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Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 27th November 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 26th November 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) TREATY TO TACKLE PLASTIC POLLUTION Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: More than 170 countries are converging in Busan, Republic of Korea, to negotiate a new legally binding global treaty to end plastic pollution, including marine pollution. Background: – This is the fifth (and final) round of talks since 2022, when the UN Environmental Assembly (UNEA) agreed to develop such a by the end of 2024. Why is a global plastic treaty required? The annual global production of plastic doubled from 234 million tonnes (mt) in 2000 to 460 mt in 2019. Nearly half of this was produced in Asia, followed by North America (19%) and Europe (15%).  Plastic production is expected to touch 700 mt by 2040, according to a report by the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD). Plastic takes anywhere from 20 to 500 years to decompose, and less than 10% has been recycled till now, according to a 2023 study published by The Lancet. Much of the plastic waste leaks into the environment, where it breaks down into smaller particles (microplastic or nanoplastic). Studies have found that exposure to chemicals in plastic can cause endocrine disruption and a range of diseases including cancer, diabetes, reproductive disorders, and neurodevelopmental impairment. Plastic also harms species inhabiting marine, freshwater, and land ecosystems. Plastic contributes to climate change also. In 2020, it generated 3.6% of global greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions, with 90% of those  emissions coming from plastic production, which uses fossil fuels as raw material. The remaining 10% of emissions were released during plastic waste management and treatment. India accounts for 20% of the world’s global plastic pollution with release of 9.3 mt, which is significantly more than the countries next in the list — Nigeria (3.5 mt), Indonesia (3.4 mt) and China (2.8 mt), the study said. What is on the negotiating table? Negotiations pertain to formulating a global set of rules that will address plastic pollution through its life cycle, from fossil-fuel based production, and the challenges of managing plastic disposal and waste.  The final rules may also ban particular types of plastic, products and chemical additives used in plastics, and set legally binding targets for recycling and recycled content used in consumer goods. There will be talks on ‘just transition’ for workers and communities whose livelihoods would be affected by the elimination of certain items and a move away from plastic production. However, countries have been unable to converge on agenda items. Saudi Arabia, Iran, Russia, Kazakhstan, Egypt, Kuwait, Malaysia, and India have resistance to stricter mandates and have instead proposed downstream measures such as innovative waste management and sustainable plastic use. Countries have also not been able to agree on the subject of finance. What is India’s position? India has made it clear that it does not support any restrictions on the production of polymers. Any restrictions are beyond the mandate of the UNEA’s resolution adopted at Nairobi in 2022, according to India. The country has also sought the inclusion of financial and technical assistance, and technology transfer in the substantive provisions of any final treaty. On the exclusion of harmful chemicals used for plastic production, India has said that any decision should be based on scientific studies, and the regulation of such chemicals should be regulated domestically. India banned the use of single-use plastics covering 19 categories in 2022. However, the country has said that a decision on the issue of including certain plastic items for phase-out in the final treaty should be pragmatic and regulation should be nationally driven taking into account national circumstances. Source: Indian Express   GLOBAL MATCHMAKING PLATFORM (GMP) Syllabus: Prelims – INTERNATIONAL Context: United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO) and the Climate Club launched the Global Matchmaking Platform (GMP). Background: – The initiative focused on accelerating decarbonisation in heavy-emitting industries was launched in the presence of partner countries, key donor and partner organisations.  Key takeaways The Global Matchmaking Platform (GMP) is an initiative designed to accelerate the decarbonization of heavy-emitting industries in emerging and developing economies. Purpose and Objectives: Decarbonization: The primary goal of the GMP is to fast-track the decarbonization of industries that are major contributors to greenhouse gas emissions. Technical and Financial Solutions: The platform connects countries with technical and financial solutions to reduce emissions in energy and emissions-intensive industrial sectors. How It Works: Single-Point Gateway: The GMP acts as a single-point gateway for governments in emerging and developing economies to raise customized requests and identify globally leading technical and financial solutions. Matchmaking Process: The platform facilitates a matchmaking process where countries’ specific needs are matched with appropriate technical and financial support from partner organizations. Pilot Projects: Pilot project discussions are already underway in countries such as Argentina, Colombia, Chile, Egypt, Indonesia, Kenya, Morocco, and Cambodia. Support and Partnerships: Climate Club: The GMP is a support mechanism of the Climate Club, with the secretariat hosted by the United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO). Delivery Partners: Key delivery partners include Climate Investment Funds, the German Development Cooperation (GIZ), UNIDO, and the World Bank. Initial Funding: The platform received initial funding from the German Federal Ministry of Economic Cooperation and Climate Action (BMWK). Source: Down To Earth MICRO, SMALL, AND MEDIUM ENTERPRISES (MSMES) Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – ECONOMY Context: India’s micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs) have added nearly 10 crore new jobs over the past 15 months, according to official data from the Udyam portal. Background: According to the figures, the number of registered MSMEs has now gone up to 5.49 crore from 2.33 crore in August last year while the number of jobs reported by these enterprises has shot up to 23.14 crore from 13.15 crore during this period. Definition and Classification Micro Enterprises: Investment in plant and machinery or equipment up to ₹1 crore and annual turnover not exceeding ₹5 crore. Small Enterprises: Investment in plant and machinery or equipment up to ₹10 crore and annual turnover not exceeding ₹50 crore. Medium Enterprises: Investment in plant and machinery or equipment up to ₹50 crore and annual turnover not exceeding ₹250 crore. Significance Economic Contribution: MSMEs contribute significantly to the GDP, employment, and exports. In India, they account for nearly 30% of the GDP. Employment Generation: MSMEs are major job creators, providing employment to millions of people. Innovation and Entrepreneurship: They foster innovation and entrepreneurship, often leading to the development of new products and services. Government Support The Indian government has made significant strides to support MSMEs, particularly through its 2024-25 Union Budget allocating a substantial Rs 22,137.95 crore to the MSME Ministry—an increase of 41.6% from the previous fiscal year. Digital Initiatives: Initiatives like Udyam Registration and the MSME SAMBANDH portal. Champions Platform: The Champions platform, launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, provides handholding support to MSMEs and new entrepreneurs. Source: DD News CONSTITUTION DAY Syllabus: Prelims – POLITY Context: India observes Constitution Day, also known as Samvidhan Divas, on November 26 each year.  