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Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 12th March 2020

IAS UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 12th March 2020 Archives (PRELIMS + MAINS FOCUS) COVID-19 Now Pandemic: WHO Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Health In News: WHO noted with concern that 1,18,000 positive cases have been reported globally in 114 countries and more than 90% of cases are in just four countries. OUTBREAK: A sudden rise in cases of a disease in a particular place. EPIDEMIC: A large outbreak, one that spreads among a population or region. The current outbreak of a flu-like illness caused by a new virus in China is considered an epidemic. PANDEMIC: Generally refers to an epidemic that has spread on a more global scale, affecting large numbers of people. A pandemic is the worldwide spread of a new disease. Epidemic Disease Act, 1897 Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Governance In News: States have been asked by Centre to invoke provisions of Section 2 of the Epidemic Disease Act, 1897 by means of which all advisories issued by the Union health ministry and state governments from time to time are enforceable The act was introduced by the British to tackle the epidemic of bubonic plague that broke out in the then state of Bombay in 1897 The then Governor-General of colonial India had conferred special powers upon the local authorities to implement the measures necessary for the control of epidemics Under the act, temporary provisions or regulations can be made to be observed by the public to tackle or prevent the outbreak of a disease. Section 2A of the Act empowers the central government to take steps to prevent the spread of an epidemic. It allows the government to inspect any ship arriving or leaving any post and the power to detain any person intending to sail or arriving in the country. Section 3 provides penalties for disobeying any regulation or order made under the Act Section 4 gives legal protection to the implementing officers acting under the Act. Right to Property Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Polity In News: Supreme Court has stated that forcible dispossession of a person’s property a human right violation SC stated that right to property is both a human right and a constitutional right — the latter under Article 300A of the Constitution. The court noted “some amount of property right is an indispensable safeguard against tyranny and economic oppression of the government.” Article 300A states that - No person shall be deprived of his property save by the authority of law. The 44th constitutional amendment act, 1978 inserts article 300-A. Before this amendment, right to property was the fundamental right, enshrined in article 19 (1) (f) & 31 of the Constitution.  After 44th amendment, article 300-A only prohibits deprivation of the right to property by mere executive order unless that order is made or authorised by some law enacted by the legislature However, the aggrieved person can challenge the legality or fairness of procedure followed for acquisition of land instead of acquisition of land AT1 Bonds Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Economy In News: YES Bank’s AT-1 bond-holders are said to have invested ₹10,800 crore and RBI’s restructuring plan proposes to completely write off the dues on these bonds AT-1, short for Additional Tier-1 bonds, are a type of unsecured, perpetual bonds that banks issue to shore up their core capital base to meet the Basel-III norms AT-1 bonds have several unusual features like One, these bonds are perpetual and carry no maturity date. Instead, they carry call options that allow banks to redeem them after five or 10 years.  But banks are not obliged to use this call option and can opt to pay only interest on these bonds for eternity  Two, banks issuing AT-1 bonds can skip interest payouts for a particular year or even reduce the bonds’ face value provided their capital ratios fall below certain threshold levels specified in the offer terms Three, if the RBI feels that a bank is tottering on the brink and needs a rescue, RBI can simply ask the bank to cancel its outstanding AT-1 bonds without consulting its investors.  The Association of Mutual Funds in India (AMFI) has requested RBI and SEBI for a temporary write down of AT1 Bonds of Yes Bank instead of completely writing it off Why temporary write down? These bonds typically have a call option after five years and hence if the central bank allows a temporary write down, the fund houses may still be able to stem the potential losses if the valuation of the bank improves after restructuring. National Supercomputing Mission (NSM) Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Awareness in IT In News: India has produced just three supercomputers since 2015 under NSM PARAM Shivay installed in IIT-BHU, Varanasi with 837 TeraFlop capacity Second one at IIT-Kharagpur with 1.66 PetaFlop capacity PARAM Brahma at ISER-Pune, has a capacity of 797 TeraFlop NSM envisaged setting up a network of 70 high-performance computing facilities with an aim to connect national academic and R&D institutions across India over a seven-year period at an estimated cost of Rs 4500 Crores. Parent Body: Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY) and Department of Science and Technology (DST). Nodal Agencies of NSM- Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), Pune, and the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru. Did You Know? Just 16.67% of the total budget of Rs 4,500 crore, was disbursed during the last four-and-a-half years to two nodal agencies of NSM  Globally, China continues to lead the supercomputer race. It added eight more supercomputers in the last six months taking its existing numbers to 227. Divya Kala Shakti Part of: GS Prelims and GS-I-Society In News: Divya Kala Shakti is a cultural event which provides a wider and unique platform to showcase the potential of Persons with Differently Abled in the field of performing art, music, dance, acrobatics etc. It is organised by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment  YuViKa: Yuva Vigyani Karyakram (Young Scientist Programme) Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II - Governance In News: ISRO has shortlisted 358 high school students from across the country to be part of its second annual ‘catch them young’ programme, YuViKa. This Program by ISRO is primarily aimed at imparting basic knowledge on Space Technology, Space Science and Space Applications to the younger ones with the intent of arousing their interest in the emerging areas of Space activities The programme will be of two weeks’ duration during summer holidays and the schedule will include invited talks, experience sharing by the eminent scientists, facility and lab visits, exclusive sessions for discussions with experts, practical and feedback sessions. 3 students each from each State/ Union Territory will be selected to participate in this programme covering CBSE, ICSE and State syllabus. 5 additional seats are reserved for OCI candidates across the country. (MAINS FOCUS) Governance Topic: General Studies 2: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation.  A COVID-19 control plan made simple The COVID-19 outbreak is not yet an epidemic in India as of March 11th 2020.  However, a crisis is looming over horizon which may turn out to be disaster of unprecedented proportion if not handled properly The track record So far we have stoically confronted all the new and resurgent communicable diseases that appeared in recent decades.  There was surge capacity of crisis management during the 2018 Nipah epidemic in Kerala.  Government handled the Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS) scare of 2003 extremely efficiently.  The 2009 pandemic influenza H1N1 was also confronted reasonably well. However, India’s weakness in dealing with seasonal influenza is embarrassing as there is no national policy to control seasonal flu With high flu deaths reported annually, it can be said that India manages short-term crisis very well but fails on long-term disease control  Existing Administrative Set-up Ministry of Health and Family Welfare – which coordinates with State Health Departments to deal with Health issues of the country National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC) - functions well only when smaller problems erupt in various States.  Director General of Health Services (DGHS) – It has limited executive powers and there is no competent public health infrastructure under the Directorate to deal with epidemics Department of Health Research and the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) – whose primary job is on the research of pathogens that cause epidemics but they are not equipped to deal with control of epidemics Need for dedicated body/operation The Minister for Health is a key person but COVID-19 epidemic is more than a medical problem.  Many ministries such as those of travel, tourism, industry, education, economics, railways and local governments are all being affected.  India needs a dedicated disaster management operation headed by Prime Minister. PM should declare a national emergency and establish a ‘war-machinery’, with a ‘task force’ of the best experts in the country, of proven capability and track record against communicable diseases. The war room should have all necessary facilities and should run a 24-hour control room. The job of the task force ought to have one goal: manage the epidemic, to minimise the spread and damage of the virus, and to mitigate the sufferings of all people everywhere. The terms of reference of the task force must include the design of immediate, short-term, medium-term and long-term responses.  Once the task force designs a strategy with tactics, the Ministry of Health as well as all Ministries must implement them.  Preventive Measures taken by India The Union Home Ministry has transferred some of its power to the Union Health Ministry for tackling the COVID-19 if the outbreak turns out to be a disaster of national proportions. The Indian government has issued a new travel advisory stating that all existing visas, except diplomatic, official, U.N./International Organisations, employment, project visas, stand suspended till 15th April, beginning from 13th March. Visa-free travel facility granted to OCI cardholders is also suspended for the same duration. All incoming travellers, including Indian nationals, arriving from or having visited China, Italy, Iran, Republic of Korea, France, Spain and Germany after 15th Feb shall be quarantined for a minimum period of 14 days. International traffic through land borders will be restricted as well. The Union Ministry of Road Transport and Highways has issued an advisory to take all necessary steps in public transport vehicles to ensure sanitation of seats, handles and bars. India will send a team of doctors to Italy and Iranfor testing its nationals for coronavirus and bring them back Conclusion An agency exclusively for managing a constant and continuous watch on all developments — biomedical and sociological — and to recommend remedial and containment measures is essential in order to face this epidemic. Connecting the dots Impact of epidemic on pharmaceuticals & pesticide sector Health Emergency Polity Topic: General Studies 2: Statutory, regulatory and various quasi-judicial bodies.  ECI reform plan: For a level playing field Even as electoral democracy has taken strong root in India, there are some unhealthy patterns that have emerged some of which are: Candidates and winners in Assembly and Lok Sabha polls have largely been from affluent sections  With elections becoming expensive, most parties have sought to field richer candidates irrespective of their merit in representing public interest. Campaign finance regulations by the Election Commission of India that imposes limits on election expenditure by candidates have not been sufficient deterrents.  Poll results have tended to be a function of either party or leader preference by the voter rather than a statement on the capability of the candidate. In many cases, capable candidates stand no chance against the money power of more affluent candidates.  Increasing number of candidates contesting in elections having criminal cases against them As a result, ECI is considering certain reforms which is pending with the centre, some of these are: ECI is considering tightening ways to cap the expenditure of political parties.  But even this can be meaningful only if there is more transparency in campaign finance which suggests that the electoral bonds system, as it is in place now, is untenable. The ECI has suggested bringing social media and print media under the “silent period” ambit after campaigning ends.  Regulating social media will be difficult and it remains to be seen how the ECI will implement this. The ECI also plans to introduce new “safe and secure” voting methods.  The use now of the EVM as a standalone, one-time programmable chip-based system, along with administrative safeguards renders it a safe mechanism that is not vulnerable to hacking.  Any other “online” form of voting that is based on networked systems should be avoided Aadhaar-Voter ID linkage to weed out duplications and misrepresentations from the electoral rolls The idea of an Aadhaar-linked remote voting system that is sought to be built as a prototype could be problematic considering how the unique identity card has excluded genuine beneficiaries when used in welfare schemes Amendments to Section 20(6) of the Representation of the People’s Act, 1951 to allow the husband of a female officer to be registered as a service voter where she holds office. Granting powers to ECI to deregister a party Greater autonomy to ECI Giving Constitutional protection to all members of ECI Charging budget of ECI to Consolidated Fund of India Setting up Independent Secretariat for ECI like those for Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha Two key measures are missing from the recommendations — the need for more teeth for the ECI in its fight against “vote buying” and hate speech.  Increasingly, parties have resorted to bribing voters in the form of money and other commodities in return for votes, and while the ECI has tried to warn outfits or in some cases postponed polls, these have not deterred them. In times when hate speech is used during elections, the ECI lacks power of disqualification of the candidate that would create true deterrence Conclusion ECI’s plans to strengthen the electoral process are welcome, but some require scrutiny Connecting the dots Liberhan Commission recommendations against parties which misuse religion. (TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE) Model questions: (You can now post your answers in comment section) Note:  Correct answers of today’s questions will be provided in next day’s DNA section. Kindly refer to it and update your answers.  Comments Up-voted by IASbaba are also the “correct answers”. Q 1. Consider the following statements about Article 300A It was inserted in Constitution by 42th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976  Article 300 A does not confine to land alone but includes intangible property like copyright, intellectual property rights, mortgage, money, any interest in the property, lease, license.  Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 2. Consider the following statements about AT1 Bonds They are unsecured and long term bonds with maturity periods like 5 years or 10 years Banks issue these bonds to shore up their core capital base to meet the Basel-III norms Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 3. Consider the following statements about National Supercomputing Mission (NSM) It envisaged setting up a network of 70 high-performance computing facilities in the country The mission is being implemented by the Department of Science and Technology and NITI Aayog Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 4. Yuva Vigyani Karyakram is an initiative by which body/ministry? Ministry of Science & Technology NITI Aayog ISRO DRDO ANSWERS FOR 11 March 2020 TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE (TYK) 1 A 2 B 3 A 4 B 5 C Must Read About US-Afghanistan deal: The Hindu About Economic Uncertainty  The Hindu About Mental pressure in Education: The Indian Express

IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan- IAS Prelims Test Series 2020 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [Day 11]

