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Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2022 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 16th May 2022

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test -Click Here

Baba’s Explainer

Baba's Explainer - OBC Reservations

Baba's Explainer - OBC Reservations Syllabus GS-2: Governance & Policy Measures GS-2: Equality & Equity Why In News: Supreme Court has stayed 27 percent reservation for OBCs in local body polls in Madhya Pradesh. [su_spoiler open="yes" title="What is meant by Reservation?" style="fancy" icon="chevron"] In simple terms, reservation in India is all about reserving access to seats in the government jobs, educational institutions, and even legislatures to certain sections of the population. Also known as affirmative action, the reservation can also be seen as positive discrimination. The two main aims to provide reservation as per the Constitution of India are: Advancement of the sections of society that is considered as backward Scheduled Castes (SC) and the Scheduled Tribes (ST) (Article 15 (4) Any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens (OBC) Article 15 (5) Economically weaker sections (EWS) –and Article 15 (6) Adequate representation of any backward class of citizens (Article 16 (4)) OR economically weaker sections (EWS) in the services under the State (Article 16 (6)) [/su_spoiler] [su_spoiler open="no" title="What is the History of OBC reservations in India?" style="fancy" icon="chevron"] The use of the term OBC goes back to the Madras Presidency in the 1870s. The British administration combined shudras and ‘Untouchable’ castes under the label "backward classes" to identify lower caste groups for affirmative action. Untouchables were reclassified as SCs in the 1935 Government of India Act. After Independence, the Indian government continued to use this classification. Untouchability was abolished in 1950 and the state mandated political representation for SCs and STs at both central and state levels. The Constitution had also resolved to make provisions for OBCs. During the debate on Draft Article 10(3) which is the present Article 16(4) of the Indian Constitution, the term “backward class” was included. Article 16(4) Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any provision for the reservation of appointments or posts in favour of any backward class of citizens which, in the opinion of the State, is not adequately represented in the services under the State. Immediately after India becoming a republic, the Indian Supreme Court in its two judgements in  State of Madras Champakam Dorairarajan and Venkatraman v. State of Madras invalidated reservation for backward classes in educational institutions and in public services respectively, in the then State of Madras. In response to this, the provisional parliament amended the Constitution (First Amendment) to nullify the Supreme Court’s judgement and pave the way for reservation for backward classes. Speaking during the debates on the Constitution (First Amendment) Bill of 195, Dr B. R Ambedkar termed the judgements of the Supreme Court as “utterly unsatisfactory “ and “not in consonance with the articles of the Constitution”. In fact, first Backward Classes Commission under the chairmanship of social reformer Kaka Kalelkar was appointed as early as 1953 to determine the criteria for assessing backwardness. The commission submitted its report in March 1955 and considered caste a relevant criterion to determine backwardness It listed 2,399 backward castes or communities, with 837 of them classified as ‘most backwards’. The report was never implemented. Eventually, it took another Commission (Second Backward Classes Commission under Mandal) and almost forty years to implement reservation for OBCs. [/su_spoiler] [su_spoiler open="no" title="What were the recommendations of Mandal commission?" style="fancy" icon="chevron"] In exercise of the powers conferred by Article 340 of the Constitution, the President appointed a backward class commission in December 1978 under the chairmanship of former chief minister of Bihar B. P. Mandal. Article 340: The President may by order appoint a Commission to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes within India and to make recommendations as to the steps to be taken by the State. Mandal commission was formed to determine the criteria for defining India’s “socially and educationally backward classes” and to recommend steps to be taken for the advancement of those classes. Mandal submitted his report two years later, on December 31, 1980. By then, the Morarji Desai government had fallen and Indira Gandhi came to power. It remained in deep freeze during her term and that of Rajiv Gandhi. Some of the recommendations of Mandal Commission are: Mandal Commission report estimated that OBCs constituted nearly 52 per cent of India’s population, excluding Scheduled Castes/Tribes (SC/STs.) OBCs among Hindus were identified based on socio-educational field surveys, lists of OBCs notified by various State governments, the 1961 Census report, and extensive touring of the country. Among non-Hindus, the caste system was not found to be an inherent part of the religion. However, for equality, OBCs were identified as untouchables converted from Hinduism and occupational communities known by their traditional hereditary jobs, such as the Gujjars, Dhobis, and Telis. Hence, for the inclusion of OBCs, the report recommended a 27 per cent reservation for these communities in government services and central/State educational institutions. That reservation was also made applicable to promotion quotas at all levels. However, children of government officials at higher posts, civil servants, high-ranking armed forces officers, professionals in trade, and so-called ‘creamy layer’ individuals are to be excluded from OBC reservations. According to a 2017 order issued by the Centre, creamy layer individuals are those who have an annual income of Rs 8 lakhs or more, disqualifying them from benefits under the OBC quota. The ‘creamy layer’ threshold has been gradually increased from Rs 1 lakh/year in 1993 to Rs 2.5 lakhs, Rs 4.5 lakhs, Rs 6 lakhs and now Rs 8 lakhs. The reserved quota, if unfilled, should be carried forward for a period of 3 years and dereserved after that. The government to make the necessary legal provisions to implement these recommendations. Age relaxation for OBCs to be the same as that for SCs and STs. On August 7, 1990, then PM V P Singh announced in Parliament that his government had accepted the Mandal Commission report. V P Singh led-Central government wanted to implement the Mandal Commission report in 1990, but it was challenged in the Supreme Court. The verdict in the Indira Sawhney case, which came up before a nine-judge bench, was delivered in 1992. [/su_spoiler] [su_spoiler open="no" title="Was OBC reservation opposed?" style="fancy" icon="chevron"] The Mandal moment saw ferocious backlash by sections of upper castes, particularly in northern & western regions of India This opposition was articulated on two axes That reservations compromised merit If at all reservations should open up beyond what was offered to SC & STs, it should be on economic lines (and not on caste basis) What has been the Supreme Court’s verdict on OBC reservation? The Supreme Court dealt with Constitutional Validity of OBC reservation in ‘Indira Sawhney’ Case or Mandal Case.  The Supreme Court's nine-judge panel gave the following verdict with a 6:3 majority on November 16, 1992: The SC upheld the 27% reservation for OBCs .  Backward classes under Article 16(4) cannot be identified on the basis of economic criteria but the caste system also needs to be considered. Article 16(4) is not an exception to clause 1 but an instance of classification as envisaged by clause 1. Backward classes in article 16(4) were different from the socially and educationally backward mentioned in Article 15(4). SC also said that the ‘creamy layer’ among the OBCs should not be the beneficiaries of the reservations. It also held that there will be no reservation in promotions. Supreme Court in the same case also upheld the principle that the combined reservation beneficiaries should not exceed 50% of India’s population. Apex court also suggested permanent Statutory body to examine complains of over – inclusion / under – inclusion. So the Govt. set-up a statutory body called National Commission for Backward Classes as a permanent body. Any new disputes regarding criteria were to be raised in the Supreme Court only. [/su_spoiler] [su_spoiler open="no" title="What has been the major Criticism of OBC reservation?" style="fancy" icon="chevron"] Backlash by left out sections: The resentment of those communities which did not have a share in the reservation pie increased. Mandal Politics launched an era of open hostility between upper castes & backward communities, particularly in the Hindi heartland Appeasement Politics: Political parties, in order to appease their constituents, continued to expand reservation. This has undermined the entire purpose of reservation, envisaged as a tool to address historic injustice. Lack of Effective Implementation: As per the Report submitted by the Department of Personnel and Training to NCBC in 2020, OBC representation in Central government jobs (data of 42 ministries/departments) was found out to be: 16.51 % in Group-A central government services. 