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Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 19th March 2020

IAS UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 19th March 2020 Archives (PRELIMS + MAINS FOCUS) State Human Rights Commission Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Polity In News: Rajasthan SHRC recommends meditation to fight COVID-19 The Protection of Human Rights Act of 1993 provides for the creation of State Human Rights Commission at the state level.  A State Human Rights Commission can inquire into violation of human rights related to subjects covered under state list and concurrent list in the seventh schedule of the Indian constitution The Governor of the state appoints the chairperson and other members on the recommendations of a committee consisting of   Chief Minister as its head  Speaker of the Legislative Assembly The state home minister  The leader of the opposition in the Legislative Assembly  In case the state has legislative council- The chairman and the leader of the opposition of legislative council would also be the members of the committee The chairman or any other member is removable by the President on the charge of proved misbehavior or incapacity after a regular inquiry by a judge of the Supreme Court. National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) puts contingency plans in place to fight COVID-19 Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Disaster Management In News: NDRF was established in 2006 under The Disaster Management Act, 2005  It comes under Ministry of Home Affairs It is the only dedicated disaster response force in the world It works under National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) which lays down policies, plans and guidelines for disaster management. Capabilities for undertaking disaster response, prevention, mitigation and capacity building At present there are 12 battalions in NDRF (three each from the BSF and CRPF and two each from CISF, ITBP and SSB) which are deployed strategically across country to provide immediate response. All battalions have been equipped and trained to respond natural and man-made disasters including chemical, biological, radiological and nuclear (CBRN) emergencies. Rehabilitation of Beggars Part of: GS Prelims and GS-I- Society  In News: The Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment is exploring the possibilities of a scheme for persons engaged in the act of begging. The Scheme would cover identification, rehabilitation, provision of medical facilities, counselling, education, skill development with the support of State governments & NGOs. The Ministry provides funds to the National Backward Classes Finance & Development Corporation (NBCFDC) for skill development programmes for beggars About NBCFDC NBCFDC is a Government of India Undertaking under the aegis of Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. It was incorporated under Section 25 of the Companies Act 1956 on 13th January 1992 as a Company not for profit. Its objective is to promote economic and developmental activities for the benefit of Backward Classes and to assist the poorer section of these classes in skill development and self-employment ventures. Ibuprofen Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- health In News: WHO advised patients suffering from COVID-19-like symptoms to avoid the drug ibuprofen, unless prescribed by doctors. It is an anti-inflammatory drug that is easily available with chemists in India, and can be purchased without a doctor’s prescription.  Ibuprofen, a non-steroid, is used for relief from joint pain, migraine, fever, body ache, and even pain during the menstrual cycle.  Its function is to reduce pain, swelling, and fever by suppressing substances that produce swelling in the body.  Other non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs include aspirin, cortisone, naproxen and diclofenac. The National Commission for Indian System of Medicine Bill, 2019  Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Governance In News: The Bill was passed by Rajya Sabha The Bill seeks to repeal the Indian Medicine Central Council Act, 1970 and provides for a medical education system to ensure availability of quality medical professionals of Indian System of Medicine Key features of the bill are: The Bill provides for the establishment of the National Commission for Indian System of Medicine (NCISM).  The NCISM will consist of 29 members, appointed by the central government.  Functions of the NCISM include:  Framing policies for regulating medical institutions and medical professionals of Indian System of Medicine Assessing the requirements of healthcare related human resources and infrastructure Ensuring compliance by the State Medical Councils of Indian System of Medicine of the regulations made under the Bill Ensuring coordination among the autonomous boards set up under the Bill. Autonomous Boards: The bill sets the following boards under supervision of NCISM The Board of Ayurveda and the Board of Unani, Siddha, and Sowa-Rigpa The Medical Assessment and Rating Board for Indian System of Medicine: The Ethics and Medical Registration Board:  The central government will constitute an Advisory Council for Indian System of Medicine.  The Council will be the primary platform through which the states/union territories can put forth their views and concerns before the NCISM.  Entrance Exam: There will be a uniform National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test for admission to under-graduate education in each of the disciplines of the Indian System of Medicine in all medical institutions regulated by the Bill. (MAINS FOCUS) Indian Polity Topic: General Studies 2: Structure, organization and functioning of the Executive and the Judiciary  Separation of powers between various organs dispute redressal mechanisms and institutions. Judicial Propriety Context: Within five months of his retirement as Chief Justice of India, Justice Ranjan Gogoi has been nominated to the Rajya Sabha by the government.  Former CJI had presided over politically sensitive cases (Assam NRC, Sabarimala, Ayodhya, Rafale, CBI) in which the government was a party. This raises the question that, should judges stop accepting post-retirement jobs offered by the government, at least for a few years after retiring. Consequence of Post-retirement appointments of Judges of Higher Courts Post-retirement appointments mean that Judges, during his serving period, can get vulnerable to the ruling dispensation pressures so as to deliver the verdict in government’s favour in a quid-pro-quo arrangement. It is often feared that a judge who is nearing retirement could decide cases in a manner that pleases the government in order to get a favourable post-retirement position. It would signal that the judiciary is not independent, but is vulnerable to dictates of the executive Deteriorates the Public Perception about the integrity of the Judiciary.  The very fact that a judge accepts such an appointment could cast doubt on his judgements.  Independence of Judiciary The authority of the Supreme Court of India can be said to be resting on two things: The cogency of its reasoning, and the integrity of its judges. India has adopted the doctrine of Separation of Powers whereby Legialature, elected by people, makes laws; executive who is a part of Legislature (Parliamentary form of government) implements the laws and Judiciary interprets these laws The judiciary is the upholder of the Constitution and provides a check against executive excesses, arbitrariness, and unlawful steps. Being Guardian of Constitution, the judiciary has to be independent — insulated from pressures and inducements. Independence of the Judiciary is ensured by many constitutional provisions like Judges do not hold their offices at the “pleasure” of the President They can only be impeached by a special majority of both houses (Article 124(4)) of Parliament  Article 121 and 211 provides that there shall be no discussion in the legislature of the state with respect to the conduct of any judge of Supreme Court or of a High Court in the discharge of his duties The salaries and allowances of the judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India in case of Supreme Court judges Parliament can only add to the powers and jurisdiction of the Supreme Court but cannot curtail them Both the Supreme Court and the High Court have the power to punish any person for their contempt (Article 129 and 215) Is this the first time that such post-retirement appointment is taking place? No, retired judges have been appointed to political office since independence. In 1952, Justice Fazl Ali was appointed the Governor of Orissa, shortly after retiring from the Supreme Court. In 1958, Chief Justice M C Chagla resigned from the Bombay High Court in order to become India’s Ambassador to the US at Prime Minister Nehru’s invitation. In April 1967, Chief Justice Subba Rao resigned from the Supreme Court to contest elections for President. Justice Baharul Islam served as Judge of Supreme Court from 4th Dec 1980 to 12th Jan 1983. He contested elections as a Congress party candidate and was elected to the Rajya Sabha from 15th June 1983 to 14th June 1989. He gave a Judgement in the case absolving the then Congress Bihar Chief Minister Jagannath Mishra in the urban cooperative bank scanda Ranganath Mishra served as CJI 25 Sep 1990 to 24 Nov 1991. He was first Chairman of the NHRC in 1993 and a member of the Rajya Sabha on a Congress ticket from 1998 to 2004. He was the sole member of the Commission of Inquiry into the 1984 anti-Sikh riots which gave clean chit to Congress Party In more recent times, Chief Justice P Sathasivam was appointed the Governor of Kerala. Should Judges be prohibited from Post-retirement appointment? There is no explicit prohibition against judges accepting Rajya Sabha nominations In the Constituent Assembly, K T Shah, suggested that High Court and Supreme Court judges should not take up an executive office with the government, “so that no temptation should be available to a judge for greater emoluments, or greater prestige which would in any way affect his independence as a judge”. Article 124(7) of the Indian Constitution provides that a retired Supreme Court judge cannot “plead or act in any court or before any authority within the territory of India”.  However, this provision only restricts post-retirement appointments in Judiciary itself, but not in posts of president, governor, member of parliament, etc In its 14th report in 1958, the Law Commission noted that retired Supreme Court judges used to engage in two kinds of work after retirement: Firstly, “chamber practice” (a term which would, today, mean giving opinions to clients and serving as arbitrators in private disputes) and secondly, “employment in important positions under the government”. The Law Commission frowned upon chamber practice, but did not recommend its abolition. However, it strongly recommended banning post-retirement government employment for Supreme Court judges because the government was a large litigant in the courts. The Commission’s recommendations were never implemented. Challenges in prohibiting the post-retirement appointments: It is often thought that the solution to this problem requires explicit prohibition on any post-judicial appointment, including commissions of inquiry.  The solution is not that simple; after all, there are many positions that require judges to be appointed. Institutions like NHRC, SHRC, NGT, Lokpal often require appointment of Judges of Higher Court. Thus, a blanket prohibition will restrict the working of other important institutions of our Democracy Way Forward: Cooling-off period: Several appointments to administrative bodies require a cooling-off period for individuals so as to eliminate the possibility or suspicion of a conflict of interest or quid pro quo. This cooling-off period must be extended to Indian Judiciary. Former CJI R M Lodha recommended a cooling-off period of at least 2 years. The 16-point code of conduct for judges also called the “Restatement of Values of Judicial Life” -adopted at a Chief Justices Conference in May 1997- needs to be followed by Judges in letter and spirit Connecting the dots Post-retirement prohibitions on Election Commission of India Case of Justice Mohammad Hidayatullah who was appointed vice-president nine years after his tenure as CJI ended. Indian Polity Topic: General Studies 2: Parliament and State legislatures—structure, functioning, conduct of business, powers & privileges and issues arising out of these.  Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation. An SC verdict violative of minority rights Context: Supreme Court upheld the West Bengal Madrasah Service Commission Act, 2008. The court set aside a Calcutta High Court verdict which had held the legislation was unconstitutional What is the legislation all about? As per the provision of the act, the appointment of teachers in these theological institutions (Madrassas) shall now be made by a board nominated by the government. As per Section 10 of the act, all appointments of teachers to the religious schools are to be recommended by the commission and the management committee shall be bound by such recommendations.  Section 11 says that anyone appointed in contravention of this Act shall not be considered a teacher and such an appointment shall be invalid.  Section 12 empowers the government to deny grants to the schools that refuse to make appointments in accordance with such recommendations.  Further, government recognition and affiliation of such schools can be withdrawn, if government guidelines are not followed Why were cases filed against this law? Several petitions were filed in the court challenging the validity of the law, contending that the government, which funds or provides aid to the minority institutions, can formulate guidelines for appointments of teachers but cannot itself appoint them Also, the act violates Article 30 which stated that all minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. Additionally, the judgment by a three-judge bench in Chandana Das (2019) case gave the Sikh minority institutions of West Bengal the right to appoint teachers.  The dual test criterion In Rev. Sidharjbhai (1963), a six-judge bench of the Supreme Court observed that every government regulation in respect of a minority institution shall be valid only when it satisfies the dual test, i.e.,  It is regulative and not destructive of the organisation’s minority character  It makes the minority institution an effective vehicle of minority education. Other Judgements which upheld the Minority Institution’s right to appoint teachers & Staff Kerala Education Bill case (1957)  Rev. Father W. Proost (1969) Very Rev. Mother Provincial (1969) Ahmedabad St. Xaviers (1974) Bihar State Madrasa Education Board (1990), where the court observed “under the guise of regulating educational standards to secure efficiency in institution, the state is not entitled to frame rules or regulations compelling the management to surrender its right to administration”. In T.M.A. Pai (2003) An 11-judge bench reiterated that the management of minority institutions should have freedom in day-to-day affairs of the institutions, for example, in appointment of teaching and non-teaching staff and administrative control.  However, minimum qualifications, experience and other conditions may be fixed by the government. The apex court has been consistent in holding that the term includes rights of minority institutions to select their governing bodies, teachers and staff and exercise disciplinary control over them and a right to fix reasonable fees and admit students in a fair and transparent manner. Importance of Minority Rights Protection of minorities is the hallmark of a civilisation.  Lord Acton said: “The most certain test by which we judge whether a country is really free is the amount of security enjoyed by minorities. special safeguards were guaranteed to the minorities and incorporated under Article 30 with a view to instil in them a sense of confidence and security.  Also, in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), minority rights were held to be the part of basic structure of the Constitution. Minority rights and special privileges (like Article 30) is thus necessary to ensure a thriving and a vibrant Democracy Conclusion The Chief Justice of India has now referred this judgment to a larger bench where we need to see if the judgement is upheld or reversed. Connecting the dots Article 29 and its difference with Article 30 Is Article 30 absolute? Or is it limited by reasonable restrictions? (TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE) Model questions: (You can now post your answers in comment section) Note:  Correct answers of today’s questions will be provided in next day’s DNA section. Kindly refer to it and update your answers.  Comments Up-voted by IASbaba are also the “correct answers”. Q 1. Consider the following statements about State Human Rights Commission (SHRC) The tenure of the chairperson and members is five years or until they attain the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier.  The recommendations of SHRC are binding on the state government or authority. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 2. Which of the following is true regarding State Human Rights Commission (SHRC)? The commission has the power of a civil court and can take cognizance of cases if received within one year of occurrence. It can recommend compensation to victim, prosecution of accused. But such recommendations aren’t binding. It submits special or annual reports to state legislatures along with action taken on their recommendations and reasons for non acceptance of advice. All Q 3. Consider the following statements about National Disaster Response Force(NDRF) It comes under Ministry of Home Affairs It is the only dedicated disaster response force in the world Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 4. Consider the following statements about National Backward Classes Finance & Development Corporation (NBCFDC) It is a Government of India Undertaking under the aegis of Ministry of Finance Its objective is to promote economic and developmental activities for the benefit of Backward Classes and to assist the poorer section of these classes in skill development and self-employment ventures Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 5. Hyogo Framework and Sendai Framework often seen in news is related to which of the following? Disaster Management Prevention of trade in wildlife Money Laundering and Terrorism funding Conservation of Biodiversity ANSWERS FOR 18 March 2020 TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE (TYK) 1 B 2 D 3 C 4 B 5 A Must Read About COVID-19  The Hindu About UP govt’s move to proceed with Ayodhya Mela: The Hindu About US elections and Climate Change: The Hindu

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Healthy Kidney – Ayushman Bhava – RSTV IAS UPSC

Healthy Kidney Archives World Kidney Day: March 12 – to raise awareness of the importance of kidney health and preventive behaviours to reduce the risk of kidney disease. Kidneys are two vital organs that sit in your abdomen on either side of your backbone. They’re about the size of a fist and shaped like a bean. Filter your blood: They process your blood to sort out excess fluids, unwanted chemicals and waste, and turn these into urine.  Help regulate your blood pressure Balance the amount of water in your body Manage your body’s production of vitamin D Any changes to damage to your kidneys can cause these amazing organs to fail. Kidney stones are a painful condition. These stones are hard deposits that form inside the kidneys. A kidney stone can cause severe pain in the side and back and below the ribs. Chronic kidney disease (CKD) often has no signs or symptoms in the early stages. That’s why the majority of individuals with kidney disease tend to have symptoms in the later stages - when the kidneys are failing or when there are high levels of protein in the urine. Signs and symptoms of kidney failure: Too much or not enough urine Swelling of legs, ankles, feet Persistent nausea Vomiting Muscle cramps Itching Fatigue Pain or pressure in your chest Confusion Unexplained shortness of breath What causes kidney failure? There are several causes or conditions that can lead to kidney failure - with diabetes and high blood pressure being the most common cause of kidney failure, also known as end-stage renal disease or ESRD. Other factors that put you at an increased risk of kidney failure are: Heart disease or a heart attack A severe infection like sepsis Urinary tract problems Chemotherapy drugs that treat cancer and some autoimmune diseases Drug abuse Being overweight or obese Dehydration Kidney stones A family history of kidney disease How to prevent kidney failure There is a lot you can do to prevent or reduce your risk of kidney failure. Eat a healthy diet rich in fresh fruits, vegetables (citrus, calcium, plant based protein) Reduce your intake of salt to avoid high blood pressure Exercise regularly Lose weight if you’re overweight Keep your blood sugar, lipids under control Do not smoke or quit smoking Take medications as directed by your doctor Get tested for kidney disease especially if you’re at risk

IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan- IAS Prelims Test Series 2020 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [Day 16]

