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Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2025 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 19th February 2025

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2025 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 18th February 2025

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 18th February 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) TAIWAN Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – GEOGRAPHY, WORLD HISTORY, INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: The U.S. State Department’s Taiwan page removed a previous statement about not supporting Taiwan’s independence last week. Background: – The United States has no formal diplomatic ties with Taiwan but is its strongest international backer. About Taiwan Taiwan, officially the Republic of China (RoC), is situated in the western Pacific Ocean and is separated from mainland China by the Taiwan Strait. Taiwan is neighbored by Japan to the northeast, the Philippines to the south, and mainland China to the west. The East China Sea lies to the north of the island, the Philippine Sea to the east, the Luzon Strait directly to the south, and the South China Sea to the southwest. Taiwan is prone to earthquakes as it lies along the Pacific “Ring of Fire” — where 90% of the world’s earthquakes take place. History of Taiwan  Taiwan was briefly controlled by the Dutch and Spanish in the 1600s. In 1684, the Qing dynasty incorporated Taiwan as part of Fujian province and later declared it a separate Chinese province in 1885. Following the Qing’s defeat in a war with Japan, it became a Japanese colony in 1895. In 1945, it was handed over to the Republic of China government at the end of World War Two. In 1949 after being defeated by Mao Zedong’s communist forces, the Republic of China government fled and moved its capital to Taiwan, and Republic of China remains the island’s formal name. Mao set up the People’s Republic of China, and claimed it was the only legitimate Chinese government for the whole of China, including Taiwan, as the Republic of China’s successor state. For decades, the Republic of China (ROC) based in Taipei claimed to be the legitimate government of China. However, in 1971, it was expelled from the United Nations in favor of the Beijing government. However, Taiwan is a region where the people elect their own leaders, and it has a defined territory governed by its own military, passport, and currency. As a result, Taiwan functions with de facto independence, even though most countries do not formally recognize it as such. Currently, only 12 countries maintain formal diplomatic ties with Taipei, most of which are small and developing nations. Most major Western countries, along with U.S. allies, maintain close unofficial relations with Taiwan by recognizing its passport and having de facto embassies in each other’s capitals. India does not have formal diplomatic ties with Taiwan yet. India has an office in Taipei for diplomatic functions — India-Taipei Association (ITA) is headed by a senior diplomat. Taiwan has the Taipei Economic and Cultural Center (TECC) in New Delhi. Both were established in 1995. Source: Indian Express ARAVALI SAFARI PARK Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – GEOGRAPHY, ENVIRONMENT Context: The Haryana government’s ambitious 3,858 hectare Aravali safari park project spread across Gurugram and Nuh is envisaged to be the world’s largest safari park. However, the project has faced stiff opposition ever since it was first mooted. Background: – A group of 37 retired Indian Forest Service officers have written a letter to Prime Minister seeking to scrap the project arguing that the project’s aim is to simply increase tourist footfall and not conserve the mountain range. Key takeaways The hills in the southern districts of Gurugram and Nuh are a part of Aravali, the oldest fold mountain range in the world.  Aravali runs diagonally across Rajasthan extending from Champaner in Gujarat in the southwest to near Delhi in the northeast for about 690 km.  It is ecologically significant as it combats desertification by checking the spread of the Thar Desert towards eastern Rajasthan, and performs the role of an aquifer with its highly fractured and weathered quality rocks allowing water to percolate and recharge the groundwater. What are the laws protecting Aravali? Of the approximately 80,000 hectare Aravali hill area in Haryana, a majority is protected under various laws and by orders of the Supreme Court and NGT.  The most widespread protection to the Aravalis comes from the Punjab Land Preservation Act (PLPA), 1900. The Special Sections 4 and 5 of the Act restrict the breaking of land and hence deforestation in hills for non-agricultural use. Recently around 24,000 hectares has been notified as Protected Forest under the Indian Forest Act, as a proposed offset to forest land diversion in the Nicobar islands. Similarly, the T.N. Godavarman Thirumulpad judgment (1996) extends legal protection to forests as per dictionary meaning — which should cover the remaining Aravali areas that are not notified as forest. The Regional Plan-2021 for the National Capital Region also offers crucial protection, designating the Aravalis and forest areas as ‘Natural Conservation Zone’ and restricting the maximum construction limit to 0.5%. Source: The Hindu EXPERIMENTAL ADVANCED SUPERCONDUCTING TOKAMAK (EAST) Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, Chinese scientists reported that they were able to maintain a plasma at a temperature of 100 million degrees C for about 1,066 seconds in a nuclear fusion reactor called the Experimental Advanced Superconducting Tokamak (EAST). Background: Nuclear fission produces harmful radioactive waste whereas nuclear fusion doesn’t. This is why developing a nuclear fusion reactor has become an important technological goal for the world. Challenges of nuclear fusion The tritium problem The problem is the amount of energy required to start and sustain a fusion reaction. The lightest nucleus in nature is of hydrogen, consisting of a single proton. An isotope of hydrogen called deuterium has one proton and one neutron in its nucleus. The nucleus of another isotope called tritium has one proton and two neutrons.  Deuterium-deuterium fusion requires a higher temperature to begin than deuterium-tritium fusion. This is because the extra neutron in the tritium nucleus helps overcome the repulsion of like-charges between the protons. The fusion of a deuterium and a tritium nucleus creates a non-radioactive helium-4 nucleus, a neutron, and 17.6 MeV of energy, which is significant. While deuterium is abundant in seawater, there are no natural deposits of tritium and it is very hard to produce. At present it is mostly created as a by-product in heavy-water fission reactors in Canada, India, and South Korea. The temperature problem For two nuclei to fuse, two things need to happen: the like-charges in the nuclei (due to the protons) need to be overcome, then the particles need to come within around 1 femtometre (fm) of each other so they can bond with each other using the strong nuclear force. This force is the strongest fundamental force in nature and is responsible for keeping protons and neutrons together in the nuclei of atoms. But on the flip side, it only acts across very short distances. This is why the nuclei need to be heated to such high temperatures: to give them enough energy to overcome their repulsion and get so close to each other. There are different reactor designs to achieve nuclear fusion by meeting these conditions. One set of designs involves the use of a tokamak — a donut-shaped vessel where the nuclei are confined, like in a cage, and made to fuse. Importance of EAST At present, EAST isn’t producing electricity. It is yet to reach a milestone called ignition: meaning it doesn’t produce enough heat for more fusion reactions to occur, a.k.a. become self-sustaining. EAST is a testbed reactor for ITER, an international megaproject in which six countries around the world, including India, and the European Union are working together to build a tokamak that will sustain nuclear fusion that releases more energy than that required to sustain the plasma. Crucially, EAST’s successes are important for ITER’s future because the latter has come under criticism for its delayed timelines and cost overruns. ITER has been called the most expensive science experiment in history. Source: The Hindu RAMAKRISHNA PARAMAHMSA Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – HISTORY, ETHICS Context: February 18, 2025, marks the 189th birth anniversary of Ramakrishna Paramahamsa, the revered 19th-century saint. Background: – Born as Gadadhar Chattopadhyay on February 18, 1836, Sri Ramakrishna Paramahamsa was one of