13.38 % in Group-B central government services. 21.25 % in Group-C (excluding safai karamcharis). 17.72 % in Group-C (safai karamcharis). Demand for Subcategorization of OBCs: Within OBCs, some communities benefited more than others, which led to a political divide and demands for sub-categorisation, a process currently underway. According to the Rohini Commission, out of almost 6,000 castes and communities in the OBCs, only 40 such communities had gotten 50% of reservation benefits for admission in central educational institutions and recruitment to the civil services. [/su_spoiler] [su_spoiler open="no" title="What is Rohini Commission?" style="fancy" icon="chevron"] What is Rohini Commission? The Rohini Commission, set up in October 2017  to examine the issue of Sub-categorization within Other Backward Classes (OBCs) in the Central List. Commission’s Terms of Reference (ToR): Examining Inequality: To examine the extent of inequitable distribution of benefits of reservation among the castes or communities included in the broad category of OBCs with reference to such classes included in the Central List. Determining Parameters: To work out the mechanism, criteria, norms and parameters in a scientific approach for sub-categorisation within such OBCs. Classification: To take up the exercise of identifying the respective castes or communities or sub-castes or synonyms in the Central List of OBCs and classifying them into their respective sub-categories. Eliminating Errors: To study the various entries in the Central List of OBCs and recommend correction of any repetitions, ambiguities, inconsistencies and errors of spelling or transcription. Challenges Before the Commision: Data Deficiency: Absence of data for the population of various communities to compare with their representation in jobs and admissions. Delaying of Survey: It was decided in Census 2021, data of OBCs will also be collected, but no consensus has been reached regarding enumeration of OBCs in the Census. Findings of the Commission Until Now: In 2018, the Commission analysed the data of 1.3 lakh central jobs given under OBC quota over the preceding five years. It also analysed OBC admissions to central higher education institutions, including universities, IITs, NITs, IIMs and AIIMS, over the preceding three years. The findings were: 97% of all jobs and educational seats have gone to just 25% of all sub-castes classified as OBCs. 24.95% of these jobs and seats have gone to just 10 OBC communities. 983 OBC communities (37% of the total) have zero representation in jobs and educational institutions. 994 OBC sub-castes have a total representation of only 2.68% in recruitment and admissions. It is widely understood that the report could have huge political consequences and face a judicial review so it's still not released and the commission has been given subsequent extensions [/su_spoiler] [su_spoiler open="no" title="What about OBC reservation by States?" style="fancy" icon="chevron"] Even though there is one list (decided by Parliament) that is maintained for SC & ST for reservation benefits, in case of OBCs, States were empowered to maintain their own list of OBCs so provide necessary benefits to them. Thus, we have Union OBC list for reservation in Central government jobs & Central Educational institutions OBC lists at State level (varies with each state) for reservation in State government jobs & State Educational institutions. The Constitution (102nd Amendment) Act, 2018 had granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Castes (NCBC). It further inserted: Article 338B, which deals with the structure, duties and powers of the NCBC Article 342A, which deals with the powers of the President to notify a particular caste as an SEBC and the power of Parliament to change the list. However, Supreme Court (in Marata Reservation case) on 5 May 2021 had ruled that only the Centre had the power to draw up the OBC list, as per the above interpretation of Constitution (102nd Amendment) Act (Article 342A only mentions President & Parliament with no reference to states) This verdict was opposed by the States for they would lose their power of notifying OBCs. It was estimated that nearly 671 OBC communities would have lost access to reservation in educational institutions and in appointments if the state list was abolished. Moreover, nearly one-fifth of the total OBC communities would have been adversely impacted by this. To reverse the verdict and to restore the powers of the state governments to maintain state list of OBCs, Parliament passed 127th Constitution Amendment Bill, 2021 Amendment in Articles 366(26C) and 338B (9), after which states will be able to directly notify OBC and SEBCs without having to refer to the NCBC, and the "state list" will be taken out of the domain of the President and will be notified by the Assembly. Each State has listed communities which are recognised as OBCs and accorded them reservations accordingly. There is no reservation for OBCs in Lakshadweep, Tripura, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh due to the absence of any citizens belonging to OBC communities. [/su_spoiler] [su_spoiler open="no" title="What about OBC quota in elections?" style="fancy" icon="chevron"] To ensure political representation, of the 543 seats in Lok Sabha, 84 seats are reserved for SCs, 47 seats for STs and 2 for Anglo-Indian members (nominated by the President). SC/ST communities have reservations in their respective State Assemblies, councils and local bodies too. However, for OBC communities, there are no separate political reservations in State legislatures or local bodies. In a bid to alter this, the Maharashtra government passed an Ordinance to introduce a 27-per-cent reservation for OBCs in Zilla Parishads and Panchayat Samitis. However, in December 2021, the SC struck down the Ordinance citing the 50-per-cent threshold rule for reservation. In Indira Sawhney vs Union of India (1992), the Supreme Court had upheld the 50-per-cent ceiling on reservations, thereby limiting states’ powers. [/su_spoiler] [su_spoiler open="no" title="Has there been a call for reconsidering the 50-per-cent ceiling?" style="fancy" icon="chevron"] Despite the apex court upholding the 50-per-cent ceiling, many communities have sought separate reservations at the State and Central levels across India. The most notable protests have included those of the Gujjars (Rajasthan) seeking their reclassification from OBC to STs and five-per-cent reservation. Similarly, Patidars (Gujarat) and Jats (UP, Rajasthan, Delhi) have been seeking inclusion as OBCs. Since the inclusion of the 10-per-cent EWS quota, most States have breached the 50-per-cent cap on reservations. Topping the list is Tamil Nadu (69 per cent), followed by Chhattisgarh (69 per cent), Maharashtra (62 per cent), Andhra Pradesh (60 per cent), Bihar (60 per cent), Delhi (60 per cent), Jharkhand (60 per cent), Karnataka (60 per cent), Kerala (60 per cent), Madhya Pradesh (60 per cent), Telangana (60 per cent) and Uttar Pradesh (60 per cent.) Recently, the call for reconsidering the 50-per-cent cap has been growing since several States have been demanding a caste census to determine the actual population of SCs, STs, OBCs, and minorities. However, the Centre has maintained that the caste census data of 2011 is unusable as it was “fraught with mistakes and inaccuracies”. It has also refused to conduct a nationwide caste census in 2022. [/su_spoiler] Mains Practice Question - Do you think, there is a need to review the reservation structure? Critically Comment. Note: Write answers to this question in the comment section.  