Hello Friends,  https://www.youtube.com/embed/x5ldu2jV8N0 ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS The 60 Days Training has finally begun:) DAY 16 is here! Before any competition, there is a preparatory phase. That phase involves a lot of sessions on strengths and weaknesses. Throughout the preparatory phase, the athletes train in a gradual manner. In the last phase, just before the actual competition, the training is done so as to sharpen their skills. This training requires complete focus and dedication. In this phase, the athletes do not try anything new or train in a new fashion rather focus on the sharpening of skills, focusing on strength and precision. Similarly, the upcoming 60 days, is like the last phase (training session), just before the actual competition. Here, the focus should be on sharpening the concepts, consolidating the knowledge base and solidifying the learning with loads and loads of revision. You will come across many distractions in between in the name of sources and resources (exclusive and inclusive), beware of them. Be alert and objective in selecting your companions in this preparation. Trust your effort and revise more than falling prey to multiple resources and doing nothing in the end. Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity.  Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (5 PM), cross-check the answers and again, comment the marks (you got) in the same comment thread. This will keep you responsible and sincere in days to come. Also, we need more sets of scores for releasing the cut offs in the night so, requesting all of you to sincerely put your scores in comment section.    You can also take part in discussion with peers.   Q.1) Consider the following statements about Jallianwala Bagh massacre: Massacre took place when many villagers gathered in the park to peacefully protest the arrest of Satyapal and Saifuddin Kitchlew. Rabindranath Tagore and S Subramanian Iyer renounced their knighthood in protest to massacre. Government of India formed Buttler Committee to investigate the tragedy. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only Q.1) जलियांवाला बाग नरसंहार के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: सत्यपाल और सैफुद्दीन किचलू  की गिरफ्तारी के विरोध में शांतिपूर्वक धरना देने के लिए कई ग्रामीणों के पार्क में इकट्ठा होने पर नरसंहार हुआ। रवींद्रनाथ टैगोर और एस सुब्रमण्यन अय्यर ने नरसंहार के विरोध में अपना नाइटहुड त्याग दिया। भारत सरकार ने त्रासदी की जांच के लिए बटलर समिति का गठन किया था। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा गलत है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 1 और 3 Q.2) Montego Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 introduced which of the following changes into Provincial Governments? Authorisation to present separate budget Bicameral legislature Subjects were divided into Transferred and Reserve List Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) 1919 के मोंटेग्यु चेम्सफोर्ड सुधार ने प्रांतीय सरकारों में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा परिवर्तन आरंभ किया? पृथक बजट प्रस्तुत करने के लिए प्राधिकृत द्विसदनीय विधानमंडल विषय हस्तांतरित और आरक्षित सूची में विभाजित थे नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.3) Match the following political agitations by Gandhi with the techniques:    1. Champaran Satyagraha     First Hunger strike    2. Ahmadabad Mill Strike     First Mass strike   3. Kheda Satyagraha     First Civil Disobedience   4. Rowlet Satyagraha     First Non Cooperation Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1-B; 2-D; 3-A; 4-C 1-C; 2-A; 3-D; 4-B 1-D; 2-C; 3-A; 4-B 1-C; 2-D; 3-B; 4-A Q.3) गांधी जी द्वारा अपनायी गयी तकनीकों के साथ निम्नलिखित राजनीतिक आंदोलन का मिलान करें: 1. चंपारण सत्याग्रह A. प्रथम भूख हड़ताल 2. अहमदबाद मिल हड़ताल B. प्रथम सामूहिक हड़ताल 3. खेड़ा सत्याग्रह C. प्रथम सविनय अवज्ञा 4. रोलेट सत्याग्रह D. प्रथम असहयोग नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: 1-B; 2-D; 3-A; 4-C 1-C; 2-A; 3-D; 4-B 1-D; 2-C; 3-A; 4-B 1-C; 2-D; 3-B; 4-A Q.4) In response to which of the following incidents did Mahatma Gandhi withdrew the Non-Cooperation Movement? All India Khilafat Committee formation Moplah Rebellion Jallianwala Bagh Massacre Chauri Chaura outrage Q.4) निम्नलिखित में से किस घटना के प्रतिउत्तर में महात्मा गांधी ने असहयोग आंदोलन स्थगित कर दिया था? अखिल भारतीय खिलाफत समिति का गठन मोपला विद्रोह जलियांवाला बाग नरसंहार चौरी चौरा घटना  Q.5)  Who among the following leaders proposed to adopt Complete Independence as the goal of the Congress in the Ahmadabad Session of 1921. Hakim Ajmal Khan Lala Lajpat Rai Chittaranjan Das Hasrat Mohani Q.5) निम्नलिखित नेताओं में से किसने 1921 के अहमदबाद सत्र में कांग्रेस के लक्ष्य के रूप में पूर्ण स्वतंत्रता को अपनाने का प्रस्ताव रखा था। हकीम अजमल खान लाला लाजपत राय चित्तरंजन दास हसरत मोहानी Q.6) Who among the following were the Swarajists? Motilal Nehru Vithalbahi Patel M A Ansari Jawaharlal Nehru Subhash Chandra Bose Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 5 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 1, 2, 3 and 5 only Q.6) निम्नलिखित में से कौन स्वराजवादी (Swarajists) थे? मोतीलाल नेहरू विट्ठलभाई पटेल एम ए अंसारी जवाहर लाल नेहरू सुभाष चंद्र बोस नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1, 2 और 5 केवल 2, 3 और 4 केवल 1, 2, 4 और 5 केवल 1, 2, 3 और 5 Q.7) Consider the following statements about Nehru Report: It was a response by Indian leaders to Birkenhead challenge. The report demanded the Poorna Swaraj for India. It recommended for universal adult suffrage and equal rights for women. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.7) नेहरू रिपोर्ट के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: यह भारतीय नेताओं द्वारा बर्कनहुड चुनौती के लिए एक प्रतिक्रिया थी। रिपोर्ट में भारत के लिए पूर्ण स्वराज की मांग की गई थी। इसने सार्वभौमिक वयस्क मताधिकार और महिलाओं के लिए समान अधिकारों की सिफारिश की। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 केवल 1 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.8) Which of the following events was/were a part of the Civil Disobedience Movement?  Dharsana Satyagraha Servants of God Movement Sholapur Upsurge Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 1 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3  Q.8) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी घटना सविनय अवज्ञा आंदोलन का एक हिस्सा थी? धरसना सत्याग्रह सर्वेंट ऑफ़ गॉड मूवमेंट  शोलापुर उपद्रव नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 केवल 2 और 3  1, 2 और 3 Q.9) Which of the following leaders was/were associated with the phase of Underground activity during the Quit India movement, 1942? Jayaprakash Narayan Aruna Asaf Ali Ramnandan Misra Usha Mehta Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.9) भारत छोड़ो आंदोलन, 1942 के दौरान निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा नेता भूमिगत गतिविधि के चरण से जुड़े थे? जयप्रकाश नारायण अरुणा आसफ अली रामनंदन मिश्रा उषा मेहता नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1, 2 और 4 केवल 3 और 4 केवल 2, 3 और 4  1, 2, 3 और 4 Q.10) Consider the following statements: ‘August Offer’ made by the Lord Linlithgow proposed for setting up of Constituent Assembly after the Second World War. Indian National Congress rejected the August offer and launched mass Civil Disobedience Movement.  Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.10) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: लॉर्ड लिनलिथगो द्वारा ‘अगस्त प्रस्ताव’ द्वितीय विश्व युद्ध के बाद संविधान सभा की स्थापना के लिए प्रस्तावित था। भारतीय राष्ट्रीय कांग्रेस ने अगस्त प्रस्ताव को अस्वीकार कर दिया तथा बड़े पैमाने पर सविनय अवज्ञा आंदोलन आरंभ किया। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.11) Consider the following events: Bardoli Satyagraha Vaikom Satyagraha Flag Satyagraha Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events? 2 – 1 – 3  3 – 1 – 2  2 – 3 – 1  3 – 2 – 1  Q.11) निम्नलिखित घटनाओं पर विचार करें: बारदोली सत्याग्रह वायकोम सत्याग्रह झंडा सत्याग्रह उपरोक्त घटनाओं से कौन सा कालानुक्रमिक अनुक्रम सही है? 2 - 1 - 3 3 - 1 - 2 2 - 3 - 1 3 - 2 - 1 Q.12) Consider the following statements about The Trade Union Act, 1926 and Trade Dispute Act, 1929. Act recognised trade unions as legal associations. Act liberalised trade union political activities. Act made the strikes in public utility services like posts, railways, water and electricity illegal under all circumstances. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 ,2 and 3 Q.12) ट्रेड यूनियन अधिनियम, 1926 और व्यापार विवाद अधिनियम, 1929 के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। अधिनियम ने ट्रेड यूनियनों को वैधानिक संघों के रूप में मान्यता दी। अधिनियम ने ट्रेड यूनियन राजनीतिक गतिविधियों को उदार बनाया। अधिनियम ने सभी परिस्थितियों में सार्वजनिक उपयोगिता सेवाओं जैसे पोस्ट ऑफिस, रेलवे, पानी और बिजली पर हड़ताल को अवैध बना दिया। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.13) Consider the following pairs:               Commission Related with   1. Linlithgow Commission Working of Dyarchy   2. Lee Commission Civil Service Reforms    3. Whitley Commission Agriculture Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.13) निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार करें:                             आयोग                         संबद्धता  1. लिनलिथगो आयोग  द्वैधशासन पर कार्य  2. ली आयोग  सिविल सेवा सुधार 3. व्हिटली आयोग  कृषि ऊपर दिए गए युग्मों में से कौन सा सही तरीके से सुमेलित है? केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2  केवल 2 और 3  1, 2 और 3 Q.14) Which of the following statements about Indian National Congress (INC) session during Freedom struggle was correct? Only session of INC presided by the Mahatma Gandhi was held in Belgaum in 1924. Annie Besant and Sarojini Naidu were the only two women Presidents of INC before independence.  The largest session of INC presided over by the Chakravarti Vijayaraghavachariar. Abul Kalam Azad was the President of INC at the time of Indian Independence. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only Q.14) स्वतंत्रता संग्राम के दौरान भारतीय राष्ट्रीय कांग्रेस (INC) सत्र के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही था? महात्मा गांधी की अध्यक्षता में भारतीय राष्ट्रीय कांग्रेस का केवल 1924 में बेलगाम सत्र आयोजित किया गया था। एनी बेसेंट और सरोजिनी नायडू स्वतंत्रता से पहले भारतीय राष्ट्रीय कांग्रेस की केवल दो महिला अध्यक्ष थीं। कांग्रेस के सबसे बड़े सत्र की अध्यक्षता चक्रवर्ती विजयराघवाचार्य ने की थी। अबुल कलाम आज़ाद भारतीय स्वतंत्रता के समय भारतीय राष्ट्रीय कांग्रेस के अध्यक्ष थे। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1, 2 और 4 केवल 2, 3 और 4 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 1, 2 और 3 Q.15) Who sang Vande Mataram in the Independence Session of the Constituent Assembly on 14th August 1947? Sucheta Kripalani Manmohini Sahgal Usha Mehta Aruna Asaf Ali Q.15) 14 अगस्त 1947 को संविधान सभा के स्वतंत्रता सत्र में वंदे मातरम किसने गाया था? सुचेता कृपलानी मनमोहिनी सहगल उषा मेहता अरुणा आसफ अली Q.16) With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:             Person  Position held   1. Balwant Rai Mehta Secretary, All India State’s people’s Conference   2. Lala Lajpat Rai President, All India Trade Union Congress   3. M. R. Jayakar Chairman, Indian Road Development Committee Which of the statements given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.16) भारतीय राष्ट्रीय आंदोलन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार करें:                           व्यक्ति                             पद 1. बलवंत राय मेहता सचिव, आल इंडिया स्टेट पीपुल्स कॉन्फ्रेंस  2. लाला लाजपत राय अध्यक्ष, अखिल भारतीय ट्रेड यूनियन कांग्रेस 3. एम. आर. जयकर अध्यक्ष, भारतीय सड़क विकास समिति ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही ढंग से सुमेलित है / है? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2  केवल 2 और 3  1, 2 और 3 Q.17) Which of the following statements is/are NOT correct regarding the Communal Award announced by the British Prime Minister, Ramsay MacDonald? The Award declared the depressed classes also to be minorities, and entitled them to separate electorates. Lord Irwin was the Viceroy of India during the announcement. Poona Pact and Gandhi – Irwin pact were the consequence of the Communal Award announcements. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only Q.17) ब्रिटिश प्रधानमंत्री, रैम्जे मैकडॉनल्ड द्वारा घोषित सांप्रदायिक पुरस्कार के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही नहीं है / है? पुरुस्कार ने दलित वर्गों को भी अल्पसंख्यक घोषित किया तथा उन्हें पृथक निर्वाचक मंडल का हकदार बनाया। घोषणा के दौरान लॉर्ड इरविन भारत के वायसराय थे। पूना पैक्ट और गांधी - इरविन समझौता सांप्रदायिक पुरस्कार की घोषणाओं के परिणाम थे। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 1 और 3 Q.18) Consider the following pairs:              Women Organisation     Founder   1. All India Women’s Conference Annie Besant   2. Women’s Indian Association Sarojini Naidu   3. Bharat Stree Mahamandal Kamla Devi Chattopadhayay Which of the pairs given above are incorrectly matched? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.18) निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार करें:                       महिला संगठन                               संस्थापक 1. अखिल भारतीय महिला सम्मेलन एनी बेसेंट 2. भारतीय महिला संघ सरोजिनी नायडू 3. भारत स्त्री महामंडल कमला देवी चट्टोपाध्याय ऊपर दी गई कौन सी जोड़ी गलत तरीके से मेल खाती है? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 केवल 2 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.19) With reference to Indian Modern History, arrange the following events in a chronologically order. Cabinet Mission Dickie Bird Plan Cripps Mission Wavell Plan and Shimla Conference Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 – 3 – 4 – 2 3 – 4 – 2 – 1 3 – 1 – 4 – 2 1 – 3 – 2 – 4 Q.19) भारतीय आधुनिक इतिहास के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित घटनाओं को कालानुक्रम में व्यवस्थित करें। कैबिनेट मिशन डिकी बर्ड प्लान क्रिप्स मिशन वेवेल योजना और शिमला सम्मेलन नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: 1 - 3 - 4 - 2 3 - 4 - 2 - 1 3 - 1 - 4 - 2 1 - 3 - 2 - 4 Q.20)  Who among the following was a member of Imperial War Cabinet of Winston Churchill and later become the first President of UN Economic and Social Council? Rettaimalai Srinivasan Madurai Pillai  S Subramaniam Iyer Arcot Ramaswamy Mudaliar Q.20) निम्नलिखित में से कौन विंस्टन चर्चिल के इम्पीरियल युद्ध मंत्रिमंडल का सदस्य था तथा बाद में, संयुक्त राष्ट्र आर्थिक और सामाजिक परिषद का पहला अध्यक्ष बना? रेट्टिमिलाई श्रीनिवासन मदुरई पिल्लई एस सुब्रमण्यम अय्यर अर्काट रामास्वामी मुदलियार Q.21) National Animal Disease Control Programme aims to control and eradicate which of the following diseases amongst livestock? Anthrax Foot and Mouth Disease Brucellosis Rinder Pest Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 and 4 only 1 and 4 only Q.21) राष्ट्रीय पशु रोग नियंत्रण कार्यक्रम का उद्देश्य पशुधन में निम्न में से किस बीमारी को नियंत्रित और उन्मूलन करना है? गिल्टी रोग (Anthrax) खुरपका एवं मुंहपका रोग (Foot and Mouth Disease) ब्रूसिलोसिस रिंडर पेस्ट (Rinder Pest) नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 3 और 4 केवल 1 और 4 Q.22) Which of the following Ministries provide grants under the ‘PACEsetter Fund’ Programme?  Ministry of Science and Technology Ministry of Commerce Ministry of New and Renewable Energy Ministry of Health and Family Welfare Q.22) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा मंत्रालय ‘पेससेट्टर फंड’ (PACEsetter Fund) कार्यक्रम के तहत अनुदान प्रदान करता है? विज्ञान एवं प्रौद्योगिकी मंत्रालय वाणिज्य मंत्रालय़ नवीन एवं नवीकरणीय ऊर्जा मंत्रालय स्वास्थ्य एवं परिवार कल्याण मंत्रालय Q.23) With reference to ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’, which of the following statements is/are correct? IAEA is the international centre for cooperation in the nuclear field which reports to UN General Assembly and Security Council. India is a founding member of IAEA. IAEA opened world’s first Low Enriched Uranium (LEU) Bank in its Headquarters. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only Q.23) ‘अंतर्राष्ट्रीय परमाणु ऊर्जा एजेंसी (IAEA)’ के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है / हैं? IAEA परमाणु क्षेत्र में सहयोग के लिए अंतर्राष्ट्रीय केंद्र है, जो संयुक्त राष्ट्र महासभा और सुरक्षा परिषद को रिपोर्ट करता है। भारत IAEA का संस्थापक सदस्य है। IAEA ने अपने मुख्यालय में विश्व का पहला निम्न समृद्ध यूरेनियम (LEU) बैंक खोला है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 1 और 3 Q.24) Which of the following tribes can recall the name of their ancestor from 20 generations ago? Galos Nyishi Apatani Abor Q.24) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी जनजाति 20 पीढ़ी पहले तक के अपने पूर्वजों का नाम याद कर सकती है? गालो न्यिशी अपातानी अबोर  Q.25) Recently seen in news, INS Nilgiri is  A Stealth frigate built under Project 75I A Submarine built under Project 75I A Stealth frigate built under Project 17A A Submarine built under Project 17A Q.25) हाल ही में समाचारों में देखा गया, आईएनएस नीलगिरि क्या है प्रोजेक्ट 75I के तहत निर्मित एक स्टील्थ युद्धपोत प्रोजेक्ट 75I के तहत निर्मित एक पनडुब्बी प्रोजेक्ट 17A के तहत निर्मित एक स्टील्थ युद्धपोत प्रोजेक्ट 17A के तहत निर्मित एक पनडुब्बी Q.26) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘The "Sustainability, Stability and Security" (3S) Initiative. It was launched to address the root causes of instability in Africa – in particular migration and conflict related to the degradation of natural resources. It was launched by the ‘Asia-Africa Growth Corridor’ at the Third India–Africa Forum Summit. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.26) "सततता, स्थिरता और सुरक्षा" (3S) पहल के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। यह अफ्रीका में अस्थिरता के मूल कारणों- विशेष रूप से प्रवासन और प्राकृतिक संसाधनों के क्षरण से संबंधित संघर्ष को दूर करने के लिए आरंभ किया गया था। इसे तीसरे भारत-अफ्रीका फोरम शिखर सम्मेलन में 'एशिया-अफ्रीका ग्रोथ कॉरिडोर' द्वारा लॉन्च किया गया था। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.27) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘TReDS’ platform. It is a platform for financing/factoring of trade receivables of MSME Sellers against Corporate Buyers, Govt. Departments and PSUs. It is operated by the Khadi and Village Industries Commission. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.27) 'TReDS' प्लेटफ़ॉर्म के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। यह कॉर्पोरेट खरीदारों, सरकारी विभागों और सार्वजनिक उपक्रमों के विरुद्ध एमएसएमई विक्रेताओं के व्यापार प्राप्य के वित्तपोषण /लेनदारी-लेखा-क्रय (financing/factoring) के लिए एक मंच है। । यह खादी और ग्रामोद्योग आयोग द्वारा संचालित है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.28) ‘U.K. Sinha Committee’ is associated with Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Corporate Governance Digital Payments Data Privacy Q.28) ‘यू.के. सिन्हा समिति' किससे संबद्ध है सूक्ष्म, लघु और मध्यम उद्यम कॉर्पोरेट गवर्नेंस डिजिटल भुगतान डाटा गोपनीयता Q.29) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Global Antimicrobial Resistance Research and Development Hub (Global AMR R&D; Hub)’ The operation of the Global AMR R&D; Hub is supported through a Secretariat, established in Berlin India is a member of the Global AMR R&D; Hub. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.29) 'वैश्विक रोगाणुरोधी प्रतिरोध अनुसंधान और विकास हब (Global AMR R&D; Hub)' के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। वैश्विक AMR R&D; हब का संचालन बर्लिन में स्थापित एक सचिवालय के माध्यम से समर्थित है भारत वैश्विक AMR R&D; हब का सदस्य है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.30) Which of the following statements is/are correct? Karnataka has the highest number of GI-tagged products. Tamil Nadu leads in the number of GI-tagged agricultural products. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.30) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है / हैं? कर्नाटक में जीआई-टैग उत्पादों की संख्या सबसे अधिक है। तमिलनाडु में कृषि उत्पादों में जीआई-टैग की संख्या सबसे अधिक है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 DOWNLOAD THE SOLUTION ENGLISH HINDI NOTE- Follow this for Comments Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test After the release of Solution Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect. What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?   One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are: Lack of information Lack of analytical ability Silly mistakes Excessive risk-taking Let’s analyze them one by one: Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances. You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it. This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination. Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise: Micro Analysis Matrix Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S Scale 1: Information meter (1) Scale 2: Analysis meter (2) Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3) Scale 4: Risk meter (4) Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation: Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion: Micro Analysis Matrix- Day 1/ Polity/ Constitutional History Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) 3 1 2 2 8 Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S 3 2 6 8 19 Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale: Information meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late. Analysis meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions. Anxiety meter < 3 Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident. Risk meter < 8 Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind. Total N x S score < 20 Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going. This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better. Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours. We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS! Importance of self - tracking: We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program. Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting! Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2020  All the Best! IASbaba

Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 18th March 2020

IAS UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 18th March 2020 Archives (PRELIMS + MAINS FOCUS) Becquerels Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Science & Technology In News: The SI unit for measuring the amount of radioactivity is the becquerel (symbol Bq). One becquerel (1Bq) is equal to 1 disintegration per second. An older unit of radioactivity is the curie. The curie was originally defined as equivalent to the number of disintegrations that one gram of radium-226 will undergo in one second.  Currently, a curie is defined using becquerels as 1Ci = 3.7 x 1010 disintegrations per second.  National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories (NABL)  Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Governance In News: NABL is a Constituent Board of Quality Council of India.  NABL has been established with the objective to provide Government, Industry Associations and Industry in general with a scheme for third-party assessment of the quality and technical competence of testing and calibration laboratories. About Quality Council of India (QCI)  QCI was set up in 1997 as an autonomous body  It was setup jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry represented by the three premier industry associations i.e. Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM), Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) and Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) It aims to establish and operate national accreditation structure and promote quality through National Quality Campaign.  Ministry of Commerce & Industry, is the nodal ministry for QCI. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on recommendation of the industry to the government. Bodoland Territorial Council (BTC)  Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Federalism In News: The Assam government’s decision to restrict large gatherings as a precaution against the COVID-19 may cast a shadow on the BTC elections(40 seats)  BTC Polls are conducted by State Election Commission  Any decision on rescheduling the polls would be taken by the Governor, who is the constitutional head of areas under the Sixth Schedule. About BTC The second Bodo accord, 2003 led to the formation of the Bodoland Territorial Council (BTC) under the provisions of the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution The area under the BTC jurisdiction is now officially called the Bodoland Territorial Region (BTR) comprising of 3,082 villages in four districts— Kokrajhar, Chirang, Udalguri and Baska. Sixth schedule of the Constitution: The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India (Articles 244(2) and 275(1)) provides for decentralized self-governance and dispute resolution through local customary laws in parts of the North East which are mainly tribal areas. It contains provisions as to the Administration of Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram Lopinavir and Ritonavir Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Health In News: These are anti-HIV drugs  This drug combination isrecommended by Union Health Ministry to be used on a case-to-case basis depending upon the severity of the condition of a person having coronavirus infection. Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Security In News: LCA Tejas is a single-engine multirole light combat aircraft. It replaced the aging Mig 21 fighter planes. It is the second supersonic fighter jet that was developed by HAL (the first one being HAL HF-24 Marut). Bodies involved: Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA), the autonomous society of DRDO is the design agency and Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) as the manufacturer It is the lightest and smallest multirole supersonic fighter aircraft in its class. It can attend the maximum speed of Mach 1.8.  It is designed to carry a range of air-to-air, air-to-surface, precision-guided and standoff weaponry. It is a single pilot aircraft that has a maximum takeoff weight of 13,300 kg.  It has a general range of 850 km and a combat range of 500 km. Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD) Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Health In News: Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD) is a zoonotic disease (spreads from animals to humans - just like COVID-19, Ebola, HIV, Anthrax, SARS) KFD is a tick-borne viral haemorrhagic fever endemic to South India. It was first identified in 1957 in a sick monkey from the Kyasanur Forest in Karnataka Hard ticks (Hemaphysalis spinigera) are the reservoir of KFD virus. Rodents, shrews, and monkeys are common hosts for KFDV after being bitten by an infected tick Transmission to humans may occur after a tick bite or contact with an infected animal, most importantly a sick or recently dead monkey. No person-to-person transmission has been described Larger animals such as cattle, goats or sheep may become infected with KFD but play a limited role in transmission of disease to humans Signs and Symptoms: After an incubation period of 3-8 days, the symptoms like chills, fever, headache, severe muscle pain, vomiting, gastrointestinal symptoms and bleeding may occur.  Endemic Regions of KFD in India are: Karnataka Tamil Nadu Kerala states Prevention: A vaccine does exist for KFD and is used in endemic areas of India. Additional preventative measures include insect repellents and wearing protective clothing in areas where ticks are endemic (MAINS FOCUS) Society & Governance Topic: General Studies 2: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation. A case for more policewomen Context: India persists with a male-dominated police force.  In 2009 the Home Ministry set 33% as the target for women’s representation in the police. Present Status of Women in Police Inadequate representation: In 2019, women comprised less than 10% of police personnel. Only seven States (Tamil Nadu, Bihar, Maharashtra, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Gujarat and Sikkim) had more than 10% policewomen.  Slow pace of women intake: There has been only a 5% increase in the number of policewomen in a decade (3.65% in 2009 to 8.98% in 2019). The annual change in the share of women in the police force from 2012 to 2016 was found to be less than 1% across States, according to the India Justice Report, 2019 At this rate, most States will take over 50 years to achieve the 33% target. Selective Implementation Although States have adopted the reservation policy, they are very selective about its implementation.  Restrictive Reservations: Very few States apply reservation for women at all the entry points (constable, sub-inspector, and deputy superintendent of police levels) or to all posts at each level.  Some States (Kerala and Karnataka) have reservation for women only at the constable rank.  Some (Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Jharkhand, Tamil Nadu) extend it to the constable and sub-inspector ranks. But here too there are restrictions: reservation is limited to specific cadre posts within each rank. Consequence of Selective Implementation Huge disparity in the representation of women across ranks Inadequate Women at Top decision making level: There are far fewer women at the gazetted ranks at the State level (assistant sub-inspector to deputy superintendent of police) than those at the constabulary level.  This means that women are most prominent in the most junior ranks. Women remain in large numbers at the bottom of the ladder without moving up. Inefficient Policing: As a consequence, there are not enough women personnel to perform exclusive functions when gender-based crimes are reported For instance, in 2013, the Home Ministry said that at least three women sub-inspectors should be available in a police station as investigating officers.  Tamil Nadu, which has the highest percentage of women personnel (17.46%), requires 6,057 women sub-inspectors to meet this standard across its 2,019 police stations.  At present, it has barely one-fourth of that requirement. Other Challenges for Women Police Officers Women are typecast — for example, they are asked to deal with crimes against women, while they are kept outside the mainstream of varied experiences As a result, new recruits will become increasingly ghettoised in the absence of a framework to guide their career path. Frequent inter-district transfers Disallowing postings in home districts for specified periods of time  Poor childcare support systems  Lack of basic amenities like toilets, uncomfortable duty gear (designed mainly for men) and inadequate privacy. Policing sub-culture, with its association with “masculinity” and coercive force, has impacted the mental pressure on women police officers Way Forward Effective implementation of Reservation Policy at all levels to increase the number of women in Police department Gender sensitization among the Police Personnel and also among the public Gender-friendly gadgets and clothes. State- funded special health checkup for women personnel like pap smear tests (for cervical cancer), mammography (for breast cancer) and tests for estimation of bone density,  Sanitary pad dispensers should be installed at all women posts and portable toilets be provided to them under the 'Swachh Bharat' mission. More creches, school pickup and drop facilities for children and clean living quarters and toilet facilities Conclusion Increasing the number of recruits alone will not be enough; institutional changes embedded in principles of diversity, inclusion and equality of opportunities are as important. Otherwise, discrimination and exclusion will continue to persist even as the numbers of women increase. Connecting the dots Women in Judiciary 33% Reservation for Women in Parliament and State legislature International Affairs Topic: General Studies 2: Bilateral, regional and global groupings and agreements involving India and/or affecting India’s interests.  A revival of Multilateralism, steered by India The COVID-19 pandemic which has confronted the world has two aspects: The disease is cross-national in character- it respects no national boundaries and are not amenable to national solutions Cross-domain in nature: The diseases has strong feedback loops. A disruption in one domain often cascades into parallel disruptions in other domains. What should be the underlying principle to tackle COVID-19 pandemic? The intersection of cross-national and cross-domain challenges demand multilateral approaches.  They require empowered international institutions of governance.  Underlying these must be a spirit of internationalism and solidarity, a sense of belonging to a common humanity.  Rise of Nationalism Over the past decade and more, the world has been moving in direction opposite to that of multilateralism There has been an upsurge in narrow nationalism, an assertion of parochial interests over pursuit of shared interests  There has been increased competition among states rather than embracing collaboration.  US-China Trade war, BREXIT, US coming out of Paris Climate deal, Rise of right wing parties in Europe and decline in WTO are reflection of this trend The Present State of Play vis-à-vis COVID-19 Pandemic COVID-19 has brought these deepening contradictions (need for multilateralism to combat the challenges vs rise of nationalism) into very sharp relief. COVID-19 pandemic is a global challenge which recognises no political boundaries It is a health crisis but is also spawning an economic crisis through disrupting global value chains and creating a simultaneous demand shock But interventions to deal with the COVID-19 crisis are so far almost entirely at the national level, relying on quarantine and social distancing There is virtually no coordination at the international level.  There is also blame game that has erupted between China and the USA which does not augur well for international cooperation and leadership.  The long-term impact of the pandemic could follow alternative pathways.  Revival of Multilateralism: The more hopeful outcome would be for countries to finally realise that there is no option but to move away from nationalistic urges and embrace the logic of international cooperation through revived and strengthened multilateral institutions and processes. Intensification of Nationalist trends:  Countries could begin to build walls around themselves Existing multilateralism gets further weakened.  Institutions such as UN and WHO which are already marginalised may become increasingly irrelevant.  There could be a return to autarkic economic and trade policies and an even deeper and more pervasive anti-globalisation sentiment.  An Opportunity for India This is when the world needs leadership and statesmanship Success of 2008 response: U.S.-led response to the global financial and economic crisis of 2008 lead to the birth of G-20 summit and a coordinated response prevented catastrophic damage to the global economy. Since US and West have adopted nationalistic leaning, India which is a key G-20 country, the world’s fifth largest economy and with a long tradition of international activism should step into the leadership role by advocating the multilateral approach of tackling the pandemic A leadership role in mobilising global collaboration would be in keeping with India’s traditional activism on the international stage. India’s recent video conferencing with SAARC nation to collaborate on tackling the pandemic in the subcontinent is a step in right direction This should be followed by an international initiative, either through the G-20 or through the U.N. India should reaffirm its policy of seeking friendship with all countries – which is the underlying principle followed in our non-alignment foreign policy practised since Nehru time. Conclusion The COVID-19 pandemic presents India with an opportunity to revive multilateralism, become a strong and credible champion of internationalism and assume a leadership role in a world that is adrift – Shyam Saran (former Foreign Secretary) Connecting the dots India’s recent initiatives in Solar energy BIMSTEC and SAARC – Which one should India focus on? (TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE) Model questions: (You can now post your answers in comment section) Note:  Correct answers of today’s questions will be provided in next day’s DNA section. Kindly refer to it and update your answers.  Comments Up-voted by IASbaba are also the “correct answers”. Q 1. Consider the following statements about Quality Council of India (QCI) It is a statutory body set up in 1997 to promote quality through National Quality Campaign.  Its Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister and the nodal ministry of the body is Ministry of Commerce & Industry Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 2. Consider the following statements about Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD) It is a zoonotic disease that is endemic to North-Eastern India There is no vaccination for the disease and can only be prevented by taking precautionary measures such as using insect repellents and wearing protective clothing in areas where ticks are endemic Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 3. Consider the following statements Bodoland Territorial Council (BTC) was established under the provisions of the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution Governor is the constitutional head of areas under the Sixth Schedule. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 4. Consider the following statements about Tejas Aircraft It is manufactured by Hindustan Aeronotics Limited in collaboration with USA’s Boeing Company It is the lightest and smallest multirole supersonic fighter aircraft in its class. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 5. Becquerels often seen in news is related to which of the following? Radioactivity Music Marine Pollution Air Pollution ANSWERS FOR 17 March 2020 TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE (TYK) 1 C 2 B 3 C 4 B 5 A Must Read About COVID-19  The Hindu About Prediction Model for COVID-19: The Hindu About Biometrics in Policing: The Hindu

Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 17th March 2020

IAS UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 17th March 2020 Archives (PRELIMS + MAINS FOCUS) Nomination to Rajya Sabha Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Polity In News: President nominated former CJI Ranjan Gogoi to Rajya Sabha Twelve members are nominated to the Rajya Sabha by the President of India for six-years term for their contributions towards arts, literature, sciences, and social services.  This right has been bestowed upon the President according to the Fourth Schedule (Articles 4(1) and 80(2)) of the Constitution of India. Indian Council of Medical Research and COVID-19 Testing Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Governance In News: ICMR has decided to monitor community transmission by random sampling rather than expanding testing.  This decision has been taken to avoid “futile testing” as well as hospitalisation for mildly symptomatic, positive patients. Four Stages of Transmission of COVID-19 Stage 1-Imported Transmission Stage 2-Local Transmission Transmission through direct contact with an infected person within the country. Stage 3-Community Transmission It signifies that a virus is circulating in the community and can affect people with no history of travel to affected areas or of contact with an infected person. India’s strategy on social distancing and isolation is aimed at checking community transmission. Stage 4- Epidemic An epidemic is a large outbreak, one that spreads among a population or region. It is less severe than pandemic due to a limited area of spread. Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Health In News: BIS is working to incorporate maximum permissible limit of Uranium as 0.03 mg/l (as per WHO provisional guidelines) in all drinking water standards Elevated uranium level in drinking water may be associated with kidney toxicity BIS is the National Standard Body of India established under the BIS Act 2016 for the harmonious development of the activities of standardization, marking and quality certification of goods Classical Languages Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Polity In News: Rajya Sabha passes bill to grant the status of Central universities to three deemed Sanskrit universities: Rashtriya Sanskrit Sansthan in Delhi Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeeth in Delhi  Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeeth in Tirupati. Currently there are six languages that enjoy the ‘Classical’ status in India: Tamil (declared in 2004), Sanskrit (2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014). All the Classical Languages are listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution. The guidelines for declaring a language as ‘Classical’ are: High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers; The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots. Places in News: Pakke Tiger Reserve - a biodiversity hotspot of the eastern Himalayas is located in Arunachal Pradesh  The Sundarban National Park is located in the south-east of Calcutta in the District of West Bengal and forms part of the Gangetic Delta. (MAINS FOCUS) International Affairs Topic: General Studies 3: India and its neighbourhood relations Policies and politics of developed and developing countries Back to SAARC Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s convened a video conference of leaders of the SAARC to collaborate on tackling COVID-19 coronavirus pandemic. The virtual summit is the first high-level SAARC meet since 2014, and comes after India’s pulling out of the 2016 summit following the Uri attack; The virtual summit led to the setting up of a  SAARC COVID-19 emergency fund — India will contribute $10-million Rapid Response Team (of doctors, specialists, testing equipment and attendant infrastructure) to be put at the disposal of the SAARC,  About South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) It was established on 8 December 1985. Its member countries are—Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Sri Lanka and Afghanistan (2005) The Headquarters and Secretariat of the Association are at Kathmandu, Nepal. SAARC comprises 3% of the world's area, 21% of the world's population and 3.8% (2018) of the global economy Significance of SAARC for India Neighbourhood first: Primacy to the country’s immediate neighbours. Geostrategic significance: Can counter China (OBOR initiative) through engaging our neighbours in development process and economic cooperation. Regional stability: These regional organisations can help in creation of mutual trust  (India & Pakistan) and ensure that regional interest over ride bilateral disputes Global leadership role: It offers India a platform to showcase its leadership in the region by taking up extra responsibilities. Game changer for India’s Act East Policy: Linking of South Asian economies with South East Asian region will bring further economic integration and prosperity to India particularly in its under-developed Eastern region Potential for India’s export: With closer economic integration of economies in the region, India’s domestic companies will get access to much bigger market thus boosting their revenues Challenges of SAARC Broad area of cooperation leads to diversion of energy and resources. Low Intra-regional trade: South Asia is the world’s least integrated region; less than 5% of the trade of SAARC countries is within. Inadequate Political Will: India’s inclination towards Big powers which leads to neglecting its relationship with its neighbours Bilateral tensions, especially between India and Pakistan, spilling over into SAARC meetings. Perception of India being a Big Brother vis-à-vis its neighbours whereby India enforces its own agenda on small neighbouring countries through these groupings Slow implementation of the projects announced by India - declines India’s credibility to deliver on its promises thus pushing Nations to seek help from China or West. Rising China in the region with its overarching Belt & Road initiative (Cheque book Diplomacy of China) Impact of COVID-19 on SAARC Major concern is of an escalation in the virus’s spread in the subcontinent.  With close to 300 positive cases, South Asia has seen a much lower incidence globally, but given its much higher population density, it is clear that any outbreak will lead to far more casualties.  Afghanistan and Pakistan have specific challenges as they share long borders with Iran, which has emerged, after China and Italy, as a major hub of the virus.  Bhutan, the Maldives, Nepal and Sri Lanka worry about the impact on tourism, which is a mainstay of their economies.  Other concerns are about under-reporting, as fewer people are being tested in much of South Asia  Inadequate public health service infrastructure to cope with rising cases, as all SAARC members are developing nations with sub-standard public health infrastructure. Conclusion India’s assertive expression of its new willingness to stabilise the region through cooperative mechanisms, without being distracted by short-sighted disingenuous ploys of a troubled Pakistan, is a welcome step for regional cooperation in tackling the pandemic India cannot afford to not to harvest this opportunity, after having sowed the seeds of a New South Asia. Governance Topic: General Studies 3: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation. Indian Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilization, of resources, growth, development and employment. Women work participation rates Context: Women’s work participation rates have fallen sharply — from 29 per cent in 2004-5 to 22 per cent in 2011-12 and to 17 per cent in 2017-18 Concerned with ostensibly declining women’s work participation, identifying sectors from which women are excluded and more importantly, in which women are included have been missed out in our analysis. It is thus time to count women’s work rather than women workers. Anatomy of the decline Decline in women’s work participation rates shows that it is driven by rural women. In the prime working age group (25-59), urban women’s worker to population ratios (WPR) fell from 28% to 25% between 2004-5 and 2011-12, stagnating at 24% in 2017-18.  However, rural women’s WPR declined sharply from 58% to 48% and to 32% over the same period.  Among rural women, the largest decline seems to have taken place in women categorised as unpaid family helpers — from 28% in 2004-5 to 12% in 2017-18. This alone accounts for more than half of the decline in women’s WPR.  The remaining is largely due to a drop of about 9% in casual labour, while their regular salaried work increased by a mere 1 percentage point In contrast, women counted as focusing solely on domestic duties increased from 21% to 45% Some of the reasons for the decline are: Increasing incomes: As husband's and other family income increases, women’s incentive to work declines. Goldin’s U- Shaped Hypothesis: where female labour force function is related it to the level of education and the emergence of the white collar sector jobs supports the argument of rising incomes impacting female labour force participation Economic Slowdown, particularly in last three years, has pushed women out of the labour force as there is overall increase in unemployment. Lack of Employment Opportunities for educated rural women: Rural men with a secondary level of education have options like working as a postman, driver or mechanic — few such opportunities are open to women.  Women with secondary education have only half the work participation rate compared to their uneducated sisters.  Weakness in Survey System which fails to take into account the exact nature of work being done by females (especially in rural areas).  With shortage of funds and trained personnel, the National Sample Surveys increasingly relies on contract investigators hired for short periods, who lack these skills. Way Forward: More Robust Survey System  Need to ask detailed questionnaire while undertaking surveys especially about the primary and secondary activity status of each household member Similar questions also need to be asked about livestock ownership and about people caring for the livestock, ownership of petty business and individuals working in these enterprises Develop data collection processes from the lived experiences of women and count women’s work rather than women workers  Implementation of the recommendations of ‘Shramshakti: Report of National Commission on Self Employed Women and Women in the Informal Sector’  Providing employment opportunities for women in rural areas by adopting decentralization in our developmental strategy Connecting the dots Educational level and Women work wages disparity Global Gender Gap Index (TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE) Model questions: (You can now post your answers in comment section) Note:  Correct answers of today’s questions will be provided in next day’s DNA section. Kindly refer to it and update your answers.  Comments Up-voted by IASbaba are also the “correct answers”. Q 1. Consider the following statements about State Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) It is a statutory body constituted under the BIS Act 2016  Its mandate is harmonious development of the activities of standardization, marking and quality certification of goods Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 2. Consider the following statements about Classical Languages All Scheduled Eight Languages having an history of more than 700 years are declared as Classical languages of India The Ministry of Culture provides the guidelines regarding Classical languages. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 3. Consider the following statements about Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) It was established in 1911 as Indian Research Fund Association (IRFA) making it one of oldest and largest medical research bodies in the world. It is funded by the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 4. Consider the following statements about nominated member of Rajya Sabha Nominated members enjoy all powers, privileges and immunities available to an elected member of Parliament including their right to vote in the election of the President of India. A nominated member has been exempted from filing his assets and liabilities under Section 75A of the Representation of the Peoples Act, 1951 which requires the elected member to do so within 90 days of his making or subscribing oath/affirmation Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 5. Pakke Tiger Reserve is located in which state of India? Arunachal Pradesh Mizoram Nagaland Assam ANSWERS FOR 16 March 2020 TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE (TYK) 1 C 2 C 3 C 4 C 5 A Must Read About Gender Gap in Science  The Hindu About Crisis in Iran: The Hindu

IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan- IAS Prelims Test Series 2020 HISTORY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [Day 15]

