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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 2nd July 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   NATIONAL PARTY STATUS Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Polity Context: With no elected MP in Lok Sabha and its vote share this general election down to 2.04%, the Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) could lose its national status once the Election Commission carries out its customary review post general elections. Background:- Founded in 1984 by Kanshi Ram who later named Mayawati as his successor, BSP was recognised as a national party in 1997. Key takeaways Currently, there are six political parties recognised as national parties by the Election Commission – BJP, BSP, Congress, AAP, National People’s Party, and CPM. According to the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, a national party is one that has : at least 6% of the total valid votes in four or more states in the last general election and at least four MPs; or wins at least 2% of the seats in the Lok Sabha, with the winners being from at least three states; or is a recognised state party in at least four states. With the party failing to win any seat in the 18th Lok Sabha and getting only 2.04% of the total votes, as per the results available on the ECI website, it fails the first two criteria for retaining its national party status. The final results and statistics for the 2024 elections are yet to be published. For the third criterion, the party has to meet the conditions for being a recognised state party in four or more states, which it also does not meet as of now. In all state Assembly elections held between 2019 and now, the BSP meets the criteria for being a state party only in Uttar Pradesh, where it won 12.88% votes in the 2022 state polls. In the 2024 Lok Sabha elections, it met the state party criteria, of having at least 8% of the valid votes polled in a particular state, in Uttar Pradesh, where it got 9.39% of the votes. As per the Symbols Order, a state party is one which has got : at least 6% of the total valid votes in a state and at least two MLAs; or at least 6% of the total valid votes polled in the state in the last Lok Sabha elections and at least one MP from that state; or at least 3% of the total seats in the Assembly or three seats, whichever is higher; or at least one MP for every 25 seats allotted to that state in the Lok Sabha; or at least 8% of the total valid votes in the last Lok Sabha election in that particular state or Assembly election. This is not the first time that BSP’s national status is under scanner. In 2014, when it also had no seat in Lok Sabha and 4.19% vote share, it could have lost its national party status, but an amendment made by EC in 2016 came to its rescue. Post the 2014 elections, the Symbols Order was amended in 2016 with effect from January 1, 2014 saying that a party’s national or state recognition would not be reviewed in the first election after the one in which they gain the status, meaning the first review would be after 10 years. This benefit was given to all parties, even the BSP, which became a national party in 1997. As a national party, a political party gets certain benefits, including the guaranteed use of their common election symbol for candidates across the country, land or accommodation for an office in Delhi, free copies of the electoral roll and airtime on Doordarshan and All-India Radio during elections. Source: Indian Express AI WASHING Syllabus Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: Soon after the release of ChatGPT in 2022, there was an explosion of news and a surge of interest in AI, triggering a hype cycle that continues unabated. Suddenly, it seems every tech company or startup is marketing an AI product. Tech companies and startups marketing themselves as using AI, but not doing so forms the basis of ‘AI washing’ Background: The summit will take place from July 3-4 in Astana. Kazakhstan took over the SCO presidency from India, which was the president last year. India hosted the SCO summit virtually in July 2023. About AI WASHING AI washing is a term derived from greenwashing, where companies exaggerate their environmental friendliness to appeal to customers. Similarly, businesses that claim to have integrated AI into their products, when they’re actually using less sophisticated technology, can be accused of AI washing. When it comes to AI washing, there are several types. Some companies claim to use AI when they’re actually using less-sophisticated computing, while others overstate the efficacy of their AI over existing techniques, or suggest that their AI solutions are fully operational when they are not. While it is unclear who coined the term AI washing, it was popularised by the US Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) when it levied fines againstinvestment advisory firms Global Predictions and Delphia in March 2024. The securities regulator found that the companies had made false statements to their clients about providing ‘expert AI-driven forecasts’ and using machine learning to manage retail client portfolios. What are some real-life examples of AI washing? Recently, Amazon reportedly removed its cashier-less checkout systems from many physical grocery stores afterBusiness Insider found that the ‘Just Walk Out’ technology, which claimed to use AI and sensors to detect what was in a customer’s shopping cart, actually relied on employees in India to review the transactions. Not just tech companies, the AI-related claims of multinational brands such asMcDonalds and Coca Cola have also come under scrutiny. McDonalds recently decided to ditch its AI technology at drive-thru restaurants in the US after customers complained that their orders had been incorrectly taken down. The rush to be branded as an AI business follows a long pattern of companies looking to capitalise on the hype surrounding new and emerging technologies. Why is AI washing a growing concern? While AI washing may seem like harmless hyperbole, it could have far-reaching consequences for consumers and the tech industry itself. AI washing diverts management attention and resources away from practical AI innovation. Instead of developing meaningful AI capabilities, companies might make misguided investments in superficial enhancements, slowing real progress with the technology. AI washing can complicate decision making for businesses that are genuinely looking for valuable AI solutions. This can hinder their digital transformation efforts, stifle innovation, and jeopardise performance. As for consumers, subpar AI technology could pose data security and privacy risks while additionally pushing consumers away from using the technology. Source: Indian Express SNOWBLIND MALWARE Syllabus Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: A new Android malware called Snowblind has emerged and it’s using a clever trick  to bypass security. Background: Snowblind specifically targets apps that handle sensitive user information. About Snowblind Malware: Snowblind is a type of Trojan malware that targets Android devices. Discovered by cybersecurity firm Promon, this malicious software masquerades as legitimate software to infiltrate Android phones and tablets. Once installed, it remains dormant until triggered by specific actions or commands. Its stealthy approach allows it to avoid detection by users and security software. When activated, Snowblind is capable of capturing your banking login credentials and performing unauthorized transactions without your consent. How it gets into your system People usually get this virus by downloading a malicious app that looks legitimate. The malware repackages an app to avoid detection and misuses accessibility features to steal sensitive information and control the app remotely, said Vidar Krey, VP of engineering at Promon. How does Snowblind malware work? Unlike other Android malware, Snowblind bypasses Android’s built-in security by exploiting a feature called “seccomp” in the Linux kernel, which is supposed to check for tampering. Snowblind injects code before seccomp activates, allowing it to bypass security checks and use accessibility services to monitor your screen, making it easier to steal your login information or interrupt your banking app sessions. This lets it disable biometric and two-factor authentication (2FA) protections, putting you at higher risk for fraud and identity theft. The malware works quietly in the background, so you might not even realise it is on your device. Source: NDTV PENCH TIGER RESERVE Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT Context: The Pench Tiger Reserve recently launched an advanced Artificial Intelligence (AI) system for the early detection of forest fires. Background: The use of AI for early forest fire detection can significantly improve response times and help protect wildlife and habitats. About PENCH TIGER RESERVE The Pench Tiger Reserve is named after the Pench River. Inside the park, the river flows from North to South before going on to join the Kanhan River, while splitting the Park into two, and forming the boundary of Seoni District and Chhindwara District districts of Madhya Pradesh. The Meghdoot dam built across Pench River at Totladoh has created a large water body of 72 km2 out of which 54 km2 falls in M.P. and the rest in the adjoining state of Maharashtra. The Pench River which emerges from Mahadeo Hills of Satpuda Ranges and the various nallas and streams which drain into it, all flow through the forests of the protected area. The Pench Tiger Reserve spans the southern reaches of the Satpura hills in the Seoni and Chhindwara districts of Madhya Pradesh. It also extends into the Nagpur district in Maharashtra. Biodiversity: This reserve is home to a rich variety of flora and fauna. Tigers are the main attraction, but it also hosts large herds of Chital, Sambar, Nilgai, and Gaur (Indian Bison). The area supports over 325 species of resident and migratory birds, including the Malabar Pied Hornbill, Indian Pitta, Osprey, and Grey Headed Fishing Eagle. Vegetation: The undulating terrain features a mosaic of vegetation, ranging