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 14th May 2022

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) [su_box title="Iron tools in Tamil Nadu" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – History Mains – GS 1 (Indian Culture - Salient aspects of Art Forms, Literature and Architecture from ancient to modern times) In News: Carbon dating of excavated finds in Tamil Nadu pushes evidence of iron being used in India back to 4,200 years ago Before this, the earliest evidence of iron use was from 1900-2000 BCE for the country, and from 1500 BCE for Tamil Nadu The latest evidence dates the findings from Tamil Nadu to 2172 BCE. The excavations are from Mayiladumparai near Krishnagiri in Tamil Nadu, about 100 km south of Bengaluru. Mayiladumparai is an important site with cultural material dating back between the Microlithic (30,000 BCE) and Early Historic (600 BCE) ages. The site is situated in the midst of several archaeological sites such as Togarapalli, Gangavaram, Sandur, Vedarthattakkal, Guttur, Gidlur, Sappamutlu and Kappalavad etc. All these important archaeological sites lie within 10 km. Timeline revisited The dates when humans entered the Iron Age vary from one region of the world to another In 1979, use of iron was traced to 1300 BCE at Ahar in Rajasthan. Later, samples at Bukkasagara in Karnataka, indicating iron production, were dated back to 1530 BCE. The date was subsequently pushed back to 1700-1800 BCE with excavations finding evidence of iron smelting at Raipura in the Mid-Ganga valley, and then to 1900-2000 BCE based on investigations in sites at Malhar near Varanasi and Brahmagiri in North Karnataka. A series of dating results on finds from various parts in India have shown evidence of iron-ore technology before 1800 BCE. Before the latest discovery, the earliest evidence of iron use for Tamil Nadu was from Thelunganur and Mangadu near Mettur, dating back to 1500 BCE. Historical significance With the latest evidence tracing our Iron Age to 2000 BCE from 1500 BC, we can assume that our cultural seeds were laid in 2000 BCE. And the benefit of socio-economic changes and massive production triggered by the iron technology gave its first fruit around 600 BCE — the Tamil Brahmi scripts The Tamil Brahmi scripts were once believed to have originated around 300 BCE, until a landmark finding in 2019 pushed the date back to 600 BCE. This dating narrowed the gap between the Indus Valley civilization and Tamilagam/South India’s Sangam Age. Previous Year Questions (PYQs) Q.1) Which one of the following is not a Harappan Site? (2019) Chanhudaro Kot Diji Sohagaura Desalpur Source: Indian Express [/su_box] [su_box title="Gaganyaan Mission" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Mains – GS 3 (Awareness in the fields of IT, Space, Computers, Robotics, Nano-technology, Bio-technology and issues relating to Intellectual Property Rights) In News: ISRO tests booster for Gaganyaan The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) has successfully carried out the static test of the HS200 solid rocket booster, taking the space agency one more steps closer to the keenly awaited Gaganyaan human spaceflight mission. The test was held at the Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota Designed and developed by the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) in Thiruvananthapuram The HS200 booster is the ‘human-rated’ version of the S200 rocket boosters used on the geosynchronous satellite launch vehicle Mk-III (GSLV Mk-III), also called the LVM3. The GSLV Mk-III rocket, which will be used for the Gaganyaan mission, will have two HS200 boosters that will supply the thrust for lift-off. The HS200 is a 20-metre-long booster with a diameter of 3.2 metres and is the world’s second largest operational booster using solid propellants. The successful completion of this test marks a major milestone for the prestigious human space flight mission of ISRO, the Gaganyaan, as the first stage of the launch vehicle is tested for its performance for the full duration The control system used in the HS200 booster employs one of the world’s most powerful electro-mechanical actuators with multiple redundancy and safety features Gaganyaan Mission Gaganyaan is a mission by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) to send a three-member crew to space for a period of five to seven days. Launch Vehicle: ISRO's Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle GSLV Mk III (3 stages heavy-lift vehicle) Components: Consists of a service module and a crew module, collectively known as an Orbital Module (Crew Module carries astronauts & Service Modules carries propellants.) The Gaganyaan spacecraft will be placed in a low earth orbit (LEO) of 300-400 kilometres. Vyom Mitra: ISRO to send humanoid Vyommitra in unmanned Gaganyaan spacecraft ahead of human spaceflight (Monitoring module parameters) Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle GSLV Mk III GSLV MkIII, is a three-stage heavy lift launch vehicle developed by ISRO. The vehicle has two solid strap-ons, a core liquid booster and a cryogenic upper stage. GSLV Mk III is designed to carry 4 ton class of satellites into Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO) or about 10 tons to Low Earth Orbit (LEO), which is about twice the capability of the GSLV Mk II. Previous Year Questions (PYQs) Q.1) With reference to India’s satellite launch  vehicles, consider the following statements (2018) PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch l vehicle with the first and third stages l using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only Source: The Hindu [/su_box] [su_box title="mRNA Vaccine" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Mains – GS 3 (Achievements of Indians in Science & Technology; Indigenization of Technology and Developing New Technology) In News: The Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB) has established the “proof of principle” (proof of concept) of the first indigenous mRNA vaccine technology The replication is based on the Moderna model, but has been built with the information available in the open and our own technology and materials While vaccines work by training the immune system to identify disease-causing micro-organisms and eliminate them quickly when they encounter them, in the mRNA technology, the host cell’s immune system is trained to evade the real infection. This is done by introducing mRNA of the micro-organism of concern into the host. The home-grown mRNA vaccine platform holds promise to deal with other infectious diseases such as TB, dengue, malaria, chikungunya, rare genetic diseases and others. What are mRNA vaccines? mRNA vaccines trick the body into producing some of the viral proteins itself. They work by using mRNA, or messenger RNA, which is the molecule that essentially puts DNA instructions into action. Inside a cell, mRNA is used as a template to build a protein How it works? To produce an mRNA vaccine, scientists produce a synthetic version of the mRNA that a virus uses to build its infectious proteins. This mRNA is delivered into the human body, whose cells read it as instructions to build that viral protein, and therefore create some of the virus’s molecules themselves. These proteins are solitary, so they do not assemble to form a virus. The immune system then detects these viral proteins and starts to produce a defensive response to them. Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology The Centre for Cellular & Molecular Biology (CCMB) is a premier research organization which conducts high quality basic research and trainings in frontier areas of modern biology, and promotes centralized national facilities for new and modern techniques in the interdisciplinary areas of biology. It was set up initially as a semi-autonomous Centre on April 1, 1977 with the Biochemistry Division of the then Regional Research Laboratory (presently, Indian Institute of Chemical Technology, IICT) Hyderabad. It is located in Hyderabad and operates under the aegis of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR). It is designated as “Center of Excellence” by the Global Molecular and Cell Biology Network, UNESCO. Previous Year Questions (PYQs) Q.1) With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant Vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements: (2021) Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. Select the correct code: 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) What is the importance of using Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines in India? (2020) These vaccines are effective against pneumonia as well as meningitis and sepsis. Dependence on antibiotics that are not effective against drug-resistant bacteria can be reduced. These vaccines have no side effects and cause no allergic reactions. Select the correct code: 1 only 1 and 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Source: The Hindu [/su_box] [su_box title="Radio Frequency Identification (RFID)" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Mains – GS 3 (Science and Technology- Developments and their Applications and Effects in Everyday Life) In News: Amarnath Yatra pilgrims to be tracked through RFID tags The movement of each Amarnath Yatra pilgrim will be tracked with the help of Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) tags The RFID tags will be provided by the Shri Amarnathji Shrine Board (SASB). Registration of all pilgrims are done by the shrine board. What is Radio Frequency Identification? RFID is a type of passive wireless technology that allows for tracking or matching of an item or individual. The system has two basic parts: Tags and Readers. The reader gives off radio waves and gets signals back from the RFID tag, while the tag uses radio waves to communicate its identity and other information. A tag can be read from up to several feet away and does not need to be within the direct line-of-sight of the reader to be tracked. The technology has been approved since before the 1970s but has become much more prevalent in recent years due to its usages in things like global supply chain management and pet microchipping. Previous Year Questions (PYQs) Q.1) With reference to visible light communication (VLC) technology, which of the following statements are correct? (2020) VLC uses electromagnetic spectrum wavelengths 375 to 780nm VLC is known as long-range optical wireless communication VLC can transmit large amounts of data faster than Bluetooth VLC has no electromagnetic interference Select the correct code: 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only Q.2) With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?(2019) LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology. Select the correct code: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Source: The Hindu [/su_box] [su_box title="Article 311" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity Mains – GS 2 (Structure, Organization and Functioning of the Executive) In News: Three government employees were terminated by the J&K Government under Article 311 2(c) Article 311: Article 311 (1) says that no government employee either of an all India service or a state government shall be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to the one that appointed him/her. Article 311 (2) says that no civil servant shall be dismissed or removed or reduced in rank except after an inquiry in which s/he has been informed of the charges and given a reasonable opportunity of being heard in respect of those charges. People Protected under Article 311: The members of Civil service of the Union, All India Service, and Civil service of any State, People who hold a civil post under the Union or any State. The protective safeguards given under Article 311 are applicable only to civil servants, i.e. public officers. They are not available to defence personnel. Exceptions to Article 311 (2): 2 (a) - Where a person is dismissed or removed or reduced in rank on the ground of conduct which has led to his conviction on a criminal charge; or 2 (b) - Where the authority empowered to dismiss or remove a person or to reduce him in rank is satisfied that for some reason, to be recorded by that authority in writing, it is not reasonably practicable to hold such inquiry; or 2 (c) - Where the President or the Governor, as the case may be, is satisfied that in the interest of the security of the State, it is not expedient to hold such inquiry Source: Indian Express [/su_box] Baba's Explainer - NATO [su_box title="NATO" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Syllabus GS-2: Policies and politics of developed and developing countries. GS-2: Important International institutions, agencies and fora- their structure, mandate. Why In News: While countries were thinking about the security dynamics of Europe, Finland’s Prime Minister had insisted that her country was unlikely to join NATO even as Russian troops amassed on the Ukrainian border in February. Three months and one invasion later, Finland is hurtling to join the alliance — a monumental shift for a nation with a long history of wartime neutrality and staying out of military alliances. Sweden, another neutral Nordic country, is also so alarmed by Russia's invasion of Ukraine that it is also now seriously considering joining NATO. Read Complete Details on NATO - CLICK HERE [/su_box] Daily Practice MCQs [su_box title="Daily Practice MCQs" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Q.1) Consider the following statements about Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle GSLV Mk III It is a three-stage heavy lift launch vehicle developed by ISRO The Upper stage of GSLV Mk III is known as the cryogenic stage The Gaganyaan spacecraft will be placed in a Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO) by GSLV Mk III Choose the correct statements: 1 and 3 2 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements The Constitution empowers the President and the Governor to remove a government employee without an enquiry under interest of the security of the State The protective safeguards given under Article 311 are applicable to both Civil servants and defence personnel Choose the correct code: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) With reference to mRNA vaccine, consider the following statements mRNA vaccines trick the body into producing some of the viral proteins itself These viral protein assemble to form a virus and triggers body's defense mechanism mRNA vaccines cannot be used to treat genetic diseases Choose the incorrect statements: 2 only 2 and 3 3 only None [/su_box] ANSWERS FOR 14th MAY 2022 - Daily Practice MCQs 1 d 2 a 3 b  