the world’s most significant religious figures. Key takeaways Ramakrishna Paramahamsa (1836–1886) was born in Kamarpukur, West Bengal. He underwent profound mystical experiences that led him to explore various religious practices, including Hinduism, Islam, and Christianity. Priest at Dakshineswar Kali Temple: At the age of 20, Ramakrishna became the priest of the Dakshineswar Kali Temple near Kolkata, where he began his intense spiritual practices. Devotion to Goddess Kali: He developed an intense devotion to Goddess Kali, whom he regarded as the Divine Mother. His spiritual practices often involved deep meditation and communion with the Divine. Core Teachings and Impact: Oneness of God: Ramakrishna emphasized that all religions lead to the same ultimate truth, and God can be realized through any sincere spiritual path. Divine Motherhood: He often spoke of God as the Divine Mother, emphasizing love, compassion, and devotion. Renunciation and Detachment: He advocated for detachment from material desires and the importance of leading a simple, spiritual life. Service to Humanity: Ramakrishna believed that serving humanity is a form of worship, as God resides in all beings. Harmony of Religions: His famous saying, “As many faiths, so many paths,” highlights his belief in the unity of all religions. Spiritual Realization Over Rituals: Emphasizing personal, direct experience of the divine, he challenged the orthodox practices of his time, advocating for a more experiential and inclusive spirituality. Historical and Cultural Relevance: Indian Renaissance: His ideas contributed significantly to the 19th-century spiritual and cultural revival in India. By promoting the intrinsic value of Indian spiritual traditions, he played a role in countering the colonial narrative that often undermined indigenous culture. Influence on Modern Thought: His teachings laid the groundwork for later reforms in social and religious spheres. Most notably, his disciple Swami Vivekananda carried forward his message, establishing the Ramakrishna Mission and introducing Indian philosophy to the Western world. Source: News18 PROJECT WATERWORTH Syllabus: Prelims – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: Meta announced its most ambitious subsea cable endeavour ever – Project Waterworth. Background: – The project will be a multi-billion dollar, multi-year investment to strengthen the scale and reliability of the world’s digital highways. Key takeaways Project Waterworth is an ambitious initiative by Meta to build the world’s longest undersea cable system, spanning over 50,000 kilometers—exceeding Earth’s circumference. The initiative will bring industry-leading connectivity to the US, India, Brazil, South Africa, and other key regions. The cable would be the longest to date that uses a 24 fibre-pair system, giving it a higher capacity, and would help support its AI projects, according to Meta, which owns Facebook, Instagram and WhatsApp. Meta said it would lay its cable system up to 7,000 metres deep and use enhanced burial techniques in high-risk fault areas, such as shallow waters near the coast, to avoid damage from ship anchors and other hazards. Project Waterworth, by leveraging advanced machine learning models, aims to predict and mitigate potential disruptions, enhancing the resilience of subsea networks. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs   Q1.) Consider the following statements regarding the Experimental Advanced Superconducting Tokamak (EAST) and nuclear fusion: It is a nuclear fusion reactor designed to generate electricity. EAST aims to achieve self-sustaining nuclear fusion, also known as ignition. Nuclear fission produces harmful radioactive waste whereas nuclear fusion doesn’t. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3   Q2.) With reference to Project Waterworth, consider the following statements: It is a multi-billion-dollar initiative by Meta to build the world’s longest undersea cable system. The project aims to support artificial intelligence (AI) infrastructure by enhancing global connectivity. The cable system will exclusively connect North America and Europe. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3   Q3.) With reference to Ramakrishna Paramahamsa, consider the following statements: He was born in Tamil Nadu. He served as a priest at the Dakshineswar Kali Temple near Kolkata. He emphasized the harmony of religions and believed that all faiths lead to the same ultimate truth. Swami Dayananda Saraswati was his most prominent disciple who spread his teachings worldwide. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 2, and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  17th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – d

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 17th February 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) MUNICH SECURITY CONFERENCE Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: German Chancellor Olaf Scholz delivered a strong rebuke to U.S. Vice President J.D. Vance’s attack on Europe’s stance toward hate speech and the far right, saying it was not right for others to tell Germany and Europe what to do. Background: – Mr. Vance had lambasted European leaders on the first day of the Munich Security Conference, accusing them of censoring free speech and criticising German mainstream parties’ “firewall” against the far-right Alternative for Germany (AfD). About Munich Security Conference (MSC) The Munich Security Conference (MSC) is an annual forum that brings together global leaders, policymakers, and experts to discuss international security issues. The MSC was founded by a German official and publisher Ewald-Heinrich von Kleist at the peak of the Cold War in 1963. The conference initially focused on military issues and was mainly attended by Western countries, who came together to display a united front against Soviet communism. After the end of the Cold War, the conference expanded its agenda beyond defence and security to include issues like climate change and migration. It also began inviting leaders from eastern nations, including Russia, India and China. Today, the MSC, held in February every year, “seeks to promote trust and contribute to the peaceful resolution of conflicts by facilitating ongoing, curated, yet informal dialogue within the international security community”. Key Takeaways from the Munich Security Conference (MSC) 2025 Shift in the Transatlantic Security Framework The North Atlantic Treaty Organization, has been the cornerstone of European security, ensuring collective defense against external threats. However, recent developments indicate a fundamental shift. While U.S. remains a NATO member, European nations can no longer assume automatic U.S. military support in times of crisis. U.S.-Russia Talks on Ukraine: A Policy Shift The U.S. administration has initiated diplomatic talks with Russia to negotiate an end to the Ukraine war, despite strong opposition from European leaders and Kyiv. Notably, Ukrainian President Volodymyr Zelensky has not been invited to these talks, raising concerns about Ukraine’s exclusion from crucial negotiations affecting its sovereignty and security. The move has further strained U.S.-Europe relations. Increased Defense Expenditure for European NATO Members The MSC discussions underscored the necessity for Europe to escalate its defense spending in response to Russia’s growing military assertiveness. The current NATO-mandated minimum of 2% of GDP on defense is now expected to rise to 3%. While the U.S. has historically provided substantial military aid to Ukraine, European nations have now surpassed the U.S. in total financial and humanitarian assistance. U.S. Vice President JD Vance’s Controversial Speech U.S. V.P’s speech was widely perceived as critical of European policies. Instead of reaffirming U.S. support for Ukraine, his remarks focused on Europe’s handling of migration, free speech, and governance issues. His address was met with criticism from European leaders. However, the speech was well-received by certain political factions, including President Trump. This development signals growing ideological divergences between U.S. and Europe. Economic Tensions and U.S.-Europe Trade Disputes Amid the discussions at MSC, Trump announced a 25% tariff on all steel and aluminum imports, effective from March. This decision exacerbates economic tensions between the U.S. and Europe, adding to existing disputes over trade policies and defense commitments. Source: BBC DISTRIBUTED DENIAL OF SERVICE (DDOS) ATTACK Syllabus: Prelims – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: In January, web-based portal Kaveri 2.0, which streamlines property registrations in Karnataka, faced sporadic, crippling server outages. On investigating the outage, the Revenue Department and E-Governance Department concluded that it was a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack. Background: – DDoS attacks can lead to a service downtime, which is the primary goal of a DDoS attack — to render a service unavailable, leading to a disruption or potential loss of revenue. Key takeaways A DDoS attack is a malicious attempt to disrupt the normal functioning of a targeted server, service, or network by overwhelming it with a flood of internet traffic.  