from moist sheltered valleys to open, dry deciduous forests. Teak, saag, mahua, and various grasses and shrubs thrive here. The Pench region is the real-life setting of Rudyard Kipling’s famous novel, “The Jungle Book”. Source: PTI RIM OF THE PACIFIC (RIMPAC) EXERCISE Syllabus Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: The Indian Navy’s INS Shivalik has arrived at Pearl Harbour to participate in the 29th Rim of the Pacific (RIMPAC) exercise. Background: The indigenously designed and built 6000-tonne guided missile stealth frigate sailed to Pearl Harbour on June 27 after completion of JIMEX 24, a bilateral exercise between India and Japan. About RIMPAC: RIMPAC stands for the Rim of the Pacific Exercise, which is the world’s largest international maritime warfare exercise. It is hosted and administered by the United States Navy’s Indo-Pacific Command. Rim of the Pacific (RIMPAC) exercise is a biennial multinational maritime exercise that fosters cooperative relationships among approximately 29 nations. RIMPAC 2024 will take place from June 26 to August 2 in and around the Hawaiian Islands. The exercise aims to enhance interoperability, strengthen strategic maritime partnerships, and ensure the safety of sea lanes in the free and open Indo-Pacific region. This year’s theme is “Partners: Integrated and Prepared.” Participating countries include Australia, Japan, the United Kingdom, and the United States, among other. Source: Indian Navy CHIEF OF THE ARMY STAFF (COAS) Syllabus Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: Lieutenant General Upendra Dwivedi has assumed command as the 30th Chief of the Indian Army, succeeding General Manoj Pande after his 26-month tenure. Background: General Dwivedi has a deep understanding of modern and emerging technologies, aiming to enhance operational effectiveness by leveraging India’s technology ecosystem. About Chief of the Army Staff : The Chief of the Army Staff (COAS) is the professional head of the Indian Army (IA), which is the land forces branch of the Indian Armed Forces. The COAS typically serves a three-year term or until reaching the age of 62, whichever comes earlier. Extensions are rare and usually granted only during times of war or national emergency. Duties and Responsibilities: Highest-Ranking Officer: The COAS is the highest-ranking officer in the Indian Army. Operational Commander: Customarily held by a four-star general officer, the COAS is the senior-most operational officer of the IA, tasked with the roles of overseeing the overall functioning of the force during peace and wartime, committing to the preparation and maintenance of the force’s operational effectiveness and defending the nation’s territorial integrity and sovereignty. Military Advisor: The COAS advises the Government of India and the Ministry of Defence on military matters. Strategic Decision-Making: They play a crucial role in formulating and implementing strategic decisions related to defence and security. Source: Economic Times Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements about National Party status A national party gets several benefits, which includes land or accommodation for an office in Delhi and airtime on Doordarshan and All-India Radio during elections. Currently, there are six political parties recognised as national parties by the Election Commission – BJP, BSP, Congress, AAP, National People’s Party, and CPM. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 & 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2.) Consider the following statements: Rim of the Pacific (RIMPAC) exercise is a biennial multinational maritime exercise. The exercise aims to enhance interoperability, strengthen strategic maritime partnerships, and ensure the safety of sea lanes in the free and open Indo-Pacific region. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 & 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3.) In which of the following states is the Pench Tiger Reserve, recently seen in the news, located? Karnataka Uttarakhand Madhya Pradesh Assam Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  2nd July 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  1st July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) –  a Q.2) – c Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 2nd July 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

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[PRELIMS RESULT] UPSC/IAS Civil Services Examination, Prelims 2024 Result Declared!

Hello All, The result of Prelims 2024, UPSC/IAS Civil Services Examination has been announced. UPSC has been very quick this time with the results. To Download the Civil Services (Preliminary) Result Sheet/PDF – CLICK HERE To Download the Forest Services (Preliminary) Result Sheet/PDF – CLICK HERE If you have cleared the list, Congratulations! Kickstart your preparation by joining the Most Trusted Initiative of IASbaba – Think Learn Perform (TLP Plus) 2024 – Read More Details Wish You Good Luck IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 1st July 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   THE STORY OF THE EMERGENCY Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Polity,Post Independent India Context: On June 25th, India entered the fiftieth year of the imposition of the Emergency, an extraordinary 21-month period from 1975 to 1977, which saw the suspension of civil liberties, curtailment of press freedom, mass arrests, the cancellation of elections, and rule by decree. Background:- The Emergency refers to the period from June 25, 1975 to March 21, 1977, during which Indira Gandhi government used special provisions in the Constitution to impose sweeping executive and legislative consequences on the country. Key takeaways The declaration of Emergency converts the federal structure into a de facto unitary one, as the Union acquires the right to give any direction to state governments, which, though not suspended, come under the complete control of the Centre. Parliament may by law extend the (five-year) term of Lok Sabha one year at a time, make laws on subjects in the State List, and extend the Union’s executive powers to the states. Under Article 352 of the Constitution, the President may, on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister, issue a proclamation of emergency if the security of India or any part of the country is threatened by “war or external aggression or armed rebellion”. In 1975, instead of armed rebellion, the ground of “internal disturbance” was available to the government to proclaim an emergency. This was the only instance of proclamation of emergency due to “internal disturbance”. The two occasions in which an emergency was proclaimed earlier, on October 26, 1962, and December 3, 1971, were both on grounds of war. This ground of “internal disturbance” was removed by The Constitution (Forty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1978 by the Janata government that came to power after the Emergency. Article 358 frees the state of all limitations imposed by Article 19 (“Right to freedom”) as soon as an emergency is imposed. Article 359 empowers the President to suspend the right of people to move court for the enforcement of their rights during an emergency. What were the political and social circumstances in India in the months leading up to the Emergency? Early in 1974, a student movement called Navnirman (Regeneration) began in Gujarat against the Congress government of Chimanbhai Patel, which was seen as corrupt. As the protests became violent, Patel had to resign and President’s Rule was imposed. Navnirman inspired a students’ movement in Bihar against corruption and poor governance, and the ABVP and socialist organisations came together to form the Chhatra Sangharsh Samiti. The students asked Jayaprakash Narayan, a Gandhian and hero of the Quit India Movement, to lead them. He agreed with two conditions — that the movement would be non-violent and pan-Indian, and aim to cleanse the country of corruption and misgovernance. Thereafter, the students’ movement came to be called the “JP movement”. Meanwhile, in May 1974, the socialist leader George Fernandes led an unprecedented strike of railway workers that paralysed the Indian Railways for three weeks. On June 5, during a speech in Patna’s historic Gandhi Maidan, JP gave a call for “Sampoorna Kranti”, or total revolution. By the end of the year, JP had got letters of support from across India, and he convened a meeting of opposition parties in Delhi. JP’s rallies invoked the power of the people with the rousing slogan, “Sinhasan khaali karo, ke janata aati hai (Vacate the throne, for the people are coming)”. On June 12, 1975, Justice Jagmohanlal Sinha of Allahabad High Court delivered a historic verdict in a petition filed by Raj Narain, convicting Indira Gandhi of electoral malpractice, and striking down her election from Rae Bareli. On appeal, the Supreme Court gave the Prime Minister partial relief — she could attend Parliament but could not vote. As demands for her resignation became louder and her aides in the Congress dug in their heels, JP asked the police not to follow immoral orders. Late on June 25 evening, President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed signed the proclamation of Emergency. The Cabinet was informed about the decision the next morning. What happened to opposition leaders, mediapersons, and political dissenters during the Emergency? Almost all opposition leaders, including JP, were detained. About 36,000 people were put in jail under the Maintenance of Internal Security Act (MISA). Newspapers were subjected to pre-censorship. UNI and PTI were merged into a state-controlled agency called Samachar. The Press Council was abolished. Indira’s son Sanjay Gandhi pushed a “five-point programme” that included forced family planning and clearance of slums. What legal changes were pushed through by Parliament and in the courts during the Emergency? With the opposition in jail, Parliament passed The Constitution (Thirty-eighth Amendment) Act that barred judicial review of the Emergency, and The Constitution (Thirty-ninth Amendment) Act that said the election of the Prime