Aug 16, 2022 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2022 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 16th August 2022

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test -Click Here

Aug 16, 2022 TLP Mains Answer Writing

IASbaba’s TLP (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – General Studies 1 Questions [16th August, 2022] – Day 50

Hello StudentsYou already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (11 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2023 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here – CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2022 (Phase 2) – CLICK HERE To Access Day 50 Questions – CLICK HERE 

Aug 15, 2022 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 15th August 2022

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) India adds 11 more wetlands to the list of Ramsar Sites Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Environment In News: India adds 11 more wetlands to the list of Ramsar sites to make total 75 Ramsar sites covering an area of 13,26,677 ha in the country in the 75th year of Independence. The 11 new sites include: Four sites in Tamil Nadu, Three in Odisha, Two in Jammu & Kashmir and One each in Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra. Designation of these sites would help in conservation and management of wetlands and wise use of their resources. India is one of the Contracting Parties to Ramsar Convention, signed in Ramsar, Iran, in 1971. India signed it on 1st Feb 1982. During 1982 to 2013, a total of 26 sites were added to the list of Ramsar sites, however, during 2014 to 2022, the country has added 49 new wetlands to the list of Ramsar sites. Tamil Nadu has maximum no. of Ramsar sites (14 nos), followed by UP which has 10 nos. of Ramsar sites. New Ramsar Sites Odisha – Tampara Lake and Hirakud Reservoir, Ansupa Lake Madhya Pradesh – Yashwant Sagar Tamil Nadu – Chitrangudi Bird Sanctuary, Suchindram Theroor Wetland Complex, Vaduvur Bird Sanctuary and Kanjirankulam Bird Sanctuary Maharashtra – Thane Creek Jammu and Kashmir – Hygam Wetland Conservation Reserve and Shallbugh Wetland Conservation Reserve Must Read: India Designates 5 New Ramsar Sites + Four more Ramsar Sites Source: Pib.Gov Previous Year Question Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2022) Wetland/Lake:                                Location Hokera Wetland Punjab Renuka Wetland Himachal Pradesh Rudrasagar Lake Tripura Sasthamkotta Lake Tamil Nadu How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 PeVatrons Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science & Technology In News: A study using 12 years of data from NASA’s Fermi telescope helped scientists understand PeVatrons. PeVatrons, the source of some of the highest energy particles that whip across our galaxy. Streams of particles called cosmic rays travel at breakneck speeds around our galaxy and they also strike our planet’s atmosphere. They typically consist of protons but sometimes also include atomic nuclei and electrons. They all carry an electric charge, this means that their paths deviate and scramble as they go through our galaxy’s magnetic field. This means that it is no longer which direction they originally came from, effectively masking their birthplace. But when the particles that are part of cosmic rays collide with the gas near supernova remnants, they produce gamma rays; some of the highest-energy forms of radiation that exist. These particles get trapped by the chaotic magnetic fields near supernova remnants. They pass through the supernova’s shock wave multiple times and each time they do, they gain speed and energy. Eventually, they can no longer be held by the supernova remnant and will caree off into deep space. These particles are boosted to 10 times the energy that the Large Hadron Collider, the most powerful man-made particle accelerator, can generate. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022) GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below; 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and Zaporizhzhia nuclear plant Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Geography (Places in News) In News: Fighting in Ukraine has put an active nuclear plant at grave risk. Repeated shelling inside the Zaporizhzhia Nuclear Power Plant complex over the past seven days has stirred new concerns, with Ukrainian and Western officials warning that the attacks heighten the risk of a nuclear accident. Experts have repeatedly raised an alarm over the plant being in an active combat zone. The International Atomic Energy Agency has underlined that the current situation poses a grave risk of a nuclear catastrophe. The site Located in southern Ukraine on the banks of Kakhovka reservoir on the Dnipro river, Zaporizhzhia Nuclear Plant is Europe’s largest, and 10th biggest in the world. Geographically, the plant is located 200-km from Russia-annexed Crimea, and 500-odd km from Ukraine’s capital Kyiv. Russian capture Russia captured the plant site in early March and continues to control As of now, the plant is run by Ukrainian staff, and ‘guarded’ by Russian troops. Kyiv, according to Associated Press, has been planning a counteroffensive to recapture Zaporizhzhia and neighbouring Kherson provinces. However, Ukrainian forces controlling the area on the opposite bank from the nuclear plant have repeatedly faced Russian artillery fire from the other side. Active threat Moscow has been accused of using the nuclear plant as a shield to fire rockets to target Ukrainian positions. Russia, on the other hand, blames Ukraine for shelling near the plant. The threat of a nuclear disaster remains real with the plant housing active reactors and stored nuclear waste. Global alarm UN Secretary General Antonio Guterres has warned that the situation could “lead to disaster”. The IAEA has been seeking access to the plant for a while now, and utmost restraint. Amid demands to turn the area into a demilitarized zone, the G7 group of nations have called on Russia to immediately exit the plant and hand its control back to Ukraine. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2022) Region often mentioned in the news: Country. Anatolia: Turkey Amhara: Ethiopia. Cabo Delgado: Spain. Catalonia: Italy. How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs India-Afghanistan Open in new window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) In News: Taliban asked India to complete its development projects in Afghanistan. The statement said: “We are hopeful that with the upgrading of the diplomatic mission, we will move forward from the humanitarian aspect to development aspects. And in that area, our priority that we’ve also conveyed to the Indian side is that of the completion of some of the incomplete projects that India has done, as a first step”. Shahtoot Dam in Kabul as one of the projects that the Taliban wanted India to complete. The statement also included reviving connectivity through Iran’s Chabahar port. The Taliban regime is also keen to revive the Turkmenistan-Afghanistan-Pakistan-India (TAPI) pipeline Background India recently reopened its embassy in Kabul, a year after it was shut down and all personnel evacuated in the wake of the August 15, 2021 Taliban takeover of Afghanistan India’s development assistance to Afghanistan is estimated to be worth well over $3 billion across 20 years, including key roads, dams, electricity transmission lines and substations, and schools and hospitals. Must Read: India’s Engagement with Taliban + India must directly engage with Taliban 2.0 Source: Indian Express Coastal Regulation Zone Open in new  window Syllabus Prelims – Current Affairs Mains – GS 3 (Environment) In News: the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India tabled a report in Parliament on whether steps taken by the Union Environment Ministry to conserve India’s coastal ecosystems have been successful. The CAG frequently undertakes ‘performance audits’ of government programmes and ministries. This latest report contains the observations from an audit of Conservation of Coastal Ecosystems from 2015-20. What are the Centre’s obligations on conserving the coastline? The government has issued notifications under the Environment Protection Act, 1986, to regulate activities along India’s coasts particularly regarding construction. The Coastal Regulation Zone Notification (CRZ) 2019, implemented by the Ministry, classifies the coastal area into different zones to manage infrastructure activities and regulate them. The three institutions responsible for the implementation of the CRZ are the National Coastal Zone Management Authority (NCZMA) at the Centre, the State/Union Territory Coastal Zone Management Authorities (SCZMAs/UTCZMAs) in every coastal State and Union Territory and the District Level Committees (DLCs) in every district that has a coastal stretch and where the CRZ notification is applicable. These bodies examine if CRZ clearances granted by the government are as per procedure, if project developers once given the go-ahead are complying with conditions, and if the project development objectives under the Integrated Coastal Zone Management Programme (ICZMP) are successful. They also evaluate the measures taken up by the government towards achieving the targets under Sustainable Development Goals. Why did the CAG undertake this audit? The CAG has a constitutional mandate to investigate and report on publicly funded programmes. The CAG conducted pre-audit studies and found that there were large-scale CRZ violations in the coastal stretches. Incidences of illegal construction activities (reducing coastal space) and effluent discharges from local bodies, industries and aquaculture farms had been reported by the media and this prompted it to undertake a detailed investigation. What did the audit find? The audit pointed out various categories of violations. For one, the Environment Ministry hadn’t notified NCZMA as a permanent body and it was being reconstituted every few years. In the absence of defined membership, it was functioning as an ad-hoc body. There were instances of the Expert Appraisal Committees — a committee of scientific experts and senior bureaucrats who evaluate the feasibility of an infrastructure project and its environmental consequences — not being present during project deliberations. There were also instances of the members of the EAC being fewer than half of the total strength during the deliberations. The SCZMA had not been reconstituted in Karnataka and there was delayed reconstitution in the States of Goa, Odisha and West Bengal. The DLCs of Tamil Nadu lacked participation from local traditional communities. There were instances of projects being approved despite inadequacies in the Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) reports. These included non-accredited consultants preparing the EIA, using outdated data, not evaluating environmental impacts of the project, not appraising the disasters which the project area was prone to and so forth. What are CRZ norms? In India, the CRZ Rules govern human and industrial activity close to the coastline, in order to protect the fragile ecosystems near the sea. They restrict certain kinds of activities — like large constructions, setting up of new industries, storage or disposal of hazardous material, mining, reclamation and bunding — within a certain distance from the coastline. Under the section 3 of Environment Protection Act, 1986 of India, Coastal Regulation Zone notification was issued in February 1991 for the first time. In 2018-19, fresh Rules were issued, which aimed to remove certain restrictions on building, streamlined the clearance process, and aimed to encourage tourism in coastal areas. While the CRZ Rules are made by the Union environment ministry, implementation is to be ensured by state governments through their Coastal Zone Management Authorities. Classifications of Coastal Zones under CRZ Notification 2011 CRZ-I (ecologically sensitive areas like mangroves, coral reefs, biosphere reserves etc.). No new construction shall be permitted in CRZ-I except Projects relating to the Department of Atomic Energy; Construction of trans-harbour sea link and roads without affecting the tidal flow of water, between LTL and HTL. etc. Between Low Tide Line and High Tide Line in areas which are not ecologically sensitive, the following may be permitted; Exploration and extraction of natural gas; Construction of basic amenities like schools, roads, etc. for traditional inhabitants living within the biosphere reserves; Salt harvesting by solar evaporation of seawater; Desalination plants; Storage of non-hazardous cargo such as edible oil, fertilizers within notified ports; CRZ-II (Areas which are developed up to the shoreline and falling within the municipal limits; includes built-up area – villages and towns are that are already well established), Buildings are permissible on the landward side of the hazardous line. Other activities such as desalination plants are also permissible. Some construction is permitted only as per guidelines specified by the notification. CRZ-III: Areas that are relatively undisturbed and do not fall under either in Category I or II and also include rural and urban areas that are not substantially developed. Between 0-200 