Unlike a Denial of Service (DoS) attack, which typically involves a single source, a DDoS attack leverages multiple compromised systems, often infected with malware, to generate the traffic. These compromised systems are collectively known as a botnet. Such attacks may be aimed at saturating the bandwidth of a site, exploiting weaknesses in the network protocol stack, or targeting specific weaknesses in applications or services. While DDoS attacks do not directly steal data, they can be used as a distraction while other forms of cyberattacks, such as data breaches, are executed. The Kaveri 2.0 portal, critical for property registrations, experienced performance issues recently. Fake accounts were created, and entries were made into the database using these accounts, overwhelming the system. The attack involved 62 email accounts originating from 14 IP addresses, highlighting the distributed nature of the assault. Ways to mitigate such attacks Organisations implement advanced traffic filtering mechanisms to distinguish between legitimate and malicious traffic. Monitoring tools can help identify unusual traffic patterns and take pre-emptive actions.  Enforcing rate limiting can control the number of requests a user can make in a given time frame, preventing the system from being overwhelmed. Bot detection technologies, such as CAPTCHA challenges and behavioural analysis, can identify and block automated tools or bots.  Robust authentication mechanisms and regular security audits can strengthen the security of online services and prevent unauthorised access. Source: The Hindu PRESIDENT’S RULE Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – POLITY Context: Four days after Manipur Chief Minister N. Biren Singh’s resignation, the Union government announced that President’s rule has been implemented in the violence-hit State.  Background: The violence between the Meitei and Kuki-Zo communities, ongoing since May 2023, has claimed above 250 lives and displaced over 60,000 people.  The conflict originated from the Meitei demand for Scheduled Tribe (ST) status, which the Kukis opposed, fearing loss of job opportunities and other affirmative actions meant for STs. Key takeaways Emergency provisions, inspired by the German Constitution, protect India’s sovereignty, unity and security. They empower the Central government to address extraordinary crises by temporarily assuming control. The Constitution provides for three types of emergencies — national (Article 352), State (Article 356) and financial (Article 360). In Manipur, the President has proclaimed a “state emergency” — popularly known as “President’s Rule” or “Constitutional Emergency” — by exercising powers under Article 356. This fulfils the Union’s obligation under Article 355 to protect States against ‘external aggression’ and ‘internal disturbance’ and to ensure that State governments operate as per the Constitution.  When a State’s “constitutional machinery” fails due to non-performance or malperformance, Article 356(1) empowers the President to issue a proclamation — if she is satisfied that the State government cannot function constitutionally. This effectively transfers all executive functions of the State to the Centre and legislative functions to Parliament while leaving the High Court’s (HC) powers unaffected.  Additionally, Article 365 provides that if a State fails to comply with any Union directions under constitutional provisions, the President may declare a “Constitutional Emergency.” As per Clause 3 of Article 356, the proclamation must be laid before each House of Parliament, and unless approved by a ‘simple majority’ in both Houses, it ceases after two months. Once approved, it remains effective for six months from the proclamation date, with further six-month extensions requiring additional Parliamentary approval.  Renewal beyond one year is allowed only if two conditions are met — an Emergency has been declared in the country or any part of the State, and if the Election Commission certifies that President’s rule is necessary due to difficulties in conducting State elections. In no case can the proclamation remain effective for more than three years. How is a ‘constitutional emergency’ different from a ‘national emergency’? Article 352 governs the proclamation of a “national emergency,” which has been invoked thrice — during the 1962 India-China war, the 1971-armed conflict with Pakistan, and in 1975 on grounds of “internal disturbance.” Unlike a “State emergency,” proclaiming a “national emergency” requires that the President be satisfied that India’s security — or any part of its territory — is threatened by war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.  The 44th Constitutional amendment (1978) introduced safeguards against misuse. It replaced “internal disturbance” with “armed rebellion”, mandated a written recommendation from the Cabinet, and shortened the parliamentary approval window from two months to one month. It clarified that Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended, and that the President must revoke the proclamation if the Lok Sabha passes a resolution disapproving it. The amendment restored judicial review of the President’s satisfaction in proclaiming an emergency, a safeguard removed by the 38th Constitutional amendment (1975). Unlike a “constitutional emergency” (which can last up to three years), a “national emergency” has no time limit.  Additionally, while the President’s rule (Article 356) requires a ‘simple majority’ for parliamentary approval, a national emergency needs a ‘special majority’.  In a national emergency, the State executive and legislature continue to function, whereas under President’s Rule, the State executive is dismissed, and the legislature is suspended or dissolved. President’s rule does not affect citizens’ fundamental rights, unlike a national emergency, where under Article 358, freedoms under Article 19 become inoperative, and the President may suspend other fundamental rights, except Articles 20 and 21. Source: The Hindu THE SCHEDULED TRIBES AND OTHER TRADITIONAL FOREST DWELLERS (RECOGNITION OF FOREST RIGHTS) ACT, 2006 Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – POLITY Context: Sixteen years since The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 (also known as FRA) was introduced in January 2008, forest dwellers continue to face significant hurdles.  Background: – Only three states in India have recognised a notable number of Community Forest Resource (CFR) rights, with Maharashtra being the only state where these rights have been operationalised, an analysis has noted. Key takeaways The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, commonly known as the Forest Rights Act (FRA), is a significant piece of legislation in India aimed at recognizing and vesting forest rights in forest-dwelling communities. Recognition of Forest Rights: The Act grants legal recognition to the rights of Scheduled Tribes (STs) and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (OTFDs) who have been living in forests for generations but lacked legal ownership. It acknowledges both individual rights (e.g., land rights) and community rights (e.g., rights over common resources). Eligibility Criteria: Scheduled Tribes (STs): They must be residing in the forest land before 13th December 2005 and depend on forests for livelihood. Other Traditional Forest Dwellers: Non-tribal communities who have been living in forests for at least three generations (75 years) prior to December 13, 2005, and depend on forests for their livelihood. Land Ceiling: The Act sets a ceiling on the extent of land that can be recognized under individual rights, typically up to 4 hectares, subject to state-specific variations. Types of Rights Recognized: Individual Rights: Rights to land and resources that have been traditionally accessed by individuals or families. Community Rights: Rights over common property resources, including grazing grounds, water bodies, and traditional seasonal resource access. Right to Protect and Conserve: Rights to protect, regenerate, conserve, or manage any community forest resource traditionally protected and conserved by the community. Right to Intellectual Property: Rights over traditional knowledge related to biodiversity and cultural diversity. Right to Rehabilitation: If eviction is required for conservation, proper