Minister could not be challenged in the Supreme Court. The Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act made changes to a range of laws, taking away the judiciary’s right to hear election petitions, widening the authority of the Union to encroach on State subjects, gave Parliament unbridled power to amend the Constitution with no judicial review possible, and made any law passed by Parliament to implement any or all directive principles of state policy immune to judicial review. In the famous case of ADM Jabalpur vs Shivkant Shukla, 1976, a five-judge Bench of the Supreme Court ruled that detention without trial was legal during an emergency. The sole dissenter to the majority judgment was Justice H R Khanna. What prompted Indira Gandhi to lift the Emergency, and what happened afterward? For no apparent reason, Indira decided to lift the Emergency early in 1977. As it happened, the elections of 1977 led to a comprehensive defeat for Indira. The Janata Party, formed by a merger of the Jana Sangh, Congress (O), the socialists and Bharatiya Lok Dal, emerged as a formidable force, and Morarji Desai became India’s first non-Congress Prime Minister. What efforts were made by the Janata government to undo the damage caused by the Emergency? The Janata government reversed many of the constitutional changes effected by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976. It did not do away with the provision of the emergency, but made it extremely difficult to impose for the future. It made judicial review of a proclamation of emergency possible again, and mandated that every proclamation of emergency be laid before both Houses of Parliament within a month of the proclamation. Unless it was approved by both Houses by a special majority, the proclamation would lapse. The 44th Amendment removed “internal disturbance” as a ground for the imposition of an emergency, meaning that armed rebellion alone would now be a ground, apart from war and external aggression. The Shah Commission, constituted by the Janata government to report on the imposition of the Emergency and its adverse effects, submitted a damning report that found the decision to be unilateral, and adversely affecting civil liberties. How did the Emergency change Indian politics? The Janata experiment gave India its first non-Congress government, but its collapse also demonstrated the limits of anti-Congressism. The Emergency gave India a crop of young leaders who would dominate politics for decades to come — Lalu Prasad Yadav, George Fernandes, Arun Jaitley, Ram Vilas Paswan, and many others. The post-Emergency Parliament saw the coming together of the social forces behind the Jana Sangh and the socialists — Hindutva upper caste, and the Lohiaite agrarian and artisanal castes — and increased the representation of OBCs in Parliament. The Janata government appointed the Mandal Commission to look into OBC quotas, which would go on to make the rise of the OBCs in North India irreversible. Source: Indian Express SHANGHAI COOPERATION ORGANISATION (SCO) Syllabus Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi will not attend the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) summit this year. External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar is set to lead the Indian delegation to Kazakhstan capital Astana. Background: The summit will take place from July 3-4 in Astana. Kazakhstan took over the SCO presidency from India, which was the president last year. India hosted the SCO summit virtually in July 2023. About Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) TheShanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) is a Eurasian political, economic, international security and defence organization established by China and Russia in 2001. It is the world’s largestregional organization in terms of geographic scope and population, covering approximately 80% of the area of Eurasia and 40% of the world population. As of 2021, its combined GDP was around 20% of global GDP. The SCO is the successor to theShanghai Five, formed in 1996 between the People’s Republic of China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, and In June 2001, the leaders of these nations andUzbekistan met in Shanghai to announce a new organization with deeper political and economic cooperation. In June 2017, it expanded to eight states, withIndia and  Iran joined the group in July 2023. Several countries are engaged as observers or dialogue partners. The SCO Secretariat is located at Beijing (the People’s Republic of China). The SCO is governed by the Heads of State Council (HSC), its supreme decision-making body, which meets once a year. Its headquarters is located in Tashkent, the Republic of Uzbekistan The organization also contains the so-called Regional Antiterrorist Structure (RATS). The main SCO goals and tasks according to its charter are:: strengthening mutual trust, friendship and good neighborliness between the members; development of multifaceted cooperation in the maintenance and strengthening of peace, security and stability in the region and promotion of a new democratic, fair and rational political and economic international order; joint combating terrorism, separatism and extremism, fighting against illicit narcotics and arms trafficking and other types of transnational criminal activity, and also illegal migration; encouraging efficient regional cooperation in such areas as politics, trade and economy, defense, law enforcement, environment protection, culture, science and technology, education, energy, transport, credit and finance, and also other areas of common interest; facilitating economic growth, social and cultural development in the region through joint actions on the basis of equal partnership aimed at steady increase of living standards and improvement of living conditions of the people; coordinating approaches to integration into the global economy; promoting enjoyment of human rights and fundamental freedoms in accordance with the international obligations of the member States and their national legislation; maintaining and developing relations with other States and international organizations; cooperating in the prevention of international conflicts and their peaceful settlement; jointly searching for solutions to the problems that would arise in the 21st century. Decisions-Taking Procedure The SCO bodies take decisions by agreement without vote and their decisions shall be considered adopted if no member State has raised objections during its consideration (consensus), except for the decisions on suspension of membership or expulsion from the Organization that shall be taken by “consensus minus one vote of the member State concerned”. Source: Indian Express BLACK SEA Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Russia’s Defence Ministry has ordered officials to prepare a response to U.S. drone flights over the Black Sea, signalling potential forceful action to deter American reconnaissance aircraft. Background: The ministry cites an “increased intensity” of U.S. drone presence. This situation reflects heightened involvement of the U.S. and NATO countries in the Ukraine conflict. About Black Sea:   The Black Sea, also known as the Euxine Sea, is one of the major water bodies and a  famous inland sea of the world. This marginal sea of the Atlantic Ocean, located between Eastern Europe and Western Asia. It is surrounded by the Pontic, Caucasus, and Crimean Mountains in the south, east and north respectively. The Turkish straits system – the Dardanelles, Bosporus and Marmara Sea – forms a transitional zone between the Mediterranean and the Black Sea. The Black Sea is also connected to the Sea of Azov by the Strait of Kerch. The bordering countries of Black Sea are: Russia, Ukraine, Georgia, Turkey, Bulgaria and Romania. Additional Information The Black Sea is the world’s largest water body in which the bottom waters never mix with shallower waters (a condition known as “meromictic”). As a result, the deeper waters are completely anoxic (devoid of oxygen). Seawater flows into the Black Sea basin from the Mediterranean via the Straits of Bosporus, while freshwater enters from several European rivers including the Danube. As a result, salinity gradually increases with depth from about 18 ppt at the surface to about 22 ppt in deeper waters. A water mass known as the Cold Intermediate Layer (CIL) separates surface waters from deeper waters, and is the major reason for deep-water isolation. Below about 200 m, bacterial decomposition of biomass sinking from shallow water consumes all available oxygen, while the anaerobic metabolism of other bacteria causes the formation of hydrogen sulfide. While such conditions are not favorable for many biological species, they are excellent for preserving human artifacts from normal processes of degradation. Source: The Hindu SHYOK RIVER Syllabus Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: Five army personnel died early Saturday morning while de-inducting or withdrawing from a military training activity that involved crossing the Shyok River at the Daulat Beg Oldie (DBO) area of eastern Ladakh. Background: Their Russian-origin T-72 tank got swept away by the Shyok River due to a sudden increase in water levels. About SHYOK RIVER The Shyok River originates at the Rimo Glacier in the Karakoram Range in the Indian-administered union territory of Ladakh. It is a tributary of the Indus River. Its alignment is very unusual, originating from the Rimo glacier, it flows in a southeasterly direction and, joining the Pangong range, it takes a northwestern turn, flowing parallel to its previous path. Tributaries: The Nubra River, originating from the Siachen glacier, is a significant tributary of the Shyok River.The Nubra River,also behaves like the Shyok. The southeasterly flowing river Nubra takes a northwest turn on meeting the river Shyok. The similarity in the courses of these two important rivers probably indicates a series of paleolithic fault lines trending northwest-southeast in delimiting the upper courses of the rivers. Other tributaries include the Chang Chen Mo River, which empties into the Shyok, and the Galwan River, which originates in