Hello Friends,  https://www.youtube.com/embed/x5ldu2jV8N0 ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS The 60 Days Training has finally begun:) DAY 11 is here! Before any competition, there is a preparatory phase. That phase involves a lot of sessions on strengths and weaknesses. Throughout the preparatory phase, the athletes train in a gradual manner. In the last phase, just before the actual competition, the training is done so as to sharpen their skills. This training requires complete focus and dedication. In this phase, the athletes do not try anything new or train in a new fashion rather focus on the sharpening of skills, focusing on strength and precision. Similarly, the upcoming 60 days, is like the last phase (training session), just before the actual competition. Here, the focus should be on sharpening the concepts, consolidating the knowledge base and solidifying the learning with loads and loads of revision. You will come across many distractions in between in the name of sources and resources (exclusive and inclusive), beware of them. Be alert and objective in selecting your companions in this preparation. Trust your effort and revise more than falling prey to multiple resources and doing nothing in the end. Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity.  Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (5 PM), cross-check the answers and again, comment the marks (you got) in the same comment thread. This will keep you responsible and sincere in days to come. Also, we need more sets of scores for releasing the cut offs in the night so, requesting all of you to sincerely put your scores in comment section.    You can also take part in discussion with peers.   Q.1) Which of the following best describes Avangard, often in news? Russia’s hypersonic glide vehicle. Micro drones of Brazil for avian survey China’s mission to the far side of the Moon. Israeli missile defence system Q.1) निम्नलिखित में से कौन, अक्सर समाचारों में रहने वाले अवेंगार्ड (Avangard) का सबसे अच्छा वर्णन करता है? रूस का हाइपरसोनिक चालित वाहन (glide vehicle) हवाई सर्वेक्षण के लिए ब्राजील का सूक्ष्म ड्रोन चंद्रमा के छाया प्रदेश पर चीन का मिशन। इजरायली मिसाइल रक्षा प्रणाली Q.2) Which of the following are bilateral exercises between India and one of the BIMSTEC countries? Ekuverin Sampriti MILEX Samudra Lakshmana Bold Kuruksheta Surya Kiran Select the correct option –  1, 2 and 6 only 2 and 6 only 2, 3, 4 and 6 only 2, 3, 4 and 5 only Q.2) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा द्विपक्षीय अभ्यास भारत और किसी बिम्सटेक देश के मध्य होता है? एकुवेरिन (Ekuverin) सम्प्रति (Sampriti) मिलेक्स (MILEX) समुद्र लक्ष्मण बोल्ड कुरुक्षेत्र सूर्य किरण सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 1, 2 और 6 केवल 2 और 6 केवल 2, 3, 4 और 6 केवल 2, 3, 4 और 5 Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Hyperspectral Imaging Program - It is a joint initiative of DRDO and ISRO. It will help detect the presence of a human even below dense trees or inside a structure.  Images will be captured through optical and infrared sensors through satellite in Low Earth Orbit.  Select the correct option –  1 and  2 only 2 Only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only Q.3) हाइपरस्पेक्ट्रल इमेजिंग प्रोग्राम (Hyperspectral Imaging Program) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - यह डीआरडीओ और इसरो की संयुक्त पहल है। यह घने पेड़ों के नीचे या एक संरचना के अंदर भी मानव की उपस्थिति का पता लगाने में सहायता करेगा। पृथ्वी की निचली कक्षा में सैटेलाइट के जरिए ऑप्टिकल और इंफ्रारेड सेंसर के जरिए इमेज कैप्चर की जाएंगी। सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 और 3 Q.4) What is Poseidon with respect to defence technology? Anti-Submarine Warfare aircraft which India plans to acquire from Israel. Anti-Submarine Warfare aircraft which India plans to acquire from United States. Naval multi-role helicopter which India plans to acquire from United States. Multirole combat fighter aircraft which India plans to acquire from Russia. Q.4) रक्षा तकनीक के संबंध में पोसाइडॉन (Poseidon) क्या है? एंटी-सबमरीन वारफेयर विमान, जिसे भारत ने इजरायल से प्राप्त करने की योजना बनाई है। एंटी-सबमरीन वारफेयर विमान, जिसे भारत ने संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका से प्राप्त करने की योजना बनाई है। नौसेना का बहु-भूमिका वाला हेलीकॉप्टर, जिसे भारत ने संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका से प्राप्त करने की योजना बनाई है। बहु-भूमिका वाला लड़ाकू विमान, जिसे भारत रूस से प्राप्त करने की योजना बना रहा है। Q.5) Which of the following statement is incorrect? Ghatak is India’s 1st stealth unmanned combat aerial vehicle. Lakshya is India’s 1st indigenously built reusable aerial target system. Astra is India’s 1st air to air missile developed by India. Nirbhaya is 1st indigenously developed long range cruise missile flying at high altitudes. Q.5) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन गलत है? घातक (Ghatak) भारत का पहला स्टील्थ मानवरहित लड़ाकू हवाई वाहन है। लक्ष्य (Lakshya) भारत की पहली स्वदेश निर्मित पुन:प्रयोज्य हवाई लक्ष्य प्रणाली है। अस्त्र (Astra) भारत द्वारा विकसित, भारत की पहली हवा से हवा में मार करने वाली मिसाइल है। निर्भय (Nirbhaya) उच्च ऊंचाई पर उड़ने वाली पहली स्वदेशी रूप से विकसित लंबी दूरी की क्रूज मिसाइल है। Q.6) Consider the following about Indigenous ‘Parth’ gunshot locator device – It has been procured by ministry of defence under Buy {Indian-IDDM (Indigenously Designed, Developed and Manufactured)} category of Defence Procurement Procedure – 2016.   It can detect the exact location of a bullet from a distance of 400m.  Select the correct option –  1 only 2 Only Both 1 and 2  None of the above Q.6) स्वदेशी ‘पार्थ’ गनशॉट लोकेटर डिवाइस के बारे में निम्नलिखित पर विचार करें - रक्षा मंत्रालय द्वारा रक्षा खरीद प्रक्रिया की श्रेणी {भारतीय-IDDM (स्वदेशी रूप से डिजाइन, विकसित और निर्मित)} के तहत रक्षा मंत्रालय द्वारा इसकी खरीद की गई है। यह 400 मीटर की दूरी से गोली के सटीक स्थान का पता लगा सकता है। सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.7) Consider the following statements –  First India Africa Defence Ministers Conclave was held in 2020. All African nations participated in it. A declaration was made to strengthen Asia-Africa Growth Corridor to strategically counter China’s One Belt One Road initiative.   Select the correct option – 1 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only All of the above Q.7) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - पहला भारत अफ्रीका रक्षा मंत्री कॉन्क्लेव 2020 में आयोजित किया गया था। सभी अफ्रीकी देशों ने इसमें भाग लिया था। चीन की वन बेल्ट, वन रोड पहल का रणनीतिक रूप से मुकाबला करने के लिए एशिया-अफ्रीका ग्रोथ कॉरिडोर को मजबूत करने के लिए घोषणा की गई थी। सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.8) Consider the following pairs  Defence equipment Exporting Country US-2 Amphibious  Aircraft Japan       2. Predator-B Israel       3. Heron United States  Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 only  1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only All of the above Q.8) निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार करें रक्षा उपकरण निर्यातक देश 1. यूएस -2 एम्फीबियस विमान (US-2 Amphibious  Aircraft) जापान 2. प्रीडेटर-बी (Predator-B) इजराइल 3. हेरॉन (Heron) संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका  ऊपर दी गई कौन सी जोड़ी सही ढंग से सुमेलित है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3  उपरोक्त सभी Q.9) Consider the following statements regarding MISSION SHAKTI – It was technology demonstration by ISRO to show India’s capability to destroy a satellite in the low earth orbit using an Anti-Satellite missile. India became only the 4th country to conduct an Anti-Satellite missile test.  Select the correct option –  1 only 2 Only Both 1 and 2  None of the above Q.9) मिशन शक्ति (MISSION SHAKTI) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - यह इसरो द्वारा एंटी-सैटेलाइट मिसाइल का उपयोग करके निचली पृथ्वी की कक्षा में एक उपग्रह को नष्ट करने की क्षमता दिखाने के लिए प्रौद्योगिकी प्रदर्शन था। एंटी-सैटेलाइट मिसाइल परीक्षण करने वाला भारत 4 वाँ देश बना। सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.10) What is ‘Sagarika’ in the context of Indian defence technology? Nuclear-powered submarine  Torpedo launch and recovery vessel Nuclear capable submarine-launched ballistic missile  Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier Q.10) भारतीय रक्षा तकनीक के संदर्भ में 'सागरिका' (Sagarika) क्या है? परमाणु ऊर्जा संचालित पनडुब्बी टारपीडो लॉन्च और रिकवरी पोत परमाणु सक्षम पनडुब्बी-लॉन्च बैलिस्टिक मिसाइल परमाणु ऊर्जा संचालित विमान वाहक Q.11) Which of the following statements is/are correct? Prithvi is a surface-to-surface short-range ballistic missile. Trishul is a short range surface-to-surface missile. NAG is an anti-tank guided missile. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 3 only  2 only 2 and 3 only  1, 2 and 3 Q.11) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है / हैं? पृथ्वी (Prithvi) सतह से सतह पर मार करने वाली कम दूरी की बैलिस्टिक मिसाइल है। त्रिशूल (Trishul) कम दूरी की सतह से सतह पर मार करने वाली मिसाइल है। नाग (NAG) एक एंटी-टैंक गाइडेड मिसाइल है। नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 केवल 2 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.12) Consider the following pairs –  Defence equipment Description Dongfeng missiles China’s intercontinental ballistic missile        2. Kinzhal Russia’s nuclear capable air launched ballistic missile.        3. ARIHANT Nuclear-powered cruise missile submarine        4. SUKHOI Combat fighter aircraft jointly developed by Russia and India.         5. DHRUV Utility helicopter developed and manufactured by DRDO.  Select the correct option –  1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only All of the above Q.12) निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार करें -  रक्षा उपकरण विवरण 1. डोंगफेंग मिसाइल (Dongfeng missiles) चीन की अंतरमहाद्वीपीय बैलिस्टिक मिसाइल 2. किंजल (Kinzhal) रूस की परमाणु सक्षम वायु प्रक्षेपित बैलिस्टिक मिसाइल। 3. अरिहंत परमाणु ऊर्जा संचालित क्रूज मिसाइल पनडुब्बी 4. सुखोई रूस और भारत द्वारा संयुक्त रूप से विकसित कॉम्बैट लड़ाकू विमान। 5. ध्रुव (DHRUV) डीआरडीओ द्वारा विकसित और निर्मित उपयोगिता हेलीकाप्टर।  सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1, 2 और 3 केवल 1, 2 और 4 उपरोक्त सभी Q.13) Which of the following countries possess hypersonic cruise missiles capability? United states Russia China India Israel Select the correct option –  2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 only All of the above Q.13) निम्न में से किस देश के पास हाइपेरिक क्रूज मिसाइल की क्षमता है? संयुक्त राज्य अमेरिका रूस चीन भारत इजराइल सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 2 और 3 केवल 1, 2 और 3 केवल 1, 2, 3 और 4 उपरोक्त सभी Q.14) Consider the following statements regarding Chief of Defence Staff –  He is principal Military Advisor to the Union Defence Minister on all Tri-Services matters. He will not exercise any military command. He will command tri-service agencies related to Cyber and Space. He will head the Defence Acquisition Council. Select the correct option –  1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 3 and 4 only All of the above Q.14) चीफ ऑफ डिफेंस स्टाफ के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - वह सभी त्रि-सेवाओं के मामलों में केंद्रीय रक्षा मंत्री के प्रमुख सैन्य सलाहकार हैं। वह किसी भी सैन्य कमान का प्रयोग नहीं करेगा। वह साइबर और स्पेस से जुड़ी त्रि-सेवा एजेंसियों की कमान संभालेंगे। वह रक्षा अधिग्रहण परिषद (Defence Acquisition Council) का प्रमुख होगा। सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1, 2 और 3 केवल 1, 3 और 4 उपरोक्त सभी Q.15) Consider the following statements regarding newly constituted Department of Military Affairs –  Chief of Defence Staff will act as Secretary to the department. It will come directly under Prime Minister's Office. It will do the direct oversight of critically important projects of Defence Research and Development Organisation. Select the correct option – 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only All of the above Q.15) नवगठित सैन्य मामलों के विभाग (Department of Military Affairs) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - चीफ ऑफ डिफेंस स्टाफ विभाग के सचिव के रूप में कार्य करेंगे। यह सीधे प्रधानमंत्री कार्यालय के अंतर्गत आएगा। यह रक्षा अनुसंधान और विकास संगठन की गंभीर रूप से महत्वपूर्ण परियोजनाओं का प्रत्यक्ष निरीक्षण करेगा। सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.16) Consider the following statements – Information Fusion Centre – Indian Ocean Region (IFC-IOR) has been formed under the aegis of Ministry of Shipping. It has opened many regional centres in IOR countries to create coastal radar chains to generate a seamless real-time picture of the nearly 7,500-km coastline. Select the correct option –  1 only 2 Only Both 1 and 2  None of the above Q.16) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - सूचना संलयन केंद्र - हिंद महासागर क्षेत्र (IFC-IOR) का गठन शिपिंग मंत्रालय के तत्वावधान में किया गया है। इसने लगभग 7,500 किलोमीटर लंबी समुद्र तट की सहज वास्तविक तस्वीर बनाने हेतु तटीय रडार श्रृंखलाएं बनाने के लिए IOR देशों में कई क्षेत्रीय केंद्र खोले हैं। सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.17) BOLD-QIT is often seen in news. Which is it most closely related to? Radar based early warning technology  Border management  High temperature resistant material Stealth technology  Q.17) BOLD-QIT अक्सर समाचारों में देखा जाता है। यह किससे सबसे निकटता से संबंधित है? रडार आधारित प्रारंभिक चेतावनी तकनीक सीमा प्रबंधन उच्च तापमान प्रतिरोधी सामग्री स्टील्थ प्रौद्योगिकी Q.18) Consider the following statements regarding Multi-lateral Naval Exercise (MILAN) – It is conducted under the aegis of Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC). India will host MILAN for the first time in 2020. It includes simulation of complex operational scenarios, tactical manoeuvres and disaster preparedness.  Select the correct option –  3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only None of the above Q.18) बहुपक्षीय नौसेना अभ्यास (MILAN) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - यह बहु-क्षेत्रीय तकनीकी और आर्थिक सहयोग के लिए बंगाल की खाड़ी पहल (BIMSTEC) के तत्वावधान में आयोजित किया जाता है। भारत 2020 में पहली बार MILAN की मेजबानी करेगा। इसमें जटिल परिचालन परिदृश्य, सामरिक युद्धाभ्यास और आपदा तैयारियों का अनुकरण शामिल है। सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 3 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 1, 2 और 3 इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.19) Consider the following statements regarding Outer Space Treaty of 1967 –  It bars states party to the treaty from placing weapons of mass destruction in earth orbit, installing them on the Moon or any other celestial body, or otherwise stationing them in outer space. It comes under the aegis of United Nations.  India has signed but not ratified the treaty.  U.S and China objected to India’s recent successful anti-satellite (ASAT) missile test citing this treaty.  Select the correct option –  1 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only Q.19) 1967 की बाह्य अंतरिक्ष संधि (Outer Space Treaty) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - यह पृथ्वी की कक्षा में बड़े पैमाने वाले विनाश के हथियार रखने, उन्हें चंद्रमा या किसी अन्य खगोलीय पिंड पर स्थापित करने, या अन्यथा उन्हें बाह्य अंतरिक्ष पर तैनात करने से संधि के सदस्यों को रोकता है। यह संयुक्त राष्ट्र के तत्वावधान में आता है। भारत ने हस्ताक्षर किया है लेकिन संधि की पुष्टि नहीं की है। अमेरिका और चीन ने इस संधि का हवाला देते हुए भारत के हालिया सफल एंटी-सैटेलाइट (ASAT) मिसाइल परीक्षण पर आपत्ति जताई है। सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1, 2 और 3 केवल 1, 2 और 4 Q.20) Consider the following statements regarding Airborne Early Warning and Control System (AEW&C;) of India – It has been developed with collaboration of DRDO and IAF.  It is constituted by PHALCON of Israel and the indigenous NETRA only.  Select the correct option –  1 only 2 Only Both 1 and 2  None of the above Q.20) भारत के एयरबोर्न अर्ली वार्निंग एंड कंट्रोल सिस्टम (AEW & C) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें - इसे DRDO और IAF के सहयोग से विकसित किया गया है। इसका गठन इज़राइल के फाल्कन (PHALCON) और स्वदेशी नेत्र (NETRA) द्वारा किया गया है। सही विकल्प का चयन करें - केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.21) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Barak River’. It flows only through India, whereas the river basin extends to Bangladesh. The river has its source in the state of Mizoram. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.21) 'बराक नदी' के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। यह केवल भारत से होकर बहती है, जबकि नदी का बेसिन बांग्लादेश तक फैला हुआ है। मिज़ोरम राज्य में नदी का स्रोत है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.22) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Central Public Works Department (CPWD)’ It is under the aegis of the Ministry of Home Affairs. It came into existence in 1805 when Lord Bentick established a central agency for execution of public works and set up Ajmer Provincial Division. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.22) 'केंद्रीय लोक निर्माण विभाग (CPWD)' के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। यह गृह मंत्रालय के तत्वावधान में है। यह 1805 में अस्तित्व में आया, जब लॉर्ड बेंटिक ने सार्वजनिक कार्यों के निष्पादन के लिए एक केंद्रीय एजेंसी की स्थापना की तथा अजमेर प्रांतीय प्रभाग की स्थापना की। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.23) ‘World Population Prospects 2019’ was released by World Economic Forum World Health Organisation International Labour Organisation None of the above Q.23) ‘विश्व जनसंख्या संभावना- 2019’ (World Population Prospects 2019) किसके द्वारा जारी की गई थी विश्व आर्थिक मंच विश्व स्वास्थ्य संगठन अंतर्राष्ट्रीय श्रम संगठन इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.24) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Eastern Economic Forum’. It is organized by the World Economic Forum to focus especially on the Eastern Asian Countries. It is held annually in Kyoto, Japan. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.24) 'पूर्वी आर्थिक मंच' (Eastern Economic Forum) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। यह विश्व आर्थिक मंच द्वारा विशेष रूप से पूर्वी एशियाई देशों पर ध्यान केंद्रित करने के लिए आयोजित किया जाता है। यह क्योटो, जापान में प्रतिवर्ष आयोजित किया जाता है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.25) ______________ is the first country in the world to issue Biometric Seafarer Identity Document (BSID). India Australia Japan USA Q.25) ______________ बायोमैट्रिक नाविक पहचान दस्तावेज़ (Biometric Seafarer Identity Document-BSID) जारी करने वाला विश्व का पहला देश कौन है। भारत ऑस्ट्रेलिया जापान अमेरीका Q.26) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘New York Declaration on Forests’. It is a voluntary and non-binding international declaration to take action to halt global deforestation. It was first endorsed during the 2015 United Nations Climate Change Conference, COP 21 in Paris. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.26) 'वनों पर न्यूयॉर्क घोषणा' के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। वैश्विक वनों की कटाई को रोकने के लिए कार्रवाई हेतु एक स्वैच्छिक और गैर-बाध्यकारी अंतर्राष्ट्रीय घोषणा है। इसे पेरिस में 2015 के संयुक्त राष्ट्र जलवायु परिवर्तन सम्मेलन, सीओपी 21 के दौरान पहली बार समर्थन किया गया था। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.27) ‘Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP)’ was chaired by Krishnaswamy Kasturirangan Madhav Gadgil Oommen V Oommen Bibek Debroy Q.27) ‘पश्चिमी घाट पारिस्थितिकी विशेषज्ञ पैनल (WGEEP)’ की अध्यक्षता किसके द्वारा की गई है कृष्णस्वामी कस्तूरीरंगन माधव गाडगिल ओमन वी. ओमन बिबेक देबरॉय Q.28) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘the Bank for International Settlements (BIS)’. Its head office is in Basel, Switzerland and it has two representative offices in Hong Kong SAR and in Mexico City. It was established in 1930 by an intergovernmental agreement between the members of the Group of Seven (G7). Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.28) ‘बैंक फॉर इंटरनेशनल सेटलमेंट्स (BIS)’ के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। इसका मुख्य कार्यालय बेसल, स्विट्जरलैंड में है तथा इसके दो प्रतिनिधि कार्यालय हांगकांग एसएआर और मैक्सिको सिटी में हैं। इसे 1930 में ग्रुप ऑफ सेवन (जी 7) के सदस्यों के बीच एक अंतर-सरकारी समझौते द्वारा स्थापित किया गया था। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.29) Which of the following statements with respect to ‘Magnetospheric Multiscale (MMS)’ mission is/are correct? It was launched by ISRO and Roscosmos. It was launched to study Earth’s magnetosphere. Both (a) and (b) Neither (a) nor (b) Q.29) ‘मैग्नेटोस्फेरिक मल्टीस्केल (MMS) मिशन, के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सही है / हैं? इसे इसरो और रॉसकॉसमॉस द्वारा लॉन्च किया गया था। इसे पृथ्वी के चुंबकीय क्षेत्र (मैग्नेटोस्फीयर) का अध्ययन करने के लिए लॉन्च किया गया था। (a) और (b) दोनों (a) और (b) दोनों नहीं Q.30) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘GTIN’ It is an internationally recognized system for identifying products.  It is a 14-digit long code developed by the World Trade Organisation (WTO). Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.30) 'GTIN' के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। यह उत्पादों की पहचान करने के लिए एक अंतरराष्ट्रीय स्तर पर मान्यता प्राप्त प्रणाली है। यह विश्व व्यापार संगठन (डब्ल्यूटीओ) द्वारा विकसित 14 अंकों का लंबा कोड है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 NOTE- Follow this for Comments Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test After the release of Solution Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect. What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?   One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are: Lack of information Lack of analytical ability Silly mistakes Excessive risk-taking Let’s analyze them one by one: Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances. You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it. This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination. Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise: Micro Analysis Matrix Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S Scale 1: Information meter (1) Scale 2: Analysis meter (2) Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3) Scale 4: Risk meter (4) Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation: Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion: Micro Analysis Matrix- Day 1/ Polity/ Constitutional History Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) 3 1 2 2 8 Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S 3 2 6 8 19 Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale: Information meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late. Analysis meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions. Anxiety meter < 3 Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident. Risk meter < 8 Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind. Total N x S score < 20 Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going. This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better. Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours. We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS! Importance of self - tracking: We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program. Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting! Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2020   All the Best!IASbaba