[DAY 54] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES हिन्दी for UPSC Prelims 2022- ENVIRONMENT, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT; Test Series, Videos & Notes!

                                                                                                        Archives Hello Friends 60 दिनों की रैपिड रिवीजन (RaRe) सीरीज IASbaba की एक महत्त्वपूर्ण पहल है जो टॉपर्स द्वारा अनुशंसित है और हर साल अभ्यर्थियों द्वारा सबसे ज्यादा पसंद की जाती है। यह सबसे व्यापक कार्यक्रम है जो आपको दैनिक आधार पर पाठ्यक्रम को पूरा करने, रिवीजन करने और टेस्ट का अभ्यास करने में मदद करेगा। दैनिक आधार पर कार्यक्रम में शामिल हैं उच्च संभावित टॉपिक्स पर दैनिक रैपिड रिवीजन (RaRe) सीरीज वीडियो (सोमवार – शनिवार) वीडियो चर्चा में, उन टॉपिक्स पर विशेष ध्यान दिया जाता है जिनकी UPSC प्रारंभिक परीक्षा के प्रश्न पत्र में आने की उच्च संभावना होती है।प्रत्येक सत्र 20 मिनट से 30 मिनट का होगा, जिसमें कार्यक्रम के अनुसार इस वर्ष प्रीलिम्स परीक्षा के लिए महत्वपूर्ण 15 उच्च संभावित टॉपिक्स (स्टैटिक और समसामयिक दोनों) का तेजी से रिवीजन शामिल होगा। Note – वीडियो केवल अंग्रेज़ी में उपलब्ध होंगे रैपिड रिवीजन नोट्स परीक्षा को पास करने में सही सामग्री महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाती है और रैपिड रिवीजन (RaRe) नोट्स में प्रीलिम्स विशिष्ट विषय-वार परिष्कृत नोट्स होंगे।मुख्य उद्देश्य छात्रों को सबसे महत्वपूर्ण टॉपिक्स को रिवाइज़ करने में मदद करना है और वह भी बहुत कम सीमित समय सीमा के भीतर करना है Note - दैनिक टेस्ट और विस्तृत व्याख्या की पीडीएफ और 'दैनिक नोट्स' को पीडीएफ प्रारूप में अपडेट किया जाएगा जो अंग्रेजी और हिन्दी दोनों में डाउनलोड करने योग्य होंगे। दैनिक प्रीलिम्स MCQs स्टेटिक (सोमवार – शनिवार) दैनिक स्टेटिक क्विज़ में स्टेटिक विषयों के सभी टॉपिक्स शामिल होंगे - राजनीति, इतिहास, भूगोल, अर्थशास्त्र, पर्यावरण तथा विज्ञान एवं प्रौद्योगिकी।20 प्रश्न प्रतिदिन पोस्ट किए जाएंगे और इन प्रश्नों को शेड्यूल में उल्लिखित टॉपिक्स और RaRe वीडियो से तैयार किया गया है।यह आपके स्टैटिक टॉपिक्स का समय पर और सुव्यवस्थित रिवीजन सुनिश्चित करेगा। दैनिक करेंट अफेयर्स MCQs (सोमवार – शनिवार) दैनिक 5 करेंट अफेयर्स प्रश्न, 'द हिंदू', 'इंडियन एक्सप्रेस' और 'पीआईबी' जैसे स्रोतों पर आधारित, शेड्यूल के अनुसार सोमवार से शनिवार तक प्रकाशित किए जाएंगे। दैनिक CSAT Quiz (सोमवार –शनिवार) सीसैट कई अभ्यर्थियों के लिए परेशानी का कारण रहा है।दैनिक रूप से 5 सीसैट प्रश्न प्रकाशित किए जाएंगे। Note - 20 स्टैटिक प्रश्नों, 5 करेंट अफेयर्स प्रश्नों और 5 CSAT प्रश्नों का दैनिक रूप से टेस्ट। (30 प्रारंभिक परीक्षा प्रश्न) प्रश्नोत्तरी प्रारूप में अंग्रेजी और हिंदी दोनों में दैनिक आधार पर अपडेट किया जाएगा। 60 DAY रैपिड रिवीजन (RaRe) सीरीज के बारे में अधिक जानने के लिए  – CLICK HERE   Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Notes & Solutions DAY 54– CLICK HERE Note –  Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come.It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Important Note Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :) You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score(2) Matrix Meter(3) New Learning from the Test To take the Test -Click Here All the Best IASbaba