metres from HTL is a No Development Zone where no construction shall be permitted. Only certain activities relating to agriculture, forestry, projects of Department of Atomic Energy, mining of rare minerals, salt manufacture, regasification of petroleum products, non-conventional energy sources and certain public facilities may be permitted in this zone. Between 200-500 metres of HTL, those permitted in 0-200 metres zone, construction of houses for local communities and tourism projects are permissible. CRZ-IV: The aquatic area from low tide line up to territorial limits is classified as CRZ-IV including the area of the tidal influenced water body. There is no restriction on the traditional fishing undertaken by local communities. No untreated sewage or solid waste shall be let off or dumped in these areas. New Rules under CRZ regulations The government notified new CRZ Rules with the stated objectives of promoting sustainable development and conserving coastal environments. For the so-called CRZ-III (Rural) areas, two separate categories have been stipulated. In the densely populated rural areas (CRZ-IIIA) with a population density of 2,161 per sq km as per the 2011 Census, the no-development zone is now 50 m from the high-tide level, as against the 200 m stipulated earlier. In the CRZ-IIIB category (rural areas with population density below 2,161 per sq km) continue to have a no-development zone extending up to 200 m from the high-tide line. The new Rules have a no-development zone of 20 m for all islands close to the mainland coast, and for all backwater islands in the mainland. Source: The Hindu Special Economic Zones Open in new  window Syllabus Prelims – Economy Mains – GS 3 (Economy – Development) In News: In the Union Budget this year, the government proposed to replace the existing law governing Special Economic Zones (SEZs) with a new legislation to enable states to become partners in ‘Development of Enterprise and Service Hubs’ (DESH). The commerce ministry is proposing a host of direct and indirect incentives such as deferral of import duties and exemption from export taxes to revamp Special Economic Zones through a new legislation. The proposals seek to provide incentives such as retention of zero-rating of IGST on domestic procurement by a unit in an SEZ; continuation of indirect tax benefits to developers of these zones; and allowing depreciation on sale of used capital goods cleared to domestic tariff areas. There is also a plan to extend the corporate tax rate to 15 per cent without any exemptions for units undertaking authorised operations in these development hubs. The existing SEZ Act was enacted in 2006 with an aim to create export hubs and boost manufacturing in the country. However, these zones started losing their sheen after imposition of minimum alternate tax and introduction of sunset clause for removal of tax incentives. Special Economic Zones An SEZ is a territory within a country that is typically duty-free and has different business and commercial laws chiefly to encourage investment and create employment. SEZs are created also to better administer these areas, thereby increasing the ease of doing business. Asia’s first EPZ (Export Processing Zones) was established in 1965 at Kandla, Gujarat. While these EPZs had a similar structure to SEZs, the government began to establish SEZs in 2000 under the Foreign Trade Policy to redress the infrastructural and bureaucratic challenges that were seen to have limited the success of EPZs. The Special Economic Zones Act was passed in 2005. The Act came into force along with the SEZ Rules in 2006. Presently, 379 SEZs are notified, out of which 265 are operational. About 64% of the SEZs are located in five states – Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra. The Board of Approval is the apex body and is headed by the Secretary, Department of Commerce (Ministry of Commerce and Industry). Objectives of the SEZ Act: To create additional economic activity. To boost the export of goods and services. To generate employment. To boost domestic and foreign investments. To develop infrastructure facilities. Major Incentives and Facilities Available to SEZ: Duty free import/domestic procurement of goods for development, operation and maintenance of SEZ units Exemption from various taxes like Income Tax, minimum alternate tax, etc External commercial borrowing by SEZ units upto US $ 500 million in a year without any maturity restriction through recognized banking channels. Single window clearance for Central and State level approvals. Challenges Unutilized Land Due to a lack of demand for SEZ space and disruptions caused by the pandemic, unutilized land in SEZs exists. Multiple Models Multiple economic zone models exist, including SEZs, coastal economic zones, the Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor, the National Investment and Manufacturing Zone, food parks, and textile parks, all of which face issues in integrating the various models. Competition from ASEAN Countries Many ASEAN countries have modified their policies in recent years to encourage global players to participate in their SEZs, as well as working on a developing set of skilling projects. As a result, Indian SEZs have lost some of their worldwide competitive advantages, necessitating new rules. What measures were taken by the government to revamp SEZs? The government constituted a committee headed by Mr Baba Kalyani, in 2018 to study the existing SEZs of India and prepare a policy framework to adopt strategic policy measures. Recommendations of the Baba Kalyani committee Rename SEZs in India as 3Es- Employment and Economic Enclave Framework shift from export growth to broad-based employment and economic growth Separate rules and procedures for manufacturing and service SEZs Ease of Doing Business (EoDB) in 3Es such as one integrated online portal for new investments Extension of Sunset Clause and retaining tax or duty benefits Unified regulator for IFSC Dispute resolution through arbitration and commercial courts Budget 2022-23 The Budget says that the SEZ Act will be replaced by a new legislation that will enable large existing and new industrial enclaves to optimally utilise available infrastructure and enhance competitiveness of exports. It will enable the States to become partners in development of enterprise and service hubs. It also says that customs administration in SEZs will be fully IT-driven. An infra cluster approach is proposed rather than one based on export subsidies which will be open to WTO challenge. The new SEZ legislation will have single window clearance and provide high class infrastructure. The new dispensation for SEZ, being considered by the government, could allow domestic units to come up in the unutilised area of SEZs and co-exist with SEZ units with proper monitoring. Source: Financialexpress.com Asymmetrical federalism Open in new  window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity & Governance) Context: In a system of asymmetrical federalism, India must remain a strong As India completes 75 years of Independence, the time is apt for us to look at the constitutional, institutional, political and fiscal arrangements that take into account the plurality of our country. It is a nation where four major religions of the world find abode; its Muslim population is the third largest in the world; and Indians speak languages belonging to five different families. Such diversity and plurality call for an arrangement that can pave the way for accommodation and integration reflected in the existing system of asymmetrical federalism. If one looks clinically at the Indian model of asymmetrical federalism, one can gauge it based on the principle of weighted and differentiated equality. This principle calls for equal treatment of all States while being mindful that some States are more equal and unequal than others. So, the capacity to accommodate various social groups and their interests makes India a thriving federal democracy as it displays enormous asymmetric characteristics. Asymmetric Federalism Asymmetric federalism means federalism based on unequal powers and relationships in political, administrative, and fiscal arrangements between the units constituting a federation. Asymmetry in the arrangements in a federation can be viewed in both vertical (between Centre and states) and horizontal (among the states) senses. Political and Constitutional Asymmetry Recognising the distinctive cultural differences in the country and permitting self-rule within the scheme of a shared rule to territorially concentrated minorities is how asymmetrical federalism works in India. Such functioning pertains to de facto and de jure asymmetry, where the former is abundant while the latter is limited. Furthermore, such an arrangement only proves that an asymmetrical constitutional setup is indisputably necessary for a multicultural and multinational country such as India to protect the rights of the community and the minorities. This setup facilitates the accommodation of multiple yet complementary identities. In this regard, it is necessary to understand the distinction made by Ronald Watts between political and constitutional asymmetry, both of which exist in our country. While in every federal nation the former is based on the territorial and demographic sizes of the constituent units, the latter characterises the Constitution’s extension of legislative and executive powers to the constituent units. So when we find representation of States in the Rajya Sabha based on their population, it is a political asymmetry. That is why States such as Uttar Pradesh have 31 seats in the Rajya Sabha, whereas Meghalaya and Mizoram have just one each. Constitutional Asymmetry – Self-rule within shared rule We find constitutional asymmetry in Article 370 and in the special provisions and powers extended to Nagaland, Mizoram and others in the omnibus Article 371. The parliamentary statute cannot be implemented in the northeast States mentioned above without the consent of the legislatures of these States. In addition, creation of the Autonomous District Council as per the Sixth Schedule also acknowledges the socio-cultural, political and historical rights of the tribes of the Northeast, thereby facilitating the provisions of self-rule within the scheme of shared rule. Union Territories Furthermore, the Indian asymmetrical setup has evolved to include another type of asymmetry, i.e. Union Territories (UTs). Their establishment is in line with the spirit of federal asymmetry. These are special federating units that have been created multiple times. Delhi’s case is in itself a remarkable example of asymmetrical federalism where we witness the appointment of the Chief Minister of Delhi by the President of India on the recommendation of the Lieutenant Governor (LG). This provision is in line with the special status of Delhi as the NCT. On fiscal arrangements Another significant asymmetry is the fiscal arrangements enshrined in the Constitution. When transferring funds from the Centre to States, statutory transfers are made based on the recommendations of the Finance Commission. The cost of implementing Centrally sponsored schemes to bring about welfare is co-shared by both the Centre and sub-national units. In the NITI Aayog era, the Centre has considerably reduced the share of its revenue to implement the Centrally sponsored schemes. These provisions in our Constitution and administration are special arrangements reflective of asymmetrical features. We must remember that the idea and arrangement of asymmetrical power-sharing can be unsettling if not utilised properly. Such features in our Constitution are neither marginal nor merely provisional. These features touch upon a considerably large number of States. And without these features and provisions, it would not have been possible to undermine the secessionist tendencies of a highly diverse society. Asymmetrical federalism will continue to have its relevance in the future because to pave the way for cooperative federalism we must be able to accommodate various groups and provide them with a share in the governance of the country at the same time. Source: The Hindu Daily Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Which of the following is/are correctly matched? Ramsar Site State Yashwant Sagar Madhya Pradesh Hygam Wetland Conservation Reserve Jammu and Kashmir Vaduvur Bird Sanctuary Tamil Nadu Choose the correct code: 1 and 2 2 and 3 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 Q.2) Zaporizhzhia nuclear plant, recently in news is located in which of the following country? Russia Ukraine Poland Belarus Q.3) Consider the following statements about PeVatrons PeVatrons is the source of some of the highest energy particles that whip across our galaxy. They typically consist of protons but sometimes also include atomic nuclei and electrons. Choose the correct statements: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’15th August 2022 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs. ANSWERS FOR 13th August 2022 – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – d table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Aug 15, 2022 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2022 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 15th August 2022