RSTV Video

Mother Language – Vishesh – RSTV IAS UPSC

Mother Language Archives TOPIC: General Studies 2: Issues and challenges pertaining to the federal structure In News: International Mother Language Day is celebrated on 21st February every year. It has been observed since 1999 to promote “linguistic and cultural diversity and multilingualism” According to the UN Of the world’s 6,000 languages, 43% are estimated as endangered Just 10 languages account for as many as 4.8 billion speakers — over 60% of the world population. Globally, English remains the most widely spoken language with 1.13 billion speakers in 2019, followed by Mandarin with 1.17 billion, according to the online database Ethnologue. Hindi is third with 615 million speakers while Bengali is seventh with 265 million. In India,  Hindi is the most spoken language with over 528 million speakers in 2011, as per the Census.  Bengali had 97.2 million speakers in 2011, followed by Marathi (83 million) Other languages with over 50 million speakers are Telugu (81 million), Tamil (69 million), Gujarati (55.5 million) and Urdu (50.8 million). The History On February 21, 1952, Pakistan’s police opened fire on students of University of Dhaka (in erstwhile East Pakistan) protesting against the imposition of Urdu. The Bengali language movement demanded the inclusion of Bengali as a national language of Pakistan, in addition to Urdu, which was the mother tongue of only 3-4% of the nation, while Bengali was spoken by more than 50% of the population. On January 9, 1998, Canada-based Rafiqul Islam wrote to the United Nations, asking them to commemorate the 1952 killings in Dhaka and mark the day to preserve languages from around the world from extinction. This led to the declaration of 21st February as International Mother Language Day.  ‘Official language’ debate in India When the Indian Constitution was being framed in the Constituent Assembly, the question of choosing one language as the official language arose in the minds of the Constitution makers. The official language of the Central government was the single most divisive official issue in the Indian Constituent Assembly. There were two problems regarding Hindi being the official language: a) the dialect of Hindi; and   b) the other languages existing in India. Question of adopting a Hindi dialect: Hindi is spoken in around 13 different dialects.  So debate arose as to which of the dialect was to be chosen as the official Hindi dialect. Later, Hindi dialect was adopted which was the one spoken in the Delhi-Agra region with Sanskrit vocabulary. Gandhi’s Dream of One National language: Most of the members of Constituent Assembly wanted to fulfill Mahatma Gandhi’s dream who had opined that there should be a national language which would give a distinct identity to the nation. They chose the most popular language of the country to be crowned as the official language of the Union of India. As soon as the proposal was laid down before the Assembly, many members of the assembly opposed it on the ground of it being unfair for the non-Hindi speaking population who’ll suffer in terms of employment opportunities, education, and public services because of their non-Hindi background. Demand for including regional languages: Several arguments were raised for the inclusion and non-inclusion of Hindi language. Some of the members of the Constituent Assembly including L.K.Maitra and N.G.Ayyangar demanded that the regional languages should also be recognized (at State level) and the chosen national language should not be made exclusive. There were others like Lokamanya Tilak, Gandhiji, C. Rajagopalachari, Subhash Bose and Sardar Patel who demanded that Hindi should be used throughout India without any exceptions and the states should also resort to the use of Hindi language because it would promote integration. Two groups in the Assembly: The whole assembly was divided into two groups, one which supported Hindi and wanted it to become the official language and the other which did not favour Hindi to become the official language. The assembly was at loggerheads. Ambedkar’s views: Introducing multiple languages as official languages was not considered feasible. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was quoted as saying, “One language can unite people. Two languages are sure to divide people. This is an inexorable law. Culture is conserved by language. Since Indians wish to unite and develop a common culture, it is the bounden duty of all Indians to own up Hindi as their official language.” Munshi-Ayyangar formula: Ultimately, when the Constituent Assembly was on the verge of losing its unity, a compromise called Munshi-Ayyangar formula was adopted without dissent. It was a half-hearted compromise because no group got what it wanted. According to this formula, English was to continue as the official language of India along with Hindi for a period of fifteen years but the limit was elastic and the power of extension was given to the Parliament. A statute titled ‘Official Languages Act, 1963’ was enacted when the period of fifteen years was about to expire in an attempt to prevent agitation in the non-Hindi speaking States. But the provisions of the Act could not satisfy the views of the protestors. Lal Bahadur Shastri policy: Lal Bahadur Shastri, Nehru’s successor as prime minister, did not pay much heed to the opinion of non-Hindi groups. He, instead of effectively countering the fears of non-Hindi groups that Hindi would become the sole official language, declared that he was considering making Hindi an alternative medium in public service examinations which meant that although the non-Hindi speakers would still be able to compete in the all-India services in English medium, the Hindi speakers would have an added advantage of being able to use their own mother tongue Hindi as a medium. This increased the fury of the non-Hindi groups and they became more anti-Hindi and later also raised and popularized the slogan of ‘Hindi never, English ever’. Thus Lal Bahadur Shastri only gave air to the blazing agitation of the non-Hindi groups against Hindi. Amendment to the official languages act: The Official Languages Act was ultimately amended in the year 1967 by Indira Gandhi’s government which provided for indefinite usage of English and Hindi as the official languages of the country. The Current Questions Language is a crucial part of a community’s identity and social reality. Given India’s colonial history, the different languages in the country are constantly jostling with the “global” language English for space. The fight for mother tongues to remain relevant persists, in the face of dominating language structures. Language hierarchies are constantly internalised and play up in daily social situations.  Which language do we think and dream in?  Can we call ourselves truly bi- or even multilingual?  How many of us actively engage with our mother tongues?  What do we even call our mother tongue? Though the use of mother languages as mediums of instruction in school and higher education has been armoured from pre-Independence times, sadly, the number of those desiring to study in English has been multiplying exponentially. This has led to the burgeoning of monolingual educational institutes governed by the English language and is creating a society that is far from sensitive, just and equitable. The nature of dominance of English over all other mother languages is allied to power, status and identity of students. Students speaking different mother languages come together to study in an educational institute where they interact with each other without any difficulties at both school and higher education level. Yet they are being taught monolingually through a foreign language that not all students are able to associate with. The whole process has led to the ignorance of mother languages and a feeling of disassociation among students. The Way Forward Knowing English helps a lot in getting a good job, but only if that English is meaningful, accompanied by understanding and fundamental knowledge in all the other things children go to school to learn. The English used in most Indian schools simply does not allow for any real learning to take place. Government should be more sensitive towards the people’s aspiration and they shouldn’t impose any language on them against their will. There should be having that legislative back up to protect the minority languages. We need to follow the three language formula and there is a need to develop extensively all the languages. Need to use the technology and the new means to promote the language and the tolerance among the citizens at large, like internet and government need to conduct some of the awareness campaigns for the betterment of it. Government’s initiatives like Ek Bharath Shresth Bharath need to be promoted as much as government can. There is a need to focus on… (1) Language teacher’s training and recruitment (2) Development of quality programmes on language and literature (3) Research on languages Must Read: Challenges of Non-Scheduled Indian Languages Connecting the Dots Why should children learn in their mother tongue? Discuss. What is your assessment of the way the nationalist leaders addressed the language issue post-independence? Substantiate your views. How can linguistic diversity be a source of social strife? How can this be addressed? Examine.

IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan- IAS Prelims Test Series 2020 ECONOMICS & CURRENT AFFAIRS [Day 10]

