Verify it's really you

Please re-enter your password to continue with this action.

Posts

UPSC हिन्दी Quiz– 2022: IASbaba Daily Current Affairs Quiz 17th May 2022

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE करेंट अफेयर्स के प्रश्न 'द हिंदू', 'इंडियन एक्सप्रेस' और 'पीआईबी' जैसे स्रोतों पर आधारित होते हैं, जो यूपीएससी प्रारंभिक परीक्षा के लिए बहुत महत्वपूर्ण स्रोत हैं। प्रश्न अवधारणाओं और तथ्यों दोनों पर केंद्रित हैं। दोहराव से बचने के लिए यहां कवर किए गए विषय आम तौर पर 'दैनिक करंट अफेयर्स / डेली न्यूज एनालिसिस (डीएनए) और डेली स्टेटिक क्विज' के तहत कवर किए जा रहे विषयों से भिन्न होते हैं। प्रश्न सोमवार से शनिवार तक दोपहर 2 बजे से पहले प्रकाशित किए जाएंगे। इस कार्य में आपको 10 मिनट से ज्यादा नहीं देना है। इस कार्य के लिए तैयार हो जाएं और इस पहल का इष्टतम तरीके से उपयोग करें। याद रखें कि, "साधारण अभ्यर्थी और चयनित होने वाले अभ्यर्थी के बीच का अंतर केवल दैनक अभ्यास है !!" Important Note: Comment अनुभाग में अपने अंक पोस्ट करना न भूलें। साथ ही, हमें बताएं कि क्या आपको आज का टेस्ट अच्छा लगा । 5 प्रश्नों को पूरा करने के बाद, अपना स्कोर, समय और उत्तर देखने के लिए ‘View Questions’ पर क्लिक करें। उत्तर देखने के लिए, इन निर्देशों का पालन करें: 1 - 'स्टार्ट टेस्ट/ Start Test' बटन पर क्लिक करें प्रश्न हल करें'टेस्ट सारांश/Test Summary'बटन पर क्लिक करें'फिनिश टेस्ट/Finish Test'बटन पर क्लिक करेंअब ‘View Questions’बटन पर क्लिक करें - यहां आपको उत्तर और लिंक दिखाई देंगे।To take the Test -Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2022 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 17th May 2022

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test -Click Here

[DAY 56] 60 DAY RAPID RE-VISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2022 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT; Test Series, Videos & Notes!

                                                                                                   Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba's Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants' community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes 1. Daily RaRe Series (RRS) Videos on High Probable Topics (Monday – Saturday) In video discussions, special focus is given to topics which have high probability to appear in UPSC Prelims Question Paper.Each session will be of 20 mins to 30 mins, which would cover rapid revision of 15 high probable topics (both static and current affairs) important for Prelims Exam this year according to the schedule. Note – The Videos will be available only in English. 2. Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes Right material plays important role in clearing the exam and Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes will have Prelims specific subject-wise refined notes.The main objective is to help students revise most important topics and that too within a very short limited time frame. Note - PDFs of Daily Tests & Solution and 'Daily Notes' will be updated in PDF Format which are downloadable in both English & हिंदी. 3. Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule and in the RaRe videos.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. 4. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. 5. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Saturday) CSAT has been an achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note - Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis in Both English and हिंदी. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Notes & Solutions DAY 56– CLICK HERE Note –  Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come.It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis.   Important Note Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :) You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score(2) Matrix Meter(3) New Learning from the Test To take the Test - Click Here       All the Best IASbaba

[DAY 55] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES हिन्दी for UPSC Prelims 2022- GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT; Test Series, Videos & Notes!

                                                                                                      Archives Hello Friends 60 दिनों की रैपिड रिवीजन (RaRe) सीरीज IASbaba की एक महत्त्वपूर्ण पहल है जो टॉपर्स द्वारा अनुशंसित है और हर साल अभ्यर्थियों द्वारा सबसे ज्यादा पसंद की जाती है। यह सबसे व्यापक कार्यक्रम है जो आपको दैनिक आधार पर पाठ्यक्रम को पूरा करने, रिवीजन करने और टेस्ट का अभ्यास करने में मदद करेगा। दैनिक आधार पर कार्यक्रम में शामिल हैं उच्च संभावित टॉपिक्स पर दैनिक रैपिड रिवीजन (RaRe) सीरीज वीडियो (सोमवार – शनिवार) वीडियो चर्चा में, उन टॉपिक्स पर विशेष ध्यान दिया जाता है जिनकी UPSC प्रारंभिक परीक्षा के प्रश्न पत्र में आने की उच्च संभावना होती है।प्रत्येक सत्र 20 मिनट से 30 मिनट का होगा, जिसमें कार्यक्रम के अनुसार इस वर्ष प्रीलिम्स परीक्षा के लिए महत्वपूर्ण 15 उच्च संभावित टॉपिक्स (स्टैटिक और समसामयिक दोनों) का तेजी से रिवीजन शामिल होगा। Note – वीडियो केवल अंग्रेज़ी में उपलब्ध होंगे रैपिड रिवीजन नोट्स परीक्षा को पास करने में सही सामग्री महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाती है और रैपिड रिवीजन (RaRe) नोट्स में प्रीलिम्स विशिष्ट विषय-वार परिष्कृत नोट्स होंगे।मुख्य उद्देश्य छात्रों को सबसे महत्वपूर्ण टॉपिक्स को रिवाइज़ करने में मदद करना है और वह भी बहुत कम सीमित समय सीमा के भीतर करना है Note - दैनिक टेस्ट और विस्तृत व्याख्या की पीडीएफ और 'दैनिक नोट्स' को पीडीएफ प्रारूप में अपडेट किया जाएगा जो अंग्रेजी और हिन्दी दोनों में डाउनलोड करने योग्य होंगे। दैनिक प्रीलिम्स MCQs स्टेटिक (सोमवार – शनिवार) दैनिक स्टेटिक क्विज़ में स्टेटिक विषयों के सभी टॉपिक्स शामिल होंगे - राजनीति, इतिहास, भूगोल, अर्थशास्त्र, पर्यावरण तथा विज्ञान एवं प्रौद्योगिकी।20 प्रश्न प्रतिदिन पोस्ट किए जाएंगे और इन प्रश्नों को शेड्यूल में उल्लिखित टॉपिक्स और RaRe वीडियो से तैयार किया गया है।यह आपके स्टैटिक टॉपिक्स का समय पर और सुव्यवस्थित रिवीजन सुनिश्चित करेगा। दैनिक करेंट अफेयर्स MCQs (सोमवार – शनिवार) दैनिक 5 करेंट अफेयर्स प्रश्न, 'द हिंदू', 'इंडियन एक्सप्रेस' और 'पीआईबी' जैसे स्रोतों पर आधारित, शेड्यूल के अनुसार सोमवार से शनिवार तक प्रकाशित किए जाएंगे। दैनिक CSAT Quiz (सोमवार –शनिवार) सीसैट कई अभ्यर्थियों के लिए परेशानी का कारण रहा है।दैनिक रूप से 5 सीसैट प्रश्न प्रकाशित किए जाएंगे। Note - 20 स्टैटिक प्रश्नों, 5 करेंट अफेयर्स प्रश्नों और 5 CSAT प्रश्नों का दैनिक रूप से टेस्ट। (30 प्रारंभिक परीक्षा प्रश्न) प्रश्नोत्तरी प्रारूप में अंग्रेजी और हिंदी दोनों में दैनिक आधार पर अपडेट किया जाएगा। 60 DAY रैपिड रिवीजन (RaRe) सीरीज के बारे में अधिक जानने के लिए  – CLICK HERE   Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Notes & Solutions DAY 55– CLICK HERE Note –  Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come.It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Important Note Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :) You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score(2) Matrix Meter(3) New Learning from the Test To take the Test -Click Here All the Best IASbaba