the southern part of Aksai Chin and joins the Shyok. Additional Information The Shyok Valley is the valley of the Shyok River. It is near the Nubra Valley. Khardung La on the Ladakh Range lies north of Leh and is the gateway to the Shyok and Nubra valleys. Source: Indian Express SOCIAL INFRASTRUCTURE IN INDIA Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Context: The Ministry of Labour and Employment has joined the PM Gati Shakti portal to identify and bridge gaps in social security coverage. Background: Investment in social infrastructure is a pre-requisite for inclusive growth and employment. Social Infrastructure: It is the set of organizational arrangements and investments in society’s systems, relationships, and structures that enable us to generate a just, equitable, more resilient, and sustainable world. It comprises social, economic, environmental, and cultural assets. It is a combination of tangible and intangible assets that facilitates the development of society. It includes the physical Infrastructure, human resources, and intellectual capital needed to render social services. Significance of Social Infrastructure in India: It promotes inclusive growth by reducing incidents of poverty and cases of inequality. It enhances human resource productivity by improving education and skill levels, which in turn maximizes the chances of utilizing India’s demographic dividend. It encourages upward social mobility and enhances social well-being by improving a person’s socio-economic situation. It helps in achieving the Sustainable Development Goals by adopting eco-friendly practices such as reducing carbon footprints and promoting resilience to climate change. It reduces the sense of alienation among citizens by creating liveable and inclusive settlements where social and economic benefits. Issues/Challenges faced in developing Social Infrastructure in India: The key social sectors such as education and health face inadequate public funding which in turn leads to low learning outcomes. Social infrastructure faces low private sector participation due to low returns on investments. There is a lack of human resources such as an absence of trained teachers, a lack of highly skilled health professionals, planning, etc. There is an inequality in access due to affordability issues in marginalized communities, especially in lower-income groups. There is a lack of awareness among citizens about the importance of social infrastructure. Source: Economic Times Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Who among the following declared a state of emergency on 25th June following advice from Prime Minister Indira Gandhi ? Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed Giani Zail Singh Neelam Sanjiva Reddy R. Narayanan Q2.) With reference to the Shyok River, consider the following statements: The Shyok River originates at the Rimo Glacier in the Aravalli Range. It is a tributary of the Yamuna River. The Nubra River is a significant tributary of the Shyok River. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q3.) Consider the following countries: Russia Ukraine Georgia Turkey How many of the above-mentioned countries share a border with the Black Sea? Only one Only two Only three All four Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  1st July 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  29th June – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) -d Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 29th June 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 1st July 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –29th June 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   CASE FOR A BUFFER FOOD POLICY Syllabus Mains – GS 2 & GS 3 Context: Inflation, based on the official consumer price index (CPI), stood at 8.69 % for cereals in May, and almost twice as much (17.14%) for pulses. These rates would probably have been higher, but for the sales from buffer stocks, especially of wheat and chana (chickpea), built by government agencies during surplus production years. Background:- Overall CPI inflation, at 4.75% year-on-year in May, was the lowest in 12 months. It would have been lower had retail food inflation not stayed elevated at 8.69%. Key takeaways The Food Corporation of India’s (FCI) open market sale scheme brought down retail inflation in cereals and wheat, from their respective highs of 16.73% and 25.37% in February 2023 to 8.69% and 6.53% in May 2024. The inherently volatility and unpredictability of food prices, exacerbated by climate change — fewer rainy days and extended dry spells, interspersed with intense precipitation, and also shorter winters and heat waves — has made it difficult for the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to consider any monetary easing or cutting interest rates. The government, too, is forced to resort to undesirable measures such as restricting exports, or imposing produce stock limits on traders and processors. One possible way out of the conundrum would be to build a buffer stock of all essential food items, by procuring these from farmers during years of surplus production, and offloading the same in times of crop failures to moderate market prices. There’s scope to not only expand procurement of pulses and oilseeds, but extend it to staple vegetables and even skimmed milk powder (SMP). The onion, potato and tomato procured can be stored in dehydrated/processed form such as paste, flakes and puree for sales to hotels, restaurants, canteens, and other institutional buyers. This would ensure that both households and bulk buyers do not compete to drive up prices during shortages. The fiscal cost of maintaining buffer stocks of essential food items may not be that much: the stocked commodities are not meant to be given out free and, instead, offloaded during scarcity/inflationary periods at near-market prices. Buffer stocking can be an instrument for curbing excessive volatility in food prices, similar to the RBI’s foreign exchange reserves vis-à-vis the currency market. Increasing climate-driven price volatility — ultimately helping neither consumers nor producers — only strengthens the case for a food buffer policy. Source: Indian Express INDIAN GOVERNMENT BONDS IN JP MORGAN INDEX FROM JUNE 28 Syllabus Prelims & Mains – ECONOMY Context: Indian Government Bonds (IGBs) are set to be included in the JP Morgan Government Bond Index, Emerging Market (GBI-EM) from June 28. The inclusion will take place over a period of 10 months starting June 28, 2024, through to March 31, 2025. Background: Inclusion of domestic bonds to global indices will help bring in dollar inflows into India and ensure a stable financing of the current account gap of the country. What was JP Morgan’s announcement? In September last year, JP Morgan had announced that it would include IGBs to its emerging markets bond index from June 2024. The decision was taken after the 2023 index governance review, it had said. India will have a 1% weightage in theJPMorgan Emerging Market (EM) Bond index, which will gradually rise to 10% over a 10-month period, at an inclusion rate of about 1% weight per month. A higher weightage will prompt global investors to allocate more funds for investment in Indian debt. How many Indian Government Bonds are eligible for inclusion? JP Morgan said there are 23 IGBs that meet the index eligibility criteria, with a combined notional value of approximately Rs 27 lakh crore or $330 billion. Only IGBs designated under the Fully Accessible Route (FAR) are index-eligible. In March 2020, the RBI, in consultation with the government, introduced a separate channel, called the FAR, to enable non-residents to invest in specified Government of India dated securities. As per the index inclusion criteria, eligible instruments are required to have notional outstanding above $1 billion (equivalent) and at least 2.5 years remaining maturity, JP Morgan said. What would be the impact of the bond inclusion? According experts, the move could lead to fresh active flows in the debt market, which remains underpenetrated on external financing. According to estimates by some economists, India is likely to receive $2 billion to $2.5 billion every month during the 10-month period starting June 28. Overall, it is expected that $20 billion to $25 billion of flows would come into India due to the inclusion. It will not only result in lower risk premia, but will also help India to finance its fiscal andcurrent account deficit (CAD), as well as enhance the liquidity and ownership base of government securities (G-secs; debt instruments issued by the central government to meet its fiscal needs). It could help lower funding costs slightly, and support further development of domestic capital markets, but direct positive effects on India’s credit profile will be marginal in the near term. While higher inflows will boost the rupee, inflation is likely to come under pressure. When the RBI mops up dollars from the market, it will have to release an equivalent amount in rupees, putting pressure on inflation. For Your Information: After JP Morgan Chase & Co, Bloomberg announced inclusion of Indian bonds in the Bloomberg Emerging Market (EM) Local Currency Government Index and related indices from January 31, 2025. Source: Money Control LEBANON Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Israel has issued a strong warning, stating that if war were to break out with Hezbollah, it could result in Lebanon being “returned to the Stone Age.” Background: Hezbollah is a Lebanese Shia Islamist political party and paramilitary group. Its actions have significant regional implications, and tensions persist between Hezbollah and Israel.   