Hello Friends,  https://www.youtube.com/embed/x5ldu2jV8N0 ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS The 60 Days Training has finally begun:) DAY 10 is here! Before any competition, there is a preparatory phase. That phase involves a lot of sessions on strengths and weaknesses. Throughout the preparatory phase, the athletes train in a gradual manner. In the last phase, just before the actual competition, the training is done so as to sharpen their skills. This training requires complete focus and dedication. In this phase, the athletes do not try anything new or train in a new fashion rather focus on the sharpening of skills, focusing on strength and precision. Similarly, the upcoming 60 days, is like the last phase (training session), just before the actual competition. Here, the focus should be on sharpening the concepts, consolidating the knowledge base and solidifying the learning with loads and loads of revision. You will come across many distractions in between in the name of sources and resources (exclusive and inclusive), beware of them. Be alert and objective in selecting your companions in this preparation. Trust your effort and revise more than falling prey to multiple resources and doing nothing in the end. Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity.  Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (5 PM), cross-check the answers and again, comment the marks (you got) in the same comment thread. This will keep you responsible and sincere in days to come. Also, we need more sets of scores for releasing the cut offs in the night so, requesting all of you to sincerely put your scores in comment section.    You can also take part in discussion with peers.   Q.1) Which of the following graphs shows the degree of inequality in a society Lorenz curve Phillips curve Engel curve Laffer curve Q.1) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा ग्राफ, किसी समाज में असमानता का स्तर दर्शाता है लोरेंज वक्र फिलिप्स वक्र एंजेल वक्र लाफ़र वक्र Q.2) Which of the following committees is/are associated with the estimation of poverty? Lakdawala committee Alagh committee Saxena committee All the above Q.2) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी समिति गरीबी के आकलन से संबंधित है? लकड़वाला समिति अलघ समिति सक्सेना समिति उपर्युक्त सभी Q.3) If a person quits his job to look for a better job, then what kind of unemployment does he/she face? Disguised Unemployment Structural unemployment Hidden unemployment Frictional unemployment Q.3) यदि कोई व्यक्ति, अपनी नौकरी को बेहतर नौकरी की तलाश में छोड़ता है, तो उसे किस तरह की बेरोजगारी का सामना करना पड़ता है? प्रच्छन्न बेरोजगारी संरचनात्मक बेरोजगारी छिपी हुई बेरोजगारी घर्षणात्मक बेरोजगारी Q.4) Consider the following statements regarding the Tendulkar committee on poverty estimation The current official measures of poverty are based on the Tendulkar poverty line It Incorporates private expenditure on health and education while estimating poverty Consumption expenditure is calculated based on calorie consumption Choose the correct answer using the codes given below 1 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only All of the above Q.4) गरीबी आकलन पर तेंदुलकर समिति के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें गरीबी के मौजूदा आधिकारिक उपाय तेंदुलकर गरीबी रेखा पर आधारित हैं यह गरीबी का आकलन करते हुए स्वास्थ्य और शिक्षा पर निजी व्यय को शामिल करता है उपभोग व्यय की गणना कैलोरी की खपत के आधार पर की जाती है नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 ऊपर के सभी Q.5) Consider the following statements regarding Sustainable Development Goals India index It is carried out by Niti Aayog in collaboration with Ministry of statistics and programme implementation  It provides a holistic view on the social, economic and environmental status of all the states and Union territories Choose the correct answer using the codes given below 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.5) सतत विकास लक्ष्यों भारत सूचकांक के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें इसे सांख्यिकी और कार्यक्रम कार्यान्वयन मंत्रालय के सहयोग से नीति आयोग द्वारा किया जाता है यह सभी राज्यों और केंद्र शासित प्रदेशों की सामाजिक, आर्थिक और पर्यावरणीय स्थिति पर एक समग्र दृष्टिकोण प्रदान करता है नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.6) Poverty estimation in India is carried out by Niti Aayog National Sample Survey Office Rangarajan Committee Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation Q.6) भारत में गरीबी का आकलन किसके द्वारा किया जाता है नीति आयोग राष्ट्रीय नमूना सर्वेक्षण कार्यालय रंगराजन समिति सांख्यिकी और कार्यक्रम कार्यान्वयन मंत्रालय Q.7) Consider the following statements regarding the National Rural Economic Transformation Project It supports enterprise development programmes for rural poor women and youth It is a part of the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission Choose the correct answer using the codes given below 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.7) राष्ट्रीय ग्रामीण आर्थिक परिवर्तन परियोजना के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें यह ग्रामीण गरीब महिलाओं और युवाओं के लिए उद्यम विकास कार्यक्रमों का समर्थन करता है यह दीनदयाल अंत्योदय योजना - राष्ट्रीय ग्रामीण आजीविका मिशन का एक हिस्सा है नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1  केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.8) Consider the following statements regarding Fixed-term Employment The contract can be renewed or terminated according to the performance of the worker Workers will be entitled to benefits available to permanent workers Currently, fixed-term employment is allowed only in the textile sector Choose the statement/s using the codes given below 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only All of the above Q.8) निश्चित अवधि के रोजगार (Fixed-term Employment) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें श्रमिक के प्रदर्शन के अनुसार अनुबंध को नवीनीकृत या समाप्त किया जा सकता है श्रमिक स्थायी श्रमिकों के लिए उपलब्ध लाभों के हकदार होंगे वर्तमान में, निश्चित अवधि के रोजगार की अनुमति केवल कपड़ा क्षेत्र में है नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके विवरण चुनें केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3  उपरोक्त सभी Q.9) Consider the following statements regarding Sankalp Scheme It aims to implement the mandate of the National Skill Development Mission It is a Central Sector Scheme in collaboration with the World Bank Choose the correct answer using the codes given below 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.9) संकल्प योजना (Sankalp Scheme) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें इसका उद्देश्य राष्ट्रीय कौशल विकास मिशन के जनादेश (mandate) को लागू करना है यह विश्व बैंक के सहयोग से एक केंद्रीय क्षेत्र की योजना है नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.10) The Poverty and Shared Prosperity Report is published by International Monetary Fund United Nations Conference on Trade and Development World Economic Forum World Bank Q.10) गरीबी और साझा समृद्धि रिपोर्ट (Poverty and Shared Prosperity Report) किसके द्वारा प्रकाशित की जाती है अंतरराष्ट्रीय मुद्रा कोष व्यापार और विकास पर संयुक्त राष्ट्र सम्मेलन विश्व आर्थिक मंच विश्व बैंक Q.11) Consider the following statements regarding The Global Multidimensional Poverty Index It is developed by the Oxford Poverty & Human Development Initiative (OPHI) and the United Nations Development Programme India has the largest number of people living in multidimensional poverty according to its latest report Choose the correct answer using the codes given below 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.11) वैश्विक बहुआयामी गरीबी सूचकांक (Global Multidimensional Poverty Index) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें यह ऑक्सफोर्ड गरीबी और मानव विकास पहल (OPHI) तथा संयुक्त राष्ट्र विकास कार्यक्रम द्वारा विकसित किया गया है भारत में, इसकी नवीनतम रिपोर्ट के अनुसार बहुआयामी गरीबी में रहने वाले लोगों की सबसे बड़ी संख्या है नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1  केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.12) Atal Tinkering Labs aim to Stimulate innovation among students of class 6 to 12th Fast track Research and Academic Infrastructure Development in the country Foster culture of innovation in Higher education agencies Boost joint research with global universities Q.12) अटल टिंकरिंग लैब् (Atal Tinkering Labs) का लक्ष्य है कक्षा 6 से 12 वीं के छात्रों के बीच नवाचार को बढ़ावा देना देश में फास्ट ट्रैक अनुसंधान और शैक्षणिक अवसंरचना विकास उच्च शिक्षा एजेंसियों में नवाचार की संस्कृति को बढ़ावा देना वैश्विक विश्वविद्यालयों के साथ संयुक्त अनुसंधान को बढ़ावा देना Q.13) Which of the following measures will help India obtain full benefits of demographic dividend Promoting skill development Privatization of higher education Promoting the education of girl child Choose the answer using the codes given below 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only All of the above Q.13) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा उपाय, भारत को जनसांख्यिकीय लाभांश (demographic dividend) का पूर्ण लाभ प्राप्त करने में मदद करेगा कौशल विकास को बढ़ावा देना उच्च शिक्षा का निजीकरण बालिका शिक्षा को बढ़ावा देना नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके उत्तर चुनें केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 और 3 ऊपर के सभी Q.14) UK Sinha committee recently submitted its report on? Special Economic Zone policy Measures needed to rejuvenate MSMEs Reviewing and revamping the official statistics database Financial Technology sector Q.14) यू.के. सिन्हा समिति ने हाल ही में किससे संबंधित अपनी रिपोर्ट प्रस्तुत की है? विशेष आर्थिक क्षेत्र नीति एमएसएमई (MSMEs) का कायाकल्प करने के लिए आवश्यक उपाय आधिकारिक आँकड़ों के डेटाबेस की समीक्षा करना तथा उसे पुनः जारी करना वित्तीय प्रौद्योगिकी क्षेत्र Q.15) Which of the following are factors responsible for inequality in India? Jobless growth Tax evasion Social Inclusion Choose the answer using the codes given below 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only All of the above Q.15) भारत में असमानता के लिए निम्नलिखित में से कौन से कारक उत्तरदायी हैं? रोजगार विहीन विकास कर-वंचन (Tax evasion) सामाजिक समावेश नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके उत्तर चुनें केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.16) Consider the following statements regarding the participation of women in labour force Over the last decade, an increase in access to education has led to an increase in India’s Female Labour Force Participation Rate  Legislations such as Maternity Benefits Act and Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act can have a positive effect on female Labour Force Participation Rate Choose the correct answer using the codes given below 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.16) श्रम शक्ति में महिलाओं की भागीदारी के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें पिछले एक दशक में, शिक्षा की पहुंच में वृद्धि से भारत की महिला श्रम बल भागीदारी दर में वृद्धि हुई है मातृत्व लाभ अधिनियम और कार्यस्थल पर महिलाओं का यौन उत्पीड़न अधिनियम जैसे कानून महिला श्रम बल भागीदारी दर पर सकारात्मक प्रभाव डाल सकते हैं नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.17) Consider the following statements about Periodic Labor Force Survey 2107-18 It is an annual survey released by Central Statistical Organization The survey provides only unemployment data for various states Nagaland has the highest unemployment rate among the states Which of the above statements are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Q.17) आवधिक श्रम बल सर्वेक्षण 2107-18 (Periodic Labor Force Survey 2107-18) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें यह केंद्रीय सांख्यिकी संगठन द्वारा जारी एक वार्षिक सर्वेक्षण है सर्वेक्षण विभिन्न राज्यों के लिए केवल बेरोजगारी डेटा प्रदान करता है राज्यों के बीच नागालैंड में सबसे अधिक बेरोजगारी दर है उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 3 Q.18) Consider the following statements about PM-KISAN scheme? It is a central sector scheme implemented by ministry of Agriculture and Farmer welfare It provides for an income support of Rs 6,000 per year is provided to all farmer families across the country in three equal instalments of Rs 2,000 each The entire responsibility of identification of beneficiary farmer families rests with the State / UT Governments Which of the above statements are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only All of the above Q.18) प्रधानमंत्री-किसान योजना (PM-KISAN scheme) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें? यह कृषि और किसान कल्याण मंत्रालय द्वारा लागू एक केंद्रीय क्षेत्र की योजना है यह प्रति वर्ष 6,000 रुपये की आय सहायता प्रदान करती है, जिसे देश भर के सभी किसान परिवारों को 2,000 रुपये की तीन समान किस्तों में प्रदान किया जाता है। लाभार्थी किसान परिवारों की पहचान की संपूर्ण जिम्मेदारी राज्य / केन्द्र शासित प्रदेशों की सरकारों पर टिकी हुई है उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3  केवल 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.19) The 2019 Nobel Memorial Prize in Economics Sciences was awarded to Abhijit Banerjee, Esther Duflo, and Michael Kremer for their experimental approach to alleviating global poverty for integrating climate change into long-run macroeconomic analysis for integrating technological innovations into long-run macroeconomic analysis for their contributions to behavioural economics Q.19) अर्थशास्त्र विज्ञान में 2019 का नोबेल मेमोरियल पुरस्कार अभिजीत बनर्जी, एस्थर डफ्लो और माइकल क्रेमर को किस लिए प्रदान किया गया वैश्विक गरीबी को कम करने के लिए उनके प्रयोगात्मक दृष्टिकोण के लिए जलवायु परिवर्तन को दीर्घकालीन आर्थिक विश्लेषण में एकीकृत करना लंबे समय तक चलने वाले आर्थिक विश्लेषण में तकनीकी नवाचारों को एकीकृत करने के लिए व्यवहार अर्थशास्त्र में उनके योगदान के लिए Q.20) Which of the following themes are included in Aspirational Districts’ Programme? Health and Nutrition  Education  Agriculture and Water Resources Financial Inclusion and Skill Development Basic Infrastructure Choose the correct code 1, 2, 3 and 4 only 2, 3, 4 and 5 only 1, 3, 4 and 5 only All of the above Q.20) निम्नलिखित में से कौन से विषय आकांक्षी जिला परियोजना (Aspirational District’s Programme) में शामिल हैं? स्वास्थ्य और पोषण शिक्षा कृषि और जल संसाधन वित्तीय समावेशन और कौशल विकास बुनियादी ढांचे सही कूट चुनें केवल 1, 2, 3 और 4 केवल 2, 3, 4 और 5 केवल 1, 3, 4 और 5 उपरोक्त सभी Q.21) In which part of India CnemaspisAnandani, the 35th species of day gecko was found recently? Western Ghats Eastern Himalaya Andaman Islands Central Indian Forests Q.21) हाल ही में भारत के किस भाग में नेमसपिस आनंदनी (CnemaspisAnandani), डे जेको (day gecko) की 35 वीं प्रजाति पाई गई है? पश्चिमी घाट पूर्वी हिमालय अंडमान द्वीप समूह मध्य भारतीय वन Q.22) Bonavista bay opens directly onto Central Indian Ocean North Pacific Ocean South Pacific Ocean North Atlantic Ocean Q.22) बोनविस्टा खाड़ी (Bonavista bay) सीधे किसमें खुलती है मध्य हिंद महासागर उत्तरी प्रशांत महासागर दक्षिण प्रशांत महासागर उत्तरी अटलांटिक महासागर Q.23) With reference to International Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI), consider the following statements: It will focus on developing resilience in infrastructure by sharing knowledge and conducting country-specific and global activities. It was officially launched at United Nations World Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction. It is registered as a society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 of India. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 only 3 only None of these Q.23) आपदा रोधी अवसंरचना के लिए अंतर्राष्ट्रीय गठबंधन (CDRI) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: यह ज्ञान साझा करके तथा देश-विशिष्ट और वैश्विक गतिविधियों का संचालन करके बुनियादी ढांचे में लचीलापन विकसित करने पर ध्यान केंद्रित करेगा। यह आधिकारिक तौर पर आपदा जोखिम न्यूनीकरण पर संयुक्त राष्ट्र विश्व सम्मेलन में लॉन्च किया गया था। यह भारत के सोसायटी पंजीकरण अधिनियम, 1860 के तहत एक सोसायटी के रूप में पंजीकृत है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा गलत है / हैं? केवल 1  केवल 2  केवल 3 इनमें से कोई नहीं Q.24) Consider the following statements about NISHTHA Scheme: It is the largest teachers’ training programme of its kind in the world. Participants include all the teachers and Heads of Schools at the elementary level in all schools. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.24) निष्ठा योजना (NISHTHA Scheme) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: यह विश्व में अपनी तरह का सबसे बड़ा शिक्षक प्रशिक्षण कार्यक्रम है। प्रतिभागियों में सभी स्कूलों में प्राथमिक स्तर तक के सभी शिक्षक और स्कूलों के प्रमुख शामिल हैं। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1  केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.25) Tardigrade, also known as water bear have scattered on Lunar surface following the crash landing of  Chang'e 4 Robotic lander Vikram Moon lander Beresheet probe Manfred Memorial Moon Mission (4M mission) Q.25) टार्डिग्रेड (Tardigrade), जिसे जल भालू (water bear) के रूप में भी जाना जाता है, किससे क्रैश लैंडिंग के बाद चंद्रमा की सतह पर बिखर गया चांग 4 रोबोटिक लैंडर विक्रम मून लैंडर बेरेशीट प्रोब मैनफ़्रेड मेमोरियल मून मिशन (4M मिशन) Q.26) Sometimes seen in news, Astana Consensus is related to bilateral relations between China and Kazakhstan India and China Iran and India  Russia and Kazakhstan Q.26) कभी-कभी समाचारों में देखा जाने वाली, अस्ताना सर्वसम्मति (Astana Consensus) किसके मध्य द्विपक्षीय संबंधों से संबंधित है चीन और कजाकिस्तान भारत और चीन ईरान और भारत रूस और कजाकिस्तान Q.27) Consider the following statements with respect to South Atlantic Anomaly (SAA): It is a region above the South Atlantic Ocean where there are a large number of charged particles. All space telescopes are shut down when they pass through the SAA. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.27) दक्षिण अटलांटिक विसंगति (South Atlantic Anomaly- SAA) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: यह दक्षिण अटलांटिक महासागर के ऊपर एक क्षेत्र है, जहाँ बड़ी संख्या में आवेशित कण (charged particles) हैं। एसएए से गुजरने पर सभी अंतरिक्ष दूरबीनें बंद हो जाती हैं। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.28) Which of the following has issued the final framework for regulatory sandbox? Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Real Estate Regulatory Authority (RERA) Indian Bureau of Mines (IBM) Q.28) निम्नलिखित में से किसने नियामक सैंडबॉक्स (regulatory sandbox) के लिए अंतिम रूपरेखा जारी की है? भारतीय प्रतिभूति और विनिमय बोर्ड (SEBI) भारतीय रिजर्व बैंक (RBI) रियल एस्टेट नियामक प्राधिकरण (RERA) भारतीय खान ब्यूरो (IBM) Q.29) With reference to the Livelihood and Enterprise Development Programme, consider the following statements: Programme aims at creation of sustainable livelihoods amongst Self Help Group (SHG) members through cluster approach. It was launched by Ministry of Rural Development. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.29) आजीविका और उद्यम विकास कार्यक्रम के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: कार्यक्रम का उद्देश्य स्वयं सहायता समूह (SHG) के सदस्यों के बीच क्लस्टर दृष्टिकोण के माध्यम से स्थायी आजीविका का निर्माण करना है। इसे ग्रामीण विकास मंत्रालय द्वारा लॉन्च किया गया था। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1  केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.30) Falaq, recently in news is a radar system of Russia USA Iran Turkey Q.30) फलक (Falaq), हाल ही में समाचारों में थी, जो किसकी एक रडार प्रणाली है रूस अमेरीका ईरान तुर्की DOWNLOAD THE SOLUTION ENGLISH HINDI NOTE- Follow this for Comments Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test After the release of Solution Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect. What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?   One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are: Lack of information Lack of analytical ability Silly mistakes Excessive risk-taking Let’s analyze them one by one: Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances. You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it. This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination. Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise: Micro Analysis Matrix Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S Scale 1: Information meter (1) Scale 2: Analysis meter (2) Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3) Scale 4: Risk meter (4) Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation: Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion: Micro Analysis Matrix- Day 1/ Polity/ Constitutional History Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) 3 1 2 2 8 Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S 3 2 6 8 19 Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale: Information meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late. Analysis meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions. Anxiety meter < 3 Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident. Risk meter < 8 Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind. Total N x S score < 20 Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going. This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better. Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours. We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS! Importance of self - tracking: We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program. Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting! Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2020    All the Best! IASbaba

Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 11th March 2020

IAS UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 11th March 2020 Archives (PRELIMS + MAINS FOCUS) Hindu Adoption Part of: GS Prelims and GS-I- Society; GS-II- Polity In News: Supreme Court has held that a Hindu adoption is not valid unless the man takes prior consent from his wife and that there is actual ceremony of adoption These two conditions were mandated in the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act of 1956 Prelims Value Addition Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) is statutory body of Ministry of Women & Child Development It is established under Juvenile Justice Act, 2015. It is a nodal body for adoption of Indian children. It is mandated to monitor and regulate in-country and inter-country adoptions. It deals in orphan, abandoned or surrendered children. It deals with inter-country adoptions according to Hague Convention on Inter-country Adoption, 1993 ratified by India in 2003. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana(PMUY) Part of: GS Prelims – Government Schemes and GS-III- Economy In News: LPG scheme PM Ujjwala Yojana closed, but only 3 States have become kerosene-free PMUY is a scheme of the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas for providing LPG connections to women from Below Poverty Line (BPL) households. Under the scheme, an adult woman member of a below poverty line family identified through the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) is given a deposit-free LPG connection with financial assistance of Rs 1,600 per connection by the Centre. The Petroleum Ministry informed the Parliamentary committee on Petroleum that  The government had met the target of eight crore LPG connections on September 7, 2019,  The scheme was no longer running, and the present allocation ( ₹1,118 crore during 2020-21) was meant to meet the arrears in the reimbursement of expenditure 97% LPG coverage nationwide- calculated by dividing the number of households — it stand at 2850.5 lakh as on February 1 this year — and the domestic LPG consumers, at 2772.2 lakh. The committee, therefore, recommended that the scheme be extended to poor households in urban and semi-urban slum areas Sir Creek Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Bilateral Relations In News: Former Pakistan Minister recalls plan for Sir Creek pact Sir Creek is a 96 km (60 mi) tidal estuary in uninhabited marshlands of Indus river delta on the border of India and Pakistan  The Creek opens up in the Arabian Sea and roughly divides the Kutch region of Gujarat from the Sindh Province of Pakistan It was originally named Ban Ganga, but was later renamed after a British representative Sir Creek dispute between India & Pakistan lies in the interpretation of the maritime boundary line between Kutch and Sindh India claims that the boundary lies mid-channel according to international law and the Thalweg principle, while Pakistan claims that the boundary lies to the east of the creek Thalweg Principle states that river boundaries between two Countries may be divided by the mid-channel if the water-body is navigable Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 11th March 2020 Pic Source: India Today Shared Economy Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Economy In News: Shared economy in India is estimated to be an about $2 billion industry by end of 2020 In the sharing economy, individuals are said to rent or "share" things like their cars, homes and personal time to other individuals in a peer-to-peer fashion By making it easier to exchange resources on demand, the sharing economy increases efficiency.  In many circumstances, it allows participants to get by without owning valuable items, such as cars, while creating opportunities for others to extract value from idle possessions or talents. The sharing economy often involves some type of online platform that connects buyers and seller. The ‘shared economy’ includes segments such as co-working (Awfis, WeWork India), co-living (Stanza Living, OYO Life, Oxford Caps), shared mobility (Uber, Ola, Shuttl) and furniture rental (Furlenco, Rentomojo.) Plants dissipate excess sunlight as heat Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Science & Technology In News: Photosynthesis is a life-sustaining process by which plants store solar energy as sugar molecules.  However, if sunlight (solar energy) is in excess, it can lead to leaves being dehydrated and damaged The excess solar energy is transferred from the pigment chlorophyll, which gives leaves their green colour, to other pigments called carotenoids.  The carotenoids then release the energy as heat The heat dissipation phenomenon occurs on a very fast time scale, in femtoseconds or quadrillionths of a second. The excess energy, if not released, leads to the creation of free radicals that can damage proteins and other important cellular molecules. Government to Launch Mahua-based Alcoholic Drink Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Economy In News: Mahuwa (Madhuca indica) is a prominent forest tree in tribal areas of Bastar, Chhattisgarh and plays an important role in the rural economy.  The mahuwa flowers are a rich source of sugars and are said to contain vitamins, minerals and calcium.  The flowers are fermented and distilled yielding spirituous liquor also known as ‘country beer’ The beverage - Called Mahua Nutribeverage - has a high nutritional value and relatively low alcohol content (5 %)  It has been developed by IIT-Delhi after two years of research in collaboration with TRIFED (Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India). The marketing is being undertaken under the Tribal Affairs Ministry’s value-addition scheme called the Van Dhan Vikas Karyakram. About Van Dhan Vikas Karyakram It is nation-wide programme for training tribal clusters to add value to their produce and sell it in a packaged format, aiming to increase their income manifold. The products marketed under the scheme include only those that need primary-level processing, including handicrafts, textiles, food items, jams and pulps, and jewellery Implementing Agency: TRIFED Attukal Pongala Part of: GS Prelims and GS-I- Culture In News: The Attukal Pongala is a ten-day- long festival held in Attukal Temple, Thiruvananthapuram(Kerala) is the largest congregation of women for a festival in the world. Pongala, which means 'to boil over’, is the ritual in which women prepare sweet payasam (a pudding made from rice, jaggery, coconut and plantains cooked together) and offer it to the Goddess or ‘Bhagavathy’. The ritual can only be performed by women The festival commences with the musical rendering of the story of the Goddess (Kannaki Charitam) that invokes the victory of Good over Evil, by the slaying of Pandyan King. Also known as “the Sabarimala of Women''. (MAINS FOCUS) Governance Topic: General Studies 2: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation.  Issues relating to development and management of Social Sector/Services relating to Education School education Parliamentary Standing Committee on Human Resource Development in its latest report on budgetary grants for school education and literacy for 2020-21, has made the following observations: The allocation to the School Education and Literacy department has suffered a cut of 27.52%, amounting to Rs. 22,725 crore in the Budget Estimate for 2020-21,  Access to Electricity: Only 56.45% of government schools had electricity (for 2017-18)  In politically well-represented state of Uttar Pradesh, almost 70% of schools lacked electricity. Playground: Only 56.98% of schools had a playground (for 2017-18) Boundary Wall: Almost 40% of schools lacked a boundary wall (for 2017-18) Disability Friendly: Neglect of toilet construction for children with special needs Girl Toilets: Absence of toilets for girls in nearly one-third of secondary schools  Inadequate laboratories for higher secondary science students Government Steps in Education Sector NDA government launched ‘100-day programme’ for education after coming to power for second term in 2019 The 100 day programme focused in part on training of schoolteachers and opening of central schools.  Since Education is in Concurrent list Union government operates its own schemes and sponsors several school education programmes covering the States, notably Samagra Shiksha and the Mid Day Meal scheme. Samagra Shiksha It is an overarching programme for the school education sector extending from pre-school to class 12 It subsumes the three Schemes of  Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA),  Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA)  Teacher Education (TE). Objective: Improving school effectiveness measured in terms of equal opportunities for schooling and equitable learning outcomes. Major features of the scheme are Holistic approach to education- Treat school education holistically as a continuum from Pre-school to Class 12 Administrative reform - Single and unified administrative structure leading to harmonized implementation. Enhanced Funding for Education Focus on Quality of Education – With emphasis on improvement of Learning Outcomes, capacity building of Teachers and utilizing technology. Outcome oriented allocation of resources Focus on Digital Education - Support ‘Operation Digital Board’ in all secondary schools over a period of 5 years. Digital initiatives like Shala Kosh, Shagun, Shaala Saarthi to be strengthened. “DIKSHA”, digital portal for teachers to be used extensively for upgrading skills of teachers Focus on Inclusion and reducing gender gap Focus on Skill Development- Strengthening of vocational education at secondary level as an integral part of curriculum Focus on Sports and Physical Education - Sports equipment will be provided to all schools under this component. Focus on Regional Balance- Preference to Educationally Backward Blocks (EBBs), LWEs, Special Focus Districts (SFDs), Border areas and the 115 aspirational districts identified by Niti Aayog Way Forward: Effective implementation of Samgra Shiksha Abhiyan Mission-mode approach to infrastructure ensuring that no school is left behind.  Solar power can be installed in schools and toilets built for all students in 100 days.  Community participation to ensure that the objectives are satisfactorily met Incentivizing State governments (Finance Commission Grants) to enhance expenditure on Schooling Conclusion A public school system that guarantees universal access, good learning and all facilities has to be among the highest national priorities. Connecting the dots ASER Report In India we have islands of Excellence in Higher Education System – Critically Analyse (TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE) Model questions: (You can now post your answers in comment section) Note:  Correct answers of today’s questions will be provided in next day’s DNA section. Kindly refer to it and update your answers.  Comments Up-voted by IASbaba are also the “correct answers”. Q 1. Consider the following statements about Muhawa trees It is a prominent forest tree in tribal areas of Bastar, Chhattisgarh  The mahuwa flowers are a rich source of proteins and are said to contain vitamins, minerals and calcium.  Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 2. Attukal Pongala is a festival that is predominantly celebrated in which State of India? Karnataka Kerala Tamil Nadu Andhra Pradesh Q 3. Consider the following statements  Assertion (A): Plants dissipate excess sunlight as heat Reasoning (R): The excess energy, if not released, leads to the creation of free radicals that can damage proteins and other important cellular molecules of plant. Select the correct answer from codes given below Both A & R is correct and R is the correct explanation of A Both A & R is correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A  A is correct but R is Incorrect A is incorrect but R is correct Q 4. Consider the following statements about Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) It is a statutory body of Ministry of Home Affairs, established under Juvenile Justice Act, 2015 It deals with inter-country adoptions according to Hague Convention on Inter-country Adoption, 1993 ratified by India in 2003 Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 5. Thalweg Principle often seen in news is related to which field? Estimation of Pollution in Artic region Carbon Trading Maritime Boundary determination Voting power in IMF & World Bank ANSWERS FOR 10 March 2020 TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE (TYK) 1 A 2 A 3 C 4 B Must Read About Dividend Distribution Taxation: The Hindu About Yes Bank Crisi: The Hindu About Market Volatility: The Hindu

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Balakot Airstrike - Lessons Learnt – The Big Picture – RSTV IAS UPSC

Balakot Airstrike - Lessons Learnt Archives TOPIC:  General Studies 2 India and its neighbour relations General Studies 3 Defence and Security issues In News: February 26th marks the first anniversary of the Balakot airstrike which was conducted by the Indian Air Force to target the terrorist camps operating in the town of Balakot in the Khyber-Pakhtunkhwa province of Pakistan.  Forty CPRF Jawans lost their lives in the attack when an ED-laden SUV rammed into their convoy. The terrorist organisation Jaish-e-Mohammad claimed responsibility for the suicide bombing. The Balakot airstrikes were seen as a direct response to the Pulwama bombing. On February 26, 2019, in the wee hours, India carried out airstrikes 12 days after a convoy of vehicles carrying CRPF personnel was attacked by a suicide bomber - plotted by Jaish-e-Mohammed in Pulwama district of Jammu.  On 14 February last year, 40 Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) personnel were killed in the attack. In retaliation, Indian Air Force destroyed the biggest terror training camp of JeM at Balakot on February 26, 2019.  A dozen IAF Mirage 2000 fighter jets crossed the India-Pakistan border to attack terror camp.  According to media reports, the terrorist camps at Balakot have undergone a revamp ahead of the first anniversary of the IAF bombings.  Operation Bandar The IAF's mission to bomb the terrorist hideout in Balakot, Pakistan, was given the codename 'Operation Bandar'. It was a rare operation in which the IAF crossed the Line of Control (LoC) in Jammu and Kashmir and dropped bombs on targets in Pakistani territory. Balakot is a small town located in Pakistan's Khyber-Pakhtunkhwa province.   On February 26, 2019, Indian Air Force's Mirage-2000 fighter jets took off from airbases across India. The Indian Air Force jets crossed the LoC in J&K and bombed Jaish terror camps in Balakot with precision-guided missiles. Pakistan retaliated a day after. The Pakistan Air Force attempted an airstrike on Indian soil. The Indian Air Force launched its fighter jets in response, leading to a rare dogfight between the Indian and Pakistani jets. In the skirmish, an IAF MiG-21 Bison fighter jet shot down a Pakistani F-16 during the conflict. Indian Mig-21, which was being flown by Wing Commander Abhinandan Varthaman, was also shot down and he was captured by the Pakistani forces. After much deliberation, Wing Commander Abhinandan was released two days later from Pakistan's hold. This development calmed the tensions between the two nations after two weeks of heightened conflict. Balakot Airstrike - Lessons Learnt – The Big Picture – RSTV IAS UPSC Pic: https://d39gegkjaqduz9.cloudfront.net/TH/2019/02/27/DEL/Delhi/TH/5_01/c8450ebe_2763205_101_mr.jpg Biggest Learning The biggest lesson of the air skirmish, in which Wing Commander Abhinandan Varthaman’s aircraft was shot down across the border, was the lack of an edge over the US supplied AMRAAM beyond visual range missiles that are in service with the Pakistani air force. The engagement range of the AIM 120 AMRAAM, fired from F 16s with the Pakistani air force, forced Indian fighters to take evasive manoeuvres on February 27 last year at the LoC skirmish. The Indian Su 30 MKI and Mirage 2000 fighters that had been scrambled to take on the enemy fighters could not get a firing solution on F 16s as both their radars and weapons were out ranged by the American supplied missiles. It was only Wing Commander Abhinandan who could fire away the close range R 73 missile as he managed to sneak in close to the enemy fighter formation after taking off from Srinagar. This key capability is still missing, though the arrival of the Rafale jets armed with Meteor air-to-air missiles will change the equation. Solution: 2 Su 30MKIs against one F 16 for an assured kill - because of better radar and weapon on the F 16. When the Rafale comes in, one fighter jet would be adequate to go up against two F 16s, reversing the ratio While the fleet of 36 Rafale jets would come with the Meteor, there has been no move yet to order more of the jets since the Balakot strike. Conversations on an additional 36 jets that will cost significantly less than the original order of 7.6 billion euros have started but the order is nowhere close to being placed. The larger worry is that the mainstay Su 30MKI is still unable to match up to the adversary in terms of missile range. To correct this, the air force has been encouraging the development of the home-grown Astra missile that would have an engagement range of over 100 km. The first stage of development is over but orders are yet to be placed and even in the best case scenario, Sukhois armed with operationally ready Astra missiles are still a year away. Other plans that have got a push after Balakot include vital clearances to go ahead with the development of large Airborne Early Warning And Control (AWACS) systems. DRDO has accelerated the project to develop at least two aircraft-mounted radar systems that can look deep into enemy territory and direct combat assets for a strike, using the Airbus A 330 platform. Again, at the best case scenario, these aircraft would take at least five years for induction. The induction of the Rafales, the large AWACS and the S 400 air defence system (first units expected next year) will give the air force an edge in range—where it will no longer need to cross the border to inflict punishing damage to terror infrastructure anywhere in Pakistan and will be able to defeat with ease any retaliatory action planned. Reflections and Message to the World Balakot reflected India’s approach against the employment of terrorism as a low-cost option against India.  Indicated that terrorists, terrorist infrastructure and terrorist training facilities in areas beyond LoC and International Border when employed against India, will no longer be safe haven Terrorism will not remain a low-cost option that can proliferate under veiled threats and bogeys that have repeatedly been voiced by irresponsible and ill-informed leaders from across the border Balakot will continue to reiterate India's intent to employ the most appropriate resources for the intended impact, with an element of unpredictability and innovation as an integral part of the endeavour. It is this factor that must remain uppermost in our minds. India has joined the list of countries along with the United States and Israel who can strike in enemy territory and avenge the death of its soldiers. It sent out a signal to adversaries that India’s response to provocation will no longer be ‘soft’ and only diplomatic. All options were on the table. The Way Ahead In the next five years all requests placed before the government by the NSG needs to be met. NSG should be made into a complete commando force be it training, modern weapons, facilities of family members among others. The idea is to keep NSG at least two steps ahead of other forces in the world. Indian Army has to forge ahead with restructuring the army to allow for faster ground mobilisation and greater flexibility in limited land-based military operations. Work on the naval power as well: In the short-term, India is likely to position its naval forces aggressively during a confrontation with Pakistan, as it reportedly did during this crisis and in previous crises. In the long-term, it may explore a naval blockade or land attack options, though India’s ability to execute decisive missions in its adversary’s territorial waters will be limited and potentially escalatory given Pakistan’s naval nuclear ambitions. Thus, Indian pressure in the Arabian Sea will remain the optimal choice for now. There is a need to continue the restrained approach it has adopted after the operation, and avoid the triumphalism that clouded the ‘surgical strikes’ of September 2016.  In the long term, building strong counter-terror defences, partnering with its own citizens to gather intelligence, and creating deterrents will be key. Connecting the Dots: Balakot airstrikes compelled Pakistan to change its rulebook. Comment. India’s longstanding doctrine of restraint has ended, opening up space for more risky Indian retaliation moves against terror attacks like Pulwama. Discuss. Essay topic:  No War No Peace Between each India-Pakistan crisis, learning occurs.