Baba’s Explainer

Baba's Explainer - NATO

Baba's Explainer - NATO Syllabus GS-2: Policies and politics of developed and developing countries. GS-2: Important International institutions, agencies and fora- their structure, mandate. Why In News: While countries were thinking about the security dynamics of Europe, Finland’s Prime Minister had insisted that her country was unlikely to join NATO even as Russian troops amassed on the Ukrainian border in February. Three months and one invasion later, Finland is hurtling to join the alliance — a monumental shift for a nation with a long history of wartime neutrality and staying out of military alliances. Sweden, another neutral Nordic country, is also so alarmed by Russia's invasion of Ukraine that it is also now seriously considering joining NATO. [su_spoiler open="no" title="What is NATO?" style="fancy" icon="chevron"] Nato - the North Atlantic Treaty Organization - is a military alliance. It was formed in 1949 by 12 countries, including the US, UK, Canada and France. Nato's original aim was to counter Russian expansion in Europe after World War Two. NATO’s essential and enduring purpose is to safeguard the freedom and security of all its members by political and military means Following the Soviet Union's collapse in 1991, many of its former Eastern European allies joined Nato. In order to join Nato, countries must be democracies, treat minorities fairly and commit to resolving conflicts peacefully. They must also provide military support to the alliance. Nato members agree to spend 2% of their GDP on defence Nato is based on Collective defence principle enshrined in "Article 5" of NATO’s founding Treaty (Washington Treaty). This principle views an attack on one member as an attack on all. NATO has only once invoked Article 5, on September 12, 2001 following the 9/11 attacks on the World Trade Center in the US. NATO has its headquarters in Brussels but is dominated by the massive military and nuclear missile power of the US. There are currently 30 members in NATO Its original members were Belgium, Canada, Denmark, France, Iceland, Italy, Luxembourg, the Netherlands, Norway, Portugal, the United Kingdom, and the United States. Joining the original signatories were Greece and Turkey (1952) West Germany (1955, from 1990 as Germany) Spain (1982) Czech Republic, Hungary, and Poland (1999) Bulgaria, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, Romania, Slovakia, and Slovenia (2004) Albania and Croatia (2009) Montenegro (2017) North Macedonia (2020). [/su_spoiler] [su_spoiler open="no" title="How does NATO Function?" style="fancy" icon="chevron"] NATO has an integrated military command structure but very few forces or assets are exclusively its own. Most forces remain under full national command and control until member countries agree to undertake NATO-related tasks. All 30 allies have an equal say, the Alliance’s decisions must be unanimous and consensual, and its members must respect the basic values that underpin the Alliance, namely democracy, individual liberty and the rule of law. NATO's protection does not extend to members' civil wars or internal coups. NATO is funded by its members. The U.S. contributes roughly three-fourths of NATO's budget. [/su_spoiler] [su_spoiler open="no" title="Was there a counter military alliance by Soviets?" style="fancy" icon="chevron"] In 1955, when the Cold War was gaining momentum, the Soviet Union signed up socialist republics of Central and Eastern Europe to the Warsaw Pact (1955). The Pact, essentially a political-military alliance, was viewed as a direct strategic counterweight to NATO. It included Albania (which withdrew in 1968), Bulgaria, Czechoslovakia, East Germany, Hungary, Poland, and Romania. The Pact was officially disbanded in early 1991 after the dissolution of the Soviet Union itself. [/su_spoiler] [su_spoiler open="no" title="What are the Alliances of NATO?" style="fancy" icon="chevron"] NATO participates in three alliances that expand its influence beyond its 30 member countries. Euro-Atlantic Partnership Council (EAPC): It is a 50-nation multilateral forum for dialogue and consultation on political and security-related issues among Allies and partner countries. It provides the overall political framework for NATO’s cooperation with partner countries in the Euro-Atlantic area, and for the bilateral relationships developed between NATO and individual partner countries under the Partnership for Peace (PfP) programme. The Partnership for Peace (PfP) is a programme of practical bilateral cooperation between individual Euro-Atlantic partner countries and NATO. It allows partners to build up an individual relationship with NATO, choosing their own priorities for cooperation. Established in 1997, the EAPC succeeded the North Atlantic Cooperation Council (NACC), which was set up in 1991 just after the end of the Cold War.  Mediterranean Dialogue: It is a partnership forum that aims to contribute to security and stability in NATO’s Mediterranean and North African neighbourhood, and promote good relations and understanding among participating countries and NATO Allies. Currently, the following non-NATO countries take part in the Dialogue: Algeria, Egypt, Israel, Jordan, Mauritania, Morocco and Tunisia.  Istanbul Cooperation Initiative (ICI) It is a partnership forum that aims to contribute to long-term global and regional security by offering non-NATO countries in the broader Middle East region the opportunity to cooperate with NATO. Bahrain, Kuwait, Qatar and the United Arab Emirates currently participate in the Initiative. [/su_spoiler] [su_spoiler open="no" title="How does Russia view NATO?" style="fancy" icon="chevron"] Russia, and more specifically President Vladimir Putin, does not see NATO as a defensive alliance. Quite the opposite. He views it as a threat to Russia's security. He has watched in dismay as NATO steadily expanded eastwards - closer to Moscow - after the disintegration of the Soviet Union in 1991. Earlier, Moscow controlled all the countries of eastern Europe, with Russian troops stationed in most of them. Today, nearly all those countries have opted to look westwards and join NATO. Even the Baltic states - Estonia, Latvia and Lithuania - countries that were once part of the Soviet Union, have joined the alliance. Shortly before President Putin sent his troops into Ukraine on 24 February, he demanded a redrawing of the security map of Europe. NATO troops, he insisted, should pull back from all of these eastern European countries, and no new countries should be allowed to join. Why isn't NATO sending troops to Ukraine in the wake of Russia’s invasion into Ukraine? As Ukraine isn't a member, NATO isn't obliged to come to its defence. NATO countries fear that if their troops confront Russian forces, it could lead to an all-out conflict between Russia and the West. [/su_spoiler] [su_spoiler open="no" title="Why Finland want to join NATO?" style="fancy" icon="chevron"] For decades, Finland and Sweden have carefully nurtured their neutrality. Culturally, they are firmly in the western camp, but were been wary of antagonising their giant nuclear-armed neighbour, Russia. The idea of not joining NATO or getting too close to the West was a matter of survival for the Finns. The Ukraine invasion prompted a radical rethink, with both government and people in Sweden & Norway wondering if they might be lot safer under the NATO camp. According to a public poll conducted by Finnish broadcaster YLE, 76 per cent of Finns favour joining the alliance. This number used to be around 25 per cent for years before the invasion From a purely military perspective, the addition of Finland's and/or Sweden's substantial militaries would be a major boost to Nato's defensive power in the north of Europe, where it is massively outnumbered by Russia's forces. Being a member of NATO will give the nations a security guarantee under the alliance’s “Article 5” on collective defence. The article essentially guarantees a military response and protection by NATO countries if any member of the organisation comes under attack. Geographically, the addition of Finland fills in a huge gap in Nato's defence, doubling the amount of its border with Russia. Only 6% of Russia's vast borders are with Nato countries, yet the Kremlin is feeling encircled and threatened. Security and stability in the Baltic Sea are now dramatically improved. Politically, it would add to the cohesion of western mutual defence, sending a signal to Putin that almost all of Europe is united against his invasion of a sovereign country, Ukraine. The symbolic consequence of this cannot be ignored as well. More sovereign powers siding with the west and increasing its strength is a direct blow to Russia. It would show Russia that the war is counterproductive and it only strengthens Western unity, resolve and military preparedness”. Was this a long time coming for Finland? For Finns, events in Ukraine bring a haunting sense of familiarity. The Soviets had invaded Finland in late 1939 and despite the Finnish army putting up fierce resistance for more than three months, they ended up losing 10 per cent of their territory. The country adopted to stay non-aligned during the cold war years. However, insecurities started growing since Russia annexed Crimea in 2014 as Finland military spending went up. Finland was “mentally prepared” to join the organisation for a long time. In 1992, Finland bought 64 US combat planes. Three years later, it joined the European Union, alongside Sweden. [/su_spoiler] [su_spoiler open="no" title="What about Sweden?" style="fancy" icon="chevron"] Sweden is likely to apply for a membership after Finland’s final call. If Finland joins, Sweden will be the only Nordic non-member of NATO. Now, unlike Finland, whose policy stance was a matter of survival, Sweden has been opposed to joining the organisation for ideological reasons. The ruling Social Democratic Party is currently conducting a security policy review in its parliament to analyse the pros and cons of joining NATO. In terms of public perception, the Swedes seem to be on the same page with the Finns. A poll conducted by Swedish daily showed support for a NATO membership rise to 61 per cent, as compared to a 42 per cent in January. [/su_spoiler] [su_spoiler open="no" title="What the concerns raised with regard to Finland/Sweden joining NATO?" style="fancy" icon="chevron"] Put simply, the risk here is that such a major expansion of Nato, right on Russia's doorstep, will enrage Russia so much that it retaliates. Putin has already threatened to take "military technical measures" in response this expansion. It is widely taken to be two things - a reinforcing of its own borders by moving troops and missiles closer to the West, and possibly a stepping up of cyber attacks on Scandinavia. Dmitry Medvedev, a close ally to Putin has warned that this may prompt Moscow to deploy nuclear weapons in Kaliningrad, the Russian exclave between Poland and Lithuania. Staying neutral has served Finland and Sweden very well over the years. Giving up that neutrality is not to be taken lightly. There will also be an economic cost for Sweden's domestic arms industry if the country is obliged to buy Nato weapons instead of its own. [/su_spoiler] [su_spoiler open="no" title="How has West reacted to Finland & Sweden willing to join NATO?" style="fancy" icon="chevron"] NATO, too, has shown eagerness about Finland and Sweden’s memberships. Usually, becoming an official NATO member can take up to a year as it requires the approval of all existing member states. However, NATO Secretary General has ensured that the countries could join quickly and that the organisation would make full security arrangements during the interim period. Fellow European nations and the United States have welcomed the announcement. Norway and Denmark said that they would push for a faster approval of NATO admission. The US stated that it was ready to provide any defence support or address concerns that might arise till the membership becomes official. [/su_spoiler] Mains Practice Question - What are the security implication if Finland and Sweden join NATO? Note: Write answers to this question in the comment section.  

