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MUST READ: PRELIMS in Testing Times - Don’t Forget the ‘WHY’; IASbaba’s dedicated HOTLINE for Aspirants and Prelims Postponing Rumours

MUST READ: PRELIMS in Testing Times - Don’t Forget the ‘WHY’; IASbaba’s dedicated HOTLINE for Aspirants and Prelims Postponing Rumours   Dear Students, There is an overall sense of anxiety around us. We all the know the reason- the deadly coronavirus. It is important that we take due measures in fighting a global threat that has hardly left any continent of the world unaffected. Though the COVD19 pandemic is global, the impact is local. Each one of us can get affected if we don’t take the necessary precautions. Needless to say, you must follow all the government instructions and practice social distancing. But is social distancing new to UPSC aspirants? You know the answer :) The majority of aspirants go in a self imposed lockdown for many months, limiting their social interaction, staying at home and focusing on their studies. Just take the current situation as an extension of the same social distancing, albeit an extreme one. So, now you are left with only one option- prepare for the Civil Services Examination (CSE). But that you have been doing already. What has changed then? Let us tell you- you have a golden opportunity to introspect and probe your thoughts. Most of us, while introspecting, ask questions in ‘what’ and ‘how’. What am I going to study in the next few weeks? What are my strengths and weaknesses? What are those subjects/ topics that need more preparation? How am I going to prepare those? How am I performing in the tests I am appearing for? How is UPSC going to judge my answers? Well, the list of questions can get really long. But do these questions help you in any way? Do these questions make you introspect better? Do getting to know the answers to these questions make you prepare more effectively? They hardly do. Let us try and understand this. We are all driven by certain desires or aspirations. This driving force has the ability to get us going despite the odds. This driving force helps us begin the journey and gain the initial momentum to further the journey. However, once we are midway in our respective journeys, we tend to get disconnected from the driving force. The disconnect from the driving force occurs simply because you never ask the simple question- ‘why’. In the middle of the journey, you know what you are doing and how you are doing. A simple analogy would be a bike ride to a hill station. You know you are riding a motorbike and that the motorbike is running at a certain speed. Similarly, presently you know that you are reading your textbooks/ notes and that you are finding some subjects/ topics more difficult than the others. Knowing these things is important but never sufficient. Let us come back to our analogy. What will happen if it starts raining heavily while you ride your bike towards the destination? Perhaps, you will stop at a shelter and come back home after the rain ceases. You might fear that the weather may get worse; and it is wiser to come back to the safety and comfort of your home. But, let us pause for a moment ask a simple question- why did you begin your journey at the first place? Maybe it was because you wanted to reach the highest motorable road of the world. Now that is a higher purpose that drove you to take a bike ride. If you remember this higher purpose or rather the ‘why’ of your journey, you will surely move ahead. It will change your emotions dramatically. Instead of worrying about the weather, you will now focus on the remainder of your journey. In all probability, you will reach your destination despite the weather. This is the ‘why’ we are asking you to get reminded of. Why did you start your preparation? What was the motive? Do you remember it? If yes, there is nothing that can stop you. You will always march ahead. Whenever you are faced with difficulties and you feel less determined, ask the ‘why’ question and you will reenergise yourself by the same driving force that made you begin your journey at the first place. That is the beauty of asking ‘why’. Now let us come to a specific point. Why did you decide to practice the ’60 Day’ questions? Perhaps to increase dramatically the probability of you getting through the Prelims stage. Do you still remember that? If yes, you need not worry. We know you are following the initiative religiously. You are posting your answers, engaging with peers and taking full advantage of a high value initiative. But if you don’t remember the very reason that led you start with the ’60 Day’ initiative, then you are in bit of a trouble. You are not taking it seriously, hardly posting your responses in fear of getting shamed by comparing your scores with others and thereby losing complete focus. Let us remind you that ’60 Day’ is not the battleground. It is the 'training ground' for knowing your weak spots and then working to address those. If you are not posting your responses, you will always be shy to face the world. By posting your responses you will be motivated to improve your scores. Even an incremental increase on a day to day basis will lead to sure shot success in Prelims. Moreover, it becomes much easier for us to calculate the cut off as we deal with a bigger sample space. Since most of the low scorers hesitate to put their responses, the cut off goes up naturally. ’60 Day’ is a peer-driven initiative and by participating actively, you are placed to get better with each passing day.   Here is the Feedback on '60 Day Plan' from the UPSC Topper -Muthu Somasundaram, Rank 23 IFOS, 2019. IFOS Prelims cut-off being higher than the Civil Services Exam (CSE) cut-off, this means a lot to us.  Since 2017 I have been an ardent follower of the 60 day plan before Prelims. The quality of the questions is very good and it's a good program to hone your question solving skills as well as brush up the basics. I want to sincerely thank IASbaba for continuing it as a free initiative and maintaining the quality of the program. There were times when after one attempt's interview the time for next prelims would be short and I used to solve 4-5 day questions together and make short notes or titbits of the key. You can never take prelims lightly even if you had cleared it earlier, and the 60 day plan was an important part of clearing prelims since 2017 for me, as I used to have sense of satisfaction and confidence if I had completed all the 60 days questions. Many like me are using this program in their own ways.  I have secured Rank 23 in Indian Forest Service exam this year and would like to thank IASbaba for their Free 60 day Prelims Initiative. Keep doing it with the same passion, like you do every year   Thank you IASbaba! Regards, Muthu S   Now a really IMPORTANT ANNOUNCEMENT - IASbaba’s Dedicated HOTLINE for Aspirants !! We would like to apologise that we have not been able to meet you in person for past one week at our office. Due to Government orders, we had to close our offices at Delhi and Bangalore. In order to compensate for that and to make sure that your preparation goes on smoothly, we are starting a new communication channel. Yes, you read it correctly; you will be able to speak with the Founders and Core Team of IASbaba on telephone regarding 'any queries' related to Prelims preparation in general or subject specific doubts. In addition, to the thread opened on daily basis for our 60 Day plan, a communication line will be open for two hours daily (excluding Sunday) from 5 pm to 7 pm. We will try to make sure that with so much going around these days, you have at least one less thing to worry about. Also, use the thread opened on daily basis for our 60 Day plan - the 'Disqus Comment' section effectively and clarify your subject specific and general preparation related doubts/queries on daily basis. Make the best use of the channel (thread and calls) provided. We will make sure that, all your queries will be answered to. Please Note that, Contact details and modus of operandi of the communication channel with the Mentors will be announced soon. Stay tuned !!   On Prelims Postponing Rumours! Finally, we have been getting many emails asking whether Prelims 2020 is going to get postponed. We understand that the problem has been created by the rumour mongers. Out of nowhere, people are now speaking of cancellation of prelims examination. These type of rumours spread like wildfire, especially in places where there are established markets for UPSC coaching centres. First of all, no one knows whether the exam will be cancelled or not. UPSC hasn’t announced anything as such. If at all it happens, we will definitely let you know first. So please don't panic, instead use the time effectively in your prelims preparation. Moreover, as an aspirant should you be even concerned about that? You have control only over your preparation. Hence there is no need to pay any heed to such distractions. As mentioned above ask the ‘why’ question and you will reenergise yourself by the same driving force that made you begin your journey at the first place. For those who have got your Interview re-scheduled (for candidates appearing between 23rd March to 3rd April, 2020) please don't waste your time. Spend atleast 3-4 hours on your Prelims preparation on daily basis. Do follow our 60 day plan, use our communication channels effectively and revise your basics. Reading newspaper will help in both your prelims and interview preparation, so don't neglect it. The other half of the day can be spent on your interview preparation. For now, remember the keyword SHIP- stay Safe, stay Healthy, stay Informed and continue with your Preparation! We at IASbaba are always there to guide you to the best of our abilities.   MUST READ: Coronavirus: Awareness, Myths, Solidarity and Message to All UPSC Aspirants by Mohan Sir Founder IASbaba HOME MINISTRY GUIDELINES: 21 Days Lockdown (12 Am 25th March to 14th April, 2020) and list of Essential Services and Commodities available!   All the Best IASbaba Team

Motivational Articles

Creative Guidance – Embracing the change – Inspirational Educative Articles

Embracing the Change: Observe what is happening around you. Don’t bring in your accumulated knowledge, ideas and concepts. Just observe, as if you are looking at things for the first time. When you look at the tree, the sky, the sun, or the earth, don’t separate them. Just look and you will see the dreamlike quality of life. Reality is like a painting on water. The only thing real about the reality around you is its constantly changing nature. That itself should tell you that you are not in a fixed reality. If you are living in a fixed, physical, absolute, objective reality, there should at least be a few moments when things are not changing. If you’ll notice closely, things are changing all the time. You can never capture the same moment of life twice. Try this: Pick up your camera, go outside, and try to capture the same thing two-seconds apart. If you can do it, then you have found reality. Take a photo, give yourself a two-second gap, and then take a second photo. You will see that these two photographs are different. The clouds would have changed, a few leaves would have moved, a new bird might be sitting on that tree, or something else would have changed. This means that no two photographs are ever the same; no two moments of life are ever the same. There is nothing fixed in your reality - Nothing at all. Everything is constantly churning. Everything is moving and changing, and you are just a part of this change. To know this process of life in its entirety, you have to move away from all the concepts and ideas you have accumulated. You have to experientially grasp reality just the way it is presenting itself to you. Conceptually, what is the sun? It is an object at the center of the solar system. It is keeping the planets in orbit, and it produces light and heat which sustains life. Conceptually, that is all there is to the sun. But when looked at personally, the sun is a totally different phenomenon. “This article is a part of the creative endeavor of Meditation Farm and IASBABA.”

Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 21st March 2020

IAS UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 21st March 2020 Archives (PRELIMS + MAINS FOCUS) Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP) Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Health & Governance In News: All pneumonia patients must be notified to the IDSP so that they can be tested for COVID-19 IDSP is an initiative by the Ministry of Health and Family Affairs started in 2004 with the assistance of World Bank.  Objective: To strengthen/maintain decentralized laboratory based IT enabled disease surveillance system for epidemic prone diseases to monitor disease trends  To detect and respond to outbreaks in early rising phase through trained Rapid Response Team (RRTs) Programme Components Integration and decentralization of surveillance activities through establishment of surveillance units at Centre, State and District level. Human Resource Development – Training of State and District Surveillance Officers, Rapid Response Team and other Medical & Paramedical staff on principles of disease surveillance. Use of ICT for collection, collation, compilation, analysis and dissemination of data. Strengthening of public health laboratories. Inter sectoral Co-ordination for zoonotic diseases Huntington disease Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Health Huntington disease (HD) is a progressive genetic disorder affecting the brain  It causes uncontrolled movements, impaired coordination of balance and movement, a decline in cognitive abilities, difficulty in concentrating and memory lapses, mood swings and personality changes How is the disease caused? A gene called HTT are involved in the production of a protein called huntingtin. When these genes mutate, they provide faulty instructions leading to production of abnormal huntingtin proteins and these form into clumps.  The clumps disrupt the normal functioning of the brain cells, which eventually leads to death of neurons in the brain, resulting in Huntington disease. Mahatma Gandhi Bunkar Bima Yojana (MGBBY)  Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Governance The scheme aims at providing social security benefits like life, accidental & disability insurance coverage to handloom weavers/workers. Age group: 51-59 years  Coverage: Across the country Implementing Body: Ministry of Textiles The claim benefits are provided by LIC directly into the bank account of beneficiaries through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT). Tech for Tribal Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II-Governance It is an initiative of TRIFED supported by Ministry of MSME The project aims at capacity building and imparting entrepreneurship skills to tribal forest produce gatherers enrolled under the Pradhan Mantri VanDhan Yojana(PMVDY).  The trainees will undergo a 30 days program over six weeks comprising 120 sessions. Partnering Institutions: IIT-Kanpur, IIT-Roorkee, IIM Indore, Kalinga Institute of Social Science, Bhubaneshwar and SRIJAN, Jaipur Prelims Value Addition About Pradhan Mantri VanDhan Yojana(PMVDY).  It is an initiative of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and TRIFED, launched in 2018, to improve tribal incomes through the value addition of tribal products. It is a Market Linked Tribal Entrepreneurship Development Program for forming clusters of tribal Self-Help-Groups (SHGs) and strengthening them into Tribal Producer Companies It aims to set-up tribal community owned Minor Forest Produce (MFP)-centric multi-purpose Van Dhan Vikas Kendras. The Kendras would act as common facility centres for procurement cum value addition to locally available MFPs.  One typical Van Dhan Vikas Kendra comprises of 15 Self Help Groups, each consisting of 20 Tribal gatherers.  These SHGs will get training on sustainable harvesting/collection, primary processing & value addition and also provided with working capital to conduct their business. Colour Coded Weather Warning Part of: GS Prelims and GS-I- Geography In News: The Met department issued a fresh yellow weather warning for heavy rain and snowfall accompanied by thunderstorm and lightning in Himachal Pradesh  Colour-coded warnings are issued by Indian Meteorological Department (IMD)  Parent Ministry: Ministry of Earth Sciences. Objective: To alert people ahead of severe or hazardous weather which has the potential to cause damage, widespread disruption or danger to life. IMD uses four colour codes to indicate various categories of alerts Green (All is well): No action is required and No advisory is issued. Yellow (Be Aware): It indicates severely bad weather panning across several days. It also suggests that the weather could change for the worse, causing disruption in day-to-day activities. Orange / Amber (Be prepared): It is issued as a warning of extremely bad weather with the potential of disruption in commute with road and rail closures, and interruption of power supply.  The sounding of the orange alert is a sign for people to prepare for evacuation, keep food packets ready and protect themselves and their family from bad weather. Red (Take Action): When the extremely bad weather conditions are certainly going to disrupt travel and power, and has significant risk to life, the red alert is issued. In this case, people must take all measures to protect their families and follow the instructions of local authorities and disaster-response teams Bodoland Territorial Council (BTC) Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Federalism In News: Assam State Election Commissioner has deferred the elections to the 40-seat BTC in view of the COVID-19 pandemic. About BTC BTC is an autonomous district council under the provisions of the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution It was formed as a result of the second Bodo accord, 2003  The area under the BTC jurisdiction is now officially called the Bodoland Territorial Region (BTR) comprising of 3,082 villages in four districts— Kokrajhar, Chirang, Udalguri and Baska. Prelims Value Addition The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India (Articles 244(2) and 275(1)) provides for decentralized self-governance and dispute resolution through local customary laws in parts of the North East which are mainly tribal areas. It contains provisions as to the Administration of Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram Governor is the constitutional head of areas under the Sixth Schedule. Institutes of Information Technology (IIIT) Laws Amendment Bill 2020 Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Education & Governance The Bill seeks to declare five IIITs set up under the PPP mode in Surat, Bhopal, Bhagalpur, Agartala, and Raichur as institutions of national importance. The bill proposes to bring the above five institutes under the IIIT (Public-Private Partnership) Act, 2017, similar to the other 15 IIITs established under the scheme through public-private partnership Currently, these institutes are registered as Societies under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 and do not have the power to grant degrees or diplomas. On being declared institutions of national importance, the five institutes will be granted the power to grant degrees and use the nomenclature B.Tech or M.Tech or Ph.D degrees.  Funding: The central government will contribute 50% towards the expenses of institutes functioning under the PPP mode. 35% will be borne by the states and 15% by the industries G7 Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- International Affairs In News: US is scrapping 2020’s G7 summit at Camp David near Washington due to the COVID-19 crisis and will instead hold the event by videoconference. The Group of Seven (G7) is a forum of the world's seven largest developed economies whose government leaders meet annually to discuss international economic and monetary issues. G7 countries are— Britain, Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan and the United States The G-7 has its roots in an informal meeting of the finance ministers of France, West Germany, the U.S, Great Britain, and Japan (the Group of Five) in the wake of the 1973 oil crisis.  In 2019, the 45th G7 summit was hosted by France As of 2018, the seven countries involved represent 58% of the global net wealth ($317 trillion) and more than 46% of the global GDP based on nominal values India VIX index Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III-Economy In News: The India VIX index, a barometer for volatility, fell a little over 7% Volatility is often described as the “rate and magnitude of changes in prices" and in finance often referred to as risk. Volatility Index is a measure, of the amount by which an underlying Index is expected to fluctuate, in the near term. India VIX is the short name for the India Volatility Index, an index disseminated by the NSE (National Stock Exchange) It measures the degree of volatility or fluctuation that active traders expect in the Nifty50 over the next 30 days Miscellaneous  World Happiness Report In News: For the third year in a row, Finland (score of 7.8) has placed at the top of the list, with Denmark coming in second, followed by Switzerland It is an annual survey (originally launched in 2012) by the Sustainable Development Solutions Network for the United Nations. It looks at the state of global happiness in 156 countries, ranking countries based on six factors: levels of GDP, life expectancy, generosity, social support, freedom and corruption income. India has been ranked 144th with a score of 3.573(Pakistan, on the other hand, has been ranked 66 with a score of 5.693 ) (MAINS FOCUS) Indian Governance Topic: General Studies 2: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation.  Capital Punishment Context: Four convicts in Nirbhaya gangrape and murder case were hanged to death at Tihar jail in Delhi. The last death sentence executed by the justice system in India was the 30 July 2015 hanging of terrorist Yakub Memon, who was convicted in the 1993 Mumbai blasts. In 2012, the government, post Nirbhaya incident, set up the Justice J.S. Verma Committee to look into rape laws. The report led to stringent changes through the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 [caption id="attachment_58089" align="aligncenter" width="528"] FINAL DNA- 21 MARCH 2020[/caption] Pic Source On the imposition of the death penalty, the government went against what the Verma report had suggested — that seeking such a punishment “would be a regressive step in the field of sentencing and reformation”. However, several recommendations were simply not considered, some of which are Those Charged with Sexual Crimes cannot contest Polls Make Marital Rape an offence Bring Sexual Crimes by armed Forces under Criminal Law Now, repeat offenders in rape cases can be awarded the death sentence.  However, there has not been significant improvement over safety & security of women As per NCRB data a total of 3.78 lakh cases of crimes against women were recorded across India in 2018 compared to 3.59 lakh in 2017 and 3.38 lakh in 2016.  The total number of rape cases in 2018 was pegged at 33,356, of which Madhya Pradesh registered 5,450 rapes, the maximum in 2018.  The crime rate per one lakh women population was 58.8 in 2018 compared to 57.9 in 2017. At the end of 2018, 33.6% cases were pending police investigation. It is in this light that, Criminologists and Socialists have for long been demanding abolition of the death penalty on the grounds that it is inhumane and out of the purview of Social Contract. Arguments in Favour of Death Penalty: Deterrent effect: By executing convicted criminals, we would be able to deter would-be-criminals from committing heinous crimes in future. Retribution: One of the key principles of retribution is that people should get what they deserve in proportion to the severity of their crime. Thus death penalty needs to awarded to those who commit severe crimes Closure for Victim’s family: Death penalty is said to provide emotional closure for victims of crimes Arguments against the Death Penalty No Strong evidence to show that death penalty is an effective deterrent to crime. Death has been prescribed as a punishment for murder since 1860 (the year IPC was drafted), still, murders continue unabated.  Death has been prescribed in rape cases since 2013 (376A), still, rapes continue to happen and in fact, the brutality of rapes has increased manifold. Execution of the Innocent: The most common argument against capital punishment is that sooner or later, innocent people may get killed, because of mistakes or flaws in the justice system. Moral grounds: Human rights activists argue that death penalty is sanitised form of vengeance and takes away the scope of reform/rehabilitate in criminals Natural Rights: State is an institution created by Man whose primary purpose is to protect life. It is not within the purview of State to take away life which is given by God/Nature. Supreme Court on Death Penalty Jagmohan Singh v. State of UP 1973 case: According to Article 21 deprivation of life is constitutionally permissible if that is done according to the procedure established by law. Rajendra Prasad v. State of UP 1979 case: If the murderous operation of a die-hard criminal jeopardizes social security in a persistent, planned and perilous fashion then his enjoyment of fundamental rights may be rightly annihilated.  Bachan Singh v. the State of Punjab 1980 case: Death penalty is not to be awarded except in the ‘rarest of rare cases’ when the alternative option is unquestionably foreclosed. Machhi Singh v. State of Punjab 1983 case: The Supreme Court laid down certain considerations for determining whether a case falls under the category of rarest of rare cases or not. Conclusion Deterrence is most effective when the punishment happens soon after the crime. The more the legal process distances the punishment from the crime - either in time, or certainty - the less effective a deterrent the punishment will probably be. It’s not the severity, but the certainty of punishment which can act as a deterrent. Connecting the dots: 35th Law Commission report on Death Penalty Capital Punishment in other countries Indian Polity Topic: General Studies 3: Indian Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilization, of resources, growth, development and employment.  COVID-19: Blunting the economic impact of a pandemic Context: Prime Minister Modi constituted the task force under Finance Minister to assess the economic impact of the pandemic and suggest palliative measures. The following are some suggestions for the task force  Cash transfers Casual Job workers like construction workers, cab drivers, restaurant waiters, mall workers, domestic help, itinerant retailers are either already without jobs & incomes or will soon find themselves in that position. Cash transfers of a fixed amount to these vulnerable sections would be useful. There are 33 crore accounts under the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana that can be leveraged for this purpose.  There is also an efficient Public Distribution System prevalent in most States through which the beneficiaries can be identified for a cash handout. Cost Estimation: A transfer of ₹1,000 to a total of 23.53 crore ration card holders will cost the Centre over ₹23,500 crore Hong Kong announced a cash handout of HK$10,000 to every permanent resident as a supportive measure.  The United States is also weighing the option of a cash handout totalling $250 billion to its citizens. Loan guarantee Service industries such as airlines, hotels and restaurants and tourism have begun to feel the impact of COVID-19 and in course of time it will extend to the manufacturing sector as well. There will be revenue and profit issues to deal with later but the immediate crisis is one of cash flows. Banks are also not going to offer any accommodation to these businesses given their own issues with NPAs.  This is where the government can offer loan guarantees to affected businesses. For a start, government can provide guarantees to working capital loans and link it with assurances from the borrowers concerned that they will secure the jobs in their companies. Britain has pledged £330 billion of government-backed loans and guarantees, France and Spain have announced €300 billion and €100 billion aid, respectively. Mortgage holiday An equated monthly instalment (EMI) holiday can be a huge blessing for individuals and businesses when faced with a job loss, salary cut or loss of revenue.  A three-month mortgage holiday should be coaxed out of lenders by the government for businesses in obvious trouble and to those employed by such businesses. RBI should show regulatory forbearance in the matter of asset recognition for banks when it comes to these industries.  There are other helpful actions that the government can take such as  Promptly discharging its bills Refunding taxes without delay Promptly carrying out direct benefit transfers already budgeted for If necessary, even permitting affected businesses to temporarily delay payment of statutory dues such as provident fund and ESI. How to finance? Cooperative Federalism: The resources of the Centre and the States have to be pooled to develop a national response to economic challenge posed by COVID-19 pandemic Kerala, for example, has already announced a ₹20,000 crore package and other States may follow suit Leverage Private Expertise: The government will have to engage with the private sector while devising assistance measures. Bonds: A well-structured, tax-efficient bond issue can be an option to tap into the large pool of domestic savings. The large Indian diaspora can also be tapped into. Conclusion The government needs to come up with financial action plan involving all stakeholders (States & private sector) so as to tide over the crisis caused by the pandemic Did You Know? Resurgent India Bonds of 1998 post-Pokhran - SBI raised about $4 billion from NRIs against all odds to help India tide over the immediate impact of sanctions (TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE) Model questions: (You can now post your answers in comment section) Note:  Correct answers of today’s questions will be provided in next day’s DNA section. Kindly refer to it and update your answers.  Comments Up-voted by IASbaba are also the “correct answers”. Q 1. Consider the following statements about Sixth Schedule It contains provisions as to the Administration of Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram Governor is the constitutional head of areas under the Sixth Schedule. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 2. Which of the following countries are a part of G7 grouping? USA China Italy India Select the correct answer from the codes given below 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 4 only 1,2,3 and 4 Q 3. Consider the following statements about TRIFED It is a statutory body established by TRIFED Act of 1987 The objective of TRIFED is to empower tribal people with necessary knowledge & tools which helps increase their income. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 4. Consider the following statements about Pradhan Mantri Van Dhan Yojaya It is an initiative of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and TRIFED It is a Market Linked Tribal Entrepreneurship Development Program for forming clusters of tribal Self-Help-Groups (SHGs) and strengthening them into Tribal Producer Companies Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 5. Consider the following statements about Colour Coded Weather Warning System It is released weekly by ISRO in collaboration with Ministry of Science & Technology Its Objective is to alert people ahead of severe or hazardous weather which has the potential to cause damage, widespread disruption or danger to life Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 ANSWERS FOR 20 March 2020 TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE (TYK) 1 C 2 C 3 C 4 B 5 C Must Read About COVID-19  and SAARC The Indian Express About COVID-19 and Future challenges to India: The Indian Express

IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan- IAS Prelims Test Series 2020 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [Day 18]