Daily Current Affairs IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 10th March 2020

IAS UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 10th March 2020 Archives (PRELIMS + MAINS FOCUS) Long Term Repo Operations(LTROs) Part of: GS Prelims and GS-III- Economy In News: Repo rate is the rate at which Banks borrow from RBI. Generally, these loans are for short durations up to 2 weeks. Also, loans with higher maturity period (here like 1 year and 3 year) will have higher interest rate compared to short term (repo) loans The LTRO is a tool under which the RBI provides one-year to three-year money to banks at the prevailing repo rate, accepting government securities with matching or higher tenure as the collateral RBI has announced injection of Rs. 1 Lakh Crore into the system through LTRO auctions. Therefore, LTRO supplies Banking system with liquidity for their 1- to 3-year needs. LTRO operations are also intended to prevent short-term interest rates in the market from drifting a long way away from the policy rate (i.e. repo rate) The LTRO will also help bring down the yields for shorter-term securities (in the 1-3-year tenor) in the bond market. Mahatma Gandhi National Fellowship programme Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Governance In News: MGNFP was launched in the IIM Bengaluru The Fellowship is part of the SANKALP programme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Objective: To provide skilled manpower for District Skill Committees to prepare the District Skill Development plan.  Under the pilot project, IIMB will train 75 graduates for two years in preparing the District skill plan considering the skill gaps, market utilities, government schemes and institutions available in the district Its unique design will allow the Fellows to take academic learning at IIM Bangalore and use it in the field, under faculty mentorship, with the goal of understanding challenges and barriers that the district ecosystem faces in fostering growth and development Pyramid of Djoser Part of: GS Prelims and GS-I- Art & Culture In News: Egypt reopened the Pyramid of Djoser, the first pyramid ever built, after a 14-year restoration costing nearly $6.6 million. The pyramid was constructed during the era of Pharaoh Djoser, the second king of Ancient Egypt’s Third Dynasty (2650 BC– 2575 BC).  The 4,700-year-old pyramid is 60 metres tall, and consists of six stacked steps over a burial shaft tomb 28 metres deep and seven metres wide. It is located at the Saqqara archaeological site, 24 km southwest of Cairo, outside the royal capital of Memphis It is a UNESCO world heritage site Cord Blood Banking Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Science & Technology In News: Cord blood banking involves taking the umbilical cord blood, which is a rich source of stem cells, and preserving it for future use.  Stem cells are special human cells that have the ability to develop into many different cell types, from muscle cells to brain cells Globally, cord blood banking is recommended as a source of hematopoietic stem cell (derived from bone marrow, peripheral blood, or umbilical cord blood) transplantation for haematological cancers and disorders where its use is recommended.  For all other conditions, the use of cord blood as a source of stem cells is not yet established Kyasanur Forest Disease Part of: GS Prelims and GS-II- Health In News: There is a proposal to set up a study & research centre on Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD) in Sagar, Karnataka. It is caused by Kyasanur Forest disease Virus (KFDV), a member of the virus family Flaviviridae. It was first identified in 1957 in a sick monkey from the Kyasanur Forest in Karnataka. Since then, between 400-500 human cases per year have been reported. Hard ticks (Hemaphysalis spinigera) are the reservoir of KFD virus. Rodents, shrews, and monkeys are common hosts for KFDV after being bitten by an infected tick. Larger animals such as cattle, goats or sheep may become infected with KFD but play a limited role in transmission of disease to humans Transmission to humans may occur after a tick bite or contact with an infected animal, most importantly a sick or recently dead monkey. No person-to-person transmission has been described Signs and Symptoms: After an incubation period of 3-8 days, the symptoms like chills, fever, headache, severe muscle pain, vomiting, gastrointestinal symptoms and bleeding may occur.  Endemic Regions of KFD in India are: Karnataka Tamil Nadu Kerala states Prevention: A vaccine does exist for KFD and is used in endemic areas of India. Additional preventative measures include insect repellents and wearing protective clothing in areas where ticks are endemic Places in News: Kali Tiger Reserve and Bedthi Conservation Reserve - Karnataka  (MAINS FOCUS) Economy & International Affairs Topic: General Studies 2: Indian Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilization, of resources, growth, development and employment. 
 Effect of policies and politics of developed and developing countries on India’s interests Oil Market meltdown Context: Saudi Arabia cut oil prices and declared its intention to increase output well beyond what the oil market can absorb currently. As a result, Oil prices fell (almost one-third) by the most in one day since the 1991 Gulf War. The price of U.S. crude fell as much as 34% to $27.34 a barrel. The oil market is now set to witness the rare conjunction of a demand and a supply shock which is bad news for prices.  Why Are Oil Prices Falling? First came the coronavirus outbreak, which reduced travel and transport, sharply reducing demand for fuel. China, a major importer, has cut its imports by a third from Saudi Arabia, its biggest supplier The international Brent benchmark had fallen from $69 at the start of the year to around $50 during Feb Last Week Why sudden fall in prices within a day? There was meeting between OPEC and non-member countries in first week of March. On the agenda was a production cut of 1.5 million barrels a day, or about 1.5% of global production The idea was to keep prices from declining further as demand was expected to fall in 2020 Saudi Arabia, the world's No. 2 oil producer, wanted No. 3 Russia and other nonmembers to take 500,000 barrels per day of the cuts.  Since 2016, the Saudis and the Russians have worked together on production issues. But this time Russia refused to join new cuts, or even to extend previous production cuts that were due to expire at the end of March, 2020. And the Saudis hit back, by announcing that they were going to ramp up production and slash prices for Asian customers. What Is Saudi Arabia's Goal? First, protecting market share. Both Saudi Arabia and Russia have seen U.S. producers (No 1 producer of Oil in world) take a chunk of their market, and falling prices help keep customers on board. Second, Saudi Arabia may hope that the pain of low prices will force a Russian rethink. What Is Russia’s Goal? Russia may have a longer-term target: the U.S. oil industry. There is a view that Russia’s action can damage the financial health of U.S. shale-oil producers (highly leveraged & running on low margins) and that by doing this they can take a lot of U.S. capacity offline and thereby remove U.S. producers as a source of competition. Russia may also have decided to hit back at the U.S. industry after Washington placed sanctions on Russian state oil company Rosneft for marketing Venezuela's oil. What does this Mean for US Producers? According to the Federal Reserve Bank of Dallas, $50 per barrel is the price at which it becomes profitable to drill a new well in the U.S. The current low prices could constrain activity in the American shale oil industry.  A downturn in oil prices in 2014-2016 hurt companies in places like the Permian Basin in west Texas and eastern New Mexico.  In Texas, the number of active rigs fell from 553 in October 2018 to 398 in January 2020. Around the same time, the oil industry in Texas shed about 14,000 jobs U.S. shale oil industry could find itself into unviable financial position and the industry can come to a halt due to the lack of further investment in the industry Impact on the world Price fall is a bad news for the big oil companies and the smaller shale oil players who are highly leveraged A collapse of these shale oil producers may set off defaults in the bond markets With stock and bond markets already in turmoil, the price war now set off in oil is only going to make the markets more volatile and murkier.  Impact on India A fall in prices is good news for major consumers such as India, where nearly 85% of India’s oil needs are met by import This will reduce the oil import bill at a time when merchandise exports are likely to suffer due to the freeze in the developed economies This will keep the current account deficit balanced. The fall in fuel prices will also drag down headline inflation giving the RBI elbow room to cut rates.  But the oil price fall may be bad news for the Centre’s disinvestment programme as the sale of Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL) could run into difficulties. Big oil companies, which are widely expected to bid for BPCL, may either shy away from it or their bids may be much lower than expected as the company’s valuation may drop In such an eventuality, it is quite possible that the government may step in to grab a slice of the windfall from falling prices, through higher excise duties to compensate for the loss from disinvestment proceeds. Connecting the dots Impact of fall in oil prices on Europe Strategic Oil Reserves in India (TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE) Model questions: (You can now post your answers in comment section) Note:  Correct answers of today’s questions will be provided in next day’s DNA section. Kindly refer to it and update your answers.  Comments Up-voted by IASbaba are also the “correct answers”. Q 1. Consider the following statements about Cord Blook Banking It involves taking the umbilical cord blood, which is a rich source of stem cells, and preserving it for future use.  Cord blood banking is recommended as a source of stem cells for all types of cancers and disorders. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 2. Kali Tiger Reserve is located in which State of India? Karnataka Maharashtra Uttar Pradesh Madhya Pradesh Q 3. Consider the following statements about Djoser pyramid It is considered as the world’s oldest monumental stone building. It is a UNESCO world heritage site Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q 4. Consider the following statements about Kyasanur Forest Disease It is caused by a bacteria transmitted through mosquito bites It was first identified in 1957 in a sick monkey from the Kyasanur Forest in Karnataka Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 ANSWERS FOR 09 March 2020 TEST YOUR KNOWLEDGE (TYK) 1 C 2 C 3 C 4 C 5 C Must Read About Yes Bank Crisis: The Hindu About PMJAY: The Hindu About Coronavirus Outbreak: The Indian Express

IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan- IAS Prelims Test Series 2020 ECONOMICS & CURRENT AFFAIRS [Day 9]