Background: – This year marks 75 years since the adoption of the Constitution, and the Centre will commemorate the occasion with year-long activities under the campaign ‘Hamara Samvidhan, Hamara Swabhiman’. Key takeaways Constitution Day, also known as Samvidhan Diwas, is celebrated in India on November 26th each year to commemorate the adoption of the Indian Constitution by the Constituent Assembly on November 26, 1949.  The Constitution came into effect on January 26, 1950, marking the birth of the Indian Republic. The day also honors Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the principal architect of the Indian Constitution, whose vision and leadership were instrumental in shaping the document. Government of India declared November 26 Constitution Day in 2015, the year that marked the 125th birth anniversary of Dr BR Ambedkar, the chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution. Previously, the day was celebrated as Law Day. Lesser-known facts about the Constitution of India : Manabendra Nath Roy was the first to propose the idea of forming a Constituent Assembly in 1934, which later became an official demand of the National Congress in 1935. The Original Constitution of India was handwritten by Prem Behari Narain Raizada in both Hindi and English. Shantiniketan artists, including Beohar Rammanohar Sinha and Nandalal Bose, decorated every page of the handwritten Constitution. India has the longest Constitution in the world, with 117,369 words. The original copies of the Constitution of India are preserved in helium-filled cases in the Library of the Parliament of India. The original text of the Constitution contained 395 articles in 22 parts and eight schedules. Source: News18 REGENERATIVE AGRICULTURE Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: The Government of Odisha, in partnership with ICRISAT, launched a ‘Compendium of Regenerative Agriculture’ to promote regenerative agriculture. Background: – The compendium outlines five key principles for sustainable farming: minimising soil disturbance, maximising crop diversity, maintaining soil cover, keeping living roots year-round, and integrating livestock.  Key takeaways Regenerative agriculture is a holistic approach to farming that focuses on restoring and enhancing the health of ecosystems. Core Principles: Soil Health: The primary focus is on improving soil health through practices like minimal soil disturbance (no-till farming), cover cropping, and crop rotation. Biodiversity: Enhancing biodiversity by integrating a variety of crops and livestock, which helps in pest control and nutrient cycling. Water Management: Improving water retention and reducing runoff through practices like mulching and agroforestry. Carbon Sequestration: Increasing carbon sequestration in the soil to mitigate climate change by capturing atmospheric CO2. Practices: Cover Cropping: Planting cover crops to protect and enrich the soil during times when main crops are not growing. Composting: Adding organic matter to the soil through composting to improve soil structure and fertility. Agroforestry: Integrating trees and shrubs into agricultural systems to enhance biodiversity and provide additional income sources. Holistic Management: Managing farms as integrated ecosystems, considering the interrelationships between soil, plants, animals, and humans. Benefits: Improved Soil Health: Healthy soil supports better crop yields, reduces the need for chemical inputs, and enhances resilience to extreme weather. Enhanced Biodiversity: Diverse ecosystems are more resilient and productive, providing habitat for beneficial insects and wildlife. Climate Mitigation: By sequestering carbon, regenerative agriculture helps reduce greenhouse gas emissions and combat climate change. Economic Viability: Farmers can reduce input costs and improve profitability through sustainable practices. Source: Hindu Businessline Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Which of the following statements about Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in India is/are correct? MSMEs contribute nearly 30% to India’s GDP. The Udyam Registration Portal facilitates registration and monitoring of MSMEs in India. A medium enterprise in India is defined as one with an annual turnover not exceeding ₹500 crore. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3   Q2.) Constitution Day is celebrated on November 26 every year to commemorate which of the following events? (a) Adoption of the Preamble to the Constitution (b) Formation of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution (c) Adoption of the Constitution by the Constituent Assembly (d) Coming into effect of the Constitution of India   Q3.) Which of the following is NOT a core principle of regenerative agriculture? (a) Minimal soil disturbance (b) Maximizing crop diversity (c) Reducing the carbon content in the soil (d) Integrating livestock into farming systems Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  25th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 25th November 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) THE TRUMP EFFECT ON INDIA Syllabus: Mains – GS 2 Context: Mr. Donald Trump has not yet assumed the office of President of the United States. With seven weeks remaining until the inauguration, discussions worldwide are centered on the potential impact of his presidency. Background: – Mr Trump’s ‘Make America Great Again’ is not likely to make the planet a better or safer or more prosperous place. It is, according to Mr Trump, in America’s self-interest. Core Trump ideas Trump, the Mercantilist and the impact Belief in High Tariffs: Advocates high tariffs to protect U.S. interests, particularly targeting imports from China. Impact on U.S. Economy: High tariffs likely to increase costs for industries and consumers, leading to inflation. Inflation could prompt the Federal Reserve to raise policy rates, reversing earlier cuts. Higher interest rates will reverse the flow of capital and developing countries like India will witness outflow of funds. Against a stronger dollar, the Indian rupee will lose value. China may redirect exports to other countries, increasing dumping. India already imposes significant anti-dumping duties on Chinese goods. High U.S. tariffs may trigger retaliatory measures, disrupting world trade. Trump, the Protectionist Industrial Policies: Plans to incentivize domestic manufacturing may hamper foreign direct investments in countries like India. Immigration and Deportation: Promised to deport up to one million illegal immigrants in the first hundred days. Indian deportations could impact bilateral ties. Possible tightening of H1B1 visa regulations, conflicting with U.S. industry needs for skilled Indian professionals. Trump, the Climate Sceptic Energy Policy: Nominated Chris Wright, a proponent of fracking and drilling, as Energy Secretary. Denial of climate crisis likely to hinder COP efforts on Climate Change. Aligns with India’s position for slower COP implementation. Pharmaceutical Industry: Anticipation of deregulation and higher drug prices, which may affect global healthcare affordability. Source: Indian Express   LACHIT BORPHUKAN Syllabus: Prelims – HISTORY Context: Every year, 24th November is celebrated as the ‘Lachit Diwas’ to mark the birth anniversary of the Assamese folk hero Lachit Borphukan. Background: – He is considered one of the greatest of Assamese heroes, symbolising the valour, courage, and intelligence that defines the Assamese self-identity. Key takeaways Lachit Borphukan was a legendary army commander of the Ahom kingdom. He defeated the Mughal forces, led by Raja Ramsingh-I, in the ‘Battle of Saraighat’, and thwarted a drawn-out attempt by them to take back Assam. Lachit was born on November 24, 1622, and grew up during a turbulent period of Assam’s history. He was chosen as one of the five Borphukans of the Ahom kingdom by king Charadhwaj Singha, and given administrative, judicial, and military responsibilities. Battles of Alaboi and Saraighat Between 1615 and 1682, the Mughal Empire made a series of attempts, under Jahangir and then Aurangzeb, to annex the Ahom kingdom.  