Hello Friends,  https://www.youtube.com/embed/x5ldu2jV8N0 ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS The 60 Days Training has finally begun:) DAY 18 is here! Before any competition, there is a preparatory phase. That phase involves a lot of sessions on strengths and weaknesses. Throughout the preparatory phase, the athletes train in a gradual manner. In the last phase, just before the actual competition, the training is done so as to sharpen their skills. This training requires complete focus and dedication. In this phase, the athletes do not try anything new or train in a new fashion rather focus on the sharpening of skills, focusing on strength and precision. Similarly, the upcoming 60 days, is like the last phase (training session), just before the actual competition. Here, the focus should be on sharpening the concepts, consolidating the knowledge base and solidifying the learning with loads and loads of revision. You will come across many distractions in between in the name of sources and resources (exclusive and inclusive), beware of them. Be alert and objective in selecting your companions in this preparation. Trust your effort and revise more than falling prey to multiple resources and doing nothing in the end. Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity.  Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (5 PM), cross-check the answers and again, comment the marks (you got) in the same comment thread. This will keep you responsible and sincere in days to come. Also, we need more sets of scores for releasing the cut offs in the night so, requesting all of you to sincerely put your scores in comment section.    You can also take part in discussion with peers.   Q.1) Which of the following is/are correct about Solid Wastes Treatment methodologies? Composting is a process where microorganisms decompose degradable waste into humus. Incineration is a process of combustion in absence of oxygen or the material burnt in controlled atmosphere of oxygen. Pyrolysis is a process where huge amount of wastes are burnt in blast furnaces at high temperature. Choose correct option from below: 1 and 2 only 1 only 2 and 3 only All of the above Q.1) ठोस अपशिष्ट उपचार के तरीकों के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? कंपोस्टिंग एक ऐसी प्रक्रिया है, जहां सूक्ष्मजीव अपघटित अपशिष्ट को ह्यूमस (humus) में विघटित कर देते हैं। भस्मीकरण (Incineration) पदार्थ के ऑक्सीजन की अनुपस्थिति में या ऑक्सीजन के नियंत्रित वातावरण में दहन की प्रक्रिया है। ताप-अपघटन (Pyrolysis) एक ऐसी प्रक्रिया है जिसमें उच्च तापमान पर वात्या भट्टी में भारी मात्रा में अपशिष्ट का दहन किया जाता है। नीचे से सही विकल्प चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 केवल 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.2) With reference to keystone species, consider the following statements: A keystone species exhibits disproportionately large effect on its environment relative to its abundance. The Keystone species is always a predator. Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) कीस्टोन प्रजातियों (मूल तत्व प्रजाति) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: एक कीस्टोन प्रजाति अपने बहुतायत के सापेक्ष अपने पर्यावरण पर काफी बड़े प्रभाव का प्रदर्शन करती है। कीस्टोन प्रजाति सदैव एक परभक्षी (predator) होती है। उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.3) Consider the following statements about keystone mutualists: Keystone mutualists are two or more species that engage in mutually beneficial interactions A change in one species would not impact the other, and change the entire ecosystem Pollinators are often keystone mutualists Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only All of the above Q.3) कीस्टोन सहभागियों (keystone mutualists) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: कीस्टोन सहभागी दो या दो से अधिक प्रजातियां हैं जो पारस्परिक रूप से लाभकारी अंतःक्रिया में संलग्न हैं एक प्रजाति में परिवर्तन दूसरे को प्रभावित नहीं करेगा, तथा पूरे पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र को बदल देगा परागणकारी अक्सर कीस्टोन सहभागी होते हैं उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 और 3  उपरोक्त सभी Q.4) What is meant by the term foundation species? It is a single species on which many other species depend It is a species that plays a major role in creating or maintaining a habitat It is the organism that is very sensitive to environmental changes in its ecosystem This are the species that acts as a symbol for an environmental habitat Q.4) आधारभूत प्रजाति (foundation species) शब्द का क्या अर्थ है? यह एक एकल प्रजाति है जिस पर कई अन्य प्रजातियां निर्भर होती हैं यह एक प्रजाति है जो एक निवास स्थान बनाने या बनाए रखने में एक प्रमुख भूमिका निभाती है यह जीव है जो अपने पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र में पर्यावरणीय परिवर्तनों के प्रति बहुत संवेदनशील है यह ऐसी प्रजातियां हैं जो पर्यावरणीय निवास के प्रतीक के रूप में कार्य करती हैं Q.5) Which of the following is/are known as criteria pollutants? Carbon dioxide Sulphur dioxide Ozone Nitrogen dioxide Choose correct option from below: 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1 and 3 only All of the above Q.5) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा / से मानदंड प्रदूषक के रूप में जाने जाते हैं? कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड सल्फर डाइऑक्साइड ओजोन नाइट्रोजन डाइऑक्साइड नीचे से सही विकल्प चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2, 3 और 4 केवल 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.6) Which of the following is/are part of MAB (Man and Biosphere) Project in India Pachmarhi Biosphere reserve Manas resrve Dibru-Saikhowa Nokrek Choose correct option from below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 and 4 only 1 and 4 ony Q.6) निम्नलिखित में से कौन भारत में MAB (मैन एंड बायोस्फियर) प्रोजेक्ट का हिस्सा है पचमढ़ी जैवमंडल रिजर्व मानस रिज़र्व डिब्रू-सैखोवा  नोकरेक नीचे से सही विकल्प चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 3 और 4 केवल 1 और 4 Q.7) Consider the following in regard to the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA): The National Tiger Conservation Authority is a non-statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change NTCA has mandate within the ambit of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 ‘Project Tiger’ is a Central sector Scheme of the under ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change Which of the above statement is/are incorrect? 1 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only All of the above Q.7) राष्ट्रीय बाघ संरक्षण प्राधिकरण (NTCA) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित पर विचार करें: राष्ट्रीय बाघ संरक्षण प्राधिकरण पर्यावरण, वन और जलवायु परिवर्तन मंत्रालय के तहत एक गैर-सांविधिक निकाय है एनटीसीए के पास प्राधिकार वन्यजीव (संरक्षण) अधिनियम, 1972 के अंतर्गत है ‘प्रोजेक्ट टाइगर’ पर्यावरण, वन और जलवायु परिवर्तन मंत्रालय के तहत एक केंद्रीय क्षेत्र की योजना है उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन गलत है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.8) Biodiversity includes all living beings at different levels. Consider the following statements about different levels of Biodiversity. Genetic diversity is all the different genes contained in all individual plants, animals, fungi, and microorganisms Species diversity is s all the different habitats, biological communities, and ecological processes, as well as variation within individual ecosystems Ecosystem diversity is all the differences within and between populations of species, as well as between different species. Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only None of the above. Q.8) जैव विविधता में विभिन्न स्तरों पर सभी जीवित प्राणी शामिल हैं। जैव विविधता के विभिन्न स्तरों के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। आनुवंशिक विविधता सभी व्यक्तिगत पादपों, पशुओं, कवक और सूक्ष्मजीवों में निहित सभी विभिन्न जीन हैं प्रजाति विविधता सभी विभिन्न आवासों, जैविक समुदायों और पारिस्थितिक प्रक्रियाओं के साथ-साथ व्यक्तिगत पारिस्थितिकी प्रणालियों के भीतर भिन्नता है पारिस्थितिक तंत्र विविधता प्रजातियों की आबादी के भीतर तथा साथ ही, विभिन्न प्रजातियों के बीच सभी अंतर हैं। उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 इनमें से कोई भी नहीं। Q.9) Just as there are many different ways to define biodiversity, there are many different measures of biodiversity. Consider the following pairs: Alpha-diversity: Concerned with species richness and involves counting the number of individuals or even families – in a given area. Beta- diversity: Estimates the total biodiversity within an entire region. Gamma- diversity: Describing changes in biodiversity within or between ecosystems Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only None of the above Q.9) जिस तरह जैव विविधता को परिभाषित करने के कई अलग-अलग तरीके हैं, वैसे ही जैव विविधता के कई अलग-अलग उपाय हैं। निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार करें: अल्फा-विविधता: प्रजातियों की समृद्धि से संबंधित तथा इसमें किसी दिए गए क्षेत्र में व्यक्तिगत रूप से या परिवारों की संख्या की गिनती शामिल है। बीटा-विविधता: एक संपूर्ण क्षेत्र के भीतर कुल जैव विविधता का अनुमान। गामा-विविधता: पारिस्थितिक तंत्र के भीतर या बीच जैव विविधता में परिवर्तन का वर्णन उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.10) The loss of biodiversity is a significant issue for scientists and policy-makers. What are the threats to Biodiversity? Habitat loss and destruction Alterations in ecosystem composition Introduction of exotic (non-native) species pollution and contamination Global climate change Choose correct option from below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 and 4 only All of the above Q.10) वैज्ञानिकों और नीति-निर्माताओं के लिए जैव विविधता का नुकसान एक महत्वपूर्ण मुद्दा है। जैव विविधता के लिए खतरे क्या हैं? पर्यावास हानि और विनाश पारिस्थितिक तंत्र रचना में परिवर्तन विदेशी (गैर-देशीय) प्रजातियों का परिचय प्रदूषण और संदूषण वैश्विक जलवायु परिवर्तन नीचे से सही विकल्प चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 3 और 4 उपरोक्त सभी Q.11) Conservation is the protection, preservation, management, or restoration of wildlife and natural resources. With respect to modes of conservation, consider the following pairs: In-situ Conservation: It is on site conservation or the conservation of genetic resources in natural populations of plant or animal species Ex-Situ Conservation: It is the preservation of components of biological diversity outside their natural habitats Which of the above pair is/are correctly matched? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.11) संरक्षण वन्यजीवों और प्राकृतिक संसाधनों का संधारण, रक्षण, प्रबंधन या पुनर्स्थापन है। संरक्षण के तरीकों के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार करें: स्वस्थाने (In-situ) संरक्षण: यह स्थल पर ही संरक्षण है अथवा पौधे या पशु प्रजातियों की प्राकृतिक आबादी में आनुवंशिक संसाधनों का संरक्षण है बह्रर्स्थाने (Ex-Situ) संरक्षण: यह उनके प्राकृतिक आवासों के बाहर जैविक विविधता के घटकों का संरक्षण है उपरोक्त में से कौन सी जोड़ी सही ढंग से सुमेलित है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.12) Which of the following are protected under Schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972? Tortoise  Snakes Elephants Tigers Choose correct option from below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1 and 4 only All of the above. Q.12) वन्यजीव संरक्षण अधिनियम, 1972 की अनुसूची I के तहत निम्नलिखित में से कौन से संरक्षित हैं? कछुआ सांप हाथी बाघ  नीचे से सही विकल्प चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 और 4 केवल 1 और 4 उपरोक्त सभी। Q.13) Consider the following statements about different schedules under wildlife protection act-1972 (WPA) Animals under schedule-1 and 2 have absolute protection Schedule-3 and 4 animals are equally protected, but penalties are lower Animals in schedule-5 are called as vermin, but cannot be hunted Schedule-6 include protected plants and their derivatives Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 and 4only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only None of the above Q.13) वन्यजीव संरक्षण अधिनियम 1972 (WPA) के तहत विभिन्न अनुसूचियों के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। अनुसूची -1 और 2 के तहत पशुओं को पूर्ण सुरक्षा प्राप्त है अनुसूची -3 और 4 पशुओं को समान रूप से संरक्षित किया जाता है, लेकिन दंड कम है अनुसूची -5 में पशुओं को वर्मिन कहा जाता है, लेकिन उनका शिकार नहीं किया जा सकता अनुसूची -6 में संरक्षित पादप और उनके व्युत्पन्न शामिल हैं उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 4 केवल 1, 2 और 3 केवल 1, 2 और 4 इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.14) Which of the following statements is/ are correct about Biosphere Reserve? The entire Biosphere Reserve prohibits the entry of humans Neither existing National Park nor Wildlife Sanctuary can be part of Biosphere Reserve. Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.14) जैवमंडल रिजर्व (Biosphere Reserve) के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है / हैं? संपूर्ण जैवमंडल रिजर्व मनुष्यों के प्रवेश पर प्रतिबंध लगाता है न तो मौजूदा राष्ट्रीय उद्यान और न ही वन्यजीव अभयारण्य जैवमंडल रिजर्व का हिस्सा हो सकता है। उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.15) Which of the following is/are correct regarding the radioactive wastes? Radioactive waste produces only two types of radiation i.e. alpha and beta rays Effects of radioactive pollutants depend upon half-life of the matter, energy releasing capacity and rate of diffusion. Alpha rays are the strongest rays and can be blocked only through thick concrete. Choose correct option from below: 1 only 2 only 1 and 4 only None of the above. Q.15) रेडियोधर्मी कचरे के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? रेडियोधर्मी कचरा केवल दो प्रकार के विकिरण यानी अल्फा और बीटा किरणों का उत्पादन करता है रेडियोधर्मी प्रदूषकों के प्रभाव पदार्थ की अर्ध आयु, ऊर्जा निर्मुक्त करने की क्षमता और प्रसार की दर पर निर्भर करते हैं। अल्फा किरणें सबसे मजबूत किरणें होती हैं और इन्हें मोटे कंक्रीट से ही रोका जा सकता है। नीचे से सही विकल्प चुनें: केवल 1 केवल 2  केवल 1 और 4 इनमें से कोई भी नहीं। Q.16) Man-animal conflicts are increasing and leading to loss of animals at rapid pace. The causes for increased conflict are? Land use change Increased access in natural reserves Habitat fragmentation Livestock grazing and agri activities near conservation reserves Choose correct option from below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1 and 4 only All of the above. Q.16) मानव-पशु संघर्ष तेजी से बढ़ रहा है तथा पशुओं की हानि तेज़ी से बढ़ रही है। इस बढ़ते संघर्ष के कारण हैं? भूमि उपयोग परिवर्तन प्राकृतिक संसाधनों में पहुंच का बढ़ना पर्यावास विखंडन संरक्षण रिज़र्व के पास पशुधन चराई और कृषि गतिविधियाँ नीचे से सही विकल्प चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 और 4 केवल 1 और 4 उपरोक्त सभी Q.17) Consider the following statements about the newly notified Solid Waste Management Rules: The responsibility of segregation lies on the waste collector. These rules only apply to municipal areas and exclude SEZs and defence establishments Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.17) नव अधिसूचित ठोस अपशिष्ट प्रबंधन नियम के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: अलगाव की जिम्मेदारी अपशिष्ट कलेक्टर पर है। ये नियम केवल नगर निगम क्षेत्रों पर लागू होते हैं तथा एसईजेड और रक्षा प्रतिष्ठानों को बाहर करते हैं उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.18) Consider the following statements about protected area network (PAN) in India. In Sanctuary is Certain rights of people living inside the Sanctuary could be permitted In national parks, No rights of people are allowed The rights of people living inside a Conservation Reserve are affected. Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only All of the above. Q.18) भारत में संरक्षित क्षेत्र नेटवर्क (PAN) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। अभयारण्य में अभयारण्य के अंदर रहने वाले लोगों के कुछ अधिकारों की अनुमति दी जा सकती है राष्ट्रीय उद्यानों में, लोगों के किसी भी अधिकार की अनुमति नहीं है एक संरक्षण रिजर्व के अंदर रहने वाले लोगों के अधिकार प्रभावित होते हैं। उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी। Q.19) The ministry of Environment, forest and climate change is nodal agency of the following: International centre for integrated mountain development. Global environment facility Economic and social council for Asia and Pacific Choose correct option from below: 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 only All of the above. Q.19) पर्यावरण, वन और जलवायु परिवर्तन मंत्रालय निम्नलिखित की नोडल एजेंसी है: एकीकृत पर्वतीय विकास के लिए अंतर्राष्ट्रीय केंद्र। वैश्विक पर्यावरण सुविधा एशिया और प्रशांत के लिए आर्थिक और सामाजिक परिषद नीचे से सही विकल्प चुनें: केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2  उपरोक्त सभी। Q.20) India recently conducted elephant census. In this context consider the following statements: Project elephant was launched in 1991-92 to protect elephants, Habitats and corridors. India agreed on points of action for trans-boundary conservation of elephants with Bangladesh. Elephant population increased by 5% from census-2012 to census-2017 Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only All of the above Q.20) भारत ने हाल ही में हाथी की जनगणना की। इस संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: हाथियों, आवासों और गलियारों की सुरक्षा के लिए 1991-92 में प्रोजेक्ट हाथी लॉन्च किया गया था। भारत बांग्लादेश के साथ हाथियों के सीमा-पारीय संरक्षण के लिए कार्रवाई के बिंदुओं पर सहमत हुआ है। जनगणना -2012 से लेकर जनगणना -2017 तक हाथी की आबादी 5% बढ़ी है उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.21) Which of the following statement is/are correct about National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd (NAFED)? NAFED is the national level marketing agency for agricultural products in the Cooperative Sector. NAFED was founded before the establishment of NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development). NAFED is registered as a society under The Societies Registration Act, 1860. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.21) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन भारत के राष्ट्रीय कृषि सहकारी विपणन संघ लिमिटेड (NAFED) के बारे में सही है / हैं? NAFED सहकारी क्षेत्र में कृषि उत्पादों के लिए राष्ट्रीय स्तर की विपणन एजेंसी है। NAFED की स्थापना नाबार्ड (राष्ट्रीय कृषि और ग्रामीण विकास बैंक) की स्थापना से पहले की गई थी। NAFED सोसाइटी पंजीकरण अधिनियम, 1860 के तहत एक सोसाइटी के रूप में पंजीकृत है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.22) With reference to ‘Forest-PLUS 2.0’, consider the following statements: It is a joint of programme of India and United States of America. It is a 2 year programme focused on forest landscape management. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.22) 'वन-प्लस 2.0' (Forest-PLUS 2.0) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: यह भारत और संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका का एक संयुक्त कार्यक्रम है। यह वन परिदृश्य प्रबंधन पर केंद्रित 2 वर्ष का कार्यक्रम है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.23) Global Carbon Project is a research project of which of the following? World Meteorological Organization (WMO)  Centre for International Climate and Environmental Research Future Earth United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) Secretariat Q.23) वैश्विक कार्बन प्रोजेक्ट (Global Carbon Project) निम्नलिखित में से किसकी एक शोध परियोजना है? विश्व मौसम विज्ञान संगठन (WMO) अंतर्राष्ट्रीय जलवायु और पर्यावरण अनुसंधान केंद्र फ्यूचर अर्थ जलवायु परिवर्तन पर संयुक्त राष्ट्र फ्रेमवर्क कन्वेंशन (UNFCCC) सचिवालय Q.24) With reference to Measles-Rubella, which of the following statement is NOT correct? Measles is a highly contagious (airborne) infectious disease caused by the measles virus. Rubella is also known as ‘German measles’ or ‘three-day measles’ is an infection caused by the rubella virus. Rubella has serious consequences if infection occurs in children below 5 years, causing Congenital Rubella Syndrome (CRS). Measles-Rubella (MR) vaccine is covered under Universal Immunisation Programme of Ministry of Health. Q.24) खसरा-रूबेला (Measles-Rubella) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही नहीं है? खसरा एक अत्यंत संक्रामक (वायुजनित) संक्रामक रोग है जो खसरे के वायरस के कारण होता है। रूबेला को ‘जर्मन खसरा’ या ‘तीन-दिवसीय खसरा’ के रूप में भी जाना जाता है, यह रूबेला वायरस के कारण होने वाला संक्रमण है। रूबेला के गंभीर परिणाम होते हैं यदि संक्रमण 5 वर्ष से कम उम्र के बच्चों में होता है, जिससे जन्मजात रूबेला सिंड्रोम (CRS) होता है। खसरा-रूबेला (MR) वैक्सीन स्वास्थ्य मंत्रालय के सार्वभौमिक टीकाकरण कार्यक्रम के अंतर्गत आती है। Q.25) The Stockholm Peace Agreement aims end the conflict in which of the following? Afghanistan Syria Palestine Yemen Q.25) स्टॉकहोम शांति समझौते का उद्देश्य निम्नलिखित में से किस संघर्ष को समाप्त करना है? अफ़ग़ानिस्तान सीरिया फिलिस्तीन यमन Q.26) The Munich Agreement was signed among which of the following countries? Germany Russia United States of America Great Britain Select the correct code: 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 4 3 and 4 Q.26) म्यूनिख समझौते पर निम्नलिखित में से किस देश द्वारा हस्ताक्षर किए गए हैं? जर्मनी रूस संयुक्त राज्य अमरीका ग्रेट ब्रिटेन सही कूट का चयन करें: 1 और 2 2 और 3 1 और 4 3 और 4 Q.27) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Interpol’. It is an intergovernmental organisation headquartered in Lyon, France. India joined the organisation in 2009. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.27) 'इंटरपोल' के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। यह एक अंतर सरकारी संगठन है जिसका मुख्यालय ल्योन, फ्रांस में है। भारत 2009 में संगठन में शामिल हुआ। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.28) Which of the following statements with respect to ‘Dadabhai Naoroji’ is/are correct? He helped found the London Indian Society and the East India Association. He first ran for the British Parliament in 1892. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.28) ‘दादाभाई नौरोजी’ के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है / हैं? उन्होंने लंदन इंडियन सोसाइटी और ईस्ट इंडिया एसोसिएशन को स्थापित करने में सहायता की। वह पहली बार 1892 में ब्रिटिश संसद के लिए लड़े थे। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.29) The ‘Travel & Tourism Competitiveness’ Report is released by World Economic Forum Economist Intelliegnce Unit The Lonely Planet Airbnb Q.29) ‘यात्रा और पर्यटन प्रतिस्पर्धात्मकता रिपोर्ट’ किसके द्वारा जारी की गई है विश्व आर्थिक मंच इकोनॉमिस्ट इंटेलीजेन्स यूनिट लोनली प्लैनेट Airbnb Q.30) Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?        Refineries State Numaligarh Refinery - Assam Barauni Refinery - Rajasthan Manali Refinery – Tamil Nadu Select the correct code: 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 3 All of the above Q.30) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी जोड़ी सही ढंग से सुमेलित है?              रिफाइनरी -          राज्य नुमालीगढ़ रिफाइनरी - असम बरौनी रिफाइनरी - राजस्थान मनाली रिफाइनरी - तमिलनाडु सही कूट का चयन करें: 1 और 2 2 और 3 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी DOWNLOAD THE SOLUTION ENGLISH HINDI NOTE- Follow this for Comments Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test After the release of Solution Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect. What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?   One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are: Lack of information Lack of analytical ability Silly mistakes Excessive risk-taking Let’s analyze them one by one: Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances. You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it. This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination. Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise: Micro Analysis Matrix Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S Scale 1: Information meter (1) Scale 2: Analysis meter (2) Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3) Scale 4: Risk meter (4) Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation: Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion: Micro Analysis Matrix- Day 1/ Polity/ Constitutional History Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) 3 1 2 2 8 Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S 3 2 6 8 19 Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale: Information meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late. Analysis meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions. Anxiety meter < 3 Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident. Risk meter < 8 Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind. Total N x S score < 20 Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going. This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better. Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours. We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS! Importance of self - tracking: We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program. Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting! Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2020  All the Best! IASbaba

Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 20th March 2020

IAS UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 20th March 2020 Archives (PRELIMS + MAINS FOCUS) COVID-19 Economic Response Task Force Part of: GS Prelims In News: To deal with the economic challenges caused by the COVID-19 pandemic, ‘COVID-19 Economic Response Task Force’ will be created It will be headed by Union Finance Minister. The Task Force will consult stakeholders, take feedback, on the basis of which decisions will be taken to meet the challenges. Electricity Production Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Economy In News: As per the latest world energy statistics published by the IEA in 2019, India is the 3rd largest producer of electricity in the world. India also ranks 106th in terms of per capita consumption in 2017.  The International Energy Agency (IEA) is a Paris-based autonomous intergovernmental organization established in the framework of the OECD in 1974 Abel Prize Part of: GS Prelims In News: Abel prize was established by the Norwegian government in 2002 on the occasion of the 200th anniversary of Neil Henrick’s birth (Norwegian Mathematician) The purpose is to award the Abel Prize for outstanding scientific work in the field of mathematics. GreenCo Rating System Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Environment Conservation In News: GreenCo Rating, developed by Confederation of Indian Industry (CII), has been acknowledged in India's Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC) document, submitted UNFCCC in 2015 It is being used as a proactive voluntary action of Indian industry / private sector towards combating climate change. The GreenCo rating assesses the firms on their environmental performance and thus aligns them to national priorities towards environment such as energy efficiency, water conservation, renewable energy, waste management, etc Puri Jagannath Temple Part of: GS Prelims and GS-I- Art & Culture In News: The Jagannath Temple in Puri was called the “White Pagoda”. The temple is a part of Char Dham (Badrinath, Dwaraka, Puri, Rameswaram) pilgrimages that a Hindu is expected to make in one’s lifetime. When most of the deities in the temples of India are made of stone or metal, the idol of Jagannatha is made of wood which is ceremoniously replaced in every twelve or nineteen years by using sacred trees. The temple is believed to be constructed in the 12th century by King Anatavarman Chodaganga Deva of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty. The temple is famous for its annual Ratha Yatra or Chariot festival, in which the three principal deities (Jagannath, Balabhadra and Subhadra) are pulled on huge and elaborately decorated temple cars Jagannath Puri temple is called ‘Yamanika Tirtha’ where, according to the Hindu beliefs, the power of ‘Yama’, the god of death has been nullified in Puri due to the presence of Lord Jagannath. New definition of MSMEs soon Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Economy In News: The government would come out with a new definition of MSMEs, which are currently defined on the basis of investment in plant and machinery Government has accepted 39 suggestions by the U.K. Sinha committee appointed by RBI, including the setting up a “fund of funds” for MSME sector.  The MSME sector currently contributed 24% of the GDP growth and 48% of exports, with an annual turnover of ₹1 lakh crore in FY20. Institute of Teaching and Research in Ayurveda Bill, 2020 Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Governance In News: The bill accords the Institute of Teaching and Research in Ayurveda at Jamnagar, Gujarat, the status of ‘institution of national importance’ by clubbing the cluster of ayurveda institutes at the Gujarat Ayurveda University campus in Jamnagar. The three institutes (in Jamnagar) which would be a part of the proposed conglomeration are  The Institute of Post Graduate Teaching and Research in Ayurveda Gulabkunwerba Ayurveda Mahavidyalaya  The Institute of Ayurveda Pharmaceutical Sciences. The objective of the institute will be the promotion of quality and excellence in education, research and training in Ayurveda and allied disciplines LiDAR Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Science & Technology In News: In simple terms, LiDAR stands for light detection and ranging.  It is basically a remote sensing method that uses light in the form of a pulsed laser to measure distances to the subject.  These light pulses – when combined with other data, generate accurate, high-resolution three-dimensional information of the object. This technology is mostly used for ground-based surveys. LiDAR was first used on a spacecraft during the Apollo 15 mission in 1971, when astronauts mapped the surface of the moon. Apart from aerial surveys, the LiDAR sensor is the most important component in self-driving cars. The LiDAR sensor provides continuous 360 degrees of visibility and accurate depth information. Challenges with LiDAR LiDAR can measure the distance to surrounding objects up to 5 meters away, but won’t fare well in identifying objects in the vicinity. Also, it can’t perform well in fog, rain, snow and dusty weather.  LiDAR also struggles to detect a glass wall or door, which is why smartphone manufacturers and self-driving cars makers use LiDAR along with secondary cameras and sensors. Do You Know? Sonar (short for sound navigation and ranging) relies on sound waves to detect objects and hence is usually used to detect objects underwater. Meanwhile, Radar (short for radio detection and ranging) uses radio waves to determine an object’s distance or range. Radio waves can work over a long distance and perform better in dusty conditions. Windrush Scandal Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- International Affairs In News: The British government apologised for Windrush scandal i.e. its treatment of Britons of Caribbean origin, who were wrongly detained or deported for being illegal immigrants Windrush generation refers to migrants from the Caribbean Commonwealth who had come to the U.K. at a time when they had the right to remain indefinitely in Britain, but had had their rights questioned under a toughened immigration regime. The Windrush generation is named after one of the many vessels that ferried some half a million people from the Caribbean islands to the U.K. in the late 1940s.  (MAINS FOCUS) Indian Polity Topic: General Studies 2: Statutory, regulatory and various quasi-judicial bodies.  Giving Human Rights Commissions more teeth Context: The Madras High Court is to decide on whether the recommendations made by such panels are binding upon the state A Brief Background In 1993, the Indian Parliament enacted the Protection of Human Rights Act.  The purpose of the Act was to establish an institutional framework that could effectively protect, promote and fulfil the fundamental rights guaranteed by the Indian Constitution.  Therefore, the Act created a National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), and also, Human Rights Commissions at the levels of the various States. These institutions can be considered as “fourth branch institutions” (similar to how other institutions like ECI, CAG, CIC which perform vital functions of Constitution) HRCs was established in conformity with the Paris Principles, adopted for the promotion and protection of human rights in Paris (October, 1991) and endorsed by the General Assembly of the United Nations on 20 December, 1993. Functions and Powers of NHRC/SHRC They are empowered to inquire into the violations of human rights committed by state authorities, either upon petitions presented to them, or upon their own initiative. While conducting these inquiries, the Commissions are granted identical powers to that of civil courts, such as the examining witnesses, ordering for documents, receiving evidence, and so on.  Section 18 of the Protection of Human Rights Act empowers the Human Rights Commission to “recommend” to the concerned government  to grant compensation to the victim  to initiate prosecution against the erring state authorities,  to grant interim relief, and to take various other steps.  Furthermore, Section 18 of the Human Rights Act also obligates the concerned government to “forward its comments on the report, including the action taken or proposed to be taken thereon, to the Commission”, within a period of one month. Criticism of NHRC/SHRCs Politicisation of autonomous bodies The Human Rights Commissions are toothless: The word “recommend” in Section 18 of the act has been interpreted till now as only advisory in nature and not binding on the government. Thus, the government left free to disobey or even disregard their findings. If the state was left free to obey or disobey the findings of the Commission, then the constitutional role of NHRC/SHRC would be effectively pointless (effectively, the state judging itself) NHRC does not have any mechanism of investigation. In majority cases, it asks the concerned Central and State Governments to investigate the cases of the violation of Human Rights Inadequacy of funds hamper the working of these bodies. A large number of grievances go unaddressed because NHRC cannot investigate the complaint registered after one year of incident. National Human Rights Commission powers related to violations of human rights by the armed forces have been largely restricted. A case for making the recommendations & reports of HRCs binding on government In the past, courts have invoked constitutional purpose to determine the powers of various fourth branch institutions in cases of ambiguity The Supreme Court laid down detailed guidelines to ensure the independence of the Central Bureau of Investigation Various judgments have endorsed and strengthened the powers of the Election Commission to compulsorily obtain relevant details of candidates, despite having no express power to do so. Very recently, the Supreme Court held in the context of “opinions” rendered by the Foreigners Tribunals, held that these “opinions” were binding. The Human Rights Commission has the powers of a civil court, and proceedings before it are deemed to be judicial proceedings.  This provides strong reasons for its findings to be treated — at the very least — as quasi-judicial, and binding upon the state (unless challenged) Conclusion The requirement of state accountability in a democracy committed to a ‘culture of justification’ — strongly indicates that the Commission’s recommendations should be binding upon the state Connecting the dots: National Commission on Scheduled Castes (NCSC)/ National Commission on Scheduled Tribes/ National Commission on Backward Classes - are their recommendations binding? Tribunalisation of Judiciary Indian Polity Topic: General Studies 2: Parliament and State legislatures—structure, functioning, conduct of business, powers & privileges and issues arising out of these.  Disqualification under Tenth Schedule Context: In a first, the Supreme Court removed Manipur Minister Thounaojam Shyamkumar Singh, against whom disqualification petitions were pending before the Speaker since 2017 Further, the court restrained him “from entering the Legislative Assembly till further orders”. Brief Background of the case The concerned person had become an MLA in 2017 on a Congress ticket before switching to the BJP to become Minister in Manipur State Government. A disqualification petition against the minister was pending before the Speaker since 2017 but the Speaker failed to take the decision within a reasonable time period.  On 21st January 2020, a three-judge Supreme Court Bench had asked the Speaker of Manipur Legislative Assembly to decide the disqualification (under Tenth Schedule) petitions of the concerned MLA within four weeks. It also gave other pronouncements (discussed below) Supreme Court invoked its extraordinary powers under Article 142 of the Constitution to remove the minister from the Cabinet. Disqualification under the Tenth Schedule The anti-defection law is contained in the 10th Schedule of the Constitution and was enacted by Parliament Constitution (52nd Amendment) Act, 1985.  Legislators used to change parties frequently bringing in Political Instability and was also considered as betraying the mandate of voters (who voted for the legislator considering his political party) The purpose of 10th Schedule is to curb political defection by the legislators.  There are two grounds on which a member of a legislature can be disqualified. One, if the member voluntarily gives up the membership of the party Second, if a legislator votes in the House against the direction of his party and such act has not been condoned by the party within 15 days  However, there is an exception – if there is a merger between two political parties and two-thirds of the members of a legislature party agree to the merger, they will not be disqualified. The Presiding officer of the House (Speaker/Chairman) is the adjudicating authority with regard to disqualification of legislators under the Tenth Schedule. Criticism of the anti-defection Law Curbs the freedom of speech & expression of law makers Tyranny of Political Parties: Legislators have to abide by the line taken by Political parties even it is against their own stand or against the interest of her constituency Role of the Speaker is biased: Speaker who is a member of a political party is often not neutral and comes under the influence of his political party instead of deciding the cases on merit Delay in decision making: several presiding officers have allowed defectors to bolster the strength of ruling parties and even be sworn in Ministers by merely refraining from adjudicating on complaints against them Supreme Court Judgement in Kihoto Hollohan (1992) case:  Five Judge Bench of SC upheld the validity of the Constitution’s Tenth Schedule. It was also held in this case that a Speaker or a Chairman, acting Tenth Schedule, is a Tribunal and thus his discretionary powers were protected by Constitution. (Dissenting view by Justice JS Verma  questioned the fairness of speaker in adjudication) This verdict had also made the Speaker’s order subject to judicial review on limited grounds and that mere procedural infirmities could not prompt judicial intervention. It was also held that judicial review cannot be available at a stage prior to the making of a decision by the Speaker/Chairman.  Supreme Court in its 21st Jan 2020 order gave the following pronouncements Reasonable Time period for deciding on Disqualification Unless there were “exceptional circumstances”, disqualification petitions under the Tenth Schedule should be decided by Speakers within three months  Failure to deliver decision by Speaker within a reasonable time period will entail the court to intervene in the disqualification matter (as has happened now in this case) Suggested an Independent Body  SC asked the Parliament to consider having an independent and permanent body to decide disqualification petition, which requires an amendment to the constitution. Given the fact that a Speaker belongs to a particular political party, the Court mooted this idea Also, Speaker wasn’t adjudicating election disputes or disqualification of members under Articles 103/ 192/ 329 for good reason, because their fairness could be suspected. Way Forward: The Constitution is called a living document because of its ability to grow and change with time and circumstances. Clearly, the Tenth Schedule has fallen short in fulfilling its objective of preventing defections and needs a relook. Parliament must fix this flaw and institute a tribunal recognising the significance of anti-defection provisions in upholding the sanctity of Parliament. Connecting the dots: Speakers role in deciding whether the bill is money bill or not Britain’s model of Speaker’s post (TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE) Model questions: (You can now post your answers in comment section) Note:  Correct answers of today’s questions will be provided in next day’s DNA section. Kindly refer to it and update your answers.  Comments Up-voted by IASbaba are also the “correct answers”. Q 1. Consider the following statements  India is the 3rd largest producer of electricity in the world. India ranks 106th in terms of per capita consumption in 2017 Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 2. Consider the following statements about LiDAR It is basically a remote sensing method that uses light in the form of a pulsed laser to measure distances to the subject.  LiDAR was first used on a spacecraft during the Apollo 15 mission in 1971, when astronauts mapped the surface of the moon. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 3. U.K. Sinha committee appointed by RBI dealt with which of the following sector? Digital Payments Retail Payments MSME Sector None of the above Q 4. Windrush Scandal seen in news is related to which of the following country? United States of America Britain India Canada Q 5. Consider the following statements about Puri Jagannath Temple The temple is believed to be constructed in the 12th century by King Anatavarman Chodaganga Deva of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty. The temple is famous for its annual Ratha Yatra or Chariot festival, in which the three principal deities (Jagannath, Balabhadra and Subhadra) are pulled on huge and elaborately decorated temple cars Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 ANSWERS FOR 19 March 2020 TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE (TYK) 1 A 2 D 3 C 4 B 5 A Must Read About COVID-19  and SAARC The Hindu President Ram Nath Kovind about COVID-19: The Hindu

AIR

Women and Wildlife Conservation - All India Radio (AIR) IAS UPSC

ARCHIVES Women and Wildlife Conservation Search 2nd March 2020 here: http://www.newsonair.com/Main_Audio_Bulletins_Search.aspx TOPIC: General Studies 3 Environment and Conservation; Climate Change Women and Climate change Gender is a key component in shaping attitudes about conservation, and lack of attention to gender differences in perceptions can work against the aims of community-based conservation actions and initiatives.  Women play an integral role in conservation, with countless pioneering female conservationists working globally to save endangered wildlife. Women need to be equally and actively involved in processes to conserve and sustainably use biodiversity because they play critical roles as primary land managers and resource users, and they face disproportionate impacts both from biodiversity loss and gender-blind conservation measures. The Issue Rural women's engagement as farmers or gatherers of non-timber forest products place them in the front line in terms of their knowledge of the physical environment and natural resources and potential threats to their sustainability.  For example, while women in many countries are increasingly taking on responsibility for managing small-scale agriculture, they do not have an equivalent voice in decision-making related to land use, nor equal access to needed resources. Biodiversity loss also poses a disproportionate burden for women and girls by increasing the time required to obtain necessary resources such as water, fuel wood, and medicinal plants, which reduces the time they can spend on income generating activities and education. Beyond equity, enabling women’s full engagement in biodiversity decisions is critical to ensure that biodiversity conservation and sustainable use efforts are successful in the long term. Without the contributions and buy-in of women and girls, these efforts risk overlooking the root causes of biodiversity loss, as well as potential solutions, and may continue to perpetuate gender inequalities.    The challenge of excluding women from Wildlife Conservation The connections between gender and wildlife use are diverse and depend on particular economic, cultural and ethnic contexts. But women may not participate in conservation activities either because they are excluded from doing so by vested interests or because they do not feel empowered to speak out in their cultural contexts. This lack of understanding is highly problematic for conservation projects. Also, women’s productive and reproductive unpaid work and their participation in decision-making have a direct impact in wildlife use by:  1) Making male labour available to hunt or fish at times when seasonal demand for labour in agriculture peaks and  2) Reducing monetary cost of family reproduction and generating alternative sources of income and supporting food production, all which might reduce pressure on wildlife.  Women’s particular roles and responsibilities within the household, community, and society lead women to develop unique knowledge related to biodiversity, shaped by their specific needs and priorities. They are thereby in a unique position to bring different perspectives and new solutions to addressing biodiversity concerns. The other side Today, women around the world are changing the trajectory of conservation. As the fate of so many species and habitats hangs in the balance, women are rising to meet global challenges through collaboration, compassion, and courage. Research shows that conservation projects achieve better results when they involve women in decision-making. Yet, obstacles such as gender bias, discrimination, harassment, inequity in pay, cultural constraints, and violence remain prevalent. The overarching and adverse impacts of these gender-related challenges are only recently being studied and more openly spoken about in the conservation realm. Although women are professionally expanding their presence in conservation, they are often underrepresented in higher positions of leadership across the conservation world. In local communities, women tend to have limited influence around management of natural resources and protected areas. And in science, less than 30 percent of the world’s researchers are women, and those women are publishing less and getting paid less. Yet, women across the world are underrepresented in decision-making positions related to environmental and sustainable development issues. Women also fall well behind men in achieving paid employment in natural resource management sectors – notably agriculture, fisheries, and forestry – in both developing and developed countries. Furthermore, according to the OECD’s Social Institutions & Gender Index, laws or customary practices of around 102 countries still restrict women’s rights to access land. Without equal access to land and other key resources, women’s opportunities and capacity to play an active role in biodiversity conservation is severely limited.    The Way Forward Measures are necessary to increase the representation of women in decision-making roles related to biodiversity and environmental governance at all levels. We need to mitigate both cultural and logistical barriers to allow women to voice their needs, knowledge, priorities, and solutions in relation to sustainable development – at the same level as men.  Equal rights and access to ownership and control over land are also critically important for women across the world, as reflected in the Sustainable Development Goals (targets 1.4, 2.3, 5.a).   We must allocate our attention and resources to the local level, to ensure that projects and programmes are implemented in ways that address gender issues.  We need to spread awareness among women and girls of proposed biodiversity-related actions that affect them, and we must build their knowledge about their rights and about their options for contributing to shaping those actions. We also have to ignite the full engagement and support of men and boys to enable empowered participation of women and girls in biodiversity conservation. It is critical that men and boys understand and support measures for women’s empowerment, to ensure that these measures will be accepted in the community. An inclusive approach would also contribute to addressing the root causes of inequalities, through creating awareness and promoting long-term beneficial action.  

IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan- IAS Prelims Test Series 2020 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [Day 17]

Hello Friends,  https://www.youtube.com/embed/x5ldu2jV8N0 ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS The 60 Days Training has finally begun:) DAY 17 is here! Before any competition, there is a preparatory phase. That phase involves a lot of sessions on strengths and weaknesses. Throughout the preparatory phase, the athletes train in a gradual manner. In the last phase, just before the actual competition, the training is done so as to sharpen their skills. This training requires complete focus and dedication. In this phase, the athletes do not try anything new or train in a new fashion rather focus on the sharpening of skills, focusing on strength and precision. Similarly, the upcoming 60 days, is like the last phase (training session), just before the actual competition. Here, the focus should be on sharpening the concepts, consolidating the knowledge base and solidifying the learning with loads and loads of revision. You will come across many distractions in between in the name of sources and resources (exclusive and inclusive), beware of them. Be alert and objective in selecting your companions in this preparation. Trust your effort and revise more than falling prey to multiple resources and doing nothing in the end. Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity.  Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (5 PM), cross-check the answers and again, comment the marks (you got) in the same comment thread. This will keep you responsible and sincere in days to come. Also, we need more sets of scores for releasing the cut offs in the night so, requesting all of you to sincerely put your scores in comment section.    You can also take part in discussion with peers.   Q.1) CAR-T is a personalized form of treatment for –  AIDS Tuberculosis Sickle cell anaemia Cancer Q.1) CAR-T किसके उपचार का एक व्यक्तिगत रूप है - एड्स यक्ष्मा सिकल सेल एनीमिया कैंसर Q.2) Which country has recently approved 1st human – animal embryo experiment? China  USA Japan  France Q.2) किस देश ने हाल ही में पहले मानव-पशु भ्रूण प्रयोग को मंजूरी दी है? चीन अमेरीका जापान फ्रांस Q.3) Which of the following benefit can come out of our understanding of human genome sequence? Genetic disorders like cystic fibrosis or sickle cell anaemia can be identified. Personalised medication can be prescribed. Treatments for common cancers can be developed. Select the correct option using the codes given below 1 only  1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only  All of the above Q.3) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा लाभ मानव जीनोम अनुक्रम (human genome sequence) की हमारी समझ से सामने आ सकता है? सिस्टिक फाइब्रोसिस या सिकल सेल एनीमिया जैसे आनुवंशिक विकारों की पहचान की जा सकती है। वैयक्तिकृत दवा निर्धारित की जा सकती है। सामान्य कैंसर के उपचार विकसित किए जा सकते हैं। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही विकल्प का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.4) Consider the following statements regarding Gene Drive Technology – It alters the rules of inheritance from parent to offspring. Vector borne diseases can be controlled using the technology. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only  2 only Both 1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2 Q.4) जीन चालित तकनीक (Gene Drive Technology) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - यह माता-पिता से संतानों को विरासत के नियमों को बदल सकता है। तकनीक के उपयोग से वेक्टर जनित रोगों को नियंत्रित किया जा सकता है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही विकल्प चुनें - केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.5) Consider the following statements regarding National Stem Cell Registry – It comes under the ageis of Department of Science and Technology. A person enrolling for Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana will be automatically enrolled in National Stem Cell Registry. It will help in treating patients with blood-related disorders. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only  2 and 3 only 3 only  All of the above Q.5) राष्ट्रीय स्टेम सेल रजिस्ट्री (National Stem Cell Registry) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - यह विज्ञान और प्रौद्योगिकी विभाग के अंतर्गत आता है। प्रधान मंत्री जन आरोग्य योजना के लिए नामांकन करने वाला व्यक्ति स्वतः ही राष्ट्रीय स्टेम सेल रजिस्ट्री में नामांकित हो जाएगा। यह रक्त से संबंधित विकारों के रोगियों का इलाज करने में मदद करेगा। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.6) Which of the following is incorrect regarding Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights (PPV&FR;) Act, 2001? A farmer can produce using any seed protected under the act. Seed Producers will have exclusive rights against the protected variety and criminal remedy in case of infringement of rights. Researcher can use any of the registered variety under the act for conducting an experiment or research. There is provision for compensation to the farmers for non-performance of variety. Q.6) पौधों की किस्मों और किसानों के अधिकारों का संरक्षण (PPV & FR) अधिनियम, 2001 के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन गलत है? एक किसान अधिनियम के तहत संरक्षित किसी भी बीज का उपयोग कर उत्पादन कर सकता है। बीज उत्पादकों के पास अधिकारों के उल्लंघन के मामले में संरक्षित विविधता और आपराधिक उपाय के विरुद्ध विशेष अधिकार होंगे। शोधकर्ता किसी भी पंजीकृत किस्म का प्रयोग या अनुसंधान करने के लिए अधिनियम के तहत उपयोग कर सकता है। किसानों को किस्मों के गैर-प्रदर्शन के लिए मुआवजे का प्रावधान है। Q.7) Consider the following statements with respect to 3–Parent Baby? This technology will protect children from all genetic diseases. It involves gene editing of nuclear DNA of biological mother. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only  2 only Both 1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2 Q.7) 3-पैरेंट बेबी ( 3–Parent Baby) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें? यह तकनीक बच्चों को सभी आनुवांशिक बीमारियों से बचाएगा। इसमें जैविक मां के नाभिक डीएनए का जीन संपादन (gene editing) शामिल है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.8) Which of the following can be considered as a case of allograft? Heart transplant among identical twins. Bone marrow transplant from one cousin to another. Transplants of skin from mother to daughter. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only  2 only 2 and 3 only  All of the above Q.8) निम्नलिखित में से किसे एलॉग्राफ़्ट (allograft) का मामला माना जा सकता है? समान जुड़वाँ बच्चों में ह्रदय का प्रत्यारोपण। अस्थि मज्जा का एक चचेरा भाई से दूसरे में प्रत्यारोपण। माँ से बेटी में त्वचा के प्रत्यारोपण। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 केवल 2 केवल 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.9) Consider the following statements regarding DNA Data storage technology –  The Personal Data Protection Bill, 2018 advocates to legalise its use. It involves the use of DNA to store data as alternate data storage to binary data storage History of genetic disorder in human beings can be traced using this technology. Select the correct option –  1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 2 only 3 only Q.9) डीएनए डेटा संग्रहण तकनीक (DNA Data storage technology) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - व्यक्तिगत डेटा संरक्षण बिल, 2018 इसके उपयोग को वैध बनाने की वकालत करता है। इसमें द्विआधारी (बाइनरी) डेटा संग्रहण के लिए वैकल्पिक डेटा संग्रहण के रूप में डेटा को स्टोर करने के लिए डीएनए का उपयोग शामिल है इस तकनीक का उपयोग करके मानव में आनुवंशिक विकार के इतिहास का पता लगाया जा सकता है। सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 2 केवल 3 Q.10) Consider the following statements: Induced Pluripotent Stem Cells can be used to treat blood disease like thalassaemia, sickle-cell anaemia and haemophilia. Meristematic Tissue show totipotency in plant tissue culture. Rice was the first crop to be genome sequenced Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only  1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only  All of the above Q.10) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: प्रेरित प्लुरिपोटेंट स्टेम सेल (Induced Pluripotent Stem Cells)  का उपयोग रक्त की बीमारी जैसे थैलेसीमिया, सिकल सेल एनीमिया और हीमोफिलिया के इलाज के लिए किया जा सकता है। मेरिस्टेमेटिक ऊतक (Meristematic Tissue) पौधे के उत्तक संवर्धन में टोटीपोटेंसी (totipotency) को दर्शाता है। चावल जीनोम अनुक्रम (genome sequenced) होने वाली पहली फसल थी ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.11) Consider the following statements regarding ‘IndiGen Initiative’ – It is the 1st of its kind whole genome sequencing of Indians. It will enable genetic epidemiology of diseases. Genome sequencing of 1,00,000 Indians were done covering all states and ethnicities. It was carried out by Institute for Stem Cell Science and Regenerative Medicine (InStem) in association with IIT Delhi.  Which of the above statements are correct? 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only All of the above Q.11) इंडिजेन पहल (IndiGen Initiative) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - यह भारतीयों का इस तरह की पहला संपूर्ण जीनोम अनुक्रमण है। यह रोगों के आनुवंशिक व्यापक रोग-विज्ञान (epidemiology) को सक्षम करेगा। सभी राज्यों और नस्लों को कवर करते हुए 1,00,000 भारतीयों की जीनोम अनुक्रमण किया गया था। इसे आईआईटी दिल्ली के सहयोग से स्टेम सेल विज्ञान और पुनर्योजी चिकित्सा के लिए संस्थान (InStem) द्वारा किया गया था। सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1, 2 और 3 केवल 1, 2 और 4 उपरोक्त सभी Q.12) Consider the following statements with respect to artificial leaf – Artificial leaf is a lab-grown leaf using Recombinant DNA technology. It absorbs carbon dioxide from the air and converts it into fuel. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? 1 only  2 only Both 1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2 Q.12) कृत्रिम पत्ती (artificial leaf) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - कृत्रिम पत्ती, पुनःसंयोजक डीएनए तकनीक का उपयोग करके एक प्रयोगशाला में विकसित पत्ती है। यह हवा से कार्बन डाइऑक्साइड को अवशोषित करती है तथा इसे ईंधन में परिवर्तित करती है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.13) Scuba Rice that is often seen in news relates to which of the following? Flood-resistant rice Rice fortified with Vitamin A Another name for seaweed Pest-resistant rice Q.13) स्कूबा चावल (Scuba Rice) जो अक्सर समाचारों में देखा जाता है, निम्नलिखित में से किससे संबंधित है? बाढ़-प्रतिरोधी चावल विटामिन ए के साथ संवर्धित चावल समुद्री शैवाल (seaweed) के लिए एक अन्य नाम कीट-प्रतिरोधी चावल Q.14) CCR5-delta 32, recently in news, is related to which of the following? Gene editing Proton therapy Genetic mutation  Organ transplantation Q.14) CCR5-डेल्टा 32 (CCR5-delta 32), हाल ही में समाचार में था, निम्नलिखित में से किस से संबंधित है? जीन संपादन (Gene editing) प्रोटॉन चिकित्सा आनुवंशिक उत्परिवर्तन अंग प्रत्यारोपण Q.15) Consider the following statements about the Earth Bio Genome Project: It aims to sequence the genomes of all of earth’s currently described eukaryotic biodiversity.  It is an open source DNA database. It is funded by Global Environment Facility and supported by host of organisations like World Bank and IUCN.   Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only  1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only All of the above Q.15) पृथ्वी जैव जीनोम परियोजना (Earth Bio Genome Project) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: इसका उद्देश्य पृथ्वी के वर्तमान में वर्णित यूकेरियोटिक जैव विविधता वाले सभी जीनों को अनुक्रमित करना है। यह एक ओपन सोर्स डीएनए डेटाबेस है। यह वैश्विक पर्यावरण सुविधा द्वारा वित्त पोषित है तथा विश्व बैंक और आईयूसीएन जैसे संगठनों द्वारा समर्थित है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.16) Which of the following statements is/are correct about the IndOBIS? It aims to sequence the genomes of all marine mammal species in the Arabian Sea, Bay of Bengal and the Indian Ocean.  It is partly funded by the recovery programme under the Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats.  It is the joint initiative of Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change, Earth Bio-Genome Project and IUCN. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only  1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only None of the above Q.16) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन इंडओबिस (IndOBIS) के बारे में सही है / हैं? इसका उद्देश्य अरब सागर, बंगाल की खाड़ी और हिंद महासागर में सभी समुद्री स्तनपायी प्रजातियों के जीनोम को अनुक्रमित करना है। यह आंशिक रूप से वन्यजीव आवासों के एकीकृत विकास के अंतर्गत रिकवरी कार्यक्रम द्वारा वित्त पोषित है। यह पर्यावरण वन और जलवायु परिवर्तन मंत्रालय, पृथ्वी जैव-जीनोम परियोजना और आईयूसीएन की संयुक्त पहल है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.17) Consider the following statements: DNA finger printing is the process of determining an individual's DNA characteristics, which are as unique as fingerprints. DNA barcoding is a process to identify a species rather than an individual. Which of the above statements are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.17) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: डीएनए फिंगर प्रिंटिंग एक व्यक्ति की डीएनए विशेषताओं को निर्धारित करने की प्रक्रिया है, जो उँगलियों के निशान की तरह अद्वितीय हैं। डीएनए बारकोडिंग एक व्यक्ति के बजाय एक प्रजाति की पहचान करने की एक प्रक्रिया है। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.18) ‘Mitochondrial Eve’, recently seen in news, relates to which of the following? Genetic disease due to mutation in mitochondrial genes. Technology used to produce a three parent babies. Common female ancestor from which all humans trace their descent. Genetic changes taking place in mitochondria when females hit menopause. Q.18) ‘माइटोकॉन्ड्रियल ईव' (Mitochondrial Eve), हाल ही में समाचार में देखा गया है, निम्न में से किससे संबंधित है? माइटोकॉन्ड्रियल जीन में उत्परिवर्तन के कारण आनुवंशिक रोग से। एक थ्री पैरेंट बेबी के उत्पादन में प्रयोग की जाने वाली प्रौद्योगिकी से। सामान्य महिला पूर्वज, जिससे सभी मनुष्य अपने वंश का पता लगाते हैं। माइटोकॉन्ड्रिया में होने वाले आनुवंशिक परिवर्तन, जब महिलाएं रजोनिवृत्ति से होती हैं। Q.19) Consider the following statements regarding ‘Artificial blood’ –  It performs the function of RBC and platelets but not that of WBC and plasma. Personalised development of artificial blood, making transfusion safe, has been done for the first time in United States recently. It can be used to remove infection in cases of Ebola, SARS etc Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only All of the above None of the above Q.19) 'कृत्रिम रक्त' (Artificial blood) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - यह आरबीसी और प्लेटलेट्स का कार्य करता है लेकिन डब्ल्यूबीसी और प्लाज्मा का नहीं। कृत्रिम रक्त का व्यक्तिगत विकास, रक्त-आधान (transfusion) को सुरक्षित बनाते हुए, हाल ही में संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका में पहली बार किया गया है। इसका उपयोग इबोला, सार्स (SARS) आदि के मामलों में संक्रमण को दूर करने के लिए किया जा सकता है सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 1 केवल 2  उपरोक्त सभी इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.20) Consider the following statements –  MANAV: Human Atlas Initiative is a project to construct a comprehensive map of every tissue of the human body. National genomic grid will facilitate sharing of data on new genome research among government and private institutions.  Import of human embryo is completely prohibited in India.  Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only All of the above  None of the above  Q.20) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - मानव (MANAV): मानव एटलस पहल मानव शरीर के प्रत्येक ऊतक का एक व्यापक मानचित्र बनाने की एक परियोजना है। राष्ट्रीय जीनोमिक ग्रिड सरकारी और निजी संस्थानों के बीच नए जीनोम अनुसंधान पर डेटा साझा करने की सुविधा प्रदान करेगा। भारत में मानव भ्रूण का आयात पूरी तरह से प्रतिबंधित है। सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 उपरोक्त सभी इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.21) India’s first international Women's Trade Centre (iWTC) is established in which of following State/UT? Kerala Maharashtra  Delhi Gujarat Q.21) भारत का पहला अंतर्राष्ट्रीय महिला व्यापार केंद्र (iWTC) निम्नलिखित में से किस राज्य / केन्द्र शासित प्रदेश में स्थापित किया गया है? केरल महाराष्ट्र दिल्ली गुजरात Q.22) The term ‘51 Pegasi b’ sometimes seen in news in the context of  Cyber Attacks Solar Mission Artificial Intelligence  Exoplanet discovery Q.22) ‘51 पेगासी b’ (51 Pegasi b) शब्द कभी-कभी समाचार में किसके संदर्भ में देखा जाता है साइबर हमले सौर मिशन कृत्रिम बुद्धिमत्ता  बाह्य ग्रह खोज (Exoplanet discovery) Q.23) Consider the following statements: The Article 131 of the Constitution declares Delhi as the seat of the Supreme Court.   Constitution authorises the President of India to appoint other place or places as seat of the Supreme Court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.23) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: संविधान का अनुच्छेद 131 दिल्ली को सर्वोच्च न्यायालय की सीट घोषित करता है। संविधान भारत के राष्ट्रपति को अन्य स्थान या स्थानों को सर्वोच्च न्यायालय की सीट के रूप में नियुक्त करने के लिए अधिकृत करता है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.24) Keeladi is an urban settlement of Sangam Age on the banks of which of the following river? Cauvery Vaigai Pennar Ponnaiyar Q.24) कीलाडी (Keeladi) निम्न नदी के तट पर संगम युग की एक नगरीय बस्ती थी? कावेरी वैगई पेन्नार पोन्नियर Q.25) Consider the following statements about Debug Fresno Project: Under the project, male anopheles mosquitoes carrying Wolbachia are released into the environment.  It uses the approach called Sterile Insect Technique (SIT). It was undertaken in African countries affected by malaria. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only Q.25) डिबग फ्रेस्नो प्रोजेक्ट (Debug Fresno Project) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: परियोजना के तहत, वुलबैचिया (Wolbachia) ले जाने वाले नर एनोफिलिज मच्छरों को पर्यावरण में छोड़ा जाता है। यह Sterile Insect Technique (SIT) नामक दृष्टिकोण का उपयोग करता है। यह मलेरिया से प्रभावित अफ्रीकी देशों में किया गया था। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा गलत है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 1 और 3 Q.26) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Black softshell turtle’. It is listed as ‘Critically Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List. In India it can generally be found in Assam. Which of the above statements is/are correct?  1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.26) 'काले मुलायम कवच वाले कछुए' (Black softshell turtle) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। इसे IUCN रेड लिस्ट के तहत ‘गंभीर रूप से लुप्तप्राय’ के रूप में सूचीबद्ध किया गया है। भारत में यह आम तौर पर असम में पाया जा सकता है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.27) ‘Ambergris’, is a term associated with Olive Ridley Turtles Sperm Whales Indian Pangolins Red Sanders Q.27) ‘एम्बरग्रीस’ (Ambergris), शब्द किससे संबंधित है ऑलिव रिडले कछुए शुक्राणु व्हेल (Sperm Whales) भारतीय पैंगोलिन लाल चंदन (Red Sanders) Q.28) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Thylacine’. Fossilised remains of thylacines have been found across the Indus Valley Civilization sites. It was once the world’s largest marsupial carnivore. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.28) 'थाइलैसिन' (Thylacine) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। सिंधु घाटी सभ्यता के स्थलों में थायलैसीन के जीवाश्म अवशेष पाए गए हैं। यह कभी विश्व का सबसे बड़ा दलदली मांसाहारी था। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.29) Which of the following is associated with Arunachal Pradesh? Solung Festival River Sisseri Chapchar Kut Select the correct code: 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 3 All of the above Q.29) निम्नलिखित में से कौन अरुणाचल प्रदेश से संबंधित है? सोलंग महोत्सव सिसरी नदी चापचर कुट सही कूट का चयन करें: 1 और 2 2 और 3 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.30) ‘Hershey-Chase experiment’ was in news recently. It is concerned with? Deoxyribonucleic Acid Antiretroviral Therapy Reverse Osmosis None of the above Q.30) ‘हर्षे-चेज़ प्रयोग' (Hershey-Chase experiment) हाल ही में समाचारों में था। इसका किससे संबंध है? डिऑक्सीराइबोन्यूक्लिक अम्ल एंटीरेट्रोवाइरल उपचार रिवर्स ऑस्मोसिस इनमें से कोई भी नहीं DOWNLOAD THE SOLUTION ENGLISH HINDI NOTE- Follow this for Comments Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test After the release of Solution Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect. What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?   One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are: Lack of information Lack of analytical ability Silly mistakes Excessive risk-taking Let’s analyze them one by one: Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances. You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it. This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination. Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise: Micro Analysis Matrix Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S Scale 1: Information meter (1) Scale 2: Analysis meter (2) Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3) Scale 4: Risk meter (4) Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation: Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion: Micro Analysis Matrix- Day 1/ Polity/ Constitutional History Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) 3 1 2 2 8 Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S 3 2 6 8 19 Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale: Information meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late. Analysis meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions. Anxiety meter < 3 Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident. Risk meter < 8 Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind. Total N x S score < 20 Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going. This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better. Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours. We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS! Importance of self - tracking: We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program. Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting! Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2020  All the Best! IASbaba

Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 19th March 2020

IAS UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 19th March 2020 Archives (PRELIMS + MAINS FOCUS) State Human Rights Commission Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Polity In News: Rajasthan SHRC recommends meditation to fight COVID-19 The Protection of Human Rights Act of 1993 provides for the creation of State Human Rights Commission at the state level.  A State Human Rights Commission can inquire into violation of human rights related to subjects covered under state list and concurrent list in the seventh schedule of the Indian constitution The Governor of the state appoints the chairperson and other members on the recommendations of a committee consisting of   Chief Minister as its head  Speaker of the Legislative Assembly The state home minister  The leader of the opposition in the Legislative Assembly  In case the state has legislative council- The chairman and the leader of the opposition of legislative council would also be the members of the committee The chairman or any other member is removable by the President on the charge of proved misbehavior or incapacity after a regular inquiry by a judge of the Supreme Court. National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) puts contingency plans in place to fight COVID-19 Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Disaster Management In News: NDRF was established in 2006 under The Disaster Management Act, 2005  It comes under Ministry of Home Affairs It is the only dedicated disaster response force in the world It works under National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) which lays down policies, plans and guidelines for disaster management. Capabilities for undertaking disaster response, prevention, mitigation and capacity building At present there are 12 battalions in NDRF (three each from the BSF and CRPF and two each from CISF, ITBP and SSB) which are deployed strategically across country to provide immediate response. All battalions have been equipped and trained to respond natural and man-made disasters including chemical, biological, radiological and nuclear (CBRN) emergencies. Rehabilitation of Beggars Part of: GS Prelims and GS-I- Society  In News: The Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment is exploring the possibilities of a scheme for persons engaged in the act of begging. The Scheme would cover identification, rehabilitation, provision of medical facilities, counselling, education, skill development with the support of State governments & NGOs. The Ministry provides funds to the National Backward Classes Finance & Development Corporation (NBCFDC) for skill development programmes for beggars About NBCFDC NBCFDC is a Government of India Undertaking under the aegis of Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. It was incorporated under Section 25 of the Companies Act 1956 on 13th January 1992 as a Company not for profit. Its objective is to promote economic and developmental activities for the benefit of Backward Classes and to assist the poorer section of these classes in skill development and self-employment ventures. Ibuprofen Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- health In News: WHO advised patients suffering from COVID-19-like symptoms to avoid the drug ibuprofen, unless prescribed by doctors. It is an anti-inflammatory drug that is easily available with chemists in India, and can be purchased without a doctor’s prescription.  Ibuprofen, a non-steroid, is used for relief from joint pain, migraine, fever, body ache, and even pain during the menstrual cycle.  Its function is to reduce pain, swelling, and fever by suppressing substances that produce swelling in the body.  Other non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs include aspirin, cortisone, naproxen and diclofenac. The National Commission for Indian System of Medicine Bill, 2019  Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Governance In News: The Bill was passed by Rajya Sabha The Bill seeks to repeal the Indian Medicine Central Council Act, 1970 and provides for a medical education system to ensure availability of quality medical professionals of Indian System of Medicine Key features of the bill are: The Bill provides for the establishment of the National Commission for Indian System of Medicine (NCISM).  The NCISM will consist of 29 members, appointed by the central government.  Functions of the NCISM include:  Framing policies for regulating medical institutions and medical professionals of Indian System of Medicine Assessing the requirements of healthcare related human resources and infrastructure Ensuring compliance by the State Medical Councils of Indian System of Medicine of the regulations made under the Bill Ensuring coordination among the autonomous boards set up under the Bill. Autonomous Boards: The bill sets the following boards under supervision of NCISM The Board of Ayurveda and the Board of Unani, Siddha, and Sowa-Rigpa The Medical Assessment and Rating Board for Indian System of Medicine: The Ethics and Medical Registration Board:  The central government will constitute an Advisory Council for Indian System of Medicine.  The Council will be the primary platform through which the states/union territories can put forth their views and concerns before the NCISM.  Entrance Exam: There will be a uniform National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test for admission to under-graduate education in each of the disciplines of the Indian System of Medicine in all medical institutions regulated by the Bill. (MAINS FOCUS) Indian Polity Topic: General Studies 2: Structure, organization and functioning of the Executive and the Judiciary  Separation of powers between various organs dispute redressal mechanisms and institutions. Judicial Propriety Context: Within five months of his retirement as Chief Justice of India, Justice Ranjan Gogoi has been nominated to the Rajya Sabha by the government.  Former CJI had presided over politically sensitive cases (Assam NRC, Sabarimala, Ayodhya, Rafale, CBI) in which the government was a party. This raises the question that, should judges stop accepting post-retirement jobs offered by the government, at least for a few years after retiring. Consequence of Post-retirement appointments of Judges of Higher Courts Post-retirement appointments mean that Judges, during his serving period, can get vulnerable to the ruling dispensation pressures so as to deliver the verdict in government’s favour in a quid-pro-quo arrangement. It is often feared that a judge who is nearing retirement could decide cases in a manner that pleases the government in order to get a favourable post-retirement position. It would signal that the judiciary is not independent, but is vulnerable to dictates of the executive Deteriorates the Public Perception about the integrity of the Judiciary.  The very fact that a judge accepts such an appointment could cast doubt on his judgements.  Independence of Judiciary The authority of the Supreme Court of India can be said to be resting on two things: The cogency of its reasoning, and the integrity of its judges. India has adopted the doctrine of Separation of Powers whereby Legialature, elected by people, makes laws; executive who is a part of Legislature (Parliamentary form of government) implements the laws and Judiciary interprets these laws The judiciary is the upholder of the Constitution and provides a check against executive excesses, arbitrariness, and unlawful steps. Being Guardian of Constitution, the judiciary has to be independent — insulated from pressures and inducements. Independence of the Judiciary is ensured by many constitutional provisions like Judges do not hold their offices at the “pleasure” of the President They can only be impeached by a special majority of both houses (Article 124(4)) of Parliament  Article 121 and 211 provides that there shall be no discussion in the legislature of the state with respect to the conduct of any judge of Supreme Court or of a High Court in the discharge of his duties The salaries and allowances of the judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India in case of Supreme Court judges Parliament can only add to the powers and jurisdiction of the Supreme Court but cannot curtail them Both the Supreme Court and the High Court have the power to punish any person for their contempt (Article 129 and 215) Is this the first time that such post-retirement appointment is taking place? No, retired judges have been appointed to political office since independence. In 1952, Justice Fazl Ali was appointed the Governor of Orissa, shortly after retiring from the Supreme Court. In 1958, Chief Justice M C Chagla resigned from the Bombay High Court in order to become India’s Ambassador to the US at Prime Minister Nehru’s invitation. In April 1967, Chief Justice Subba Rao resigned from the Supreme Court to contest elections for President. Justice Baharul Islam served as Judge of Supreme Court from 4th Dec 1980 to 12th Jan 1983. He contested elections as a Congress party candidate and was elected to the Rajya Sabha from 15th June 1983 to 14th June 1989. He gave a Judgement in the case absolving the then Congress Bihar Chief Minister Jagannath Mishra in the urban cooperative bank scanda Ranganath Mishra served as CJI 25 Sep 1990 to 24 Nov 1991. He was first Chairman of the NHRC in 1993 and a member of the Rajya Sabha on a Congress ticket from 1998 to 2004. He was the sole member of the Commission of Inquiry into the 1984 anti-Sikh riots which gave clean chit to Congress Party In more recent times, Chief Justice P Sathasivam was appointed the Governor of Kerala. Should Judges be prohibited from Post-retirement appointment? There is no explicit prohibition against judges accepting Rajya Sabha nominations In the Constituent Assembly, K T Shah, suggested that High Court and Supreme Court judges should not take up an executive office with the government, “so that no temptation should be available to a judge for greater emoluments, or greater prestige which would in any way affect his independence as a judge”. Article 124(7) of the Indian Constitution provides that a retired Supreme Court judge cannot “plead or act in any court or before any authority within the territory of India”.  However, this provision only restricts post-retirement appointments in Judiciary itself, but not in posts of president, governor, member of parliament, etc In its 14th report in 1958, the Law Commission noted that retired Supreme Court judges used to engage in two kinds of work after retirement: Firstly, “chamber practice” (a term which would, today, mean giving opinions to clients and serving as arbitrators in private disputes) and secondly, “employment in important positions under the government”. The Law Commission frowned upon chamber practice, but did not recommend its abolition. However, it strongly recommended banning post-retirement government employment for Supreme Court judges because the government was a large litigant in the courts. The Commission’s recommendations were never implemented. Challenges in prohibiting the post-retirement appointments: It is often thought that the solution to this problem requires explicit prohibition on any post-judicial appointment, including commissions of inquiry.  The solution is not that simple; after all, there are many positions that require judges to be appointed. Institutions like NHRC, SHRC, NGT, Lokpal often require appointment of Judges of Higher Court. Thus, a blanket prohibition will restrict the working of other important institutions of our Democracy Way Forward: Cooling-off period: Several appointments to administrative bodies require a cooling-off period for individuals so as to eliminate the possibility or suspicion of a conflict of interest or quid pro quo. This cooling-off period must be extended to Indian Judiciary. Former CJI R M Lodha recommended a cooling-off period of at least 2 years. The 16-point code of conduct for judges also called the “Restatement of Values of Judicial Life” -adopted at a Chief Justices Conference in May 1997- needs to be followed by Judges in letter and spirit Connecting the dots Post-retirement prohibitions on Election Commission of India Case of Justice Mohammad Hidayatullah who was appointed vice-president nine years after his tenure as CJI ended. Indian Polity Topic: General Studies 2: Parliament and State legislatures—structure, functioning, conduct of business, powers & privileges and issues arising out of these.  Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation. An SC verdict violative of minority rights Context: Supreme Court upheld the West Bengal Madrasah Service Commission Act, 2008. The court set aside a Calcutta High Court verdict which had held the legislation was unconstitutional What is the legislation all about? As per the provision of the act, the appointment of teachers in these theological institutions (Madrassas) shall now be made by a board nominated by the government. As per Section 10 of the act, all appointments of teachers to the religious schools are to be recommended by the commission and the management committee shall be bound by such recommendations.  Section 11 says that anyone appointed in contravention of this Act shall not be considered a teacher and such an appointment shall be invalid.  Section 12 empowers the government to deny grants to the schools that refuse to make appointments in accordance with such recommendations.  Further, government recognition and affiliation of such schools can be withdrawn, if government guidelines are not followed Why were cases filed against this law? Several petitions were filed in the court challenging the validity of the law, contending that the government, which funds or provides aid to the minority institutions, can formulate guidelines for appointments of teachers but cannot itself appoint them Also, the act violates Article 30 which stated that all minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. Additionally, the judgment by a three-judge bench in Chandana Das (2019) case gave the Sikh minority institutions of West Bengal the right to appoint teachers.  The dual test criterion In Rev. Sidharjbhai (1963), a six-judge bench of the Supreme Court observed that every government regulation in respect of a minority institution shall be valid only when it satisfies the dual test, i.e.,  It is regulative and not destructive of the organisation’s minority character  It makes the minority institution an effective vehicle of minority education. Other Judgements which upheld the Minority Institution’s right to appoint teachers & Staff Kerala Education Bill case (1957)  Rev. Father W. Proost (1969) Very Rev. Mother Provincial (1969) Ahmedabad St. Xaviers (1974) Bihar State Madrasa Education Board (1990), where the court observed “under the guise of regulating educational standards to secure efficiency in institution, the state is not entitled to frame rules or regulations compelling the management to surrender its right to administration”. In T.M.A. Pai (2003) An 11-judge bench reiterated that the management of minority institutions should have freedom in day-to-day affairs of the institutions, for example, in appointment of teaching and non-teaching staff and administrative control.  However, minimum qualifications, experience and other conditions may be fixed by the government. The apex court has been consistent in holding that the term includes rights of minority institutions to select their governing bodies, teachers and staff and exercise disciplinary control over them and a right to fix reasonable fees and admit students in a fair and transparent manner. Importance of Minority Rights Protection of minorities is the hallmark of a civilisation.  Lord Acton said: “The most certain test by which we judge whether a country is really free is the amount of security enjoyed by minorities. special safeguards were guaranteed to the minorities and incorporated under Article 30 with a view to instil in them a sense of confidence and security.  Also, in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), minority rights were held to be the part of basic structure of the Constitution. Minority rights and special privileges (like Article 30) is thus necessary to ensure a thriving and a vibrant Democracy Conclusion The Chief Justice of India has now referred this judgment to a larger bench where we need to see if the judgement is upheld or reversed. Connecting the dots Article 29 and its difference with Article 30 Is Article 30 absolute? Or is it limited by reasonable restrictions? (TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE) Model questions: (You can now post your answers in comment section) Note:  Correct answers of today’s questions will be provided in next day’s DNA section. Kindly refer to it and update your answers.  Comments Up-voted by IASbaba are also the “correct answers”. Q 1. Consider the following statements about State Human Rights Commission (SHRC) The tenure of the chairperson and members is five years or until they attain the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier.  The recommendations of SHRC are binding on the state government or authority. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 2. Which of the following is true regarding State Human Rights Commission (SHRC)? The commission has the power of a civil court and can take cognizance of cases if received within one year of occurrence. It can recommend compensation to victim, prosecution of accused. But such recommendations aren’t binding. It submits special or annual reports to state legislatures along with action taken on their recommendations and reasons for non acceptance of advice. All Q 3. Consider the following statements about National Disaster Response Force(NDRF) It comes under Ministry of Home Affairs It is the only dedicated disaster response force in the world Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 4. Consider the following statements about National Backward Classes Finance & Development Corporation (NBCFDC) It is a Government of India Undertaking under the aegis of Ministry of Finance Its objective is to promote economic and developmental activities for the benefit of Backward Classes and to assist the poorer section of these classes in skill development and self-employment ventures Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 5. Hyogo Framework and Sendai Framework often seen in news is related to which of the following? Disaster Management Prevention of trade in wildlife Money Laundering and Terrorism funding Conservation of Biodiversity ANSWERS FOR 18 March 2020 TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE (TYK) 1 B 2 D 3 C 4 B 5 A Must Read About COVID-19  The Hindu About UP govt’s move to proceed with Ayodhya Mela: The Hindu About US elections and Climate Change: The Hindu

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Healthy Kidney – Ayushman Bhava – RSTV IAS UPSC

Healthy Kidney Archives World Kidney Day: March 12 – to raise awareness of the importance of kidney health and preventive behaviours to reduce the risk of kidney disease. Kidneys are two vital organs that sit in your abdomen on either side of your backbone. They’re about the size of a fist and shaped like a bean. Filter your blood: They process your blood to sort out excess fluids, unwanted chemicals and waste, and turn these into urine.  Help regulate your blood pressure Balance the amount of water in your body Manage your body’s production of vitamin D Any changes to damage to your kidneys can cause these amazing organs to fail. Kidney stones are a painful condition. These stones are hard deposits that form inside the kidneys. A kidney stone can cause severe pain in the side and back and below the ribs. Chronic kidney disease (CKD) often has no signs or symptoms in the early stages. That’s why the majority of individuals with kidney disease tend to have symptoms in the later stages - when the kidneys are failing or when there are high levels of protein in the urine. Signs and symptoms of kidney failure: Too much or not enough urine Swelling of legs, ankles, feet Persistent nausea Vomiting Muscle cramps Itching Fatigue Pain or pressure in your chest Confusion Unexplained shortness of breath What causes kidney failure? There are several causes or conditions that can lead to kidney failure - with diabetes and high blood pressure being the most common cause of kidney failure, also known as end-stage renal disease or ESRD. Other factors that put you at an increased risk of kidney failure are: Heart disease or a heart attack A severe infection like sepsis Urinary tract problems Chemotherapy drugs that treat cancer and some autoimmune diseases Drug abuse Being overweight or obese Dehydration Kidney stones A family history of kidney disease How to prevent kidney failure There is a lot you can do to prevent or reduce your risk of kidney failure. Eat a healthy diet rich in fresh fruits, vegetables (citrus, calcium, plant based protein) Reduce your intake of salt to avoid high blood pressure Exercise regularly Lose weight if you’re overweight Keep your blood sugar, lipids under control Do not smoke or quit smoking Take medications as directed by your doctor Get tested for kidney disease especially if you’re at risk