Baba’s Explainer

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 16th May 2022

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) [su_box title="RNA Granules" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Open in new window Syllabus Prelims - Science and Technology Mains – GS 3 (Science and Technology- Developments and their Applications and Effects in Everyday Life) Why in News: In yeast cells, a protein (sbp1) promotes disintegration of RNA granules, the study found that the Sbp1 protein helps in reducing the aggregates of human proteins involved in neurodegenerative disorders. What is an RNA granule? In the cytoplasm of any cell and one comes across structures made of messenger RNA (mRNA) and proteins known as RNA granules Unlike other structures in the cell (such as mitochondria), the RNA granules are not covered and confined by a membrane This makes them highly dynamic in nature, thereby allowing them to constantly exchange components with the surrounding RNA granules are present in the cytoplasm at low numbers under normal conditions but increase in number and size under stressful conditions including diseases. A defining feature which does not change from one organism to another (conserved) of the RNA granule protein components is the presence of stretches containing repeats of certain amino acids Such stretches are referred to as low complexity regions. Repeats of arginine (R), glycine (G) and glycine (G) — known as RGG — are an example of low complexity sequence. Protein Synthesis Messenger RNAs are converted to proteins (building blocks of the cell) by the process of translation. RNA granules determine messenger RNA (mRNA) fate by deciding when and how much protein would be produced from mRNA. Protein synthesis is a multi-step and energy expensive process. Therefore, a common strategy used by cells when it encounters unfavorable conditions is to shut down protein production and conserve energy to deal with the stressful situation. RNA granules help in the process of shutting down protein production. Some RNA granule types (such as Processing bodies or P-bodies) not only regulate protein production but also accomplish degradation and elimination of the mRNAs, which in turn helps in reducing protein production. Treatment of disease In recent years, a strong link has emerged between RNA granules and neurodegenerative disorders such as Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) and Frontotemporal Dementia (FTD). The proteins implicated in these diseases are RNA binding proteins that can reside in RNA granules. These proteins also contain low complexity sequences (repeats of amino acids) that are important for their movement into RNA granules. In fact, these proteins are deposited as insoluble granules/aggregates in the neurons of ALS and FTD patients which are believed to contribute to the pathophysiology of these diseases. Finding ways of solubilizing these aggregates could provide a breakthrough in treating these diseases. Findings of the study A recent study has identified a protein (Sbp1) as a factor that dissolves the RNA granules (P-bodies) The work also concluded that low complexity sequences (containing repeats of arginine (R) and glycine (G) amino acids — RGG) which normally promote granule formation, in this case promote the disintegration of RNA granules in yeast cells. The identified protein Sbp1 is specific for dissolving P-bodies and not stress granules which are related RNA granule types also present in the cytoplasm. This finding can be used to treat neurodegenerative disorders such as Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) and Frontotemporal Dementia (FTD). Previous Year Questions (PYQs) Q.1) RNA interference (RNAi)’ technology has gained popularity in the last few years. why? (2019) It is used in developing gene silencing therapies. It can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to virtual pathogens. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1, 2 and 4 2 and 3 1 and 3 1 and 4 only Source: The Hindu [/su_box] [su_box title="Pullulan Polymer" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Mains – GS 3 (Science and Technology- Developments and their Applications and Effects in Everyday Life) In News: Biomaterial from fungal extract helps heal wounds Pullulan polymer The biomaterial is derived from the polymer pullulan which is secreted by the fungus Aureobasidium pullulans. It is an exopolysaccharide, that is, this polymer is secreted by the fungus itself into the medium on which it is growing. Pullulan as a biomaterial is already successful and widely used commercially. It is exploited in food, cosmetics and pharmaceutical industry because of its non-toxic, non-mutagenic and non-immunogenic properties. In the biomedicine sector, it has been used for drug and gene delivery Disinfecting the wounds and hastening the process of healing Pullulan is basically a polymeric chain of glucose by keeping the biocompatible carbohydrate backbone of the polymer intact and adding some quaternary ammonium groups, make the polymer positively charged They process the polymer to get a powder which is water-soluble. This solution can be applied on the wound surface and then covered with sterile gauze. This can also be used in a gel form. With this gel the wounds can be disinfected and also healed faster. Previous Year Questions (PYQs) Q.1) What is cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news? (2019) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing. A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients. A gene that makes plants pest-resistant A herbicidal substance synthesized in generally modified crops Q.2) The term ‘ACE2’ is talked about in the context of (2021) genes introduced in the genetically modified plants development of India’s own satellite navigation system radio collar for wildlife tracking spread of viral diseases Source: The Hindu [/su_box] [su_box title="Thomas Cup" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Mains – GS 3 (Achievements of Indians in Science & Technology; Indigenization of Technology and Developing New Technology) Syllabus Prelims - Current Affairs In News: India lifts first-ever Thomas Cup after 3-0 wins over Indonesia A determined Indian men’s team etched its name in the history books by lifting the Thomas Cup title for the first time with a dominant 3-0 win over 14-time champions Indonesia in the final. India dished out a performance for the ages with World Championships medallist Lakshya Sen, Kidambi Srikanth and world number 8 doubles duo of Chirag Shetty and Satwiksairaj Rankireddy producing memorable performances. Thomas Cup The Thomas Cup, sometimes called the World Men's Team Championships, is an international badminton competition among teams representing member nations of the Badminton World Federation (BWF), the sport's global governing body. The championships have been conducted every two years since 1982, amended from being conducted every three years since the first tournament held in 1948–1949. Previous Year Questions (PYQs) Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000: American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award. The award has been received mostly by ‘Formula One' players so far. Roger Federer received this award the maximum number of times compared to others. Select the correct code: 1 and 2 Only 2 and 3 Only 1 and 3 Only 1, 2 and 3 Source: Indian Express [/su_box] [su_box title="National Register of Citizens (NRC)" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity Mains – GS 2 (Citizenship, Federalism; Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation) In News: The State Coordinator of National Register of Citizens (NRC), Assam has requested members of foreigners tribunals across the state not to consider draft NRC and supplementary list as reliable evidence for disposal of cases under judicial or quasi-judicial process Reason - Final NRC is yet to be published by the Registrar General of Citizens Registration which is mandatory as per cause 7 of the Schedule of the Citizenship Rules, 2003. Before that there is possibility reverification of names considering the errors. Results of the Draft NRC and Supplementary list may change when Final NRC gets published NRC National Register of Citizens, 1951 is a register prepared after the conduct of the Census of 1951 in respect of each village, showing the houses or holdings in a serial order and indicating against each house or holding the number and names of persons staying therein. The NRC was published only once in 1951. This NRC was prepared under a directive from the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). NRC in Assam The NRC in Assam is basically a list of Indian citizens living in the state. The citizens’ register sets out to identify foreign nationals in the state that borders Bangladesh. The reason behind the move was to identify Indian citizens in Assam amid "unabated" migration from East Pakistan (now Bangladesh). How will the NRC be updated? The NRC will be updated as per the provisions of The Citizenship Act, 1955 and The Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and Issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003. Eligibility for inclusion in updated NRC Persons whose names appear in NRC, 1951 Persons whose names appear in the Electoral Rolls up to 24th March (midnight), 1971 Descendants of the above persons Persons who came to Assam from Bangladesh between 1st January 1966 and 25th March 1971 and registered themselves with the Foreigner Regional Registration Office (FRRO) and were declared by the Foreigner Tribunal as Indian citizens. All Indian Citizens including their children and descendants who have moved to Assam post 24th March 1971 would be eligible for inclusion in the updated NRC on adducing satisfactory proof of residence in any part of the country (outside Assam) as of 24th March 1971. Persons who can provide any of the admissible documents issued up to 24th March midnight, 1971.  Objectives and need  It effectively suggests bringing legislation that will enable the government to identify infiltrators who have been living in India illegally, detain them and finally deport them where they came from. It will target illegal immigrants in India. Foreigners Tribunals The tribunals are quasi-judicial bodies, to determine if a person staying illegally is a “foreigner” or not. Every individual, whose name does not figure in the final National Register of Citizens (NRC), can represent his/her case in front of the appellate authority i.e. Foreigners Tribunals (FT). Composition: Advocates not below the age of 35 years of age with at least 7 years of practice (or) Retired Judicial Officers from the Assam Judicial Service (or) Retired IAS of ACS Officers (not below the rank of Secretary/Addl. Secretary) having experience in quasi-judicial works. Who can setup these tribunals? The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has amended the Foreigners (Tribunals) Order, 1964, and has empowered district magistrates in all States and Union Territories to set up tribunals (quasi-judicial bodies) to decide whether a person staying illegally in India is a foreigner or not. Earlier, the powers to constitute tribunals were vested only with the Centre. Who can approach? The amended order (Foreigners (Tribunal) Order, 2019) also empowers individuals to approach the Tribunals. Earlier, only the State administration could move the Tribunal against a suspect. Previous Year Questions (PYQs) Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2013) The National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice. Select the correct code: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Source: Hindustan Times [/su_box] [su_box title="Shrivelled Wheat" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Current Affairs Mains – GS 1 (Important Geophysical Phenomena such as earthquakes, Tsunami, Volcanic activity, cyclones etc., geographical features and their location-changes in critical geographical features and in flora and fauna and the effects of such changes) In News: The Centre announced a major relaxation in the Fair and Average Quality (FAQ) norms of wheat by raising the maximum permissible limit of “shrivelled and broken grains” to 18 per cent from the existing 6 per cent The move is aimed at providing relief to Punjab and Haryana farmers during the ongoing rabi marketing season. The move comes after the two states wrote to the Centre, seeking relaxation in the Uniform Specifications of Wheat for RMS 2022-23. The emergence of shrivelled grains is a natural phenomenon appearing as a result of extreme heat wave that enveloped the northern part of the country in March. Source: Indian Express [/su_box] Baba's Explainer - OBC Reservations [su_box title="NATO" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Syllabus GS-2: Governance & Policy MeasuresGS-2: Equality & EquityWhy In News: Why In News: Supreme Court has stayed 27 percent reservation for OBCs in local body polls in Madhya Pradesh. Read Complete Details on OBC Reservations - CLICK HERE [/su_box] Daily Practice MCQs [su_box title="Daily Practice MCQs" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Q.1) With reference to RNA Granules, consider the following statements RNA granules are found in the cytoplasm of the cell RNA granules are covered and confined by a membrane RNA granules help in the process of shutting down protein production Select the correct code: 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 and 3 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements It is a biomaterial secreted by the fungus Aureobasidium pullulans It’s been used for drug and gene delivery in the biomedicine sector Choose the correct code: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) Consider the following statements Foreigners’ Tribunal is a quasi-judicial body District magistrates in all States and Union Territories is empowered to set up Foreigners’ Tribunal Only state administration could move the Tribunal against a suspect Choose the incorrect statements: 1 and 2 1, 2 and 3 2 and 3 1 and 3 [/su_box] ANSWERS FOR 16th MAY 2022 - Daily Practice MCQs 1 b 2 c 3 a