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 13th May 2022

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) [su_box title="Regional Branches of Top Court" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Open in new window Syllabus Prelims - Polity Mains - GS 2 (Judiciary) In news: Tamil Nadu Chief Minister has written to Prime Minister and Chief Justice of India on need for regional branches of top court and urging that Tamil be made the official language of Madras High Court Why there is a demand for regional branches? Pendency of cases: The Supreme Court’s statistics show that 70,362 cases are pending with it as of April 1, 2022 Article 39A says that the state shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice, on a basis of equal opportunity and it shall ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities. Travelling to New Delhi or engaging expensive Supreme Court counsel to pursue a case is beyond the means of most litigants. Recommendation of Law Commission: The Tenth Law Commission of India (95th Report) recommended The Supreme Court of India should consist of two Divisions, namely (a) Constitutional Division, and (b) Legal Division. Constitutional Division Bench to be set up at Delhi and Legal Division to be set up in four zones (North, South, East and West) of India Constitutional Provisions The Constitution declares Delhi as the seat of the Supreme Court Article 130 authorizes the CJI to appoint other place or places as seat of the Supreme Court. He can take decision in this regard only with the approval of the President. This provision is only optional and not compulsory. This means that no court can give any direction either to the President or to the Chief Justice to appoint any other place as the seat of the Supreme Court. Languages of Higher Judiciary Article 348(1) (a) states that unless Parliament by law provides otherwise, all proceedings before the Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be conducted in English. Article 348(2) provides further that notwithstanding the provisions of Article 348(1), the Governor of a state may, with the previous consent of the President, authorize the use of Hindi or any other language used for any official purpose, in proceedings in the High Court. States of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh have already authorized the use of Hindi in proceedings before their respective high courts A further provision states that nothing in this clause would apply to any judgment, decree, or order made by the High Court Therefore, the Constitution recognizes English as the primary language of the Supreme Court and the High Courts, with the condition that when some other language is used in the proceedings of High Courts, judgments of the High Courts must be delivered in English. Official Languages Act 1963: It empowers the Governor of a state to, with previous consent of the President; authorize the use of Hindi/the official language of the state, in addition to English, for the purpose of any judgement, decree or order passed by the High Court of that state. It further provides that where any judgement/decree/order is passed in any such language it shall be accompanied by a translation of the same in English. Source: Indian Express [/su_box] [su_box title="Black Hole" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Open in new window Syllabus Prelims - Science and Technology Mains – GS 3 (Achievements of Indians in Science & Technology) In News: Scientists from the Event Horizon Telescope (EHT) facility, revealed the first image of the black hole at the centre of the Milky Way. Astronomers believe nearly all galaxies, including our own, have these giant black holes at their centre The Milky Way black hole is called Sagittarius A*, near the border of Sagittarius and Scorpius constellations. It is 4 million times more massive than our sun. The image of Sagittarius A* (SgrA*) gave further support to the idea that the compact object at the centre of our galaxy is indeed a black hole, strengthening Einstein’s general theory of relativity. What is Black Hole? Black hole refers to a point in space where matter is so compressed as to create a gravity field from which even light cannot escape. Light gets chaotically bent and twisted around by gravity as it gets sucked into the abyss along with superheated gas and dust. Black-holes were theorized by Albert Einstein in 1915. A black hole has two parts: Singularity at its core– a point that is infinitely dense, as all the remnant mass of the star is compressed into this point. Event Horizon - There is a region of space beyond the black hole called the event horizon. This is a "point of no return", beyond which it is impossible to escape the gravitational effects of the black hole. Event Horizon Telescope Project EHT is a group of 8 radio telescopes located in different parts of the world. In 2006, an international team of more than 200 researchers, led by Harvard University astronomers, launched the Event Horizon Telescope (EHT) project with a sole aim: to capture a direct shot of a black hole. General Theory of Relativity Essentially, it's a theory of gravity. The basic idea is that instead of being an invisible force that attracts objects to one another, gravity is a curving or warping of space. The more massive an object, the more it warps the space around it Previous Year Questions (PYQs) Q.1) Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘blackholes’ billions of light-years away from the earth. What is the significance of this observation? (2019) ‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected. ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected. Possibility of inter-galactic space travel through ‘wormhole’ was confirmed. It enabled the scientists to understand to ‘singularity’. Source: The Hindu & Indian Express [/su_box] [su_box title="Chief Election Commissioner" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity Mains - GS 2 (Appointment to various Constitutional Posts, Powers, Functions and Responsibilities of various Constitutional Bodies) Why in News: the current Election Commissioner, Rajiv Kumar will take over as the next Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) Election Commission Part XV of the Indian constitution deals with elections, and establishes a commission for these matters. The Election Commission was established in accordance with the Constitution on 25th January 1950. Article 324 to 329 of the constitution deals with powers, function, tenure, eligibility, etc of the commission and the member Structure of the Commission Election Commissioner Amendment Act 1989, it has been made a multi-member body The commission consists of one Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners. The President appoints Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners. Tenure They have a fixed tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as available to Judges of the Supreme Court of India. Removal The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only through a process of removal similar to that of a Supreme Court judge for by Parliament. They can resign anytime or can also be removed before the expiry of their term. Functions The body administers elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and State Legislative Assemblies in India, and the offices of the President and Vice President in the country To determine the territorial areas of the electoral constituencies throughout the country on the basis of the Delimitation Commission Act of Parliament To prepare and periodically revise electoral rolls and to register all eligible voters To grant recognition to political parties and allot election symbols to them Election Commission ensures a level playing field for the political parties in election fray, through strict observance by them of a Model Code of Conduct the Commission has advisory jurisdiction in the matter of post election disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures The opinion of the Commission in all such matters is binding on the President or, as the case may be, the Governor to whom such opinion is tendered The Commission has the power to disqualify a candidate who has failed to lodge an account of his election expenses within the time and in the manner prescribed by law Limitations: The Constitution has not prescribed the qualifications of the members of the Election Commission. The Constitution has not specified the term of the members of the Election Commission. The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government. Previous Year Questions (PYQs) Q.1) With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements: (2021) The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and by-elections. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties. Select the correct code: 1 and 2 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Source: Indian Express [/su_box] [su_box title="Panniru Tirumurai" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Open in new window Syllabus Prelims - History Mains – GS 1 (Indian Culture - Salient aspects of Art Forms, Literature and Architecture from ancient to modern times) Panniru Tirumurai The Panniru Tirumurai is, as the name suggests, a 12-part compilation book This was a work in progress for over 600 years as it begins with the Thevaram — the hymns by Sambandar, Appar and Sundarar (the foremost of the 63 Tamil Saivite saints collectively known as the Nayanmar or Arupathumoovar) The first seven sections of the Tirumurai comprise the works by the above saints. These were compiled in the 11th century by the scholar Nambiyandar Nambi The eighth Tirumurai is dedicated to the creations of Manikkavachagar, While ninth Tirumurai comprises the works of nine lesser-known poets of the time of King Raja Raja Chola I (r 992-1014 CE), collectively known as the Tiruvisaippa. The last section is Sekkizhar’s Periya Puranam, the hagiography of the Arupathumoovar written in the 12th century. After the Sangam works, this would perhaps be the next voluminous corpus. The 18,000 verses that it comprises are a valuable archive of not only the creative output of several Saiva saints but also of the various shrines they visited, their observations of life and the evolution of Tamil language. Previous Year Questions (PYQs) Q.1) With reference to cultural history of India, consider the following statements: (2018) Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna. Tyagaraja created several new ragas. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries. Annamacharya kirtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara. Select the correct code: 1 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 Source: The Hindu [/su_box] [su_box title="Advance Version of BrahMos" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Open in new window Syllabus Prelims - Science and Technology Mains - GS 3 (Achievements of Indians in Science & Technology; Indigenization of Technology and Developing New Technology) Why in News: Two months after the extended-range BrahMos missile was tested from a naval ship, the missile was air-launched from a Su-30 MKI aircraft About BrahMos: BrahMos is an indigenously manufactured supersonic cruise missile, jointly developed with Russia Name: BrahMos is named on the rivers Brahmaputra and Moskva. Stages in Brahmos Missile: It is a two-stage (solid propellant engine in the first stage and liquid ramjet in second) missile. Multiplatform Missile:e. it can be launched from land, air, and sea and multi capability missile with pinpoint accuracy that works in both day and night irrespective of the weather conditions. Fire and Forgets Principle: It operates on the "Fire and Forgets" principle i.e. it does not require further guidance after launch. Range: The range of BrahMos was earlier around 290 km, which, with the new version, has reached around 350 km. Speed: Brahmos is one of the fastest cruise missile currently operationally deployed with speed of Mach 2.8, which is nearly 3 times more than the speed of sound. Source: Indian Express [/su_box] Baba's Explainer - Marital Rape [su_box title="Marital Rape" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Syllabus GS-1: Issues relating to Women GS-2: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation Why In News:  The Delhi High Court has recently delivered a split verdict on decriminalizing marital rape in the country. Read Complete Details on Marital Rape - CLICK HERE [/su_box] Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following statements The Constitution of India states that all proceedings before the Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be conducted in English The governor of a state, with consent of the President can authorize the use of Hindi or Other official language in proceedings in the High Court Choose the correct statements: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to BrahMos Missile, consider the following statements BrahMos is an indigenously manufactured hypersonic cruise missile It can be launched from land, air, and sea It operates on the Fire and Forget principle It is a two-stage missile Choose the correct code: 1, 2 and 4 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 All of the above Q.3) With reference to functions of Election Commission of India, Consider the following statements It grants recognition to political parties and allot election symbols to them Monitors strict observance of a Model Code of Conduct Power to disqualify a candidate who has failed to lodge an account of his election expenses within the time and manner prescribed Choose the correct statements: 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 and 3 ANSWERS FOR 13th MAY 2022 - Daily Practice MCQs 1 c 2 c 3 a  