About Lebanon: Lebanon is a small Middle Eastern nation situated on the eastern coast of the Mediterranean Sea in Western Asia. It shares land borders with two countries: Syria to the north and east, and Israel to the south. The western part of Lebanon is bounded by the Mediterranean Sea, and it also shares maritime borders with Cyprus. Disputed Border: One of the contentious issues is the disputed border between Lebanon and Israel. The Israel-Lebanon conflict has a complex history, including the 2006 war between Israel and Hezbollah in southern Lebanon. The Blue Line, drawn by the UN after Israel’s withdrawal from southern Lebanon in 2000, remains a contentious issue. Source: Al Jazeera RAIMONA NATIONAL PARK Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT Context: The Mainland Serow, a vulnerable mammal species recognized by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), has been sighted in Assam’s Raimona National Park. Background: Raimona National Park contributes to the Greater Manas Landscape, strengthening conservation efforts in the region. About Raimona National Park Raimona National Park is located in the state of Assam along the Indo-Bhutan border, Raimona National Park is a significant conservation area. Geography and Boundaries: The park shares its northern border with Bhutan’s Phibsoo Wildlife Sanctuary. The western part is marked by the Sankosh River, forming the inter-state boundary between West Bengal and Assam. The eastern part is traversed by the Saralbhanga River (also known as Swrmanga), flowing southward from Bhutan’s Sarphang district. Vegetation and Flora: Raimona National Park boasts diverse forests, including moist sal forests, sub-Himalayan high alluvial semi-evergreen forests, savannah forests, and more. Orchids, tropical rainforest species, and riverine grasslands flourish within the park. Fauna: The park is home to various wildlife, including the Golden Langur, Asian Elephant, Royal Bengal Tiger, and Clouded Leopard. Notably, a recent scientific observation recorded a Mainland Serow (Capricornis sumatraensis thar) at an unusually low elevation of 96 meters above sea level in Raimona National Park. Mainland Serow: A mammal resembling a cross between a goat and an antelope. Inhabits altitudes ranging from 200 to 3,000 meters. Found across the India-Bhutan border in Phibsoo Wildlife Sanctuary and Royal Manas National Park in Bhutan. Other species include the Japanese serow, red serow (found in eastern India, Bangladesh, and Myanmar), and Taiwan or Formosan serow. Source: PTI FINANCIAL ACTION TASK FORCE (FATF) Syllabus Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: India has achieved an outstanding outcome in the Mutual Evaluation conducted during 2023-24 by the Financial Action Task Force (FATF). Background: The FATF recognized India’s high level of technical compliance with anti-money laundering (AML), countering the financing of terrorism (CFT), and counter-proliferation financing (CPF) requirements. About Financial Action Task Force (FATF) The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is a global intergovernmental organization established in 1989. Initially, its objective was to examine and develop measures to combat money laundering. After the 9/11 attacks on the US, the FATF expanded its mandate to incorporate efforts to combat terrorist financing. In April 2012, it added efforts to counter the financing of proliferation of Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD). Membership: 39 member countries, including India. Regional organizations (European Commission and Gulf Cooperation Council) also participate. India joined as an observer in 2006 and became a full member in 2010. Functions: Sets international standards. Assesses countries’ compliance. Identifies deficiencies and promotes policy reforms. Lists: The FATF maintains two lists: Black List: High-risk jurisdictions with significant deficiencies in countering money laundering and terrorist financing. Grey List: Jurisdictions under increased monitoring. Currently, North Korea and Iran are on the black list. Source: Money Control Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Polity Context: The Gujarat High Court on Thursday granted bail to a juvenile accused of rape and also facing charges under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act after it held that the Juvenile Justice Board and the children court needed to examine whether he had the mental and physical capacity to understand the consequences of the offences he has been accused of. Background: According to the case details, the juvenile was in a relationship with a schoolmate, who was also a minor. The girl had died by suicide on the day her elder sister, aged 22 years, found her alone at home with the juvenile. The sister had scolded and beaten up the girl, following which she died by suicide. Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act: It aims to address offences of sexual exploitation and sexual abuse of children, which were either not specifically defined or adequately penalised. It was enacted as a consequence of India’s ratification of the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child in 1992. Key features of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act: It is a gender-neutral legislation as it defines a child as “any person” under the age of 18. It considers non-reporting a crime so any person in charge of an institution (excluding children) who fails to report the commission of a sexual offense involving a subordinate, faces punishment. It does not specify any time limit for reporting abuse so a victim may report an offence at any time, even years after the abuse has occurred. It keeps the victim’s identity confidential as the Act forbids the disclosure of the victim’s identity in any form of media unless authorized by the special courts established by the Act. Key Provisions of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act: It defines a child as any person below the age of 18 years. The Act provides punishment as per the gravity of the offence. It mandates that investigation in the cases is to be completed in two months (from the date of registration of FIR) and trial in six months. It states a sexual assault is to be considered aggravated if – the abused child is mentally ill or, when the abuse is committed by a member of the armed forces or security forces, a public servant, or a person in a position of trust or authority of the child, like a family member, police officer, teacher, or doctor or a person-management or staff of a hospital, whether Government or private. It prescribes rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than ten years but which may extend to imprisonment for life and also a fine as punishment for aggravated penetrative sexual assault. It makes provisions for avoiding the re-victimization of the child at the hands of the judicial system. It makes it mandatory to report such cases as it makes it the legal duty of a person aware of the offence to report the sexual abuse. In case he fails to do so, the person can be punished with six months’ imprisonment or a fine. It prescribes punishment to the people who traffic children for sexual purposes. It provides for punishment against false complaints or untrue information. It was amended in 2019 to increase the minimum punishment from seven years to ten years. It further adds that if a person commits penetrative sexual assault on a child below the age of 16 years, he will be punished with imprisonment between 20 years to life, with a fine. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following countries: Israel Syria Iran Egypt How many of the above-mentioned countries share border with Lebanon? Only one Only two Only three All four Q2.) Consider the following National Parks: Raimona Manas Kaziranga Orang How many of the above-mentioned National Parks are located in Assam? Only one Only two Only three All four Q3.) Consider the following statements: The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is a global intergovernmental organization established in 1989. Currently, India is in the black list of the FATF. Which among the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  29th June 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  28th June – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) – a

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 28th June 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   DANISH FARMERS TO FACE CARBON TAX FOR FLATULENT COWS, PIGS, A WORLD FIRST Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Current Event Context: Denmark will tax livestock farmers for the greenhouse gases emitted by their cows, sheep and pigs from 2030, the first country in the world to do so as it targets a major source of methane emissions, one of the most potent gases contributing to global warming. Background:- Denmark’s move comes after months of protests by farmers across Europe against climate change mitigation measures and regulations that they say are driving them to bankruptcy. Key takeaways Although carbon dioxide typically gets more attention for its role in climate change, methane traps about 87 times more heat on a 20-year timescale, according to the US National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration. Levels of methane, which is emitted from sources including landfills, oil and natural gas systems and livestock, have increased particularly quickly since 2020. Livestock account for about 32 per cent of human-caused methane emissions, says the UN Environment Program. New Zealand had passed a similar law due to take effect in 2025. However, the legislature was scrapped after facing multiple criticisms from farmers. For Your Information: As of 2030, Danish livestock farmers will be taxed 300 kroner ($43) per ton of carbon dioxide equivalent in 2030. The tax will increase to 750 kroner ($108) by 2035. However, because of an income tax deduction of 60%, the actual cost per ton will start at 120 kroner ($17.3) and increase to 300 kroner by 2035. The aim is to reduce Danish greenhouse gas emissions by 70% from 1990 levels by 2030 As of 2030, Danish livestock farmers will be taxed 300 kroner ($43) per ton of carbon dioxide equivalent in 2030. The tax will increase to 750 kroner ($108) by 2035. However, because of an income tax deduction of 60%, the actual cost per ton will start at 120 kroner ($17.3) and increase to 300 kroner by 2035. Source: Hindu SANT KABIR DAS Syllabus Prelims & Mains – ART & CULTURE Context: Recently, the Prime Minister Modi paid his respectful tribute to Sant Kabir Das on his 647th birth anniversary. Background: Kabir Jayanti, also known asKabir Praakat