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test -Click Here

Aug 15, 2022 TLP Mains Answer Writing

IASbaba’s TLP (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – General Studies 1 Questions [15th August, 2022] – Day 49

Hello StudentsYou already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (11 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2023 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2022 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 49 Questions - CLICK HERE  P.S: The review from IASbaba will happen from the time the question is posted till 10 pm every day. We would also encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best 

Aug 14, 2022 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 13th August 2022

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Essential Commodities Act Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Current Affairs Mains – GS 2 (Governance); GS 3 (Economy) In News: With tur dal prices surging since mid-July and reports coming in of some traders creating artificial supply squeeze by restricting sales, the Centre has invoked the Essential Commodities Act of 1955 to ask States to monitor and verify the stocks available with such traders. Tur prices have risen since mid-July amid slow progress in kharif sowing as compared to last year due to excess rainfalls and water logging conditions in parts of major Tur growing states of Karnataka, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh, the Department of Consumer Affairs has noted in its rationale for the directive. Essential Commodities Act 1955: Background The ECA Act 1955, was legislated at a time when the country was facing a scarcity of foodstuffs due to persistent low levels of foodgrains production. The country was dependent on imports and assistance (such as wheat import form the US under PL-480) to feed the population. To prevent hoarding and black marketing of foodstuffs, the Essential Commodities Act was enacted in 1955. Features Objective: The ECA 1955 is used to curb inflation by allowing the Centre to enable control by state governments of trade in a wide variety of commodities. There is no specific definition of essential commodities in the Essential Commodities Act, 1955. Section 2(A) states that an “essential commodity” means a commodity specified in the Schedule of the Act. The Centre, if it is satisfied that it is necessary to do so in public interest, can notify an item as essential, in consultation with state governments. Legal Jurisdiction: The Act gives powers to the central government to add or remove a commodity in the Schedule. Implementing Agency: The Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, implements the Act. Impact: By declaring a commodity as essential, the government can control the production, supply, and distribution of that commodity, and impose a stock limit. Issues Related to Essential Commodities Act 1955: The Economic Survey 2019-20 highlighted that government intervention under the ECA 1955 often distorted agricultural trade while being totally ineffective in curbing inflation. Such intervention does enable opportunities for rent-seeking and harassment. Rent-seeking is a term used by economists to describe unproductive income, including from corruption. Traders tend to buy far less than their usual capacity and farmers often suffer huge losses during surplus harvests of perishables. This led to farmers being unable to get better prices due to lack of investment in cold storage, warehouses, processing and export. Owing to these issues, the Parliament passed the Essential Commodities (Amendment) Bill, 2020. However, due to farmers’ protest the Government had to repeal this law. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act), consider the following statements: (2017) A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism. Which of the statements .given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only UN Resolution 1267 Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Current Affairs In News: China has blocked a proposal by India and the US at the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) to designate Abdul Rauf Azhar, brother of Jaish-e-Mohammed (JeM) chief Masood Azhar and deputy chief of the Pakistan-based proscribed terror group, as a “global terrorist”. Azhar, referred to as Abdul Rauf Asghar in UN documents, was involved in the planning and execution of several terror attacks, including the hijacking of Indian Airlines flight IC-814 (1999), attack on Parliament (2001), and attack on the Indian Air Force base in Pathankot (2016). A proposal was moved by India, co-sponsored by the US, to list Abdul Rauf Asghar in the UN Security Council 1267 Sanctions Committee. China has, however, placed a technical hold on the proposal. All other 14 member states of the UN Security Council were supportive of the listing proposal Listing him as a global terrorist would subject him to assets freeze, travel ban and arms embargo. What is UNSC 1267 committee? Article 41 of the United Nations Charter gives the Security Council the authority to use a variety of measures to enforce its decisions. The Council regularly creates subsidiary organs to support or implement these measures. Among the most common are those measures that are known as “sanctions”, which are generally supported by a Committee, as well as Panels/Groups of Experts or other mechanisms to monitor implementation of the sanctions. By resolution 1267 (1999) of 15 October 1999, the Security Council established a Committee to oversee the implementation of targeted sanctions measures against designated individuals, entities and aircraft that were owned, controlled, leased or operated by the Taliban. The measures were subsequently modified, particularly by resolutions 1333 (2000) and 1390 (2002), to include an assets freeze, travel ban and an arms embargo affecting designated individuals and entities associated with Usama bin Laden, and the Taliban wherever they are located. By resolution 2253 (2015) of 17 December 2015, the Security Council decided to expand the listing criteria to include individuals and entities supporting the Islamic State in Iraq and the Levant (ISIL). It comprises all permanent and non-permanent members of the UNSC. The 1267 list of terrorists is a global list, with a UNSC stamp. What is the process by which people are listed under UNSC 1267? Any member state can submit a proposal for listing an individual, group, or entity. The 1267 Committee meets as required with a notice of four working days. Decisions on listing and de-listing are adopted by consensus. The proposal is sent to all the members, and if no member objects within five working days, the proposal is adopted. An “objection” means curtains for the proposal. Any member of the Committee may also put a “technical hold” on the proposal, and ask for more information from the proposing member state. During this time, other members may also place their own holds. The matter remains on the “pending” list of the Committee until such time as the member state that has placed the hold decides to turn its decision into an “objection”, or until all those who have placed holds remove them within a timeframe laid down by the Committee. Pending issues must be resolved in six months, but the member state that has placed the hold may ask for an additional three months. At the end of this period, if an objection is not placed, the matter is considered approved. Any proposal for listing must meet set criteria: The proposal must include acts or activities indicating the proposed individual/group/entity had participated “in the financing, planning, facilitating, preparing, or perpetrating of acts or activities” linked to “ISIL (Da’esh), Al-Qaida or any cell, affiliate, splinter group or derivative thereof”. Concerns This is not the first time that China has obstructed the listing of terrorists in the 1267 Sanctions Committee. In June this year, China placed on hold a joint proposal by India and the US to list the deputy chief of the Lashkar-e-Toiba (LeT), Abdul Rehman Makki, in the sanctions list. Double standards and continuing politicisation have rendered the credibility of the sanctions regime at an all-time low. Way Forward An effective functioning of the Sanctions Committees need to become more transparent, accountable and objective. The practice of placing holds and blocks on listing requests without giving any justification must end. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) With Reference to the “United Nations Credentials Committee”, consider the following statements: (2022) It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision. It traditionally meets in March, June and September every year. It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 3 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 1 and 2 1947 Boundary Commission Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – History In News: It was on August 17, 1947, two days after Independence, that the award of the Boundary Commissions for the partition of Punjab and Bengal was announced. The award caused much anguish to the people of the two provinces and also to the governments of India and Pakistan. The then Law minister of India, B R Ambedkar, and Minister of Industry and Supply, Syama Prasad Mukherjee, proposed to take the matter of the Chittagong Hill Tracts to the UN (the UNO). What were the two Boundary Commissions? In June 1947, Sir Cyril John Radcliffe, a British lawyer, was made the Chairman of two boundary commissions of Punjab and Bengal and given the task to draw up the new borders of India and Pakistan. He was given a period of five weeks to complete this task and arrived in India in July 1947. The boundary commissions of Punjab and Bengal also included two nominees each of the Indian National Congress and Muslim League respectively. The Punjab commission had Justice Mehr Chand Mahajan, Justice Teja Singh, Justice Din Mohammad and Justice Muhammad Munir as members. The Bengal commission comprised Justice CC Biswas, Justice BK Mukherjee, Justice Abu Saleh Akram and Justice SA Rehman. The Boundary Commissions award was made public on August 17, 1947. What discussion took place with regard to the awards? The documents in national archives include minutes of a meeting held at Government house, New Delhi at 5 pm on August 16, 1947, a day before the public announcement of award Bengal The minutes of the meeting show that Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru protested against the award of Chittagong hill Tracts to Pakistan (East Pakistan, now Bangladesh). Lord Mountbatten defended the award saying that the Chittagong district had close economic ties with the hill tracts and that the port required proper supervision of the Karnaphuli river which runs through the hill tracts. He made a suggestion of compromise by re-adjustment of territory