rehabilitation must be ensured. Gram Sabha’s Role: The Gram Sabha (village assembly) plays a crucial role in initiating the process of determining forest rights. It is responsible for receiving claims, consolidating and verifying them, and then passing resolutions to be forwarded to higher authorities. No forest rights can be acquired or transferred without the consent of the Gram Sabha. Claims Process: Forest-dwelling communities can file claims for recognition of their rights. The claims are verified and approved at various levels, including the Gram Sabha, Sub-Divisional Level Committee (SDLC), and District Level Committee (DLC). Protection from Eviction: The Act provides protection to forest-dwelling communities from eviction or displacement without the recognition and verification of their rights. It ensures that no member of a forest-dwelling community can be evicted until the process of recognition and verification of rights is complete. Source: Down To Earth INDIRECT PROMPT INJECTION ATTACKS Syllabus: Prelims – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: Indirect prompt injection, a technique that manipulates chatbots into executing malicious commands, has become a significant concern for developers and users alike. Background: – Despite efforts by tech giants like Google and OpenAI to fortify their systems, hackers continue to exploit vulnerabilities, leading to potential data breaches and misinformation. Key takeaways Indirect prompt injection attacks are a significant security concern in the realm of generative AI systems, particularly those utilizing large language models (LLMs).  Unlike direct prompt injections, where attackers input malicious commands directly into the AI system, indirect prompt injections involve embedding harmful instructions within external data sources that the AI system accesses. This can lead the AI to perform unintended actions, potentially compromising data integrity and user trust. Mechanism of Indirect Prompt Injection Attacks: Embedding Malicious Instructions: Attackers insert concealed commands into data sources such as emails, documents, or web content. For instance, a malicious prompt might be hidden within an email that, when processed by an AI assistant, instructs the system to leak sensitive information or perform unauthorized actions.  Exploitation Through Data Access: When the AI system accesses and processes this tainted data, it inadvertently executes the embedded instructions. This occurs because the AI cannot distinguish between legitimate data and malicious commands within the content it processes.  Potential Risks: Data Exfiltration: The AI might be manipulated to extract and transmit confidential information to unauthorized entities. Propagation of Malicious Content: In scenarios where AI systems generate or summarize content, they might unknowingly disseminate harmful instructions embedded within the source material. Unauthorized Actions: AI systems integrated with tools or plugins could be directed to perform actions beyond their intended scope, such as sending unauthorized emails or accessing restricted data.  Mitigation Strategies: Input Validation and Sanitization: Implement rigorous checks to detect and neutralize hidden commands within external data before processing. Contextual Differentiation: Enhance the AI’s ability to distinguish between executable instructions and regular data content, reducing the likelihood of unintended command execution.  Restricting External Data Access: Limit the AI system’s interaction with untrusted or unverified data sources to minimize exposure to potential threats. Human Oversight: Incorporate human review mechanisms for AI outputs, especially when dealing with sensitive information or actions, to catch anomalies. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs   Q1.) Which of the following statements regarding President’s Rule under Article 356 of the Indian Constitution is/are correct? President’s Rule can be imposed in a state if the constitutional machinery of that state has failed. The proclamation of President’s Rule must be approved by a simple majority in both Houses of Parliament within two months. Once approved, President’s Rule can remain in force indefinitely. Select the correct answer using the codes below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3   Q2.) Under the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006, which of the following rights are recognized? Individual forest rights over land for cultivation. Community rights over common property resources such as grazing grounds. Rights to protect and conserve forests and biodiversity. Absolute rights over protected areas granted to individuals. Select the correct answer using the codes below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2, and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4   Q3.) Which of the following statements about indirect prompt injection attacks is/are correct? Indirect prompt injection involves embedding malicious commands within external data sources like emails or web content. These attacks can lead to unauthorized actions being executed by AI systems. Restricting external data access and implementing input validation can help mitigate such attacks. Select the correct answer using the codes below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  15 February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – b

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 15th February 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) HUMAN-WILDLIFE CONFLICT Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: As Kerala’s Wayanad district grapples with the deaths of four people in 48 hours due to elephant attacks, the Union environment ministry has informed the Rajya Sabha that the state recorded 460 deaths and 4,527 injuries due to human-wildlife conflict in the 2020-2024 period. Background: – Kerala MPs have sought amendments to the Wildlife Protection Act to prioritise human safety in light of a spate of attacks. Key takeaways The human-wildlife management issue has also been discussed by the National Board for Wildlife. In the board’s last meeting, Kerala’s chief wildlife warden and officials from other states suggested that a national policy should be developed for managing human-wildlife conflict. A 2018 study by Dehradun’s Wildlife Institute of India and the Periyar Tiger Conservation Foundation in Kerala, has found two major drivers of human-animal conflict in the state. First is the decline in the quality of forest habitats, largely due to the cultivation of alien plants — mainly acacia, mangium and eucalyptus — in forest tracts for commercial purposes. With 30,000 hectares of forest land in Kerala being used for cultivation of these species, animals are deprived of their natural habitat and food sources. Moreover, these water-guzzling species also strain the forest’s natural water resources.  Invasive species such as lantana, mikania and senna, planted by forest department over decades, have also hindered growth of natural vegetation in forests. While the Kerala forest department banned the cultivation of acacia and eucalyptus in forest tracts in 2018, the process of regenerating natural forests, such that animals do not face shortage of food and water, will take time.  So far only 1115 hectors of forest could be reconverted into natural habitats through eco-restoration process. The study also found that changing agri-practices were also responsible for drawing animals. In recent years, owing to poor returns, more farmland is being left unattended. This makes them targets for wildlife looking to snack on bananas and pineapples. Moreover, the increase in wildlife attacks has further pushed people to safer settlements away from their farms. This further entices animals to raid estates neighbouring forests. The crisis in Kerala’s farm sector has also driven many towards animal husbandry. But domesticated animals are also prime targets for tigers and other carnivores. Apart from declining quality of forests and changing agri-practices, a number of other human activities, including waste disposal near forested areas, fragmentation of animal habitats due to wanton construction, and increased human presence in and around animal habitat also contribute to increasing animal-human conflict in Kerala. How Kerala is addressing the issue The state has several initiatives – schemes for the construction of elephant-proof trenches, elephant-proof stone walls, and solar powered electric fencing. To keep animals in forests, Kerala has also undertaken eco-restoration programmes. The state is also running a scheme to acquire land from farmers, to be then converted into forestland. In areas which see the highest incidence of human-animal conflict, Rapid Response Teams have also been