In 1662, Mughal Governor of Bengal Mir Jumla’s forces engaged with the Ahom army and went on to occupy part of the territory under Ahom rule. Between 1667 and 1682, the Ahoms under a series of rulers, launched a counter-offensive to reclaim lost territories. In 1669, Aurangzeb dispatched the Rajput Raja Ram Singh I to recapture territories won back by the Ahoms. The battle of Alaboi was fought on August 5, 1669 in the Alaboi Hills near Dadara in North Guwahati. While the Mughals preferred an open battle, Borphukan relied on his knowledge of the territory and engaged in guerrilla warfare, which provided an edge to his smaller, but fast moving and capable forces. After initial setbacks, Ram Singh sent his entire battery of Rajput soldiers and Mughal veterans and turned the tide of the battle. Unlike in Alaboi, where he was forced to fight on land instead of a naval battle, Lachit in Saraighat enticed the Mughals into a naval battle. Ahom forces combined a frontal attack and a surprise attack from behind. They lured the Mughal fleet into moving ahead by feigning an attack with a few ships from the front. The Mughals vacated the waters behind them, from where the main Ahom fleet attacked and achieved a decisive victory. Lachit died a year after the Battle of Saraighat from a long festering illness. In fact he was very ill during the Battle of Saraighat, as he heroically led his troops to victory. This only added to his legend. The battle of Saraighat proved that Lachit Barphukan was a master strategist who can be compared with the great generals in any part of India. Aptly, the Lachit Barphukan gold medal, instituted in 1999, is given to the best cadet from the National Defence Academy. Source: Indian Express ARGENTINA CONSIDERS PARIS TREATY PULLOUT Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: Argentina’s far-right President Javier Milei is considering withdrawing his country from the Paris Climate Agreement. Background: The speculation surfaced after Milei’s government asked its negotiators to leave the ongoing COP29 climate summit last week. Key takeaways The Paris Agreement is an international accord that was adopted by nearly every country in 2015 to address climate change and its adverse effects. Its primary goal is to substantially reduce GHG emissions in a bid to limit global warming in this century to “well below” 2 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels, while pursuing the means to curb warming to 1.5 degrees. The treaty requires all Parties (countries which have joined the agreement) to state every five years what they are doing to tackle climate change — what is known as their nationally determined contribution (NDC).  Each successive NDC is meant to reflect an increasingly higher degree of ambition compared to the previous version, according to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). How does a country withdraw from the Paris Agreement? Article 28 of the Paris Agreement lays out the procedure and timeline for a country’s withdrawal from the treaty. It says, “at any time after three years from the date on which this Agreement has entered into force (this happened in 2016) for a Party, that Party may withdraw from this Agreement by giving written notification to the Depositary”. So if a member state wants to withdraw, it has to submit the notification of a withdrawal to the Office of Legal Affairs of the UN, based at UN Headquarters in New York. Once the withdrawal notification has been received, it only becomes effective after one year (or later if the member state so says in the notification). Until the withdrawal comes into force, the member state remains in the Paris Agreement and has to fully participate in all activities under it. Argentina is South America’s second-largest economy and the world’s 24th-largest emitter of GHGs. It comprises significant fossil fuel resources and exports, with the second-largest reserves of shale gas and the fourth-largest reserves of shale oil worldwide. Source: Indian Express COMMISSION FOR AIR QUALITY MANAGEMENT AND DELHI’S POLLUTION Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – ENVIRONMENT Context: Air pollution in Delhi has been in the ‘severe’ and ‘severe plus’ category for the most part of the last 10 days. This week, the Supreme Court pulled up the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) on its inadequate pollution control response. Background: – The court was referring to various stakeholders not following the CAQM’s orders despite specific provisions under the 2021 Act. What is the CAQM? The CAQM in the National Capital Region (NCR) and adjoining areas came into existence through an ordinance in 2020, which was later replaced by an Act of Parliament in 2021.  The CAQM was set up for better coordination, research, identification and resolution of problems surrounding air quality and connected issues.  The CAQM replaced the EPCA (Environmental Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority), which was formed in 1998 by the Supreme Court. However, the EPCA was not backed by a statute and experts had raised the issue that it lacked the teeth to act against authorities which did not follow its orders.  Despite that drawback, it was under the EPCA that many of the measures being followed by the CAQM started, including the Graded Response Action Plan or GRAP, a list of temporary emergency measures to control air pollution. What are the powers of CAQM? Under the Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021, the CAQM was given the power to take all measures, issue directions and entertain complaints, as it deems necessary, for the purpose of protecting and improving the quality of air in the NCR and adjoining areas.  Under Section 14 of the Act, the CAQM can initiate stringent actions against officers for not following its orders. Is the CAQM to blame for Delhi’s pollution? Though the CAQM makes plans and coordinates with different agencies, it is the agencies that have to implement them on the ground. An official of the CAQM said the commission has improved coordination and planning. Foe example, the CAQM coordinates with Punjab and Haryana to prepare action plans for controlling stubble burning. The commission has primarily focused on controlling stubble burning in recent years, it has to broaden its efforts to address multiple sources of pollution. Increased attention and resources should be directed towards controlling dust and vehicular pollution as well. Source: The Hindu DAL LAKE Syllabus: Prelims  – GEOGRAPHY Context: The famous Chinar boat race 2024 was organised in J&K’s Dal Lake by the Army recently. Background: – The Army has been organising sports and entertainment events in J&K as part of its endeavour to build cordial and closer Army-public relationships. Key takeaways Dal Lake is a freshwater lake located in Srinagar, the summer capital of Jammu and Kashmir, India.  