Diwas, is celebrated to commemorate the manifestation of Kabir, a famous poet and mystic saint. It is celebrated once in a year on the full moon day in the Hindu month Jyeshtha, which is the month of May or June according to the Gregorian calendar. About Kabir Das Kabir (1398–1518 CE) was a well-known Indianmystic poet and sant. His verses are found in Sikhism’s scriptureGuru Granth Sahib, the Satguru Granth Sahib of Saint Garib Das, and Kabir Sagar of Dharamdas. Born in the city ofVaranasi, Uttar Pradesh, he is known for being critical of organized religions. He questioned what he regarded to be the meaningless and unethical practices of all religions, primarily what he considered to be the wrong practices in Hinduism and Islam.During his lifetime, he was threatened by both Hindus and Muslims for his views. Kabir suggested that “truth” is with the person who is on the path of righteousness, considered everything, living and non living, as divine, and who is passively detached from the affairs of the world.To know the truth, suggested Kabir, drop the “I”, or the ego. Kabir’s legacy survives and continues through theKabir panth (“Path of Kabir”), Sant Mat sect that recognizes Kabir as its founder. Its members are known as Kabir panthis Philosophies and Teachings of Kabir Das Unity of God Kabir Das believed that there is only one God, and this God is beyond all religions. He criticized the rigid practices of both Hinduism and Islam, promoting the idea that God is one and present everywhere. Kabir’s famous lines, “If by worshiping stones one can find God, I will worship a mountain. But no one worships the grinding stone at home, though it feeds the world,” show his disdain for superficial religiosity. Inner Devotion (Bhakti) Kabir emphasized that true worship comes from the heart. He believed that a sincere connection with God is more important than external rituals. He taught that one’s heart should be pure and filled with love for the divine, and this inner devotion is what truly matters. Critique of Rituals and Superstitions Kabir was a vocal critic of empty rituals and superstitions. He urged people to look beyond these practices and focus on sincere devotion. He believed that rituals without true devotion are meaningless, and that people should seek a deeper, personal experience of God. Equality and Social Justice Kabir condemned the caste system and social inequality. He believed that all human beings are equal, regardless of their caste, creed, or gender. His verses often called for unity and equality among all people, promoting a message of social justice and harmony. Guru and Spiritual Guide Kabir placed great importance on the role of the Guru (spiritual teacher). He believed that a Guru is essential for guiding individuals on their spiritual journey and helping them realize the divine within themselves. Kabir saw the Guru as a vital link between the individual and the divine. Simple Living Kabir advocated for a simple and humble lifestyle. He believed in living free from material desires and focusing on spiritual growth. His own life as a weaver exemplified his teachings of humility and simplicity, showing that one can lead a spiritually rich life without wealth or power. Source: Money Control GEO HERITAGE SITES Syllabus Mains – GS 1 Context: Geological conservation seeks to ensure the survival of the best representative examples of India’s geological features and events so that present and future generations can appreciate more of the world’s best natural laboratories. Despite international progress in this field, geo-conservation has not found much traction in India. Background: With landscapes that range from the world’s greatest peaks to low-lying coastal plains, India showcases a diverse morphology that has evolved over billions of years. India’s tumultuous geological past is recorded in its rocks and terrains and should be considered as our non-cultural heritage. Geo-heritage Sites: They are specific places with geological importance, holding both natural and cultural value. These features offer valuable insights into the Earth’s history and evolution, as well as contribute to education in Earth sciences. The Geological Survey of India (GSI) is the main organization responsible for identifying and preserving geo-heritage sites and national geological monuments throughout the country. The Mawmluh Cave in Meghalaya was designated as the first Indian Geo-heritage Site by UNESCO in 2001. There are 34 notified National Geological Heritage Monument Sites of India. GSI or the respective State governments are responsible for taking necessary measures to protect these sites. Significance of Geo Heritage Sites in India: They serve as educational hubs for learning about geology and contribute to our understanding of Earth’s history and the processes that have shaped our planet. Preserving these sites is as important as conserving biodiversity and cultural heritage because they offer a unique insight into the geological evolution of our world. These sites provide valuable knowledge about geological phenomena, climate change, and the Earth’s dynamic past, making them essential for scientific research and education. They also help cultivate an appreciation for Earth sciences among people of all ages. They can provide additional benefits such as boosting tourism, driving economic growth, and promoting environmental conservation which makes them invaluable assets for society and for future generations to cherish and learn from. Challenges/Issues faced in Geological Conservation in India: Many fossil-bearing sites have been destroyed in the name of development by real estate growth and destructive stone mining activities. More than 10% of the total area of India is under stone-mining operations. India is a signatory to the ‘First International Symposium on the Conservation of our Geological Heritage’ of UNESCO but has not made any separate legislation or policy for its implementation like that of Thailand and Vietnam. Geo-heritage sites in Canada, China, Spain, the United States, and the United Kingdom have been developed as national parks whereas no such steps have been taken in India. The Geological Survey of India (GSI) has notified 34 geological monuments but it lacks the regulatory powers to implement the preservation measures. Recently, the district administration demolished a part of the cliff in Varkala in Thiruvananthapuram district, Kerala citing landslide hazards. Way Forward: India needs to create an inventory of all prospective geo-sites in the country (in addition to the 34 sites identified by the GSI). India should frame geo-conservation legislation for the country along the lines of the Biological Diversity Act 2002. India should have a ‘National Geo-Conservation Authority’ along the lines of the National Biodiversity Authority, with independent observers, while ensuring that the establishment will not lead to red tape and encroach on the autonomy of researchers and academically-inclined private collectors. Source: Hindu GULF OF ADEN Syllabus Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: Houthi rebels targeted a ship in the Gulf of Aden. The ship was off the coast of Aden when a missile impacted the water near it. Background: The Houthi rebels continue to pose a threat in the Gulf of Aden region. The safety of seafarers and vessels remains a concern. About Gulf of Aden The Gulf of Aden is an extension of the Indian Ocean, situated between the Arabian Peninsula and the African continent. It connects the Red Sea to the Arabian Sea and ultimately to the Indian Ocean. The gulf is named after “Aden,” a port city on Yemen’s coast. It spans approximately 900 kilometers in length and 500 kilometers in width, covering roughly 410,000 square kilometers. The Gulf of Aden is bounded by Somalia and the Socotra Islands (part of Yemen) to the south, Yemen to the north, the Arabian Sea to the east, and Djibouti to the west. Notable cities near the gulf include Aden, Mukalla, Ahnwar, Balhaf, Berbera, Bosaso, and Djibouti City. Major ports in the region include Aden (Yemen), Berbera, and Bosaso (both in Somalia). It plays a critical role in the Suez Canal shipping route, connecting the Red Sea and the Mediterranean Sea. Source: AP News GANGA WATER TREATY Syllabus Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: India Prepares for Ganga Water Treaty Renewal with Bangladesh. Background: The Ganga Water Treaty, a crucial agreement between India and Bangladesh, was signed on December 12, 1996, and is due for renewal in 2026. About GANGA WATER TREATY The Ganga Water Sharing Treaty, signed in 1996, governs the sharing of Ganga River waters at the Farakka Barrage in West Bengal between India and Bangladesh. This comprehensive bilateral treaty established a 30-year water-sharing arrangement between the two countries. The treaty is valid until the end of 2026, with a clause allowing renewal every 10 years by mutual consent. It specifically outlines the minimum level of water flow that India must share with its downstream neighbour, Bangladesh, during the dry season—from January to May. The treaty recognizes Bangladesh’s rights as a lower-level riparian and aims to resolve the long-standing dispute over the allocation and development of the Ganges River’s water resources. The Farakka Barrage, built in 1974, plays a crucial role in controlling the flow of the Ganges River and diverting water into the Hooghly River to maintain navigability at Kolkata Port. Ganga River System: It rises in the Gangotri glacier near Gaumukh in Uttarakhand where it is known as Bhagirathi. At Devprayag, the Bhagirathi meets the Alaknanda; hereafter, it is known as the Ganga. The Ganga enters the Northern plains at Haridwar. Ganga flows through the states of Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and West Bengal. Yamuna, Son and Damodar are the major right bank tributary and the important left bank tributaries are Ramganga, Gomati, Ghaghara, Gandak, Kosi and Mahananda. Ganga flows into the Bay of Bengal near the Sagar Island. Source: Financial Express LAKE NATRON Syllabus Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: Climate change impact is  jeopardising delicate balance of Tanzania’s