[DAY 55] 60 DAY RAPID RE-VISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2022 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT; Test Series, Videos & Notes!

                                                                                                    Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba's Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants' community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes 1. Daily RaRe Series (RRS) Videos on High Probable Topics (Monday – Saturday) In video discussions, special focus is given to topics which have high probability to appear in UPSC Prelims Question Paper.Each session will be of 20 mins to 30 mins, which would cover rapid revision of 15 high probable topics (both static and current affairs) important for Prelims Exam this year according to the schedule. Note – The Videos will be available only in English. 2. Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes Right material plays important role in clearing the exam and Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes will have Prelims specific subject-wise refined notes.The main objective is to help students revise most important topics and that too within a very short limited time frame. Note - PDFs of Daily Tests & Solution and 'Daily Notes' will be updated in PDF Format which are downloadable in both English & हिंदी. 3. Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule and in the RaRe videos.It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. 4. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. 5. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Saturday) CSAT has been an achilles heel for many aspirants.Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note - Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis in Both English and हिंदी. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Notes & Solutions DAY 55– CLICK HERE Note –  Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come.It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis.   Important Note Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :) You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score(2) Matrix Meter(3) New Learning from the Test To take the Test - Click Here       All the Best IASbaba

UPSC हिन्दी Quiz– 2022: IASbaba Daily Current Affairs Quiz 16th May 2022

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE करेंट अफेयर्स के प्रश्न 'द हिंदू', 'इंडियन एक्सप्रेस' और 'पीआईबी' जैसे स्रोतों पर आधारित होते हैं, जो यूपीएससी प्रारंभिक परीक्षा के लिए बहुत महत्वपूर्ण स्रोत हैं। प्रश्न अवधारणाओं और तथ्यों दोनों पर केंद्रित हैं। दोहराव से बचने के लिए यहां कवर किए गए विषय आम तौर पर 'दैनिक करंट अफेयर्स / डेली न्यूज एनालिसिस (डीएनए) और डेली स्टेटिक क्विज' के तहत कवर किए जा रहे विषयों से भिन्न होते हैं। प्रश्न सोमवार से शनिवार तक दोपहर 2 बजे से पहले प्रकाशित किए जाएंगे। इस कार्य में आपको 10 मिनट से ज्यादा नहीं देना है। इस कार्य के लिए तैयार हो जाएं और इस पहल का इष्टतम तरीके से उपयोग करें। याद रखें कि, "साधारण अभ्यर्थी और चयनित होने वाले अभ्यर्थी के बीच का अंतर केवल दैनक अभ्यास है !!" Important Note: Comment अनुभाग में अपने अंक पोस्ट करना न भूलें। साथ ही, हमें बताएं कि क्या आपको आज का टेस्ट अच्छा लगा । 5 प्रश्नों को पूरा करने के बाद, अपना स्कोर, समय और उत्तर देखने के लिए ‘View Questions’ पर क्लिक करें। उत्तर देखने के लिए, इन निर्देशों का पालन करें: 1 - 'स्टार्ट टेस्ट/ Start Test' बटन पर क्लिक करें प्रश्न हल करें'टेस्ट सारांश/Test Summary'बटन पर क्लिक करें'फिनिश टेस्ट/Finish Test'बटन पर क्लिक करेंअब ‘View Questions’बटन पर क्लिक करें - यहां आपको उत्तर और लिंक दिखाई देंगे। To take the Test -Click Here  

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2022 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 16th May 2022