established. Source: Indian Express CHOOSING NEXT CHIEF ELECTION COMMISSIONER Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – POLITY Context: With Chief Election Commissioner Rajiv Kumar set to retire on February 18, a three-member selection committee headed by Prime Minister is set to meet on February 17 to pick his successor. Background: – This is the first time that a CEC will be selected under the provisions of the new law — the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023. Before this, Election Commissioners Gyanesh Kumar and Sukhbir Singh Sandhu had been selected under the new law. Key takeaways Earlier, Election Commissioners and the Chief Election Commissioner were appointed by the President based on the recommendations of the government. The law came into effect after the Supreme Court, in its ruling in March 2023, mandated a selection panel be formed and said that it should comprise the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and the Chief Justice of India. The court said the order would hold good until a law was made by Parliament. However, when the law was passed, the Centre replaced the CJI with a Union Minister as the third member, giving the government a dominant role in the appointment process. On February 17, the panel will select a name from a list of five prepared by a search committee. The Act says, “A Search Committee headed by the Minister of Law and Justice and comprising two other members not below the rank of Secretary to the Government of India, shall prepare a panel of five persons for consideration of the Selection Committee, for appointment as the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners”. After Mr. Rajiv Kumar, Mr. Gyanesh Kumar is the senior-most Election Commissioner. The committee is also likely to select an Election Commissioner in case current Mr. Gyanesh Kumar is elevated to the top post. According to the law, the CEC and other ECs will be appointed from among persons who are holding or have held a post equivalent to the rank of secretary to the government of India and will be persons of integrity with knowledge of and experience in management and conduct of elections. Source: The Hindu DOKRA ARTWORK Syllabus: Prelims – ART & CULTURE Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi has gifted Dokra artwork to French President Emmanuel Macron. Background: Dhokra (also spelt Dokra) is non–ferrous metal casting using the lost-wax casting technique.  Key takeaways Dhokra Art is an ancient Indian metal casting tradition that has been practiced for over 4,000 years, dating back to the Indus Valley Civilization.  This art form is renowned for its distinctive lost-wax casting technique, producing non-ferrous metal artifacts that are celebrated for their primitive simplicity, enchanting folk motifs, and robust forms. The term “Dhokra” is derived from the Dhokra Damar tribes, traditional metalsmiths of West Bengal and Odisha. Their craftsmanship traces back to the Indus Valley Civilization, with the famous “Dancing Girl” bronze statue from Mohenjo-Daro being a prime example of early lost-wax casting. Geographical Spread: Over centuries, Dhokra artisans migrated across India. Today, Dhokra art is practiced nationwide, with each region infusing its unique cultural nuances into the craft. The Lost-Wax Casting Process: Core Creation: Artisans begin by shaping a core from clay, roughly outlining the desired artifact’s form. Wax Modeling: This clay core is enveloped in a layer of beeswax, which is meticulously sculpted to incorporate intricate designs and details. Mold Formation: Multiple layers of fine clay are applied over the wax model to create a sturdy mold. Once dried, the assembly is heated, causing the wax to melt and drain away, leaving a hollow clay mold. Metal Casting: Molten metal, typically brass or bronze, is poured into the vacant mold cavity. After cooling, the clay mold is broken open to reveal the metal artifact, which is then polished and finished. Cultural and Artistic Significance: Product Range: Dhokra artisans craft a diverse array of items, including figurines of deities, animals, and humans, as well as functional objects like lamps, jewelry, and utensils. Design Aesthetics: The art is characterized by its rustic charm, with motifs reflecting tribal folklore, nature, and daily life, often showcasing elongated forms and intricate patterns. Source: NDTV SOVEREIGN GREEN BONDS Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – ECONOMY Context: India’s push to fund green investments through Sovereign Green Bonds (SGrBs) is facing muted investor demand, restricting the Union government’s ability to secure a meaningful green premium—lower yields compared to regular bonds—from the debt market. Background: – When the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) auctioned two new SGrBs worth Rs 10,000 crore in November and January, bonds valued at Rs 7,443 crore remained unsold and were devolved to primary dealers as investors sought high yields. This came despite a rule change allowing NRIs and foreign portfolio investors to participate without restrictions. Key takeaways Sovereign Green Bonds (SGrBs) are debt instruments issued by governments to finance environmentally sustainable projects. In November 2022, the Indian government approved the Sovereign Green Bonds framework, outlining the deployment of proceeds in public sector projects that aid in decreasing the economy’s emissions intensity. A ‘green project’ classification is based on the following principles:  Encourages energy efficiency in resource utilization  Reduces carbon emissions and greenhouse gases  Promotes climate resilience and/or adaptation  Values and improves natural ecosystems and biodiversity especially in accordance with SDG principles  Government of India will use the proceeds raised from Sovereign Green Bonds (SGrB) to finance and/or refinance expenditure (in parts or whole) for eligible green projects falling under ‘Eligible Categories’. Excluded Projects :  Projects involving new or existing extraction, production and distribution of fossil fuels, including improvements and upgrades; or where the core energy source is fossil-fuel based  Nuclear power generation  Direct waste incineration  Alcohol, weapons, tobacco, gaming, or palm oil industries  Renewable energy projects generating energy from biomass using feedstock originating from protected areas  Landfill projects  Hydropower plants larger than 25 MW Source: Indian Express CLIMATE RISK INDEX (CRI) Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: India is among the nations hit hardest by extreme weather over the past 30 years, according to the newly released 2025 Climate Risk Index (CRI). Background: – Between 1993 and 2022, the country endured more than 400 extreme events — including floods, heatwaves, and cyclones — leading to 80,000 fatalities and economic losses nearing $180 billion. Key takeaways The Climate Risk Index (CRI) is an analytical tool developed by the non-governmental organization Germanwatch to assess the impacts of extreme weather events on countries and regions.  It evaluates both economic losses and human fatalities resulting from such events over specific periods, providing insights into countries’ exposure and vulnerability to climate-related hazards. Key Features of the Climate Risk Index: Assessment Parameters: The CRI analyzes data on extreme weather events and their associated impacts. It considers metrics such as the number of fatalities, economic losses (both absolute and relative to GDP), and the frequency of events. Timeframes: The index offers both annual assessments and long-term evaluations, typically spanning 20 to 30 years. Purpose: By highlighting the countries most affected by extreme weather events, the CRI aims to raise awareness about the need for climate adaptation and mitigation strategies. Recent Findings: According to the Global Climate Risk Index 2025, India has shown improvement in its ranking.  In 2019, India was the 7th most affected country globally due to extreme weather events, but by 2022, it improved to the 49th position. However, in the long-term assessment from 1993 to 2022, India remains among the top 10 most affected countries, ranking 6th. Source: Business Standard Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs   Q1.) With reference to Dokra artwork, consider the following statements: Dokra art is a non-ferrous metal casting technique that uses the lost-wax method. The art form originated during the Mughal period. Dokra artwork is primarily associated with tribal communities in Kerala. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Q2.) With reference to the Climate Risk Index (CRI), consider the following statements: The CRI is published annually by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). It assesses countries based on the impact of extreme weather events, including economic losses and human fatalities. According to the Global Climate Risk Index 2025, India ranks among the top 10 most affected countries in the long-term assessment (1993–2022). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Q3.) With reference to Sovereign Green Bonds (SGrBs), consider the following statements: These bonds are issued by private corporations to finance environmentally sustainable projects. The Indian government introduced its Sovereign Green Bond framework in 2022. Funds raised through SGrBs can be used for fossil fuel-based energy projects if they promote energy efficiency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  13th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – a Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2025 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 15th February 2025