It is an urban lake and the second largest lake in Jammu and Kashmir. It is one of the most famous attractions in the Kashmir Valley and is often referred to as the “Lake of Flowers”, “Jewel in the Crown of Kashmir”, or “Srinagar’s Jewel”. Primary Inflows: Telbal Nallah from Marsar Lake Primary Outflows: Regulated through Dal Gate and Nalla Amir Ecological Significance: Ramsar Site: Designated as a Wetland of International Importance under the Ramsar Convention in 2002. Biodiversity: Home to various flora and fauna, including lotus flowers, water lilies, and several fish species. Floating Gardens: Known as “Rad” in Kashmiri, these gardens blossom with lotus flowers during July and August. Islands: Includes islands like Char Chinar (Roph Lank) and Sona Lank (Gold Island). Tourism and Activities: Houseboats and Shikaras: The lake is famous for its houseboats and colorful shikaras (wooden boats) that offer scenic cruises. Mughal Gardens: The lake is surrounded by Mughal-era gardens like Shalimar Bagh and Nishat Bagh, built during the reign of Emperor Jahangir. Floating Market: A unique market where vendors sell fresh produce and handicrafts from their shikaras. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements about Dal Lake: It is designated as a Ramsar Wetland of International Importance. The lake is surrounded by Mughal-era gardens like Shalimar Bagh and Nishat Bagh. It is the largest freshwater lake in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3   Q2.) With reference to Lachit Borphukan, consider the following statements: He was an army commander in the Ahom Kingdom who led the victory in the Battle of Saraighat. The Lachit Borphukan Gold Medal is awarded to the best cadet from the Indian Military Academy. Lachit Diwas is celebrated annually on November 24. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3   Q3.) With reference to the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM), consider the following statements: It has the power to issue directions and entertain complaints to improve air quality in the National Capital Region. The CAQM replaced the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) initiated by the Environmental Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA). The CAQM is empowered to initiate actions against officers who fail to implement its orders. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  23rd November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 25th November 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 23rd November 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) DELHI’S POLLUTION CASE Syllabus: Mains – GS 3 Context: Delhi is witnessing poor air quality prompting questions regarding the future of city. Background: – Delhi is perhaps going to become, if it has not already, an uninhabitable city for two different reasons. In winters (October-February), pollution levels peak, while during summers (April-June), the heat waves are unbearable, both affecting Delhi’s poor disproportionately Why is Delhi’s air quality so poor? The government often tells that stubble burning in Punjab, Haryana, and U.P. is responsible for Delhi’s pollution. It’s a half-truth. A 2023 report prepared by IIT Kanpur, IIT Delhi, TERI New Delhi, and Airshed Kanpur shows that, even during winter months, when sources of pollution external to Delhi are at their peak, half of the PM2.5 levels can be apportioned to Delhi itself . Vehicles alone contribute 58% to this total. The only realistic solution to air pollution is a massive shift in the way Delhi travels, that is, from private (cars and motorcycles) to public transport running on cleaner energy, with last mile connectivity, a step which will bring the number of vehicles on the road down significantly. Why are the winters so much worse? The concentration of pollutants in the air depends not just on emissions but also on many meteorological factors — temperature, wind direction/speed, and rain, among other things.  Hot air, being lighter, moves up (thereby carrying the pollutants with it), whereas cold air traps pollutants and keeps them closer to the ground. Similarly, wind can disperse the pollutants, while rain can force the most common air pollutants, like PM2.5 and PM10, to the ground. Cold air with slow wind speed and no rains make Delhi a pot of pollution with a lid on. Evidence shows that for the months which have a moderate AQI, either the wind speed is relatively higher (February-June) or rainfall is greater (July-September) than the rest of the year. Both these factors, aided by warmer air, lift the air quality of Delhi from poor/severe to moderate.  Given that Delhi’s own emissions are not winter-specific, its air quality would have been poor throughout the year but for these favourable factors from March through September. Source: The Hindu   ICC ISSUES ARREST WARRANTS FOR NETANYAHU Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: The International Criminal Court has issued arrest warrants for Israeli Prime Minister Benjamin Netanyahu, his former defence minister Gallant, and a Hamas leader, Ibrahim Al-Masri, also known as Mohammed Deif, for alleged war crimes and crimes against humanity. Background: – In granting the warrants, ICC judges stated there were reasonable grounds to believe that Netanyahu and Gallant bore criminal responsibility for the starvation of Gaza and the persecution of Palestinians. Key takeaways Israel, which does not recognize the ICC’s jurisdiction, has condemned the warrants, with Netanyahu labeling them as false and unjust.  The United States, also not a member of the ICC, has criticized the court’s decision, expressing concerns over its implications for international relations. The warrants obligate the 124 ICC member states to arrest the individuals if they enter their territories, potentially restricting their international travel.  However, enforcement remains uncertain, as the ICC lacks its own police force and relies on member states for execution. About International Criminal Court The ICC, headquartered in The Hague, Netherlands, was established under a 1998 treaty called the “Rome Statute”. It investigates and, where warranted, tries individuals charged with the gravest crimes of concern to the international community: genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity and the crime of aggression. At present, 124 countries are party to the Rome Statute, including Britain, Japan, Afghanistan, and Germany. India is not a member, nor are China and the US. Unlike the International Court of Justice (ICJ), which deals with countries and inter-state disputes, the ICC prosecutes individuals. Additionally, the offences should be committed either in a country that ratified the agreement or by a national of a ratifying country. The ICC can also practise its jurisdiction over cases referred by the UN Security Council to it. Israel is not party to the Rome Statute, but Palestine is. Source: Indian Express GLOBAL STOCK TAKE Syllabus: Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: A day before