which was rejected by Nehru and the Liaquat Ali Khan. Punjab Nehru said that he considered that the award of boundary commission in the Punjab was likely to have a bad effect among the Sikhs, who presented a particularly difficult problem. Sardar Baldev Singh said that the reaction to the award would be very unfavourable on the Sikh mind. Liaquat Ali Khan said it would have a similar unfavourable reaction among the Muslims. He emphasised that complete religious freedom will be allowed. Sardar Patel’s view was that the only solution to the Punjab award was a transfer of population on a large scale. Mountbatten said that he had spoken to Jinnah about Nankana Sahib. “Mr Jinnah had stated that he had it in mind to give the Sikhs any religious assurances that were required in connection with their Gurdwara there. The Governor General suggested that a specific statement on Nankana Sahib might be made by the Pakistan government at the same time as the issue of the boundary commission award. On Bengal award, what was BR Ambedkar and SP Mukherjee’s note? The joint note of the two ministers pointed out that the decision of the award in some vital respects is “unjust and unfair” and against the fundamental policy of the partition and also the terms of reference. The joint note delves in great detail about the award pertaining to area and population of Bengal, Chittagong Hill Tracts, Jalpaiguri, Khulna, Faridpur and Barisal. Both ministers would in conclusion that the award in Bengal was unjust and arbitrary and will be a source of bitterness and strife now and in future. We therefore lodge our protest against the award and cannot accept it as final and conclusive. We propose to take up the matter with the Pakistan Dominion immediately. We shall make an attempt to open negotiations with that government and see if any amicable re-settlement is possible. If not, we reserve to ourselves the right to treat this as an inter dominion dispute and refer it to the UNO, claiming the inclusion of the areas outlined above into West Bengal. Must Read: Popular slogans raised during Indian independence movement Source: Indian Express National Action Plan for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem (NAMASTE) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Government Schemes – Current Affairs Mains – GS 1 (Society); GS 2 (Governance) In News: The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MoSJ&E) is now preparing to undertake a nationwide survey to enumerate all people engaged in hazardous cleaning of sewers and septic tanks, an activity that has led to at least 351 deaths since 2017. Drawing a distinction between this work and manual scavenging, the Ministry insisted that the practice of manual scavenging no longer takes place in the country as all manual scavengers had been accounted for and enrolled into the rehabilitation scheme. The enumeration exercise, soon to be conducted across 500 AMRUT (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation) cities, is part of the Union government’s National Action Plan for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem (NAMASTE), which will streamline the process of rehabilitating sanitation workers and eventually merge with and replace the Self-Employment Scheme for the Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers (SRMS), which was started in 2007. Explaining that the enumeration of people engaged in hazardous cleaning of septic tanks and sewers would be the next step, ministry said that they will now set up Programme Monitoring Units (PMUs) for the 500 AMRUT cities, who will be at the frontlines of carrying out the exercise. Eventually, the idea is to also link these sanitation workers to the Swachhta Udyami Yojana, through which the workers will be able to own sanitation machines themselves and the government will ensure that at the municipality level, the work keeps coming in. National Action Plan for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem (NAMASTE) The government has developed the NAMASTE scheme—to clean septic tanks and sewers. The NAMASTE project, is a joint project of Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. The project aims to achieve the following outcomes: Zero fatalities in sanitation work in India. All sanitation work to be performed by skilled workers. No sanitation workers should come in direct contact with human faecal matter. Sanitation workers are to be collectivized into SHGs and are empowered to run sanitation enterprises. All Sewer and Septic tank sanitation workers (SSWs) have access to alternative livelihoods. Strengthened supervisory and monitoring systems at national, state and ULB levels to ensure enforcement and monitoring of safe sanitation work. Increased awareness amongst sanitation services seekers (individuals and institutions) to seek services from registered and skilled sanitation workers. Swachhta Udyami Yojana The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment launched the Swachhta Udyami Yojana (SUY) on 02nd October 2014. This Scheme has twin objective of cleanliness and providing livelihood to Safai Karamcharis and liberated Manual Scavengers to achieve the overall goal of “Swachh Bharat Abhiyan” The Swachhta Udyami Yojana extends financial assistance for Construction, Operation and Maintenance of Pay and Use Community Toilets in Public Private Partnership (PPP) Mode and Procurement and Operation of Sanitation related Vehicles. The scheme also provides for training the workers in the use of these machines, during which time a stipend of up to ₹3,000 per month will be provided. The scheme will also provide for sanitation workers to train for and go into any of the approved list of alternative occupations in sectors like agriculture, services, electronics assembling, handicrafts and so on. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Question Q.1) Which one of the following is a purpose of ‘UDAY’, a scheme of the Government? (2016) Providing technical and financial assistance to start-up entre-preneurs in the field of renewable sources of energy Providing electricity to every household iv the country by 2018 Replacing the coal-based power plants with natural gas, nuclear, solar, wind and tidal power plants over a period of time. Providing for financial turnaround and revival of power distribution companies India's NATO Engagement Open in new  window Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) In News: New Delhi held its first political dialogue with the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) in Brussels on December 12, 2019. The Indian delegation attempted to assess cooperation on regional and global issues of mutual interest. What is the significance of India’s talks with NATO? India’s talks with NATO hold significance given that the North Atlantic alliance has been engaging both China and Pakistan in bilateral dialogue. Given the role of Beijing and Islamabad in New Delhi’s strategic imperatives, reaching out to NATO would add a key dimension to India’s growing engagement with US and Europe. Until December 2019, NATO had held nine rounds of talks with Beijing. NATO had also been in political dialogue and military cooperation with Pakistan; it opened selective training for Pakistani officers and its military delegation visited Pakistan in November 2019 for military staff talks. The first round of dialogue was finalised for December 12, 2019 by the Indian mission in Brussels after it received a draft agenda for the meeting from NATO. Engaging with NATO in a political dialogue would provide New Delhi an opportunity to bring about a balance in NATO’s perceptions about the situation in regions and issues of concerns to India. Was there any common ground? In New Delhi’s assessment, there was a convergence in the perspectives of both India and NATO on China, terrorism, and Afghanistan, including Pakistan’s role in Afghanistan. The first dialogue, it is learnt, revealed three critical issues on which India expected only limited common ground with NATO: From NATO’s perspective, it was not China, but Russia whose aggressive actions continued to be the main threat to Euro-Atlantic security, and that NATO had faced difficulties to convene meetings of NATO-Russia Council due to Russian refusal to place issues such as Ukraine and Intermediate-Range Nuclear Forces Treaty on the agenda. Given the divergence among NATO countries, its view on China was seen as mixed; while it did deliberate on China’s rise, the conclusion was that China presented both a challenge and an opportunity. In Afghanistan, NATO saw the Taliban as a political entity, which was not in line with India’s stance. However, the Indian side felt maritime security was a principal area of conversation in the future, given a substantial common ground with NATO. What are the next steps? On its part, the NATO delegation have expressed keenness to continue engagement with India on a mutually agreed agenda. In NATO’s view, India, given its geo-strategic position and unique perspectives on various issues, was relevant to international security and could be an important partner in informing the alliance about India’s own region and beyond. As far as India is concerned, it was felt New Delhi may consider proposals emanating from NATO, if any, on bilateral cooperation in areas of interest to India, based on the progress achieved in the initial rounds. Must Read: NATO Source: Indian Express Drought Open in new  window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Disaster Management) In News: Jharkhand and Uttar Pradesh are experiencing the worst monsoon season of the century. Food and water scarcity are going to be the real issues in the country’s major rice producing states, with a potential to affect India’s kharif produce this year. Between June 1 and August 12, the rainfall recorded over Jharkhand was 371.9mm against a normal of 627.6mm, a 41 per cent seasonal deficit. This is the lowest ever rainfall recorded over Jharkhand (June to August) since 1901, the IMD’s rainfall data stated. For Uttar Pradesh, too, the picture is grim, as the state has recorded only 251.7mm of the seasonal average of 449.1mm till August 12. UP is the most rain deficient Indian state this year and has remained so since the start of the monsoon season. In a departure from the norm of overflowing Ganges and flooding, the 2022 monsoon has been anything but normal for Bihar. During the ongoing season, Bihar has recorded 376.5mm versus a normal of 602.6mm, a deficit of 38 per cent, till August 12. Overall, the month of July was the driest over the East and Northeast India since 1903; it ended with a 45 per cent rain deficit. Since the monsoon onset, Manipur, Tripura and West Bengal remain in the rainfall ‘deficient’ category. Only Assam and Meghalaya, Sub-Himalayan West Bengal and Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh in the east and northeast India regions have recorded normal