Lake Natron Background: The lake is the only regular breeding area in East Africa for the 2.5 million lesser flamingoes, whose status of “near threatened” results from their dependence on this one location. About Lake Natron Lake Natron is a salt or alkaline lake located in north Ngorongoro District of Arusha Region in Tanzania at the border with Kenya. It is in the Gregory Rift, which is the eastern branch of the East African Rift. The lake is within the Lake Natron Basin, a Ramsar Site wetland of international significance. Properties This lake is fed principally by the Southern Ewaso Ng’iro River, which rises in central Kenya, and by mineral-rich hot springs. It is quite shallow, less than three metres deep, and varies in width depending on its water level. The lake is a maximum of 57 kilometres long and 22 kilometres wide. High levels of evaporation have left behind natron (sodium carbonate decahydrate) and trona (sodium sesquicarbonate dihydrate). The alkalinity of the lake can reach a pH of greater than 12. The surrounding bedrock is composed of alkaline, sodium-dominated trachyte lavas that were laid down during the Pleistocene period. The lavas have significant amounts of carbonate but very low calcium and magnesium levels. This has allowed the lake to concentrate into a caustic alkaline brine. The chemical properties of the water are known to calcify the bodies of any living thing that died in the lake, turning them to stone before they decompose. The colour of the lake is characteristic of those where very high evaporation rates occur. As water evaporates during the dry season, salinity levels increase to the point that salt-loving microorganisms begin to thrive. Such halophile organisms include some cyanobacteria that make their own food with photosynthesis as plants do. The red accessory photosynthesizing pigment in the cyanobacteria produces the deep reds of the open water of the lake and the orange colours of the shallow parts of the lake. The alkali salt crust on the surface of the lake is also often coloured red or pink by the salt-loving microorganisms that live there. Salt marshes and freshwater wetlands around the edges of the lake do support a variety of plants. Source: Down to Earth Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) With reference to the Gulf of Aden, consider the following statements: The Gulf of Aden is an extension of the Pacific Ocean. It connects the Red Sea to the Arabian Sea. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor Q2.) With reference to the Ganga Water Sharing Treaty, consider the following statements: It governs the sharing of Ganga River waters at the Farakka Barrage in West Bengal between India and Bangladesh. It specifically outlines the minimum level of water flow that India must share with its downstream neighbour, Bangladesh, during the dry season. The treaty is valid until the end of 2026, with a clause allowing renewal every 10 years by mutual consent. How many of the statements given above are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q3.) “The chemical properties of the water are known to calcify the bodies of any living thing that died in the lake, turning them to stone before they decompose”. Which water body is the sentence referring to? Lake Natron Lake Baikal Lake Tangayika Lake Huron Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  28th  June 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  27th June – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 28th June 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –27th June 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   DEPUTY SPEAKER Syllabus Prelims – POLITY Context: With the Opposition’s increased strength in Lok Sabha, its members are hoping to get the post of Deputy Speaker. There was no Deputy Speaker for the entire duration of the 17th Lok Sabha (2019-24). Background:- The first four Deputy Speakers, from 1952 to 1969, were from the ruling Congress. The Opposition had the post of Deputy Speaker continuously from 1990 through 2014. Key takeaways According to Article 95(1), the Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker if the post is vacant. The Deputy Speaker has the same general powers as the Speaker when presiding over the House. All references to the “Speaker” in the Rules are deemed to be references to the Deputy Speaker as well for the times when he or she presides. Both the Speaker and Deputy Speaker must be appointed “as soon as may be”. Article 93 states that “The House of the People shall, as soon as may be, choose two members of the House to be respectively Speaker and Deputy Speaker”. Article 178 contains the corresponding provision for the Speakers and Deputy Speakers in the state Assemblies. Is it mandatory under the Constitution to have a Deputy Speaker? The Constitution does not specify a time frame for making the appointments. It is this gap in the provision that allows governments to delay or avoid appointing a Deputy Speaker. However, constitutional experts have pointed out that both Article 93 and Article 178 use the words “shall” and “as soon as may be” – indicating that not only is the election of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker mandatory, it must be held at the earliest. What are the rules for the election of the Deputy Speaker? The Speaker / Dy Speaker is elected from among the Lok Sabha members by a simple majority of members present and voting The election of the Deputy Speaker usually takes place in the second session, even though there is no bar on having this election in the first session of the new Lok Sabha or Assembly. But the election of Deputy Speaker is generally not delayed beyond the second session unless there are some genuine and unavoidable constraints. In the Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker is governed by Rule 8 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.According to Rule 8, the election shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix. The Deputy Speaker is elected once a motion proposing his or her name is carried. Once elected, the Deputy Speaker usually continues in office until the dissolution of the House. Under Article 94 (and Article 179 for state Assemblies), the Speaker or Deputy Speaker shall vacate his office if he ceases to be a member of the House of the People. They may also resign (to each other), or may be removed from office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House. Additional Information: After the first Speaker, G V Mavalankar, died in 1956 before his term ended, Deputy Speaker M Ananthasayanam Ayyangar filled in for the remaining tenure of Lok Sabha from 1956 to 1957. Ayyangar was later elected as Speaker of the second Lok Sabha. Source: Indian Express CHINA’S SAMPLE RETURN LUNAR MISSION Syllabus Prelims & Mains – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: China’s Chang’e-6 on Tuesday became the first spacecraft to bring back samples from the far side of the Moon — the part that the Earth never gets to see. Background: India’s Chandrayaan-4 mission, which is currently under development by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), will also be a sample return mission.Chandrayaan-3 landed about 600 km from the South Pole of the Moon last year. Key Takeaways The lander descended on the Moon’s surface on June 1, and spent two days collecting rocks and soil from one of the oldest and largest of lunar craters — the 2,500 km-wide South Pole-Aitken (SPA) basin — using a robotic arm and drill. The lander then launched an ascent module that transferred the samples to the Chang’e-6 orbiter that was orbiting the Moon. On June 21, the orbiter released a service module thatbrought back the samples to Earth. Is this the first time a spacecraft has brought lunar samples to Earth? Back in July 1969, the US Apollo 11 mission brought 22 kg of lunar surface material, including 50 rocks, to Earth. In September 1970, the Soviet Luna 16 mission — the first robotic sample return mission — too, brought pieces of the Moon to Earth. In recent years, Chang’e-5, the predecessor of Chang’e-6, brought back 2 kg of lunar soil in December 2020. All these samples, however, came from the near side of the Moon. Difficult terrain, giant craters, and the difficulty in communicating with ground control made it technically challenging to land a spacecraft on the side that never faces the Earth. The Moon is tidally locked with Earth; thus we see only one side of our nearest space neighbour. Chang’e-4 overcame these difficulties in 2019, putting the Yutu-2 rover on the far lunar surface. Now, Chang’e-6 has not only landed on the far side, but also returned with samples from there. Why are sample return missions significant in the first place? A sample return missionsuch as Chang’e-6 aims to collect and return samples from an extraterrestrial location like the Moon or Mars to Earth for analysis. The sample can be rocks or soil — or even some molecules. In situ robotic explorations — in which landers, orbiters, and rovers carry out experiments in space or on heavenly bodies — can carry only miniature instruments that are not very sophisticated or accurate, and answer only certain types of questions. For instance, they can’t determine the origin or age of a rock. If the samples can be brought to Earth, on the other hand, scientists can examine them using extremely sensitive laboratory instruments. Also, returned samples can be preserved for decades, and can be examined by future generations using ever more advanced technology. India’s Chandrayaan-4 mission, which is currently under development by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), will also be a sample return mission.Chandrayaan-3 landed about 600 km from the South Pole of the Moon last year. Source: Indian Express EUROPEAN UNION’S NEW NATURE RESTORATION PLAN Syllabus Prelims & Mains – ENVIRONMENT Context: The European Union (EU) on June 17 approved its ambitious Nature Restoration Plan which aims to make continent-wide efforts to restore degraded ecosystems. Background: It is a crucial part of the bloc’s 2030 biodiversity strategy which, in turn, forms a core area of the European Green Deal. The European