Hello Friends,  https://www.youtube.com/embed/x5ldu2jV8N0 ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS The 60 Days Training has finally begun:) DAY 15 is here! Before any competition, there is a preparatory phase. That phase involves a lot of sessions on strengths and weaknesses. Throughout the preparatory phase, the athletes train in a gradual manner. In the last phase, just before the actual competition, the training is done so as to sharpen their skills. This training requires complete focus and dedication. In this phase, the athletes do not try anything new or train in a new fashion rather focus on the sharpening of skills, focusing on strength and precision. Similarly, the upcoming 60 days, is like the last phase (training session), just before the actual competition. Here, the focus should be on sharpening the concepts, consolidating the knowledge base and solidifying the learning with loads and loads of revision. You will come across many distractions in between in the name of sources and resources (exclusive and inclusive), beware of them. Be alert and objective in selecting your companions in this preparation. Trust your effort and revise more than falling prey to multiple resources and doing nothing in the end. Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity.  Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (5 PM), cross-check the answers and again, comment the marks (you got) in the same comment thread. This will keep you responsible and sincere in days to come. Also, we need more sets of scores for releasing the cut offs in the night so, requesting all of you to sincerely put your scores in comment section.    You can also take part in discussion with peers.   Q.1) Consider the following pairs:                     Organisation Leader    1. Madras Mahajan Sabha  P Ananda Charlu   2. Bombay Presidency Association K T Telang   3. All India National Conference  Anand Mohan Bose Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.1) निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार करें:                           संगठन                             नेता 1. मद्रास महाजन सभा पी आनंद चार्लू 2. बॉम्बे प्रेसीडेंसी एसोसिएशन के टी तेलंग 3. अखिल भारतीय राष्ट्रीय सम्मेलन आनंद मोहन बोस ऊपर दिए गए युग्मों में से कौन सा सही तरीके से सुमेलित है? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 केवल 2 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: The first meeting of the Indian National Congress was organized by W. C. Banarjee in Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College of Bombay. A resolution was passed in the first meeting of Congress demanding expansion of Indian Council of the Secretary of State for India to include Indians. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: भारतीय राष्ट्रीय कांग्रेस की पहली बैठक बॉम्बे के गोकुलदास तेजपाल संस्कृत कॉलेज में डब्ल्यू सी बनर्जी द्वारा आयोजित की गई थी। भारतीयों को शामिल करने के लिए भारत के राज्य सचिव की भारतीय परिषद के विस्तार की मांग करते हुए कांग्रेस की पहली बैठक में एक प्रस्ताव पारित किया गया था। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.3) Which among the following was NOT the demand of the Congress under the moderates? Removal of poverty by the rapid development of agriculture and modern industries Complete Independence from British. Spread of primary education among the masses. Freedom of speech and press for the defence of their civil rights. Q.3) निम्न में से कौन सी नरमपंथियों (moderates) के अंतर्गत कांग्रेस की मांग नहीं थी? कृषि और आधुनिक उद्योगों के तीव्र विकास के द्वारा गरीबी उन्मूलन अंग्रेजों से पूर्ण स्वतंत्रता आम जनता के बीच प्राथमिक शिक्षा का प्रसार नागरिक अधिकारों की रक्षा के लिए प्रेस स्वतंत्रता एवं वाक् स्वतंत्रता Q.4) With reference to United Patriotic Association, consider the following statements:  Raja Shiv Prasad Singh of Banaras was one of the co-founders of the United Patriotic Association. It was organised to counter Indian National Congress propaganda. It aimed at developing close ties between the Muslim community and Hindu nationalists. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.4) यूनाइटेड पैट्रियटिक एसोसिएशन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: बनारस के राजा शिव प्रसाद सिंह यूनाइटेड पैट्रियटिक एसोसिएशन के सह-संस्थापकों में से एक थे। यह भारतीय राष्ट्रीय कांग्रेस के प्रचार-प्रसार का विरोध करने के लिए आयोजित किया गया था। इसका उद्देश्य मुस्लिम समुदाय और हिंदू राष्ट्रवादियों के बीच घनिष्ठ संबंध विकसित करना था। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 केवल 2 और 3  1, 2 और 3 Q.5)  Consider the following statements: All the sections within the Congress, ‘moderates’ and ‘extremists’, were united against the partition of Bengal. Following the annulation of partition of Bengal, the ‘extremists’ started functioning separately outside the Congress. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.5) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: कांग्रेस के सभी वर्ग, 'नरमपंथी' और 'चरमपंथी' बंगाल के विभाजन के विरुद्ध एकजुट थे। बंगाल के विभाजन की घोषणा के बाद, 'चरमपंथियों' ने कांग्रेस के बाहर रहकर पृथक रूप से कार्य करना आरंभ कर दिया था। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.6) Which of the following resolutions was/were passed by Calcutta Session of Indian National Congress in 1906? Swadeshi Swaraj Boycott National Education  Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.6) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा संकल्प 1906 में भारतीय राष्ट्रीय कांग्रेस के कलकत्ता सत्र द्वारा पारित किया गया था? स्वदेशी स्वराज्य बहिष्कार राष्ट्रीय शिक्षा नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1, 2 और 3 केवल 2 और 3  केवल 1 और 4 1, 2, 3 और 4 Q.7) Consider the following statements with regard to Indian Universities Act of 1904: It was based on the recommendations made by the Hunter Commission on Education. It increased Government's control over the universities. It introduced the principle of election in the constitution of the Senate of the Universities along with fixing the minimum and maximum number of seats in Senate. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only Q.7) भारतीय विश्वविद्यालयों अधिनियम 1904 के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: यह शिक्षा पर हंटर कमीशन द्वारा की गई सिफारिशों पर आधारित था। इसने विश्वविद्यालयों पर सरकार का नियंत्रण बढ़ा दिया। इसने सीनेट में न्यूनतम और अधिकतम सीटों की संख्या निश्चित करने के साथ विश्वविद्यालयों के सीनेट के चुनाव के सिद्धांत को प्रस्तुत किया। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा गलत है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 केवल 3 केवल 1 और 3 Q.8)  Consider the following statements: In his famous book Hind Swaraj, Bal Gangadhar Tilak declared that British rule was established in India with the cooperation of Indians and has survived only because of their cooperation. According to the book, if Indian refused to cooperate, British rule in India would collapse within a year and Swaraj would come. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.8) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: अपनी प्रसिद्ध पुस्तक हिंद स्वराज में, बाल गंगाधर तिलक ने घोषणा की कि ब्रिटिश शासन भारत में भारतीयों के सहयोग से स्थापित किया गया था तथा उनके सहयोग के कारण ही बचा है। पुस्तक के अनुसार, यदि भारतीय सहयोग करने से इनकार करते हैं, तो भारत में ब्रिटिश शासन एक वर्ष के भीतर ढह जाएगा और स्वराज आ जाएगा। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.9) Consider the following statements about the Lucknow Pact of 1916: Lucknow session of Indian National Congress was presided over by Rash Bihari Ghosh. Indian National Congress accepted the separate electorate for Muslims. Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Annie Besant played crucial role in this agreement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.9) 1916 के लखनऊ समझौते के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: भारतीय राष्ट्रीय कांग्रेस के लखनऊ अधिवेशन की अध्यक्षता रास बिहारी घोष ने की। भारतीय राष्ट्रीय कांग्रेस ने मुसलमानों के लिए पृथक निर्वाचक मंडल स्वीकार किया। बाल गंगाधर तिलक और एनी बेसेंट ने इस समझौते में महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाई। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 केवल 2 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.10)  Which of the following was/were the components of 'Home Charges' during British Rule? Pensions of civil and military British officials Interest on foreign capital investments Expenses on India Office establishment in London Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.10) ब्रिटिश शासन के दौरान निम्नलिखित में से कौन 'होम चार्ज' (Home Charges) के घटक थे? नागरिक और सैन्य ब्रिटिश अधिकारियों की पेंशन विदेशी पूंजीगत निवेश पर ब्याज लंदन में भारत कार्यालय प्रतिष्ठान पर खर्च नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.11) With reference to Indian modern history, consider the following events: Komagata Maru incident Pacific Coast Hindustan Association founded Gandhi returned to India from South Africa What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events? 2 – 1 – 3  1 – 2 – 3  2 – 3 – 1  1 – 3 – 2  Q.11) भारतीय आधुनिक इतिहास के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित घटनाओं पर विचार करें: कोमागाटामारू घटना प्रशांत तट हिंदुस्तान एसोसिएशन की स्थापना गांधी जी का दक्षिण अफ्रीका से भारत लौटना उपरोक्त घटनाओं का सही कालानुक्रमिक क्रम क्या है? 2 - 1 - 3 1 - 2 - 3 2 - 3 - 1 1 - 3 - 2 Q.12) Deccan Sabha as a rival organisation to Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was founded by Dadabhai Naoroji Bal Gangadhar Tilak Gopal Krishna Gokhale Bipin Chandra Pal  Q.12) पूना सार्वजनिक सभा के प्रतिद्वंद्वी संगठन के रूप में दक्कन सभा किसके द्वारा स्थापित की गयी थी दादाभाई नौरोजी बाल गंगाधर तिलक गोपाल कृष्ण गोखले बिपिन चंद्र पाल Q.13) Which among the following events can be associated with Lord Ripon’s tenure? The Vernacular Press Act was enacted The Illbert Bill was introduced A resolution on Local Self Government Second Afghan war started Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only Q.13) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी घटना लॉर्ड रिपन के कार्यकाल से जुड़ी हो सकती है? वर्नाक्युलर प्रेस एक्ट लागू किया गया इल्बर्ट बिल प्रस्तुत किया गया था स्थानीय स्व-शासन पर एक संकल्प द्वितीय अफगान युद्ध आरंभ हुआ नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 और 4 केवल 2 और 3  केवल 1, 2 और 3 केवल 2, 3 और 4  Q.14) With reference to Indian Councils Act of 1909, consider the following statements: Act provided for the first time the association of Indians with the executive Councils of the Viceroy. Act introduced separate electorates for the Muslims. Act provided for the members to discuss the budget and matter of public interest without asking any supplementary questions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.14) भारतीय परिषद अधिनियम 1909 के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: अधिनियम में पहली बार वायसराय की कार्यकारी परिषदों में भारतीयों की संबद्धता के लिए प्रावधान प्रदान किया गया। अधिनियम ने मुसलमानों के लिए पृथक निर्वाचक मंडल प्रस्तुत किए। अधिनियम ने सदस्यों के लिए बिना कोई अनुपूरक प्रश्न पूछे बजट और सार्वजनिक हित के मामले पर चर्चा करने के लिए प्रावधान प्रदान किया। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 केवल 1 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.15)  Consider the following pairs:              Newspaper/Journal     Associated Personality   1. Amrita Bazar Patrika Moti Lal Ghosh   2. Darpan Gopal Hari Deshmukh   3. Swadeshi Mitran S. Subramanian Iyer Which of the pairs given above is/are incorrectly matched? 1 and 2 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only Q.15) निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार करें:                     समाचार पत्र / जर्नल                         संबद्ध व्यक्तित्व 1. अमृता बाजार पत्रिका मोती लाल घोष 2. दर्पण गोपाल हरि देशमुख 3. स्वदेशी मित्रन एस. सुब्रमण्यन अय्यर ऊपर दी गई कौन सी जोड़ी गलत तरीके से मेल खाती है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 1 और 3 Q.16) Which of the following statements about revolutionaries is NOT correct? Shyamji Krishnavarma founded India Home Rule Society in London. Provisional Government of free India in Kabul was proclaimed with M. Barkatulla as its President. Madam Bhikaji Cama unfurled the Indian National flag at the International Socialist Conference in Germany. All the above statements are correct. Q.16) क्रांतिकारियों के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही नहीं है? श्यामजी कृष्णवर्मा ने लंदन में इंडिया होम रूल सोसाइटी की स्थापना की। काबुल में स्वतंत्र भारत की अस्थाई सरकार ने एम. बरकतुल्ला को अपने राष्ट्रपति के रूप में घोषित किया गया था। मैडम भीकाजी कामा ने जर्मनी में अंतर्राष्ट्रीय समाजवादी सम्मेलन में भारतीय राष्ट्रीय ध्वज को फहराया। उपरोक्त सभी कथन सही हैं। Q.17) With reference to Home Rule Movement in India, consider the following statements: Outbreak of World War I was one of the factors leading to the rise of Home Rule Movement in India. Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Annie Besant separately launched Home Rule Leagues in India. Both these leagues had the common objective of achieving self-government in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.17) भारत में होम रूल आंदोलन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: प्रथम विश्व युद्ध का आरंभ होना भारत में होम रूल आंदोलन के उदय के लिए प्रमुख कारकों में से एक था। बाल गंगाधर तिलक और एनी बेसेंट ने अलग-अलग भारत में होम रूल लीग आरंभ की थी। इन दोनों लीगों का भारत में स्व-शासन प्राप्त करने का सामान्य उद्देश्य था। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 केवल 2 और 3  1, 2 और 3 Q.18) Which of the following pairs about associations and the personalities involved in its formation are correctly matched? Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company - Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty Swadesh Bandhab Samiti – Bipin Chandra Pal Bengal Chemical and Pharmaceutical Works Ltd -  Prafulla Chandra Ray Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.18) संघों और इसके गठन में शामिल व्यक्तित्वों के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी जोड़ी सही ढंग से सुमेलित है? स्वदेशी स्टीम नेविगेशन कंपनी - गाज़ुलु लक्ष्मीनारासु चेट्टी स्वदेश बांधव समिति - बिपिन चंद्र पाल बंगाल केमिकल एंड फार्मास्यूटिकल वर्क्स लिमिटेड - प्रफुल्ल चंद्र रे नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 केवल 2 और 3  1, 2 और 3 Q.19) Who among the following revolutionaries shot dead Col. William Curzon Wyllie, political aide-de-camp to the secretary of State for India? Madan Lal Dhingra Bhupendanath Dutta Sohan Singh Bhakna Kartar Singh Sarabha Q.19) निम्न क्रांतिकारियों में से किसने, भारत के राज्य सचिव के राजनीतिक सहयोगी कर्नल विलियम कर्जन वायली की गोली मारकर हत्या की? मदन लाल ढींगरा भूपेंद्रनाथ दत्ता सोहन सिंह भाकना करतार सिंह सराभा Q.20) Consider the following statements about August declaration of 1917: It was declared by the Edwin Samuel Montagu, Viceroy of India. The declaration promised a policy of gradual development of responsible government in India. It was well accepted by the leaders of the Home Rule Movement without any objections. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.20) अगस्त 1917 की घोषणा के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: इसे भारत के वायसराय एडविन सैमुअल मोंटेग्यु द्वारा घोषित किया गया था। घोषणा में भारत में उत्तरदायी सरकार के क्रमिक विकास की नीति का वादा किया गया था। इसे बिना किसी आपत्ति के होम रूल आंदोलन के नेताओं द्वारा अच्छी तरह से स्वीकार किया गया था। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 केवल 2 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.21) India is planning to replicate the Girinka programme of which of the following African countries? Nigeria Gambia Rwanda Tanzania Q.21) भारत निम्नलिखित में से किस अफ्रीकी देश के गिरिंका कार्यक्रम (Girinka programme) को दोहराने की योजना बना रहा है? नाइजीरिया गाम्बिया रवांडा तंजानिया Q.22) Hope Island seem in news is a part of which of the following sanctuaries? Pulicat Wildlife Sanctuary Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary Krishna Wildlife Sanctuary Malvan Wildlife Sanctuary Q.22) ‘होप आइलैंड’ समाचारों में दिखा है जोकि निम्नलिखित में से किस अभयारण्य का एक हिस्सा है? पुलिकट वन्यजीव अभयारण्य कोरिंगा वन्यजीव अभयारण्य कृष्णा वन्यजीव अभयारण्य मालवन वन्यजीव अभयारण्य Q.23) Consider the following pairs:           Military Exercises Countries involved    1. TSENTR China   2. MAITREE Bangladesh   3. KAZIND Kazakhstan   4. MALABAR Japan Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 3 and 4 only Q.23) निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार करें:                         सैन्य अभ्यास                             शामिल देश  1. TSENTR चीन 2. मैत्री (MAITREE) बांग्लादेश 3. काज़िंद (KAZIND) कजाखस्तान 4. मालाबार (MALABAR) जापान ऊपर दिए गए युग्मों में से कौन सा सही तरीके से सुमेलित है? केवल 3 और 4 केवल 1, 2 और 4 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 1, 3 और 4 Q.24) With reference to ‘Association of World Election Bodies (A-WEB)’, consider the following statements: A-WEB is largest association of Election Management Bodies (EMBs) worldwide. It undertakes election Observation Programmes in various countries. Permanent secretariat of A-WEB is located at Seoul. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.24) ‘एसोसिएशन ऑफ वर्ल्ड इलेक्शन बॉडीज (A-WEB)’ के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: A-WEB विश्व भर में चुनाव प्रबंधन निकायों (EMBs) का सबसे बड़ा संघ है। यह विभिन्न देशों में चुनाव अवलोकन कार्यक्रम करता है। A-WEB का स्थायी सचिवालय सियोल में स्थित है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.25) Consider the following statements about ‘International Migrant Stock 2019’ report: It is released by International Organization for Migration (IOM). As per the report India is the leading country of origin of international migrants in 2019 followed by Mexico. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.25) 'अंतर्राष्ट्रीय प्रवासी स्टॉक 2019' (International Migrant Stock) रिपोर्ट के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: यह प्रवास के लिए अंतर्राष्ट्रीय संगठन (IOM) द्वारा जारी किया गया है। रिपोर्ट के अनुसार भारत 2019 में मेक्सिको के बाद अंतर्राष्ट्रीय प्रवासियों की उत्पत्ति का प्रमुख देश है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा गलत है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.26) ‘Gandan Tegchenling Monastery’ was in news recently. Where is it located? India Bhutan Tibet Mongolia Q.26) ‘गंदान टीचिंगलिंग मठ’ (Gandan Tegchenling Monastery) हाल ही में समाचारों में था। यह कहाँ स्थित है? भारत भूटान तिब्बत मंगोलिया Q.27) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Post Disaster Needs Assessment (PDNA)’ The PDNA tool is developed by the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI). It is supported by the World Bank, and the European Union. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.27) 'आपदा संबंधी आवश्यकताओं का आकलन (PDNA)' के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। PDNA उपकरण आपदा प्रतिरोधी संरचना के लिए गठबंधन (CDRI) द्वारा विकसित किया गया है। यह विश्व बैंक और यूरोपीय संघ द्वारा समर्थित है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.28) ‘Shondol dance’ is associated with which of the following regions? Terai Ladakh Chhota Nagpur Khandesh Q.28) ‘शोंडोल नृत्य’ (Shondol dance) निम्नलिखित में से किस क्षेत्र से संबंधित है? तराई लद्दाख छोटा नागपुर खानदेश Q.29) ‘Hangul’, can be spotted in which of the following National Parks? Namdapha National Park Dachigam National Park Galathea National Park Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park Q.29) 'हंगुल', निम्नलिखित में से किस राष्ट्रीय उद्यान में देखा जा सकता है? नामदाफा राष्ट्रीय उद्यान दाचीगाम राष्ट्रीय उद्यान गैलाथिया राष्ट्रीय उद्यान मन्नार की खाड़ी समुद्री राष्ट्रीय उद्यान Q.30) ‘Thalweg Principle’ was in news recently. What is it associated with? Border demarcation between nation states Extradition Treaties Peaceful Uses of Outer Space Marine Pollution by Dumping of Wastes Q.30) ‘थालवेग सिद्धांत’ (Thalweg Doctrine) हाल ही में समाचारों में था। यह किसके साथ संबद्ध है राष्ट्र राज्यों के मध्य सीमा का सीमांकन प्रत्यर्पण संधियाँ बाह्य अंतरिक्ष का शांतिपूर्ण उपयोग अपशिष्टों की डंपिंग द्वारा समुद्री प्रदूषण DOWNLOAD THE SOLUTION ENGLISH HINDI NOTE- Follow this for Comments Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test After the release of Solution Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect. What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?   One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are: Lack of information Lack of analytical ability Silly mistakes Excessive risk-taking Let’s analyze them one by one: Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances. You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it. This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination. Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise: Micro Analysis Matrix Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S Scale 1: Information meter (1) Scale 2: Analysis meter (2) Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3) Scale 4: Risk meter (4) Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation: Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion: Micro Analysis Matrix- Day 1/ Polity/ Constitutional History Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) 3 1 2 2 8 Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S 3 2 6 8 19 Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale: Information meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late. Analysis meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions. Anxiety meter < 3 Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident. Risk meter < 8 Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind. Total N x S score < 20 Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going. This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better. Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours. We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS! Importance of self - tracking: We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program. Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting! Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2020  All the Best! IASbaba

AIR

India-Myanmar Bilateral Relation - All India Radio (AIR) IAS UPSC

ARCHIVES India-Myanmar Bilateral Relation Search 27th Feb, 2020 Spotlight here: http://www.newsonair.com/Main_Audio_Bulletins_Search.aspx  TOPIC:  General Studies 2 Bilateral, regional and global groupings and agreements involving India and/or affecting India’s interests Effect of policies and politics of developed and developing countries on India’s interests In News: India and Myanmar exchanged 10 agreements in a number of fields ranging from infrastructure, energy, communication and health. The agreements and Memorandums of Understanding (MoUs) were signed and exchanged after talks between Prime Minister Narendra Modi and visiting Myanmar President at Hyderabad House. The two leaders held discussions on a wide range of bilateral issues.  In line with its Act East and Neighbourhood First policies, India has laid emphasis on boosting its cooperation with Myanmar.  India is the fifth largest trading partner of Myanmar and the current bilateral trade stands at US $ 1.7 billion. Myanmar is the only ASEAN country bordering India which provides a gateway to South East Asia.  India-Myanmar relations are rooted in shared historical, ethnic, cultural and religious ties. Myanmar is seen as a crucial partner in the fight to end insurgency in India’s north-east, as a gateway to South-East Asia and a key component of Modi’s vision for South and South-East Asian regional cooperation. It is also a neighbour that is increasingly being wooed by China. A large population of Indian origin (according to some estimates about 2.5 million) lives in Myanmar. MoUs inked during the current visit between India & Myanmar Bilateral relations Emphasized that regular high level interactions have added momentum to the bilateral relations Welcomed the synergies between Myanmar’s independent, active and non-aligned foreign policy and India’s ‘Act East’ and ‘Neighbourhood First’ policies Reaffirmed their commitments to further strengthen partnership, explore new avenues of cooperation in order to expand bilateral relations for the mutual benefit of the two countries and peoples. Boundary issues Demarcation: Both sides reiterated their mutual respect for the already- demarcated portion of the boundary between the two countries and affirmed their commitments to settle pending issues through the existing bilateral mechanisms, such as the Joint Boundary Working Group Meeting. Projects: The two sides emphasized the centrality of connectivity in their relationship and reaffirmed their commitments to expedite the completion of the various India-funded projects presently underway in Myanmar, with Myanmar’s continued support and facilitation towards their execution. Welcoming the opening of the two land border crossing points at Tamu-Moreh and Rihkhawdar-Zowkhawthar as international border gates, they noted the need to further facilitate the easy movement of passenger and cargo traffic by streamlining procedures and expeditiously developing infrastructure.  Both sides agreed to work together for the earliest commencement of the project. The two sides committed to the early conclusion of discussions on the pending bilateral Motor Vehicles Agreement to facilitate cross border movement of vehicles. Both sides welcomed the MoU between their respective private operators to launch a Coordinated Bus Service between Imphal and Mandalay. Well-being of people: Both sides agreed to commence the establishment of the border haats, with a priority to carry out a pilot project, which was previously agreed by both sides in accordance with the MoU signed in 2012.  Development Programmes: Both sides also expressed satisfaction at the success of the Myanmar-India Border Area Development Programmes in providing infrastructure and socio-economic development in Chin State and Naga Self-Administered Region through the Indian grant-in-aid projects. Under this, 43 schools, 18 health centres and 51 bridges and roads have been constructed in the above areas over the last three years. Both sides acknowledged with satisfaction that 29 additional projects under the 4th year’s tranche of assistance of US$ 5 million, will be implemented in 2020-21. Transportation Both leaders took note of the positive developments related to the Sittwe Port and the Kaladan Multi Modal Transit Transport Project. Once operational, this port will contribute to the economic development of the region and benefit the local people.  Both sides also reaffirmed their commitment to the early completion of the Paletwa-Zorinpui road – the final leg of the Kaladan project. Once completed, the road will connect Sittwe Port to North-East India, generating more traffic for the Port.  India appreciated Myanmar’s cooperation and efforts in facilitating the movement of project personnel, construction material and equipment for the construction of the road component of Kaladan Multi Modal Transit Transport Project across the Mizoram border through Zorinpui southwards towards Paletwa. The two leaders took positive note of the progress of work on Kalewa - Yargyi road section of the Trilateral Highway, the work on which is expected to be completed by 2021. India reiterated its commitment to the early upgradation of the 69 bridges on the trilateral highway, with Myanmar agreeing to facilitate this. Education & Capacity Building Myanmar appreciated India’s assistance in the area of capacity building and training. Both sides agreed to jointly make flagship projects, such as Myanmar Institute of Information and Technology (MIIT) and Advanced Centre for Agricultural Research and Education (ACARE), sustainable on a long-term basis.  Both leaders looked forward to the earliest upgradation of the Women’s Police Training Centre at Yamethin after finalization of modalities of the project.  Both sides acknowledged the role which the Myanmar-India Industrial Training Centres at Pakokku and Myingyan, established with Indian grant assistance, are playing in imparting skills to Myanmar youth to enhance their employability. They noted efforts to build two new Centres at Monywa and Thaton which are progressing well. Displacement India reiterated its commitment to support Myanmar’s efforts for promoting peace, stability and the socioeconomic development in Rakhine State through the Rakhine State Development Programme.  Myanmar appreciated India’s provision of 250 pre-fabricated houses and relief materials for displaced persons in northern Rakhine in 2019.  Both sides agreed to expedite the implementation of a set of 12 projects under the second phase of the Rakhine State Development Programme and to further strengthen their development cooperation within the framework of High Impact Community Development Projects and Quick Impact Projects under the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation mechanism. In this regard, they welcomed the signing of the Agreement on Indian Grant Assistance for Implementation of Quick Impact Projects (QIP) during the State Visit. India reaffirmed its support for the recent steps taken by the Government of Myanmar to address the challenges in Northern Rakhine.  India also expressed its support for the bilateral agreements signed between Myanmar and Bangladesh for the repatriation of the displaced persons from Rakhine State and hoped that Myanmar and Bangladesh would continue to work together for voluntary, sustainable and speedy repatriation of displaced people currently in the Cox Bazar area of Bangladesh to Myanmar in accordance with their bilateral agreements Bilateral trade and economic engagement The two sides noted the need to make efforts to enhance bilateral trade and economic engagement to their full potential. They noted that steps such as improving connectivity, market access, easing financial transactions, facilitating business-to-business connect and enabling bilateral and regional trading agreements would contribute to socio-economic development of both sides. Both sides agreed to work together to enable the launch of India’s RuPay Card in Myanmar at the earliest, noting that National Payment Corporation of India (NPCI) needs to adhere to Myanmar laws and regulations and that the launch of RuPay Card would stimulate the economy of Myanmar and facilitate tourism and business from India. Agreed to explore the creation of an India-Myanmar digital payment gateway which would help expand options for cross border remittance between the two countries. Expressed interest in exploring a bilateral mechanism for settlement in local currency with the aim to boost cross border trade. In this regard, the two sides agreed to expeditiously convene the existing mechanism of India-Myanmar Joint Trade Committee meetings. Energy Both sides recognized the mutual benefit of greater integration in the energy sector between the two countries. India and Myanmar agreed to cooperate in the field of petroleum products, inter alia, for cooperation in refining, stockpiling, blending and retail through a Government-to-Government Memorandum of Understanding.  Both sides agreed to encourage and facilitate cooperation among oil and gas companies of India and Myanmar for development of petroleum products, including enhancing trade and investments in this area.  Both sides welcomed investments by Indian oil and gas Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) in Myanmar’s upstream sector and agreed that efforts would be made to explore opportunities to export to India a portion of the output from such projects where investments have been made by Indian oil and gas PSUs. Defence and security Both sides reiterated that defence and security cooperation remains one of the key pillars of Myanmar-India bilateral relations. They commended the positive momentum in exchanging visits of defence personnel.  MoU on Defence Cooperation, signed in July 2019, had set the path for closer cooperation. The Indian side reiterated its commitment to assist Myanmar in the capacity building of the Myanmar Defence Services and enhance cooperation to address mutual security concerns.  Both sides reiterated their commitment to peace and stability along the border areas in order to promote the prosperity of the local people, the two countries and the region. They reiterated their commitment of not allowing any negative elements to use their respective soil for hostile activities against the other side. Welcomed the enhanced maritime cooperation between the two countries. They also recognized the importance of addressing maritime challenges and strengthening maritime security. Both leaders acknowledged the signing of an MoU on Maritime Security Cooperation (MSC), conduct of a first meeting of the Joint Working Group (JWG) in September 2019 and commencement of exchange of white shipping data, as important steps in the area. Emphasizing the importance of building a comprehensive legal framework for addressing mutual concerns on matters related to security, the two sides agreed to continue negotiations on various pending treaties such as a Mutual Legal Assistance Treaty on Civil and Commercial Matters and the Extradition Treaty. They reiterated their commitment for an early conclusion of these. India welcomed the decision by Myanmar to extend Tourist Visa on Arrival for Indian citizens in Myanmar till December 2020. Healthcare The Myanmar side appreciated India's offer of providing medical radiation equipment "Bhabhatron-2" for treatment of cancer patients. Both sides agreed to further strengthen cooperation in healthcare sector. Peace and stability India reaffirmed its support for Myanmar’s efforts towards national reconciliation, peace process and democratic transition to establish a democratic federal union.  The two sides expressed satisfaction over the various ongoing trainings , capacity building programmes, exposure visits and lecture series offered by India for Myanmar civil servants, sportsmen, parliamentarians, judicial and electoral officers and security personnel. India announced the extension of its National Knowledge Network (NKN) to Myanmar Universities.  The Indian side also reiterated its readiness to support Myanmar in the establishment of the Myanmar Diplomatic Academy. Myanmar also noted with thanks India’s offer of providing technical assistance to the national ID project of Myanmar, based on India’s "Aadhar” project. Political ideology India also reaffirmed its support for Myanmar’s efforts toward national reconciliation and democratic transition to establish a democratic federal union. The Prime Minister of India expressed full support for Myanmar’s peace process, which is being pursued through a dialogue between the Government, Military and Ethnic Armed Groups under the Nationwide Ceasefire Agreement framework. Both leaders underlined the importance of stability and peace in pursuing the shared national goal of development in the region. Terrorism Recognizing the threat posed by terrorism, both sides agreed to cooperate in countering terrorist groups and their actions.  Condemned terrorism in all its forms and manifestations and emphasized the need for stronger international partnership in countering terrorism and violent extremism, including through increased sharing of information and intelligence. They agreed to enhance bilateral cooperation in this regard. International Relations Further, the two sides agreed to  Continue their close cooperation at international fora such as the United Nations (UN) and other international organizations Cooperate within other regional frameworks such as ASEAN, BIMSTEC, Mekong-Ganga Cooperation.  Myanmar supported India’s efforts for becoming a permanent member in an expanded and reformed UNSC.  The two sides reaffirmed their commitments to maintain a peaceful border and to promote the principles of openness, inclusiveness, transparency, respect for international law and ASEAN centrality in the Indo-Pacific region, which embraces all in a common pursuit of progress and prosperity.  Myanmar committed to take necessary steps to ratify the amendment to the Framework Agreement of the International Solar Alliance (ISA) at an early date, as part of an effort to enable all UN Member States to join the ISA and advance cooperation in the field of solar energy.  Further, India reiterated the relevance of the Coalition of Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) for disaster prone countries like India and Myanmar and encouraged Myanmar to consider joining the CDRI. India welcomed the inclusion of Bagan in the list of UNESCO World Heritage Sites. The two sides welcomed the commencement of a first phase of work by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) to restore and conserve 12 pagodas under the first phase of a project to restore and conserve 92 earthquake-damaged pagodas in Bagan. Myanmar agreed to extend all necessary support to the ASI team, for undertaking this preservation work. Connecting the Dots: A stable Myanmar is very crucial in order to realize the potential of act east policy of India. Discuss. Analyse the security challenges associated with Indo-Myanmar border.

IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan- IAS Prelims Test Series 2020 POLITY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [Day 14]

Hello Friends,  https://www.youtube.com/embed/x5ldu2jV8N0 ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS The 60 Days Training has finally begun:) DAY 14 is here! Before any competition, there is a preparatory phase. That phase involves a lot of sessions on strengths and weaknesses. Throughout the preparatory phase, the athletes train in a gradual manner. In the last phase, just before the actual competition, the training is done so as to sharpen their skills. This training requires complete focus and dedication. In this phase, the athletes do not try anything new or train in a new fashion rather focus on the sharpening of skills, focusing on strength and precision. Similarly, the upcoming 60 days, is like the last phase (training session), just before the actual competition. Here, the focus should be on sharpening the concepts, consolidating the knowledge base and solidifying the learning with loads and loads of revision. You will come across many distractions in between in the name of sources and resources (exclusive and inclusive), beware of them. Be alert and objective in selecting your companions in this preparation. Trust your effort and revise more than falling prey to multiple resources and doing nothing in the end. Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity.  Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (5 PM), cross-check the answers and again, comment the marks (you got) in the same comment thread. This will keep you responsible and sincere in days to come. Also, we need more sets of scores for releasing the cut offs in the night so, requesting all of you to sincerely put your scores in comment section.    You can also take part in discussion with peers.   Q.1) Consider the following statements with respect to the Parliament Indian system is similar to the American pattern where the President is an integral part of the Parliament. Out of nine union territories, only three have representation in Lok Sabha. Choose the correct answer using codes below 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.1) संसद के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें भारतीय प्रणाली अमेरिकी पैटर्न के समान है जहां राष्ट्रपति संसद का अभिन्न अंग है। नौ केंद्र शासित प्रदेशों में से केवल तीन का लोकसभा में प्रतिनिधित्व है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.2) Which among the following does not find mention in Constitution? Cabinet Office of profit Election commissioners All of the above are mentioned in the Constitution Q.2) निम्नलिखित में से किसका संविधान में उल्लेख नहीं है? मंत्रिमंडल लाभ का पद  चुनाव आयुक्त उपरोक्त सभी संविधान में उल्लिखित हैं Q.3) Which of the following statements are correct about Delimitation Commission? The chairman of the commission will always be the Chief Election Commissioner of India. In case of dispute regarding commission’s report, the appeal lies only with the Supreme Court with prior permission from the President of India. Choose the correct answer using codes below 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) परिसीमन आयोग के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है? आयोग का अध्यक्ष सदैव भारत का मुख्य चुनाव आयुक्त होगा। आयोग की रिपोर्ट के संबंध में विवाद के मामले में, अपील केवल भारत के राष्ट्रपति की पूर्व अनुमति के साथ ही उच्चतम न्यायालय में की जा सकती है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.4) Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution empowering Parliament to make laws on a matter in the State List. Consider the following statements about this power of Rajya Sabha  Such a resolution must be passed by an absolute majority. The resolution remains in force indefinitely until the State requests for its withdrawal. Choose the correct answer using codes below 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.4) राज्य सभा संसद में राज्य सूची में एक मामले पर कानून बनाने के लिए एक प्रस्ताव पारित कर सकती है। राज्यसभा की इस शक्ति के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें इस तरह के प्रस्ताव को पूर्ण बहुमत (absolute majority) से पारित किया जाना चाहिए। जब तक राज्य इसके समापन के लिए अनुरोध नहीं करते तब तक यह संकल्प अनिश्चित काल तक लागू रहता है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.5) Which of the following disqualifications for being elected as a member of Parliament have been laid down by the Constitution? He holds any office of profit under the Union or state government He is not a citizen of India He has been convicted for any offence resulting in imprisonment for two or more years Choose the correct answer using codes below 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 and 3 All of the above Q.5) संसद के सदस्य के रूप में चुने जाने के लिए निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी अयोग्यताओं को संविधान द्वारा निर्धारित किया गया है? वह संघ या राज्य सरकार के अधीन लाभ का कोई भी पद रखता है वह भारत का नागरिक नहीं है उसे दो या अधिक वर्षों के कारावास के लिए किसी भी अपराध के परिणामस्वरूप दोषी ठहराया गया है नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें 1 और 2 1 और 3 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.6) The Rajya Sabha is the Upper House (Second Chamber or House of Elders) of the Parliament of India represents the states and union territories of the Indian Union. Which of the following statements regarding upper house of the Parliament is/are incorrect? The Rajya Sabha was first constituted on 26 January 1950. The Constitution has fixed the term of office of members of the Rajya Sabha to six years. Allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha is similar to the Senate of the USA. Choose the correct answer using codes below 1 and 2 2 and 3 3 only All of the above Q.6) राज्य सभा भारत की संसद का उच्च सदन (द्वितीय चैंबर) है, जो भारतीय संघ के राज्यों और केंद्र शासित प्रदेशों का प्रतिनिधित्व करता है। संसद के उच्च सदन के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन गलत है / हैं? राज्यसभा का गठन पहली बार 26 जनवरी 1950 को किया गया था। संविधान ने राज्यसभा के सदस्यों के पद का कार्यकाल छह वर्ष निर्धारित किया है। राज्यसभा में सीटों का आवंटन, संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका की सीनेट के समान है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें 1 और 2 2 और 3 केवल 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.7) Consider the following statements regarding Lok Sabha The origin of Lok Sabha can be traced back to the Charter Act of 1853. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is fixed at 550. Prime Minister always act as the Leader of house for Lok Sabha. Choose the correct statement/s using codes below 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 3 All of the above Q.7) लोकसभा के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें लोक सभा की उत्पत्ति 1853 के चार्टर अधिनियम से की जा सकती है। लोकसभा की अधिकतम सदस्य संख्या 550 तय की गई है। प्रधान मंत्री सदैव लोकसभा के लिए सदन के नेता के रूप में कार्य करते हैं। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही कथन चुनें केवल 1 2 और 3 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.8) Consider the following statements with reference to the speaker of Lok Sabha He holds a casting vote in case of a tie. He cannot vote in the house while a resolution for his removal is under consideration in the house. He remains in his office even after the dissolution of Lok Sabha. Choose the correct statement/s using codes below 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 3 All of the above Q.8) लोकसभा अध्यक्ष के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें वह मत बराबर होने के मामले में एक निर्णायक मत डालता है। वह सदन में मतदान नहीं कर सकता है जब उसके निष्कासन का प्रस्ताव सदन में विचाराधीन हो। वह लोकसभा के विघटन के बाद भी अपने पद पर बने रहते हैं। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही कथन चुनें केवल 1 2 और 3 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.9) Consider the following statements with reference to the Money bills A money bill can be introduced only by a minister. The Rajya Sabha cannot reject or amend the money bill. The President cannot withhold his assent to the bill. Choose the correct statement/s using codes below 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 and 3 All of the above Q.9) धन विधेयक के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें एक धन विधेयक केवल एक मंत्री द्वारा प्रस्तुत किया जा सकता है। राज्य सभा धन विधेयक को अस्वीकार या संशोधित नहीं कर सकती है। राष्ट्रपति विधेयक को अपनी सहमति देने से मना नहीं कर सकते हैं। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही कथन चुनें 1 और 2 1 और 3 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.10) Which of the following constitutional provisions with regard to the enactment of budget is incorrect? Parliament cannot increase a tax. Rajya Sabha cannot vote on demand for grants. Unlike a money bill, a finance bill dealing with taxation can be introduced in Rajya Sabha. No tax shall be levied except by authority of law. Q.10) बजट के अधिनियमन के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा संवैधानिक प्रावधान गलत है? संसद कर बढ़ा नहीं सकती है। राज्य सभा अनुदान की माँग पर मतदान नहीं कर सकती। एक धन विधेयक के विपरीत, कराधान से संबंधित एक वित्त विधेयक राज्यसभा में प्रस्तुत किया जा सकता है। कानून के अधिकार को छोड़कर कोई कर नहीं लगाया जाएगा। Q.11) Right to vote in a presidential election is a Natural right Constitutional right Fundamental right Legal right Q.11) राष्ट्रपति चुनाव में मतदान का अधिकार एक है प्राकृतिक अधिकार संवैधानिक अधिकार मौलिक अधिकार वैधानिक अधिकार Q.12) Which of the following statements is/are correct about Rajya Sabha elections? Unlike use of secret ballots in Lok sabha elections, open ballots are used in Rajya Sabha elections. Similar to Lok Sabha elections, the use of NOTA (None of the above) option is allowed in Rajya Sabha elections too. Choose the correct answer using codes below 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.12) राज्यसभा चुनाव के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है / हैं? लोक सभा चुनावों में गुप्त मतपत्रों के उपयोग के विपरीत, राज्यसभा चुनावों में खुले मतपत्रों का उपयोग किया जाता है। लोकसभा चुनावों की तरह ही, राज्यसभा चुनावों में भी NOTA (उपरोक्त में से कोई नहीं) विकल्प के उपयोग की अनुमति है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.13) Consider the following statements regarding the ‘office of whip’ The office of ‘whip’ is mentioned in the Rules of the House. The concept of the whip is an Indian innovation. There are some cases such as Presidential elections where whips cannot direct a Member of Parliament (MP) or Member of Legislative Assembly (MLA) to vote in a particular fashion. Choose the correct statement/s using codes below 1 and 2 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 Q.13) 'सचेतक के कार्यालय' (office of whip) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। सदन के नियमों में 'सचेतक' के कार्यालय का उल्लेख किया गया है। सचेतक की अवधारणा एक भारतीय नवाचार है। कुछ मामले हैं जैसे कि राष्ट्रपति चुनाव जहां सचेतक एक संसद सदस्य (सांसद) या विधान सभा के सदस्य (विधायक) को किसी विशेष पक्ष में मतदान करने का निर्देश नहीं दे सकते। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही कथन चुनें 1 और 2 केवल 2 केवल 3 2 और 3 Q.14) Which of the following statements regarding sessions of Parliament are incorrect? The period spanning between the first sitting of the House and its prorogation is called ‘recess’. The power of adjournment lies with the presiding officer of the house whereas for adjournment sine die, it lies with the President. Prorogation brings to an end all bills or any other business pending before the House. Choose the correct statement/s using codes below 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 and 3 All of the above Q.14) संसद के सत्रों के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन गलत है? सदन की पहली बैठक और उसके सत्रावसान के बीच की अवधि को 'अवकाश' कहा जाता है। स्थगन की शक्ति सदन के पीठासीन अधिकारी के पास है जबकि अनिश्चित कालीन स्थगन के लिए, यह शक्ति राष्ट्रपति के पास होती है। सत्रावसान सदन के समक्ष लंबित विधेयक या किसी अन्य व्यवसाय को समाप्त कर देता है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही कथन चुनें 1 और 2 1 और 3 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.15) Which of the following bills do not lapse on dissolution of Lok Sabha? A bill pending in the Lok Sabha A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha A bill passed by both Houses but returned by the president for reconsideration of Houses Choose the correct statement/s using codes below 1,2 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4 1,3 and 4 Q.15) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा विधेयक लोकसभा के भंग होने पर समाप्त नहीं होता है? एक विधेयक जो लोकसभा में लंबित है  एक विधेयक जो राज्यसभा में लंबित है लेकिन लोकसभा द्वारा पारित नहीं किया गया है एक विधेयक जो लोकसभा द्वारा पारित किया गया था लेकिन राज्यसभा में लंबित है  दोनों सदनों द्वारा पारित विधेयक लेकिन राष्ट्रपति द्वारा सदनों को पुनर्विचार के लिए लौटाया गया है  नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही कथन चुनें 1,2 और 3 2 और 4 3 और 4 1,3 और 4 Q.16) Consider the following statements regarding the Question Hour in the Parliament A starred question requires an oral answer and supplementary questions cannot follow. An unstarred question requires a written answer and supplementary questions cannot follow. Choose the correct answer using codes below 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.16) संसद में प्रश्नकाल के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें तारांकित प्रश्न के लिए एक मौखिक उत्तर की आवश्यकता होती है तथा पूरक प्रश्न नहीं पूछे जा सकते हैं। एक अतारांकित प्रश्न के लिए लिखित उत्तर की आवश्यकता होती है तथा पूरक प्रश्न नहीं पूछे जा सकते हैं। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.17) Which of the following statements regarding parliamentary proceeding is/are incorrect? The first hour of every parliamentary sitting is slotted for Zero Hour. Unlike the question hour, the zero hour is mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. Choose the correct statement/s using codes below 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.17) संसदीय कार्यवाही के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन गलत है / हैं? प्रत्येक संसदीय बैठक का पहला घंटा शून्य काल के लिए रखा गया है। प्रश्नकाल के विपरीत, प्रक्रिया के नियमों (Rules of Procedure) में शून्य काल का उल्लेख किया गया है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही कथन चुनें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.18) Which of the following decides the question of disqualification of a member of the Parliament, arising on the ground of defection? President of India Election Commission Supreme Court Presiding Officer of the House Q.18) निम्नलिखित में से कौन संसद के सदस्य की दलबदल के आधार पर अयोग्यता के प्रश्न निर्णय लेता है? भारत के राष्ट्रपति चुनाव आयोग सर्वोच्च न्यायालय सदन के पीठासीन अधिकारी Q.19) Consider the following statements The registration of electors for Parliamentary Constituencies Qualifications and disqualifications for membership of Parliament Registration of political parties Disputes regarding elections Which of the above mentioned provisions are present in the Representation of the People Act, 1951? 1,2 and 3 1,3 and 4 2,3 and 4 All of the above Q.19) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें संसदीय निर्वाचन क्षेत्रों के लिए निर्वाचकों का पंजीकरण संसद की सदस्यता के लिए योग्यता और अयोग्यता राजनीतिक दलों का पंजीकरण चुनाव संबंधी विवाद उपर्युक्त में से कौन सा प्रावधान जन प्रतिनिधित्व अधिनियम, 1951 में मौजूद हैं? 1,2 और 3 1,3 और 4 2,3 और 4 उपरोक्त सभी Q.20) Which of the following conditions make a political party eligible to be recognized as a National Party? If it secures six per cent of the valid votes polled in four or more states at a general election to the Lok Sabha and, in addition, it wins two seats in the Lok Sabha from any of the state. If it wins two per cent of seats in the Lok Sabha at a general election and these candidates are elected from three states If it is recognised as a state party in four states. Choose the correct statement/s using codes below 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 and 3 All of the above Q.20) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी स्थिति एक राजनीतिक दल को राष्ट्रीय पार्टी के रूप में मान्यता देने के योग्य बनाती है? यदि यह चार या उससे अधिक राज्यों में लोक सभा के लिए एक आम चुनाव में मतदान किए गए वैध मतों में से छह प्रतिशत प्राप्त करता है तथा इसके अलावा, यह राज्य की किसी भी लोकसभा से दो सीटें जीतता है। यदि यह आम चुनाव में लोकसभा की दो प्रतिशत सीटें जीतता है तथा ये उम्मीदवार तीन राज्यों से चुने जाते हैं यदि इसे चार राज्यों में राज्य पार्टी के रूप में मान्यता प्राप्त है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही कथन चुनें 1 और 2 1 और 3 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.21) Sometimes seen in news, the ‘Yogyakarta Principles’ is related with Responsible consumption and production Human Rights in relation to sexual orientation and gender identity Water sharing across international borders Set of rules followed by the Jain monks  Q.21) कभी-कभी समाचारों में देखा जाने वाला, योग्याकार्टा सिद्धांत’ (Yogyakarta Principles) किससे संबंधित है उत्तरदायी उपभोग और उत्पादन यौन अभिविन्यास तथा लैंगिक पहचान के संबंध में मानव अधिकार अंतर्राष्ट्रीय सीमाओं पर जल बँटवारा जैन भिक्षुओं द्वारा निर्धारित नियमों का पालन Q.22) Consider the following statements about NIRVIK scheme: It aims to enhance loan availability and ease the lending process for exporters and importers. Insurance cover guaranteed will now cover up to 90% of the principal and interest from earlier 60%. Insurance cover will include both pre and post-shipment credit. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1 and 2 only Q.22) ‘NIRVIK योजना’ के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: इसका उद्देश्य ऋण उपलब्धता को बढ़ाना तथा निर्यातकों और आयातकों के लिए ऋण देने की प्रक्रिया को आसान बनाना है। बीमा कवर की गारंटी अब मूलधन और ब्याज के 90% पर मिलेगी, जो पहले 60% थी। बीमा कवर में प्री और पोस्ट-शिपमेंट ऋण दोनों शामिल होंगे। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा गलत है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 3 केवल 1 और 2 Q.23) The term ‘Sycamore’ seen in news in the context of  Techniques of removing space debris Quantum Supremacy Antimicrobial Resistance Controlled Human Infection Model Q.23) 'सीकमोर' (Sycamore) शब्द को किसके संदर्भ में समाचार में देखा गया है अंतरिक्ष मलबे को हटाने की तकनीक क्वांटम वर्चस्व रोगाणुरोधी प्रतिरोध नियंत्रित मानव संक्रमण मॉडल Q.24) With reference to Project Sentinel, consider the following statements: It is an American plan to protect its nationals visiting to Island regions of Indian Ocean. It was launched following the killing of an American national in the North Sentinel Island of Andaman and Nicobar islands.  Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.24) प्रोजेक्ट सेंटिनल (Project Sentinel) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: यह हिंद महासागर के द्वीपीय क्षेत्रों में जाने वाले अपने नागरिकों की रक्षा के लिए एक अमेरिकी योजना है। इसे अंडमान और निकोबार द्वीप समूह के उत्तरी सेंटिनल द्वीप में एक अमेरिकी नागरिक की हत्या के बाद लॉन्च किया गया था। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.25) Pulikali is a folk art of which of the following state? Sikkim Arunachal Pradesh Kerala Tamil Nadu Q.25) पुलिकाली निम्नलिखित में से किस राज्य की लोक कला है? सिक्किम अरुणाचल प्रदेश केरल तमिलनाडु Q.26) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Peace Forest Initiative’. It was launched at the 14th session of Conference of Parties (COP14) to the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD). It was brainchild of India. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.26) 'शांति वन पहल' (Peace Forest Initiative) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। यूनाइटेड नेशन कन्वेंशन टू कॉम्बैट डेजर्टिफिकेशन (UNCCD) के पार्टियों के सम्मेलन के 14 वें सत्र  (COP14) में इसे लॉन्च किया गया था। यह भारत का विचार था। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.27) ‘Adapt Now: A Global Call for Leadership on Climate Resilience’ Report is brough out by Global Commission on Adaptation UN Environment World Economic Forum None of the above Q.27) ‘एडाप्ट नाउ: जलवायु लचीलापन पर नेतृत्व के लिए एक वैश्विक कॉल’ (Adapt Now: A Global Call for Leadership on Climate Resilience) रिपोर्ट किसके द्वारा लाया गया है अनुकूलन पर वैश्विक आयोग संयुक्त राष्ट्र पर्यावरण विश्व आर्थिक मंच इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.28) ‘Goldschmidtite’, a new mineral was discovered from  South Africa Australia Russia Canada Q.28) ‘गोल्डस्किमिडाइट’ (Goldschmidtite), नामक एक नए खनिज की खोज कहाँ की गई थी दक्षिण अफ्रीका ऑस्ट्रेलिया रूस कनाडा Q.29) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘AIDA mission’. It is a joint by project by NASA and ISRO. It aims at studying the kinetic effects of crashing an impactor spacecraft into an asteroid. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.29) 'AIDA मिशन' (AIDA mission) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। यह नासा और इसरो की संयुक्त परियोजना है। इसका उद्देश्य एक अंतरिक्ष यान को एक क्षुद्रग्रह में दुर्घटनाग्रस्त करने के गतिज प्रभावों (kinetic effects) का अध्ययन करना है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.30) The ‘1995 Basel Ban Amendment’ was in news recently. It is associated with Banking Sector Ship Recycling Waste Dumping Whaling Q.30) ‘1995 बेसल बैन संशोधन' (1995 Basel Ban Amendment) हाल ही में समाचारों में था। यह किसके साथ संबद्ध है बैंकिंग क्षेत्र जहाज का पुनर्चक्रण अपशिष्ट डंपिंग (Waste Dumping) व्हलिंग (whaling) DOWNLOAD THE SOLUTION ENGLISH HINDI NOTE- Follow this for Comments Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test After the release of Solution Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect. What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?   One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are: Lack of information Lack of analytical ability Silly mistakes Excessive risk-taking Let’s analyze them one by one: Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances. You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it. This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination. Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise: Micro Analysis Matrix Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S Scale 1: Information meter (1) Scale 2: Analysis meter (2) Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3) Scale 4: Risk meter (4) Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation: Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion: Micro Analysis Matrix- Day 1/ Polity/ Constitutional History Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) 3 1 2 2 8 Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S 3 2 6 8 19 Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale: Information meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late. Analysis meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions. Anxiety meter < 3 Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident. Risk meter < 8 Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind. Total N x S score < 20 Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going. This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better. ally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours. We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS! Importance of self - tracking: We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program. Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting! Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2020  All the Best! IASbaba

Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 16th March 2020

IAS UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 16th March 2020 Archives (PRELIMS + MAINS FOCUS) Spanish Flu Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Governance In News: As COVID-19 grows into a global health crisis, parallels are being drawn with the Spanish influenza of 1918-19,  Spanish Flu is considered the most devastating pandemic in recent history, with an estimated toll of 20-50 million lives. The 1918 influenza pandemic (1918-20; colloquially known as the Spanish flu) was the first of the two pandemics involving H1N1 influenza virus, with the second being the swine flu in 2009. The focal point of that pandemic a century ago was India (brought to India by World War I soldiers returning home), where between 10-20 million Indians died National Creche Scheme (NCS) Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Governance In News: As on 11th March 2020, 6453 creches are functional across the country under NCS National Creche Scheme (earlier named as Rajiv Gandhi National Creche Scheme) is being implemented as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. Objective: To provide day care facilities to children (age group of 6 months to 6 years) of working mothers. The salient features of the National Creche Scheme are as follows: Daycare Facilities including Sleeping Facilities. Early Stimulation for children below 3 years and pre-school Education for 3 to 6 years old children. Supplementary Nutrition ( to be locally sourced) Growth Monitoring Health Check-up and Immunization J&K; will soon have a domicile policy: Home Minister Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Polity- Federalism In News: A proper domicile police for J&K; ensure protection to domiciles of J&K; in government jobs, educational institutions and land rights. On August 5, 2019, the Centre revoked the special status of J&K; under Article 370 and Article 35A of the Constitution. These two revoked provisions had enabled the J&K; Assembly to decide the “permanent residents” of the erstwhile State, prohibiting people from outside from buying property and ensuring job reservation for residents. Did you know? Article 371 grants some temporary, transition and special provisions to some states in the country.  Ranging from Article 371-A to Article 371-J, this Article gives special provisions for the states of Maharashtra, Gujarat, Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Goa and Karnataka.   Chaitra Jatra Festival Part of: GS Prelims and GS-I- Culture In News: The annual Chaitra Jatra festival scheduled to be held on March 17 at Odisha’s Tara Tarini hill shrine is cancelled as a precautionary measure against COVID-19 infection. Tara Tarini hill shrine on banks of the Rushikulya river, is a major centre of Shakti worship in Odisha.  Prelims Value Addition After Gahirmatha in Kendrapara district of Odisha, the Rushikulya river mouth in Ganjam district has emerged as the second largest nesting site of the endangered olive ridley turtles. Indian Navy’s sailboat INSV Tarini was named after Tara Tarini hill shrine.  The first Indian all-woman crew had circumnavigated the globe in INSV Tarini.  Sepsis Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Health In News: Sepsis is a common cause of death from Coronavirus Sepsis is a life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by the body's immune system overreacting in response to an infection.  This overactive, toxic response can lead to tissue damage, multiple organ failure and death. Cause: Sepsis can be triggered by a variety of pathogens- Viruses, bacteria, fungi or parasites Treatment: The blood is examined, a broad-spectrum antibiotic is administered, and sufficient blood circulation and ventilation are ensured. Notified disaster and State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Disaster Management In News: Ministry of Home Affairs decided to treat COVID-19 as a notified disaster for the purpose of providing assistance under SDRF. The SDRF is constituted under the Disaster Management Act, 2005 and is the primary fund available with state governments for responses to notified disasters.  The Central government contributes  75% towards the SDRF allocation for general category states and UTs. 90% for special category states/UTs, which includes north-eastern states, Sikkim, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand). Value Addition for Prelims For SDRF, the Centre releases funds in two equal instalments as per the recommendation of the Finance Commission.  On the other hand, the National Disaster Response Fund, which is also constituted under the Disaster Management Act, 2005 supplements the SDRF of a state, in case of a disaster of severe nature, provided adequate funds are not available in the SDRF. Did You Know? In a similar move, US President also declared a national emergency in the country invoking the Stafford Act, as per which, the federal government contributes about 75% to the cost of relief for states. Herd Immunity Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Health In News: Chief scientific adviser to the UK government had suggested to UK that authorities need to contain the spread of the virus but would “not suppress it completely”.  Elaborating further it was suggested that a 60 per cent infection rate would help build up a degree of ‘herd immunity’.” Herd immunity is a form of indirect protection from infectious disease that occurs when a large percentage of a population has become immune to an infection, thereby providing a measure of protection for individuals who are not immune What happens in the case of coronavirus where there is no vaccine?  The approach would require those exposed to the virus to build natural immunity and stop the human-to-human transmission.  If a high enough proportion of individuals in a population are immune, the majority will protect the few susceptible people because the pathogen is less likely to find a susceptible person Is it the model which UK is planning to fight coronavirus? On the face of criticism of such soft approach and high human cost involved, UK government stated that herd immunity was not the government’s policy or goal. (MAINS FOCUS) International Affairs Topic: General Studies 3: Policies and politics of developed and developing countries  Grand Ethiopian Renaissance Dam (GERD) :A dam of contention in Africa Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 16th March 2020 Pic Source About GERD It was formerly known as the Millennium Dam and sometimes referred to as Hidase Dam  It will be Africa’s biggest hydropower project (6.45 GW) when completed as well as the seventh largest in the world The hydroelectric dam is being built on the world’s longest river Nile (north-flowing river in Africa), in the lowlands of Ethiopia. GERD’s storage capacity of 74 billion cubic meters of water (Bhakra Dam in India on Sutlej river has maximum capacity of 9 billion cubic meters of water) Ethiopia began construction in 2011 (think political turmoil in Egypt at that time!)at a cost of $4 billion and is approximately 70% complete as of Nov 2019 Ethiopia wants to fill up the gigantic reservoir in 6 years However, the mega dam has caused a row between Egypt and Ethiopia, with Sudan caught in between, which some fear could lead to war, and the US is now helping to mediate. Significance of the dam for Ethiopia Ethiopia, Africa’s second-most populated country and a manufacturing hub, views the mega dam as a symbol of its sovereignty.  Bridges Infrastructure Gap: Ethiopia has an acute shortage of electricity, with 60% of its population not connected to the grid. Export Potential: The energy generated will be enough to have its citizens connected and sell the surplus power to neighbouring countries. Economic Resurgence: There is an element of national pride in the timely completion of the GERD, as Ethiopia’s recent economic resurgence has revived the old vision of Great Ethiopia.  Politically Important: There is also a lot at stake for the government of Mr. Ahmed (PM of Ethiopia), who faces a difficult general election this year after the euphoria of the 2018 peace process with Eritrea has largely faded. Does anyone else benefit? Yes. Neighbouring countries including Sudan, South Sudan, Kenya, Djibouti and Eritrea are likely to benefit from the power generated by the dam. Many of these countries have huge power deficits. For Sudan there is the added advantage that the flow of the river would be regulated by the dam - meaning it would be the same all-year round. Usually the country suffers from serious flooding in August and September. Concerns Raised by Egypt Egypt fears the project will allow Ethiopia to control the flow of Africa's longest river Hydroelectric power stations do not consume water, but the speed with which Ethiopia fills up the dam's reservoir will affect the flow downstream. The longer it takes to fill the reservoir, the less impact there will be on the level of the river. Heart of the dispute: Ethiopia wants to fill the reservoir in 6 years whereas Egypt wants to fill the reservoir, between 10 and 21 years, and for the release of a minimum of 40 billion cubic metres annually.  Egypt, which relies on the Nile for 90% of its freshwater supply, is apprehensive that a rapid filling of the reservoir in upstream Ethiopia would cause a drastic reduction in supplies. Egypt perceives that the project would lead to diversion of waters to its own High Aswan Dam. Resistance by Egypt is rooted in History and Geopolitics:  A 1929 treaty (and a subsequent one in 1959) gave Egypt and Sudan rights to nearly all of the Nile waters.  The colonial-era document also gave Egypt veto powers over any projects by upstream countries that would affect its share of the waters. Neither agreement made any allowance for the water needs of the other riparian states that were not parties to the deal, including Ethiopia, Uganda, Kenya and Rwanda.  Lack of Consultation: Ethiopia has said it should not be bound by the decades-old treaty and went ahead and started building its dam at the start of the Arab Spring in March 2011 without consulting Egypt. Challenges Ahead Ethiopia has stated that the dispute over the dam project is only a trilateral issue involving Egypt and Sudan. Ethiopia asserts its rights for an equitable share of the Blue Nile flows from the Cooperative Framework Agreement (CFA) signed by some of the 10 Nile Basin Initiative nations The establishment of the Nile River Basin Commission mandated by the CFA has not materialised so far.  Ethiopia is concerned that a long delay in filling the reservoir would jeopardise returns on its investments and hamper the prospects for overall growth.  The mediation role played by US highlights the significance of the issue and the potential conflict it holds if unresolved. However, the mediation has not been able to progress substantially due to lack of true intentions from both sides. Impact regional & International Trade: An escalated tensions between Ethipia & Egypt would threaten the vital international trade route through the Suez Canal and along the Horn of Africa. Way forward An agreement involving Egypt, Ethiopia and others river basin countries for equitable sharing of water Sustainable use of river water given the ever increasing problem of pollution and climate change. These countries can take inspiration from Indus Water Treaty signed between India and Pakistan brokered by World Bank in 1960. The treaty has been functioning smoothly and has endured three wars over nearly six dacades. Conclusion The challenges for the fair utilisation of waters among the riparian states have only been compounded by the pressures of population growth and the effects of global warming While the parties have sought international mediation they also need to rely on regional cooperation for long enduring solution. International Affairs Topic: General Studies 3: Policies and politics of developed and developing countries on India’s interests Is the global economy headed for recession? Businesses impacted Context: How deep has the impact of COVID-19 been on businesses around the world? And which are the ones that have been hit the hardest? The global death toll due to COVID-19 has crossed the 5,300 mark, with over 1.42 lakh people infected.  India, where 88 people have been infected, saw two casualties as of March 15th 2020 What does it mean to the global economy? Analysts fear that the global economy may tip into a recession unless the virus turns out to be seasonal.  A recession sets in when the economy shows two consecutive quarters of contraction The problem with current predictions is no one knows how long the virus will remain potent Rabobank has stated that a global recession now is all but certain. It has predicted global GDP growth to be 1.6% for 2020, a figure that was 2.9% the last year, as per IMF estimates. the Institute for International Finance had said that global economic growth could turn out to be as low as 1%, and this was even before the OPEC club and Russia fell out on production agreements to maintain stable oil prices The UN’s United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD), said the virus outbreak could cost the global economy up to $2-trillion this year Why should the economy be affected? If we engage less with the outer world, and avoid work, education, fitness and entertainment, a lot less economic activity would occur.  Businesses face the challenge of disrupted supply of components to make products, or of having to shut some of their factories temporarily Which are the industries impacted? When China was faced the COVID-19 outbreak, the Indian pharmaceutical, automobile and mobile phone industries were immediately impacted. India depends on China for supplies of components for products that these sectors make. The Indian pharma industry, which depends on China for 70% of raw materials needed to manufacture drugs here, has seen input costs go up by 50% as of February 2020 The pesticides sector is another that has been affected as manufacturers depend on China for raw materials. While there are comforting stock levels for now in India, farmers may soon face pesticide availability issues unless the situation resolves quickly. The Indian gem and jewellery makers are impacted due to the partial closure of the Chinese and Hong Kong markets (which accounts for 70% of India’s exports), which is likely to result in a loss of about $1-billion by April 2020.  Software Services: Decision-making in the West, a key market for software services, may have been hit, with in-bound travel restricted and the U.S. declaring emergency.  Security and safe health of employees have been at the top of priorities rather than the pricing of a technology contract Entertainment and Sport: The very popular Indian Premier League has been postponed. In football, all Union of European Football Association (UEFA) competitions have been postponed. Same is with US sports. How will it hit the travel sector? Travel has been hit severely as countries issue advisories to eliminate unnecessary travel and go into lockdown mode.  The U.S., for instance, has halted all in-bound travel from Europe.  India has temporarily stopped grant of visas except for emergency situations. The impact on profits of — and jobs at — airlines, airport authorities and oil marketing companies is obvious and immediate It has also impacted the economy around air travel — the vendor of shops and outlets in the Airport & surrounding region. Boeing executives have indicated there had been a 50% reduction in daily flight count in the Asia-Pacific region.  Is there a silver lining at all? Sales of medical supplies, soaps, hand sanitisers and essentials to be stocked up at home will evidently rise. Digital shopping may see even more traction.  It is said that after the SARS epidemic in China in 2003, shoppers began to prefer buying online, to avoid crowded spaces and that e-commerce major Alibaba’s fortunes zoomed after this.  With schools shutting down temporarily, online learning platforms are likely to get a boost. When normalcy returns, wouldn’t pent-up demand make up for lack of economic activity now? Only some of the expenses that are being held back by consumers can be made up for later when pent-up demand is unleashed after the situation returns to normal. Ex: Postponing a vacation But micro-expenses, which contribute significantly to an economy, such as a cab fare or buying snacks for a commute, can never be made up for during this slowdown For instance: cab drivers cannot quite afford to have their cabs out of circulation for even as short a period as a week, if they have to put food on the table for their families. Curtailed travel and commutes can be devastating for them unless the situation resolves quickly. Has the Central Banks done anything? U.S. Federal Reserve held an emergency meeting and cut interest rates by a half percentage point.  The stock markets reacted favourably for a short while before losing steam and spiralling downwards. Nevertheless, the U.S. declaring a state of emergency over the spread of the virus will help allocate the significant quantum of funds needed to deal with a health-care requirement of this magnitude.  Likewise, the Euro markets remained unmoved even after the European Central Bank announced fresh stimulus measures to help the economy cope with the growing cost of the COVID-19 epidemic (TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE) Model questions: (You can now post your answers in comment section) Note:  Correct answers of today’s questions will be provided in next day’s DNA section. Kindly refer to it and update your answers.  Comments Up-voted by IASbaba are also the “correct answers”. Q 1. Consider the following statements about State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) It is a statutory body constituted under the Disaster Management Act, 2005 National Disaster Response Fund supplements the SDRF of a state, in case of a disaster of severe nature, provided adequate funds are not available in the SDRF. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 2. Consider the following statements about Rushikulya River It originates from Daringbadi hills of the Eastern Ghats range and flows into Bay of Bengal  Rushikulya river mouth has emerged as India’s second largest nesting site of the endangered olive ridley turtles. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 3. Consider the following statements about Circuit Breakers in Stock Exchanges Gujarat, Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Karnataka are among the few states who enjoy special provisions under Article 371 One of the main objectives behind the Article 371 granting special provisions to some states is to meet the unique needs of the backward regions of these states  Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 4. Consider the following statements about National Creche Scheme It is Centrally Sponsored Scheme implemented by Ministry of Women and Child Development It aims to provide day care facilities to children (age group of 6 months to 6 years) of working mothers. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 5. Global Migration report 2020 is released by which body? International Organisation for Migration World Economic Forum Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation Amnesty International ANSWERS FOR 14 March 2020 TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE (TYK) 1 C 2 A 3 B 4 B 5 A Must Read About Transparency in Political Parties  The Hindu About Education and riots: The Hindu About Agri reforms in past decade: The Indian Express

PIB

Press Information Bureau (PIB) IAS UPSC – 8th March to 14th March – 2020

Press Information Bureau (PIB) IAS UPSC – 8th to 14th March, 2020 ARCHIVES GS-1 Average Life Expectancy (Topic: Population and Associated Issues) As per the report titled SRS Based Life Table 2013-17 published by the Office of the Registrar General & Census Commissioner, Government of India, the average life expectancy at birth has increased from 49.7 during 1970-75 to 69.0 in 2013-17, registering an increase of 19.3 years during this period. As per the same report, the life expectancy at birth for male and female during 2013-17 were 67.8 and 70.4 years respectively. The measures taken/proposed by the Government of India for providing better health services to ensure healthy life and to further improve the average life expectancy of the people in the country are as follows: Mobilization of public health action at multiple levels The Ayushman Bharat effort, with its two components of Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs) and Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY), addresses disparity in access and reduces out of pocket expenditure for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization for 40% of India’s population. The scheme provides hospital care for about 1,350 illnesses at secondary and tertiary level empanelled public and private hospitals. HWC encourages healthy choices and behaviours including Yoga and other physical activities National Health Mission (NHM) is creating a network of 1,50,000 HWCs by upgrading existing Sub Centres (SCs) and Primary Health Centres (PHCs) to provide Comprehensive Primary Health Care (CPHC), which is universal and free to all those who access public health facilities. The CPHC basket of services cover 12 key service areas, which go beyond the Reproductive, Maternal, Neonatal, Child and Adolescent Health (RMNCH+A) services to include screening and care for NCDs (diabetes, high blood pressure, oral, breast, cervical cancers etc.), elderly care, palliative and rehabilitative care, Oral, Eye and ENT care, mental health and first level care for emergencies and trauma etc. Continuum of care is being provided to all elderly citizen of age above 60 years from preventive and promotive up to rehabilitation in Geriatric units of District Hospital, Community Health Centres and Primary Health Centres under National programme for Healthcare of Elderly (NPHCE) Palliative care is being provided to terminal cases of Cancer, AIDS etc. under National programme for Palliative Care (NPPC) Providing financial support in the form of untied funds, annual maintenance grants and Rogi Kalyan Samiti (RKS) funds for development of health facilities and ensuring services Providing infrastructural support to State/UTs in constructing new health facilities and/or for up-gradation of infrastructure, Mother & Child Health (MCH) wings, up-gradation of the trauma centres & First Referral Units, Operationalization of the blood banks etc. Operationalizing health facilities in rural areas (through placement of human resources in difficult areas, supply of equipment, drugs and diagnostics) In addition, certain new initiatives have been undertaken like the  Screening for Non-communicable Diseases (NCDs) Mothers Absolute Affection: to promote exclusive breastfeeding Pradhan Mantri Shurakshit Matratva Abhiyan: to improve access to specialist maternal care through voluntary participation of private providers Pradhan Mantri National Dialysis Program Mission Indradhanush: to immunise partially or uncovered population Rashtriya Swasthya Bal Karyakram (RBSK) Kayakalp: to promote cleanliness, hygiene and Infection Control Practices in public Health Care Facilities Labour room quality improvement initiative- LAQSHYA: Initiative to reduce preventable maternal and new-born mortality, morbidity and stillbirths associated with the care around delivery in Labour room and Maternity OT and ensure respectful maternity care Surakshit Matritva Aashwasan (SUMAN): to end all preventable maternal and neonatal deaths) etc GS-2 Constitution of Development and Welfare Board for De-notified, Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Communities (DWBDNCs) (Topic: Government schemes for minorities) To formulate and Implement Welfare and Development programme as required, for De-notified, Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Communities To identify the locations/areas where these communities are densely populated To assess and identify gaps in accessing existing programmes and entitlements and to collaborate with Ministries/Implementing agencies to ensure that ongoing programmes meet the special requirements of De-notified Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Communities To monitor and evaluate the progress of the schemes of Government of India and the States/UTs with reference to De-notified Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Communities To redress the grievances of DNTs communities and fulfill their expectations Socio-economic and educational empowerment of women from minority communities (Topic: Government schemes for empowering women) Pradhan Mantri Jan VikasKaryakram (PMJVK): Earlier known as Multi-sectoral Development Programme (MsDP), a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, in identified Minority Concentration Areas (MCAs) of the country with the objective of developing socio-economic assets and basic amenities in these areas to bring them at par with other parts of the country. The thrust of the PMJVK programme is to allocate at least 80% of the resources for education, health and skill development and at least 33-40% of the resources for women centric projects. Socio-Economic-Educational Empowerment of Minority Women: Pre-Matric Scholarship Scheme, Post-Matric Scholarship Scheme, Merit-cum-Means based Scholarship Scheme - For educational empowerment of students; Begum Hazrat Mahal National Scholarship for Meritorious Girls belonging to the Minorities.   More than 1.94 Crore girl students have benefitted during the last 5 years. Others schemes include: “Maulana Azad National Fellowship Scheme”; “Naya Savera” - Free Coaching and Allied Scheme; “Padho Pardesh” and “Nai Udaan”. Leadership Development: “Nai Roshni” scheme and various welfare schemes - Leadership development of women belonging to minority communities.About three (3) lakh women have been provided various leadership development training in the last five years. Skill Development: “Gharib Nawaz Swarojgar Yojna”  for providing shortterm job oriented skill development courses to youth belonging to minority communities “Seekho Aur Kamao” - Skill development scheme for youth of 14 - 35 years age group and aiming at improving the employability of existing workers, school dropouts etc. Nai Manzil - A scheme for formal school education & skilling of school dropouts. 4.35 lakh women have been provided employment oriented skill development training “Hunar Haats”,organised by the Union Ministry of Minority Affairs in various cities, offer unique opportunities to young entrepreneurs and aspirants to experiment and explore novel means of creativity coupled with livelihood.” “Hunar Haats” have a 50% reservation for women. It started at 20%, but over the years it has increased to ensure more women’s participation. There are a large number of women self-help groups associated with Hunar Haats.1.35 lakh women artisans have benefitted through Hunar Haats during the last three (3) years Haj without “Mehram: Restrictions lifted on Muslim women going for Haj without “Mehram” (male companion).  5,544 Muslim women have performed Haj without “Mehram” during the last three (3) years Social Empowerment: Brought the law to ban the social evils like Triple Talaq.   Constitutional and Social rights of Muslim women have been ensured Malnutrition among Women (Topic: Government schemes for empowering women) As per the recent report of National Family Health Survey (NFHS) – 4 conducted by Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in 2015-16, 22.9% women (15-49 years of age) are underweight (BMI less than 18.5 kg/m2).  The five States having highest percentage of malnutrition among women are  Jharkhand (31.5%) Bihar (30.4%) Dadra and Nagar Haveli (28.7%) Madhya Pradesh (28.4%) Gujarat (27.2%) Rajasthan (27%) The Government has accorded high priority to the issue of malnutrition and is making serious efforts to address this issue. Several schemes with direct as well as indirect interventions are being implemented across the country. Schemes like Anganwadi Services, Scheme for Adolescent Girls and Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojna (PMMVY) under the Umbrella Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) Scheme are direct targeted interventions being implemented to address the problem of malnutrition among women and children in the country. Anganwadi Services Scheme aims to improve the nutritional and health status of pregnant women & lactating mothers and reduce the incidence of mortality, morbidity and malnutrition. Under the Scheme, pregnant women and lactating mothers are provided supplementary nutrition, nutrition and health education, immunization, health check-up and referral services. Scheme for Adolescent Girls is implemented for out-of-school adolescent girls in the age group of 11-14 years for self-development and empowerment of adolescent girls; improvement of nutritional and health status; to promote awareness about health, hygiene & nutrition; support to out-of-school Adolescent Girls for successful transition back to formal schooling or bridge learning/skill training; upgrade their home-based skills and life skills. Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) is implemented with an aim to provide cash incentive to improve health seeking behaviour amongst the Pregnant Women & Lactating Mothers (PW&LM) and to compensate partially the wage loss in terms of cash incentive so that the woman can take adequate rest before and after delivery of the first child. POSHAN Abhiyaan: One of the goals of POSHAN Abhiyaan is to achieve improvement in nutritional status of Adolescent Girls, Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers in a time bound manner Further, to address malnutrition among women, the steps taken under the National Health Mission (NHM), a flagship programme of Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, are Anaemia Mukt Bharat Organization of Monthly Village Health Sanitation and Nutrition days for provision of maternal and child health services and creating awareness on maternal and child care Iron and Folic Acid (IFA) supplementation Calcium supplementation and promotion of iodized salt Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakaram (Topic: Government schemes for empowering women) To eliminate out of pocket expenses for both pregnant women and sick infants accessing public health institution for treatment. The initiative was estimated to benefit more than 1 crore pregnant women access public health institutions every year in both urban and rural areas. Entitlements for Pregnant Women under JSSK: Free and zero expense Delivery and Caesarean Section Free Drugs and Consumables Free Essential Diagnostics (Blood, Urine tests and Ultra sonography etc.) Free Diet during stay in the health institutions (up to 3 days for normal delivery and 7 days for caesarean section) Free Provision of Blood Free Transport from Home to Health institutions Free Transport between facilities in case of referral Drop Back from institutions to home after 48 hrs stay Exemption from all kinds of User Charges Entitlements for Sick infants under JSSK till one year after birth: Free and zero expense treatment Free Drugs and Consumables Free Diagnostics Free Provision of Blood Free Transport from Home to Health institutions. Free Transport between facilities in case of referral Drop back from institutions to home Exemption from all kinds of user charges The institution of Lokpal is fully functional (Topic: Statutory, regulatory and various quasi-judicial bodies) The President, on the recommendation of the duly constituted Selection Committee, appointed the Chairperson and eight Members of the Lokpal who assumed charge of their offices on 23rd and 27th March, 2019 respectively. The Lokpal is an independent statutory body established under Section 3 of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013.   In terms of Section 48 of the said Act, the Lokpal is required to present annually to the President a report on the work done by it, which is caused to be laid in both the Houses of the Parliament. Since the Lokpal was operationalized at the far end of March, 2019, no such report has been submitted by the Lokpal. Hence, details of the cases registered and action taken thereon by the Lokpal are not available. The form for making a complaint has been devised keeping in view various provisions of the Act relating to processing of the complaints and the same is annexed to the rules. Cabinet approves scheme for ‘Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products (RoDTEP)’ to boost exports  (Topic: Start-up, Manufacturing and export) A mechanism would be created for reimbursement of taxes/ duties/ levies, at the central, state and local level, which are currently not being refunded under any other mechanism, but which are incurred in the process of manufacture and distribution of exported products.  This scheme is going to give a boost to the domestic industry and Indian exports providing a level playing field for Indian producers in the International market so that domestic taxes/duties are not exported. The refunds under the RoDTEP scheme would be a step towards “zero-rating” of exports, along with refunds such as Drawback and IGST. This would lead to cost competitiveness of exported products in international markets and better employment opportunities in export oriented manufacturing industries. Startup India Action Plan (Topic: Start-up, Manufacturing and export) The flagship initiative has an objective to build a strong eco-system for nurturing innovation and Startups in the country that will drive sustainable economic growth and generate large scale employment opportunities. The action plan comprises of 19 action items spanning across areas such as “Simplification and handholding”, “Funding support and incentives” and “Industry-academia partnership and incubation”. Since its inception, 28,979, Startups across the country have been recognised by Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) as on March 2020. Compliance Regime based on Self-Certification with an objective to reduce the regulatory burden on Startups thereby allowing them to focus on their core business and keep compliance cost low. Startup India Hub with an objective to create a single point of contact for the entire Startup ecosystem and enable knowledge exchange and access to funding. Rolling out of Mobile App and Portal with an objective to serve as the single platform for Startups for interacting with Government and Regulatory Institutions for all business needs and information exchange among various stakeholders. Legal Support and Fast-tracking Patent Examination at Lower Costs with an objective to promote awareness and adoption of IPRs by Startups and facilitate them in protecting and commercializing the IPRs by providing access to high quality Intellectual Property services and resources, including fast-track examination of patent applications and rebate in fees. Relaxed Norms of Public Procurement for Startups with an objective to provide an equal platform to Startups across sectors vis-à-vis the experienced entrepreneurs/ companies in public procurement. Faster Exit for Startups with an objective to make it easier for Startups to wind up operations. Providing Funding Support through Fund of Funds with a Corpus of Rs. 10,000 crores with an objective to provide funding support for development and growth of innovation driven enterprises. Credit Guarantee fund for Startups with objective to catalyze entrepreneurship by providing credit to innovators across all sections of society. Tax Exemptions on Capital Gains with an objective to promote investments into Startups by mobilizing the capital gains arising from sale of capital assets. Tax Exemptions to startups for 3 Years with an objective to promote the growth of Startups and address working capital requirements. Tax Exemption on Investments above Fair Market Value with an objective to encourage seed-capital investment in Startups. Organizing Startup Fests for Showcasing Innovation and Providing a Collaboration Platform with an objective to galvanize the Startup ecosystem and to provide national and international visibility to the Startup ecosystem in India. Launch of Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) with an objective to serve as a platform for promotion of world-class Innovation Hubs, Grand Challenges, Startup businesses and other self-employment activities, particularly in technology driven areas. Harnessing Private Sector Expertise for Incubator Setup with an objective to ensure professional management of Government sponsored / funded incubators, Government will create a policy and framework for setting-up of incubators across the country in public private partnership. Building Innovation Centres at National Institutes with an objective to propel successful innovation through augmentation of incubation and R&D efforts. Setting up of 7 New Research Parks modelled on the Research Park Setup at IIT Madras with an objective to propel successful innovation through incubation and joint R&D efforts between academia and Industry. Promoting Start-ups in the Biotechnology Sector with an objective to foster and facilitate bio-entrepreneurship. Launching of Innovation Focused Programs for Students with an objective to foster a culture of innovation in the field of Science and Technology amongst students. Annual Incubator Grand Challenge with an objective to support creation of successful world class incubators in India. New Textile Policy – 2020 (Topic: Start-up, Manufacturing and export) Government is formulating a New Textile Policy for overall development of the sector. Inputs from all the state governments, individuals through e-portal and different associations are being solicited under broad topics like cotton, silk, jute, wool, man-made fibre, handloom, handicrafts, powerloom, technical textiles, technology & machinery upgradation, infrastructure (spinning, weaving & processing) and human resource development. Over a period of time, textile industry is facing some problems like technological obsolesce, high input cost (power & capital), poor access to credit, fragmented units, absence of fibre neutrality etc.   Silk Samagra Scheme for Development of Sericulture Sericulture is an agro-based cottage industry having huge employment and income generating potential in rural and semi-urban areas. Silkworm rearing is mainly practiced in rural areas of the country providing livelihood to weaker section of the society.   Around 12,03,942 farming families and 56,013 reeler families are involved in Sericulture related activities in the country.  The Government of India through Central Silk Board has been implementing a Central Sector Scheme “Silk Samagra” an Integrated Scheme for Development of Silk Industry (ISDSI) during the year (2017-20) with an aims & objective to scale up production by improving the quality and productivity and to empower downtrodden, poor & backward families through various activities of sericulture in the country. The scheme comprises four (4) major Components viz.  (i) Research & Development, Training, Transfer of Technology and I.T. Initiatives (ii) Seed Organizations (iii) Coordination and Market Development (iv) Quality Certification Systems (QCS)/Export Brand Promotion and Technology Up-gradation Modernisation of Jute Mills There is an urgent need for modernization of jute mills and jute diversified producing – MSME units. Modernization will lead to increase productivity of jute machinery and making them efficient by replacing old machines by new and technologically advanced machines. Government of India through National Jute Board is implementing Incentive Scheme for Acquisition of Plant & Machinery (ISAPM).   An incentive of 20% of the cost of new machinery for jute mill and 30% for JDP – MSME units is considered for reimbursement, subject to maximum of Rs 2.50 crore per unit.  Under the scheme, Capital Subsidy amounting to Rs 4933 lakh to jute mills and JDP units has been released during 2014-15 to 2018-19. For the revival of jute mills, some major steps have been taken by the Government some of which are: Imposition of Anti-Dumping Duty:  Government of India also imposed Anti-Dumping Duty to protect Indian Jute growers and farmers. After the imposition of Anti-dumping duty from 2017, an additional demand of 2 lakh Metric Tonnes has been generated in the domestic market for the jute industry, which has led to the reopening of more than 10 Jute Twine Mills located in Andhra Pradesh, benefitting 20,000 workmen directly and indirectly. Therefore, Anti-dumping duty has served to protect the interests of Indian Jute Industry and the persons engaged in the industry. Jute Packaging Materials (Compulsory Use in Packing Commodities) Act, 1987: Under the Jute Packaging Materials (Compulsory Use in Packing Commodities) [JPM Act], 1987, Government specifies the commodities and the extent to which they are mandatorily required to be packed in Jute Packaging Materials. At present, a minimum of 100% of food grains and a minimum of 20% of sugar are to be compulsorily packed in jute sacking. On an average, the annual Government support to jute industry on this account amounts to Rs.7500 crores.     Inclusion of jute products under Technical Textiles items:- Recently, Directorate General of foreign Trade (DGFT) has issued a Notification in 2019 incorporating 207 items as Technical Textiles out of which 15 items are related with jute. Minimum Support Price (MSP) for Raw Jute and Mesta:- Minimum Support Price for raw jute and mesta is fixed every year to protect the interest of farmers. While fixing prices of different grades, the issue of discouraging production of lower grade jute and encouraging production of higher grades jute are taken into consideration so as to motivate farmers to produce higher grade jute. Incentive Scheme for Acquisition of Select Machinery:- To increase the productivity of the jute machinery and make them efficient by replacing the old machines by new and technologically advanced machines, NJB has been implementing schemes for modernization of jute industry. During the Jute Technology Mission (JTM) (2007-2013), a scheme known as ‘Acquisition of Plant and Machinery’ (APM) (Capital subsidy) was instrumental in bringing in investment of more than Rs. 500 crore. Considering success of the JTM scheme, the Incentive Scheme for Acquisition of Plant and Machinery was launched in 2013. The scheme in its present form is valid upto 31st March 2020. On- Going Scheme for Jute Farmers: JUTE –ICARE: This pilot project launched in 2015 is aimed at addressing the difficulties faced by the jute cultivators by providing them certified seeds at subsidized rates, seed drills to facilitate line sowing, nail-weeders to carry out periodic weeding and by popularising several newly developed retting technologies under water limiting conditions. This has resulted in increased returns to jute farmers. Encouraged by the success of this pilot project, the project has been extended till 31st March, 2020. This Ministry has given a total of Rs. 45.35 crore grant to NJB for a period of three years (2017-18 to 2019-20). Usage of Jute Geo-Textiles (JGT) in NER States:- Jute geotextiles being technical textiles is an eco-compatible solution to crucial geotechnical problems such as Soil erosion, Consolidation of Soft Soil, Construction of Rural Roads and for agro-textile applications. Continuous interactive awareness programmes have been organized with the Engineers and other stakeholders in various states including North East for increasing uses of jute geotextiles. The progress in application of jute geotextiles includes, 118 rural roads (approx. 900 K.Ms) under PMGSY, 36 flood embankments in West Bengal, 9 roads in UP (43 K.Ms) under constructions, 2 river embankments in Bihar under constructions, 1 road in Tamil Nadu (2.8 K.Ms) under PMGSY and Indian Railway used about 46 lakhs sq.mtrs. of JGT has strengthening embankment. Measures for the benefit of workers, artisans and small producers and for promotion of the jute industry: (a) Export Market Development Assistance Scheme to facilitate registered manufacturer exporters of jute products to participate in international fairs and take business delegations abroad for export promotion of lifestyle and other diversified jute products. (b) Jute Integrated Development Scheme (JIDS) aims at setting up local units and agencies at distant locations around the country through collaboration with bona-fide bodies to carry out various activities. JID agencies act as a facilitator for rendering the backward and forward linkages to the existing and potential entrepreneurs, imparting awareness and training at grass-root levels mainly on technology application and design /product development and disseminations. JID agencies are also a prime source for market facilitation to the Jute Diversified Products (JDP) units, SHGs, WSHGs, NGOs. (c) Jute Raw Material Bank (JRMB) Scheme aims at accelerating the pace of JDP activities in the country by catering to the jute unorganised sector and the production units so that jute raw material is supplied to them regularly at economic rates i.e. mill gate price plus actual transportation cost, to help them manufacture high value products, both for domestic and international markets. (d) Retail Outlet of Jute Diversified Products Scheme for providing assistance to jute entrepreneurs for opening of outlets of jute lifestyle jute products in Metro Cities, State capitals, District Head Offices and Tourist spots. (e) Design Development Scheme - NJB Jute Design Cell at NID for development of Jute Shopping Bags and Lifestyle Accessories has also been set up at the Innovative Centre for Natural Fibres (ICNF) of NID (National Institute of Design), Ahmedabad whose prime objective is to develop newer and innovative Products through design and technology intervention for value addition and better market at home and abroad. NID has already developed more than 100 woven, dyed, finished samples for jute lifestyle accessories and has showcased low cost jute carry bags as an alternative against plastic bags, collapsible Jute bags, etc. Jute bags, namely, fashion bags, Tote bags, foldable hand bags at various fairs, exhibitions in domestic and international markets.      9. Focused Market Initiatives for organising and participation in Jute Fairs, National Fairs / Regional Fairs, Export oriented fairs in India & abroad to extend marketing support to the artisans, small and micro entrepreneurs: (a) Skill Development Program: Various Skill Development programmes are conducted for providing training on manufacture of jute diversified products to correctional homes like inmates of Tihar Jail, New Delhi, families/beneficiaries of the Delhi Police, Border Security Force (BSF) and other institutions. Many of the beneficiaries have started production and marketing of jute products with the support of NJB. (b) Continuous Market Support is provided to jute artisans, entrepreneurs, weavers, NGOs, Women Self Help Groups for selling, marketing and promotion of their products in India and abroad. The fairs organized by NJB are means of livelihood to these groups of people.  (c) Development & Promotion of Jute Diversified Products:- Several steps have been taken for promoting better agronomic practices in jute farming, promotion of the Jute Diversified Products (JDPs) and their marketing, support for technological up-gradation of jute mills, etc. (d) Subsidy Scheme for Distribution of Certified Seeds:- This is a scheme for distributing certified jute seeds to the farmers. Certified jute seeds are being distributed at a subsidy of Rs. 40/kg under the scheme. The network of Jute Corporation of India (JCI) is being utilized for implementation of the scheme. The scheme aims at improving the quality and productivity of raw jute and fetching better returns to the farmers. Amended Technology Upgradation Fund Scheme (ATUFS) The Government is implementing Amended Technology Upgradation Fund Scheme (ATUFS), a credit linked Capital Investment Subsidy (CIS) scheme during 2016 to 2022 with an outlay of Rs. 17822 crore to catalyze capital investments for technology upgradation and modernization of the textile industry. The scheme promotes ease of doing business in the country and achieve the vision of generating employment and promoting exports through “Make in India’’ with "Zero effect and Zero defect" in manufacturing.  The scheme facilitates augmenting of investment, productivity, quality, employment, exports along with import substitution in the textile industry.  It also indirectly promotes investment in textile machinery (having benchmarked technology) manufacturing.  Scheme for Production and Employment Linked Support for Garmenting Units (SPELSGU) under ATUFS: To incentivize production and employment generation in the garmenting sector vide Steps Taken to Boost Export (Topic: Start-up, Manufacturing and export) Primary focus:  To refund duties and taxes levied on inputs used in production of export products Reduce cost disability by providing incentives to specified products Improve all-round ease of doing business Enhancing competitiveness and growth in exports of all products groups across all destinations Government is taking holistic measures to make exports competitive whether it is ensuring access to affordable credit, initiating exporter friendly schemes, promoting districts as export hubs, improving logistics and improving utilisation of Free Trade Agreements (FTAs). In order to boost India’s exports, Government has taken several steps, including: A new Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) 2015-20 was launched which rationalised the earlier export promotion schemes and introduced two new schemes, namely Merchandise Exports from India Scheme (MEIS) for improving export of goods and ‘Services Exports from India Scheme (SEIS)’ for increasing exports of services. Duty credit scrips issued under these schemes were made fully transferable. Incentives for labour intensive / MSME sectors were increased by 2%. A new Logistics Division was created in the Department of Commerce for integrated development of the logistics sector. India’s rank in World Bank’s Logistics Performance Index moved up from 54 in 2014 to 44 in 2018. Interest Equalization Scheme on pre and post shipment rupee export credit was introduced, providing interest equalisation at 3% for labour intensive / MSME sectors. The rate was increased to 5% for MSME sectors with effect from 2018 and merchant exporters were covered under the scheme with effect from 2019. For improving ease of doing business, online issuance of Importer Exporter Codes (IEC), has been started. India’s rank in World Bank ‘Ease of Doing Business’ ranking improved from 142 in 2014 to 63 in 2019 with the rank in ‘trading across borders’ moving up from 122 to 80. A new scheme called “Trade Infrastructure for Export Scheme (TIES)” was launched with effect from 2017 to address the export infrastructure gaps in the country. A comprehensive “Agriculture Export Policy” was launched on 6th December, 2018 with an aim to double farmers’ income by 2022 and provide an impetus to agricultural exports. A new scheme called “Transport and Marketing Assistance” (TMA) has been launched for mitigating disadvantage of higher cost of transportation for export of specified agriculture products. Protecting IP Intensive Industries (Topic: IP and industry) Intellectual Property (IP) intensive industry is not defined. But the Department has taken various initiatives to strengthen Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Regime in India like legislative improvements, modernisation of IP offices, manpower augmentation, use of IT and technology, e-filing of applications, acceptance of email in all IPO transactions, online delivery of certificates of grant/registration of patent, trademark and designs in digital format, use of video-conferencing for hearing of IP applications, SMS alert to get updates, expedited examination of IP applications, spreading awareness in IPR, India’s accession to WIPO administered treaties, signing of pilot Patent Prosecution Highway (PPH) project with Japan in the month of December 2019. Impacts of the initiatives: Period of examination of new Trademarks applications has been reduced from 13 months to less than 30 days Trademark is registered in less than 7 months, if there are no objections or opposition filed, as compared to 3-5 years required earlier 11.25 lakh trademark registrations in just four and half years (2015 to 2019)   as compared to 11 lakh registrations during 75 Years (1940-2015) Patent examination increased from 22631 in 2014-15 to 85426 in 2018-19 Time required for patent examination reduced from average 72 months in 2014- 2015 to average around 36 months in 2019 Grant of patents has increased from 5,978 in 2014-15 to 15,283 in 2018-19 The Government of India has been working steadily to improve India’s ranking in Global Innovation Index (GII) and this is evident from the fact that India has been consistently moving up on global ranking in past few years. India’s ranking has improved from 81 in 2015 to 52 in 2019 in GII Amendments in IP Acts are considered by the Government of India as and when deemed necessary Major Port Authorities Bill 2020 Introduced in the Lok Sabha (Topic: Schemes in Infrastructure – Ports) The Bill seeks to provide for regulation, operation and planning of Major Ports in India and to vest the administration, control and management of such ports upon the Boards of Major Port Authorities and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi had approved the proposal of Ministry of Shipping to replace the Major Port Trusts Act, 1963 by the Major Port Authorities Bill, 2020.  This will empower the Major Ports to perform with greater efficiency on account of full autonomy in decision making and by modernizing the institutional framework of Major Ports. Aim: Decentralizing decision making and to infuse professionalism in governance of major ports Helps to impart faster and transparent decision making benefiting the stakeholders and better project execution capability Reorienting the governance model in central ports to landlord port model in line with the successful global practice Help in bringing transparency in operations of Major Ports Features: The Bill is more compact in comparison to the Major Port Trusts Act, 1963 as the number of sections has been reduced to 76 from 134 by eliminating overlapping and obsolete Sections. The new Bill has proposed a simplified composition of the Board of Port Authority which will comprise of 11 to 13 Members from the present 17 to 19 Members representing various interests.  A compact Board with professional independent Members will strengthen decision making and strategic planning. Provision has been made for inclusion of representative of State Government in which the Major Port is situated, Ministry of Railways, Ministry of Defence and Customs, Department of Revenue as Members in the Board apart from a Government Nominee Member and a Member representing the employees of the Major Port Authority. The role of Tariff Authority for Major Ports (TAMP) has been redefined.  Port Authority has now been given powers to fix tariff which will act as a reference tariff for purposes of bidding for PPP projects.  