come out confident in your preparation. Read Complete Details -> Click Here

Jun 13, 2022 Baba’s Explainer

Baba's Explainer - Ukraine War and the Global Food Crisis

ARCHIVES Syllabus GS-2: Effect of policies and politics of developed and developing countries on India’s interests. Context: Russia’s invasion of Ukraine and the subsequent sanctions on its economy have sent global food prices soaring, threatening to push millions of people, especially those in low-income countries, into starvation. As the war, in its fourth month now, is still raging in Ukraine’s east with no political solution on the horizon, the United Nations and Turkey have initiated talks with the Russian leadership to facilitate the exports of grains and fertilizers from Russia and Ukraine. [su_spoiler open="yes" title="How important are Russia and Ukraine for global food security?" style="fancy" icon="chevron"] Ukraine’s share in global wheat exports is around 10 per cent, whereas the Russian share is around 18 per cent. Wheat is a staple food for at least 35% of the world’s population, as per the estimates of the UN Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) Around 26 countries in the world get more than half of their wheat supplies from these two countries About 50 countries depend on Russia and Ukraine for more than 30% of their wheat imports If Azerbaijan and Georgia source more than 80% of their imported wheat from Russia and Ukraine, Turkey, Egypt, Bangladesh and Lebanon meet over 60% of their imports from these two countries. Russia has a 14 per cent market share of barley and Ukraine 12 per cent Russia has a 26 per cent share of world’s sunflower oil supplies, whereas Ukraine is the world’s largest export with a whopping share of 37 per cent. Ukraine is the world’s eighth largest producer and fourth largest exporter of corn, accounting for 16% of global exports Russia’s share in the world's fertiliser supply is around 17 per cent. Together, Russia and Belarus last year exported 40 per cent of the world's potash, While Ukraine’s exports are disrupted because of diversion of farmhands from agricultural fields to battlefields and damage of food plants and ports in Russian attacks, the Russian and Belarus’s exports have been hit by Western sanctions. [/su_spoiler] [su_spoiler open="no" title="How serious is the food crisis?" style="fancy" icon="chevron"] Many countries were facing growing food insecurity even before Russia’s war. Climate shocks, conflicts and the COVID-19 pandemic had disrupted supply chains, pumping up prices of both commodities and crops. The war in Ukraine has aggravated this situation. As of June 1, 2022, the Agricultural Price Index was 40% higher compared to January 2021, according to the World Bank. Maize and wheat prices rose 42% and 60%, respectively, from the levels of January 2021. Global food, fuel and fertilizer prices are projected to be sharply higher this year and will remain elevated into 2024, the Bank estimates. Almost all economies in the world have been hit by higher food prices. Across the western world, there’s a cost-of-living crisis with food and energy prices rocketing. In the U.K., inflation numbers have already hit a 40-year high. Almost 90% of emerging markets and developing economies experienced food price inflation greater than 5% this year. Low-income countries that are reliant on imports for basic food consumption, are the hardest hit. According to the UN World Food Programme (WFP), Ethiopia, Nigeria, South Sudan and Yemen remain at ‘highest alert’ as hotspots with “catastrophic conditions”, as Afghanistan and Somalia are added to this category. [/su_spoiler] [su_spoiler open="no" title="What is causing the crisis?" style="fancy" icon="chevron"] Before the Russian invasion of Ukraine started, Ukraine had the capacity to export up to six million tonnes of wheat, barley and maize a month, mainly through its ports in the Black Sea/Sea of Azov. In the eight months before the war, some 51 million tonnes of grain were exported through Ukraine’s Black Sea ports. But exports have collapsed since the invasion as the Russian war effort is entirely focused on Ukraine’s eastern and southern parts along the Black Sea/Sea of Azov coast. Now, several Ukrainian port cities, including Mariupol, Kherson and Berdyansk, are under Russian control. Although the southern cities of Mykolaiv and Odessa, which is known as the ‘Pearl of the Black Sea’, are still with the Ukrainians, commercial ships cannot dock at these ports because of two reasons — Ukraine has mined the waters around these ports as a deterrent against potential Russian attacks and Russia has enforced a naval blockade in the waters of the Black Sea. These factors have in effect brought exports from Ukraine to a grinding halt. According to Ukrainian authorities, more than 20 million tonnes of grain are stuck in warehouses and containers. June marks the beginning of a harvesting season in Ukraine and this season, the country is expected to produce some 30 million tonnes of corn, wheat and sunflower oil, half of which are meant to be exported. But unless the blockade is lifted and Ukraine starts exports, Ukraine would not even find enough warehousing capacity to store this year’s harvest. This would make the food crisis worse. Besides the blockade, the western sanctions on Russia are also contributing to the crisis. Russia, besides being the world’s top wheat exporter, is also a leading exporter of fertilizer, an essential commodity for food production. Russia and its ally Belarus together account for some 38% of potassic fertilizers, 17% of compound fertilizers, and 15% of nitrogenous fertilizers. Fertilizer prices are also on the rise, which would make food production costlier. Russia’s food and fertilizer sectors were not directly targeted by western sanctions, but the sanctions on its financial sector, which made payments difficult for Russia, has complicated its exports, including food grains. Also, the targeted sanctions on Russian oligarchs have choked finances for the agricultural industry. [/su_spoiler] [su_spoiler open="no" title="Is there a way out?" style="fancy" icon="chevron"] Russia has suggested that it would resume exports (not sure whether Ukrainian or Russian grains) from the ports on the Sea of Azov that it controls (Mariupol and Berdyansk) and that it would open a corridor for commercial vessels in the Black Sea if Ukraine demines the ports it controls (mainly Odessa and Mykolaiv). But these proposals, which were discussed in Turkey recently, could be implemented only as part of a deal between russia and Ukraine, with blessings from the West as Russia seeks sanctions relief in return for opening the maritime corridor. Ukraine, however, is sceptical, saying it doesn’t trust Moscow. No breakthrough has been achieved so far. Ukraine has little good options to ship its grains out of the country if its ports remain blockaded. One option is to transfer the grains overland to the Baltic states, either through Poland or Belarus, and then ship them out from the Baltic Sea ports. However, Ukraine has dismissed the proposal to seek help from Belarus, a Russian ally that also faces western sanctions. Moving them overland via Poland is challenging because the rail track gauge in Poland is smaller than that of former Soviet countries such as Ukraine and the Baltic states — this means cargoes will have to be moved to different trains at the Polish-Ukraine border and then again at the Polish-Lithuania border to start exporting them from the Baltic ports So, the only practical solution to take Ukrainian grains to the global markets is to open the Black Sea routes. And to ease the pressure on global food items, Russia will also have to step up exports of both grains and fertilizers. For this, Ukraine and its allies may have to strike a deal with Russian President Vladimir Putin. [/su_spoiler] [su_spoiler open="no" title="What has been India’s reaction to global wheat crisis?" style="fancy" icon="chevron"] The Government has banned wheat exports with effect from May 13, with some minor exceptions for those who have irrevocable letters of credit or where the governments of importing countries request the Indian government for food security purposes. Significantly, the order came two days after the Government had decided to send trade delegations to a number of countries to explore possibilities of export of wheat India had set a goal of exporting 10 million tons of grains in 2022-23, looking to capitalize on the global disruptions to wheat supplies from the war and find new markets in Europe, Africa and Asia. Reasons for Export Ban by India Low Domestic Production: The revised estimates of wheat production are much lower than the estimated 111 mmt (million metric tonnes), primarily attributed to record shattering heat waves across India. Lower surplus forces India to curb exports. Thin Procurement: Government wheat procurement is likely to end up at around 19 to 20 mmt by June-end against 43 mmt last year indicating less wheat reaching govt procurement centres. In such a situation, government has to prioritise domestic needs over export opportunities. Rising Wheat Prices domestically: Another factor could be that the April ’22 wheat inflation is at 9.59 per cent (y-o-y) against overall cereal inflation of 5.96 per cent. Increasing domestic supply by curtailing export will help calm down the prices. Food Distribution Obligations: Government announced free food until Sep 2022 under PMGKAY. Hence, food procurement is essential for fulfilling its promise & to meet nutritional security of the Nation. Curbs on Sugar Exports The government has recently decided to “restrict” the export of sugar. The curbs, the first such move in four years is done in the backdrop of turbulence created in the commodity markets in the world due to Russia’s invasion of Ukraine The government has moved export of sugar from the ‘open category’, which requires no government intervention, to ‘restricted’ category. This means that export of sugar is allowed only with specific permission from Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution. Unlike wheat, where export has been banned, sugar would continue to be exported, but from June 1, permission would be required to send the shipments out. Reasons for putting curbs on Sugar export now Exports can continue unabated given the international demand. But for the government, a possible worry is low stocks at the beginning of the next season. This can lead to supply constraints for around three months. The sugar season officially starts in October, but picks up momentum only after December. If there is scarcity of back-up stocks during this period then prices can escalate in the domestic market. When inflation, especially food inflation, is beyond the expected range, further rise in sugar prices will hurt India’s economic recovery process. The country has seen a bumper sugarcane crop. It is expected that the country will see production of 350 lakh tonnes of sugar. Around 34 lakh tonnes of sugar have already been subsumed for production of ethanol. India’s domestic consumption is pegged at 260 lakh tonnes. [/su_spoiler] [su_spoiler open="no" title="What has been the response to India imposing export restriction?" style="fancy" icon="chevron"] G-7 condemned India’s decision amidst rising prices would worsen the situation. The export ban also reflects poorly on India’s image in playing its shared global responsibility when the Russia-Ukraine war is creating uncertainty in global commodity markets. It conveys that India doesn’t have any credible export policy as it can turn its back at any instant. It also reflects a deep-rooted consumer bias in India’s trade policies. Imposition of export restrictions reduces their possible avenue of increasing their income (farmers are getting just 10 per cent higher price than MSP in global market) Indian government argues that the ban on wheat exports & curbs on sugar exports is not a crisis-driven situation but a calculated measure to ensure adequate domestic supply & to keep domestic prices in check. [/su_spoiler] Mains Practice Question - How has Ukraine Crisis impacted India’s trade policy? Critically examine. Note: Write answers to this question in the comment section.