the scheduled close of talks, the COP29 meeting in Azerbaijan stared at a major crisis with almost every country and bloc rejecting the latest draft negotiating text. Background: Several countries, including India and Saudi Arabia, objected to references being made to one particular paragraph in Global Stock Take (GST) which had asked all countries to transition away from fossil fuels, triple renewable energy by 2030, reduce emissions of non-CO2 gases including methane, and phase-down coal, among other things. Key takeaways The Global Stocktake (GST) is a key mechanism under the Paris Agreement (2015) to assess the world’s collective progress toward achieving the Agreement’s goals, particularly limiting global warming to well below 2°C, preferably 1.5°C, above pre-industrial levels. Key Objectives: Review Climate Actions: Assess the implementation of countries’ climate action plans, known as Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs). Evaluate Support: Examine the support provided to developing countries, including finance, technology transfer, and capacity-building. Promote Transparency: Enhance transparency and accountability in reporting climate actions and support. Process and Timeline Periodicity: The GST is conducted every five years, with the first stocktake completed in 2023 and the next one scheduled for 2028. Source: Indian Express COLD WAVE Syllabus: Prelims – ENVIRONMENT Context: Days after night temperatures dipped across Telangana, a public advisory has been issued for cold wave conditions. Background: – The advisory has been issued by the National Programme on Climate Change and Human Health (NPCCHH), under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, for Telangana and 16 other states and Union Territories about cold wave conditions. Key takeaways The cold wave conditions signify a certain amount of fall of temperature at a given place with respect to normal climatological value. According to the Indian Meteorological Department, a cold wave occurs when the minimum temperature is 10°C or less for plains and 0°C or less for the hilly regions and negative departure from normal day temperature is 4.5 to 6.4°C. If negative departure is more than 6.4°C, it is a severe cold wave. Which means that day temperatures play an important role in cold waves. Additionally, the plains suffer a cold wave when minimum temperature is 4°C or less and a severe cold wave when minimum temperature falls to 2°C or less. Coastal areas suffer cold waves when the minimum temperature is 15°C or less and the negative departure from the minimum is 4.5 °C. The advisory highlights that the cold wave season extends from November to March, with December and January witnessing the highest frequency of extreme cold events.  The affected States and Union Territories, identified as the ‘Core Cold Wave Zone,’ include Telangana, Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh, Delhi, Haryana, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Odisha. Certain population groups are particularly vulnerable. These include the homeless, the elderly, economically disadvantaged individuals, pregnant and lactating women, children, outdoor workers & farmers. The advisory cautions that prolonged exposure to cold can cause severe health issues, including hypothermia and frostbite. Non-freezing cold injuries, such as Immersion Foot—caused by prolonged exposure to cold, wet conditions—are also a risk. Source: The Hindu CLIMATE CHANGE PERFORMANCE INDEX (CCPI) Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – ENVIRONMENT Context: The Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI 2025) report was released at the UN climate conference in Baku. Background: – Published annually since 2005, the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) tracks countries’ efforts to combat climate change. Key takeaways The Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) is an independent monitoring tool that tracks the climate mitigation performance of 63 countries and the European Union (EU). It is published by think tanks Germanwatch, New Climate Institute, and Climate Action Network International. Categories: The CCPI assesses each country’s performance in four  categories: GHG Emissions (40%), Renewable Energy (20%), Energy Use (20%), and Climate Policy (20%). Countries are scored on a scale of 0 to 100, with higher scores reflecting better performance. Key takeaways from Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI 2025) report India ranks 10th in this year’s CCPI, remaining among the highest performers. India has made considerable progress in renewable energy policy, particularly with large-scale solar power projects and the launch of the Rooftop Solar Scheme. Energy efficiency standards have been introduced, but their coverage remains inadequate, the report said, adding, India is also advancing in electric vehicle deployment, especially with two-wheelers. Despite these positive developments, India remains heavily reliant on coal. The report leaves the first three places empty, as no country performed well enough across all index categories to achieve an overall “very high” rating. Denmark ranks at the top (but technically fourth place), followed by the Netherlands and the U.K. The U.K., this year’s big climber, benefitted from its coal phase out and the government’s pledge to halt new licenses for fossil fuel projects, the report said. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Which of the following statements about the Global Stocktake (GST) under the Paris Agreement is correct? It is conducted every year to assess the progress made by individual countries toward achieving their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs). GST aims to enhance transparency and accountability in climate actions and support provided to developing countries. The first GST was completed in 2023. It evaluates progress in limiting global warming to well below 3°C above pre-industrial levels. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2, and 4 only (d) 2, 3, and 4 only   Q2.) Consider the following statements about the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI): It is published by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). The four categories assessed in the CCPI include GHG Emissions, Renewable Energy, Energy Use, and Climate Policy. India ranks in the top 10 globally due to its progress in renewable energy policies, particularly large-scale solar power projects. The CCPI leaves the first three spots vacant. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2, and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2, 3, and 4 only (d) 1, 3, and 4 only   Q3.) With reference to Cold Wave conditions, consider the following statements: A cold wave in plains is declared when the minimum temperature is 10°C or less, with a negative departure of 4.5°C to 6.4°C from the normal. Severe cold waves occur in coastal areas when the minimum temperature falls below 5°C. The core cold wave zone in India includes states like Punjab, Rajasthan, Bihar, and Odisha. The frequency of extreme cold events is highest in January. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3, and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  22nd November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 23rd November 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 22nd November 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) STALEMATE IN BAKU Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: As the stalemate over climate finance negotiations continues at COP29 in Azerbaijan’s Baku, a group of developing countries expressed “concern” and complained that their needs were not being given attention while the interests of the developed countries were being sought to be protected. Background: – Speaking on behalf of the Like Minded Developing Countries (LMDCs), a group that also includes India and China, Bolivia complained of “imbalance” in the discussions and the negotiating process. Key takeaways The New Collective Quantified Goal (NCQG) is a climate finance target set to replace the previous commitment of $100 billion per year by developed countries to support climate action in developing countries. The NCQG is a central theme at the COP29 climate summit in Baku, Azerbaijan, where countries are negotiating the exact target amount. Developing countries are advocating for a substantial increase in climate finance, proposing a target of at least $1.3 trillion annually from developed nations to support climate action. Developed nations emphasize the principle of “common but differentiated responsibilities,” asserting that developed countries, having historically contributed more to greenhouse gas emissions, should bear a greater financial burden. Developed Nations’ Position: Developed countries suggest that wealthier developing nations also contribute to climate finance, arguing that the current economic landscape has evolved since the original agreements. Key Points of Contention: Disagreements persist over what constitutes climate finance, including the balance between grants and loans, and the sources of these funds. Developing nations express concerns that stringent emission reduction targets could hinder their economic growth, advocating for flexibility in commitments. Current Status: Negotiations remain at an impasse, with both blocs holding firm on their positions. The outcome of these discussions is crucial for establishing a new global climate finance goal and determining the future framework for international climate action. Source: Indian Express   GUYANA Syllabus: Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: India and Guyana sealed 10 agreements to strengthen cooperation in hydrocarbons, digital payment systems, pharmaceuticals, and defence after bilateral talks between Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Guyanese President Mohamed Irfaan Ali. Background: – Prime Minister Modi’s visit to Guyana marked a significant milestone in strengthening India-Guyana relations. This visit was notable as it was the first by an Indian Prime Minister to Guyana in over 50 years. Key takeaways Location: Northeastern part of South America, bordered by the Atlantic Ocean (north), Venezuela (west), Brazil (south), and Suriname (east). Capital: Georgetown. Major Rivers: Essequibo, Demerara, Berbice. Climate: Tropical, with rainy and dry seasons. Population: ~800,000 (2023 estimate). Ethnic Groups: Indo-Guyanese (descendants of Indian laborers), Afro-Guyanese (African descendants), Indigenous peoples. Language: Official language is English. Religion: Christianity, Hinduism, and Islam are predominant. Guyana is home to a part of the Amazon rainforest, one of the most biodiverse regions in the world   Economy Natural Resources: Bauxite, gold, diamonds, timber, and recently discovered offshore oil reserves (2015). Key Sectors: Agriculture (sugar, rice), mining, and oil. Oil Boom: Significant oil discoveries by ExxonMobil; Guyana is emerging as one of the fastest-growing economies in the world. Independence: Gained from the United Kingdom on May 26, 1966. Member: CARICOM (Caribbean Community), UN, Commonwealth. Source: Indian Express CARICOM Syllabus: Prelims – INTERNATIONAL Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi proposed seven key pillars to strengthen ties between India and ‘CARICOM’. Background: – Modi made the remarks as he joined leaders from CARICOM countries for the second India-CARICOM Summit in Guyana. About CARICOM The Caribbean Community (CARICOM) is an intergovernmental organization that promotes economic integration and cooperation among its 15 member states and 5 associate members throughout the Caribbean region.   Purpose: Economic Integration: Promote economic integration and cooperation among member states. Equitable Benefits: Ensure that the benefits of integration are equitably shared among member states. Coordination: Coordinate foreign policy and regional security among member states. Key Objectives: Trade: Facilitate the free movement of goods, services, and capital among member states. Development: Promote sustainable development and reduce poverty in the region. Security: Enhance regional security and stability. Member States: Full Members: Antigua and Barbuda, Bahamas, Barbados, Belize, Dominica, Grenada, Guyana, Haiti, Jamaica, Montserrat, Saint Kitts and Nevis, Saint Lucia, Saint Vincent and the Grenadines, Suriname, Trinidad and Tobago. Associate Members: Anguilla, Bermuda, British Virgin Islands, Cayman Islands, Curaçao, Turks and Caicos Islands Source: Indian Express IN - SPACe Syllabus: Prelims – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: After satellites and launch vehicles, the Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is looking at ways for entry of private players in ground segments, according to a consultation document prepared by it. Background: Ground stations are essentially ground-based antennas that help in communicating with the satellites. Offering ground station as a service (GSaaS) such as satellite control, telemetry and tracking, space data reception, and space situational awareness on pay-per-use basis, the sector has been envisioned to grow 30% by 2033 — from $0.14 billion to $2.5 billion, according to the document. About IN-SPACEe The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre (IN-SPACe) is a single-window, autonomous agency under the Department of Space (DOS) of the Government of India.  It was established in June 2020 to facilitate and promote private sector participation in the Indian space sector. Purpose: Promote Private Participation: Enable and nurture non-governmental entities (NGEs) to accomplish their ventures in the space sector. Authorize and Supervise: Authorize space operations and services in the country through a well-defined framework. Boost Space Economy: Accelerate the development of the Indian space ecosystem and boost the space economy. Share Space Infrastructure: Allow NGEs to share space infrastructure and premises under the control of DOS/ISRO. Establish New Infrastructure: Support the establishment of new space infrastructure and facilities. Source: Indian Express INDIA’S UNDERTRIAL PRISONERS Syllabus: Mains – GS 2 Context: Union Home Minister Amit Shah recently said that undertrials who have spent more than a third of the maximum prescribed sentence for the crime they are accused of committing should be released before Constitution Day (November 26). Background: – Home minister highlighted the new relaxed provisions on bail for first-time offenders in the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNSS). Key takeaways As per the National Crime Records Bureau’s (NCRB) 2022 report, undertrial prisoners constitute approximately 75% of the total prison population in India. The same report indicates that India’s 1,330 prisons have an occupancy rate of 131.4%, highlighting severe overcrowding. Prolonged court proceedings result in extended pre-trial detentions, contributing to the high number of undertrial prisoners. Many undertrial prisoners come from marginalized communities and lack resources to secure bail or legal representation. The prolonged detention of undertrial prisoners raises serious human rights issues, including the right to a fair and speedy trial. Section 479 of the BNSS lays down the “Maximum period for which [an] undertrial prisoner can be detained”. It states that a prisoner who is not accused of offences punishable with death or life imprisonment shall be released on bail if she has “undergone detention for a period extending up to one-half of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for that offence under that law”. This same standard was provided under the previously applicable Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (CrPC). But the BNSS has also relaxed the standard further in cases concerning “first-time offenders” — requiring such accused persons to be released on bail after they have spent one-third of the maximum possible sentence in prison. In August, Supreme Court held hearings on the issues faced by undertrial prisoners in the case In re: Inhuman conditions in 1382 prisons. The case began as a PIL after former Chief Justice of India R C Lahoti sent a letter to the court, highlighting various issues in prisons. Senior Advocate and amicus curiae Gaurav Agrawal submitted on August 13 that Section 479 of the BNSS needs to be implemented at the earliest and it will help in addressing overcrowding in prisons. Noting that the new provision was “more beneficial”, the court on August 23 ordered that Section 479 would apply “retrospectively” to cases that were registered against first-time offenders even before the BNSS came into effect on July 1, 2024.  Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Which of the following statements about CARICOM is/are correct? CARICOM is an economic and political organization of countries in the Caribbean region. Guyana is a founding member of CARICOM. The official working language of CARICOM is French. Select the correct answer using the codes below: a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1, 2, and 3 d) 1 only   Q2.) Consider the following statements about Guyana: It is one of the world’s fastest-growing economies due to its offshore oil reserves. The Essequibo River, Guyana’s largest river, flows within the disputed region with Venezuela. Guyana is a member of the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3   Q3.) Which of the following statements regarding IN-SPACe (Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Center) is/are correct? It is an autonomous body under the Department of Space (DoS). IN-SPACe regulates and promotes private sector participation in India’s space activities. It replaces the NewSpace India Limited (NSIL) as the commercial arm of ISRO. Select the correct answer using the codes below: a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  21st November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 21st November 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) RURAL-URBAN MIGRATION AND URBAN POVERTY Syllabus: Mains – GS 1 & GS 2 Context: The Indian Government recently announced a door-to-door survey to identify the various vulnerabilities of urban poverty, especially among low-income households. The survey aims to target six specific groups, including domestic workers and gig workers. Background: – NITI Aayog’s discussion paper on multidimensional poverty in India has underlined that rural poverty has reduced faster than urban poverty. Key takeaways In India, the understanding of poverty has a rural bias, and urban poverty is often considered a consequence of rural distress.  Following liberalisation in the 1990s, rapid growth increased the demand for skilled labour in urban areas. However, uneven growth and concentration of economic benefits in certain states and regions accentuated disparities. This led to the migration of people from less developed regions to more prosperous regions, contributing to the rise of urban poverty.  As of 2020-21, about one-third of India’s total population is migrants, with migrants forming 34.6% of the total population in urban areas.  As people move from rural areas to cities, the urban population grows along with the physical expansion of cities. This process is called urbanisation. Rapid urbanisation exerts pressure on housing, resulting in overcrowding and the proliferation of informal settlements, which contribute to the “urbanisation of poverty” Hence, urban poverty refers not only to the state of poverty or income deprivation but also to a lack of access to essential services such as housing, water, sanitation, health, education, livelihoods, and social security.  Urban poverty and slums Another important aspect of urban poverty in India is its relation to slums. There is a tendency to equate slum populations with large and metropolitan cities. Notably, around 62 per cent of the slum population in India is concentrated outside of big cities.  Experts have argued that clusters with fewer than 60 households, excluded from the definition of slums, often house some of the most vulnerable residents. This exclusion results in a significant undercounting. Moreover, these excluded clusters also tend to be located in environmentally hazardous areas. Consequently, the urban poor are more likely to be exposed to environmental disasters as well as to the impact of climate change.  Urban poverty and informality Urban poverty is also closely related to the kind of jobs the urban poor do. According to a 1972 ILO report, which popularised the concept of “informal sector”, migrant and urban dwellers are often absorbed in small-scale activities when the modern sector cannot create enough jobs. The informal sector is characteristised by easy entry, small-scale operations, labour-intensive tasks, use of local and adapted technology, skills acquired outside the formal education system, and unregulated, competitive markets. An estimated 80 per cent of all workers in urban areas are employed in the informal sector. These jobs are mostly low-paying, insecure, and without benefits like insurance or pensions. These activities are not regulated by the government. In addition, these jobs also have many caste, religion, and gender dimensions.  Policy suggestions  There are schemes like Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban, Jal Jeevan Mission – Urban, Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Urban Livelihoods Mission, etc designed for the urban poor.  These initiatives aim to address issues like housing, drinking water, sanitation as well as gainful self-employment. The difficulty of estimating the informal sector as well as slums becomes an in capturing urban poverty. Therefore, the expansion of social protection and safety nets may need to be prioritised.  Further, studies have often found that households registered under the schemes often do not get the benefits or are not aware. Hence, adopting a broader perspective in policy execution might help ensure that urban poverty alleviation efforts are inclusive and effective. Source: Indian Express   CLOUD SEEDING Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: The Delhi government’s appeal to the Centre to permit cloud-seeding and induce artificial rain as a means to tackle the capital’s ongoing air pollution crisis is misplaced, scientists at the Indian Institute of Tropical Management, Pune, said. Background: – Delhi’s Environment Minister suggested that artificial rain could help settle airborne pollutants and improve visibility. What is Cloud Seeding? Cloud seeding is a weather modification technique aimed at inducing or enhancing precipitation by dispersing substances into the atmosphere. Substances used: Silver iodide, potassium iodide, dry ice (solid CO₂), or liquid propane. How it Works Process: Tiny particles act as cloud condensation nuclei or ice nuclei. They encourage water droplets to condense and form larger droplets, eventually falling as rain or snow. Methods: Aerial Spraying: Using aircraft to disperse seeding agents. Ground-Based Release: Releasing agents through generators on the ground. Why cloud seeding may not work in Delhi? During winter, Delhi often experiences temperature inversions, trapping pollutants near the surface. These stable atmospheric conditions do not favor the development of clouds that could be seeded.  Cloud seeding requires the presence of moisture-laden clouds. The scale of Delhi’s pollution problem is vast, requiring massive, continuous rain over a large area to have a measurable impact. Source: Indian Express SABARMATI RIVER Syllabus: Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: The Sabarmati Riverfront development project, which aims to transform around 38 kilometres of riverbanks from Ahmedabad to Gandhinagar across seven phases, has begun monetising its first phase, covering around 11 kilometres on either side of the river. Background: The riverfront was one of the pet projects of Prime Minister Narendra Modi when he was the chief minister of Gujarat. Key takeaways The Sabarmati River is one of the major west-flowing rivers in India, originating in the Aravalli Range of Rajasthan and flowing through Gujarat before emptying into the Gulf of Khambhat in the Arabian Sea. Tributaries: Wakal, Harnav, Hathmati, Watrak (left bank); Sei (right bank) Course: Rajasthan: The river travels 48 kilometers (30 miles) in Rajasthan before entering Gujarat. Gujarat: It flows through the states of Gujarat, passing through cities like Ahmedabad and Gandhinagar, and finally reaches the Gulf of Khambhat. Agriculture: The Sabarmati basin is primarily agricultural, with 74.68% of the basin area dedicated to farming. Monsoon-Dependent: The river is monsoon-fed, with flows dominated by the monsoon season. Source: Hindustan Times INTERPOL NOTICES Syllabus: Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: Bangladesh’s interim government on November 10 said it will seek Interpol’s assistance in repatriating deposed prime minister Sheikh Hasina from India, and other “fugitives”, to face trial for alleged crimes against humanity. Background: – Interpol notices are international requests made by memeber countries for cooperation or alerts allowing police in member countries to share critical crime-related information.Interestingly, such notices can also be used by the United Nations, International Criminal Tribunals and the International Criminal Court to seek persons wanted for committing crimes within their jurisdiction. What is Interpol? Full Form: International Criminal Police Organization. Headquarters: Lyon, France. Function: Facilitates international police cooperation against global crimes like terrorism, human trafficking, cybercrime, and organized crime. India’s Representation: Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) acts as India’s nodal agency for Interpol. Types of Interpol Notices Red Notice: To seek the location and arrest of a person wanted by judicial authorities for prosecution or to serve a sentence. Example: Extradition cases. Blue Notice: To collect additional information about a person’s identity, location, or activities related to a crime. Green Notice: To warn about a person’s criminal activities, particularly if they pose a threat to public safety. Yellow Notice: To locate missing persons, especially minors, or to identify persons who cannot identify themselves. Black Notice: To seek information about unidentified bodies. Orange Notice : To warn about an imminent threat from objects like explosives, weapons, or criminal tactics. Purple Notice: To seek or provide information on modus operandi, objects, devices, and concealment methods used by criminals. Interpol-UNSC Special Notice: Issued for individuals and entities subject to UN Security Council sanctions, like freezing of assets, travel bans, or arms embargoes. Source: Indian Express CLUSTER MUNITIONS Syllabus: Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: A Russian ballistic missile with cluster munitions struck a residential area in northern Ukraine, killing 11 people and injuring 84 others. Background: – Also, U.S. President Joe Biden authorized for the first time the use of U.S.-supplied longer-range missiles by Ukraine to strike inside Russia, after extensive lobbying by Ukrainian officials. What are Cluster Munitions? Definition: Cluster munitions are explosive weapons designed to release multiple smaller submunitions or bomblets over a wide area. Types: Delivered via rockets, artillery, or aircraft. Purpose: Used to target personnel, vehicles, or infrastructure in a concentrated region. Mechanism Cluster munitions open mid-air, scattering submunitions across a wide area. Many bomblets may remain unexploded, creating long-term risks similar to landmines. International Concerns Humanitarian Issues: Unexploded bomblets pose a threat to civilians for years after conflicts end. High civilian casualties due to their indiscriminate nature. Environmental Damage: Land contamination and restricted use of agricultural areas. Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM) Adopted: 2008; entered into force in 2010. Objective: To prohibit the use, development, production, acquisition, stockpiling, and transfer of cluster munitions. Ratifications: Over 110 countries have ratified or acceded to the convention. Provisions: Assistance for victims and clearance of contaminated areas. States that have not joined: Major military powers like the USA, Russia, China, and India. India’s Position India has not signed the CCM, citing: Security considerations and legitimate defensive needs. Lack of universal adherence to the convention. Concern over the efficacy of existing alternatives. Source: New Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements regarding Cluster Munitions: They are explosive weapons that release smaller submunitions over a wide area. The Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM) has been ratified by India. Unexploded submunitions from cluster bombs pose long-term risks similar to landmines. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3   Q2.) With reference to INTERPOL Notices, consider the following pairs:   Notice Color                    Purpose   Red Notice                     Request to locate and provisionally arrest a person for extradition. Blue Notice                    Request to collect information about a person’s location or identity. Green Notice                Alerts of threats posed by a person’s criminal activities internationally. Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3   Q3.) Consider the following statements regarding the Sabarmati River: It originates in the Aravalli Hills in Rajasthan. The river flows entirely within the state of Gujarat. The Sabarmati Riverfront Project is an example of urban river rejuvenation. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  20th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 21st November 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 20th November 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here