rainfall this monsoon season. So, what are the causes for rain deficit? This season, only three low pressure systems developed in the Bay of Bengal, mostly off the coast of Odisha. None of these systems impacted Jharkhand, Uttar Pradesh or Bihar. Thus, one of the two rain-bearing causes remained out of favour for these states. Monsoon Trough In addition, this year, the monsoon trough — an east-west low-pressure area extending from the heat low over Pakistan to head Bay of Bengal – remained to the south of its normal position for majority of the days in July and in August, so far. The low pressure systems did not move along Bihar, Jharkhand and Uttar Pradesh. Such unfavourable conditions contributed to high rainfall deficits throughout the season. The monsoon trough’s location, oscillation, and duration over a specific location, all directly affect the rainfall activity over the regions exactly to the south of its position. That is, when it is located to the south of its normal position, there is active or vigorous rainfall over most parts of central, peninsular India regions. When it shifts to the north of its normal position or lays along the Himalayan foothills, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal and the northeastern states benefit. So, what should farmers do? In UP and Jharkhand, the Agriculture Meteorology division has suggested the use of short duration rice varieties and have encouraged cultivation of red gram. Farmers have been encouraged to opt for inter-cropping. National Disaster Management Act, 2005 The NDM Act was passed by the government of India in 2005 for the efficient management of disasters and other matters connected to it. Objective: To manage disasters, including preparation of mitigation strategies, capacity-building and more. Definition of a “disaster” in Section 2 (d) of the NDM Act states that a disaster means a “catastrophe, mishap, calamity or grave occurrence in any area, arising from natural or manmade causes. Major Features Nodal Agency: The Act designates the Ministry of Home Affairs as the nodal ministry for steering the overall national disaster management. Institutional Structure: It puts into place a systematic structure of institutions at the national, state and district levels. The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) It is tasked with laying down disaster management policies and ensuring timely and effective response mechanisms. The National Executive Committee (NEC) It is constituted under Section 8 of the NDM Act to assist the National Disaster Management Authority in the performance of its functions. The NEC is responsible for the preparation of the National Disaster Management Plan for the whole country and to ensure that it is reviewed and updated annually. The National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM) It is an institute for training and capacity development programs for managing natural calamities. National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) It refers to trained professional units that are called upon for specialized response to disasters. State and District level: The Act also provides for state and district level authorities responsible for, among other things, drawing plans for implementation of national plans and preparing local plans. State Disaster Management Authority District Disaster Management Authority. Finance: It contains the provisions for financial mechanisms such as the creation of funds for emergency response, National Disaster Response Fund and similar funds at the state and district levels. Other Features: The Act also devotes several sections various civil and criminal liabilities resulting from violation of provisions of the act. Under Section 51 of the Act, anyone refusing to comply with orders is liable for punishment with imprisonment up to one year, or fine, or both. In case this refusal leads to death of people, the person liable shall be punished with imprisonment up to two years. Drought in England In News: Drought declared in parts of England The government of England formally declared parts of England to be in drought on as the country faces a period of prolonged hot and dry weather. The prolonged dry conditions, with some areas of the country not receiving significant rainfall all summer, have caused the National Drought Group to declare an official drought. This means water rationing may take place across the country. Source: Indian Express Indian Express Moving policy away from population control Open in new  window Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Society) Context: India’s focus should be on investment in human capital, on older adults living with dignity, and on healthy population ageing. The United Nations’ World Population Prospects (WPP), 2022, forecasts India becoming the most populous country by 2023, surpassing China, with a 140 crore population. This is four times the population India had at the time of Independence in 1947 (34 crore). Now, at the third stage of the demographic transition, and experiencing a slowing growth rate due to constant low mortality and rapidly declining fertility, India has 17.5% of the world’s population. As per the latest WPP, India will reach 150 crore by 2030 and 166 crore by 2050. Growing Population In its 75-year journey since Independence, the country has seen a sea change in its demographic structure. In the 1960s, India had a population growth rate of over 2%. At the current rate of growth, this is expected to fall to 1% by 2025. However, there is a long way to go for the country to achieve stability in population. This is expected to be achieved no later than 2064 and is projected to be at 170 crore (as mentioned in WPP 2022). India reached a significant demographic milestone as, for the first time, its total fertility rate (TFR) slipped to two. However, even after reaching the replacement level of fertility, the population will continue to grow for three to four decades owing to the population momentum (large cohorts of women in their reproductive age groups). Several States have reached a TFR of two except for Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand, Manipur and Meghalaya. All these States face bottlenecks in achieving a low TFR. These include high illiteracy levels, rampant child marriage, high levels of under-five mortality rates, a low workforce participation of women, and low contraceptive usage compared to other States. A majority of women in these States do not have much of an economic or decisive say in their lives. Without ameliorating the status of women in society (quality of life), only lopsided development is achievable. Demographic dividend A larger population is perceived to mean greater human capital, higher economic growth and improved standards of living. In the last seven decades, the share of the working age population has grown from 50% to 65%, resulting in a remarkable decline in the dependency ratio. As in the WPP 2022, India will have one of the largest workforces globally, i.e., in the next 25 years, one in five working-age group persons will be living in India. This working-age bulge will keep growing till the mid-2050s, and India must make use of it. Obstacles There are several obstacles to harnessing this demographic dividend. Health Every other woman in the reproductive age group in India is anaemic, and every third child below five is stunted. India stands 101 out of 116 nations in the Global Hunger Index India is a global disease burden leader as the share of NCDs has almost doubled since the 1990s, the cause of more than 62% of total deaths. India is home to over eight crore people with diabetes. Further, more than a quarter of global deaths due to air pollution occur in India alone. In contrast, India’s health-care infrastructure is highly inadequate and inefficient. India’s public health financing is low, varying between 1% and 1.5% of GDP, which is among the lowest percentages in the world. The share of India’s elderly population is now increasing and is expected to be 12% by 2050. After 2050, the elderly population will increase sharply. Sex-Ratio Another demographic concern of independent India is the male-dominant sex ratio. In 1951, the country had a sex ratio of 946 females per 1,000 males. In 2011, the sex ratio was 943 females per 1,000 males; by 2022, it is expected to be approximately 950 females per 1,000 males. One in three girls missing globally due to sex selection (both pre-and post-natal), is from India — 46 million of the total 142 million missing girls. Education and Employment India’s labour force is constrained by the absence of women from the workforce; only a fourth of women are employed. The quality of educational attainments is not up to the mark, and the country’s workforce badly lacks the basic skills required for the modernised job market. Having the largest population with one of the world’s lowest employment rates is another enormous hurdle in reaping the ‘demographic dividend’. Way Forward The focus of action should be on extensive investment in human capital, on older adults living with dignity, and on healthy population ageing. India should be prepared with suitable infrastructure, conducive social welfare schemes and massive investment in quality education and health. The focus should not be on population control anymore, instead, an augmentation of the quality of life should be the priority. Source: The Hindu Daily Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements about Essential Commodities Act 1955 The Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, implements the Act. Central Government can notify an item as essential, in consultation with state governments. By declaring a commodity as essential, the government can control the production, supply, and distribution of that commodity. Choose the correct statements: 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 1 and 3 1 and 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements about NAMASTE scheme, recently seen in news It is a joint project of Ministry of External Affairs and the Ministry of Culture. The scheme aims to honor the NRIs and people of Indian origin, who strive for the enhancement of Indian culture abroad. Choose the incorrect statements: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) which of the below given pairs is/are not correctly matched? Popular Slogans Given By Jai Hind Vallabhbhai Jhaverbhai Patel Inquilab Zindabad Bhagat Singh Quit India Yusuf Meherally Choose the correct code: 1 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 1 and 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’13th August 2022 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs. ANSWERS FOR 12th August 2022 – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Aug 13, 2022 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2022 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 13th August 2022