Hello Friends,  https://www.youtube.com/embed/x5ldu2jV8N0 ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS The 60 Days Training has finally begun:) DAY 9 is here! Before any competition, there is a preparatory phase. That phase involves a lot of sessions on strengths and weaknesses. Throughout the preparatory phase, the athletes train in a gradual manner. In the last phase, just before the actual competition, the training is done so as to sharpen their skills. This training requires complete focus and dedication. In this phase, the athletes do not try anything new or train in a new fashion rather focus on the sharpening of skills, focusing on strength and precision. Similarly, the upcoming 60 days, is like the last phase (training session), just before the actual competition. Here, the focus should be on sharpening the concepts, consolidating the knowledge base and solidifying the learning with loads and loads of revision. You will come across many distractions in between in the name of sources and resources (exclusive and inclusive), beware of them. Be alert and objective in selecting your companions in this preparation. Trust your effort and revise more than falling prey to multiple resources and doing nothing in the end. Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity.  Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (5 PM), cross-check the answers and again, comment the marks (you got) in the same comment thread. This will keep you responsible and sincere in days to come. Also, we need more sets of scores for releasing the cut offs in the night so, requesting all of you to sincerely put your scores in comment section.    You can also take part in discussion with peers.   Q.1) In the context of Indian economy, consider the following statements The Gross domestic product has steadily increased in the last five years The growth rate in per capita income has steadily increased in the last five years Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.1) भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें पिछले पांच वर्षों में सकल घरेलू उत्पाद में लगातार वृद्धि हुई है पिछले पांच वर्षों में प्रति व्यक्ति आय में वृद्धि दर लगातार बढ़ी है ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.2) Which of the following can lead to the growth of Human Capital? Investment in Education On the job training Migration Choose the correct answer using the codes given below 1 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only All of the above Q.2) निम्नलिखित में से कौन मानव पूंजी में संवृद्धि कर सकता है? शिक्षा में निवेश नौकरी में प्रशिक्षण प्रवास (Migration) नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.3) The Gross National Product of India considers The Income of only resident and non-resident citizens of a country The Income of only resident citizens of a country The Income of both resident citizens and foreigners who reside within Indian territory The Income of resident, non-resident citizens and foreigners who reside within Indian territory Q.3) भारत में सकल राष्ट्रीय उत्पाद (Gross National Product) है देश के केवल निवासी और अनिवासी नागरिकों की आय किसी देश के केवल निवासी नागरिकों की आय भारतीय क्षेत्र में रहने वाले निवासी नागरिकों और विदेशियों दोनों की आय निवासी, गैर-निवासी नागरिकों और विदेशियों की आय जो भारतीय क्षेत्र के भीतर रहते हैं Q.4) Which of the following are considered as Final Goods? Services of a doctor Vegetables bought by a restaurant to serve customers  Machine bought by a company as an investment Choose the correct answer using the codes given below 1 only 1 and 3 only None of the above All of the above Q.4) निम्न में से किसे अंतिम उत्पाद (Final Goods) माना जाता है? एक डॉक्टर की सेवाएं ग्राहकों की सेवा के लिए एक रेस्तरां द्वारा खरीदी गई सब्जियां एक कंपनी द्वारा निवेश के रूप में खरीदी गई मशीन नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1 केवल 1 और 3 इनमें से कोई भी नहीं उपरोक्त सभी Q.5) National income (NI) in India is a term used for Net National Product at market cost Gross National Product at factor cost Net National Product at factor cost Net Domestic Product at market cost Q.5) भारत में राष्ट्रीय आय (NI) एक शब्द है, जिसका प्रयोग किया जाता है बाजार लागत पर शुद्ध राष्ट्रीय उत्पाद कारक लागत पर सकल राष्ट्रीय उत्पाद कारक लागत पर शुद्ध राष्ट्रीय उत्पाद बाजार लागत पर शुद्ध घरेलू उत्पाद Q.6) Consider the following statements regarding Real and Nominal GDP Real GDP is calculated using the price of goods and services at the base year Nominal GDP is calculated using the price of the goods and services in that particular year Choose the correct answer using the codes given below 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.6) वास्तविक (Real) और नाममात्र (Nominal) जीडीपी के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें आधार वर्ष में वस्तुओं एवं सेवाओं की कीमत का उपयोग करके वास्तविक जीडीपी की गणना की जाती है नाममात्र जीडीपी की गणना उस विशेष वर्ष में वस्तु एवं सेवाओं की कीमत का उपयोग करके की जाती है नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.7) Which among the following activities constitute Secondary sector in an Economy Mining Construction Manufacturing Choose the correct answer using the codes given below 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only All of the above Q.7) निम्नलिखित गतिविधियों में से कौन एक अर्थव्यवस्था में द्वितीयक क्षेत्र का गठन करती है खनन (Mining) निर्माण (Construction) विनिर्माण (Manufacturing) नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 और 3  केवल 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.8) Consider the following statements regarding the Human Development Index (HDI) It is an index prepared by the United Nations Development Program The basic dimensions are - long and healthy life, education and a decent standard of living Choose the correct answer using the codes given below 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.8) मानव विकास सूचकांक (HDI) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। यह संयुक्त राष्ट्र विकास कार्यक्रम द्वारा तैयार एक सूचकांक है मूल आयाम - लंबा एवं स्वस्थ जीवन, शिक्षा तथा जीवन जीने का एक सभ्य स्तर है नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.9) The goods for which the demand increases as the price increases, because of its exclusive nature and appeal as a status symbol is called Giffen goods Veblen goods Luxury goods Inferior goods Q.9) वह वस्तु, जिसकी क़ीमत बढ़ाने पर मांग बढ़ जाती है, क्योंकि उसकी विशेष प्रकृति तथा पदस्थिति के प्रतीक के रूप में मानी जाती है गिफेन वस्तुएं वेब्लेन वस्तुएं विलासिता की वस्तुएं निम्न कोटि की वस्तुएं Q.10) In the context of Indian economy, consider the following statements The Share of Services sector in India’s GVA (Gross value added) has steadily increased in the last five years The Share of Primary sector in India’s GVA (Gross value added) has steadily decreased in the last five years Choose the correct statement/s using the codes given below 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.10) भारतीय अर्थव्यवस्था के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें पिछले पाँच वर्षों में भारत के GVA (सकल मूल्य वर्धित) में सेवा क्षेत्र का हिस्सा, लगातार बढ़ा है पिछले पांच वर्षों में भारत के GVA (सकल मूल्य वर्धित) में प्राथमिक क्षेत्र का हिस्सा लगातार घटा है नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही विवरण चुनें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.11) If some manual laborers are fired from a company due to the introduction of automation, then what kind of unemployment do they face? Disguised Unemployment Structural unemployment Hidden unemployment Frictional unemployment Q.11) अगर स्वचालन (automation) शुरू करने के कारण कुछ मैनुअल मजदूरों को कंपनी से निकाल दिया जाता है, तो वे किस तरह की बेरोजगारी का सामना करते हैं? प्रच्छन्न बेरोजगारी संरचनात्मक बेरोजगारी छिपी हुई बेरोजगारी घर्षणात्मक बेरोजगारी Q.12) Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Yuva Yojana It aims to create an enabling ecosystem for entrepreneurship promotion among youth It has been launched by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports Choose the correct answer using the codes given below 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.12) प्रधानमंत्री युवा योजना के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें इसका उद्देश्य युवाओं में उद्यमशीलता को बढ़ावा देने के लिए एक सक्षम पारिस्थितिकी तंत्र बनाना है इसे युवा मामले और खेल मंत्रालय द्वारा लॉन्च किया गया है नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.13) Consider the following goods Grazing land Street light Service of Police The opportunity cost for providing which of the above goods is zero? 1 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only All of the above Q.13) निम्नलिखित वस्तुओं पर विचार करें चारागाह भूमि स्ट्रीट लाइट पुलिस की सेवा उपरोक्त वस्तुओं को प्रदान करने के लिए किसकी अवसर लागत (opportunity cost) शून्य है? केवल 1 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 और 3  उपरोक्त सभी Q.14) The Agriculture Census 2015-16 data shows that The average size of operational holding has declined The percentage share of female operational holders has increased Choose the correct answer using the codes given below 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.14) कृषि जनगणना 2015-16 के आंकड़ों से पता चलता है कि परिचालन धारकों (operational holding) के औसत आकार में गिरावट आई है महिला परिचालन धारकों का प्रतिशत शेयर बढ़ा है नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.15) Which of the following are steps taken by the Government for the eradication of poverty? National Food Security Act Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act Choose the correct answer using the codes given below 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only All of the above Q.15) गरीबी उन्मूलन के लिए सरकार ने निम्नलिखित में से कौन से कदम उठाए हैं? राष्ट्रीय खाद्य सुरक्षा अधिनियम प्रधानमंत्री जन आरोग्य योजना महात्मा गांधी राष्ट्रीय ग्रामीण रोजगार गारंटी अधिनियम नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 और 3  उपरोक्त सभी Q.16) The tax system followed by India is Progressive Proportional Regressive None of the above Q.16) भारत में किस प्रकार की कर प्रणाली अपनायी गयी है प्रगतिशील (Progressive) आनुपातिक (Proportional) प्रतिगामी (Regressive) इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.17) Consider the following statements regarding India’s tax collection The share of Personal Income tax has steadily increased for the last five years The share of Corporate Tax is higher than the share of Goods and Services Tax for the yeas 2019-20 Choose the correct answer using the codes given below 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.17) भारत के कर संग्रह के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें व्यक्तिगत आय कर का हिस्सा पिछले पांच वर्षों से लगातार बढ़ा है वर्ष 2019-20 के लिए निगम कर (Corporate Tax) की हिस्सेदारी, वस्तु एवं सेवा कर की हिस्सेदारी से अधिक है नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.18) Consider the following statements regarding Economic Growth and Development Growth is quantitative while development is qualitative Economic growth is necessary for development Choose the correct answer using the codes given below 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.18) आर्थिक वृद्धि (Growth) एवं विकास (Development) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें वृद्धि मात्रात्मक है जबकि विकास गुणात्मक है विकास के लिए आर्थिक संवृद्धि आवश्यक है नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.19) Consider the following statements While Real GDP calculation takes inflation in to account, Nominal GDP does not Nominal GDP is often higher than real GDP GDP in India is calculated by the Central Statistics Office Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only All of the above Q.19) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें वास्तविक जीडीपी गणना मुद्रास्फीति को ध्यान में रखती है, जबकि नाममात्र जीडीपी नहीं नाममात्र जीडीपी, वास्तविक जीडीपी की तुलना में अक्सर अधिक होती है भारत में जीडीपी की गणना केंद्रीय सांख्यिकी कार्यालय द्वारा की जाती है उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.20) Consider the following statements regarding PM Shram Yogi Maan-dhan scheme It is launched by the Ministry of Labour and Employment Any worker in the unorganized sector can enrol in the scheme Choose the correct answer using the codes given below 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.20) प्रधानमंत्री श्रम योगी मान-धन योजना के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें इसे श्रम और रोजगार मंत्रालय द्वारा लॉन्च किया गया है असंगठित क्षेत्र का कोई भी श्रमिक योजना में नामांकन कर सकता है नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.21) With reference to Mekong-Ganga Cooperation, consider the following statements: It is an initiative by India and four ASEAN Countries. Initiative aims at achieving cooperation between members in tourism, culture, education, as well as transport and communications. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.21) मेकांग-गंगा सहयोग के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: यह भारत और चार आसियान देशों द्वारा एक पहल है। पहल का उद्देश्य पर्यटन, संस्कृति, शिक्षा, साथ ही परिवहन और संचार में सदस्यों के बीच सहयोग प्राप्त करना है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.22)  The largest tribe among 75 Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) of India is Saharia Baiga Jenu Kuruba Irular Q.22) भारत के 75 विशेष रूप से कमजोर जनजातीय समूहों (PVTGs) के मध्य सबसे बड़ी जनजाति है सहरिया बैगा जेनु कुरुबा (Jenu Kuruba) इरुलार (Irular) Q.23) India’s first National Time Release Study (TRS) is conducted by Ministry of Science and Technology The Ministry of Communication and Information Technology Ministry of Home Affairs Ministry of Finance Q.23) भारत का प्रथम राष्ट्रीय समय सारणी अध्ययन (Time Release Study -TRS) किसके द्वारा आयोजित किया जाता है विज्ञान और प्रौद्योगिकी मंत्रालय संचार और सूचना प्रौद्योगिकी मंत्रालय गृह मंत्रालय वित्त मत्रांलय Q.24) Consider the following pairs:               River City Tawi Srinagar       2. Musi  Hyderabad      3. Narmada Surat   Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only Q.24) निम्नलिखित युग्मों पर विचार करें:                               नदी                          शहर  1. तवी  श्रीनगर  2. मुसी  हैदराबाद  3. नर्मदा  सूरत    ऊपर दिए गए युग्मों में से कौन सा सही तरीके से सुमेलित है? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2  केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 और 3 Q.25) In which of the following state Laokhowa Wildlife Sanctuary is located? Odisha West Bengal Assam Chhattisgarh Q.25) निम्न में से किस राज्य में लाओखोवा वन्यजीव अभयारण्य स्थित है? ओडिशा पश्चिम बंगाल असम छत्तीसगढ़ Q.26) Often seen in the news ‘Special Data Dissemination Standard’ was established by  International Monetary Fund (IMF) UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) United Nations Commission on Human Rights (UNCHR) Bank for International Settlements (BIS) Q.26) अक्सर समाचारों में देखा जाने वाला 'विशेष डेटा प्रसार मानक' किसके द्वारा स्थापित किया गया था अंतर्राष्ट्रीय मुद्रा कोष (IMF) जलवायु परिवर्तन पर संयुक्त राष्ट्र फ्रेमवर्क कन्वेंशन (UNFCCC) संयुक्त राष्ट्र मानवाधिकार आयोग (UNCHR) बैंक फॉर इंटरनेशनल सेटलमेंट्स (BIS) Q.27) With reference to Price Stabilisation Fund, consider the following statements: It is constituted for the purpose of containing extreme volatility in prices of all essential agriculture commodities. It is maintained as a Central Corpus Fund by Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC). Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.27) मूल्य स्थिरीकरण कोष (Price Stabilisation Fund) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: इसका गठन अत्यधिक अस्थिरता वाली सभी आवश्यक कृषि वस्तुओं की कीमतों को नियंत्रण में रखने के उद्देश्य हेतु किया गया है। यह लघु कृषक एग्री बिजनेस कंसोर्टियम (SFAC) द्वारा सेंट्रल कॉर्पस फंड से पोषित (maintained) किया गया है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा गलत है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.28) Consider the following statements about National Essential Diagnostic List (NEDL): India has become the first country in the world to compile such list. National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) has finalized the NEDL. NEDL has been developed for all levels of health care. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.28) राष्ट्रीय आवश्यक नैदानिक सूची (National Essential Diagnostic List- NEDL) के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: भारत ऐसी सूची को संकलित करने वाला विश्व का पहला देश बन गया है। राष्ट्रीय औषधि मूल्य निर्धारण प्राधिकरण (NPPA) ने NEDL को अंतिम रूप दे दिया है। NEDL को स्वास्थ्य देखभाल के सभी स्तरों के लिए विकसित किया गया है। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 2 और 3 केवल 1 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.29) Which of the following countries form the Lithium Triangle? Chile Bolivia Brazil Argentina Peru Select the correct answer using the code given below: 2, 4 and 5 1, 2 and 4 2, 3 and 4 1, 3 and 5 Q.29) निम्न में से कौन से देश लिथियम त्रिभुज (Lithium Triangle) बनाते हैं? चिली बोलीविया ब्राज़िल अर्जेंटीना पेरू नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: 2, 4 और 5 1, 2 और 4 2, 3 और 4 1, 3 और 5 Q.30) The term ‘Menhir’, sometimes seen in news in the context of  An pathogen found in international space station Largest global human chain formed to raise awareness on air pollution A tall upright stone of a kind erected in prehistoric times A new drug discovered for cancer treatment Q.30) 'मेन्हीर' (Menhir) शब्द, कभी-कभी समाचार में किसके संदर्भ में देखा जाता है अंतरराष्ट्रीय अंतरिक्ष स्टेशन में पाया गया एक रोगज़नक़ (pathogen) वायु प्रदूषण पर जागरूकता बढ़ाने के लिए सबसे बड़ी वैश्विक मानव श्रृंखला का गठन प्रागैतिहासिक काल (prehistoric times) में खड़ा एक प्रकार का लंबा पत्थर कैंसर के इलाज के लिए खोजी गयी एक नई दवा DOWNLOAD THE SOLUTION ENGLISH HINDI NOTE- Follow this for Comments Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test After the release of Solution Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect. What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?   One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are: Lack of information Lack of analytical ability Silly mistakes Excessive risk-taking Let’s analyze them one by one: Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances. You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it. This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination. Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise: Micro Analysis Matrix Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S Scale 1: Information meter (1) Scale 2: Analysis meter (2) Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3) Scale 4: Risk meter (4) Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation: Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion: Micro Analysis Matrix- Day 1/ Polity/ Constitutional History Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) 3 1 2 2 8 Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S 3 2 6 8 19 Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale: Information meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late. Analysis meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions. Anxiety meter < 3 Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident. Risk meter < 8 Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind. Total N x S score < 20 Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going. This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better. Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours. We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS! Importance of self - tracking: We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program. Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting! Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2020    All the Best! IASbaba

RSTV Video

Chandra Shekhar Azad – Vishesh – RSTV IAS UPSC

Chandra Shekhar Azad Archives TOPIC: General Studies 1 Indian Freedom Movement Indian freedom fighters In News: Chandra Shekhar Azad died on 27th February, 1931. Chandrashekhar Azad was a great Indian freedom fighter. His fierce patriotism and courage inspired others of his generation to enter freedom struggle. He was the mentor of Bhagat Singh, another great freedom fighter, and along with Bhagat Singh he is considered as one of the greatest revolutionaries that India has produced. As a revolutionary ‘Azad’: In December 1921, when Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi launched the Non-Cooperation Movement, Chandra Shekhar, then a 15-year-old student, joined. As a result, he was arrested. On being presented before a magistrate, he gave his name as "Azad" (The Free), his father's name as "Swatantrata" (Independence) and his residence as "Jail". From that day he came to be known as Chandra Shekhar Azad among the people. Became famous for: Involved in the Kakori Train Robbery of 1925, in the attempt to blow up the Viceroy of India's train in 1926, and at last the shooting of J. P. Saunders at Lahore in 1928 to avenge the killing of Lala Lajpat RaiThe Colt pistol of Chandra Shekhar Azad is displayed at the Prayagraj Museum What inspired him: The Jallianwala Bagh tragedy which took place in 1919 was when he decided to join the Non-Cooperation movement led by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920. Formed: He was the chief strategist of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA). He inspired: Bhagat Singh Chandrashekhar Azad was attracted towards more aggressive and revolutionary ideals. He committed himself to complete independence by any means. Azad and his compatriots would target British officials known for their oppressive actions against ordinary people and freedom fighters. A terror for British police: He was on their hit list and the British police badly wanted to capture him dead or alive. On February 27, 1931 Azad met two of his comrades at the Alfred Park Allahabad. He was betrayed by an informer who had informed the British police. The police surrounded the park and ordered Azad to surrender. Azad fought alone valiantly and killed three policemen. But finding himself surrounded and seeing no route for escape, he shot himself. Thus he kept his pledge of not being caught alive. Connecting the Dots: Azad lived only for 25 years, but inspired thousands of Indians to take part in freedom struggle!

IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan- IAS Prelims Test Series 2020 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [Day 8]