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 14th February 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) CORRUPTION PERCEPTIONS INDEX Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: India ranked 96 out of 180 countries on the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) for 2024. Background: – The index ranked Denmark at the top, followed by Finland, and Singapore. Key takeaways The Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) is a global ranking that measures perceived levels of public sector corruption across countries. It is published annually by Transparency International, a non-governmental organization based in Germany. The index uses a scale of 0 to 100, where 0 is highly corrupt and 100 is corruption clean. The rank tells the country’s position relative to other countries in the index.  The score for each country is derived from a minimum of three data sources, selected from 13 distinct corruption surveys and assessments. These sources are gathered by a range of reputed organisations, such as the World Bank and the World Economic Forum. Transparency International gave India a CPI score of 38. In 2023, India’s overall score was 39 while in 2022, it was 40. There is a decline in the score of India on CPI. The CPI report has also highlighted that corruption is strongly intertwined with climate change. The funds intended to help those suffering from the consequences of global heating are stolen or misused. Corruption also impacts the implementation of policies aimed at addressing climate change leading to further environmental damage. Among India’s neighbors, Bangladesh has received a score of 23, Pakistan 27, and Sri Lanka 32. Bangladesh is one of the largest recipients of climate finance, which is vulnerable to embezzlement and other forms of corruption. Source: Indian Express CONVICTED PERSONS AND ELECTIONS Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – POLITY Context: The Supreme Court is hearing petitions filed by Ashwin Upadhyay and others, seeking a life time ban on convicted persons from contesting elections. Background: – A report by ADR states that 251 (46%) of the 543 elected MPs in 2024, have criminal cases against them, and 171 (31%) face serious criminal charges including rape, murder, attempt to murder and kidnapping. It added that chances of winning for a candidate with a criminal background was 15.4% as against just 4.4% for a candidate with a clean background. Key takeaways Section 8(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 (RP Act, 1951), provides for the disqualification of a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for not less than two years. Such a person is disqualified from contesting elections for a further period of six years from the date of release.  Section 8(1) further stipulates that a person convicted under criminal laws for heinous crimes like rape; the Protection of Civil Rights (PCR) act for preaching or practice of untouchability; UAPA for unlawful association; Prevention of Corruption Act etc., will be disqualified irrespective of the period of their sentence and six years after release. What were past judgements? In the Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR) case (2002), Supreme Court mandated the disclosure of criminal records of all candidates contesting elections.  In the CEC vs Jan Chaukidar case (2013), SC upheld the creative interpretation of the provisions of the RP Act, 1951 by the Patna HC. One of the qualifications as per the act to contest elections is that a person should be an ‘elector.’ Section 62(5) stipulates that a person in jail is not eligible to vote in elections. The court interpreted that persons who are under trial prisoners, therefore cease to be ‘electors’ and hence not qualified to contest elections. However, the Parliament amended the act in 2013 to overturn this judgment allowing under trial prisoners to contest elections.  In Lily Thomas (2013), the SC struck down section 8(4) of the RP Act, 1951, that allowed a sitting legislator to continue as a member even after being convicted if they filed an appeal. After this judgment, a sitting legislator is disqualified immediately after the sentencing for a conviction. Additional Information Section 11 of the RP Act, 1951 provides that the Election Commission (EC) may remove any disqualification or reduce the period of disqualification of a convicted person.  EC utilised this power in September 2019, to reduce the disqualification period of Prem Singh Tamang, incumbent Chief Minister of Sikkim, from six years to 13 months which allowed him to contest and win a byelection. Source: The Hindu MALARIA Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: The WHO’s recent declaration of Georgia as the 45th country to eliminate malaria is a significant milestone. Background: Despite decades of global efforts, malaria still causes over 240 million cases and more than 600,000 deaths annually. Key takeaways Malaria is a life-threatening vector-borne disease caused by Plasmodium parasites, which are transmitted to humans through the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. Causative Agent (Plasmodium Parasites) – There are five species of Plasmodium that cause malaria in humans: Plasmodium falciparum – Most severe, responsible for cerebral malaria. Plasmodium vivax – Causes recurring malaria due to dormant liver stage. Plasmodium malariae – Milder infection, can persist for years. Plasmodium ovale – Rare, found mainly in Africa & Asia. Plasmodium knowlesi – Zoonotic malaria, found in Southeast Asia. Transmission Cycle: Infected Anopheles mosquito bites a human. Parasites enter the bloodstream and reach the liver, where they multiply. They re-enter the bloodstream and infect red blood cells (RBCs), causing fever and chills. Some parasites develop into gametocytes, which are taken up by another mosquito, completing the cycle. Malaria Distribution & Impact: Endemic in tropical regions, mainly Africa, South Asia, and South America. India: Malaria cases are declining but still prevalent in tribal areas, Northeast, and forested regions. Vaccination: RTS,S/AS01 (Mosquirix) – First WHO-approved malaria vaccine (2021). R21/Matrix-M – Another promising vaccine candidate. Challenges in Developing a Malaria Vaccine & Why It Is Less Effective Compared to Viral Vaccines Complex Life Cycle of Plasmodium Unlike viruses, the malaria parasite (Plasmodium) has a highly complex life cycle involving multiple stages: Sporozoite stage (Liver stage) → Merozoite stage (Blood stage) → Gametocyte stage (Mosquito stage). Each stage expresses different antigens, making it difficult to target the parasite with a single vaccine. Antigenic Variability & Immune Evasion The malaria parasite has thousands of antigens, while viruses typically have fewer target antigens. Plasmodium can change its surface proteins (antigenic variation) to evade the immune system, making vaccine-induced immunity short-lived. Intracellular Nature of the Parasite After infection, malaria parasites hide inside liver and red blood cells, making them inaccessible to antibodies. The immune system struggles to detect and eliminate them, unlike viruses, which mostly remain extracellular at some stage. Lack of Effective Animal Models Most vaccines are tested in animal models before human trials. Malaria parasites are species-specific, and human malaria does not replicate well in animals, making research challenging. Viral vaccine development benefits from better animal models (e.g., monkeys for polio, mice for influenza). Source: The Hindu OBSCENITY Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – POLITY ; ETHICS Context: Ranveer Allahbadia, a popular content creator has become the subject of a Mumbai police probe over  obscene comments made during a comedy show. Background: – Mumbai police is yet to register an FIR, but the Assam cops have registered a complaint against Allahbadia and others including