Jun 13, 2022 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 13th June 2022

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) [su_box title="Election Commission" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity Mains – GS 2 (Polity & Constitution) In News: The EC sent six key proposals to the Law Ministry Linking of Aadhaar with voter IDs Allowing four qualifying dates for eligible people to register as voters Ban on exit polls and opinion polls and said there should be some restriction on conducting and disseminating the results of opinion polls right from the day of the first notification of an election till the completion of the election in all its phases Also recommended limiting the seats from which a candidate can contest to just one The EC has also sought powers to deregister political parties EC has sought the modification of Form 24A to mandate the disclosure of all donations above Rs 2,000 instead of Rs 20,000 Linking Aadhaar with voter IDs In December 2021, Parliament passed the Election Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2021 enabling “the linking of electoral roll data with the Aadhaar ecosystem” Enrollment As of now, for an election to be held in a particular year, only an individual who has attained the age of 18 years as on January 1 of that year or before is eligible to be enrolled in the voters' list. The ECI had told the government that the January 1 cut-off date set for the purpose deprives several youngsters from participating in the electoral exercise held in a particular year. What are exit & opinion polls? An opinion poll is a pre-election survey to gather voters’ views on a range of election-related issues. An exit poll is conducted immediately after people have voted, and assesses the support for political parties and their candidates. Why is the Election Commission (EC) against these polls? Both kinds of polls can be controversial if the agency conducting them is perceived to be biased. The projections of these surveys can be influenced by the choice, wording and timing of the questions, and by the nature of the sample drawn. Political parties often allege that many opinion and exit polls are motivated and sponsored by their rivals, and could have a distorting effect on the choices voters make in a protracted election, rather than simply reflecting public sentiment or views. Number of Seats The EC has sought an amendment of Section 33(7) of the Representation of People Act, 1951 to restrict the number of seats a candidate can contest from. The Act currently allows a person to contest a general election or a group of by-elections or biennial elections from up to two constituencies. Registration and De registration Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 empowers the commission to register associations and bodies as political parties. However, there is no constitutional or statutory provision that gives power to the EC to deregister parties. Many political parties get registered, but never contest election. Such parties exist only on paper. The possibility of forming political parties with an eye on availing the benefit of income tax exemption also cannot be ruled out. It would only be logical that the commission which has the power to register political parties is also empowered to deregister in appropriate cases Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements: (2017) The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and by-elections. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties. Select the correct code: 1 and 2 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only [/su_box] [su_box title="State Food Safety Index (SFSI) 2021-22" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Current Affairs Mains – GS 2 (Governance) In News: the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) released the State Food Safety Index (SFSI) 2021-22 What is the SFSI? The index aims to measure the performance of states and Union Territories on selected “parameters” of food safety. The index is aimed at encouraging states and UTs to “improve their performance and work towards establishing a proper food safety ecosystem in their jurisdiction The SFSI is released annually for a financial year. This is the fourth edition of the SFSI since its inception in 2018-19. Parameters The SFSI takes into account the performance of the states on five key parameters, each of which is assigned a different weightage in the assessment. Human Resources and Institutional Data Weightage: 20% Measures the availability of human resources like number of Food Safety Officers, Designated Officers facility of adjudications and appellate tribunals, functioning of State/ District level Steering Committees etc Compilance Weightage: 30%. Measures overall coverage of food businesses in licensing & registration commensurate with size and population of the State/UTs, special drives and camps organized, yearly increase, promptness and effectiveness in issue of state licenses/ registrations Food Testing - Infrastructure and Surveillance Weightage: 20% Measures the availability of adequate testing infrastructure with trained manpower in the States/ UTs for testing food samples Training and Capacity Building Weightage: 10%. It measures states’ performance on training and capacity building of regulatory staff. Consumer Empowerment Weightage: 20%. It evaluates the states and UTs on their performance on various consumer empowering initiatives of FSSAI, such as participation in Food Fortification, Eat Right Campus plus state initiatives Assessment The states and Union Territories are segregated into three categories — large states, small states and UTs— and assessed separately within their respective categories, based on their performance on the selected food safety parameters. Performance In the category of the 20 large states, Tamil Nadu with an overall score of 82 out of 100 has performed the best and been ranked 1st on SFSI 2021-22, while Andhra Pradesh with an overall score of 26 has been ranked at the bottom —17th place Following Tamil Nadu in the rankings of the larger states are Gujarat (rank 2nd with a score 77.5), Maharashtra (3rd with 70), Himachal Pradesh (4th with 65.5) and West Bengal and Madhya Pradesh (sharing 5th with a score of 58.5). Among the eight small states, Goa with a score of 56 has been ranked at the top, while Arunachal Pradesh (rank 8th and score 21) is at the bottom. Among the eight Union Territories, Jammu and Kashmir with a score of 68.5 has been ranked 1st and Lakshadweep (score 16) as the bottom. Delhi with a score of 66 has been ranked at 2nd place. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which one of the following issues the 'Global Economic Prospects' report periodically? (2015) The Asian Development Bank The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development The US Federal Reserve Bank The World Bank [/su_box] [su_box title="Abnormal’ dinosaur egg in India" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Geography – Evolution In News: A team of researchers from the University of Delhi has discovered a unique set of fossilised dinosaur eggs, with one egg nesting within the other at the Dinosaur Fossil National Park, in Dhar District of Madhya Pradesh. While eggs-within-eggs are rare phenomena, they are so far known to occur only in birds and have never known in reptiles. This discovery brings out newer connections between reptilian and avian evolution. Dinosaurs of the Sauropod family were among the largest land animals that have ever lived and were widespread millions of years ago in the territory that is now India. Fossils of these animals have been found in Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh as well as Meghalaya. Latest findings, documented 52 titanosaurid sauropod nests near Padlya village close to Bagh town in Madhya Pradesh. One of these nests consisted of 10 eggs, one of which was the “abnormal” egg. The egg has two continuous and circular eggshell layers separated by a wide gap like that observed in birds. It was believed that dinosaurs had a reproductive function similar to that of turtles and other reptiles (unsegmented oviduct) in contrast to segmented reproductive tract of crocodiles and birds with separate regions of membrane and shell deposition. The finding of ovum-in-ovo egg from a titanosaurid nest opens up the possibility that sauropod dinosaurs had an oviduct morphology similar to those of crocodiles or birds and they may have adapted to a mode of an egg-laying characteristic of birds The new find highlights the fact that Central and Western India hold great potential for dinosaur fossils which may offer important information on dinosaur diversity, nesting behaviour and reproductive biology, the authors note. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) The word ‘Denisovan’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to (2019) fossils of a kind of dinosaurs an early human species a cave system found in North-East India a geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent [/su_box] [su_box title="Ramsay Hunt Syndrome" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Current Affairs – Health What is Ramsay Hunt Syndrome? Ramsay Hunt syndrome (herpes zoster oticus) occurs when a shingles outbreak affects the facial nerve near one of your ears. In addition to the painful shingles rash, Ramsay Hunt syndrome can cause facial paralysis and hearing loss in the affected ear. Ramsay Hunt syndrome is caused by the same virus that causes chickenpox - the varicella-zoster virus (VZV) After chickenpox clears up, the virus still lives in your nerves. Years later, it may reactivate. When it does, it can affect your facial nerves Symptoms The two main signs and symptoms of Ramsay Hunt syndrome are: A painful red rash with fluid-filled blisters on, in and around one ear Facial weakness or paralysis on the same side as the affected ear Risk factors Ramsay Hunt syndrome can occur in anyone who has had chickenpox. It's more common in older adults, typically affecting people older than 60. Ramsay Hunt syndrome is rare in children. Ramsay Hunt syndrome isn't contagious. However, reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus can cause chickenpox in people who haven't previously had chickenpox or been vaccinated for it. The infection can be serious for people who have immune system problems. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2017) In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by ‘the same mosquito that transmits dengue. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 [/su_box] [su_box title="BrahMos" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Mains – GS 3 (Science and Technology; Security) Context: On June 12, 2001, the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile was first tested from a land-based launcher in Chandipur. In the 21 years since, BrahMos has been upgraded several times, with versions tested on land, air and sea platforms. A look at the 21-year journey of the versatile asset In the early 1990s, India’s strategic leadership felt the need for cruise missiles — guided missiles that traverse the majority of their flight path at almost constant speed and deliver large warheads over long distances with high precision. The need was felt primarily following the use of cruise missiles in the Gulf War. An Inter-Governmental Agreement was signed with Russia in Moscow in 1998 by Dr Kalam, who headed the DRDO and N V Mikhailov, Russia’s then Deputy Defence Minister. This led to the formation of BrahMos Aerospace, a joint venture between DRDO and NPO Mashinostroyenia (NPOM), the Indian side holding 50.5% and the Russians 49.5%. In 1999, work on development of missiles began in labs of DRDO and NPOM after BrahMos Aerospace received funds from the two governments. The first successful test in 2001 was conducted from a specially designed land-based launcher. The missile system has since reached some key milestones, with the first major export order of $375 million received from the Philippines Navy this year. About BrahMos Name: BrahMos is named on the rivers Brahmaputra and Moskva. Multiplatform Missile: it can be launched from land, air, and sea and multi capability missile with pinpoint accuracy that works in both day and night irrespective of the weather conditions BrahMos is a two-stage missile with a solid propellant booster engine. Its first stage brings the missile to supersonic speed and then gets separated. The liquid ramjet or the second stage then takes the missile closer to three times the speed of sound in cruise phase. The missile has a very low radar signature, making it stealthy, and can achieve a variety of trajectories. Fire and Forgets Principle: It operates on the “Fire and Forgets” principle i.e. it does not require further guidance after launch. Cruise missiles such as BrahMos, called “standoff range weapons”, are fired from a range far enough to allow the attacker to evade defensive counter-fire. The BrahMos has three times the speed, 2.5 times flight range and higher range compared to subsonic cruise missiles. With missiles made available for export, the platform is also seen as a key asset in defence diplomacy. An extended range version of the BrahMos air-launched missile was tested from a Sukhoi-30 MKI recently. In January 2022, an advanced sea-to-sea variant of BrahMos was tested from the newly commissioned INS Visakhapatnam. Current Status With requirements evolving in multi-dimensional warfare, the BrahMos is undergoing a number of upgrades and work is on to develop versions with higher ranges, manoeuvrability and accuracy. Versions currently being tested include ranges up to 350 km, as compared to the original’s 290 km. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to the Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (2014) It is a surface-to-surface missile. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only. It can deliver a one-tonne nuclear warhead about 7500 km away. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 [/su_box] [su_box title="Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC)" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – International Relations – Current Affairs Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) In News: The General Secretariat of the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC) “condemned and denounced” the comments on Prophet Muhammed made by two erstwhile national spokespersons of the ruling party What is the OIC? The OIC (57-nation grouping) was established at a 1969 summit in Rabat (Morocco). It endeavours to establish solidarity among member states, support restoration of complete sovereignty and territorial integrity of any member state under occupation; protect, defend and combat defamation of Islam, prevent growing dissention in Muslim societies and work to ensure that member states take a united stand on the international stage. The OIC has consultative and cooperative relations with the UN and other inter-governmental organisations to protect the interest of Muslims How does the OIC function? The Islamic Summit, composed of Kings and heads of state, is the supreme authority of the organisation. Convening every two years, it deliberates, takes policy decisions, provides guidance on issues relevant to the organisation The Council of Foreign Ministers is the chief decision-making body and meets annually to decide on how to implement the OIC’s general policies. The council also appoints, for a period of five years, the Secretary General, who is the chief administrative officer of the grouping. UN members with a Muslim majority can join the organisation. The membership is to be ratified with full consensus at the OIC’s Council of Foreign Ministers. The same provisions apply for acquiring an observer status. The OIC is financed by the member states proportionate to their national incomes. What has been the nature of India’s relationship with the OIC? India’s association with the 57-nation grouping has not been easy. Even though the country has good relations with the UAE and Saudi Arabia, its membership and engagement has been constantly challenged by Pakistan. In 1969, Islamabad’s opposition to Indian participation at the first OIC Plenary resulted in the Indian delegation being turned back from the venue at the last minute. In 2018, Bangladesh had proposed India be given the observer status at the OIC considering its sizeable Muslim population – a move which received support from Turkey but was opposed by Pakistan. About 50 years later, External Affairs Minister Sushma Swaraj addressed the OIC Plenary of Foreign Ministers in Abu Dhabi as a guest of honour. The invitation was extended by the UAE’s Foreign Minister Islamabad’s apprehension stems from the fear that India’s involvement in the grouping could influence the opinion of other Muslim states — not boding well for its influence. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC)’, consider the following statements: (2015) It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills. It is an alliance meant for maritime security only Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 [/su_box] Baba's Explainer - Ukraine War and the Global Food Crisis [su_box title="Ukraine War and the Global Food Crisis" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Syllabus GS-2: Effect of policies and politics of developed and developing countries on India’s interests. Context: Russia’s invasion of Ukraine and the subsequent sanctions on its economy have sent global food prices soaring, threatening to push millions of people, especially those in low-income countries, into starvation. As the war, in its fourth month now, is still raging in Ukraine’s east with no political solution on the horizon, the United Nations and Turkey have initiated talks with the Russian leadership to facilitate the exports of grains and fertilizers from Russia and Ukraine. Read Complete Details on Ukraine War and the Global Food Crisis [/su_box] Daily Practice MCQs [su_box title="Daily Practice MCQs" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Q.1) State Food Safety Index (SFSI) 2021-22, is published by? Ministry of Health and Family Welfare NITI AAYOG The Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) Q.2) Consider the following statements Ramsay Hunt syndrome is caused by varicella-zoster bacteria Ramsay Hunt syndrome is very common in children It can cause facial paralysis and hearing loss in the affected ear Choose the incorrect statements: 1 and 2 2 and 3 1, 2 and 3 None Q.3) Consider the following statements BrahMos is a three-stage missile It does not require further guidance after launch It is a multiplatform missile that can be launched from land, air, and sea Choose the correct statements: 1 and 3 3 only 2 and 3 1 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR '13th JUNE 2022 - Daily Practice MCQs' will be updated along with tomorrow's Daily Current Affairs. [/su_box] ANSWERS FOR 11th JUNE 2022 - Daily Practice MCQs [su_box title="Answers- Daily Practice MCQs" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Q.1) - d Q.2) - c Q.3) - d [/su_box]

Jun 13, 2022 हिन्दी - Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC हिन्दी Quiz– 2022: IASbaba Daily Current Affairs Quiz 13th June 2022

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE करेंट अफेयर्स के प्रश्न 'द हिंदू', 'इंडियन एक्सप्रेस' और 'पीआईबी' जैसे स्रोतों पर आधारित होते हैं, जो यूपीएससी प्रारंभिक परीक्षा के लिए बहुत महत्वपूर्ण स्रोत हैं। प्रश्न अवधारणाओं और तथ्यों दोनों पर केंद्रित हैं। दोहराव से बचने के लिए यहां कवर किए गए विषय आम तौर पर 'दैनिक करंट अफेयर्स / डेली न्यूज एनालिसिस (डीएनए) और डेली स्टेटिक क्विज' के तहत कवर किए जा रहे विषयों से भिन्न होते हैं। प्रश्न सोमवार से शनिवार तक दोपहर 2 बजे से पहले प्रकाशित किए जाएंगे। इस कार्य में आपको 10 मिनट से ज्यादा नहीं देना है। इस कार्य के लिए तैयार हो जाएं और इस पहल का इष्टतम तरीके से उपयोग करें। याद रखें कि, "साधारण अभ्यर्थी और चयनित होने वाले अभ्यर्थी के बीच का अंतर केवल दैनक अभ्यास है !!" Important Note: Comment अनुभाग में अपने अंक पोस्ट करना न भूलें। साथ ही, हमें बताएं कि क्या आपको आज का टेस्ट अच्छा लगा । 5 प्रश्नों को पूरा करने के बाद, अपना स्कोर, समय और उत्तर देखने के लिए ‘View Questions’ पर क्लिक करें। उत्तर देखने के लिए, इन निर्देशों का पालन करें: 1 - 'स्टार्ट टेस्ट/ Start Test' बटन पर क्लिक करें प्रश्न हल करें'टेस्ट सारांश/Test Summary'बटन पर क्लिक करें'फिनिश टेस्ट/Finish Test'बटन पर क्लिक करेंअब ‘View Questions’बटन पर क्लिक करें - यहां आपको उत्तर और लिंक दिखाई देंगे। To take the Test - Click Here

Jun 13, 2022 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2022 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 13th June 2022

Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test - Click Here

Jun 12, 2022 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 11th June 2022

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Prevention of Misleading Advertisements and Endorsements for Misleading Advertisements, 2022 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Current Affairs Mains – GS 1 (Society) In News: The guidelines for Prevention of Misleading Advertisements and Endorsements for Misleading Advertisements, 2022, had been notified by the Department of Consumer Affairs The guidelines provide for regulation of bait, free claims and children-targeted advertisements and prohibit surrogate advertisements. Provisions An advertisement for junk foods, including chips, carbonated beverages and such other snacks and drinks shall not be advertised during a programme meant for children or on a channel meant exclusively for children It states an advertisement of any goods, product or service that addresses or targets children shall not – be such as to develop negative body image in children; Give any impression that such goods, products or services are better than the natural or traditional food that children may be consuming. It states any advertisement that offers promotional gifts to persuade children to buy goods, product or service without necessity or promotes illogical consumerism shall be discouraged. Also bars Indian citizens living abroad from endorsing such advertisements that have been barred for Indian professionals living in the country. Endorsers are required to disclose their material connection with the endorsed product or service, and specify duties of manufacturer, service provider, advertiser and advertising agency. No surrogate advertisement or indirect advertisement shall be made for goods or services whose advertising is otherwise prohibited or restricted by law, by circumventing such prohibition or restriction and portraying it to be an advertisement for other goods or services, the advertising of which is not prohibited or restricted by law. Source: Indian Express India’s first Covid-19 vaccine for animals Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology – Current Affairs In News: The Agriculture Ministry unveiled India’s first Covid-19 vaccine for animals. Developed by the Hisar-based National Research Centre on Equines, the vaccine, called Ancovax, can protect animals against the Delta and Omicron variants of SARS-CoV-2. This is the first Covid-19 vaccine for animals developed in India. There were reports from Russia last year that that country, too, had developed a vaccine against animals such as dogs, cats, minks, and foxes. HOW IT WORKS Ancovax can be used in dogs, lions, leopards, mice, and rabbits. It is an inactivated vaccine developed using an infectious part of the Delta variant. In addition, it uses Alhydrogel as an adjuvant to boost the immune response. THE NEED: There have been reports of Covid-19 infection in several animals, including dogs and cats. The vaccine can protect animals in the zoo. The animals develop similar symptoms to humans – cough, cold, fever, and lung lesions It can also prevent transmission from companion animals to the humans The aim of the vaccine is to protect endangered animals Previous Year Questions Q.1) What is the importance of using \ Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines in India? (2020) These vaccines are effective against pneumonia as well as meningitis and sepsis. Dependence on antibiotics that are not effective against drug-resistant bacteria can be reduced. These vaccines have no side effects and cause no allergic reactions. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 1 and 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Source: Indian Express The Sant Tukaram temple Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Geography – Map based Syllabus Prelims – History Mains – GS 1 (History, Art and Culture) In News: The Prime Minister of India will inaugurate the Sant Tukaram Shila Mandir in the temple town of Dehu in Pune district. Shila refers to a rock that is currently on the Dehu Sansthan temple premises, and that for centuries has been the starting point of Wari, the annual pilgrimage to Pandharpur. The Shila Mandir The Bhakti saint Sant Tukaram had sat on this piece of rock for 13 continuous days when challenged about the authenticity of the Abhyangs he had written. The very rock where Sant Tukaram Maharaj sat for 13 days is pious and a place of pilgrimage for the Warkari sect. The Warkari sect Sant Tukaram and his work are central to the Warkari sect spread across Maharashtra. His message about a casteless society and his denial of rituals had led to a social movement. Sant Tukaram is credited with starting the Wari pilgrimage The Wari sees lakhs of devotees congregating in the temple towns of Dehu and Alandi to accompany the padukas of Sant Tukaram and Sant Dyaneshwar respectively as they start for Pandharpur. Participants finish their sowing before they set off. The pilgrims reach Pandharpur on the day of Ekadashi Tukaram (1608-1650) Tukaram was born in the Indian state of Maharashtra. Tukaram Bolhoba Ambile was his full name. His master was Saint Chaitanya Mahaprabhu of the Bhakti movement. A 17th-century poet-saint who lived with Maratha ruler Shivaji Maharaj and saints such as Eknath and Ramdas. His poetry was dedicated to Vithoba or Vitthala, an avatar of Vishnu, the Hindu God. He is most known for his Marathi Abangas (dohas), which are a rich inheritance of Gatha – devotional poetry He emphasized community-based worship through spiritual melodies known as Kirtans. He promoted the virtues of piety, forgiveness, and inner tranquility. He was a vocal critic of caste and gender injustice. Tukaram is considered to be the pinnacle of the Bhagawat tradition, which began with Namdev. Previous Year Questions Q.1) With reference to culture history of India, consider the following statements: (2018) Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna. Tyagaraja created several new ragas. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries. Annamacharya kirtnas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venketshwara. Which of the statement is given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 Source: Indian Express Chelonoidis Phantasticus Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment – Current Affairs In News: Chelonoidis phantasticus, a giant tortoise species discovered after a century Chelonoidis phantasticus is a giant tortoise species believed to be extinct for more than a century. Named Fernanda after her Fernandina Island home, the tortoise is the first of her species, Chelonoidis phantasticus, to be identified in more than a century. A giant tortoise, found alive in 2019, has been confirmed to belong a Galapagos species long believed extinct. Fernandina Island Fernandina Island is the third largest, and youngest, island of the Galápagos Islands, as well as the furthest west Like the others, the island was formed by the Galapagos hotspot. The island is an active shield volcano that has most recently been erupting Galapagos Islands The Galapagos Islands, spread over almost 60,000 sq km, are a part of Ecuador, and are located in the Pacific Ocean around 1,000 km away from the South American continent. Ecuador made a part of the Galapagos a wildlife sanctuary in 1935, and the sanctuary became the Galapagos National Park in 1959. In 1978, the islands became UNESCO’s first World Heritage Site. The Galapagos Islands host a wide array of aquatic wildlife, including marine iguanas, fur seals, and waved albatrosses. Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following animals: (2021) Hedgehog Marmot Pangolin To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/ protect its/their vulnerable parts? 1 and 2 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 Source: Indian Express Protest grows in Kerala against SC directive on ESZs Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment Mains – GS 3 (Environment) In News: Protest is mounting in the hilly regions of Kerala against the Supreme Court direction that every protected forest tract and wildlife sanctuary must have an eco-sensitive zone (ESZ) of one kilometre from its boundaries. Political parties and farmers’ outfits in Kerala have been demanding that all human settlements be exempted from the ESZ. Background A three-judge bench of the apex court directed all states to leave a mandatory eco-sensitive zone of one kilometre from the boundaries of national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and other protected forest land. The court was considering public interest litigation for the protection of forest lands in the Nilgiris in Tamil Nadu. Later, the scope of the petition was enlarged to protect such natural resources throughout the country. Concern The total extent of the wildlife sanctuaries in Kerala is eight lakh acres. If one km of ESZs is demarcated from their boundaries, around 4 lakh acres of human settlements, including farmlands, would come within that purview. What are Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs)? Eco-Sensitive Zones or Ecologically Fragile Areas are areas within 10 kms around Protected Areas, National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries. ESZs are notified by MoEFCC, Government of India under Environment Protection Act In case of places with sensitive corridors, connectivity and ecologically important patches, crucial for landscape linkage, even area beyond 10 km width can also be included in the eco-sensitive zone. The basic aim is to regulate certain activities around National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries so as to minimise the negative impacts of such activities on the fragile ecosystem encompassing the protected areas. Activities Allowed in ESZs Prohibited activities: Commercial mining, saw mills, industries causing pollution, establishment of major hydroelectric projects (HEP), commercial use of wood, Tourism activities like hot-air balloons over the National Park, discharge of effluents or any solid waste or production of hazardous substances. Regulated activities: Felling of trees, establishment of hotels and resorts, commercial use of natural water, erection of electrical cables, drastic change of agriculture system, e.g. adoption of heavy technology, pesticides etc, widening of roads. Permitted activities: Ongoing agricultural or horticultural practices, rainwater harvesting, organic farming, use of renewable energy sources, adoption of green technology for all activities. Source: Indian Express Daily Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements about Ancovax vaccine It is India’s first Covid-19 vaccine for animals It was developed by Indian Council of Medical Research in collaboration with NITI Aayog It can protect animals against both the Delta and Omicron variants of SARS-CoV-2 Choose the correct statements: 1 only 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 1 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements about Saint Tukaram Bolhoba Ambile Sant Tukaram is credited with starting the Wari pilgrimage His master was Saint Chaitanya Mahaprabhu He was contemporary to Sant Ramdas He emphasized community-based worship through spiritual melodies known as Kirtans Choose the correct statements: 2 and 4 1 and 3 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 Q.3) Consider the following statements about Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs) ESZs are notified by respective State Government It is notified under the Wildlife Protect Act, 1972 Establishment of hotels and resorts and commercial use of natural water fall under the Prohibited activities in ESZs Choose the incorrect statements: 1 only 2 only 1 and 2 1, 2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’11th JUNE 2022 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs. ANSWERS FOR10th JUNE 2022 – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

Jun 11, 2022 हिन्दी - Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC हिन्दी Quiz– 2022: IASbaba Daily Current Affairs Quiz 11th June 2022

Jun 11, 2022 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2022 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 11th June 2022

Jun 11, 2022 Baba's Gurukul 2022

[LAST DAY TO REGISTER] REGISTER NOW for Baba’s GURUKUL ADVANCED for Veterans’ 2023 - ENTRANCE TEST on 12th June (SUNDAY)

GURUKUL ADVANCED FOR VETERANS 'A Rigorous, Intensive Tests & Mentorship Based Programme' Today is the last day to Register for Baba’s GURUKUL ADVANCED for Veterans’ 2023 - Entrance Test. The Registrations for Baba’s GURUKUL ADVANCED 2023 Entrance Test which is scheduled for 12th June (Sunday), will close on 11th June (5 PM). Hurry Up and Register Now! REGISTER NOW! - CLICK HERE Only a limited number of students who are highly dedicated will be selected through multiple rounds of scrutiny. Seats are limited as one on one mentorship is possible only with a limited number of students. The selection process will be similar to UPSC standards, comprising of Prelims Test (50 MCQs – 100 marks; Syllabus will include current affairs of last year and static GS topics + Objective CSAT questions), Mains Test – 150 marks (it will include an essay based on Current Issues and case studies of Ethics to check the approach of candidates) and Personality Test (it will be conducted to check the dedication of candidates and their level of understanding of Current Issues). Date of Entrance Test - 12th June (Sunday) at 11 AM. Last Date to Register - 11th June (5 PM) Mode of Test - ONLINE only. Timings – 11:00 am (2 Hours and 30 Minutes). The results of the Entrance Test will be out on the 16th of June (Thursday). Interviews will be starting on 17th June (Friday). The final results will be out on 18th June (Saturday). The login credentials for the Entrance Test will be shared with registered students on 11th June (10 PM). KNOW MORE ABOUT BABA's GURUKUL ADVANCED 2023 - CLICK HERE RANK 44, ANJALI SHROTRIYA - BABA's GURUKUL PROGRAM RANK 22, RAJESH PONNAPPA - BABA's GURUKUL PROGRAM One on One Mentorship for UPSC/IAS - GURUKUL ADVANCED Mentor Monitored Group Discussion - GURUKUL ADVANCED Meenakshi Sundaram Sir (Retd. IAS) on Baba's Gurukul KNOW MORE ABOUT BABA's GURUKUL ADVANCED 2023 - CLICK HERE CONTACT US Email ID: support@iasbaba.com Contact No. : 9169191888 (10 AM – 6 PM) Please do not make calls before or after the given time.

Jun 10, 2022 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 10th June 2022

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Manas National Park Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment In News: Assam rhino estimation Manas National Park – Stats The current rhino population in the park was estimated at 40 The park’s rhinos have a male-female sex ratio of 1:1, arrived at without considering 10 calves and five sub-adults The one-horned rhinos in Manas National Park, have an age structure pyramid, indicating higher life expectancy and significant growth in the population. There is no wider representation of calves and sub-adults to sustain the population structure Population pyramid for calves is clearly an indicative of a low birth rate, but is also suggestive of a lower death rate, which means that there is higher life expectancy But such a population may suffer losses if not supplemented through translocations, the report warned. A suitable strategy to bring in more rhinos from other rhino-bearing areas is required so as to have a wider representation of calves and sub-adults over time, the report stated Counting limitations “Total count” or direct count method adopted for the population estimation in Manas has a few limitations. A total count is generally used when a single species is targeted to be counted in a well-defined, specific area. This method assumes the detection probability to be one, which means that each and every animal has a 100% chance of being seen during the counting. The limitations of this method include undercounting, as the assumption of a detection probability of 1 is unrealistic, especially if the population closure cannot be established satisfactorily within a small area of 10-20 sq. km. Manas National Park: Manas national park is a UNESCO World Heritage Site, a Project Tiger reserve, an elephant reserve and a biosphere reserve. It is located in the Himalayan foothills in Assam. It is contiguous with the Royal Manas National Park in Bhutan. The name of the park is originated from the Manas River. Significance: The Park is known for its rare and endangered endemic wildlife such as the Assam roofed turtle, hispid hare, golden langur and pygmy hog. It is also famous for its population of wild water buffalo. River: The Manas River flows through the west of the park. Manas is a major tributary of Brahmaputra river. Previous Year Questions Q.1) Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”? (2020) Corbett Ranthambore Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Sunderbans Q.2) Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous? (2020) Kanha National Park Manas National Park Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Tal Chhaper Wildlife Sanctuary Source: The Hindu Compensatory Afforestation Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment Mains – GS 3 (Environment) In News: The Delhi Development Authority (DDA) is currently facing a shortage in land for compensatory afforestation. This issue of shortage of land for compensatory afforestation was raised by the agency in a letter to the Union Environment Ministry in March The DDA, in its letter to the Union Environment Ministry, cited paragraph 2.3 (v) of chapter 2 of the Handbook of Forest Conservation Act, which states: “In exceptional cases where non-forest land for CA is not available in the same State/UT in which the diversion of forest land is proposed, land for CA can be identified in any other State/UTs, preferably in neighboring State/UTs.” Forest Conservation Act 1980 Alarmed at India’s rapid deforestation and resulting environmental degradation, the Centre Government enacted the Forest (Conservation) Act in 1980. The Forest Conservation Act, 1980 stipulated that central permission is necessary to practice sustainable agro-forestry in forest areas. Violation or lack of permit was treated as a criminal offense. An Advisory Committee constituted under the Act advises the Centre on these approvals. The Act deals with the four categories of forests, namely reserved forests, village forests, protected forests, and private forests. Features Section 2 of the act lists four criteria where permission of the Central Government is required for any action of State regarding – Declaring that any reserved forest ceases to be reserved. Use of forestland for non-forest purposes. Leasing forest to any private person. Declaring that any forest land may be cleared of trees that have grown naturally in that land, for the purpose of using it for reforestation. Removing self-regenerating forest for the creation of plantation is also the non-forest purpose. Under the act compensatory afforestation has to be carried out for the diversion of forest land, or deemed forest land, for non-forest purposes. Agencies carrying out development works are required to compensate for the loss of “land by land” and loss of “trees by trees”. The land for CA has to be free of encroachments and legal tussles Source: The Hindu Aegean sea & islands Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Geography – Map based In News: Turkish President Greece to demilitarise islands in the Aegean Sea Turkey says Greece has been building a military presence in violation of treaties that guarantee the unarmed status of the Aegean islands It argues the islands were ceded to Greece on the condition they remained demilitarised. Greece and Turkey are NATO allies, but the neighboring countries have a history of disputes over a range of issues, including mineral exploration in the eastern Mediterranean and rival claims in the Aegean Sea. Greece maintains Turkey has deliberately misinterpreted the treaties and says it has legal grounds to defend itself following hostile actions by Ankara, including a long-standing threat of war if Greece extended its territorial waters. Aegean Sea It is an elongated embayment of the Mediterranean Sea between Europe and Asia. It is located between the Balkans and Anatolia, and covers an area of some 215,000 square kilometres. In the north, the Aegean is connected to the Marmara Sea and the Black Sea by the straits of the Dardanelles and the Bosphorus. The Aegean Islands are located within the sea and some bound it on its southern periphery Aegean Islands The Aegean Islands are the group of islands in the Aegean Sea, with mainland Greece to the west and north and Turkey to the east; the island of Crete delimits the sea to the south, those of Rhodes, Karpathos and Kasos to the southeast. The vast majority of the Aegean Islands belong to Greece, being split among nine administrative regions. The only sizable possessions of Turkey in the Aegean Sea are Imbros and Tenedos in the northeastern part of the Sea. Various smaller islets off Turkey’s western coast are also under Turkish sovereignty. The Aegean Islands are traditionally subdivided into seven groups, from north to south: Northeastern Aegean Islands Euboea Sporades (Northern Sporades) Cyclades Saronic Islands Dodecanese (Southern Sporades) Crete Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs: Sea-Bordering Country Adriatic Sea – Albania Black Sea – Croatia Caspian Sea – Kazakhstan Mediterranean Sea- Morocco Red Sea – Syria Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Source: The Hindu Thirukokarnam Ranganayaki Ammal Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – History – Current Affairs Context: One of the first women to enter the male-dominated world of Carnatic percussion Thirukokarnam Ranganayaki Ammal Born on May 28, 1910 she was the second of seven siblings. Her father Thirukokarnam Sivaraman was a renowned natuvanar, who was also known for his avadhana pallavis — an art of playing different talas by using both hands, legs and the head. Ranganayaki took to the mridangam and went under the guidance of the legendary Pudukottai Dakshinamurthi Pillai She was also well trained in Bharatanatyam She blazed a trail by playing complex mathematical combinations with ease. In the All India music conference held in 1927 in Madras Ranganayaki Ammal was the only woman among the 23 mridangam artistes who performed at the event. In the 1940s, she performed with several leading artistes such as Brinda and Muktha and Flute Mali. In 1966, she joined the Padmavati College in Tirupati as faculty, and later worked at the Sadguru Sangita Samajam in Madurai. Source: The Hindu Vale do Javari Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Mains – GS 3 (Science and Technology) Syllabus Prelims – Geography – Places in News In News: British journalist and a Brazilian indigenous affairs expert recently went missing in a remote corner of the Amazon rainforest. The duo were last seen in Vale do Javari — the western section of the Brazilian Amazon named after the Javari river, which forms the country’s border with Peru. Why is the region significant? The region where Phillips and Pereira went missing is spread over 85,444 sq km and, according to the Brazilian government, it is home to “the greatest concentration of isolated groups in the Amazon and the world”. The area is home to 14 different indigenous tribes with nearly 6,000 inhabitants. These tribes are known to reject contact with the outside world. But in spite of that there are repeated attempts to forcibly enter their resource-rich territory. Vale do Javari also forms part of an international cocaine trafficking route, with gold being exchanged for drugs and arms, consequently making it a hotspot for violent crimes. Besides the Javari it is transected by the Pardo, Quixito, Itaquai and Ituí rivers. The Brazilian government has made it illegal for non-indigenous people to enter the territory Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2022) Regions in News Country Anatolia – Turkey Amhara – Ethiopia Cabo Delgado – Spain Catalonia – Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Source: Indian Express Fast radio burst Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: In a study, astronomers have reported a fast radio burst (FRB) whose characteristics are different from almost all other FRBs previously detected, except one. FRBs are bright flashes of light that appear for a few milliseconds and then vanish. Since the first FRB was discovered in 2007, 140 more were discovered until June 2021 The new study in Nature describes FRB 20190520B, first discovered in 2019, is idifferent is different from other FRBs, it emits frequent, repeating bursts of radio waves. And between bursts, it constantly emits weaker radio waves. Only one FRB has been previously observed to behave this way. Called FRB 121102, that was discovered in 2012. Calling the behaviour strange the US National Radio Astronomy Observatory (NRAO) stated that the discovery raises new questions about the nature of these mysterious objects and also about their usefulness as tools for studying the nature of intergalactic space. What are Fast Radio Bursts? Fast Radio Bursts are brief (few millisecond) bursts of radio waves coming from far beyond our Milky Way galaxy. The phenomenon was first reported in 2007 A defining property of these bursts is their dispersion the bursts produce a spectrum of radio waves, and as the waves travel through matter, they spread out or disperse with bursts at higher radio frequencies arriving at telescopes earlier than those at lower frequencies. This dispersion allows researchers to learn about two important things: They can measure this dispersion to learn about the stuff that radio bursts pass through as they travel toward Earth They can indirectly determine how far apart things are. Origin of FRBs: FRBs have been spotted in various and distant parts of the universe, as well as in our own galaxy. Their origins are unknown and their appearance is highly unpredictable. Previous Year Questions Q.1) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021) Distances among stellar bodies do not change. Gravity of stellar bodies does not change. Light always travels in a straight line. Speed of light is always same. Source: Indian Express Reintroduction of Cheetahs Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: The Union Environment Ministry stated that India is set to bring cheetahs from South Africa to Madhya Pradesh’s Kuno-Palpur National Park by August this year. The cheetah is the only large carnivore to have gone extinct in India, primarily due to hunting and habitat loss. Maharaja Ramanuj Pratap Singh Deo of Korea, Madhya Pradesh, is widely believed to have killed the last three recorded cheetahs in India in 1947. In 1952, the Indian government officially declared the Cheetah extinct in the country. Extiction Hunting with the cheetahs For centuries, hunting was a favoured activity for royalty in India. The cheetah, which was relatively easy to tame and less dangerous than tigers, was frequently used by Indian nobility for sport-hunting. The earliest available record for cheetahs being used for hunts in India, comes from the 12th century Sanskrit text Manasollasa, which was produced by the Kalyani Chalukya ruler, Someshvara III (reigned from 1127-1138 CE). Cheetah coursing, or the use of trained cheetahs for hunting, had become a highly specialized activity in the medieval period and was carried out on a large scale during the Mughal Empire. Emperor Akbar, who reigned from 1556-1605, was particularly fond of the activity and is recorded to have collected 9,000 cheetahs in total. The demand for cheetahs for hunting purposes was so high that specific areas, which had a high population, were designated for their capture, such as Rajasthan’s Jodhpur and Jhunjhunu, Punjab’s Bathinda and Haryana’s Hisar. The capture of wild cheetahs for hunting and the difficulty to breed them in captivity was leading to a decline in the cheetah population, even before the entry of the British. Near extinction under the British Raj Unlike the Mughals, the British were not very interested in coursing with the cheetahs. Rather, they preferred to hunt big game, such as tigers, bison and elephants. While tigers were the choice animals for the British shikar, Indian and British “sport” hunters also targeted cheetahs. There is evidence to suggest that British officials considered the animal as “vermin” and also distributed monetary rewards for the killing of cheetahs from at least 1871 onwards. The rewards for bounty hunting likely caused the decline of cheetahs, as even the removal of a small number would have negatively affected the ability of wild cheetahs to reproduce even at the lowest level required for survival. As a result, wild cheetahs became very rare in India by the 20th century. International trade of cheetahs Unlike the British, Indian elites and rulers of princely states continued the old practice of hunting with cheetahs in the 1920s. However, by this time it had become increasingly difficult to find cheetahs in the wild. Cheetah The cheetah is one of the oldest of the big cat species, with ancestors that can be traced back more than five million years to the Miocene era. The cheetah is also the world’s fastest land mammal that lives in Africa and Asia Features Asiatic Cheetah African Cheetah Physical Characteristics Smaller and paler than the African cheetah. Has smaller head and a longer neck. Usually have red eyes and they have a more cat-like appearance. Bigger in size as compared to Asiatic Cheetah. Image Distribution Around 40-50 found only in Iran. Around 6,500-7,000 African cheetahs present in the wild. Status IUNCN: Critically Endangered CITES: Appendix-I of the List IUNCN: Vulnerable CITES: Appendix-I of the List Previous Year Questions Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2019) Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Source: Indian Express Daily Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Arrange the following water bodies from north to south Black Sea Sea of Marmara Aegean Sea Sea of Crete Choose the correct code: 1-2-3-4 1-3-2-4 1-3-4-2 2-1-4-3 Q.2) Consider the following statements Forest Conservation Act, 1980 deals only with reserved forests and protected forests only Leasing forest to any private person under Forest Conservation Act requires Central Government permission The Act mandates the land for compensatory afforestation has to be free of encroachments and legal tussles Choose the correct statements: 1 only 1 and 3 2 only 2 and 3 Q.3) Vale do Javari, the region recently in news is located in which of the following country? Spain Ecuador Brazil Myanmar Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’10th JUNE 2022 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs. Baba’s Explainer – Uniform Civil Code Uniform Civil Code Syllabus GS-2: Indian Constitution—historical underpinnings, evolution, features, amendments, significant provisions and basic structure. Context: Uttarakhand Chief Minister recently set up a committee to prepare a draft Uniform Civil Code (UCC) for the State. Assam chief minister recently said the uniform civil code will provide justice and relief to Muslim women. Himachal Pradesh chief minister has announced that the state will have its own uniform civil code. Goa chief minister held up the Goa Civil Code as the model that other states can emulate. Read Complete Details on Uniform Civil Code ANSWERS FOR 9th JUNE 2022 – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – b Q.3) – a

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