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test -Click Here

Baba’s Explainer

Baba's Explainer - OBC Reservations

Baba's Explainer - OBC Reservations Syllabus GS-2: Governance & Policy Measures GS-2: Equality & Equity Why In News: Supreme Court has stayed 27 percent reservation for OBCs in local body polls in Madhya Pradesh. [su_spoiler open="yes" title="What is meant by Reservation?" style="fancy" icon="chevron"] In simple terms, reservation in India is all about reserving access to seats in the government jobs, educational institutions, and even legislatures to certain sections of the population. Also known as affirmative action, the reservation can also be seen as positive discrimination. The two main aims to provide reservation as per the Constitution of India are: Advancement of the sections of society that is considered as backward Scheduled Castes (SC) and the Scheduled Tribes (ST) (Article 15 (4) Any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens (OBC) Article 15 (5) Economically weaker sections (EWS) –and Article 15 (6) Adequate representation of any backward class of citizens (Article 16 (4)) OR economically weaker sections (EWS) in the services under the State (Article 16 (6)) [/su_spoiler] [su_spoiler open="no" title="What is the History of OBC reservations in India?" style="fancy" icon="chevron"] The use of the term OBC goes back to the Madras Presidency in the 1870s. The British administration combined shudras and ‘Untouchable’ castes under the label "backward classes" to identify lower caste groups for affirmative action. Untouchables were reclassified as SCs in the 1935 Government of India Act. After Independence, the Indian government continued to use this classification. Untouchability was abolished in 1950 and the state mandated political representation for SCs and STs at both central and state levels. The Constitution had also resolved to make provisions for OBCs. During the debate on Draft Article 10(3) which is the present Article 16(4) of the Indian Constitution, the term “backward class” was included. Article 16(4) Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any provision for the reservation of appointments or posts in favour of any backward class of citizens which, in the opinion of the State, is not adequately represented in the services under the State. Immediately after India becoming a republic, the Indian Supreme Court in its two judgements in  State of Madras Champakam Dorairarajan and Venkatraman v. State of Madras invalidated reservation for backward classes in educational institutions and in public services respectively, in the then State of Madras. In response to this, the provisional parliament amended the Constitution (First Amendment) to nullify the Supreme Court’s judgement and pave the way for reservation for backward classes. Speaking during the debates on the Constitution (First Amendment) Bill of 195, Dr B. R Ambedkar termed the judgements of the Supreme Court as “utterly unsatisfactory “ and “not in consonance with the articles of the Constitution”. In fact, first Backward Classes Commission under the chairmanship of social reformer Kaka Kalelkar was appointed as early as 1953 to determine the criteria for assessing backwardness. The commission submitted its report in March 1955 and considered caste a relevant criterion to determine backwardness It listed 2,399 backward castes or communities, with 837 of them classified as ‘most backwards’. The report was never implemented. Eventually, it took another Commission (Second Backward Classes Commission under Mandal) and almost forty years to implement reservation for OBCs. [/su_spoiler] [su_spoiler open="no" title="What were the recommendations of Mandal commission?" style="fancy" icon="chevron"] In exercise of the powers conferred by Article 340 of the Constitution, the President appointed a backward class commission in December 1978 under the chairmanship of former chief minister of Bihar B. P. Mandal. Article 340: The President may by order appoint a Commission to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes within India and to make recommendations as to the steps to be taken by the State. Mandal commission was formed to determine the criteria for defining India’s “socially and educationally backward classes” and to recommend steps to be taken for the advancement of those classes. Mandal submitted his report two years later, on December 31, 1980. By then, the Morarji Desai government had fallen and Indira Gandhi came to power. It remained in deep freeze during her term and that of Rajiv Gandhi. Some of the recommendations of Mandal Commission are: Mandal Commission report estimated that OBCs constituted nearly 52 per cent of India’s population, excluding Scheduled Castes/Tribes (SC/STs.) OBCs among Hindus were identified based on socio-educational field surveys, lists of OBCs notified by various State governments, the 1961 Census report, and extensive touring of the country. Among non-Hindus, the caste system was not found to be an inherent part of the religion. However, for equality, OBCs were identified as untouchables converted from Hinduism and occupational communities known by their traditional hereditary jobs, such as the Gujjars, Dhobis, and Telis. Hence, for the inclusion of OBCs, the report recommended a 27 per cent reservation for these communities in government services and central/State educational institutions. That reservation was also made applicable to promotion quotas at all levels. However, children of government officials at higher posts, civil servants, high-ranking armed forces officers, professionals in trade, and so-called ‘creamy layer’ individuals are to be excluded from OBC reservations. According to a 2017 order issued by the Centre, creamy layer individuals are those who have an annual income of Rs 8 lakhs or more, disqualifying them from benefits under the OBC quota. The ‘creamy layer’ threshold has been gradually increased from Rs 1 lakh/year in 1993 to Rs 2.5 lakhs, Rs 4.5 lakhs, Rs 6 lakhs and now Rs 8 lakhs. The reserved quota, if unfilled, should be carried forward for a period of 3 years and dereserved after that. The government to make the necessary legal provisions to implement these recommendations. Age relaxation for OBCs to be the same as that for SCs and STs. On August 7, 1990, then PM V P Singh announced in Parliament that his government had accepted the Mandal Commission report. V P Singh led-Central government wanted to implement the Mandal Commission report in 1990, but it was challenged in the Supreme Court. The verdict in the Indira Sawhney case, which came up before a nine-judge bench, was delivered in 1992. [/su_spoiler] [su_spoiler open="no" title="Was OBC reservation opposed?" style="fancy" icon="chevron"] The Mandal moment saw ferocious backlash by sections of upper castes, particularly in northern & western regions of India This opposition was articulated on two axes That reservations compromised merit If at all reservations should open up beyond what was offered to SC & STs, it should be on economic lines (and not on caste basis) What has been the Supreme Court’s verdict on OBC reservation? The Supreme Court dealt with Constitutional Validity of OBC reservation in ‘Indira Sawhney’ Case or Mandal Case.  The Supreme Court's nine-judge panel gave the following verdict with a 6:3 majority on November 16, 1992: The SC upheld the 27% reservation for OBCs .  Backward classes under Article 16(4) cannot be identified on the basis of economic criteria but the caste system also needs to be considered. Article 16(4) is not an exception to clause 1 but an instance of classification as envisaged by clause 1. Backward classes in article 16(4) were different from the socially and educationally backward mentioned in Article 15(4). SC also said that the ‘creamy layer’ among the OBCs should not be the beneficiaries of the reservations. It also held that there will be no reservation in promotions. Supreme Court in the same case also upheld the principle that the combined reservation beneficiaries should not exceed 50% of India’s population. Apex court also suggested permanent Statutory body to examine complains of over – inclusion / under – inclusion. So the Govt. set-up a statutory body called National Commission for Backward Classes as a permanent body. Any new disputes regarding criteria were to be raised in the Supreme Court only. [/su_spoiler] [su_spoiler open="no" title="What has been the major Criticism of OBC reservation?" style="fancy" icon="chevron"] Backlash by left out sections: The resentment of those communities which did not have a share in the reservation pie increased. Mandal Politics launched an era of open hostility between upper castes & backward communities, particularly in the Hindi heartland Appeasement Politics: Political parties, in order to appease their constituents, continued to expand reservation. This has undermined the entire purpose of reservation, envisaged as a tool to address historic injustice. Lack of Effective Implementation: As per the Report submitted by the Department of Personnel and Training to NCBC in 2020, OBC representation in Central government jobs (data of 42 ministries/departments) was found out to be: 16.51 % in Group-A central government services. 13.38 % in Group-B central government services. 21.25 % in Group-C (excluding safai karamcharis). 17.72 % in Group-C (safai karamcharis). Demand for Subcategorization of OBCs: Within OBCs, some communities benefited more than others, which led to a political divide and demands for sub-categorisation, a process currently underway. According to the Rohini Commission, out of almost 6,000 castes and communities in the OBCs, only 40 such communities had gotten 50% of reservation benefits for admission in central educational institutions and recruitment to the civil services. [/su_spoiler] [su_spoiler open="no" title="What is Rohini Commission?" style="fancy" icon="chevron"] What is Rohini Commission? The Rohini Commission, set up in October 2017  to examine the issue of Sub-categorization within Other Backward Classes (OBCs) in the Central List. Commission’s Terms of Reference (ToR): Examining Inequality: To examine the extent of inequitable distribution of benefits of reservation among the castes or communities included in the broad category of OBCs with reference to such classes included in the Central List. Determining Parameters: To work out the mechanism, criteria, norms and parameters in a scientific approach for sub-categorisation within such OBCs. Classification: To take up the exercise of identifying the respective castes or communities or sub-castes or synonyms in the Central List of OBCs and classifying them into their respective sub-categories. Eliminating Errors: To study the various entries in the Central List of OBCs and recommend correction of any repetitions, ambiguities, inconsistencies and errors of spelling or transcription. Challenges Before the Commision: Data Deficiency: Absence of data for the population of various communities to compare with their representation in jobs and admissions. Delaying of Survey: It was decided in Census 2021, data of OBCs will also be collected, but no consensus has been reached regarding enumeration of OBCs in the Census. Findings of the Commission Until Now: In 2018, the Commission analysed the data of 1.3 lakh central jobs given under OBC quota over the preceding five years. It also analysed OBC admissions to central higher education institutions, including universities, IITs, NITs, IIMs and AIIMS, over the preceding three years. The findings were: 97% of all jobs and educational seats have gone to just 25% of all sub-castes classified as OBCs. 24.95% of these jobs and seats have gone to just 10 OBC communities. 983 OBC communities (37% of the total) have zero representation in jobs and educational institutions. 994 OBC sub-castes have a total representation of only 2.68% in recruitment and admissions. It is widely understood that the report could have huge political consequences and face a judicial review so it's still not released and the commission has been given subsequent extensions [/su_spoiler] [su_spoiler open="no" title="What about OBC reservation by States?" style="fancy" icon="chevron"] Even though there is one list (decided by Parliament) that is maintained for SC & ST for reservation benefits, in case of OBCs, States were empowered to maintain their own list of OBCs so provide necessary benefits to them. Thus, we have Union OBC list for reservation in Central government jobs & Central Educational institutions OBC lists at State level (varies with each state) for reservation in State government jobs & State Educational institutions. The Constitution (102nd Amendment) Act, 2018 had granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Castes (NCBC). It further inserted: Article 338B, which deals with the structure, duties and powers of the NCBC Article 342A, which deals with the powers of the President to notify a particular caste as an SEBC and the power of Parliament to change the list. However, Supreme Court (in Marata Reservation case) on 5 May 2021 had ruled that only the Centre had the power to draw up the OBC list, as per the above interpretation of Constitution (102nd Amendment) Act (Article 342A only mentions President & Parliament with no reference to states) This verdict was opposed by the States for they would lose their power of notifying OBCs. It was estimated that nearly 671 OBC communities would have lost access to reservation in educational institutions and in appointments if the state list was abolished. Moreover, nearly one-fifth of the total OBC communities would have been adversely impacted by this. To reverse the verdict and to restore the powers of the state governments to maintain state list of OBCs, Parliament passed 127th Constitution Amendment Bill, 2021 Amendment in Articles 366(26C) and 338B (9), after which states will be able to directly notify OBC and SEBCs without having to refer to the NCBC, and the "state list" will be taken out of the domain of the President and will be notified by the Assembly. Each State has listed communities which are recognised as OBCs and accorded them reservations accordingly. There is no reservation for OBCs in Lakshadweep, Tripura, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh due to the absence of any citizens belonging to OBC communities. [/su_spoiler] [su_spoiler open="no" title="What about OBC quota in elections?" style="fancy" icon="chevron"] To ensure political representation, of the 543 seats in Lok Sabha, 84 seats are reserved for SCs, 47 seats for STs and 2 for Anglo-Indian members (nominated by the President). SC/ST communities have reservations in their respective State Assemblies, councils and local bodies too. However, for OBC communities, there are no separate political reservations in State legislatures or local bodies. In a bid to alter this, the Maharashtra government passed an Ordinance to introduce a 27-per-cent reservation for OBCs in Zilla Parishads and Panchayat Samitis. However, in December 2021, the SC struck down the Ordinance citing the 50-per-cent threshold rule for reservation. In Indira Sawhney vs Union of India (1992), the Supreme Court had upheld the 50-per-cent ceiling on reservations, thereby limiting states’ powers. [/su_spoiler] [su_spoiler open="no" title="Has there been a call for reconsidering the 50-per-cent ceiling?" style="fancy" icon="chevron"] Despite the apex court upholding the 50-per-cent ceiling, many communities have sought separate reservations at the State and Central levels across India. The most notable protests have included those of the Gujjars (Rajasthan) seeking their reclassification from OBC to STs and five-per-cent reservation. Similarly, Patidars (Gujarat) and Jats (UP, Rajasthan, Delhi) have been seeking inclusion as OBCs. Since the inclusion of the 10-per-cent EWS quota, most States have breached the 50-per-cent cap on reservations. Topping the list is Tamil Nadu (69 per cent), followed by Chhattisgarh (69 per cent), Maharashtra (62 per cent), Andhra Pradesh (60 per cent), Bihar (60 per cent), Delhi (60 per cent), Jharkhand (60 per cent), Karnataka (60 per cent), Kerala (60 per cent), Madhya Pradesh (60 per cent), Telangana (60 per cent) and Uttar Pradesh (60 per cent.) Recently, the call for reconsidering the 50-per-cent cap has been growing since several States have been demanding a caste census to determine the actual population of SCs, STs, OBCs, and minorities. However, the Centre has maintained that the caste census data of 2011 is unusable as it was “fraught with mistakes and inaccuracies”. It has also refused to conduct a nationwide caste census in 2022. [/su_spoiler] Mains Practice Question - Do you think, there is a need to review the reservation structure? Critically Comment. Note: Write answers to this question in the comment section.  

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 14th May 2022

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) [su_box title="Iron tools in Tamil Nadu" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – History Mains – GS 1 (Indian Culture - Salient aspects of Art Forms, Literature and Architecture from ancient to modern times) In News: Carbon dating of excavated finds in Tamil Nadu pushes evidence of iron being used in India back to 4,200 years ago Before this, the earliest evidence of iron use was from 1900-2000 BCE for the country, and from 1500 BCE for Tamil Nadu The latest evidence dates the findings from Tamil Nadu to 2172 BCE. The excavations are from Mayiladumparai near Krishnagiri in Tamil Nadu, about 100 km south of Bengaluru. Mayiladumparai is an important site with cultural material dating back between the Microlithic (30,000 BCE) and Early Historic (600 BCE) ages. The site is situated in the midst of several archaeological sites such as Togarapalli, Gangavaram, Sandur, Vedarthattakkal, Guttur, Gidlur, Sappamutlu and Kappalavad etc. All these important archaeological sites lie within 10 km. Timeline revisited The dates when humans entered the Iron Age vary from one region of the world to another In 1979, use of iron was traced to 1300 BCE at Ahar in Rajasthan. Later, samples at Bukkasagara in Karnataka, indicating iron production, were dated back to 1530 BCE. The date was subsequently pushed back to 1700-1800 BCE with excavations finding evidence of iron smelting at Raipura in the Mid-Ganga valley, and then to 1900-2000 BCE based on investigations in sites at Malhar near Varanasi and Brahmagiri in North Karnataka. A series of dating results on finds from various parts in India have shown evidence of iron-ore technology before 1800 BCE. Before the latest discovery, the earliest evidence of iron use for Tamil Nadu was from Thelunganur and Mangadu near Mettur, dating back to 1500 BCE. Historical significance With the latest evidence tracing our Iron Age to 2000 BCE from 1500 BC, we can assume that our cultural seeds were laid in 2000 BCE. And the benefit of socio-economic changes and massive production triggered by the iron technology gave its first fruit around 600 BCE — the Tamil Brahmi scripts The Tamil Brahmi scripts were once believed to have originated around 300 BCE, until a landmark finding in 2019 pushed the date back to 600 BCE. This dating narrowed the gap between the Indus Valley civilization and Tamilagam/South India’s Sangam Age. Previous Year Questions (PYQs) Q.1) Which one of the following is not a Harappan Site? (2019) Chanhudaro Kot Diji Sohagaura Desalpur Source: Indian Express [/su_box] [su_box title="Gaganyaan Mission" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Mains – GS 3 (Awareness in the fields of IT, Space, Computers, Robotics, Nano-technology, Bio-technology and issues relating to Intellectual Property Rights) In News: ISRO tests booster for Gaganyaan The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) has successfully carried out the static test of the HS200 solid rocket booster, taking the space agency one more steps closer to the keenly awaited Gaganyaan human spaceflight mission. The test was held at the Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota Designed and developed by the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) in Thiruvananthapuram The HS200 booster is the ‘human-rated’ version of the S200 rocket boosters used on the geosynchronous satellite launch vehicle Mk-III (GSLV Mk-III), also called the LVM3. The GSLV Mk-III rocket, which will be used for the Gaganyaan mission, will have two HS200 boosters that will supply the thrust for lift-off. The HS200 is a 20-metre-long booster with a diameter of 3.2 metres and is the world’s second largest operational booster using solid propellants. The successful completion of this test marks a major milestone for the prestigious human space flight mission of ISRO, the Gaganyaan, as the first stage of the launch vehicle is tested for its performance for the full duration The control system used in the HS200 booster employs one of the world’s most powerful electro-mechanical actuators with multiple redundancy and safety features Gaganyaan Mission Gaganyaan is a mission by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) to send a three-member crew to space for a period of five to seven days. Launch Vehicle: ISRO's Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle GSLV Mk III (3 stages heavy-lift vehicle) Components: Consists of a service module and a crew module, collectively known as an Orbital Module (Crew Module carries astronauts & Service Modules carries propellants.) The Gaganyaan spacecraft will be placed in a low earth orbit (LEO) of 300-400 kilometres. Vyom Mitra: ISRO to send humanoid Vyommitra in unmanned Gaganyaan spacecraft ahead of human spaceflight (Monitoring module parameters) Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle GSLV Mk III GSLV MkIII, is a three-stage heavy lift launch vehicle developed by ISRO. The vehicle has two solid strap-ons, a core liquid booster and a cryogenic upper stage. GSLV Mk III is designed to carry 4 ton class of satellites into Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO) or about 10 tons to Low Earth Orbit (LEO), which is about twice the capability of the GSLV Mk II. Previous Year Questions (PYQs) Q.1) With reference to India’s satellite launch  vehicles, consider the following statements (2018) PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch l vehicle with the first and third stages l using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only Source: The Hindu [/su_box] [su_box title="mRNA Vaccine" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Mains – GS 3 (Achievements of Indians in Science & Technology; Indigenization of Technology and Developing New Technology) In News: The Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB) has established the “proof of principle” (proof of concept) of the first indigenous mRNA vaccine technology The replication is based on the Moderna model, but has been built with the information available in the open and our own technology and materials While vaccines work by training the immune system to identify disease-causing micro-organisms and eliminate them quickly when they encounter them, in the mRNA technology, the host cell’s immune system is trained to evade the real infection. This is done by introducing mRNA of the micro-organism of concern into the host. The home-grown mRNA vaccine platform holds promise to deal with other infectious diseases such as TB, dengue, malaria, chikungunya, rare genetic diseases and others. What are mRNA vaccines? mRNA vaccines trick the body into producing some of the viral proteins itself. They work by using mRNA, or messenger RNA, which is the molecule that essentially puts DNA instructions into action. Inside a cell, mRNA is used as a template to build a protein How it works? To produce an mRNA vaccine, scientists produce a synthetic version of the mRNA that a virus uses to build its infectious proteins. This mRNA is delivered into the human body, whose cells read it as instructions to build that viral protein, and therefore create some of the virus’s molecules themselves. These proteins are solitary, so they do not assemble to form a virus. The immune system then detects these viral proteins and starts to produce a defensive response to them. Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology The Centre for Cellular & Molecular Biology (CCMB) is a premier research organization which conducts high quality basic research and trainings in frontier areas of modern biology, and promotes centralized national facilities for new and modern techniques in the interdisciplinary areas of biology. It was set up initially as a semi-autonomous Centre on April 1, 1977 with the Biochemistry Division of the then Regional Research Laboratory (presently, Indian Institute of Chemical Technology, IICT) Hyderabad. It is located in Hyderabad and operates under the aegis of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR). It is designated as “Center of Excellence” by the Global Molecular and Cell Biology Network, UNESCO. Previous Year Questions (PYQs) Q.1) With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant Vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements: (2021) Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. Select the correct code: 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) What is the importance of using Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines in India? (2020) These vaccines are effective against pneumonia as well as meningitis and sepsis. Dependence on antibiotics that are not effective against drug-resistant bacteria can be reduced. These vaccines have no side effects and cause no allergic reactions. Select the correct code: 1 only 1 and 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Source: The Hindu [/su_box] [su_box title="Radio Frequency Identification (RFID)" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Mains – GS 3 (Science and Technology- Developments and their Applications and Effects in Everyday Life) In News: Amarnath Yatra pilgrims to be tracked through RFID tags The movement of each Amarnath Yatra pilgrim will be tracked with the help of Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) tags The RFID tags will be provided by the Shri Amarnathji Shrine Board (SASB). Registration of all pilgrims are done by the shrine board. What is Radio Frequency Identification? RFID is a type of passive wireless technology that allows for tracking or matching of an item or individual. The system has two basic parts: Tags and Readers. The reader gives off radio waves and gets signals back from the RFID tag, while the tag uses radio waves to communicate its identity and other information. A tag can be read from up to several feet away and does not need to be within the direct line-of-sight of the reader to be tracked. The technology has been approved since before the 1970s but has become much more prevalent in recent years due to its usages in things like global supply chain management and pet microchipping. Previous Year Questions (PYQs) Q.1) With reference to visible light communication (VLC) technology, which of the following statements are correct? (2020) VLC uses electromagnetic spectrum wavelengths 375 to 780nm VLC is known as long-range optical wireless communication VLC can transmit large amounts of data faster than Bluetooth VLC has no electromagnetic interference Select the correct code: 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only Q.2) With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?(2019) LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology. Select the correct code: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Source: The Hindu [/su_box] [su_box title="Article 311" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Open in new window Syllabus Prelims – Polity Mains – GS 2 (Structure, Organization and Functioning of the Executive) In News: Three government employees were terminated by the J&K Government under Article 311 2(c) Article 311: Article 311 (1) says that no government employee either of an all India service or a state government shall be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to the one that appointed him/her. Article 311 (2) says that no civil servant shall be dismissed or removed or reduced in rank except after an inquiry in which s/he has been informed of the charges and given a reasonable opportunity of being heard in respect of those charges. People Protected under Article 311: The members of Civil service of the Union, All India Service, and Civil service of any State, People who hold a civil post under the Union or any State. The protective safeguards given under Article 311 are applicable only to civil servants, i.e. public officers. They are not available to defence personnel. Exceptions to Article 311 (2): 2 (a) - Where a person is dismissed or removed or reduced in rank on the ground of conduct which has led to his conviction on a criminal charge; or 2 (b) - Where the authority empowered to dismiss or remove a person or to reduce him in rank is satisfied that for some reason, to be recorded by that authority in writing, it is not reasonably practicable to hold such inquiry; or 2 (c) - Where the President or the Governor, as the case may be, is satisfied that in the interest of the security of the State, it is not expedient to hold such inquiry Source: Indian Express [/su_box] Baba's Explainer - NATO [su_box title="NATO" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Syllabus GS-2: Policies and politics of developed and developing countries. GS-2: Important International institutions, agencies and fora- their structure, mandate. Why In News: While countries were thinking about the security dynamics of Europe, Finland’s Prime Minister had insisted that her country was unlikely to join NATO even as Russian troops amassed on the Ukrainian border in February. Three months and one invasion later, Finland is hurtling to join the alliance — a monumental shift for a nation with a long history of wartime neutrality and staying out of military alliances. Sweden, another neutral Nordic country, is also so alarmed by Russia's invasion of Ukraine that it is also now seriously considering joining NATO. Read Complete Details on NATO - CLICK HERE [/su_box] Daily Practice MCQs [su_box title="Daily Practice MCQs" style="soft" box_color="#f3f3f3" title_color="#d45f07"] Q.1) Consider the following statements about Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle GSLV Mk III It is a three-stage heavy lift launch vehicle developed by ISRO The Upper stage of GSLV Mk III is known as the cryogenic stage The Gaganyaan spacecraft will be placed in a Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO) by GSLV Mk III Choose the correct statements: 1 and 3 2 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements The Constitution empowers the President and the Governor to remove a government employee without an enquiry under interest of the security of the State The protective safeguards given under Article 311 are applicable to both Civil servants and defence personnel Choose the correct code: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) With reference to mRNA vaccine, consider the following statements mRNA vaccines trick the body into producing some of the viral proteins itself These viral protein assemble to form a virus and triggers body's defense mechanism mRNA vaccines cannot be used to treat genetic diseases Choose the incorrect statements: 2 only 2 and 3 3 only None [/su_box] ANSWERS FOR 14th MAY 2022 - Daily Practice MCQs 1 d 2 a 3 b