charges of ‘obscene acts’ under Section 296 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (BNS). Key takeaways Article 19(1)(a): Guarantees the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression. Article 19(2): Imposes reasonable restrictions on free speech in the interest of public decency and morality, allowing for laws against obscenity. Section 294 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita criminalises the creation and sale of obscene materials, including electronic content. It defines obscenity as material that is ‘lascivious or appeals to the prurient interest’—content that is overtly and excessively sexual—or that has the potential to ‘deprave and corrupt’ those who consume it. First-time offenders face up to two years of imprisonment and a fine of up to ₹5,000. History of obscenity rulings in India The most important ruling on obscenity laws involved Lady Chatterley’s Lover — a book by D H Lawrence, which was considered scandalous for its times due to its depictions of sexual encounters. It faced trials in India and the United Kingdom. In 1964, the Supreme Court of India held the book as obscene under Section 292 of the now-overhauled Indian Penal Code (IPC). The top court borrowed from the British case of Queen v. Hicklin (1868) — at which point their legal system adopted the ‘Hicklin test’ to determine if something was obscene or not. The court held the work to be obscene if it had the tendency to “deprave and corrupt those whose minds are open to such immoral influences.” However, the standard for obscenity had changed in the west before the SC pronounced this judgement and the Obscene Publications Act 1959 of UK said that a work must be considered ‘as a whole’ before its likely effect on audiences is mulled upon. This case would go on to influence the Indian Supreme Court to adopt ‘community standards’ test to gauge obscenity, as seen in Aveek Sarkar v State of West Bengal (2014). The court quashed obscenity proceedings against magazines which carred a photo of Boris Becker — the tennis player — in the nude with his fiancee. The SC held that applying the Hicklin test would result in the work being judged for “obscenity based on isolated passages of a work considered out of context and judged by their apparent influence on most susceptible readers, such as children or weak-minded adults.” Source: Deccan Herald EINSTEIN RING Syllabus: Prelims – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: The European Space Agency’s (ESA) Euclid space telescope has discovered a rare ring of light, known as an Einstein ring, around a galaxy nearly 590 million light-years away from Earth. Background: – Photos, which were taken by Euclid in September 2023 but released recently, of the Einstein ring show a bright ball of light in the centre with a bright, cloudy ring around it. Key takeaways An Einstein ring is a ring of light around a form of dark matter, galaxy or cluster of galaxies. It is essentially an example of gravitational lensing.  Gravitational lensing is a phenomenon which occurs when a massive celestial body — such as a galaxy or cluster of galaxies — creates a gravitational field which distorts and amplifies the light from distant galaxies that are behind it but in the same line of sight. The body causing the light to curve is called a gravitational lens. Einstein rings are named after Albert Einstein, whose general theory of relativity predicted that light could bend and brighten around objects across the cosmos. The first Einstein ring was discovered in 1987, and since then, several more have been discovered.  Einstein rings are not visible to the naked eye, and can be observed only through space telescopes such as Euclid. Why do scientists study Einstein rings? These rings help scientists investigate dark matter, which has never been detected but is believed to make up 85% of the total matter in the universe. Dark matter does not interact with light, but it does have a gravitational effect. Gravitational lensing therefore is sensitive to the presence of this dark matter, allowing us to indirectly detect it. Moreover, Einstein rings enable scientists to learn about distant galaxies, which otherwise might not be visible. They can also provide information about the expansion of the universe as the space between the Earth and other galaxies — both in the foreground and the background — is stretching, according to NASA. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs   Q1.) Which of the following statements regarding the Einstein Ring is correct? A) It is caused by the refraction of light from distant galaxies due to interstellar dust. B) It is a phenomenon where light bends around a massive object due to gravity, forming a ring-like structure. C) It occurs due to the scattering of light from dark matter particles. D) It is a type of black hole event horizon that emits visible light.   Q2.) Consider the following statements regarding malaria: It is caused by a bacterial pathogen transmitted by the Culex mosquito. Plasmodium falciparum is the most severe species and can cause cerebral malaria. Malaria vaccines are highly effective because Plasmodium has a simple life cycle. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3   Q3.) Which of the following statements regarding the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) is correct? A) It is published annually by the World Bank. B) It ranks countries based on real corruption cases and legal convictions. C) A higher CPI score indicates a higher level of corruption in a country. D) India’s ranking in the 2024 CPI report has declined compared to previous years. Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  13th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – a Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2025 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 14th February 2025

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 13th February 2025

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) SAROJINI NAIDU Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – HISTORY Context: Sarojini Naidu’s enduring legacy as a champion of women’s rights is honoured by celebrating her birth anniversary on February 13 as National Women’s Day in India. Background: – Born to Bengali parents in Hyderabad in 1879, Naidu was a woman of many talents.  Key takeaways Sarojini Naidu (1879–1949) was an Indian independence activist, poet, and the first woman to become the President of the Indian National Congress.  She played a crucial role in India’s struggle for independence and was known as the Nightingale of India due to her literary contributions. Key Contributions: Role in the Freedom Movement: Joined the Indian National Congress (INC) in 1905 during the Bengal Partition movement. Advocated for women’s rights, education, and social reforms. Played an active role in the Non-Cooperation Movement (1920–22) and Civil Disobedience Movement (1930). Participated in the Salt Satyagraha (1930) and was arrested for her involvement. Political Achievements: First Woman President of INC (1925) – Advocated for self-rule and equality. First Indian Woman Governor (1947) – Became the Governor of the United Provinces (now Uttar Pradesh) post-independence. Member of the Constituent Assembly Literary Contributions: Famous works: The Golden Threshold (1905), The Bird of Time (1912), The Broken Wing (1917). Source: Indian Express IMMIGRATION AND FOREIGNERS BILL, 2025 Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – POLITY Context: The Immigration and Foreigners Bill, 2025, is likely to be introduced by Union Home Minister Amit Shah in the ongoing Budget session of Parliament. Background: – The proposed legislation will replace the existing laws — the Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920; the Registration of Foreigners Act, 1939; the Foreigners Act, 1946; and the Immigration (Carriers’ Liability) Act, 2000. The acts, namely the Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920, the Registration of Foreigners Act, 1939, and the Foreigners Act, 1946, are not only of the pre-Constitution period but also, they were brought into extraordinary times of first and second world wars. While there is an underlying continuity and commonality of objectives among the four Acts, there are some overlapping provisions among the said laws. Key takeaways The Bill will specify the matters relating to foreigners and their registration, the provisions relating to the obligation of universities and educational institutions admitting any foreigner, the obligation of hospitals, nursing homes or any other medical institution admitting foreigners. The bill specifies the role of “every person occupying or having under his control any residential premises” to submit to the registration officer information in respect to any foreigners accommodated in such premises. It mandates every university and educational institution admitting any foreigner to furnish information to the registration officer.  