UPSC हिन्दी Quiz– 2022: IASbaba Daily Current Affairs Quiz 14th May 2022

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE करेंट अफेयर्स के प्रश्न 'द हिंदू', 'इंडियन एक्सप्रेस' और 'पीआईबी' जैसे स्रोतों पर आधारित होते हैं, जो यूपीएससी प्रारंभिक परीक्षा के लिए बहुत महत्वपूर्ण स्रोत हैं। प्रश्न अवधारणाओं और तथ्यों दोनों पर केंद्रित हैं। दोहराव से बचने के लिए यहां कवर किए गए विषय आम तौर पर 'दैनिक करंट अफेयर्स / डेली न्यूज एनालिसिस (डीएनए) और डेली स्टेटिक क्विज' के तहत कवर किए जा रहे विषयों से भिन्न होते हैं। प्रश्न सोमवार से शनिवार तक दोपहर 2 बजे से पहले प्रकाशित किए जाएंगे। इस कार्य में आपको 10 मिनट से ज्यादा नहीं देना है। इस कार्य के लिए तैयार हो जाएं और इस पहल का इष्टतम तरीके से उपयोग करें। याद रखें कि, "साधारण अभ्यर्थी और चयनित होने वाले अभ्यर्थी के बीच का अंतर केवल दैनक अभ्यास है !!" Important Note: Comment अनुभाग में अपने अंक पोस्ट करना न भूलें। साथ ही, हमें बताएं कि क्या आपको आज का टेस्ट अच्छा लगा । 5 प्रश्नों को पूरा करने के बाद, अपना स्कोर, समय और उत्तर देखने के लिए ‘View Questions’ पर क्लिक करें। उत्तर देखने के लिए, इन निर्देशों का पालन करें: 1 - 'स्टार्ट टेस्ट/ Start Test' बटन पर क्लिक करें प्रश्न हल करें'टेस्ट सारांश/Test Summary'बटन पर क्लिक करें'फिनिश टेस्ट/Finish Test'बटन पर क्लिक करेंअब ‘View Questions’बटन पर क्लिक करें - यहां आपको उत्तर और लिंक दिखाई देंगे।   To take the Test -Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2022 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 14th May 2022

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test -Click Here

[DAY 54] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2022 – ENVIRONMENT, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT; Test Series, Videos & Notes!

                                                                                                   Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba's Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants' community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes 1. Daily RaRe Series (RRS) Videos on High Probable Topics (Monday – Saturday) In video discussions, special focus is given to topics which have high probability to appear in UPSC Prelims Question Paper.Each session will be of 20 mins to 30 mins, which would cover rapid revision of 15 high probable topics (both static and current affairs) important for Prelims Exam this year according to the schedule. Note – The Videos will be available only in English. 2. Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes Right material plays important role in clearing the exam and Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes will have Prelims specific subject-wise refined notes.The main objective is to help students revise most important topics and that too within a very short limited time frame. Note - PDFs of Daily Tests & Solution and 'Daily Notes' will be updated in PDF Format which are downloadable in both English & हिंदी. 3. Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule and in the RaRe videos.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. 4. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. 5. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Saturday) CSAT has been an achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note - Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis in Both English and हिंदी. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Notes & Solutions DAY 54– CLICK HERE Note –  Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come.It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis.   Important Note Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :) You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score(2) Matrix Meter(3) New Learning from the Test To take the Test -Click Here       All the Best IASbaba

[DAY 53] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES हिन्दी for UPSC Prelims 2022- SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT; Test Series, Videos & Notes!

                                                                                                          Archives Hello Friends 60 दिनों की रैपिड रिवीजन (RaRe) सीरीज IASbaba की एक महत्त्वपूर्ण पहल है जो टॉपर्स द्वारा अनुशंसित है और हर साल अभ्यर्थियों द्वारा सबसे ज्यादा पसंद की जाती है। यह सबसे व्यापक कार्यक्रम है जो आपको दैनिक आधार पर पाठ्यक्रम को पूरा करने, रिवीजन करने और टेस्ट का अभ्यास करने में मदद करेगा। दैनिक आधार पर कार्यक्रम में शामिल हैं उच्च संभावित टॉपिक्स पर दैनिक रैपिड रिवीजन (RaRe) सीरीज वीडियो (सोमवार – शनिवार) वीडियो चर्चा में, उन टॉपिक्स पर विशेष ध्यान दिया जाता है जिनकी UPSC प्रारंभिक परीक्षा के प्रश्न पत्र में आने की उच्च संभावना होती है।प्रत्येक सत्र 20 मिनट से 30 मिनट का होगा, जिसमें कार्यक्रम के अनुसार इस वर्ष प्रीलिम्स परीक्षा के लिए महत्वपूर्ण 15 उच्च संभावित टॉपिक्स (स्टैटिक और समसामयिक दोनों) का तेजी से रिवीजन शामिल होगा। Note – वीडियो केवल अंग्रेज़ी में उपलब्ध होंगे रैपिड रिवीजन नोट्स परीक्षा को पास करने में सही सामग्री महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाती है और रैपिड रिवीजन (RaRe) नोट्स में प्रीलिम्स विशिष्ट विषय-वार परिष्कृत नोट्स होंगे।मुख्य उद्देश्य छात्रों को सबसे महत्वपूर्ण टॉपिक्स को रिवाइज़ करने में मदद करना है और वह भी बहुत कम सीमित समय सीमा के भीतर करना है Note - दैनिक टेस्ट और विस्तृत व्याख्या की पीडीएफ और 'दैनिक नोट्स' को पीडीएफ प्रारूप में अपडेट किया जाएगा जो अंग्रेजी और हिन्दी दोनों में डाउनलोड करने योग्य होंगे। दैनिक प्रीलिम्स MCQs स्टेटिक (सोमवार – शनिवार) दैनिक स्टेटिक क्विज़ में स्टेटिक विषयों के सभी टॉपिक्स शामिल होंगे - राजनीति, इतिहास, भूगोल, अर्थशास्त्र, पर्यावरण तथा विज्ञान एवं प्रौद्योगिकी।20 प्रश्न प्रतिदिन पोस्ट किए जाएंगे और इन प्रश्नों को शेड्यूल में उल्लिखित टॉपिक्स और RaRe वीडियो से तैयार किया गया है।यह आपके स्टैटिक टॉपिक्स का समय पर और सुव्यवस्थित रिवीजन सुनिश्चित करेगा। दैनिक करेंट अफेयर्स MCQs (सोमवार – शनिवार) दैनिक 5 करेंट अफेयर्स प्रश्न, 'द हिंदू', 'इंडियन एक्सप्रेस' और 'पीआईबी' जैसे स्रोतों पर आधारित, शेड्यूल के अनुसार सोमवार से शनिवार तक प्रकाशित किए जाएंगे। दैनिक CSAT Quiz (सोमवार –शनिवार) सीसैट कई अभ्यर्थियों के लिए परेशानी का कारण रहा है।दैनिक रूप से 5 सीसैट प्रश्न प्रकाशित किए जाएंगे। Note - 20 स्टैटिक प्रश्नों, 5 करेंट अफेयर्स प्रश्नों और 5 CSAT प्रश्नों का दैनिक रूप से टेस्ट। (30 प्रारंभिक परीक्षा प्रश्न) प्रश्नोत्तरी प्रारूप में अंग्रेजी और हिंदी दोनों में दैनिक आधार पर अपडेट किया जाएगा। 60 DAY रैपिड रिवीजन (RaRe) सीरीज के बारे में अधिक जानने के लिए  – CLICK HERE   Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Notes & Solutions DAY 53– CLICK HERE Note –  Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come.It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Important Note Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :) You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score(2) Matrix Meter(3) New Learning from the Test To take the Test -Click Here All the Best IASbaba