Hello Friends,  https://www.youtube.com/embed/x5ldu2jV8N0 ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS The 60 Days Training has finally begun:) DAY 8 is here! Before any competition, there is a preparatory phase. That phase involves a lot of sessions on strengths and weaknesses. Throughout the preparatory phase, the athletes train in a gradual manner. In the last phase, just before the actual competition, the training is done so as to sharpen their skills. This training requires complete focus and dedication. In this phase, the athletes do not try anything new or train in a new fashion rather focus on the sharpening of skills, focusing on strength and precision. Similarly, the upcoming 60 days, is like the last phase (training session), just before the actual competition. Here, the focus should be on sharpening the concepts, consolidating the knowledge base and solidifying the learning with loads and loads of revision. You will come across many distractions in between in the name of sources and resources (exclusive and inclusive), beware of them. Be alert and objective in selecting your companions in this preparation. Trust your effort and revise more than falling prey to multiple resources and doing nothing in the end. Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity.  Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (5 PM), cross-check the answers and again, comment the marks (you got) in the same comment thread. This will keep you responsible and sincere in days to come. Also, we need more sets of scores for releasing the cut offs in the night so, requesting all of you to sincerely put your scores in comment section.    You can also take part in discussion with peers.   Q.1) With respect to the geological history of India consider the following statements.  Over two-thirds of the peninsular surface is covered by Archaean rock Gneiss.  Gondwana rocks contain about 98 percent of coal reserves of India.  Which of the above statements are correct? 1 only  2 only  Both 1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2  Q.1) भारत के भू-वैज्ञानिक इतिहास के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। प्रायद्वीपीय सतह का दो-तिहाई से अधिक हिस्सा आर्कियन चट्टान नीस (Gneiss) द्वारा कवर किया गया है। गोंडवाना चट्टानों में भारत का लगभग 98 प्रतिशत कोयला भंडार है। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.2) Which of the following are categorised as glacial lakes in India?  Roopkund  Chandra tal  Surajkund  Tsongmo Wular.  Choose the correct option:  1, 2, 4 and 5  1, 2 and 4  1, 2, 3 and 5  All of the Above.  Q.2) निम्नलिखित में से किसे भारत में हिमनद झीलों (glacial lakes) के रूप में वर्गीकृत किया गया है? रूपकुंड चंद्र ताल सूरजकुंड सोंगमो (Tsongmo) वूलर सही विकल्प चुनें: 1, 2, 4 और 5 1, 2 और 4 1, 2, 3 और 5 उपरोक्त सभी Q.3) Which of the following evidence shows that the Himalayas are still rising? Fossil formations of the Shivalik hills are also found in Tibetan plateau.  Dessication of lakes of Tibet.  Frequent occurrence of earthquakes in Himalayas.  Terraces found at the valley sides in the valley regions of the Himalayas.  Choose the correct option:  1 and 3 only  1, 3 and 4 only  1, 2 and 3 only  All of the above.  Q.3) निम्न में से कौन सा प्रमाण दर्शाता है कि हिमालय की ऊंचाई अभी भी बढ़ रही है? शिवालिक पहाड़ियों की जीवाश्म संरचना का तिब्बती पठार में भी पाया जाना। तिब्बत की झीलों का जल-स्तर नीचे होना (Dessication)। हिमालय में भूकंपों की लगातार घटना हिमालय के तराई क्षेत्रों में घाटी के किनारों पर पाए जाने वाले सीढ़ीदार क्षेत्र (Terraces)। सही विकल्प चुनें: केवल 1 और 3 केवल 1, 3 और 4 केवल 1, 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी। Q.4) Consider the following statements.  Dafla, Miri, Abor and Mishmi hills in Arunachal Pradesh are part of the Shivalik range.  ‘Duns’ are the seasonal streams found on the Southern side of the Shivaliks.  Which of the above statements is/are correct?  1 only  2 only  Both 1 and 2  None of the above.  Q.4) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। अरुणाचल प्रदेश में दाफला, मिरी, अबोर और मिश्मी पहाड़ियां शिवालिक श्रेणी का हिस्सा हैं। ‘दून’ (Duns) मौसमी धाराप्रवाह हैं, जो शिवालिकों के दक्षिणी ओर पाई जाती हैं। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2 1 और 2 दोनों इनमें से कोई भी नहीं। Q.5) Which of the following is/are correctly matched with respect to the location of the passes of the Himalayas?                    Pass                                              State Aghil Pass                            Jammu and Kashmir  Chang la                               Himachal Pradesh.  Bom Di la                             Sikkim Shipki la                               Himachal Pradesh  Choose the correct option: 1 and 4 only  1 and 3 only  1, 3 and 4 only  All of the above.  Q.5) निम्नलिखित में से हिमालय के दर्रे के स्थान के संबंध में कौन सा / से सही ढंग से सुमेलित हैं?            दर्रे (Pass)                      राज्य  अघिल दर्रा           जम्मू और कश्मीर चांग ला                 हिमाचल प्रदेश बोमडी ला                  सिक्किम शिपकी ला               हिमाचल प्रदेश सही विकल्प चुनें: केवल 1 और 4 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 1, 3 और 4 उपरोक्त सभी। Q.6) What does the term ‘Tarai’ with respect to physiography of Northern plains of India refer to? Coarse pebble belt along the foothills of the Shivaliks.  A marshy tract south of the Bhabar region in the Northern plains.  Old alluvium belt north of Bhangar region in Northern plains.  Newer alluvium belt north of Bhangar region in Northern Plains.  Q.6) भारत के उत्तरी मैदानों के भौतिक विज्ञान के संबंध में 'तराई' (Tarai) शब्द का क्या अर्थ है? शिवालिकों की तलहटी के साथ मोटे कंकड़ वाला क्षेत्र। उत्तरी मैदानों में भाबर क्षेत्र के दक्षिण में एक दलदली क्षेत्र। उत्तरी मैदानों में भांगर क्षेत्र के उत्तर में पुराना जलोढ़ क्षेत्र। उत्तरी मैदानों में भांगर क्षेत्र के उत्तर में नया जलोढ़ क्षेत्र। Q.7) With respect to the ‘Doabs’ of the Punjab Plains, which of the following are correctly matched?                 Doab                                                       Location Chaj Doab                         Between Chenab and Jhelum rivers.  Sind Sagar Doab              Between Jhelum-Chenab and the Indus rivers.  Rachna Doab                    Between Ravi and Chenab rivers.  Bari Boab                          Between Beas and the Ravi rivers.  Choose the correct option: 1 and 4 only  1 and 2 only  1, 2 and 3 only  All of the above.  Q.7) पंजाब मैदानों के ‘दोआब’ के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन सही रूप से सुमेलित है?             दोआब                                             स्थान चाज दोआब                    चिनाब और झेलम नदियों के बीच। सिंध सागर दोआब          झेलम-चिनाब और सिंधु नदियों के बीच । रचना दोआब                     रावी और चेनाब नदियों के बीच। बारी दोआब                       ब्यास और रावी नदियों के बीच। सही विकल्प चुनें: केवल 1 और 4 केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1, 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.8) Consider the following Himalayan Mountains.  Nandadevi Kamet Makalu Dhaulagiri Arrange the above from west to east direction.  2-1-4-3 2-1-3-4 1-2-4-3 1-2-3-4 Q.8) निम्नलिखित हिमालय पर्वतों पर विचार करें। नंदा देवी कामेट मकालू धौलागिरी उपरोक्त को पश्चिम से पूर्व दिशा में व्यवस्थित करें। 2-1-4-3 2-1-3-4 1-2-4-3 1-2-3-4 Q.9) Consider the following statements Karewas are thick deposits of glacial clay embedded with moraines.  Karewas are significant for the cultivation of Zafran.  Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only.  2 only.  Both 1 and 2.  Neither 1 nor 2.  Q.9) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें करेवा (Karewas), हिमोढ़ (moraines) के साथ संबद्ध ग्लेशियल क्ले की मोटी निक्षेप हैं। ज़ाफ़रान की खेती के लिए करेवा महत्वपूर्ण हैं। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.10) What does the term ‘Dhrian’ with respect to Rajasthan deserts refer to? Shifting sand dunes.  Oasis in the middle of the desert.  Dried up lakes.  Small Underground streams.  Q.10) राजस्थान के मरुस्थलों के संबंध में 'धरियन' (Dhrian) शब्द का क्या अर्थ है? रेत के टीलों का स्थानांतरण। मरुस्थलों के बीच में ओएसिस (Oasis)। सूखी हुई झीलें। छोटी भूमिगत जलधाराएँ। Q.11) Which of the following are categorised as saline lakes ? Sambhar lake.  Chilika lake.  Kolleru Lake. Pulicat Lake.  Loktak lake  Choose the correct option: 1, 2 and 4  1, 2 and 3  1, 2, 3 and 4  All of the above.  Q.11) निम्नलिखित में से किसे खारे पानी की झीलों (saline lakes) के रूप में वर्गीकृत किया गया है? सांभर झील चिलका झील कोलेरु झील पुलिकट झील लोकटक झील सही विकल्प चुनें: 1, 2 और 4 1, 2 और 3 1, 2, 3 और 4 उपरोक्त सभी Q.12) Consider the following statements with respect to the peninsular plateau of India.  ‘Malnad’ refers to the rolling plains with low granitic hills in southern India.  The topography of Ranchi Plateau in Chotanagpur division is marked by the rounded hills of massive granite.  Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only  2 only  Both 1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2  Q.12) भारत के प्रायद्वीपीय पठार के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। ‘मलनाड’ (Malnad) का तात्पर्य दक्षिणी भारत में कम ग्रेनाइट वाली पहाड़ियों वाले रोलिंग मैदानों (rolling plains) से है। छोटानागपुर डिवीजन में रांची पठार की स्थलाकृति विशाल ग्रेनाइट की गोलाकार पहाड़ियों (rounded hills) द्वारा चिह्नित है। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.13) Consider the following statements.  The Nilgiris join the Sahyadris near Gudalur.  The western ghats is separated from the main Sahyadri range by the palghat gap.  Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only  2 only  Both 1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2  Q.13) निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। नीलगिरि गुडालुर के पास सहयाद्रियों में मिलती हैं। पालघाट गैप द्वारा पश्चिमी घाट मुख्य सहयाद्रि श्रेणी से अलग होता है। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.14) Brahmaputra is the longest river in North-eastern India. With reference to this river consider the following statements.  It originates in the Chemayungdung glacier of the Kailash range near Manasa Sarovar lake.  It enters India in the Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh where it is known as the Siang river.  Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only  2 only  Both 1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2  Q.14) ब्रह्मपुत्र उत्तर-पूर्वी भारत की सबसे लंबी नदी है। इस नदी के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। यह मान सरोवर झील के पास कैलाश श्रेणी के चेमायुंगडुंग हिमनद से उत्पन्न होती है। यह भारत में अरुणाचल प्रदेश राज्य से प्रवेश करती है, जहाँ इसे सियांग नदी के नाम से जाना जाता है। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.15) Which of the following are the tributaries of the Godavari river?  Penganga Ib Wardha Wainganga Jonk Choose the correct option: 1, 2 and 4  1, 3 and 4  1, 2, 3 and 4  All of the Above.  Q.15) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी गोदावरी नदी की सहायक नदियाँ हैं? पेनगंगा इब वर्धा वेनगंगा जोंक सही विकल्प चुनें: 1, 2 और 4 1, 3 और 4 1, 2, 3 और 4 उपरोक्त सभी। Q.16) Which fault separates Chota Nagpur Plateau from North Eastern Himalayan Mountains?  Bhima fault Malda fault Meghalaya fault None of the above Q.16) छोटा नागपुर पठार को उत्तर पूर्वी हिमालय पर्वत से कौन सा भ्रंश (fault) अलग करता है? भीम भ्रंश मालदा भ्रंश मेघालय भ्रंश इनमें से कोई भी नहीं Q.17) With respect to the west flowing rivers of India consider the following statements.  Although only about 3 percent of the arial extent of the basins of India is drained by these rivers, they contain about 18 percent of the country’s water resources.  About six hundred small streams originate from the Western Ghats and flow into the Arabian sea.  Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only  2 only  Both 1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2  Q.17) भारत की पश्चिमी ओर बहने वाली नदियों के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। हालाँकि भारत के बेसिन की केवल 3 प्रतिशत क्षेत्रीय सीमा तक ये नदियों बहती हैं, लेकिन उनमें देश का लगभग 18 प्रतिशत जल संसाधन होता है। लगभग छह सौ छोटी धाराएँ पश्चिमी घाट से निकलती हैं तथा अरब सागर में प्रवाहित होती हैं। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.18) Arrange the following rivers with decreasing order of the catchment area.  Ganga Brahmaputra Mahanadi Godavari Cauvery Choose the correct option: 1-2-3-4-5 1-2-3-5-4 1-2-4-3-5 1-4-2-3-5 Q.18) जलग्रहण क्षेत्र (catchment area) के घटते क्रम के साथ निम्नलिखित नदियों को व्यवस्थित करें। गंगा ब्रह्मपुत्र महानदी गोदावरी कावेरी सही विकल्प चुनें: 1-2-3-4-5 1-2-3-5-4 1-2-4-3-5 1-4-2-3-5 Q.19) With respect to Island groups in India consider the following statements.  The great Andaman group of Islands in the North is separated by Ten degree Channel from Nicobar group in the south.  Saddle peak in North Andaman is the highest peak in the Andaman and Nicobar.  Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only  2 only  Both 1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2  Q.19) भारत में द्वीप समूहों के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। उत्तर में द्वीपों के ग्रेट अंडमान समूह को दक्षिण के निकोबार समूह से दस डिग्री चैनल द्वारा अलग किया गया है। उत्तरी अंडमान में सैडल पीक, अंडमान और निकोबार में सबसे ऊंची चोटी है। उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.20) Which is the highest peak in the satpura range of peninsular India?  Dhupgarh Astamba Dongar Amarkantak Guru Shikhar Q.20) प्रायद्वीपीय भारत की सतपुड़ा श्रेणी की सबसे ऊँची चोटी कौन सी है। धुपगढ़ अस्तम्ब डोंगर अमरकंटक गुरु शिखर Q.21) Which of the following is the India’s first Development Finance Institution? Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India (ICICI) Industrial Investment Bank of India Ltd (IIBI) Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI) Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI) Q.21) निम्नलिखित में से भारत का पहला विकास वित्त संस्थान (Development Finance Institution) कौन सा है? भारतीय औद्योगिक ऋण और निवेश निगम (ICICI) भारतीय औद्योगिक निवेश बैंक लिमिटेड (IIBI) भारतीय औद्योगिक वित्त निगम (IFCI) भारतीय औद्योगिक विकास बैंक (IDBI) Q.22) Consider the following statements about Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 2019. With the passage of this order, all the provisions of Indian Constitution are applicable to earlier State of Jammu and Kashmir. It repealed Article 370 as well as Article 35A of Indian Constitution. It re-organised Jammu and Kashmir into two Union Territories, Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.22) संविधान (जम्मू और कश्मीर के लिए आवेदन) आदेश, 2019 के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। इस आदेश के पारित होने के साथ, भारतीय संविधान के सभी प्रावधान पहले के जम्मू और कश्मीर राज्य पर लागू होते हैं। इसने भारतीय संविधान के अनुच्छेद 370 के साथ-साथ अनुच्छेद 35 ए को भी निरस्त कर दिया। इसने जम्मू और कश्मीर को दो केंद्र शासित प्रदेशों, जम्मू और कश्मीर तथा लद्दाख में फिर से संगठित किया। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 और 2 केवल 1 और 3 केवल 2 और 3  1, 2 और 3 Q.23) To which of the following, India is a member? Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) ASEAN Regional Forum East Asia Summit Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.23) निम्नलिखित में से किसका भारत एक सदस्य है? दक्षिण पूर्व एशियाई देशों का संगठन (आसियान) आसियान क्षेत्रीय मंच पूर्वी एशिया शिखर सम्मेलन (East Asia Summit) नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर चुनें: केवल 1 और 2 केवल 3 केवल 2 और 3 1, 2 और 3 Q.24) ‘Innovating for Clean Air’ is a joint initiative between India and Netherland United Kingdom Switzerland France Q.24) ‘स्वच्छ वायु के लिए नवाचार’ भारत और किसके बीच एक संयुक्त पहल है नीदरलैंड यूनाइटेड किंगडमa स्विट्जरलैंड फ्रांस Q.25) With reference to recently launched Commando unit “CORAS”, consider the following statements: It is launched by Ministry of Home Affairs to fight against Left Wing Extremism. It’s first deployment will be in naxal-hit Chhattisgarh. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.25) हाल ही में शुरू की गई कमांडो यूनिट "कोरास" (CORAS) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें: इसे वामपंथी अतिवाद के विरुद्ध लड़ने के लिए गृह मंत्रालय द्वारा आरंभ किया गया है। इसकी नक्सल प्रभावित छत्तीसगढ़ में पहली तैनाती होगी। ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में से कौन सा सही है / हैं? केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.26) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Delimitation Commission of India’ Delimitation commissions have been set up six times in the past. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be called in question before any court. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.26) 'भारत के परिसीमन आयोग' के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। परिसीमन आयोगों की स्थापना पूर्व में छह बार की गई है। परिसीमन आयोग के आदेशों पर किसी भी न्यायालय के समक्ष प्रश्न नहीं कहा जा सकता है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.27) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Bharat Bill Payment Operating Unit (BBPOU)’ It can handle payment and aggregation of payment services relating to bills under the scope of Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS). BBPOU can be a Bank or a Non-Bank entity. Select the correct statements 1 Only 2 Only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.27) 'भारत बिल भुगतान परिचालन इकाई (BBPOU)' के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें। यह भारत बिल भुगतान प्रणाली (BBPS) के दायरे में बिलों से संबंधित भुगतान और एकत्रीकरण सेवाओं को संभाल सकता है। BBPOU एक बैंक या एक गैर-बैंक इकाई हो सकती है। सही कथनों का चयन करें केवल 1 केवल 2  1 और 2 दोनों न तो 1 और न ही 2 Q.28) Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?     Places in News – Country Idlib – Syria Rojava – Jordan Okjokull – Norway Select the correct code: 1 Only 1 and 2 2 and 3 All of the above Q.28) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा युग्म सही रूप से सुमेलित है / हैं?        समाचारों में स्थान - देश इदलिब - सीरिया रोजवा - जॉर्डन ओक्जोकुल - नॉर्वे सही कूट का चयन करें: केवल 1  1 और 2 2 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.29) Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to the U.S. when China manipulates its currency? U.S. exports to China becomes more expensive China’s exports to the U.S. have an unearned competitive advantage U.S. exports to all countries become less competitive Select the correct statements 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 3 All of the above Q.29) निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन अमेरिका के संबंध में सही है / हैं,  जब चीन अपनी मुद्रा में हेरफेर (manipulates) करता है? चीन को अमेरिकी निर्यात अधिक महंगा हो जाएगा चीन के निर्यात को अमेरिका में एक अनपेक्षित प्रतिस्पर्धी लाभ होगा अमेरिकी निर्यात सभी देशों को कम प्रतिस्पर्धी हो जाते हैं सही कथनों का चयन करें 1 और 2 2 और 3 1 और 3 उपरोक्त सभी Q.30) ‘Jaduguda Uranium Mine’ is located in Andhra Pradesh Jharkhand Meghalaya Odisha Q.30) ‘जादुगुडा यूरेनियम खान’ कहाँ स्थित है आंध्र प्रदेश झारखंड मेघालय ओडिशा DOWNLOAD THE SOLUTION ENGLISH HINDI NOTE- Follow this for Comments Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test After the release of Solution Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect. What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?   One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are: Lack of information Lack of analytical ability Silly mistakes Excessive risk-taking Let’s analyze them one by one: Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances. You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it. This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination. Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise: Micro Analysis Matrix Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S Scale 1: Information meter (1) Scale 2: Analysis meter (2) Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3) Scale 4: Risk meter (4) Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation: Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion: Micro Analysis Matrix- Day 1/ Polity/ Constitutional History Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total Number (N) 3 1 2 2 8 Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA N x S 3 2 6 8 19 Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale: Information meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late. Analysis meter < 4 Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions. Anxiety meter < 3 Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident. Risk meter < 8 Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind. Total N x S score < 20 Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going. This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better. Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours. We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS! Importance of self - tracking: We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program. Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting! Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2020    All the Best! IASbaba