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test -Click Here

Aug 13, 2022 TLP Mains Answer Writing

IASbaba’s TLP (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – Essay Questions [13th August, 2022] – Day 48

Hello Students  You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (11 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2023 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2022 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 48 Questions - CLICK HERE  P.S: The review from IASbaba will happen from the time the question is posted till 10 pm every day. We would also encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best 

Aug 12, 2022 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 12th August 2022

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Vice President of India Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity & Governance In News: President of India administers the oath of office of Vice President of India to Shri Jagdeep Dhankhar Vice-President (VP) S/he Vice-President occupies the second highest office in the country. S/he is accorded a rank next to the President in the official warrant of precedence. Election The Electoral College of VP is different from the Electoral College for the election of the President in the following two respects: It consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament (in the case of president, only elected members). It does not include the members of the state legislative assemblies (in the case of President, the elected members of the state legislative assemblies are included). Qualifications To be eligible for election as Vice-President, a person should fulfil the following qualifications: He should be a citizen of India. He should have completed 35 years of age. He should be qualified for election as a member of the RajyaSabha. He should not hold any office of profit under the Union government or any state government or any local authority or any other public authority. The Constitution lays down the following two conditions of the Vice-President’s office: He should not be a member of either House of Parliament or a House of the state legislature. If any such person is elected Vice-President, he is deemed to have vacated his seat in that House on the date on which he enters upon his office as Vice-President. He should not hold any other office of profit. Term of Office The Vice-President holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. However, he can resign from his office at any time by addressing the resignation letter to the President. He can also be removed from the office before completion of his term. He can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Rajya Sabha and agreed to by the Lok Sabha. This means that this resolution should be passed in the Rajya Sabha by an effective majority and in the Lok Sabha by a simple majority. This resolution can be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha and not in the Lok Sabha. But, no such resolution can be moved unless at least 14 days’ advance notice has been given. No ground has been mentioned in the Constitution for his removal. The VP can hold office beyond his term of five years until his successor assumes charge. He is also eligible for reelection to that office. The Constitution has not fixed any emoluments for the VP in that capacity. He draws his regular salary in his capacity as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. The functions of Vice-President are two-fold: He acts as the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha. In this capacity, his powers and functions are similar to those of the Speaker of Lok Sabha. He acts as President when a vacancy occurs in the office of the President due to his resignation, impeachment, death or otherwise. He can act as President only for a maximum period of six months within which a new President has to be elected. Further, when the sitting President is unable to discharge his functions due to absence, illness or any other cause, the Vice-President discharges his functions until the President resumes his office. While acting as President or discharging the functions of President, the VP does not perform the duties of the office of the chairman of Rajya Sabha. During this period, those duties are performed by the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha. Source: Pib.gov Previous Year Question Q.1) With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: (2022) As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate, as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only Butterfly Mine Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science & Technology – Current Affairs In News: The UK Ministry of Defence, in its intelligence assessment of the ongoing war in Ukraine, has and sounded an alarm on the possible use of PFM-1 series ‘Butterfly Mines’ by the Russian military in Donetsk and Kramatorsk. What is the intelligence assessment put out by UK? As per an intelligence bulletin, Russia is likely to have deployed anti-personnel mines to deter freedom of movement along its defensive lines in the Donbas. These mines have the potential to inflict widespread casualties amongst both the military and the local civilian population. Commonly called the ‘butterfly mine’, the PFM-1 series are deeply controversial, indiscriminate weapons. PFM-1s were used to devastating effect in the Soviet-Afghan War where they allegedly maimed high numbers of children who “mistook them for toys”. It added that it is highly likely that the Soviet-era stock being used by Russia will have degraded over time and is now unreliable and unpredictable. This poses a threat to both the local population and humanitarian mine clearance operations. What is the ‘Butterfly Mine’ and why is it called so? The PFM-1 and PFM-1S are two kinds of anti-personnel landmines that are commonly referred to as ‘Butterfly mines’ or ‘Green Parrots’. These names are derived from the shape and colour of the mines. The main difference between the PFM-1 and PFM-1S mine is that the latter comes with a self destruction mechanism which gets activated within one to 40 hours. The ‘Butterfly mine’ has earned a reputation for being particularly attractive to children because it looks like a coloured toy. It is very sensitive to touch and just the act of picking it up can set it off. Because of the relatively lesser explosive packed in this small mine, it often injures and maims the handler rather than killing them. These mines are also difficult to detect because they are made of plastic and can evade metal detectors. These mines can be deployed in the field of action through several means, which include being dropped from helicopters or through ballistic dispersion using artillery and mortar shells. These mines glide to the ground without exploding and later explode on coming in contact. Since these mines were green in colour when they were first put to use they also earned the name ‘Green Parrots’. What are the technical specifications of this mine? The PFM series mines are moulded in polythene plastic and have two wings, one of which is heavier than the other. The thicker wing is the pressure activation for the main fuse which is contained in the central body. The thinner wing acts as a stabiliser for the mine when it is air-dropped, thus giving it the name ‘butterfly’. As per data available on the mine, a pressure exceeding 5 kg will activate the mine which contains 40g of explosive. The rapid means of deployment of the mine and the fact that it can be indiscriminately scattered to impede the advance of an enemy makes it an attractive option for a field commander, regardless of the danger that these can pose for non-combatants living in the area. Are these kinds of mines allowed by international law? The anti personal mines are banned by international convention on land lines but Russia and Ukraine are not signatories to it. However, there is a 1996 Amended Protocol II to the Convention on Certain Conventional Weapons-the Landlines Protocol to which Russia and Ukraine are signatories. In the ongoing conflict, both countries have accused each other of having used these mines, since both posses them in sufficient numbers. Source: Indian Express Previous Year Question Q.1) What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news? (2018) An Israeli radar system India’s indigenous anti-missile programme An American anti-missile system A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea. India 7th highest in digital currency ownership: United Nation Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science & Technology Mains – GS 3 (Economy; Science & Technology) In News: The UN trade and development body UNCTAD said that in 2021, developing countries accounted for 15 of the top 20 economies when it comes to the share of the population that owns cryptocurrencies. In India, 7.3% of the population owned digital currency in 2021, seventh highest in the world. Ukraine topped the list with 12.7 per cent, followed by Russia (11.9 per cent), Venezuela (10.3 per cent), Singapore (9.4 per cent), Kenya (8.5 per cent) and the US (8.3 per cent). Global use of cryptocurrencies has increased exponentially during the COVID-19 pandemic, including in developing countries. In three policy briefs published, UNCTAD said that while these private digital currencies have rewarded some and facilitate remittances, they are an unstable financial asset that can also bring social risks and costs. The policy brief titled “All that glitters is not gold: The high cost of leaving cryptocurrencies unregulated” examines the reasons for the rapid uptake of cryptocurrencies in developing countries, including facilitation of remittances and as a hedge against currency and inflation risks. If cryptocurrencies become a widespread means of payment and even replace domestic currencies unofficially (a process called cryptoisation), this could jeopardise the monetary sovereignty of countries. In developing countries with unmet demand for reserve currencies, stablecoins pose particular risks. For some of these reasons, the International Monetary Fund has expressed the view that cryptocurrencies pose risks as legal tender. The policy brief titled “Public payment systems in the digital era: Responding to the financial stability and security-related risks of cryptocurrencies” focuses on the implications of cryptocurrencies for the stability and security of monetary systems, and to financial stability. It is argued that a domestic digital payment system that serves as a public good could fulfil at least some of the reasons for crypto use and limit the expansion of cryptocurrencies in developing countries. Depending on national capabilities and needs, monetary authorities could provide a central bank digital currency or, more readily, a fast retail payment system. Given the risk of accentuating the digital divide in developing countries, UNCTAD urges authorities to maintain the issuance and distribution of cash. The policy brief titled “The cost of doing too little too late: How cryptocurrencies can undermine domestic resource mobilisation in developing countries” discusses how cryptocurrencies have become a new channel undermining domestic resource mobilisation in developing countries. While cryptocurrencies can facilitate remittances, they may also enable tax evasion and avoidance through illicit flows In this way, cryptocurrencies may also curb the effectiveness of capital controls, a key instrument for developing countries to preserve their policy space and macroeconomic stability UNCTAD urged authorities to take actions to curb the expansion of cryptocurrencies in developing countries, including ensuring comprehensive financial regulation of cryptocurrencies through regulating crypto exchanges, digital wallets and decentralised finance, and banning regulated financial institutions from holding cryptocurrencies (including stablecoins) or offering related products to clients. It also called for restricting advertisements related to cryptocurrencies, as for other high-risk financial assets; providing a safe, reliable and affordable public payment system adapted to the digital era; implementing global tax coordination regarding cryptocurrency tax treatments, regulation and information sharing and redesigning capital controls to take account of the decentralised, borderless and pseudonymous features of cryptocurrencies. Source: livemint.com Newindianexpress.com National Intellectual Property Awareness Mission (NIPAM) Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Current Affairs Mains – GS 3 (Economy) In News: NIPAM has achieved target of imparting Intellectual Property (IP) awareness and basic training to 1 million students on 31st July 2022, ahead of the deadline which was 15 August 2022 NIPAM, a flagship program to impart IP awareness and basic training, was launched on 8 Dec 2021 as a part of “Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav” The program is being implemented by Intellectual Property Office, the Office of Controller General of Patents, Designs and Trade Marks (CGPDTM), Ministry of Commerce and Industry. The way forward is to strengthen the NIPAM program further to nurture and encourage innovation and creativity, thereby contributing towards cultural and economic development of the society through a revamped manner utilizing the existing resources of the IP Office in collaboration with Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), AICTE, UGC Source: Pib.Gov Previous Year Question Q.1) What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’? (2017) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and government’s education system and local communities. Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power. Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them. Global Employment Trends for Youth 2022 Open in new  window Syllabus Prelims – Current Affairs Mains – GS 3 (Employment) In News: Global Employment Trends for Youth 2022 report was released by International Labour Organisation. The recovery in youth employment is still lagging globally, the report says confirming that COVID-19 has hurt young people more than any other age group. Findings It finds that the pandemic has worsened the numerous labour market challenges facing those aged between 15 and 24 years. Youngsters in this age group experienced a much higher percentage loss in employment than adults since early 2020. The total global number of unemployed youth is estimated to reach 73 million in 2022, a slight improvement from 2021 (75 million), but still six million above the pre-pandemic level of 2019. The situation is particularly severe for very young people aged 15-20 years. Key findings related to India In India, the youth employment participation rate declined by 0.9 percentage points over the first nine months of 2021 relative to its value in 2020, while it increased by 2 percentage points for adults over the same time period. In India, the school closures lasted 18 months and among the 24 crore school-going children, only 8% of such children in rural areas and 23% in urban areas had adequate access to online education. Given the deeply unequal access to online resources in developing countries, children from socio-economically disadvantaged families, which are the large majority, had almost no access to education It said school closures not only prevented new learning, but also led to the phenomenon of “learning regression”, that is, children forgetting what they had learned earlier. In India, 92% of children on average lost at least one foundational ability in language and 82% lost at least one foundational ability in mathematics. The report appreciated the MGNREGA and said it has played an important role in providing paid employment, particularly for women, also in carbon sequestration because of the Act’s focus on natural resources, such as land, water and trees, which provide adaptation benefits. It added that India has a very low youth female labour market participation and Indian young women experienced larger relative employment losses than young men in 2021 and 2022. In general, the high youth employment losses in India drive up the global average employment losses. Young Indian men account for 16% of young men in the global labour market, while the corresponding share for young Indian women is just 5%. It highlighted Quality education and training opportunities are required to create decent jobs, especially in green, blue and digital economies, and to set economies on the path towards greater sustainability, inclusiveness and resilience. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Question Q.1) Which one of the following issues the ‘Global Economic Prospects’ report periodically? (2015) The Asian Development Bank The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development The US Federal Reserve Bank The World Bank Common civil code of Goa Open in new  window Syllabus Prelims – Polity Mains – GS 2 (Polity & Governance) Context: The Portuguese Civil Code of 1867, the so-called “common civil code” of Goa, is in the news again. The law ministry has reportedly told the parliamentary standing committee, that if it (the code in Goa) requires review it must be looked into. Pre-independence The Portuguese had occupied certain territories in the coastal regions of the country and established what they called Estado Portuguese da India (Portuguese State of India) with its capital in Cochin, later shifted to Goa. They did not interfere with the local customs relating to family relations and framed, in the mid-19th century, three separate codes of religion-based customary laws of Goa, Daman and Diu. The Portuguese Civil Code of 1867 was extended to Goa, Daman and Diu by a royal decree of November 18, 1869, declaring that the code would apply to the natives subject to the local usages and customs “so far as they are not inconsistent with morality or public order”. The three local codes of customary law were accordingly revised in later years. In 1910, the Portuguese parliament enacted two civil marriage and divorce decrees and, in 1946, a canonical marriage decree for Catholics. All of these too were extended to Goa, Daman and Diu. The family law applied by the Portuguese, both at home and in the occupied Indian territories, was thus not a uniform code but a loose conglomeration of civil and religious laws. Post-independence Fourteen years after the advent of Independence, Goa and its affiliated territories were liberated and turned into a Union Territory (UT) under central rule. The Goa, Daman and Diu Administration Act of 1962 declared that all laws in force in these territories before their liberation would continue to be in force “until amended or repealed by a competent legislature or other competent authority”. None of the pre-liberation family laws was, however, amended or repealed. Nor was any central law on family rights, including the four Hindu law Acts of 1955-56, extended to any of the three territories. Outdated law The myth of an outdated law of foreign origin now serving all inhabitants of Goa as a fully common civil code needs to be duly busted. Moreover, there is no justification for retaining over a century-old archaic law, 75 years after the independence of India. It seems quite inexplicable that the other civil laws used in the rest of the country cannot be extended to the same communities in Goa, Daman and Diu. Must Read: Uniform Civil Code Source: Indian Express Antarctic ice shelf crumbling faster than thought Open in new  window Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Environment) In News: The first-of-its-kind study raises new concerns about how fast climate change is weakening Antarctica’s floating ice shelves and accelerating the rise of global sea levels. Antarctica’s coastal glaciers are shedding icebergs more rapidly than nature can replenish the crumbling ice, doubling previous estimates of losses from the world’s largest ice sheet over the past 25 years, a satellite analysis showed. The study’s key finding was that the net loss of Antarctic ice from coastal glacier chunks “calving” off into the ocean is nearly as great as the net amount of ice that scientists already knew was being lost due to thinning caused by the melting of ice shelves from below by warming seas. Taken together, thinning and calving have reduced the mass of Antarctica’s ice shelves by 12 trillion tons since 1997, double the previous estimate. The net loss of the continent’s ice sheet from calving alone in the past quarter-century spans nearly 37,000 sq km (14,300 sq miles), an area almost the size of Switzerland Antarctica is crumbling at its edges, and when ice shelves dwindle and weaken, the continent’s massive glaciers tend to speed up and increase the rate of global sea level rise. The consequences could be enormous. Antarctica holds 88% of the sea level potential of all the world’s ice. When ice shelves are stable, the long-term natural cycle of calving and re-growth keeps their size fairly constant. The accelerated glacial calving, like ice thinning, was most pronounced in West Antarctica, an area hit harder by warming ocean currents. But even in East Antarctica, a region whose ice shelves were long considered less vulnerable, are witnessing more losses than gains. The losses measured from calving outpaced natural ice shelf replenishment so greatly that researchers found it unlikely Antarctica can return to pre-2000 glacier levels by the end of this century. Must Read: The Indian Antarctic Bill, 2022 + Antarctic Regulation Source: Indian Express Dip in adoption Open in new  window Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Society) In News: Concerned over the declining number of children for adoption in the country, a Parliamentary panel has expressed apprehension that this may point to an illegal child adoption market and trafficking. In its 118th Report on Review of Guardianship and Adoption Laws, submitted to Parliament Parliamentary Standing Committee on personnel, public grievances, law and justice has noted “the paradoxical situation where on one hand there are a large number of parents willing to adopt a child, (and) on the other, there are not many children available for adoption”. The committee, noted that according to adoption statistics of Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA), the number of children adopted within the country declined from 5,693 in 2010 to 3142 in 2020-21. The number of children taken in inter-country adoption decreased from 628 in 2010 to 417 in 2020-21. This, the committee reported, “is a cause of grave concern’’. There is decline in the number of children coming to adoption agencies over the years This decline, by and large, points to trafficking or a thriving illegal child adoption market. The committee is of the view that there is a need to increase surveillance, especially on unregistered child care institutions and adoption agencies/hospitals with a past record of trafficking. The committee takes note of the paradoxical situation where on one hand there are a large number of parents willing to adopt a child, on the other, there are not many children available for adoption, all this while the 2020 World Orphan Report estimates the number of orphans in India at 31 million. Recommendations In the given situation, the committee recommended that a true picture of the number of children who are orphaned/abandoned be ascertained through a district-level survey. This data should be updated regularly. There is a need to simplify the procedure further, besides bringing down the time required for placing a child in adoption to less than six months. The committee is of the view that a longer wait period often forces parents willing to adopt a child to resort to illegal adoption. Laws governing adoption in India In India, the Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) is the statutory body of the Women and Child Development ministry, which functions as the nodal agency for adoption, and is mandated to monitor and regulate in-country and inter-country adoptions. The adoption of orphaned, abandoned and surrendered children are all regulated by CARA through its associated or recognised adoption agencies. Three laws govern adoption in the country: The Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act of 1956, which applies to Hindus, Buddhists, Jains and Sikhs. Under this act, the adoption is irrevocable and it gives full status to the child as a natural child born to the family, it also gives the right to inherit the property. The Guardian and Wards Act of 1890, which applies to Muslim, Parsi, Christian and Jews in adoption. Under the GAWA, the relationship which is established after an adoption is only of guardian and ward respectively. Adoption under GAWA does not confer the status of the child on the adopted child; it is different from the HAMA. The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act of 2015. It replaced the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2000. It applies to all Indian Citizen. It allows the adoption of two children of the same sex. It confers the status of parents & child and not guardian and ward. It also confers rights available to the child on the adopted child. In particular, it provides a comprehensive process for domestic and inter-country adoption of orphan, abandoned and surrendered children. In addition, the UNCRC (United Nations Convention on the Rights of Child) was ratified by India in 1992 and the Hague Convention on Inter-country Adoption, 1993, was ratified by the Government of India in 2003. Source: Indian Express Euthanasia Open in new  window Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance); GS 4 (Ethics) In News: A 49-year-old woman from Bengaluru wants the court to stop her friend, a Noida-based 48-year-old man with a debilitating health condition, from travelling to Europe allegedly to undergo assisted suicide or euthanasia — an option not available in India to a person who is not terminally ill. The man has been suffering from Chronic Fatigue Syndrome since 2014 and is allegedly planning to travel to Switzerland for a physician-assisted suicide. In 2018, the Supreme Court had delivered a landmark ruling in Aruna Shanbaug case that made passive euthanasia legal for terminally ill individuals, allowing them to decline the use of life support measures, and letting families of those in incurable coma to withdraw such measures. While Section 309 of IPC criminalises attempted suicide, the Mental Healthcare Act Section 115(1) states that “any person who attempts to commit suicide shall be presumed, unless proved otherwise, to have severe stress and shall not be tried and punished under the said Code.” Many countries like Switzerland, Singapore, have come under criticism for promoting “suicide tourism”. Euthanasia The term Euthanasia comes from two Ancient Greek words ‘Eu’ means ‘Good’, and ‘thantos’ means ‘death’, so Euthanasia means good death. Mercy Killing also known as Euthanasia is an act of providing painless death to a suffering individual who wouldn’t survive if medical facilities are removed from their help. Two types: Euthanasia can be also divided into two types according to means of death. Active Euthanasia: It is also known as ‘Positive Euthanasia’ or ‘Aggressive Euthanasia’. It refers to causing intentional death of a human being by direct intervention. Active euthanasia is usually a quicker means of causing death and all forms of active euthanasia are illegal. For example, by giving lethal doses of a drug or by giving a lethal injection. Passive Euthanasia: It is also known as ‘Negative Euthanasia’ or ‘Non-Aggressive Euthanasia’. It is intentionally causing death by not providing essential, necessary and ordinary care or food and water. It implies discontinuing, withdrawing or removing artificial life support systems. Passive euthanasia is usually slower and more uncomfortable than active. Indian Scenario As of now, only passive Euthanasia is allowed in India by the Supreme Court. Issues Medical Ethics: Medical ethics call for nursing, caregiving and healing and not ending the life of the patient. In the present time, medical science is advancing at a great pace making even the most incurable diseases curable today. Thus, instead of encouraging a patient to end his life, the medical practitioners have to encourage the patients to lead their painful life with strength. Moral Wrong: Taking a life is morally and ethically wrong. The value of life can never be undermined. Vulnerable will become more prone to it: Groups that represent disabled people are against the legalisation of euthanasia on the ground that such groups of vulnerable people would feel obliged to opt for euthanasia as they may see themselves as a burden to society. Suicide v/s Euthanasia: When suicide is not allowed then euthanasia should also not be allowed. A person commits suicide when he goes into a state of depression and has no hope from the life. Similar is the situation when a person asks for euthanasia. But such a tendency can be lessened by proper care of such patients and showing hope in them. Significance End of Pain: Euthanasia provides a way to relieve the intolerably extreme pain and suffering of an individual. It relieves the terminally ill people from a lingering death. Respecting Person’s Choice: The essence of human life is to live a dignified life and to force the person to live in an undignified way is against the person’s choice. Thus, it expresses the choice of a person which is a fundamental principle. Treatment for others: In many developing and underdeveloped countries like India, there is a lack of funds. There is a shortage of hospital space. So, the energy of doctors and hospital beds can be used for those people whose life can be saved instead of continuing the life of those who want to die. Dignified Death: Article 21 of the Indian Constitution clearly provides for living with dignity. A person has a right to live a life with at least minimum dignity and if that standard is falling below that minimum level then a person should be given a right to end his life. Addressing Mental Agony: The motive behind this is to help rather than harm. It not only relieves the unbearable pain of a patient but also relieves the relatives of a patient from the mental agony.  Way Forward Palliative care – Control over the manner and timing of a person’s death has not been and should not be a goal of medicine. India needs improved access to high-quality healthcare for the terminally ill so that they go in peace, whenever they do. This is referred to as palliative care right from the time an illness is diagnosed till the end of life. Moral Support from family and friends makes the patient confident to fight the illness. Passage of Medical Treatment of Terminally-ill Patients Bill, 2016 to regulate passive euthanasia. Source: Indian Express Baba’s Explainer – Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) Syllabus GS-2: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation. GS-3: Indian Economy and Challenges Context: Digital commerce is reshaping the global business environment and can provide a fairer and more inclusive playing field for businesses. It can create economic opportunities for new sets of players, especially small businesses. COVID-19 has fueled the growth of digital commerce across the globe. Though digital commerce in mobility and travel services declined, digital commerce in the retail sector saw a rise in the share of total retail sales, from 16% in 2019 to 19% in 2020. This was a result of a spike in business- to-consumer (B2C) sales, particularly evident in online sales of medical supplies, household essentials, and food products. COVID-19 also resulted in increased business-to-business (B2B) digital commerce. The future of open retail is taking shape in India as the nation rolls out the Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) in 100 cities in August 2022. It is being spearheaded by Infosys founder Nandan Nilekani. Read Complete Details on Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) Daily Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Global Employment Trends for Youth 2022 report was released by? World Bank United Nations Conference on Trade and Development International Labour Organization World Economic Forum Q.2) Consider the following statements about Vice-President (VP) The Constitution lays down S/he should not be a member of either House of Parliament. S/he can resign from his/her office at any time by addressing the resignation letter to the Deputy-Chairman. Choose the incorrect statements: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) National Intellectual Property Awareness Mission (NIPAM), is an initiative of? Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Ministry of Commerce and Industry NITI Aayog Prime Minister’s Office Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’12th August 2022 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs. ANSWERS FOR 11th August 2022 – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – b table, td, th { border: 1px solid;} table {width: 100%; border-collapse: collapse; }

Aug 12, 2022 TLP Mains Answer Writing

IASbaba’s TLP (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – General Studies 4 Questions [12th August, 2022] – Day 47

Hello StudentsYou already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (11 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2023 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here – CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2022 (Phase 2) – CLICK HERE To Access Day 47 Questions – CLICK HERE  P.S: The review from IASbaba will happen from the time the question is posted till 10 pm every day. We would also encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best