Green Deal is a package of policy initiatives, which aims to set the EU on the path to a green transition, with the ultimate goal of reaching climate neutrality by 2050. Key Takeaways The new law aims to restore ecosystems, including species and habitats that exist on EU’s land and in seas to: enable the long-term and sustained recovery of biodiverse and resilient nature, contribute to achieving the EU’s climate mitigation and climate adaptation objectives, and meet international commitments. According to the European Commission, 81% of habitats in the EU currently have a “poor” status, and one in three bee and butterfly species are in decline. What are the targets to be met under the new law? The primary target of the new legislation is long-term recovery of ecosystems. The measures should ideally cover at least 20% of the EU’s land and sea areas by 2030, and all ecosystems in need of restoration by 2050. Priority should be given to areas under the Natura 2000 – a network of 27,000 natural sites protected by EU legislation. The Restoration Law also has specific targets based on existing legislations, for urban, forest, marine, and agricultural ecosystems, for pollinating insects, and those related to river connectivity. Some of these are: Reversing the decline of pollinator population by 2030 No net loss of green urban space and tree cover by 2030, and an increase in their area thereafter Increasing stock of organic carbon Restoring drained peatlands under agricultural use Restoring the habitats of iconic marine species such as dolphins and porpoises, sharks and seabirds Restoring at least 25,000 km of rivers to a free-flowing state by 2030 How will the law be implemented? Countries in the EU bloc are expected to submit National Restoration Plans to the Commission within two years – by mid-2026 – specifying their plans to achieve the targets. Monitoring and reporting progress on these targets will be under the purview of the countries themselves. The European Environment Agency will prepare technical reports on this progress. Source: Hindu COTTON CULTIVATION IN INDIA Syllabus Prelims & Mains – GEOGRAPHY Context: According to the Ministry of Textiles, cotton consumption by the textile industry during the current marketing season (October 2023 to September 2024) is one of the highest this decade. Background: This year is expected to be the second highest in terms of consumption over the last ten years, with an estimated demand of 307 lakh bales, including 103 lakh bales from the MSME textile units. Key Takeaways: India is believed to be the original home of the cotton plant. Although a significant portion of cotton-growing areas was lost to Pakistan during partition, India’s acreage has increased considerably over the last 50 years. Cotton occupies about 4.7% of the total cropped area in the country. Cotton is a tropical or sub-tropical crop primarily grown in semi-arid regions, especially on the Deccan Plateau. Cotton is a Kharif crop, taking 6 to 8 months to mature. It requires at least 210 frost-free days and prefers light rainfall (50 to 100 centimeters). Bright sunshine during growth and a clear sky during flowering are essential. Ideal soil for cotton cultivation is well-drained and capable of retaining moisture. Black cotton soil is preferred. Cotton-Producing States: India has three major cotton-growing regions: North-West: Includes parts of Punjab, Haryana, and northern Rajasthan. West: Gujarat and Maharashtra. South: Plateaus of Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu. Leading cotton producers are Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Telangana. Other significant states include Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Punjab, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh. Source: Regulation Asia INFLATION Syllabus Prelims & Mains – ECONOMY Context: Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor Shaktikanta Das has recently emphasized the importance of managing inflation effectively. Background: The central bank has been mandated by the government to keep inflation at 4% with a margin of 2% on either side. About Inflation Inflation refers to the sustained increase in the general price level of goods and services in an economy over a period of time. It erodes the purchasing power of money and affects the standard of living. Causes of Inflation: Demand-Pull Inflation: Occurs when aggregate demand exceeds aggregate supply, leading to rising prices. Cost-Push Inflation: Arises due to increased production costs (e.g., higher wages, raw material costs). Built-In Inflation: A self-perpetuating cycle where expectations of future inflation lead to higher wages and prices. Effects of Inflation: Positive Effects: Debt relief for borrowers (as money becomes less valuable). Encourages spending and investment. Negative Effects: Reduced purchasing power for fixed-income earners. Uncertainty and instability in the economy. Measuring Inflation: Consumer Price Index (CPI): The CPI measures changes in the cost of a basket of goods and services consumed by households. CPI includes various categories such as food, energy, commodities (like cars and clothes), and services (e.g., rent, healthcare). Each category has a relative importance based on its share of total expenditures. Wholesale Price Index (WPI): The WPI reflects changes in wholesale prices of goods at the producer level. WPI helps understand cost pressures in production and supply chains. Unlike CPI, WPI does not directly represent consumer prices. Controlling Inflation: Monetary Policy: Interest Rates: The RBI adjusts policy interest rates (like the repo rate) to influence borrowing costs. Higher rates can reduce demand and curb inflation. Open Market Operations (OMOs): The RBI buys or sells government securities to manage liquidity and influence interest rates. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): The CRR determines the portion of deposits banks must keep with the RBI. Adjusting it affects liquidity and lending capacity. Fiscal Policy: The government can control inflation through fiscal measures such as Taxation: Adjusting taxes affects disposable income and spending. Government Spending: Managing public expenditure impacts demand. Supply-Side Measures: Agricultural Reforms: Enhancing productivity and reducing supply bottlenecks in agriculture can stabilize food prices. Infrastructure Development: Improving infrastructure reduces production costs. Trade Policies: Facilitating imports can ease supply constraints. Inflation Targeting Framework: The Central Government, in consultation with the RBI, determines the inflation target in terms of the Consumer Price Index (CPI), once in five years and notifies it in the Official Gazette. The MPC determines the policy repo rate required to achieve the inflation target. Source: Hindustan Times EXTERNAL DEBT TO GDP RATIO Syllabus Prelims & Mains – ECONOMY Context: The external debt to GDP ratio declined to 18.7% at the end of March 2024 from 19.0% at the end of March 2023. Background: India’s external debt reached $663.8 billion by the end of March 2024, marking a 6% increase (approximately $39.7 billion) compared to March 2023. About Innovation for Defence Excellence (iDEX) The external debt-to-GDP ratio is a crucial economic metric that compares a country’s external debt to its gross domestic product (GDP). External Debt: External debt refers to the total amount of money a country owes to external creditors, including foreign governments, international organizations, and private entities outside the country. It includes both short-term and long-term debt obligations. External debt is a type of public debt. Public debt refers to the total amount of money that a government owes to external creditors and domestic lenders. Gross Domestic Product (GDP): GDP represents the total value of all goods and services produced within a country’s borders during a specific period (usually a year). It reflects the economic output and productivity of a nation. Calculation of External Debt-to-GDP Ratio: The external debt-to-GDP ratio is calculated by dividing the total external debt by the country’s gross domestic product (GDP). This ratio helps assess a nation’s financial stability and its ability to manage debt obligations. A low external debt-to-GDP ratio indicates that an economy produces sufficient goods and services to repay its debts without accumulating further debt. Conversely, a high ratio suggests challenges in paying off external debts, potentially leading to higher interest rates for borrowing. Significance: When a country’s debt-to-GDP ratio climbs, its risk of default increases, potentially causing financial panic in domestic and international markets. Governments aim to lower this ratio, but during periods of unrest (e.g., wartime or recession), borrowing may increase to stimulate growth. Source: Reserve Bank of India Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) With reference to the external debt to GDP ratio, consider the following statements: The external debt-to-GDP ratio is calculated by dividing the total external debt by the country’s gross domestic product (GDP). This ratio helps assess a nation’s financial stability and its ability to manage debt obligations. A low external debt-to-GDP ratio indicates that an economy produces sufficient goods and services to repay its debts without accumulating further debt. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q2.) With reference to the Inflation, consider the following statements: Inflation refers to the sustained increase in the general price level of goods and services in an economy over a period of time. It erodes the purchasing power of money and affects the standard of living. A moderate level of inflation is good for economy Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q3.) Consider the following states: Gujarat Maharashtra Telangana Kerala How many of the above-mentioned states are the leading cotton producers in India? Only one Only two Only three All four Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  27th June 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  26th June – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – c