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Creative Guidance – Why pursue a spiritual life? – Inspirational Educative Articles

Why pursue a spiritual life: External comforts such as a house, a car, and a job, can ease the constant struggles of life, in terms of survival and basic necessities. You can satisfy your physical body, to a certain extent, by pursuing these worldly desires. You can make people think, “Oh, he is in a much better position in life than me. He is enjoying his life a lot more than I am.” The true measure of your life, however, is in how you look at yourself, and what you are in your own eyes. Fortunately, our inner being cannot be satisfied by what we accomplish in the outer world. No matter how much we achieve in the outer world, a part of us keeps reminding us that we need to seek something different. That part of us reminds us that there is something more to the journey of life, and there is something more to us. Someone who has fully embraced a worldly lifestyle needs a spiritual path because they have paid no attention to the most important thing - themselves. They haven’t tried to understand who they are, the nature of their mind, or the nature of their body. Not everyone who is successful lacks an understanding of their mind and body, but that is usually how it is. Only a few rare individuals take care of their spiritual needs before achieving their worldly success. Those people are the happiest, because they have succeeded for themselves first, in their own eyes, and in their own understanding. They have understood clearly, “This is who I am, and this is what I want to do with my life.” “This article is a part of the creative endeavor of Meditation Farm and IASBABA.”

IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 14th March 2020

IAS UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 14th March 2020 Archives (PRELIMS + MAINS FOCUS) Essential Commodities Act Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Governance In News: Government puts masks and hand sanitisers under Essential Commodities Act. ECA enacted by Parliament in 1955 provides for the regulation and control of production, distribution and pricing of commodities which are declared as essential. Aim: Maintaining/increasing supplies/securing equitable distribution and availability of these commodities at fair prices.  The Centre can include new commodities as and when the need arises, and can take them off the list once the situation improves (in view of public interest). Once a notification is issued, anybody trading or dealing in a commodity, be it wholesalers, retailers or even importers are prevented from stockpiling it beyond a certain quantity States are the implementing agencies to EC Act, 1955  Circuit breaker Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Economy & Science & Technology In News: It was introduced by SEBI in 2001 to prevent crashes in Stock Exchange Market Circuit breakers are triggered to prevent markets from crashing, which happens when market participants start to panic induced by fears that their stocks are overvalued and decide to sell their stocks. This index-based market-wide circuit breaker system applies at three stages of the index movement, at 10, 15 and 20% When triggered, these circuit breakers bring about a coordinated trading halt in all equity and equity derivative markets nationwide.  Vivad se Viswas Bill Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Governance In News: The Parliament has given its nod to Direct Tax Vivad se Vishwas Bill, 2020. The Bill intends to provide a one-time opportunity to end disputes related to personal income tax and corporate tax. Under this scheme, taxpayers whose tax demands are locked in dispute in multiple forums, can pay due taxes by March 31, 2020, and get a complete waiver of interest and penalty. For payments made after March 31 and till June 30, a 10% penalty would be charged. However, cases above ₹5 crore have been excluded — large evasion-related and fraud cases — and they cannot take advantage of this scheme. The scheme aims to resolve 483,000 direct tax-related disputes pending in various appellate forums. As on the November 30, 2019, the disputed direct tax arrears amount to ₹9.32-lakh crore.  PM calls for SAARC videoconference on COVID-19 Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- International Affairs In News: The aim of the conference to discuss a common strategy to tackle COVID-19. SAARC has had no summit level meeting since 2014, and has been shelved since then due to India-Pakistan tensions Set up in 1985, SAARC was the first such grouping for the South Asian region. SAARC members include: Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka  While SAARC member-states occupy just 3% of the world’s landmass, they account for 21% of its population. SAARC secretariat is based in Kathmandu  Common eligibility test (CET) Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Governance In News: Government will have common test – CET-  for railway, bank, Central government jobs from 2021 The CET will replace the first level tests conducted by the Staff Selection Commission (SSC), the Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) and the Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS). To streamline the hiring process, Centre will set up an autonomous National Recruitment Agency to conduct the online test. There will be Common Portal for registration, single entrance fee and Common Curriculum Merits of having Common test are: Level playing field for all candidates by removing the obstacles involved in appearing for multiple examinations Reduced Chances of Paper Leak: A standardised question bank with multiple questions of similar difficulty levels will be created in a central server.  An algorithm will be used to jumble and dole out different questions, so that each candidate receives a different question paper, reducing the chances of cheating and paper leakage. Quick Process: Scores will be generated quickly, delivered online and be valid for a three-year period. Presently these exam cycle process takes on an average 6-12 months Huge Savings: For the recruiting agencies, the savings in terms of logistics will be huge. For more specialised positions, the CET will act as the preliminary elimination level, which can be followed by further testing by the separate agencies. One of the big concerns is language but the Centre has planned to make the test available in multiple languages including all those notified under Schedule 8 of the Constitution (MAINS FOCUS) Governance & Economy Topic: General Studies 3: Indian Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilization, of resources, growth, development and employment.  Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation. Insolvency Code: Debtors now resolve defaults in early stages About Insolvency & Bankruptcy Insolvency is the situation where the debtor is not in a position to pay back the creditor.  For a corporate firm, the signs of this could be a slow-down in sales, missing of payment deadlines etc.  Bankruptcy is the legal declaration of Insolvency.  Need of Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code (IBC) A unified code is essential because earlier the issue was handled under at least 13 different laws. Earlier, if a company defaults, there were at least four different legal routes available to the debtors and creditors - the high courts, the Company Law Board, the Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR), and the Debt Recovery Tribunals (DRTs) This could lead to multiple negotiations, multiple penalties etc. for the debtor, compounding his plight. The present morass of laws doesn’t help in easing the exit of trouble-prone entities, which made Chief Economic Adviser to GoI to compare the situation to Chakravyuh (where companies can easily enter but difficult to exit) In the background of rising NPAs, the easing of liquidation process can help the banks recover a lot of bad debts Salient features of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code: IBC was thus enacted in 2016 for reorganization and insolvency resolution of corporate persons, partnership firms and individuals in a time bound manner for maximization of the value of assets of such persons IBC Code 2016 covers all individuals, companies, Limited Liability Partnerships (LLPs) and partnership firms. The adjudicating authority is National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) for companies and LLPs and Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT) for individuals and partnership firms. Insolvency Professionals: A specialised cadre of licensed professionals is proposed to be created. These professionals will administer the resolution process, manage the assets of the debtor, and provide information for creditors to assist them in decision making. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board: The Board will regulate insolvency professionals, insolvency professional agencies and information utilities set up under the Code.  The Board will consist of representatives of Reserve Bank of India, and the Ministries of Finance, Corporate Affairs and Law. Working of IBC 200 companies who cumulatively owed Rs 4 lakh crore to creditors, had been rescued till December 2019 through resolution plans.  However, the realisable value of the assets available with them, when they entered the IBC process, was only Rs 0.8 lakh crore The IBC maximises the value of the existing assets, not of the assets which do not exist.  Under the IBC, the creditors recovered Rs 1.6 lakh crore, about 200 per cent of the realisable value of these companies Despite the recovery of 200% of the realisable value, the financial creditors had to take a haircut of 57 per cent as compared to their claims. As compared to other options, bank are recovering much better through IBC Criticism of IBC Although the IBC process has rescued 200 companies, it has sent 800 companies for liquidation.  The number of companies getting into liquidation is thus four times that of the companies being rescued.  Counter Arguments: Recovery is incidental under the IBC. Its primary objective is rescuing companies in distress The companies rescued had assets valued at Rs 0.8 lakh crore, while the companies referred for liquidation had assets valued at Rs 0.2 lakh crore when they entered the IBC process.  Thus, in value terms, assets that have been rescued are four times those sent for liquidation. It is important to note that of the companies rescued, one-third were either defunct or under BIFR, and of the companies sent for liquidation, three-fourths were either defunct or under BIFR. Real success of IBC The credible threat of the IBC process, that a company may change hands, has changed the behaviour of debtors.  Thousands of debtors are settling defaults at the early stages of the life cycle of a distressed asset. They are settling when default is imminent, on receipt of a notice for repayment  Only a few companies, who fail to address the distress in any of these stages, reach the liquidation stage At this stage, the value of the company is substantially eroded, and hence some of them would be rescued, while others are liquidated.  Conclusion The 25,000 applications filed so far under IBC indicate the value and trust that stakeholders place on the law — the ultimate test of its efficacy. (TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE) Model questions: (You can now post your answers in comment section) Note:  Correct answers of today’s questions will be provided in next day’s DNA section. Kindly refer to it and update your answers.  Comments Up-voted by IASbaba are also the “correct answers”. Q 1. Consider the following statements about Essential Commodities Act, 1955 It protects consumers against irrational spikes in prices of essential commodities. States are the implementing agencies to EC Act, 1955  Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 2. Consider the following statements about the proposed Common eligibility test (CET) The CET will replace the first level tests conducted by the Staff Selection Commission (SSC), the Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) and the Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS). It will be conducted by National Testing Agency.  Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 3. Consider the following statements about Circuit Breakers in Stock Exchanges In India, it was introduced by SEBI in 2009 in the wake of 2008 Global Financial crisis When triggered, these circuit breakers bring about a coordinated trading halt in all equity and equity derivative markets nationwide.  Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 4. Consider the following statements about Vivad Se Vishwas Scheme It is an indirect tax dispute resolution scheme that offers a fair deal to settle pending tax disputes Under this scheme, taxpayers whose tax demands are locked in dispute in multiple forums, can pay due taxes by March 31, 2020, and get a complete waiver of interest and penalty. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 5. Consider the following statements about SAARC SAARC member-states occupy just 3% of the world’s landmass, they account for 21% of its population. SAARC secretariat is based in New Delhi Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 ANSWERS FOR 13 March 2020 TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE (TYK) 1 B 2 C 3 B 4 B Must Read About Diaspora Diplomacy:  The Hindu About conflict in Puduchery Political Structure: The Hindu About Need for autonomy in Indian Universities:  The Hindu

AIR

Awareness over COVID 19 - All India Radio (AIR) IAS UPSC

Awareness over COVID 19 ARCHIVES Search 18th Feb, 2020 Spotlight here: http://www.newsonair.com/Main_Audio_Bulletins_Search.aspx  Topic: General Studies 2: Effect of policies and politics of developed and developing countries on India’s interests, Indian diaspora. Issues relating to development and management of Social Sector/Services relating to Health. What is Coronavirus? Coronaviruses are a large family of viruses which cause a range of diseases from the common cold to more severe ones like Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS). Coronavirus versus the flu: What’s the difference? Both COVID-19 and flu are viral-borne infections which primarily spread through human-to-human contact, such as by means of coughing, respiratory droplets and phlegm. The coronavirus and flu virus belong to different families. While the flu virus spreads through aerosol, it remains suspended in the air and the other person tends to catch it. On the other hand, coronavirus is more likely to spread by contact, for instance, touching the same surface According to WHO, COVID-19 and the flu are both contagious viruses that cause respiratory illness and lead to symptoms such as nausea, shortness of breath, chest congestion, rise in temperature and if it gets difficult to contain, lead to pneumonia. While symptoms can appear anywhere between three to four days for flu, it takes two to 14 days for coronavirus symptoms to appear. While symptoms for both include cough and cold, fever, runny nose, the only difference seen is when the sample is sent for testing. A polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test is done for flu where we test for the RNA (or Ribonucleic acid which is essential for any form of life) of the virus. For both the viruses, different PCR tests are done. Genotype of both the viruses are different. It can be differentiated only by lab tests, while clinically, it is next to impossible. Flu is seasonal. It takes place every year while no one knows of coronavirus — whether it is seasonal or not, because it’s a new infection Awareness over COVID 19 - All India Radio (AIR) IAS UPSC How to handle coronavirus (COVID-19) as a Country? In India, the National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC), state governments and WHO offices have established plans and procedures to detect and isolate the first cases of COVID-19 as they emerge. The country is working with customs and carriers to enhance health measures. The state governments have to identify, isolate and contain cases. Fifteen government laboratories have the approval to test for COVID-19 and another 19 are being prepared to test samples to ensure an adequate geographical spread across the country. Whenever the country faces public health emergencies, it is better to overreact and then scale back if necessary rather than under-react and then act too late. Here are the most important aspects of such planning required for the country. A robust surveillance system is important as the backbone for planning any action. The Centres for Disease Control in the United States (US) operates on five times higher budget than that of NCDC in India which caters to four times larger population. It is time the government prioritised the strengthening of the surveillance systems. The quantum of research and its progress regarding SARS-CoV-2 is unprecedented in the history of science and public health. In the coming days, more than 100 research projects will provide significant insights into which tests and drugs to use and finding a safe and effective vaccine. As a result, a vaccine against Covid-19 might be realised soon with the first set candidate vaccines entering phase 1 trials by next few weeks. In a recent article published in Vaccine, Matthew McKay and others report that no mutations are present in the SARS-CoV-2 and hence, it is possible to design a vaccine by immune targeting. Scientists at Novavax have announced that their recombinant protein nanoparticle technology platform can be used to generate antigens derived from the coronavirus spike protein. The therapy currently consists of supportive care. No drug has yet been approved to treat coronavirus infections in humans. If everything goes well, new drugs can be developed and deployed by 2021. These drugs are targeted for other strains of virus that have not yet been identified in causing outbreaks. For example, there are drugs tested to act on a spike-shaped protein on the surface of these viruses. However, we need to be cautious as all the ongoing studies are in nascent stages and have to go through several phases before they are available for human use. However, several of the drugs already approved for other antiviral indications are being tested and are in advanced stages.  Intravenous hyperimmune globulin, by concentrating the pathogen-specific antibodies from plasma collected from recovered patients, can be helpful in reducing the severity of illness. Some research groups in China have found antibodies can act on the spike proteins, preventing coronaviruses from attacking human cells. As we move forward, the drugs, diagnostics and vaccines can be evaluated in scientifically and ethically sound studies with the evolving phases of outbreak. The governments need to step up investments and actions to conduct research in tackling COVID-19. Note: World Health Organization (WHO) gave an official name to the disease caused by the novel coronavirus. The disease will be called “COVID-19”; the “CO” stands for coronavirus, “VI” for virus and “D” for disease. The coronavirus itself is called “nCoV-2019”.

60 DAYS PROGRAMME-PRELIMS 2020

IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan- IAS Prelims Test Series 2020 ENVIRONMENT & CURRENT AFFAIRS [Day 12]

Hello Friends,  https://www.youtube.com/embed/x5ldu2jV8N0 ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS The 60 Days Training has finally begun:) DAY 12 is here! Before any competition, there is a preparatory phase. That phase involves a lot of sessions on strengths and weaknesses. Throughout the preparatory phase, the athletes train in a gradual manner. In the last phase, just before the actual competition, the training is done so as to sharpen their skills. This training requires complete focus and dedication. In this phase, the athletes do not try anything new or train in a new fashion rather focus on the sharpening of skills, focusing on strength and precision. Similarly, the upcoming 60 days, is like the last phase (training session), just before the actual competition. Here, the focus should be on sharpening the concepts, consolidating the knowledge base and solidifying the learning with loads and loads of revision. You will come across many distractions in between in the name of sources and resources (exclusive and inclusive), beware of them. Be alert and objective in selecting your companions in this preparation. Trust your effort and revise more than falling prey to multiple resources and doing nothing in the end. Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity.  Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (5 PM), cross-check the answers and again, comment the marks (you got) in the same comment thread. This will keep you responsible and sincere in days to come. Also, we need more sets of scores for releasing the cut offs in the night so, requesting all of you to sincerely put your scores in comment section.    You can also take part in discussion with peers.   Q.1) Deep sea – Hydrothermal vents were recently discovered by the scientist. Consider following statements about Hydrothermal ecosystems? Only micro organisms can survive in this environment. The organisms are not dependent on sunlight for food production. Bacteria create energy using hydrogen sulphide through the process of chemosynthesis Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3. Q.1) गहरे समुद्री - जल तापीय झरोखे (Deep sea – Hydrothermal vents) को हाल ही में वैज्ञानिक ने खोजा था। जल-तापीय पारिस्थितिकी प्रणालियों के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें? इस वातावरण में केवल सूक्ष्म जीव ही जीवित रह सकते हैं। खाद्य उत्पादन के लिए जीव सूर्य के प्रकाश पर निर्भर नहीं हैं। बैक्टीरिया रसोसंश्‍लेषण (chemosynthesis) की प्रक्रिया के माध्यम से हाइड्रोजन सल्फाइड का उपयोग करके ऊर्जा बनाते हैं उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3  1, 2 और 3 Q.2) The physical characteristics that effect ecological diversity are? Interaction of one species with other in ecosystem Temperature Precipitation Topography Taxanomic diversity Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 , 2 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only All of the above. Q.2) पारिस्थितिक विविधता को प्रभावित करने वाली भौतिक विशेषताएँ हैं? पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र में अन्य के साथ एक प्रजाति की अंतःक्रिया  तापमान वर्षण (Precipitation) स्थलाकृति (Topography) प्रजातीय विविधता (Taxanomic diversity) उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1, 2 और 3 केवल 2, 3 और 4  उपरोक्त सभी Q.3) With respect to changes in ecosystem, Disturbances in ecosystem may lead to Loss of biodiversity. Increase in species richness of ecosystem. Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.3) पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र में परिवर्तन के संबंध में, पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र में असंतुलन से हो सकता है जैव विविधता की हानि  पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र की प्रजातीय समृद्धता में वृद्धि उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.4) Consider the following statements: Physical characteristics of an area will significantly influence the diversity of the species within a community Organisms can also modify the physical characteristics of the ecosystem. Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.4) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: एक क्षेत्र की भौतिक विशेषताएं एक समुदाय के भीतर प्रजातियों की विविधता को काफी प्रभावित करेगी जीव पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र की भौतिक विशेषताओं को भी संशोधित कर सकते हैं। उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.5) The limiting factor of terrestrial ecosystem are? Moisture Temperature Soil Altitude Choose correct option from below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only All of the above. Q.5) स्थलीय पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र के सीमितकारी कारक (limiting factor) हैं? आद्रता  तापमान मृदा  ऊंचाई (Altitude) नीचे से सही विकल्प चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 1, 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.6) Ecosystems are important to sustain life on earth, they provide? Food, fibre and fuel Pollination Flood control Security against draught Choose correct option from below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3only 3 and 4 only All of the above Q.6) पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र पृथ्वी पर जीवन को बनाए रखने के लिए महत्वपूर्ण हैं, वे प्रदान करते हैं? भोजन, फाइबर और ईंधन परागण बाढ़ नियंत्रण सूखे के विरुद्ध सुरक्षा नीचे से सही विकल्प चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 3 और 4 उपरोक्त सभी Q.7) Consider the following pairs: Type of ecosystem          Type of pyramid Forest ecosystem     : Inverted for numbers Aquatic ecosystem    : Inverted for Biomass Grassland ecosystem  : Inverted for energy Which of the above statement is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 and 3only 3 only All of the above Q.7) निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार करें: पारिस्थितिक तंत्र का प्रकार : पिरामिड का प्रकार वन पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र: संख्याओं के लिए उलटा जलीय पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र: जैवभार (बायोमास) के लिए उल्टा चारागाह पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र: ऊर्जा के लिए उलटा उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन गलत है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.8) With reference to threat of Desertification across globe. Consider the following statements: Desertification is permanent degradation of land that was once arable The UNCCD has also promoted the Great Green Wall Initiative, to combat desertification. More than 50 percent of Earth's land area is already degraded. Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only All of the above Q.8) विश्व भर में मरुस्थलीकरण के खतरे के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: मरुस्थलीकरण भूमि का स्थायी निम्नीकरण है, जो कभी कृषि योग्य थी मरुस्थलीकरण से निपटने के लिए UNCCD ने ग्रेट ग्रीन वॉल इनिशिएटिव को भी बढ़ावा दिया है। पृथ्वी का 50 प्रतिशत से अधिक भू-भाग अभी तक निम्नीकृत हो चूका है। उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.9) Consider the following pairs: Aquatic organisms           Characteristics Neuston      : These are unattached organisms, living at air-water interface Periphyton    : This group contains animals , which are swimmers  Nekton       : Organisms which remain attached to stems and leaves Benthos      : Found living at the bottom of water masses Which of the above is/are incorrectly matched? 1 only 2 and 4only  2 and 3 only 1 ,3 and 4 only Q.9) निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार करें:                जलीय जीव :                            लक्षण पटलक (Neuston): ये असंबद्ध जीव हैं, जो हवा-पानी की अंतर्क्रिया पर जीवित रहते हैं परिपाद (Periphyton): इस समूह में जीव होते हैं, जो तैर सकते हैं नेक्टन (Nekton): जीव, जो तनों और पत्तियों से जुड़े रहते हैं नितल जीवसमूह (Benthos): जल निकाय के तल में रहने वाले उपरोक्त में से कौन गलत रूप से मेल खाते हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 और 4  केवल 2 और 3  केवल 1, 3 और 4 Q.10) Recently government of India changed coastal regulation zone guidelines. Which of the below statements is/are correct? It was issued under the Environment Protection Act, 1986 by Ministry of Environment and Forests. CRZ-1 is ecologically sensitive area, this lies between high tide line and shore line CRZ-1 and CRZ-IV are approved by states and others by central environmental ministry. Choose correct option from below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only All of the above Q.10) हाल ही में, भारत सरकार ने तटीय विनियमन क्षेत्र दिशानिर्देशों में बदलाव किए हैं। नीचे दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? यह पर्यावरण और वन मंत्रालय द्वारा पर्यावरण संरक्षण अधिनियम, 1986 के तहत जारी किया गया था। CRZ-1 पारिस्थितिक रूप से संवेदनशील क्षेत्र है, यह उच्च ज्वार रेखा और तट रेखा के बीच स्थित है CRZ-1 और CRZ-IV राज्यों द्वारा तथा अन्य केंद्रीय पर्यावरण मंत्रालय द्वारा अनुमोदित होते हैं। नीचे से सही विकल्प चुनें: केवल 1 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.11) Bonn challenge is related with? Land degradation Migratory species Biologically hazardous components Wetland conservation Q.11) बॉन चैलेंज (Bonn challenge) किससे संबंधित है? भूमि निम्नीकरण  प्रवासी प्रजातियां जैविक रूप से खतरनाक घटक आद्रभूमि संरक्षण Q.12) Eutrophication is a process that involves: Increase in concentration of nutrients at each trophic level Eutrophication is an enrichment of water bodies by nutrient salts Decrease in ecological footprint in ecosystem Decrease in biological oxygen demand Q.12)  सुपोषण (Eutrophication) एक प्रक्रिया है, जिसमें शामिल हैं: प्रत्येक ट्राफिक स्तर पर पोषक तत्वों की एकाग्रता में वृद्धि सुपोषण पोषक तत्वों द्वारा जल निकायों का संवर्धन है पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र में पारिस्थितिक पदचिह्न (ecological footprint) में कमी जैविक ऑक्सीजन मांग में कमी Q.13) Factors limiting the productivity of aquatic Habitats are? Sunlight Dissolved oxygen Transparency of water Water temperature Choose correct option from below: 1 and 2only 2 only 1 2, and 3 only All of the above Q.13) जलीय आवास की उत्पादकता को सीमित करने वाले कारक हैं? सूर्य का प्रकाश  घुलित ऑक्सीजन पानी की पारदर्शिता पानी का तापमान नीचे से सही विकल्प चुनें: केवल 1 और 2  केवल 2  केवल 1 2, और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.14) Wetland ecosystems can be regarded as? Terrestrial ecosystem Ecotone Aquatic ecosystem Both b) and c) Q.14) आद्रभूमि पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र के रूप में कौन माना जा सकता है? स्थलीय पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र इकोटोन (Ecotone) जलीय पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र दोनों (b) और (c) Q.15) In the context of falling fish stocks in oceans. The unregulated and unscientific fishing is the major cause leading to this situation. Which of the below are harmful practices? Cynide fishing Bottom trawling By catch Dynamite fishing Muro-ami Choose correct option from below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 3, 4 and 5only All of the above. Q.15) महासागरों में मछली का स्तर (fish stocks) गिरने के संदर्भ में, अनियमित और अवैज्ञानिक रूप से मछली पकड़ना इस स्थिति का प्रमुख कारण है। निम्न में से कौन सी हानिकारक प्रथाएं हैं? साइनाइड से मछली पकड़ना (Cynide fishing) गहरी ट्रॉलिंग (Bottom trawling)  सीधे पकड़ना  डायनामाइट से मछलियों को मार कर पकड़ना (Dynamite fishing) मुरो-अमी (Muro-ami) नीचे से सही विकल्प चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2  केवल 3, 4 और 5 उपरोक्त सभी Q.16) ISFR-2019 has reported increase in forest cover. In this context arrange type of forest given below in descending order of their geographical extent Tropical evergreen forests Tropical moist deciduous forests Tropical dry deciduous forests Subtropical dry evergreen forests Choose correct option from below: 1-2-3-4 2-3-1-4  3-2-1-4  4-3-2-1  Q.16) ISFR-2019 ने वन आवरण में वृद्धि की सूचना दी है। इस संदर्भ में नीचे दिए गए वन के प्रकार को उनकी भौगोलिक सीमा के अवरोही क्रम में व्यवस्थित करें उष्णकटिबंधीय सदाबहार वन उष्णकटिबंधीय आद्र पर्णपाती वन उष्णकटिबंधीय शुष्क पर्णपाती वन उपोष्णकटिबंधीय शुष्क सदाबहार वन नीचे से सही विकल्प चुनें: 1-2-3-4 2-3-1-4 3-2-1-4 4-3-2-1 Q.17) Mangroves play important role in coastal ecology. Consider the following statements: Mangroves can be found in all tropical, sub-tropical and temperate regions of the world Mangroves extent increased according to ISFR-2019 They act as physical barriers against storm surges in coastal areas. Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 and 2only 2 only 2 and 3 only All of the above Q.17) मैंग्रोव तटीय पारिस्थितिकी में महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाते हैं। निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: मैंग्रोव विश्व के सभी उष्णकटिबंधीय, उपोष्णकटिबंधीय और समशीतोष्ण क्षेत्रों में पाए जा सकते हैं ISFR-2019 के अनुसार मैंग्रोव की सीमा बढ़ गई है  वे तटीय क्षेत्रों में तूफान बढ़ने के विरुद्ध भौतिक बाधाओं के रूप में कार्य करते हैं। उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2  केवल 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.18) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding ‘Biodiversity Hotspot’? A region to qualify as Biodiversity hotspot must have at least 1,500 vascular plants as endemics and 30% or less of its original natural vegetation. Conservation International was a pioneer in defining and promoting the concept of hotspots. In 1989. Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.18) ‘जैव विविधता हॉटस्पॉट’ के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है / हैं? जैव विविधता हॉटस्पॉट के रूप में अर्हता प्राप्त करने के लिए एक क्षेत्र में स्थानिक के रूप में कम से कम 1,500 संवहनी पौधे तथा इसकी मूल प्राकृतिक वनस्पति का 30% या उससे कम होने चाहिए। 1989 में कंज़र्वेशन इंटरनेशनल, हॉटस्पॉट की अवधारणा को परिभाषित करने और बढ़ावा देने में एक अग्रणी था। उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.19) Corals reefs ecosystem are known for their rich biodiversity. Consider the following statements with respect to coral ecosystem Coral ecosystem is found only in tropical and sub-tropical regions The coral polyps live symbiotically with algae that provides them with their food Disease, temperature extremes and pollution can cause coral bleaching Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only All of the above. Q.19) प्रवाल भित्ति पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र (Corals reefs ecosystem) को उनकी समृद्ध जैव विविधता के लिए जाना जाता है। प्रवाल पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें प्रवाल पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र केवल उष्णकटिबंधीय और उपोष्णकटिबंधीय क्षेत्रों में पाया जाता है प्रवाल पॉलीप्स (coral polyps) शैवाल के साथ सहजीवी रूप से रहते हैं, जो उन्हें भोजन प्रदान करता है रोग, तापमान चरम सीमा और प्रदूषण प्रवाल विरंजन का कारण बन सकता है उपरोक्त कथन में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 और 3  केवल 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.20) The regions where corals are found in India are? Gulf of kutch Gulf of mannar Ganges delta Lakshadweep Islands Andaman and Nicobar Islands Choose correct option from below: 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 3, 4 and 5 only All of the above Q.20) भारत में प्रवाल (corals) कहाँ पाए जाते हैं? कच्छ की खाड़ी मन्नार की खाड़ी गंगा डेल्टा लक्षद्वीप द्वीपसमूह अंडमान व नोकोबार द्वीप समूह नीचे से सही विकल्प चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1, 2 और 3 केवल 1, 3, 4 और 5 उपरोक्त सभी Q.21) ‘West Bank’ is bordered by Israel Jordan Palestine Select the correct code: 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 3 All of the above Q.21) 'वेस्ट बैंक' से किसकी सीमा लगती है? इजराइल जॉर्डन फिलिस्तीन सही कूट का चयन करें: 1 और 2 2 और 3 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.22) Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to ‘Yemen’? It is bordered by two countries only. It opens to the Persian Gulf and Strait of Hormuz. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.22) ‘यमन’ के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है / हैं? यह केवल दो देशों द्वारा सीमाबद्ध है। इसकी सीमा फारस की खाड़ी और होर्मुज जलडमरूमध्य में खुलती है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.23) ‘Kvanefjeld project’ is located in  Russia Greenland Great Britain Canada Q.23) ‘वेनफील्ड परियोजना’ (Kvanefjeld project) कहाँ स्थित है रूस ग्रीनलैंड ग्रेट ब्रिटेन कनाडा Q.24) Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?          Harvest Festival    State Nuakhai – Odisha Hareli – Maharashtra Tokhu Emong – Manipur Select the correct code: 1 Only 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 3 Q.24) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा युग्म सही रूप से सुमेलित है / हैं?       शस्योत्सव (Harvest Festival ) - राज्य  नुआखाई  - ओडिशा हरेली - महाराष्ट्र तोखू इमोंग - मणिपुर सही कूट का चयन करें: केवल 1 1 और 2 2 और 3 1 और 3 Q.25) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Amazon Fund’. It aims to raise donations for non-reimbursable investments in efforts to prevent, monitor and combat deforestation, as well as to promote the preservation and sustainable use of forests in the Amazon Biome. The fund is a REDD+ mechanism managed by the UN Environment. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.25) 'अमेज़ॅन कोष' (Amazon Fund) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। इसका उद्देश्य वनों की कटाई को रोकने, निगरानी और मुकाबला करने के प्रयासों के साथ-साथ अमेज़ॅन बायोम में वनों के संरक्षण और सतत उपयोग को बढ़ावा देने के लिए गैर-प्रतिपूर्ति योग्य निवेश के लिए दान करना है। संयुक्त राष्ट्र पर्यावरण द्वारा प्रबंधित कोष एक REDD+ तंत्र है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.26) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Comprehensive Nuclear-Test–Ban Treaty (CTBT)’ It bans nuclear explosions for military purposes, in all environments but permits for civilian purpose. India is a signatory to the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test–Ban Treaty (CTBT). Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.26) ‘व्यापक परमाणु-परीक्षण-प्रतिबंध संधि (CTBT)’ के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। यह सभी वातावरणों में सैन्य उद्देश्यों के लिए परमाणु विस्फोट पर प्रतिबंध लगाता है, लेकिन नागरिक उद्देश्य के लिए अनुमति देता है। भारत व्यापक परमाणु-परीक्षण-प्रतिबंध संधि (CTBT) का हस्ताक्षरकर्ता है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.27) Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Shani Shingnapur – Maharashtra Kapil Muni Temple – Odisha Arulmigu Dhandayuthapani Swamy Temple – Tamil Nadu Select the correct code: 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 3 All of the above Q.27) निम्न में से कौन सा युग्म सही ढंग से सुमेलित है? शनि शिंगनापुर - महाराष्ट्र कपिल मुनि मंदिर - ओडिशा अरुलमिगु धांडुयुतपानी स्वामी मंदिर - तमिलनाडु सही कूट का चयन करें: 1 और 2 2 और 3 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.28) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘The Special Protection Group (SPG)’. It was formed aftermath the 2001 Indian Parliament attack. It provides security only to the Prime Minister of India and their immediate family members. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.28) 'विशेष सुरक्षा समूह (SPG)' के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। इसका गठन 2001 के भारतीय संसद हमले के बाद किया गया था। यह केवल भारत के प्रधान मंत्री और उनके तत्काल परिवार के सदस्यों को सुरक्षा प्रदान करता है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.29) ‘Biarritz Declaration’ is associated with Group of Seven (G7) MERCOSUR ASEAN India–Africa Forum Summit (IAFS) Q.29) ‘बिरिट्ज़ घोषणा’ (Biarritz Declaration) किससे संबद्ध है ग्रुप ऑफ़ सेवन (G7) मर्कोसुर (MERCOSUR) आसियान भारत-अफ्रीका फोरम शिखर सम्मेलन (IAFS) Q.30) ‘Lima Declaration’ is associated with  International Solar Alliance Non-Proliferation Treaty United Nations Industrial Development Organization United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change Q.30) ‘लीमा घोषणा' किससे संबद्ध है अंतर्राष्ट्रीय सौर गठबंधन परमाणु अप्रसार संधि (Non-Proliferation Treaty) संयुक्त राष्ट्र औद्योगिक विकास संगठन जलवायु परिवर्तन पर संयुक्त राष्ट्र फ्रेमवर्क कन्वेंशन DOWNLOAD THE SOLUTION ENGLISH HINDI NOTE- Follow this for Comments Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test After the release of Solution Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect. What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?   One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are: Lack of information Lack of analytical ability Silly mistakes Excessive risk-taking Let’s analyze them one by one: Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances. You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it. This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination. Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise: Micro Analysis Matrix Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S Scale 1: Information meter (1) Scale 2: Analysis meter (2) Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3) Scale 4: Risk meter (4) Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation: Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion: Micro Analysis Matrix- Day 1/ Polity/ Constitutional History Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) 3 1 2 2 8 Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S 3 2 6 8 19 Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale: Information meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late. Analysis meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions. Anxiety meter < 3 Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident. Risk meter < 8 Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind. Total N x S score < 20 Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going. This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better. Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours. We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS! Importance of self - tracking: We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program. Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting! Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2020    All the Best! IASbaba

Motivational Articles

Creative Guidance: Book Review – Legends and Lore of the American Indians – Confucius

Legends and Lore of the American Indians: Ancient cultures have a treasure trove of unbelievable secrets to reveal. Their mystical insights and understanding of life can surprise our modern minds in their depth of clarity and perception. In spite of all our modern accomplishments and achievements we are yet to answer some of the most fundamental questions about life. This book explores the life and teachings of the Native American Indians. The Native American culture is perhaps one of the best known story telling cultures of the world. Their deep understanding of life is presented in mystical and allegorical form that stimulates one to think differently. Logic, reasoning and structured thinking are very useful modern tools, but they cannot reveal some of the most intimate secrets of life. Allegory and story-telling cultures still preserve some of the best known secrets of who we are, where we have come from, and what is our purpose of life. This is a must read if you are thirsty for some ancient wisdom.

IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 13th March 2020

IAS UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 13th March 2020 Archives (PRELIMS + MAINS FOCUS) Crime Multi Agency Centre (Cri-MAC) Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Security In News: A Crime Multi Agency Centre (Cri-MAC) aims to share information between various police forces on heinous crimes. The Cri-MAC is meant to share information on heinous crimes and other issues related to inter-state coordination.  R-naught Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Health In News: The R-naught, or R0, is a virus’s basic reproductive number — an epidemiologic metric used to describe the contagiousness of infectious agents. At its simplest, the basic reproductive number can show us how worried we should be about infection  If the R0 is above one, each case is expected to infect at least one other person on average, and the virus is likely to keep spreading.  If it’s less than one, a group of infected people are less likely to spread the infection. Dollar Swap Window Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Economy In News: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has opened a six-month dollar sell-buy swap window to pump liquidity in the foreign exchange market Financial markets worldwide are facing intense selling pressures on extreme risk aversion due to the spread of COVID-19 infections, compounded by the slump in international crude prices. Investors dump assets in their flight to safety and thus the demand for the US dollar has been surging across the word resulting in USD shortage. As a result, several emerging market currencies including INR experiencing downside pressures. The central bank is set to auction $2 billion where banks can deposit Indian rupees to get US dollar for a price. These funds would be available for six months Did You Know?  The Indian rupee has fallen 4.07% this year as foreign investors sell domestic securities aggregating Rs. Rs. 23,237 crores. It has aggravated in the past two weeks as the pandemic panic spread. The current account is expected to move to surplus in the March quarter due to a plunge in crude oil prices NPR- No Doubtful Category Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Governance In News: Home Minister assured Parliament that no participant in the process will be marked ‘doubtful’ in case he or she is unable to provide the information sought. The Home minister also stated that “No document is being asked. All information is voluntary. Whatever information a participant wants to share will be recorded”  NPR is a register of usual residents of the country. It includes both Indian citizens as well as a foreign citizen. According to the Citizenship Rules, 2003, a usual resident is a person who has resided (or intends to reside) in a local area for the past 6 months  Committee recommends monetising weather data Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Governance In News: Parliamentary committee on science, technology and environment recommended that the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) should explore monetisation of the weather data. The panel suggested that MoES could charge private users such as insurance companies that rely on data and information put out by the Ministry The India Meteorological Department, an organisation under the MoES, is tasked with gathering, analysing and disseminating meteorological data. Did You Know? The MoES had been allotted ₹2070 crore for financial year 2020-21 up from ₹1901 crore last year. MoES didn't have funds to acquire a Polar Research Vessel, as well as kickstart the Deep Ocean Mission. The mission proposes to explore the deep ocean similar to the space exploration started by ISRO about 35 years ago. India has been allotted a site of 75,000 sq. km. in the Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB) by the UN International Sea Bed Authority for exploitation of polymetallic nodules (PMN). PMN are rocks scattered on the seabed containing iron, manganese, nickel and cobalt. It has been estimated that 380 million metric tonnes of polymetallic nodules are available at the bottom of the seas in the Central Indian Ocean NIDHI COMPANY Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Economy In News: The government has given up to one-year time for Nidhi companies to update their details as per the updated rules. A Nidhi company is a type of company in the Indian non-banking finance sector, recognized under section 406 of the Companies Act, 2013.  Their core business is borrowing and lending money between their members. They are regulated by Ministry of Corporate Affairs.  They have to comply with two set of norms, one of Public limited company as per Companies Act, 2013 and another is for Nidhi rules, 2014.  90 yrs of salt movement Part of: GS Prelims and GS-I- Modern History In News: The salt movement led by Gandhi started on March 12 in 1930, from Sabarmati Ashram to the coastal village of Dandi (240 miles) The Salt March is also known as the Dandi March and the Dandi Satyagraha. Objective:  To produce salt from the seawater in the coastal village of Dandi, as was the practice of the local populace until British officials introduced taxation on salt production and deemed their sea-salt reclamation activities illegal. It was a direct-action campaign of tax resistance and nonviolent protest against the British salt monopoly under the 1882 British Salt Act.  The march directly followed the Poorna Swaraj declaration of sovereignty and self-rule by the Indian National Congress on 26 January 1930.  The then Viceroy, Lord Irwin was hardly perturbed by the threat of a salt protest and the government did nothing to prevent the salt march from taking place. The salt tax accounted for 8.2% of the British Raj revenue from tax  When Gandhi broke the salt laws on 6 April 1930, it sparked large scale acts of civil disobedience against the British Raj salt laws by millions of Indians.  As per the Gandhi-Irwin Pact Indians were allowed to make salt for domestic use (MAINS FOCUS) Governance Topic: General Studies 2: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation.  MSP & Direct benefit transfer  - Punjab Case Study Context: Government plans to implement direct benefit transfer (DBT) in MSP payments in Punjab starting with the wheat crop that will arrive in the mandis from April. The current system Minimum Support Prices (MSP) are announced by Central Government on recommendation of Commission on Agricultural costs and Prices (CACP) The Food Corporation of India and state agencies undertake grain procurement through commission agents in APMC mandis The payment is made into the agent’s account, who then makes a payment to farmer who sells the produce to him. Situation in Punjab State Punjab has some 48,000 of these mandi intermediaries, of which 28,000-odd are active and each dealing with anywhere from 20 to 200 farmers. In 2018-19 alone, 169.16 lakh tonnes (lt) of paddy and 129.12 lt of wheat got procured from Punjab.  These, at their respective MSPs of Rs 1,770 and Rs 1,840 per quintal, would have been worth almost Rs 53,700 crore At 2.5%, the commission payments over and above this to the commission agents would have been around Rs 1,342.5 crore. Also, landless tenants represented an estimated 30-35% of Punjab’s farmers who cultivate land belonging to others that include government employees, NRIs and permanent urban residents within and outside the state. Concerns of Landless tenants Not being either the owner or a registered tenant farmer means that they cannot access any crop credit from the local primary agricultural cooperative society,  They even cannot benefit from the government’s loan waiver  Not eligible for the Centre’s Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-Kisan) income support schemes Under PM-Kisan, there are 22.40 lakh farmers in Punjab receiving annual income support of Rs 6,000 each which includes only landowning farmers Even at the time of sale at the agriculture produce market committee (APMC) mandi the documents (‘J form’) which gives details of the crop, quantity and price, mentions only the name of the landowner. DBT for MSP The Punjab government, at the nudging of the Centre, has made it compulsory for agents to provide bank and Aadhaar numbers of all their farmers.  This data is to be linked to the Centre’s Public Financial Management System (PFMS) network, which will enable direct payment of MSP monies into the accounts of farmers rather than that of the agents For collecting the details of landless farmers, the government is, therefore, relying on the agents.  Challenges/Opposition to DBT Tenants: 30-35% of Punjab’s farmers are unregistered landless tenant farmers. As a result, even though they are the actual cultivators, they would not be eligible (lack of necessary documents) to receive MSP money into their accounts If MSP payment is transferred directly into bank accounts, only the landowners will benefit. Commission Agents: They, of course, are least inclined to support the scheme as they stand to loose their 2.5% commission fee on MSP procurement. Also, their power and role in the entire supply chains gets diminished It was commission agents in APMC mandis who used to provide loans to landless tenants to raise their crops. Hence, if the government reduces the role of agent it will inturn impact their ability to provide loans to tenants. This affects the working capital availability for these tenants Way forward Conducting a single census on landless farmers in the state Ensuring the regularisation of the tenancy. This means flexibility in State tenancy laws. Adoption of Model Tenancy Act of Centre would be a step in the right direction. Connecting the dots DBT in fertilizers Food Coupons Vs Subsidised food provision Price deficiency Payment Scheme (TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE) Model questions: (You can now post your answers in comment section) Note:  Correct answers of today’s questions will be provided in next day’s DNA section. Kindly refer to it and update your answers.  Comments Up-voted by IASbaba are also the “correct answers”. Q 1. Consider the following statements about India Meteorological Department It is an agency of the Ministry of Science & Technology of the Government of India. It is the principal agency responsible for meteorological observations, weather forecasting and seismology Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 2. Consider the following statements about Nidhi Companies Their core business is borrowing and lending money between their members. They are regulated by Ministry of Corporate Affairs.  Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 3. Consider the following statements about National Population Register (NPR) It is applicable only for citizens and not for foreigners NPR exercise will be conducted by office of the Registrar General of India (RGI) under the Union Home Ministry. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 4. R-naught often seen in news is related to which area? Earthquake measurement Contagiousness of infectious agents. Marine pollution metric by ships None of the above ANSWERS FOR 12 March 2020 TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE (TYK) 1 B 2 B 3 A 4 C Must Read About banking Stress:  The Hindu About COVID-19:  The Hindu

RSTV Video

Facial Recognition - Uses & Concerns – The Big Picture – RSTV IAS UPSC

Facial Recognition - Uses & Concerns Archives Topic: General Studies 2: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation. Awareness in the fields of IT In News: Approval has been given for Automated Facial Recognition System by National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) Will use police records and will be accessible only to Law Enforcement Agencies Will facilitate better identification of criminals, unidentified dead bodies and missing/found children and persons Will not violate privacy What is Facial recognition? Facial recognition is a biometric technology that uses distinctive features on the face to identify and distinguish an individual. From the first cameras that could recognise faces in the mid-1960s up to now, facial recognition has evolved in many ways — from looking at 3D contours of a face to recognising skin patterns. With machine learning, the technology has become capable of sorting out types of faces. It’s there on Facebook, tagging photos from the class reunion, your cousin’s wedding and the office summer party. Google, Microsoft, Apple and others have built it into apps to compile albums of people who hang out together. How does it work? First off, the computer has to learn what a face is. This can be done by training an algorithm, usually a deep neural network, on a vast number of photos that have faces in known positions. Each time the algorithm is presented with an image, it estimates where the face is. The network will be rubbish at first, like a drunk playing pin the tail on the donkey. But if this is done multiple times, the algorithm improves and eventually masters the art of spotting a face. This is the face detection step. Next up is the recognition part. This is done in various ways, but it’s common to use a second neural network. It is fed a series of face pictures and learns – over many rounds – how best to tell one from another. Some algorithms explicitly map the face, measuring the distances between the eyes, nose and mouth and so on. Others map the face using more abstract features. Either way, the network outputs a vector for each face – a string of numbers that uniquely identifies the person among all the others in the training set. In live deployments, the software goes to work on video footage in real time. The computer scans frames of video usually captured at crowd pinch points, such as entrances to football stadiums. It first detects the faces in a frame, then churns out vectors for each one. The face vectors are then checked against those for people on a watchlist. Any matches that clear a preset threshold are then ranked and displayed. In the British police trials a typical threshold for a match was 60%, but the bar can be set higher to reduce false positives. Facial Recognition - Uses & Concerns – The Big Picture – RSTV IAS UPSC Is Facial recognition a cause for concern? Yes, in western democracies.  The European Commission is considering imposing a five-year moratorium on the use of facial recognition technologies in the European Union (EU).  In the United States (US), municipalities have passed, or are considering passing prohibitions. India, however, is rushing to adopt public facial recognition.  Facial recognition systems have been active at several major Indian airports, including the Delhi airport. These systems at airports have been installed under the DigiYatra initiative. Telangana’s election commission piloted a facial recognition app in its civic elections on January 22, and claimed that it could address the issue of voter impersonation. Difference of opinion: Against the technology Once cameras are connected to facial recognition software, citizens have no privacy anywhere. To those with power — governments or businesses — people are seen, recognised, analysed, predicted and controlled all the time. This technology can be used to perfect despotism. Once people allow their government to permit its construction, they are entrusting all future governments, and all future dominant data-mining companies, with powers that can be used to destroy freedom. This is why the other advanced democracies are hesitating. In civil society, within government, and even in the tech companies themselves, there is a sudden awareness that a tipping point has been reached. Facial recognition is just one form of identification. Even if it is controlled or forbidden to use on the public, all the other forms of digital identification, when accompanied by comprehensive behaviour collection and secretive data analysis, are a threat to the autonomy of each individual. There is a need to regulate the industry on behaviour collection, and subject government surveillance to the rule of law. For the government to allow the private market to create the infrastructure, placing the impetus in constitutionally unaccountable hands while reserving to itself the right to have continuous access to the data, should also be held a violation of constitutional human rights. The Way Forward There is a need to subject all government surveillance — and government use of private surveillance technologies — to the rule of law. Parliament should also make a “data protection” statute that regulates the sale and transfer in commerce of behavioural information about individuals that does not meet technical standards of safety and appropriateness of acquisition.It is only then that a democracy can safely begin to adopt technologies that, unregulated as they presently are, can corrode and destroy the very fabric of human freedom. Note: Puttaswamy judgment- The right to privacy is protected as a fundamental constitutional right Connecting the Dots: India must resist facial recognition tech. Do you agree? Discuss.

IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 12th March 2020

IAS UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 12th March 2020 Archives (PRELIMS + MAINS FOCUS) COVID-19 Now Pandemic: WHO Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Health In News: WHO noted with concern that 1,18,000 positive cases have been reported globally in 114 countries and more than 90% of cases are in just four countries. OUTBREAK: A sudden rise in cases of a disease in a particular place. EPIDEMIC: A large outbreak, one that spreads among a population or region. The current outbreak of a flu-like illness caused by a new virus in China is considered an epidemic. PANDEMIC: Generally refers to an epidemic that has spread on a more global scale, affecting large numbers of people. A pandemic is the worldwide spread of a new disease. Epidemic Disease Act, 1897 Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Governance In News: States have been asked by Centre to invoke provisions of Section 2 of the Epidemic Disease Act, 1897 by means of which all advisories issued by the Union health ministry and state governments from time to time are enforceable The act was introduced by the British to tackle the epidemic of bubonic plague that broke out in the then state of Bombay in 1897 The then Governor-General of colonial India had conferred special powers upon the local authorities to implement the measures necessary for the control of epidemics Under the act, temporary provisions or regulations can be made to be observed by the public to tackle or prevent the outbreak of a disease. Section 2A of the Act empowers the central government to take steps to prevent the spread of an epidemic. It allows the government to inspect any ship arriving or leaving any post and the power to detain any person intending to sail or arriving in the country. Section 3 provides penalties for disobeying any regulation or order made under the Act Section 4 gives legal protection to the implementing officers acting under the Act. Right to Property Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Polity In News: Supreme Court has stated that forcible dispossession of a person’s property a human right violation SC stated that right to property is both a human right and a constitutional right — the latter under Article 300A of the Constitution. The court noted “some amount of property right is an indispensable safeguard against tyranny and economic oppression of the government.” Article 300A states that - No person shall be deprived of his property save by the authority of law. The 44th constitutional amendment act, 1978 inserts article 300-A. Before this amendment, right to property was the fundamental right, enshrined in article 19 (1) (f) & 31 of the Constitution.  After 44th amendment, article 300-A only prohibits deprivation of the right to property by mere executive order unless that order is made or authorised by some law enacted by the legislature However, the aggrieved person can challenge the legality or fairness of procedure followed for acquisition of land instead of acquisition of land AT1 Bonds Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Economy In News: YES Bank’s AT-1 bond-holders are said to have invested ₹10,800 crore and RBI’s restructuring plan proposes to completely write off the dues on these bonds AT-1, short for Additional Tier-1 bonds, are a type of unsecured, perpetual bonds that banks issue to shore up their core capital base to meet the Basel-III norms AT-1 bonds have several unusual features like One, these bonds are perpetual and carry no maturity date. Instead, they carry call options that allow banks to redeem them after five or 10 years.  But banks are not obliged to use this call option and can opt to pay only interest on these bonds for eternity  Two, banks issuing AT-1 bonds can skip interest payouts for a particular year or even reduce the bonds’ face value provided their capital ratios fall below certain threshold levels specified in the offer terms Three, if the RBI feels that a bank is tottering on the brink and needs a rescue, RBI can simply ask the bank to cancel its outstanding AT-1 bonds without consulting its investors.  The Association of Mutual Funds in India (AMFI) has requested RBI and SEBI for a temporary write down of AT1 Bonds of Yes Bank instead of completely writing it off Why temporary write down? These bonds typically have a call option after five years and hence if the central bank allows a temporary write down, the fund houses may still be able to stem the potential losses if the valuation of the bank improves after restructuring. National Supercomputing Mission (NSM) Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Awareness in IT In News: India has produced just three supercomputers since 2015 under NSM PARAM Shivay installed in IIT-BHU, Varanasi with 837 TeraFlop capacity Second one at IIT-Kharagpur with 1.66 PetaFlop capacity PARAM Brahma at ISER-Pune, has a capacity of 797 TeraFlop NSM envisaged setting up a network of 70 high-performance computing facilities with an aim to connect national academic and R&D institutions across India over a seven-year period at an estimated cost of Rs 4500 Crores. Parent Body: Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY) and Department of Science and Technology (DST). Nodal Agencies of NSM- Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), Pune, and the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru. Did You Know? Just 16.67% of the total budget of Rs 4,500 crore, was disbursed during the last four-and-a-half years to two nodal agencies of NSM  Globally, China continues to lead the supercomputer race. It added eight more supercomputers in the last six months taking its existing numbers to 227. Divya Kala Shakti Part of: GS Prelims and GS-I-Society In News: Divya Kala Shakti is a cultural event which provides a wider and unique platform to showcase the potential of Persons with Differently Abled in the field of performing art, music, dance, acrobatics etc. It is organised by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment  YuViKa: Yuva Vigyani Karyakram (Young Scientist Programme) Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II - Governance In News: ISRO has shortlisted 358 high school students from across the country to be part of its second annual ‘catch them young’ programme, YuViKa. This Program by ISRO is primarily aimed at imparting basic knowledge on Space Technology, Space Science and Space Applications to the younger ones with the intent of arousing their interest in the emerging areas of Space activities The programme will be of two weeks’ duration during summer holidays and the schedule will include invited talks, experience sharing by the eminent scientists, facility and lab visits, exclusive sessions for discussions with experts, practical and feedback sessions. 3 students each from each State/ Union Territory will be selected to participate in this programme covering CBSE, ICSE and State syllabus. 5 additional seats are reserved for OCI candidates across the country. (MAINS FOCUS) Governance Topic: General Studies 2: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation.  A COVID-19 control plan made simple The COVID-19 outbreak is not yet an epidemic in India as of March 11th 2020.  However, a crisis is looming over horizon which may turn out to be disaster of unprecedented proportion if not handled properly The track record So far we have stoically confronted all the new and resurgent communicable diseases that appeared in recent decades.  There was surge capacity of crisis management during the 2018 Nipah epidemic in Kerala.  Government handled the Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS) scare of 2003 extremely efficiently.  The 2009 pandemic influenza H1N1 was also confronted reasonably well. However, India’s weakness in dealing with seasonal influenza is embarrassing as there is no national policy to control seasonal flu With high flu deaths reported annually, it can be said that India manages short-term crisis very well but fails on long-term disease control  Existing Administrative Set-up Ministry of Health and Family Welfare – which coordinates with State Health Departments to deal with Health issues of the country National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC) - functions well only when smaller problems erupt in various States.  Director General of Health Services (DGHS) – It has limited executive powers and there is no competent public health infrastructure under the Directorate to deal with epidemics Department of Health Research and the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) – whose primary job is on the research of pathogens that cause epidemics but they are not equipped to deal with control of epidemics Need for dedicated body/operation The Minister for Health is a key person but COVID-19 epidemic is more than a medical problem.  Many ministries such as those of travel, tourism, industry, education, economics, railways and local governments are all being affected.  India needs a dedicated disaster management operation headed by Prime Minister. PM should declare a national emergency and establish a ‘war-machinery’, with a ‘task force’ of the best experts in the country, of proven capability and track record against communicable diseases. The war room should have all necessary facilities and should run a 24-hour control room. The job of the task force ought to have one goal: manage the epidemic, to minimise the spread and damage of the virus, and to mitigate the sufferings of all people everywhere. The terms of reference of the task force must include the design of immediate, short-term, medium-term and long-term responses.  Once the task force designs a strategy with tactics, the Ministry of Health as well as all Ministries must implement them.  Preventive Measures taken by India The Union Home Ministry has transferred some of its power to the Union Health Ministry for tackling the COVID-19 if the outbreak turns out to be a disaster of national proportions. The Indian government has issued a new travel advisory stating that all existing visas, except diplomatic, official, U.N./International Organisations, employment, project visas, stand suspended till 15th April, beginning from 13th March. Visa-free travel facility granted to OCI cardholders is also suspended for the same duration. All incoming travellers, including Indian nationals, arriving from or having visited China, Italy, Iran, Republic of Korea, France, Spain and Germany after 15th Feb shall be quarantined for a minimum period of 14 days. International traffic through land borders will be restricted as well. The Union Ministry of Road Transport and Highways has issued an advisory to take all necessary steps in public transport vehicles to ensure sanitation of seats, handles and bars. India will send a team of doctors to Italy and Iranfor testing its nationals for coronavirus and bring them back Conclusion An agency exclusively for managing a constant and continuous watch on all developments — biomedical and sociological — and to recommend remedial and containment measures is essential in order to face this epidemic. Connecting the dots Impact of epidemic on pharmaceuticals & pesticide sector Health Emergency Polity Topic: General Studies 2: Statutory, regulatory and various quasi-judicial bodies.  ECI reform plan: For a level playing field Even as electoral democracy has taken strong root in India, there are some unhealthy patterns that have emerged some of which are: Candidates and winners in Assembly and Lok Sabha polls have largely been from affluent sections  With elections becoming expensive, most parties have sought to field richer candidates irrespective of their merit in representing public interest. Campaign finance regulations by the Election Commission of India that imposes limits on election expenditure by candidates have not been sufficient deterrents.  Poll results have tended to be a function of either party or leader preference by the voter rather than a statement on the capability of the candidate. In many cases, capable candidates stand no chance against the money power of more affluent candidates.  Increasing number of candidates contesting in elections having criminal cases against them As a result, ECI is considering certain reforms which is pending with the centre, some of these are: ECI is considering tightening ways to cap the expenditure of political parties.  But even this can be meaningful only if there is more transparency in campaign finance which suggests that the electoral bonds system, as it is in place now, is untenable. The ECI has suggested bringing social media and print media under the “silent period” ambit after campaigning ends.  Regulating social media will be difficult and it remains to be seen how the ECI will implement this. The ECI also plans to introduce new “safe and secure” voting methods.  The use now of the EVM as a standalone, one-time programmable chip-based system, along with administrative safeguards renders it a safe mechanism that is not vulnerable to hacking.  Any other “online” form of voting that is based on networked systems should be avoided Aadhaar-Voter ID linkage to weed out duplications and misrepresentations from the electoral rolls The idea of an Aadhaar-linked remote voting system that is sought to be built as a prototype could be problematic considering how the unique identity card has excluded genuine beneficiaries when used in welfare schemes Amendments to Section 20(6) of the Representation of the People’s Act, 1951 to allow the husband of a female officer to be registered as a service voter where she holds office. Granting powers to ECI to deregister a party Greater autonomy to ECI Giving Constitutional protection to all members of ECI Charging budget of ECI to Consolidated Fund of India Setting up Independent Secretariat for ECI like those for Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha Two key measures are missing from the recommendations — the need for more teeth for the ECI in its fight against “vote buying” and hate speech.  Increasingly, parties have resorted to bribing voters in the form of money and other commodities in return for votes, and while the ECI has tried to warn outfits or in some cases postponed polls, these have not deterred them. In times when hate speech is used during elections, the ECI lacks power of disqualification of the candidate that would create true deterrence Conclusion ECI’s plans to strengthen the electoral process are welcome, but some require scrutiny Connecting the dots Liberhan Commission recommendations against parties which misuse religion. (TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE) Model questions: (You can now post your answers in comment section) Note:  Correct answers of today’s questions will be provided in next day’s DNA section. Kindly refer to it and update your answers.  Comments Up-voted by IASbaba are also the “correct answers”. Q 1. Consider the following statements about Article 300A It was inserted in Constitution by 42th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976  Article 300 A does not confine to land alone but includes intangible property like copyright, intellectual property rights, mortgage, money, any interest in the property, lease, license.  Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 2. Consider the following statements about AT1 Bonds They are unsecured and long term bonds with maturity periods like 5 years or 10 years Banks issue these bonds to shore up their core capital base to meet the Basel-III norms Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 3. Consider the following statements about National Supercomputing Mission (NSM) It envisaged setting up a network of 70 high-performance computing facilities in the country The mission is being implemented by the Department of Science and Technology and NITI Aayog Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 4. Yuva Vigyani Karyakram is an initiative by which body/ministry? Ministry of Science & Technology NITI Aayog ISRO DRDO ANSWERS FOR 11 March 2020 TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE (TYK) 1 A 2 B 3 A 4 B 5 C Must Read About US-Afghanistan deal: The Hindu About Economic Uncertainty  The Hindu About Mental pressure in Education: The Indian Express

60 DAYS PROGRAMME-PRELIMS 2020

IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan- IAS Prelims Test Series 2020 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [Day 11]

Hello Friends,  https://www.youtube.com/embed/x5ldu2jV8N0 ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS The 60 Days Training has finally begun:) DAY 11 is here! Before any competition, there is a preparatory phase. That phase involves a lot of sessions on strengths and weaknesses. Throughout the preparatory phase, the athletes train in a gradual manner. In the last phase, just before the actual competition, the training is done so as to sharpen their skills. This training requires complete focus and dedication. In this phase, the athletes do not try anything new or train in a new fashion rather focus on the sharpening of skills, focusing on strength and precision. Similarly, the upcoming 60 days, is like the last phase (training session), just before the actual competition. Here, the focus should be on sharpening the concepts, consolidating the knowledge base and solidifying the learning with loads and loads of revision. You will come across many distractions in between in the name of sources and resources (exclusive and inclusive), beware of them. Be alert and objective in selecting your companions in this preparation. Trust your effort and revise more than falling prey to multiple resources and doing nothing in the end. Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity.  Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (5 PM), cross-check the answers and again, comment the marks (you got) in the same comment thread. This will keep you responsible and sincere in days to come. Also, we need more sets of scores for releasing the cut offs in the night so, requesting all of you to sincerely put your scores in comment section.    You can also take part in discussion with peers.   Q.1) Which of the following best describes Avangard, often in news? Russia’s hypersonic glide vehicle. Micro drones of Brazil for avian survey China’s mission to the far side of the Moon. Israeli missile defence system Q.1) निम्नलिखित में से कौन, अक्सर समाचारों में रहने वाले अवेंगार्ड (Avangard) का सबसे अच्छा वर्णन करता है? रूस का हाइपरसोनिक चालित वाहन (glide vehicle) हवाई सर्वेक्षण के लिए ब्राजील का सूक्ष्म ड्रोन चंद्रमा के छाया प्रदेश पर चीन का मिशन। इजरायली मिसाइल रक्षा प्रणाली Q.2) Which of the following are bilateral exercises between India and one of the BIMSTEC countries? Ekuverin Sampriti MILEX Samudra Lakshmana Bold Kuruksheta Surya Kiran Select the correct option –  1, 2 and 6 only 2 and 6 only 2, 3, 4 and 6 only 2, 3, 4 and 5 only Q.2) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा द्विपक्षीय अभ्यास भारत और किसी बिम्सटेक देश के मध्य होता है? एकुवेरिन (Ekuverin) सम्प्रति (Sampriti) मिलेक्स (MILEX) समुद्र लक्ष्मण बोल्ड कुरुक्षेत्र सूर्य किरण सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 1, 2 और 6 केवल 2 और 6 केवल 2, 3, 4 और 6 केवल 2, 3, 4 और 5 Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Hyperspectral Imaging Program - It is a joint initiative of DRDO and ISRO. It will help detect the presence of a human even below dense trees or inside a structure.  Images will be captured through optical and infrared sensors through satellite in Low Earth Orbit.  Select the correct option –  1 and  2 only 2 Only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only Q.3) हाइपरस्पेक्ट्रल इमेजिंग प्रोग्राम (Hyperspectral Imaging Program) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - यह डीआरडीओ और इसरो की संयुक्त पहल है। यह घने पेड़ों के नीचे या एक संरचना के अंदर भी मानव की उपस्थिति का पता लगाने में सहायता करेगा। पृथ्वी की निचली कक्षा में सैटेलाइट के जरिए ऑप्टिकल और इंफ्रारेड सेंसर के जरिए इमेज कैप्चर की जाएंगी। सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 और 3 Q.4) What is Poseidon with respect to defence technology? Anti-Submarine Warfare aircraft which India plans to acquire from Israel. Anti-Submarine Warfare aircraft which India plans to acquire from United States. Naval multi-role helicopter which India plans to acquire from United States. Multirole combat fighter aircraft which India plans to acquire from Russia. Q.4) रक्षा तकनीक के संबंध में पोसाइडॉन (Poseidon) क्या है? एंटी-सबमरीन वारफेयर विमान, जिसे भारत ने इजरायल से प्राप्त करने की योजना बनाई है। एंटी-सबमरीन वारफेयर विमान, जिसे भारत ने संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका से प्राप्त करने की योजना बनाई है। नौसेना का बहु-भूमिका वाला हेलीकॉप्टर, जिसे भारत ने संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका से प्राप्त करने की योजना बनाई है। बहु-भूमिका वाला लड़ाकू विमान, जिसे भारत रूस से प्राप्त करने की योजना बना रहा है। Q.5) Which of the following statement is incorrect? Ghatak is India’s 1st stealth unmanned combat aerial vehicle. Lakshya is India’s 1st indigenously built reusable aerial target system. Astra is India’s 1st air to air missile developed by India. Nirbhaya is 1st indigenously developed long range cruise missile flying at high altitudes. Q.5) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन गलत है? घातक (Ghatak) भारत का पहला स्टील्थ मानवरहित लड़ाकू हवाई वाहन है। लक्ष्य (Lakshya) भारत की पहली स्वदेश निर्मित पुन:प्रयोज्य हवाई लक्ष्य प्रणाली है। अस्त्र (Astra) भारत द्वारा विकसित, भारत की पहली हवा से हवा में मार करने वाली मिसाइल है। निर्भय (Nirbhaya) उच्च ऊंचाई पर उड़ने वाली पहली स्वदेशी रूप से विकसित लंबी दूरी की क्रूज मिसाइल है। Q.6) Consider the following about Indigenous ‘Parth’ gunshot locator device – It has been procured by ministry of defence under Buy {Indian-IDDM (Indigenously Designed, Developed and Manufactured)} category of Defence Procurement Procedure – 2016.   It can detect the exact location of a bullet from a distance of 400m.  Select the correct option –  1 only 2 Only Both 1 and 2  None of the above Q.6) स्वदेशी ‘पार्थ’ गनशॉट लोकेटर डिवाइस के बारे में निम्नलिखित पर विचार करें - रक्षा मंत्रालय द्वारा रक्षा खरीद प्रक्रिया की श्रेणी {भारतीय-IDDM (स्वदेशी रूप से डिजाइन, विकसित और निर्मित)} के तहत रक्षा मंत्रालय द्वारा इसकी खरीद की गई है। यह 400 मीटर की दूरी से गोली के सटीक स्थान का पता लगा सकता है। सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.7) Consider the following statements –  First India Africa Defence Ministers Conclave was held in 2020. All African nations participated in it. A declaration was made to strengthen Asia-Africa Growth Corridor to strategically counter China’s One Belt One Road initiative.   Select the correct option – 1 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only All of the above Q.7) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - पहला भारत अफ्रीका रक्षा मंत्री कॉन्क्लेव 2020 में आयोजित किया गया था। सभी अफ्रीकी देशों ने इसमें भाग लिया था। चीन की वन बेल्ट, वन रोड पहल का रणनीतिक रूप से मुकाबला करने के लिए एशिया-अफ्रीका ग्रोथ कॉरिडोर को मजबूत करने के लिए घोषणा की गई थी। सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.8) Consider the following pairs  Defence equipment Exporting Country US-2 Amphibious  Aircraft Japan       2. Predator-B Israel       3. Heron United States  Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 only  1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only All of the above Q.8) निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार करें रक्षा उपकरण निर्यातक देश 1. यूएस -2 एम्फीबियस विमान (US-2 Amphibious  Aircraft) जापान 2. प्रीडेटर-बी (Predator-B) इजराइल 3. हेरॉन (Heron) संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका  ऊपर दी गई कौन सी जोड़ी सही ढंग से सुमेलित है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3  उपरोक्त सभी Q.9) Consider the following statements regarding MISSION SHAKTI – It was technology demonstration by ISRO to show India’s capability to destroy a satellite in the low earth orbit using an Anti-Satellite missile. India became only the 4th country to conduct an Anti-Satellite missile test.  Select the correct option –  1 only 2 Only Both 1 and 2  None of the above Q.9) मिशन शक्ति (MISSION SHAKTI) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - यह इसरो द्वारा एंटी-सैटेलाइट मिसाइल का उपयोग करके निचली पृथ्वी की कक्षा में एक उपग्रह को नष्ट करने की क्षमता दिखाने के लिए प्रौद्योगिकी प्रदर्शन था। एंटी-सैटेलाइट मिसाइल परीक्षण करने वाला भारत 4 वाँ देश बना। सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.10) What is ‘Sagarika’ in the context of Indian defence technology? Nuclear-powered submarine  Torpedo launch and recovery vessel Nuclear capable submarine-launched ballistic missile  Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier Q.10) भारतीय रक्षा तकनीक के संदर्भ में 'सागरिका' (Sagarika) क्या है? परमाणु ऊर्जा संचालित पनडुब्बी टारपीडो लॉन्च और रिकवरी पोत परमाणु सक्षम पनडुब्बी-लॉन्च बैलिस्टिक मिसाइल परमाणु ऊर्जा संचालित विमान वाहक Q.11) Which of the following statements is/are correct? Prithvi is a surface-to-surface short-range ballistic missile. Trishul is a short range surface-to-surface missile. NAG is an anti-tank guided missile. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 3 only  2 only 2 and 3 only  1, 2 and 3 Q.11) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है / हैं? पृथ्वी (Prithvi) सतह से सतह पर मार करने वाली कम दूरी की बैलिस्टिक मिसाइल है। त्रिशूल (Trishul) कम दूरी की सतह से सतह पर मार करने वाली मिसाइल है। नाग (NAG) एक एंटी-टैंक गाइडेड मिसाइल है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 केवल 2 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.12) Consider the following pairs –  Defence equipment Description Dongfeng missiles China’s intercontinental ballistic missile        2. Kinzhal Russia’s nuclear capable air launched ballistic missile.        3. ARIHANT Nuclear-powered cruise missile submarine        4. SUKHOI Combat fighter aircraft jointly developed by Russia and India.         5. DHRUV Utility helicopter developed and manufactured by DRDO.  Select the correct option –  1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only All of the above Q.12) निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार करें -  रक्षा उपकरण विवरण 1. डोंगफेंग मिसाइल (Dongfeng missiles) चीन की अंतरमहाद्वीपीय बैलिस्टिक मिसाइल 2. किंजल (Kinzhal) रूस की परमाणु सक्षम वायु प्रक्षेपित बैलिस्टिक मिसाइल। 3. अरिहंत परमाणु ऊर्जा संचालित क्रूज मिसाइल पनडुब्बी 4. सुखोई रूस और भारत द्वारा संयुक्त रूप से विकसित कॉम्बैट लड़ाकू विमान। 5. ध्रुव (DHRUV) डीआरडीओ द्वारा विकसित और निर्मित उपयोगिता हेलीकाप्टर।  सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1, 2 और 3 केवल 1, 2 और 4 उपरोक्त सभी Q.13) Which of the following countries possess hypersonic cruise missiles capability? United states Russia China India Israel Select the correct option –  2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 only All of the above Q.13) निम्न में से किस देश के पास हाइपेरिक क्रूज मिसाइल की क्षमता है? संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका रूस चीन भारत इजराइल सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 2 और 3 केवल 1, 2 और 3 केवल 1, 2, 3 और 4 उपरोक्त सभी Q.14) Consider the following statements regarding Chief of Defence Staff –  He is principal Military Advisor to the Union Defence Minister on all Tri-Services matters. He will not exercise any military command. He will command tri-service agencies related to Cyber and Space. He will head the Defence Acquisition Council. Select the correct option –  1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 3 and 4 only All of the above Q.14) चीफ ऑफ डिफेंस स्टाफ के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - वह सभी त्रि-सेवाओं के मामलों में केंद्रीय रक्षा मंत्री के प्रमुख सैन्य सलाहकार हैं। वह किसी भी सैन्य कमान का प्रयोग नहीं करेगा। वह साइबर और स्पेस से जुड़ी त्रि-सेवा एजेंसियों की कमान संभालेंगे। वह रक्षा अधिग्रहण परिषद (Defence Acquisition Council) का प्रमुख होगा। सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1, 2 और 3 केवल 1, 3 और 4 उपरोक्त सभी Q.15) Consider the following statements regarding newly constituted Department of Military Affairs –  Chief of Defence Staff will act as Secretary to the department. It will come directly under Prime Minister's Office. It will do the direct oversight of critically important projects of Defence Research and Development Organisation. Select the correct option – 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only All of the above Q.15) नवगठित सैन्य मामलों के विभाग (Department of Military Affairs) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - चीफ ऑफ डिफेंस स्टाफ विभाग के सचिव के रूप में कार्य करेंगे। यह सीधे प्रधानमंत्री कार्यालय के अंतर्गत आएगा। यह रक्षा अनुसंधान और विकास संगठन की गंभीर रूप से महत्वपूर्ण परियोजनाओं का प्रत्यक्ष निरीक्षण करेगा। सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.16) Consider the following statements – Information Fusion Centre – Indian Ocean Region (IFC-IOR) has been formed under the aegis of Ministry of Shipping. It has opened many regional centres in IOR countries to create coastal radar chains to generate a seamless real-time picture of the nearly 7,500-km coastline. Select the correct option –  1 only 2 Only Both 1 and 2  None of the above Q.16) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - सूचना संलयन केंद्र - हिंद महासागर क्षेत्र (IFC-IOR) का गठन शिपिंग मंत्रालय के तत्वावधान में किया गया है। इसने लगभग 7,500 किलोमीटर लंबी समुद्र तट की सहज वास्तविक तस्वीर बनाने हेतु तटीय रडार श्रृंखलाएं बनाने के लिए IOR देशों में कई क्षेत्रीय केंद्र खोले हैं। सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.17) BOLD-QIT is often seen in news. Which is it most closely related to? Radar based early warning technology  Border management  High temperature resistant material Stealth technology  Q.17) BOLD-QIT अक्सर समाचारों में देखा जाता है। यह किससे सबसे निकटता से संबंधित है? रडार आधारित प्रारंभिक चेतावनी तकनीक सीमा प्रबंधन उच्च तापमान प्रतिरोधी सामग्री स्टील्थ प्रौद्योगिकी Q.18) Consider the following statements regarding Multi-lateral Naval Exercise (MILAN) – It is conducted under the aegis of Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC). India will host MILAN for the first time in 2020. It includes simulation of complex operational scenarios, tactical manoeuvres and disaster preparedness.  Select the correct option –  3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only None of the above Q.18) बहुपक्षीय नौसेना अभ्यास (MILAN) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - यह बहु-क्षेत्रीय तकनीकी और आर्थिक सहयोग के लिए बंगाल की खाड़ी पहल (BIMSTEC) के तत्वावधान में आयोजित किया जाता है। भारत 2020 में पहली बार MILAN की मेजबानी करेगा। इसमें जटिल परिचालन परिदृश्य, सामरिक युद्धाभ्यास और आपदा तैयारियों का अनुकरण शामिल है। सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 3 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 1, 2 और 3 इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.19) Consider the following statements regarding Outer Space Treaty of 1967 –  It bars states party to the treaty from placing weapons of mass destruction in earth orbit, installing them on the Moon or any other celestial body, or otherwise stationing them in outer space. It comes under the aegis of United Nations.  India has signed but not ratified the treaty.  U.S and China objected to India’s recent successful anti-satellite (ASAT) missile test citing this treaty.  Select the correct option –  1 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only Q.19) 1967 की बाह्य अंतरिक्ष संधि (Outer Space Treaty) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - यह पृथ्वी की कक्षा में बड़े पैमाने वाले विनाश के हथियार रखने, उन्हें चंद्रमा या किसी अन्य खगोलीय पिंड पर स्थापित करने, या अन्यथा उन्हें बाह्य अंतरिक्ष पर तैनात करने से संधि के सदस्यों को रोकता है। यह संयुक्त राष्ट्र के तत्वावधान में आता है। भारत ने हस्ताक्षर किया है लेकिन संधि की पुष्टि नहीं की है। अमेरिका और चीन ने इस संधि का हवाला देते हुए भारत के हालिया सफल एंटी-सैटेलाइट (ASAT) मिसाइल परीक्षण पर आपत्ति जताई है। सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1, 2 और 3 केवल 1, 2 और 4 Q.20) Consider the following statements regarding Airborne Early Warning and Control System (AEW&C;) of India – It has been developed with collaboration of DRDO and IAF.  It is constituted by PHALCON of Israel and the indigenous NETRA only.  Select the correct option –  1 only 2 Only Both 1 and 2  None of the above Q.20) भारत के एयरबोर्न अर्ली वार्निंग एंड कंट्रोल सिस्टम (AEW & C) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - इसे DRDO और IAF के सहयोग से विकसित किया गया है। इसका गठन इज़राइल के फाल्कन (PHALCON) और स्वदेशी नेत्र (NETRA) द्वारा किया गया है। सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.21) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Barak River’. It flows only through India, whereas the river basin extends to Bangladesh. The river has its source in the state of Mizoram. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.21) 'बराक नदी' के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। यह केवल भारत से होकर बहती है, जबकि नदी का बेसिन बांग्लादेश तक फैला हुआ है। मिज़ोरम राज्य में नदी का स्रोत है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.22) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Central Public Works Department (CPWD)’ It is under the aegis of the Ministry of Home Affairs. It came into existence in 1805 when Lord Bentick established a central agency for execution of public works and set up Ajmer Provincial Division. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.22) 'केंद्रीय लोक निर्माण विभाग (CPWD)' के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। यह गृह मंत्रालय के तत्वावधान में है। यह 1805 में अस्तित्व में आया, जब लॉर्ड बेंटिक ने सार्वजनिक कार्यों के निष्पादन के लिए एक केंद्रीय एजेंसी की स्थापना की तथा अजमेर प्रांतीय प्रभाग की स्थापना की। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.23) ‘World Population Prospects 2019’ was released by World Economic Forum World Health Organisation International Labour Organisation None of the above Q.23) ‘विश्व जनसंख्या संभावना- 2019’ (World Population Prospects 2019) किसके द्वारा जारी की गई थी विश्व आर्थिक मंच विश्व स्वास्थ्य संगठन अंतर्राष्ट्रीय श्रम संगठन इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.24) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Eastern Economic Forum’. It is organized by the World Economic Forum to focus especially on the Eastern Asian Countries. It is held annually in Kyoto, Japan. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.24) 'पूर्वी आर्थिक मंच' (Eastern Economic Forum) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। यह विश्व आर्थिक मंच द्वारा विशेष रूप से पूर्वी एशियाई देशों पर ध्यान केंद्रित करने के लिए आयोजित किया जाता है। यह क्योटो, जापान में प्रतिवर्ष आयोजित किया जाता है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.25) ______________ is the first country in the world to issue Biometric Seafarer Identity Document (BSID). India Australia Japan USA Q.25) ______________ बायोमैट्रिक नाविक पहचान दस्तावेज़ (Biometric Seafarer Identity Document-BSID) जारी करने वाला विश्व का पहला देश कौन है। भारत ऑस्ट्रेलिया जापान अमेरीका Q.26) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘New York Declaration on Forests’. It is a voluntary and non-binding international declaration to take action to halt global deforestation. It was first endorsed during the 2015 United Nations Climate Change Conference, COP 21 in Paris. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.26) 'वनों पर न्यूयॉर्क घोषणा' के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। वैश्विक वनों की कटाई को रोकने के लिए कार्रवाई हेतु एक स्वैच्छिक और गैर-बाध्यकारी अंतर्राष्ट्रीय घोषणा है। इसे पेरिस में 2015 के संयुक्त राष्ट्र जलवायु परिवर्तन सम्मेलन, सीओपी 21 के दौरान पहली बार समर्थन किया गया था। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.27) ‘Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP)’ was chaired by Krishnaswamy Kasturirangan Madhav Gadgil Oommen V Oommen Bibek Debroy Q.27) ‘पश्चिमी घाट पारिस्थितिकी विशेषज्ञ पैनल (WGEEP)’ की अध्यक्षता किसके द्वारा की गई है कृष्णस्वामी कस्तूरीरंगन माधव गाडगिल ओमन वी. ओमन बिबेक देबरॉय Q.28) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘the Bank for International Settlements (BIS)’. Its head office is in Basel, Switzerland and it has two representative offices in Hong Kong SAR and in Mexico City. It was established in 1930 by an intergovernmental agreement between the members of the Group of Seven (G7). Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.28) ‘बैंक फॉर इंटरनेशनल सेटलमेंट्स (BIS)’ के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। इसका मुख्य कार्यालय बेसल, स्विट्जरलैंड में है तथा इसके दो प्रतिनिधि कार्यालय हांगकांग एसएआर और मैक्सिको सिटी में हैं। इसे 1930 में ग्रुप ऑफ सेवन (जी 7) के सदस्यों के बीच एक अंतर-सरकारी समझौते द्वारा स्थापित किया गया था। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.29) Which of the following statements with respect to ‘Magnetospheric Multiscale (MMS)’ mission is/are correct? It was launched by ISRO and Roscosmos. It was launched to study Earth’s magnetosphere. Both (a) and (b) Neither (a) nor (b) Q.29) ‘मैग्नेटोस्फेरिक मल्टीस्केल (MMS) मिशन, के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है / हैं? इसे इसरो और रॉसकॉसमॉस द्वारा लॉन्च किया गया था। इसे पृथ्वी के चुंबकीय क्षेत्र (मैग्नेटोस्फीयर) का अध्ययन करने के लिए लॉन्च किया गया था। (a) और (b) दोनों (a) और (b) दोनों नहीं Q.30) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘GTIN’ It is an internationally recognized system for identifying products.  It is a 14-digit long code developed by the World Trade Organisation (WTO). Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.30) 'GTIN' के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। यह उत्पादों की पहचान करने के लिए एक अंतरराष्ट्रीय स्तर पर मान्यता प्राप्त प्रणाली है। यह विश्व व्यापार संगठन (डब्ल्यूटीओ) द्वारा विकसित 14 अंकों का लंबा कोड है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 NOTE- Follow this for Comments Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test After the release of Solution Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect. What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?   One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are: Lack of information Lack of analytical ability Silly mistakes Excessive risk-taking Let’s analyze them one by one: Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances. You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it. This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination. Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise: Micro Analysis Matrix Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S Scale 1: Information meter (1) Scale 2: Analysis meter (2) Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3) Scale 4: Risk meter (4) Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation: Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion: Micro Analysis Matrix- Day 1/ Polity/ Constitutional History Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) 3 1 2 2 8 Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S 3 2 6 8 19 Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale: Information meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late. Analysis meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions. Anxiety meter < 3 Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident. Risk meter < 8 Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind. Total N x S score < 20 Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going. This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better. Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours. We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS! Importance of self - tracking: We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program. Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting! Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2020   All the Best!IASbaba

RSTV Video

Mother Language – Vishesh – RSTV IAS UPSC

Mother Language Archives TOPIC: General Studies 2: Issues and challenges pertaining to the federal structure In News: International Mother Language Day is celebrated on 21st February every year. It has been observed since 1999 to promote “linguistic and cultural diversity and multilingualism” According to the UN Of the world’s 6,000 languages, 43% are estimated as endangered Just 10 languages account for as many as 4.8 billion speakers — over 60% of the world population. Globally, English remains the most widely spoken language with 1.13 billion speakers in 2019, followed by Mandarin with 1.17 billion, according to the online database Ethnologue. Hindi is third with 615 million speakers while Bengali is seventh with 265 million. In India,  Hindi is the most spoken language with over 528 million speakers in 2011, as per the Census.  Bengali had 97.2 million speakers in 2011, followed by Marathi (83 million) Other languages with over 50 million speakers are Telugu (81 million), Tamil (69 million), Gujarati (55.5 million) and Urdu (50.8 million). The History On February 21, 1952, Pakistan’s police opened fire on students of University of Dhaka (in erstwhile East Pakistan) protesting against the imposition of Urdu. The Bengali language movement demanded the inclusion of Bengali as a national language of Pakistan, in addition to Urdu, which was the mother tongue of only 3-4% of the nation, while Bengali was spoken by more than 50% of the population. On January 9, 1998, Canada-based Rafiqul Islam wrote to the United Nations, asking them to commemorate the 1952 killings in Dhaka and mark the day to preserve languages from around the world from extinction. This led to the declaration of 21st February as International Mother Language Day.  ‘Official language’ debate in India When the Indian Constitution was being framed in the Constituent Assembly, the question of choosing one language as the official language arose in the minds of the Constitution makers. The official language of the Central government was the single most divisive official issue in the Indian Constituent Assembly. There were two problems regarding Hindi being the official language: a) the dialect of Hindi; and   b) the other languages existing in India. Question of adopting a Hindi dialect: Hindi is spoken in around 13 different dialects.  So debate arose as to which of the dialect was to be chosen as the official Hindi dialect. Later, Hindi dialect was adopted which was the one spoken in the Delhi-Agra region with Sanskrit vocabulary. Gandhi’s Dream of One National language: Most of the members of Constituent Assembly wanted to fulfill Mahatma Gandhi’s dream who had opined that there should be a national language which would give a distinct identity to the nation. They chose the most popular language of the country to be crowned as the official language of the Union of India. As soon as the proposal was laid down before the Assembly, many members of the assembly opposed it on the ground of it being unfair for the non-Hindi speaking population who’ll suffer in terms of employment opportunities, education, and public services because of their non-Hindi background. Demand for including regional languages: Several arguments were raised for the inclusion and non-inclusion of Hindi language. Some of the members of the Constituent Assembly including L.K.Maitra and N.G.Ayyangar demanded that the regional languages should also be recognized (at State level) and the chosen national language should not be made exclusive. There were others like Lokamanya Tilak, Gandhiji, C. Rajagopalachari, Subhash Bose and Sardar Patel who demanded that Hindi should be used throughout India without any exceptions and the states should also resort to the use of Hindi language because it would promote integration. Two groups in the Assembly: The whole assembly was divided into two groups, one which supported Hindi and wanted it to become the official language and the other which did not favour Hindi to become the official language. The assembly was at loggerheads. Ambedkar’s views: Introducing multiple languages as official languages was not considered feasible. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was quoted as saying, “One language can unite people. Two languages are sure to divide people. This is an inexorable law. Culture is conserved by language. Since Indians wish to unite and develop a common culture, it is the bounden duty of all Indians to own up Hindi as their official language.” Munshi-Ayyangar formula: Ultimately, when the Constituent Assembly was on the verge of losing its unity, a compromise called Munshi-Ayyangar formula was adopted without dissent. It was a half-hearted compromise because no group got what it wanted. According to this formula, English was to continue as the official language of India along with Hindi for a period of fifteen years but the limit was elastic and the power of extension was given to the Parliament. A statute titled ‘Official Languages Act, 1963’ was enacted when the period of fifteen years was about to expire in an attempt to prevent agitation in the non-Hindi speaking States. But the provisions of the Act could not satisfy the views of the protestors. Lal Bahadur Shastri policy: Lal Bahadur Shastri, Nehru’s successor as prime minister, did not pay much heed to the opinion of non-Hindi groups. He, instead of effectively countering the fears of non-Hindi groups that Hindi would become the sole official language, declared that he was considering making Hindi an alternative medium in public service examinations which meant that although the non-Hindi speakers would still be able to compete in the all-India services in English medium, the Hindi speakers would have an added advantage of being able to use their own mother tongue Hindi as a medium. This increased the fury of the non-Hindi groups and they became more anti-Hindi and later also raised and popularized the slogan of ‘Hindi never, English ever’. Thus Lal Bahadur Shastri only gave air to the blazing agitation of the non-Hindi groups against Hindi. Amendment to the official languages act: The Official Languages Act was ultimately amended in the year 1967 by Indira Gandhi’s government which provided for indefinite usage of English and Hindi as the official languages of the country. The Current Questions Language is a crucial part of a community’s identity and social reality. Given India’s colonial history, the different languages in the country are constantly jostling with the “global” language English for space. The fight for mother tongues to remain relevant persists, in the face of dominating language structures. Language hierarchies are constantly internalised and play up in daily social situations.  Which language do we think and dream in?  Can we call ourselves truly bi- or even multilingual?  How many of us actively engage with our mother tongues?  What do we even call our mother tongue? Though the use of mother languages as mediums of instruction in school and higher education has been armoured from pre-Independence times, sadly, the number of those desiring to study in English has been multiplying exponentially. This has led to the burgeoning of monolingual educational institutes governed by the English language and is creating a society that is far from sensitive, just and equitable. The nature of dominance of English over all other mother languages is allied to power, status and identity of students. Students speaking different mother languages come together to study in an educational institute where they interact with each other without any difficulties at both school and higher education level. Yet they are being taught monolingually through a foreign language that not all students are able to associate with. The whole process has led to the ignorance of mother languages and a feeling of disassociation among students. The Way Forward Knowing English helps a lot in getting a good job, but only if that English is meaningful, accompanied by understanding and fundamental knowledge in all the other things children go to school to learn. The English used in most Indian schools simply does not allow for any real learning to take place. Government should be more sensitive towards the people’s aspiration and they shouldn’t impose any language on them against their will. There should be having that legislative back up to protect the minority languages. We need to follow the three language formula and there is a need to develop extensively all the languages. Need to use the technology and the new means to promote the language and the tolerance among the citizens at large, like internet and government need to conduct some of the awareness campaigns for the betterment of it. Government’s initiatives like Ek Bharath Shresth Bharath need to be promoted as much as government can. There is a need to focus on… (1) Language teacher’s training and recruitment (2) Development of quality programmes on language and literature (3) Research on languages Must Read: Challenges of Non-Scheduled Indian Languages Connecting the Dots Why should children learn in their mother tongue? Discuss. What is your assessment of the way the nationalist leaders addressed the language issue post-independence? Substantiate your views. How can linguistic diversity be a source of social strife? How can this be addressed? Examine.

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