Similarly, it specifies the role of “every hospital, nursing home or any other such medical institution providing medical, lodging or sleeping facility in their premises” to inform the authority (registration officer) about “any foreigner taking indoor medical treatment or their attendant for whom such lodging or sleeping facility has been provided”. The Bill obligates the carriers such as airlines and vessels to remove a passenger denied entry by the immigration officer and provide passenger and crew data to the authorities in advance. The bill carries a provision of up to ₹5 lakh in fine for violating carriers. Source: Indian Express NARI ADALATS Syllabus: Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: The government has written to states inviting proposals to establish ‘Nari Adalats’, Women and Child Development Minister Annpurna Devi said. Background: The ministry intends to extend the  scheme, already  running on a pilot basis in Assam and J&K, to other states. Key takeaways Nari Adalats are women-led alternative dispute resolution forums established under the “Sambal” sub-scheme of Mission Shakti by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.  These forums aim to provide women with an accessible grievance redressal mechanism at the gram panchayat level, addressing cases of petty nature such as harassment, subversion, or curtailment of rights. Key Features: Structure: Each Nari Adalat comprises 7 to 11 members, known as ‘Nyaya Sakhis,’ who are nominated by the gram panchayat.  Functioning: These forums resolve disputes through negotiation, mediation, and reconciliation, ensuring speedy, accessible, and affordable justice for women.  Implementation: Initially launched on a pilot basis in 2023 in 50 gram panchayats each in Assam and Jammu & Kashmir, the program has seen success, prompting the Ministry to invite proposals from other states and Union Territories for expansion.  Source: Indian Express PRESIDENT’S RULE AMONG OPTIONS FOR MANIPUR Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – POLITY Context: A significant temperature drop has been observed across North India due to a western disturbance currently positioned over North Pakistan, the India Meteorological Department (IMD) reported. Background: – After N Biren Singh resigned as Manipur’s Chief Minister, the BJP leadership is exploring its options. If the party fails to find a consensus CM candidate, the state may have to be put under President’s rule. Key takeaways The imposition of President’s Rule under Article 356 effectively transfers all the functions of the state government to the Centre and the function of the state legislature to Parliament during the period when it is in force. The process begins if the President, on receiving a report from the Governor, is “satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution”. President will issue a ‘Proclamation’, which can remain in force for up to two months. The Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha must approve it through a resolution before this period expires for it to remain operative further. If approved, the proclamation of President’s Rule can be extended to six months and Parliament can approve further six-month extensions for up to three years. Certain conditions must be met before a proclamation can be renewed by Parliament beyond a year since it was first issued. Further extensions can only be approved if an Emergency has been declared in the country or that particular state, or if the Election Commission certifies that President’s Rule is necessary due to difficulties in conducting state elections. Since 1950, when the Constitution first came into force, President’s Rule has been imposed a total of 134 times across 29 states and UTs.  It has been imposed most frequently in Manipur and Uttar Pradesh, at 10 times each. However, these are not the states (including UTs) that have spent the most time under central control. That distinction is held by Jammu & Kashmir, followed by Punjab and Puducherry.  Since 1950, Jammu and Kashmir has spent over 12 years (4,668 days) under President’s Rule and Punjab has been under Central control for over 10 years (3,878 days) in the same period. In both states, this is largely owed to recurring spells of militant and separatist activity, and unstable law and order situations. Source: Indian Express DAYANAND SARASWATI Syllabus: Prelims – HISTORY Context: 12th February marked the 201st birth anniversary of Dayanand Saraswati. Background: – In 2023, to commemorate his 200th birth anniversary, a year-long celebration was held across India. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, India’s second President, called Dayanand Saraswati ‘a maker of modern India.’ Key takeaways Dayanand Saraswati was born on February 12, 1824, in Morbi, Kathiawar, Gujarat.  In 1875, he founded the Arya Samaj. Arya Samaj played a crucial role in social awakening through its emphasis on social reforms and education. This was a monotheistic Hindu order that rejected the ritualistic excesses and social dogmas of orthodox Hinduism and promoted a united Hindu society on the basis of Vedic teachings. Among his various beliefs included a rejection of idolatry and the overly ritualistic traditions of Hinduism, support for women’s education, denunciation of child marriage, and an opposition to untouchability.  His magnum opus, Satyarth Prakash (1875), emphasised the “return to Vedic principles” that Dayanand Saraswati believed “had been lost” over time. The book uses the language of religious revivalism.  He advocated for worshipping of one Supreme God and followed simple rituals and recitation of Vedic mantras. All other religions were rejected by him and he wanted Hindus who had converted to other religions to return to Hinduism based on the Vedas. He also emerged as an early proponent of cow protection, who first published Gokarun·aˉnidhi , a pamphlet in 1881, which circulated his concerns against cattle slaughter. He later on went to establish a committee for the protection of cows called Gaurakshini Sabha in 1882. After he died in 1883 his followers established a school in Punjab in his name – Dayanand Anglo Vedic (DAV) School to educate children in modern subjects and at the same time keep them in touch with their religion and culture.  Philosophy of Dayanand Saraswati Crucial among his “ten founding principles of Arya Samaj” is the idea that all activities must be done for the benefit of humankind as a whole, rather than individuals or even idols and religious symbols. This universalism was directly antithetical to the caste system. While Dayanand did not fully oppose the institution of caste itself, he advocated for significant reform within it.  Citing the Vedas, he claimed that caste is not supposed to be hereditary but rather based on an individual’s talents and disposition. Furthermore, he was against the practice of untouchability, which he believed was an outcome of centuries of Brahmanical domination. Crucially, he advocated Vedic education for all castes. He campaigned for the education of women as well as against ‘regressive practices’ such as child marriage. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs   Q1.) Consider the following statements regarding Dayanand Saraswati: He founded the Arya Samaj in 1875 to promote Vedic principles. He strongly supported idol worship and ritualistic traditions of Hinduism. He advocated for the education of women and opposed child marriage. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3   Q2.) With reference to President’s Rule in India, consider the following statements: It is imposed under Article 356 of the Indian Constitution. The initial duration of President’s Rule is two months, extendable up to ten years with parliamentary approval. The Election Commission plays no role in the extension of President’s Rule beyond one year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3   Q3.) Which of the following statements about Sarojini Naidu is NOT correct? (a) She was the first Indian woman to become the President of the Indian National Congress. (b) She actively participated in the Civil Disobedience Movement and Salt Satyagraha. (c) She was the first Indian woman to be appointed as the Governor of a state post-independence. (d) She was awarded the Bharat Ratna for her contributions to India’s freedom struggle. Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  12th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – a Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2025 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 13th February 2025

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here