PPP operators will be free to fix tariff based on market conditions. The Board of Port Authority has been delegated the power to fix the scale of rates for other port services and assets including land. An Adjudicatory Board has been proposed to be created to carry out the residual function of the erstwhile TAMP for Major Ports, to look into disputes between ports and PPP concessionaires, to review stressed PPP projects and suggest measures to review stressed PPP projects and suggest measures to revive such projects and to look into complaints regarding services rendered by the ports/ private operators operating within the ports would be constituted. The Boards of Port Authority have been delegated full powers to enter into contracts, planning and development, fixing of tariff except in national interest, security and emergency arising out of inaction and default.  In the present MPT Act, 1963 prior approval of the Central Government was required in 22 instances. The Board of each Major Port shall be entitled to create specific master plan in respect of any development or infrastructure established or proposed to be established within the port limits and the land appurtenant thereto and such master plan shall be independent of any local or State Government regulations of any authority whatsoever.  Provisions of CSR & development of infrastructure by Port Authority have been introduced. Provision has been made for safeguarding the pay & allowances and service conditions including pensionary benefits of the employees of major ports and Tariff of Major Ports. GS-3 Groundwater affects Himalayan slip and climate as the mountains dance to its tune (Topic: Climate change) Researchers from Indian Institute of Geomagnetism (IIG), an autonomous institute under the Department of Science & Technology, have found the mighty Himalayas subside and move up depending on the seasonal changes in groundwater. Since Himalayas play a very important role in influencing climate in the Indian subcontinent, the study funded by DST will help in understanding how hydrology affects climate. The Himalayan foothills and the Indo-Gangetic plain are sinking because its contiguous areas are rising due to tectonic activity associated with landmass movement or continental drift. The new study published in the Journal of Geophysical Research shows that subsidence and uplift are found to be associated with seasonal changes in groundwater, apart from the normal, common reasons. Water acts as a lubricating agent, and hence when there is water in the dry season, the rate of slip of the fault in this region is reduced. Nobody till now has looked at the rising Himalayas from a hydrological standpoint. Ajish Saji, working towards his Ph.D. under Prof Sunil Sukumaran, has looked at this phenomenon through this innovative prism. The water storage and surface load variations are quite tricky to quantify through the application of extant global models. In the Himalaya, seasonal water from glaciers, as well as monsoon precipitation, plays a key role in the deformation of the crust and the seismicity associated with it. The subsidence rate is associated with groundwater consumption. The researchers have made the combined use of Global Positioning System (GPS) and Gravity Recovery and Climate Experiment (GRACE) data, which has made it possible for them to quantify the variations of hydrologic mass. The GRACE satellites, launched by the US in 2002, monitor changes in water and snow stores on the continents. This made it possible for the IIG team to study terrestrial hydrology. [caption id="attachment_57921" align="aligncenter" width="356"] Groundwater affects Himalayan slip and climate as the mountains dance to its tune[/caption] A Schematic illustration of the study area in a GPS and GRACE satellite perspective view According to the researchers, the combined GPS and GRACE data suggest a 12% reduction in the rate of the subsurface slip. This slip refers to how fast the fault is slipping relative to the foot and hanging wall.  The slip occurs at the Main Himalayan Thrust (MHT), due to hydrological variations and human activities, over which there is the periodic release of accumulated strain. Sewage Water Treatment (Topic: Waste Management, Environment) Discharge of untreated & partially treated sewage and industrial effluent is primary cause of pollution of river and water bodies.  As per the report published by Central pollution Control Board (CPCB) in March, 2015; sewage generation from urban areas in the country is estimated at 61, 948 million litres per day (mld), against which available sewage treatment capacity was 23,277 mld. Discharge of raw sewage into water bodies cause depletion of Dissolved Oxygen (DO) in river and thus, adversely impact aquatic life. Cleaning of river through proper sewage management is a continuous process and Central Government is supplementing the efforts of the State Governments and Union Territories in addressing the challenges of pollution of rivers by providing financial and technical assistance  through schemes like National River Conservation Plan (NRCP) and Namami Gange. Operation and maintenance (O&M) of STP and sewage pumping station is the responsibility of the State Governments/Urban local body concerned Lack of adequate sewer networks & house connection and unsatisfactory operation and maintenance are major reasons for underutilization of sewage treatment plants (STPs). Central Government has been regularly asking the States to improve the performance of STPs In addition, CPCB had issued directions to the State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs)/Pollution Control Committees (PCCs) under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 asking them to issue directions to Local Authorities responsible for sewage management in their respective cities/towns and to submit time bound action plans for collection, transportation and treatment of sewage generated in urban area CPCB has also issued directions to Local Authorities under Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 for sewage management in Class I Cities and Class II towns and asked them to ensure that treated waste water is disposed in rivers and water bodies in accordance with the stipulated standards Share of Gas in the Energy Basket (Topic: Energy) Natural Gas being an alternative cleaner fossil fuel has a major role in catering the growing energy demand in a sustainable manner.  To increase the share of gas in the primary energy mix of the country, Government is progressively taking steps to enhance domestic gas production and develop requisite gas infrastructure including gas pipelines, city gas distribution networks and import Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) terminals.  The initiatives to develop eco-system of gas infrastructure across the country have a potential of investment of about Rs. 2.00 lakh crore in Gas Grid, LNG Terminal and City Gas Distribution (CGD) networks in next 5-8 years. As per the present policy, Government is meeting the entire requirement of CNG (Transport) and PNG (Domestic) segment of CGD networks by supplying domestic gas, which is cheaper than imported gas. Government has taken several policy measures/initiatives to enhance exploration & production of oil and gas in the country which include: Policy for Relaxations, Extensions and Clarifications under Production Sharing Contract (PSC) regime for early monetization of hydrocarbon discoveries, 2014 Discovered Small Field Policy, 2015 Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy, 2016 Policy for Extension of Production Sharing Contracts, 2016 and 2017        Policy for early monetization of Coal Bed Methane, 2017 Setting up of National Data Repository, 2017 of Unapprised areas in Sedimentary Basins Re-assessment of Hydrocarbon Resources Policy framework to streamline the working of Production Sharing Contracts in Pre-NELP and NELP Blocks, 2018 Policy to Promote and Incentivize Enhanced Recovery Methods for Oil and Gas Policy framework for exploration and exploitation of Unconventional Hydrocarbons under existing Production Sharing Contracts, Coal Bed Methane contracts and Nomination fields, 2018 In addition, Government in February, 2019 approved major reforms in exploration and licensing policy to enhance exploration activities, attract domestic and foreign investment in unexplored/unallocated areas of sedimentary basins and accelerate domestic production of oil and gas from existing fields. The policy reforms inter alia aim to boost exploration activities with greater weightage to work programme, simplified fiscal and contractual terms, bidding of exploration blocks under Category II and III sedimentary basins without any production or revenue sharing to Government.  Further, reforms envisage simplified fiscal incentives and incentivizing gas production including marketing and pricing freedom. The policy also provides more functional freedom to National Oil Companies for collaboration and private sector participation for production enhancement methods in nomination fields. Streamlining approval processes and promoting ease of doing business including electronic single window mechanism is also an important aspect of policy reforms. Parliament Passes the Mineral Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2020 (Topic: Schemes in the Energy sector) Parliament passed The Mineral Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2020 for amendments in Mines & Mineral (Development and Regulation) Act 1957 and The Coal Mines (Special Provisions) Act, 2015. The Mineral Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2020, will open a new era in Indian coal & mining sector specially to promote Ease of Doing Business. The Bill will transform the mining sector in the country boosting coal production and reducing dependence on imports. Companies which do not possess any prior coal mining experience in India and/or have mining experience in other minerals or in other countries can participate in auction of coal/lignite blocks. This will not only increase participation in coal/lignite block auctions, but also facilitate the implementation of FDI policy in the coal sector. The Bill also allows prospecting licence-cum-mining lease (PL-cum-ML) for coal/lignite which increases the availability of coal & lignite blocks, and coal blocks of varying grades in a wide geographical distribution will be available for allocation. The successful bidders/allottees have now been entitled to utilize mined coal in any of its plants or plants of its subsidiary or holding company. Amendments also provide for allocation of the coal mine to the next successful bidder or allottee, subsequent to termination of its allocation along with the matters incidental to it. A provision has also been made for appointment of designated custodian for management of the mines, apart from Schedule II mines, which have come under production and whose vesting/ allotment order has been cancelled. With the amendments, environment and forest clearances along with other approvals and clearances shall automatically get transferred to the new owners of mineral blocks for a period of two years from the date of grant of new lease. This will allow new owners to continue with hassle free mining operations. During the period, they may apply for the fresh licence beyond the period of two years. The auction of lease of mines can now be started before expiry of lease period. It will enable the state government to take advance action for auction of mineral blocks so that the new lease holder could be decided before the existing lease gets expired. This will help in seamless production of minerals in the country. The new provisions will also augment the exploration of the deep seated minerals and minerals of national interest by allowing Non Exclusive Reconnaissance Permit (NERP) holders to apply for composite licence or Mining Lease (PL-cum-ML).Various repetitive and redundant provisions of MMDR Act and CMSP Act have also been omitted for Ease of Doing Business. The Bill replaces the ordinance for amendment of the MMDR Act 1957 and CMSP Act which was promulgated on 10th January 2020. Cost-effective technology can convert solar energy to industrial process heat (Topic: New technology – energy) Scientists from the International Advanced Research Centre for Powder Metallurgy and New Materials (ARCI), Hyderabad, an autonomous institution under the Department of Science and Technology (DST), have developed a cost-effective solar receiver tube technology for industrial process heat applications. The receiver tube technology developed by the ARCI team efficiently absorbs solar radiation and converts it into heat for the targeted applications, especially in industries. It exhibits high corrosion resistance suitable for Indian weather conditions. Scientists from ARCI have developed a cost-effective wet chemical process to prepare absorber coating on stainless steel tubes suitable for industrial process heat applications.  The receiver tube achieved around 93 % absorptance (effectiveness in absorbing radiant energy, It is the ratio of the absorbed to the incident radiant power) and around 14 % emittance (amount of light, emitted by an area of the surface of a radiating body) along with good thermal stability and high corrosion resistance. The absorber coating has been successfully validated for heat gain and heat loss studies in a testing facility established at ARCI. Two patent applications have been filed for this technology, and an MoU has been signed with M/s. Greenera Energy India Private Limited for technology transfer, which plans to mass-produce the solar receiver tube for wider market absorption. ARI Scientists Study methane-oxidizing bacteria for methane mitigation and value addition (Topic: New technology – Agriculture and environment) Scientists at Agharkar Research Institute (ARI), Pune, an autonomous institute under the Department of Science & Technology, have isolated 45 different strains of methanotrophic bacteria which have been found to be capable of reducing methane emissions from rice plants. Methanotrophs metabolise and convert methane into carbon-di-oxide. They can effectively reduce the emission of methane, which is the second most important greenhouse gas (GHG) and 26 times more potent as compared to carbon-di-oxide.   In rice fields, methanotrophs are active near the roots or soil-water interfaces. Rice fields are human-made wetlands and are waterlogged for a considerable period. Anaerobic degradation of organic matter results in the generation of methane. Rice fields contribute to nearly 10% of global methane emissions. Preliminary experiments indicated that when methanotrophs were inoculated rice plants showed lower methane emissions, higher methane oxidation potential and better/ neutral effect on plant growth. Besides methane mitigation studies, methanotrophs can also be used in methane value addition (valorization) studies. Bio-methane generated from waste can be used by the methanotrophs and can be converted to value-added products such as single-cell proteins, carotenoids, biodiesel, and so on. The team is further working on methane valorization studies from the isolated methanotrophs. Such studies help reduce GHG emissions, especially anthropogenic or man-made emissions, which a pressing need in the age of global warming. Scientists explore gut microbial diversity in healthy pregnant women and infants (Topic: Technology – Human health) The influence of the gut microbial community (gut microbiota) on various aspects of human health, has been gaining increasing attention of researchers in recent times. This community, which comprises various types of microbes including several useful ones, is shaped by different factors from the time an individual is born.  Alterations in this community have been found to be associated with physiological, metabolic, and immunological changes, and to correlate with conditions of health and disease. It is now recognized that understanding the changes that this community undergoes during the crucial stages of life could play a big role in determining and predicting the health status of an individual.  Pregnancy is a unique biological stage, with the body undergoing multiple changes simultaneously, including weight gain, as well as metabolic, hormonal, and immunological changes. Recent studies suggest that alterations in the gut microbiome may be associated with unhealthy pregnancy, complications in pregnancy, or poor birth outcomes. Hence, deeper insights into the microbial alterations occurring during pregnancy would be valuable. Exploratory investigations carried out by Dr. Yogesh Shouche and his group at the National Centre for Cell Science (NCCS) in Pune, have provided glimpses into the changes occurring in the gut microbiota during the two vital stages in human life – pregnancy and infancy They studied the gut microbial communities from twenty healthy Indian mother-infant dyads at different stages of pregnancy and early infancy, using tools of molecular biology, called high throughput 16S rRNA gene sequencing. They did not observe major changes in the overall gut bacterial diversity and composition during pregnancy.  However, the alterations observed in infants between the period from birth to six months of age were quite significant. In general, a reduction was observed in the bacteria belonging to the genera, Staphylococcus and Enterococcus, along with an increase in bacteria belonging to the genera, Bifidobacterium.  The microbial community appeared to be more stable at the age of six months, with a gut microbiota composition somewhat similar to the mothers’, indicating a shift towards a mature and stable adult-like gut environment. The group also assessed the influence of maternal factors like socioeconomic status and type of diet, on the maternal gut microbial composition, and the impact of the mode of birth and type of feeding on infant gut microbial diversity. Their findings suggest that mothers who consumed a mixed diet (vegetarian and non-vegetarian) had a higher and significantly different gut microbial diversity, than those following a strict vegetarian diet. These findings could serve as a basis to design a comprehensive study to further investigate if and how maternal diet could influence pregnancy and shape the maternal as well as infant gut bacterial diversity in the Indian population. The other maternal and infant-associated factors studied by them did not appear to influence the gut bacterial diversity of mothers during pregnancy or infants during early infancy. Unlike other similar studies done with the Indian population, which were mainly intervention-based or disease-associated investigations, Dr. Shouche’s group studied the gut microbial profiles in healthy mother-infant dyads, which therefore reveal the types of organisms associated with normal health conditions in pregnancy and infancy. Though preliminary, the findings of these studies have provided a basis for designing further investigations on larger cohorts to gain deeper insights into the associations of gut bacterial diversity with other host-associated factors.  Scientists pave way for potential new therapy for tongue cancer (Topic: Technology – Human health) A new therapy for tongue cancer could be in the offing, with a team of scientists at the Department of Biotechnology’s Hyderabad-based Centre for DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics coming out with a new insight into the mechanism by which an anti-cancer protein helps in the development of cancer when it mutates. Human cells carry a protein called p53. It is very helpful as it controls several fundamental processes including cell division and repair of damaged DNA. It functions by binding directly to DNA leading to the production of proteins needed for regular cellular functions as well as effectively blocking cancer development. However, its ability to prevent cancer is significantly compromised, if it mutates. More importantly, recent studies have reported that some specific and common mutated p53 forms even activate cancer growth. In a new study, scientists at CDFD have identified rare p53 mutant forms unique to Indian tongue cancer and the likely means by which these mutant p53 cause cancer.  For this, they collected tongue cancer samples from post-surgery patients and screened them for modifications in a gene called TP53.  The gene is a sequence of nucleotides (building blocks) in the DNA that code for the production of the p53 protein. Further, by using state of the art technologies, they identified target genes of the mutant p53 protein.  Of these, a gene called SMARCD1 was the most prominent. SMARCD1 encodes a protein that along with several other proteins constitutes a multi-protein complex involved in changing the structure of DNA enabling the production of proteins from genes.  Surprisingly, the scientists found that SMARCD1 was an exclusive target of mutations observed in Indian tongue cancer patients. Further studies showed the ability of SMARCD1 to increase cancerous features in tongue cancer cells. The results of the study can be employed to develop therapies to treat tongue cancer, a common debilitating cancer in India. Relationship between obesity and colon cancer explored at the molecular level (Topic: Technology and findings – Human health) Obesity per se does not cause cancer. But, the behaviour and prognosis of cancer can vary depending on whether or not the cancer patient is co-morbidly obese. Many different factors can cause obesity. One of the major reasons is genetic in nature.  A mutations or small changes in the DNA can make one obese by making an important signalling pathway called the leptin signalling pathway non-functional. Leptin signalling pathway is involved in regulating food intake, energy consumption and body fat content, by mediating communication of the gut and fat cells with the brain. To determine whether obesity resulting from leptin deficiency could have any influence on cancer, Dr. Manoj Kumar Bhat and his research team at the National Centre for Cell Science (NCCS) in Pune studied the differences in the incidence and progression of colon cancer when it occurs in association with genetically-linked obesity, vis-a-vis when it occurs in association with diet-induced obesity. Their studies in laboratory-bred mice revealed significant differences between these two groups. Further, these differences were found to be strongly correlated with the balance between two important molecules, leptin and TNF alpha, which influence the growth of cancer cells. These studies were carried out with approval from the Institutional Animal Ethics Committee, following humane and ethical procedures as per the applicable rules. They have provided valuable insights into the molecular connections underlying the relationship of diet-induced and genetics-associated obesity with colon cancer. These findings warrant further exploration through more in-depth clinical studies, to determine if they have any implications in and relevance to the management of cancers. New approach to speed up red blood cells generation in the lab (Topic: Technology and findings – Human health) Transfusion of red blood cells (RBCs) is a life-saving treatment for numerous conditions such as severe anaemia, injury-related trauma, supportive care in cardiovascular surgery, transplant surgery, pregnancy-related complications, solid malignancies and blood-related cancers.  However, blood banks particularly in developing countries often face a severe shortage of whole blood as well as components of blood like red blood cells. Researchers across the world are exploring possibilities to generate RBCs outside the body (in vitro) from haematopoietic stem cells (HSCs).  These HSCs have the capability to give rise to the different types of cells found in the blood. Various groups have been able to produce RBCs in the laboratory from HSCs. However, the process takes a long time - around twenty-one days.  The resources required to grow cells in the laboratory over such a long duration can be very expensive for generation of RBCs on a large scale for clinical purposes. National Biopharma Mission (Topic: Technology – Human health) The National Biopharma Mission (NBM) is an industry-Academia Collaborative Mission for accelerating biopharmaceutical development in the country.  Under this Mission the Government has launched Innovate in India (i3) programme to create an enabling ecosystem to promote entrepreneurship and indigenous manufacturing in the sector. The mission will be implemented by Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC). The mission was approved in 2017 at a total cost of Rs 1500 crore and is 50% co-funded by World Bank loan Development of product leads for Vaccines, Biosimilars and Medical Devices that are relevant to the public health need by focussing on managed partnerships Upgradation of shared infrastructure facilities and establishing them as centres of product discovery/discovery validations and manufacturing Develop human capital by providing specific trainings to address the critical skills gap among the nascent biotech companies across the product development value chain in areas such as Product development, intellectual property registration, technology transfer and regulatory standards. Technology Transfer Offices: To help enhance industry academia inter-linkages and provide increased opportunities for academia, innovators and entrepreneurs to translate knowledge into products and technologies, 5 Technology Transfer Offices are being considered for funding under NBM. Defence Corridors (Topic: Defence related news) Two Defence Industrial Corridors in the Country, one in Uttar Pradesh and another in Tamil Nadu will be set up. Setting up of Defence Industrial Corridors would catalyse indigenous production of defence and aerospace related items, thereby reducing our reliance on imports and promoting export of these items to other countries.  This will lead to achieve India’s goal of self-reliance in defence, generation of direct/indirect employment opportunities and growth of private domestic manufacturers, Micro Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) and Star-ups. Export of Tejas Fighter Jet (Topic: Defence) HAL is currently producing Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) – Tejas, to meet Indian Air Force requirements.  In order to export LCA to other friendly countries, the following activities have been carried out:- The platform has been showcased by way of flying displays at various foreign exhibitions and also briefing about the platform has been given to various foreign delegations who have visited HAL facilities. The company has responded to Request for Information (RFI) from overseas.  Formal Request for Quotation (RFQ) has not been received in order to process the proposal. Modernisation of Armed Forces (Topic: Defence) Government is taking measures for modernisation of the Armed Forces, through procurement of new equipment and upgrading of existing equipment so as to ensure that the Armed Forces are equipped to meet the entire spectrum of security challenges.  The modernisation projects are progressed as per the approved Capital Acquisition Plans and in terms of the extant Defence Procurement Procedure (DPP). Capital procurement of defence equipment is undertaken from various domestic as well as foreign vendors, based on threat perception, operational challenges and technological changes and to keep the Armed Forces in a state of readiness. During the last three years and in the current year, 197 contracts have been signed for capital procurement/upgradation of defence equipment for Armed Forces such as Missiles, Aircraft, Artillery guns, Assault Rifles, Radars, Rockets, Helicopters, Weapons, Simulators, Ballistic Helmets, Bullet Proof Jackets and Electronic Fuzes and Ammunition. Prelims oriented News Nari Shakti Puraskar: The Nari Shakti Puraskar, instituted by the Ministry of Women and Child Development, are "National Award in recognition of exceptional work for women empowerment" conferred every year on March 8 as a mark of respect and recognition for those who have demonstrated exemplary courage and stellar contribution towards empowerment of women. Click here to read in detail The WOS-A scheme provides platform to women scientists and technologists for pursuing research in basic or applied sciences and offer them opportunity to work as bench-level scientists. This scheme plays pivotal role in gender mainstreaming and also training and retaining women in the system as well as prevents brain drain from S&T system. The support is available in five disciplines under WOS-A are namely, Physical & Mathematical Sciences (PMS), Chemical Sciences (CS), Life Sciences (LS), Earth & Atmospheric Sciences (EAS) and Engineering Technology (ET) Sagarmala Programme The Sagarmala programme is the flagship programme of the Ministry of Shipping to promote port-led development in the country through harnessing India’s 7,500 km long coastline, 14,500 km of potentially navigable waterways and strategic location on key international maritime trade routes. The main vision of the Sagarmala Programme is to reduce logistics cost for EXIM and domestic trade with minimal infrastructure investment. Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maan DhanYojana (PM-KMY) To provide social security to Small and Marginal Farmers in their old age when they have no means of livelihood and minimal or no savings to take care of their expenses Under this scheme, a minimum fixed pension of Rs.3,000/- is provided to the small and marginal farmers, subject to certain exclusion criteria, on attaining the age of 60 years. Small and Marginal Farmers between the age of 18 to 40 years are eligible to join this scheme. For enrollment, the eligible farmer is required to approach the nearest Common Service Center (CSC) or the Nodal Officer (PM-Kisan) nominated by the State / UT Governments.  It is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme. The eligible farmer is required to contribute to a Pension Fund between Rs.55 to Rs.200 per month depending on the entry age. The Central Government also contributes in equal amount to the Pension Fund. Formation and Promotion of Farmer Produce Organizations (FPOs) Aim: To form and promote 10,000 new FPOs Under the scheme, a total number of 2000 FPOs have been proposed to be formed in 2020-21.  No state-wise target has been decided as the FPOs will be formed based on justified produce clusters.  Under the scheme, it will be ensured that adequate support is extended to States of North East and hilly areas to offset deficiency in specialized manpower and expertise available in such areas.  The minimum members per FPO in case of plain areas will be 300; while in North-Eastern and Hilly Region, it will be 100. Blue Revolution: Integrated Development and Management of Fisheries The Department of Fisheries, Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying is implementing a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) on Blue Revolution: Integrated Development and Management of Fisheries, for overall development of the fisheries sector in the country including support for development of fish farms in both fresh and salt water in the country.  The CSS inter-alia provides financial assistance for development of fisheries and aquaculture sector including  Construction of ponds Fish seed rearing ponds Productive utilization of inland saline/alkaline areas for aquaculture Renovation of ponds Development of waterlogged areas During past five years between 2015 and 2019, a total area of 42632.40 Hectare has been brought under aquaculture in both fresh and saline water areas. Steps to boost domestic investments in India In order to protect, support and promote small enterprises as also to help them become self-supporting, a number of protective and promotional measures have been undertaken by the Government. The various types of help extended by different support agencies of the Government are  Credit Support Marketing Support  Entrepreneurship Development Technology Upgradation Industrial Infrastructure Technical Training Institutional Structure Assistance Programmes Special incentives for setting up of Enterprises in backward areas etc. While most of the institutional support services and incentives are provided by the Central Government, others are offered by the State Governments in varying degrees to attract investments and promote small industries with a view to enhance industrial-production and to generate employment in  their respective States. Children of Prisoners As per Section 2 (14) (vi) of the JJ Act, a child who does not have parents and no one is willing to take care of, or whose parents have abandoned or surrendered him is included as a “child in need of care and protection.” The Act provides a security net of service delivery structures including measures for institutional and non-institutional care to ensure comprehensive well-being of children in distress situations. The primary responsibility of execution of the Act lies with the States/UTs. The Ministry of Women and Child Development is implementing a centrally sponsored Child Protection Services (CPS) Scheme (erstwhile Integrated Child Protection Scheme) for supporting the children in difficult circumstances.  The primary responsibility of implementation of the scheme lies with the State Governments/UT Administrations.  Under the scheme institutional care is provided through Child Care Institutes (CCIs), as a rehabilitative measure.  The programmes and activities in Homes inter-alia include age-appropriate education, access to vocational training, recreation, health care, counselling etc.  Under the non-institutional care component, support is extended for adoption, foster care and sponsorship.  Further CPS also provides for “After care” services after the age of 18 years to help sustain them during the transition from institutional to independent life. National Creche Scheme National Creche Scheme (earlier named as Rajiv Gandhi National Creche Scheme) is being implemented as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme through States/UTs to provide day care facilities to children (age group of 6 months to 6 years) of working mothers. The salient features of the National Creche Scheme are as follows: Day-care Facilities including Sleeping Facilities Early Stimulation for children below 3 years and pre-school Education for 3 to 6 years old children Supplementary Nutrition ( to be locally sourced) Growth Monitoring Health Check-up and Immunization Further, the guidelines provide that: Crèches shall be open for 26 days in a month and for seven and half (7-1/2) hours per day The number of children in the crèche should not be more than 25 per crèche with 01 Worker and 01 helper respectively User charges to bring in an element of community ownership and collected as under:  BPL families - Rs 20/- per child per month Families with Income (Both Parents) of upto Rs. 12,000/- per month – Rs. 100/- per child per month  Families with Income (Both Parents) of above Rs. 12,000/- per month – Rs. 200/- per child per month 6453 creches are functional across the country under the National Creche Scheme. Grants have been released to the State Governments/UT Administration for crèches found functional and taken over by them. As on date, the Government of Kerala has taken over 479 creches under the erstwhile RGNCS and running under National Creche Scheme. Regular and strict monitoring is conducted at different levels to ensure effective running of the scheme and also to ensure that the beneficiaries are delivered services as envisaged in the scheme. Monitoring of implementation of the scheme is being undertaken through meetings and video conferences with the officials of State Governments/ UT. Ministry officials undertake field visits to ascertain the status of implementation of the scheme. NITI Aayog conducts the third party evaluation.