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IASbaba’s TLP 2024 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – Essay Questions [26th July, 2024] – Day 33

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal.   This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2025 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2024 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 33 Questions - CLICK HERE  P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 25th July 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   NATIONAL BIOENERGY PROGRAMME Syllabus Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: The Central government has revised the financial assistance rates for Biomass Pellet manufacturing under the National Bioenergy Programme. Background: This strategic funding revision is designed to accelerate the adoption of biomass pellets, particularly in states like Punjab, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh, where the burning of paddy straw and other agricultural residues has been a persistent challenge. About National Bioenergy Programme The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) notified the National Bioenergy Programme in 2022. This programme has a provision of Central Financial Assistance (CFA) for various components related to Power generation, Biogas/BioCNG generation and Briquette/Pellet manufacturing, wherein Biomass is one of the major feedstock material, which primarily shall be sourced from rural areas. The Programme will not only promote the utilization of surplus biomass but also provide an additional source of income for rural households. The National Bioenergy Energy Programme supports setting up of Bioenergy projects in the country under the following components: Waste to Energy Programme: The objective of this programme is to support setting up of waste to energy projects for generation of Biogas/BioCNG/Power/producer or syngas from urban, industrial and agricultural wastes/residues. The programme provides Central Financial Assistance (CFA) to project developers and service charges to implementing/inspection agencies in respect of successful commissioning of Waste to Energy plants. Biomass Programme: The objective of this programme is to support setting up of Biomass Briquette/Pellet manufacturing plants and Biomass (non-bagasse) based cogeneration projects in the country. This programme provides Central Financial Assistance (CFA) to project developers and service charges to implementing/inspection agencies for setting up of Biomass projects. Biogas Programme: The objective of this programme is to support setting up of biogas plants for clean cooking fuel, lighting, meeting thermal and small power needs of users which ultimately results in GHG reduction, improved sanitation, women empowerment and creation of rural employment. Source: Economic Times This is box title Syllabus Prelims – ART & CULTURE Context: Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports Recognizes Kalarippayattu Federation of India for Promotion of Kalarippayattu in Country. Background:- As sports is a State subject, it is the responsibility of State Governments to develop sports infrastructure for various disciplines, including Kalaripayattu. About Kalarippayattu Kalaripayattu also known simply as Kalari, is an Indian martial art that originated in Kerala. It is considered as one of the most ancient martial arts in the world. The word Kalaripayattu is a combination of two Malayalam words – kalari (training ground or battleground) and payattu (training of martial arts), which is roughly translated as “practice in the arts of the battlefield”. Kalaripayattu training includes exercises to develop sharp reflexes for unarmed combat and skillful fight using sticks, dagger, knife, spear, sword and shield etc. It is noted for its high-flying acrobatics, graceful movements and employs the deadly weapons at ease. There are mainly two main styles of Kalarippayattu: – Vadakkan or Nothern style – The Vadakkan Kalarippayattu is predominantly practiced in the Malabar region of Kerala. The Vadakkan style emphasizes more on graceful body movement and the weaponry. Thekken or Southern Style- The Thekken Kalarippayattu or Adi Murai is practiced mainly in the Travancore region, this style involves more free armed techniques & powerful movements. Source: PIB This is box title Syllabus Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman has asserted that the Union government was committed to financing and early completion of the Polavaram Irrigation Project in Andhra Pradesh. Background: Context: State-run Coal India has secured a graphite block, a critical mineral asset, in Madhya Pradesh. It would be the company’s first ever non-coal mineral mining venture. Background: The announcement has given fresh hopes for the people of Andhra Pradesh as the future of the project hangs in balance due to the damages it suffered in 2019-20 due to floods. About Polavaram Irrigation Project The Polavaram Irrigation Project is on the river Godavari near Ramayyapeta village of Polavaram Mandal, where river emerges out of the last range of the Eastern Ghats and enters the plains. This multi-purpose major irrigation project is intended for development of a gross irrigation potential of 4,36,825 ha. The project also envisages generation of 960MW of hydro power, drinking water supply to a population of 28.50 lakh in 611 villages and diversion of 80 TMC of water to Krishna river basin. The project has been accorded National project status by the Central Government of India. Source: Hindu ISRAEL’S OCCUPATION OF WEST BANK AND EAST JERUSALEM Syllabus Mains – GS 2 Context: The International Court of Justice (ICJ), the UN’s principal judicial body, recently declared that Israel’s occupation of the West Bank and East Jerusalem violates international law and should end as soon as possible. Background: Israel has occupied the West Bank and East Jerusalem since the Six-Day War in 1967. What is an ‘occupation’ in international law? The widely accepted definition of occupation comes from Article 42 of the 1907 Hague Convention. It says that a territory is considered occupied when it is actually placed under the authority of the hostile army. Occupation must be temporary and  cannot involve any transfer of sovereignty to the occupying power. The 1907 Hague Regulations and the 1949 Fourth Geneva Convention outline the occupying power’s obligations, including providing food and medical care, prohibiting civilian transfers, and forbidding the use or threat of force. Why did ICJ give its opinion on Israel’s occupation? In December 2022, the UN General Assembly adopted a resolution, presented by Nicaragua, requesting an advisory opinion from the ICJ on the legal consequences of Israel’s policies and practices in the Occupied Palestinian Territory, including East Jerusalem. What did the ICJ opine? The ICJ examined the legality of Israel’s prolonged occupation, settlement policy, annexation of the Palestinian territories, and adoption of allegedly discriminatory measures to apprise whether they affect the right of the Palestinian people to self-determination. On prolonged occupation The ICJ noted that international law does not set a time limit for occupations. Instead, the legality of an occupation depends on the occupying power’s policies, practices, and their implementation on the ground. On settlement policy The first Israeli practice that the court examined was its policy of settlement in the West Bank and East Jerusalem since 1967. This, the court said, violated international law. According to the ICJ: The settlement policy and Israeli military actions have forced Palestinians to leave parts of the occupied territories against their will, violating Article 49 of the Fourth Geneva Convention. This article states, “The Occupying Power shall not deport or transfer parts of its own civilian population into the territory it occupies.” The policy breaches Articles 46 (protection of private property), 52 (general protection of civilian objects), and 55 (protection of the natural environment) of the Hague regulations, as Israel expanded its settlements in the occupied territories by “confiscation or requisitioning of large areas of land”; The policy’s implementation violates Article 43 of the Hague Regulations, which requires occupying powers to respect existing laws in occupied territories unless absolutely prevented. The court found that Israel treats its settlements and occupied East Jerusalem as its own territory, applying Israeli law exclusively and ignoring other legal systems. The court also held that the settlement policy led to violence by Israeli settlers and security forces against Palestinians, which Israel failed to prevent and effectively punish. On annexation of palestinian territories The ICJ defined annexation as permanent control over occupied territory. It found that Israel’s policies and practices in the West Bank and East Jerusalem aim to create irreversible effects and remain indefinitely. These include settlement expansion, resource exploitation, proclaiming Jerusalem as Israel’s capital, and applying Israeli law in these areas. The ICJ stated that such actions violate the prohibition of the use of force in international relations, impacting the legality of Israel’s occupation. On discriminatory legislation and measures The court found that legislations implemented by Israel in occupied territories treat Palestinians differently. This, the court said, “constitutes systemic discrimination” based on, “race, religion or ethnic origin” of the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights, 1954 and the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, 1954, and the International Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Racial Discrimination, 1965 (ICERD). Israel’s policies maintain near-complete separation between settlers and Palestinians, clearly violating Article 3 of ICERD, which obligates the eradication of apartheid and racial segregation. On self-determination In light of all the above, the ICJ determined that Israel’s occupation has violated Palestinians’ right to self-determination. Source: Indian Express NPS VATSALYA Syllabus Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: The finance minister recently made the announcement of a new pension scheme under the National Pension Scheme (NPS), called NPS Vatsalya. Background: In addition to NPS Vatsalya, the Budget 2024 also brought significant changes to NPS contribution limits, aimed at increasing tax benefits for both employees and employers. About NPS Vatsalya Scheme : The NPS Vatsalya Scheme proposed in Budget 2024 enables parents and guardians to start a National Pension Scheme (NPS) for their children. It is designed to help parents and guardians plan for their children’s future financial needs. Under the scheme, parents or guardians can open an account for their minor children and make contributions towards their retirement savings. The funds will accumulate until the child turns 18. Once the child reaches adulthood, the accumulated amount will be transferred to the standard NPS account. This plan could be seamlessly converted into a non-NPS plan when the child becomes an adult. The scheme operates similarly to the existing NPS. The NPS scheme introduced by the Central Government provides pension income to individuals to support their retirement needs. Thus, the NPS Vatsalya scheme is one of the finest retirement options, guaranteeing the child’s financial security. Source: Hindu CLARION-CLIPPERTON ZONE Syllabus Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: India will apply for licences from International Seabed Authority (ISA) to explore  deep-sea minerals in the Pacific Ocean. India plans to focus on the Clarion-Clipperton Zone, known to hold large volumes of polymetallic nodules containing minerals used in electric vehicles and solar panels including manganese, nickel, copper, and cobalt. Background: The 36-member ISA council is meeting in Jamaica this month to negotiate the latest draft of a mining code. About Clarion-Clipperton Zone : Clarion-Clipperton Zone (CCZ) lies in the North Pacific Ocean, stretching between Hawaii and Mexico. Administered by the International Seabed Authority (ISA), it encompasses the Clarion Fracture Zone and the Clipperton Fracture Zone—geological submarine fracture zone. It is known to hold large volumes of polymetallic nodules containing minerals used in electric vehicles and solar panels including manganese, nickel, copper, and cobalt. First discovered by British sailors in 1873, the potato-shaped nodules take millions of years to form. Up to 30 cetacean populations, including globally endangered species like blue whales, can be found in the CCZ, where 17 exploratory deep-sea mining licenses have been granted. International Seabed Authority (ISA): Established in 1994, the ISA plays a critical role in regulating activities beyond national jurisdiction. This includes the international seabed, which covers most of the world’s oceans. The 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) provided the legal framework for the ISA’s existence. With 169 members (including 168 Member States and the European Union), the ISA ensures responsible exploration and exploitation of mineral resources. Their headquarters in Kingston, Jamaica, serves as a hub for coordinating efforts to protect the marine environment while promoting equitable resource utilization. Source: Economic Times Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) The Clarion-Clipperton Zone (CCZ), recently seen in news is located in Caspian Sea Indian Ocean Black Sea Pacific Ocean Q2.)Polavaram irrigation project, recently seen in news, is located on the Godavari river Kavery river Periyar river Teesta river Q3.) With reference to the NPS Vatsalya, consider the following statements: The NPS Vatsalya Scheme proposed in Budget 2024 enables parents and guardians to start a National Pension Scheme for their children. The accrued contribution amount in the NPS Vatsalya amount will be transferred to the standard NPS account when the child reaches the age of 16 years. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  25th July 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  24th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) –  c Q.2) – a Q.3) – c For a dedicated peer group, Motivation & Quick updates, Join our official telegram channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccount Subscribe to our YouTube Channel HERE to watch Explainer Videos, Strategy Sessions, Toppers Talks & many more…

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 24th July 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   UNION BUDGET 2024-25 Syllabus Prelims & Mains – ECONOMY Context: Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman presented her seventh Budget in Parliament. Background:- The Union Budget 2024 reflected the changed political landscape, with the BJP no longer enjoying sole majority. Announcements were made for politically significant states such as Andhra Pradesh and Bihar, ruled by major NDA member parties. Key highlights of the budget The government cut the fiscal deficit target to 4.9 per cent of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) for financial year 2024-25 from 5.1 per cent in the interim Budget. The Centre’s outgo on subsidies is budgeted to decline to a five-year-low in 2024-25, both in absolute terms and as a percentage of gross domestic product (GDP).The lower spend is on account of two factors : The first is the discontinuation of the free, additional 5-kg grain allocation to the 80 crore-plus PDS beneficiaries under the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana. The second major driver for the Centre’s lower subsidy provision is fertiliser. At Rs 164,000 crore, the budgeted fertiliser subsidy for 2024-25 is down from the record Rs 251,339 crore of 2022-23, which resulted from high global prices following Russia’s invasion of Ukraine. Finance Minister announced to withdraw the 2 % equalisation levy on the e-commerce supply of goods or services with effect from August 1, 2024. In an attempt to counterbalance the variability of renewable energy and strengthen India’s baseload power capacity, budget announced plans to set up the country’s first 800 MW advanced ultra supercritical (AUSC) thermal plant based on indigenous technology. Govt announced the setting up of e-commerce export hubs across the country in public private partnership (PPP) mode along the lines of several Southeast Asian countries that are benefiting from the rapid growth of e-commerce exports. Budget announced the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Urban 2.0, with Rs 2.2 lakh crore central assistance over five years, to construct one crore additional houses. With a saturation approach for achieving social justice, FM announced a new scheme for socio-economic development of 63,000 tribal villages that will aim to cover 5 crore people from tribal communities. The government will launch the Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Unnat Gram Abhiyan for the purpose. Twelve new industrial parks will be created under the National Industrial Corridor Development Programme. A Package is announced for Vizag-Chennai Industrial corridor. Center will provide Rs 15,000 crore financial assistance for Andhra Pradesh for development of Amaravati. Centre to finance and early completion of Polavaram Irrigation project, considered as a lifeline for Andhra Pradesh and its farmers. The finance minister announced several schemes for Bihar in her speech. The schemes are a part of a larger plan titled “Purvodaya”, which covers the all-round development of eastern States including Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Odisha, and Andhra Pradesh. The government will support building of expressways in Bihar at a total cost of ₹26,000 crore. Power projects, new airports, medical colleges and sports infra will be also constructed in the state. FM announced three new employee-linked incentive schemes. The three schemes will align with enrolment in the Employee Provident Fund Organisation and focus on the recognition of first-time employees, as well as support to both employers and employees. Scheme A will support EPFO enrollments for first-timers in the workforce, with a one month wage payout for all formal sectors in three installments, upto Rs. 15,000 per month, with an eligibility limit of a salary of Rs. 1 lakh per month. Scheme B pertains to the creation of jobs in manufacturing. The scheme will incentivise additional employment in the sector linked to first time employees. An incentive to employee and employer will be provided with respect to EPFO in first 4 years of employment. Scheme C pertains to support to employers. It is to be an employer- focused scheme which will focus on additional employment in all sectors for those earning within a salary of 1 lakh. The government will reimburse employers up to Rs. 3000 per month for two years towards EPFO contribution for each additional employee. Source: Indian Express This is box title Syllabus Prelims & Mains – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY; ENVIRONMENT Context: The Supreme Court recently delivered a split decision on the environmental release of genetically modified (GM) mustard DMH -11. Background: Despite the dissent on the environmental release of GM mustard, the two judges were unequivocal in underlining the significance of a national policy on genetically modified organisms (GMOs). It directed the Union government to evolve a national policy on GMOs following appropriate consultations with all the stakeholders. About Mustard cultivation Mustard is one of India’s most important winter crops which is sown between mid-October and late November. Mustard is cultivated by around 6 million farmers in around 6.5-7 million hectares of land across the states of Rajasthan, Haryana, Punjab and Madhya Pradesh. DMH-11 has been shown to deliver 30 per cent higher yields than existing varieties. The average yield of existing mustard varieties is around 1,000-1,200 kilograms per hectare, while the global average is over 2,000-2,200 kgs. What is DMH-11? DMH-11 is a hybrid variant of mustard developed by researchers at The Centre for Genetic Manipulation of Crop Plants, at the University of Delhi. DMH-11 is a result of a cross between two varieties: Varuna and Early Heera-2. Such a cross wouldn’t have happened naturally and was done after introducing genes from two soil bacterium called barnase and barstar. Barnase in Varuna induces a temporary sterility because of which it can’t naturally self-pollinate. Barstar in Heera blocks the effect of barnase allowing seeds to be produced. The result is DMH-11 (where 11 refers to the number of generations after which desirable traits manifest) that not only has better yield but is also fertile. DMH-11 is a transgenic crop because it uses foreign genes from a different species. Concerns GM mustard has been a subject of intense political debate in the country with both pro- and anti-GM activists placing their claims and counterclaims vigorously. Worried that a genetically modified mustard crop would impact honey production in India, honey cultivators have opposed the GM mustard variety and asked the government not to approve it for commercial cultivation. The DMH-11 mustard variety is herbicide tolerant, allowing farmers to spray over the crops with weed killer without harming the crops. This has raised fears that farmers may resort to excessive use of toxic herbicides which can lead to weeds becoming resistant to them and the emergence of so-called super weeds. Critics are also concerned about herbicide residue on GM crops. Source: Hindu This is box title Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: State-run Coal India has secured a graphite block, a critical mineral asset, in Madhya Pradesh. It would be the company’s first ever non-coal mineral mining venture. Background: India imports about 69 per cent of its graphite needs – natural, synthetic and enduse products. Currently, the graphite mining industry has limited players and this offers space for willing players to venture into this business arena. About Graphite Graphite is a crystalline form of the element carbon. It consists of stacked layers of graphene (graphene is a single layer of carbon atoms, tightly bound in a hexagonal honeycomb lattice). Graphite has a greasy feel and leaves a black mark, thus the name from the Greek verb graphein, “to write.” Graphite is dark gray to black, opaque, and very soft. Graphite occurs naturally and is the most stable form of carbon under standard conditions. Under high pressures and temperatures it converts to diamond. Graphite is a non-metal but has many properties of metals. It is a good conductor of both heat and electricity. Synthetic and natural graphite are consumed on a large scale (1.3 million metric tons per year in 2022) for uses in pencils, lubricants, and electrodes. About 75 percent of graphite is mined in China, with significant amounts mined in Madagascar, Mozambique, and Brazil. Source: Hindu Businessline CHANDRA SHEKHAR AZAD Syllabus Prelims – HISTORY Context: Recently, Prime Minister paid his homage to Chandra Shekhar Azad on his birth anniversary. Background: “If yet your blood does not rage, then it is water that flows in your veins. For what is the flush of youth, if it is not of service to the motherland?” These words echo the spirit of Chandra Shekhar Azad. About Chandra Shekhar Azad : Chandra Shekhar Sitaram Tiwari (23 July 1906 – 27 February 1931), popularly known as Chandra Shekhar Azad, was an Indian revolutionary. In 1921, at the peak of the Non-Cooperation Movement, 15-year-old student Chandra Shekhar joined the cause. He was arrested and brought before the district magistrate, where he boldly gave his name as “Azad” (The Free), stated his father’s name as “Swatantrata” (Independence), and his residence as “Jail”. The infuriated magistrate punished him with 15 lashes. After the suspension of the non-cooperation movement in 1922 by Mahatma Gandhi, Azad became disappointed. He got associated with Ram Prasad Bismil, who had formed the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA). Azad became an active member of the HRA and started to collect funds for HRA. He was involved in the Kakori Train Robbery of 1925. In the aftermath of the Kakori train robbery, the British suppressed revolutionary activities. Prasad, Ashfaqulla Khan,Thakur Roshan Singh and Rajendra Nath Lahiri were sentenced to death for their participation. Azad and a few others evaded capture. In 1928, along with Bhagat Singh and other revolutionaries he secretly reorganised the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA), renaming it as the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) , so as to achieve their primary aim of an independent socialist Azad conspired with revolutionaries like Shivaram Rajguru, Sukhdev Thapar, and Bhagat Singh to assassinate the Superintendent of police, James A. Scott in order to avenge Lala Rajpat Rai’s death. However, in a case of mistaken identity, the plotters shot John P. Saunders, an Assistant Superintendent of Police. On 27th Feb, 1931, Police was tipped off by someone that Azad was at Alfred Park, following which the police surrounded the park. After a long shootout, holding true to his pledge to always remain Azad (Free) and never be captured alive, he shot himself in the head with his gun’s last bullet. Source: News18 GODAVARI RIVER Syllabus Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: The recent Godavari flood has impacted over 170 villages in the Chintoor Agency of the Alluri Sitharama Raju (ASR) district. Most of these villages are inhabited by the Koya and Konda Reddi tribes along the banks of the Sabari and the Godavari rivers. Background: The Godavari flood was triggered by heavy rainfall in the catchment areas of the Godavari River. The excess water flow led to rising water levels, inundating nearby villages and affecting communities along the riverbanks. About Godavari river : The Godavari River, also known as Dakshina Ganga, is India’s second longest river. The Godavari River rises in the Sahyadris, near Trimbakeshwar in the Nashik district of Maharashtra. It originates from the Bramhagiri mountains at Trimbakeshwar. Course: The Godavari River flows across the Deccan Plateau from the Western Ghats to the Eastern Ghats. It covers approximately 1,465 kilometers (910 miles) in a generally southeast direction, passing through the states of Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha. Eventually, it empties into the Bay of Bengal through an extensive network of distributaries. Tributaries: Right Bank Tributaries: Pravara, Manjira, Maner Left Bank Tributaries: Purna, Pranhita, Indravathi, Sabari Source: Hindu NIPAH VIRUS Syllabus Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: A 14-year-old boy succumbed to the Nipah virus in Kerala. Background: Kerala has experienced Nipah outbreaks since 2018, and the state remains at risk due to its fruit bat habitats. About Nipah Virus : The Nipah virus (NiV) is a zoonotic virus, meaning it can be transmitted from animals to humans. Fruit bats (particularly species belonging to the Pteropus genus) are natural hosts of the virus, and pigs can also carry it. Human transmission occurs through direct contact with infected bats, pigs, or other individuals. It was first identified during an outbreak in Malaysia in 1998-1999 among pig farmers and those in close contact with pigs and later spread to Bangladesh and eastern India. India experienced outbreaks in Siliguri (2001) and Kerala (since 2018). Symptoms and Severity: The incubation period ranges from 4 to 14 days after exposure. Initial symptoms resemble influenza: fever, headache, muscle pain, and sore throat. Severe cases can lead to encephalitis (brain inflammation), respiratory issues, seizures, and coma. Mortality rates vary (40% to 75%) depending on the outbreak and healthcare infrastructure. Treatment: There is no specific medication or vaccine for Nipah virus. Managing symptoms is the primary approach. Prevention involves: Avoiding exposure to sick animals (especially bats and pigs). Disinfecting surfaces. Taking precautions around infected individuals. Source: Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) With reference to the Nipah virus (NiV), consider the following statements: The Nipah virus is a zoonotic virus. Fruit bats are natural hosts of the virus. It was first identified during an outbreak in Bangladesh. There is no specific medication or vaccine for Nipah virus. How many of the statements given above are correct? a. Only one b. Only two c. Only three d. All four Q2.)Identify the non metal among the following: a. Graphite b. Manganese c. Uranium d. Mercury Q3.)Consider the following rivers: Purna Pranhita Hemavathi Indravathi Sabari Manjira How many of the above-mentioned rivers are the left bank tributaries of the river Godavari? Only two Only three Only four Only five Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  24th July 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  23rd July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) –  c Q.2) – c Q.3) – d For a dedicated peer group, Motivation & Quick updates, Join our official telegram channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccount Subscribe to our YouTube Channel HERE to watch Explainer Videos, Strategy Sessions, Toppers Talks & many more…

IASbaba’s TLP 2024 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – Essay Questions [25th July, 2024] – Day 32

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal.   This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2025 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2024 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 32 Questions - CLICK HERE  P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 24th July 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s TLP 2024 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – Essay Questions [24th July, 2024] – Day 31

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal.   This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2025 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2024 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 31 Questions - CLICK HERE  P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 23rd July 2024

  Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   BHIL PRADESH Syllabus Prelims & Mains – POLITY Context: The Bhil tribal community’s demand for a separate state is growing in Rajasthan. On July 18, a large gathering at Mangarh Dham in Banswara saw members calling for the creation of “Bhil Pradesh,” which would include 49 districts from four states. Background:- The demand for Bhil Pradesh has been frequently raised by tribal leaders over the years, and the Bharat Adivasi Party (BAP), formed last year, has been buoyed by its performance in the recent Lok Sabha polls to champion it with renewed vigour. What is the demand for ‘Bhil Pradesh’? According to the BAP, the proposed Bhil Pradesh would cover 49 districts across four contiguous states including Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra. This would involve 12 districts from Rajasthan. As per Census 2011, there are 1.7 crore Bhils across the country. Their largest concentration is in Madhya Pradesh at about 60 lakh, followed by 42 lakh in Gujarat, 41 lakh in Rajasthan and 26 lakh in Maharashtra. The demand is based on the geography, culture, and language according to supporters. If Gujarat and Maharashtra can be carved out due to similar cultures and languages, then why not Bhil Pradesh?.This is what the leaders of the movement is asking. History of  ‘Bhil Pradesh’ demand According BAP leaders, the demand for Bhil Pradesh dates back to 1913. Leaders claim that Govind Giri Banjara, a tribal activist and social reformer, first demanded a Bhil state in 1913 when he mobilised a gathering of thousands of tribals at Mangarh Hill. On November 17, 1913, around 1,500 tribals were massacred by the British for their rebellion. Over the years, various tribal leaders have voiced their demand for a separate Bhil state. What does the constitution say ? Article 3 assigns to Parliament the power to enact legislation for the formation of new States. Parliament may create new States in a number of ways, namely by (i) separating territory from any State, (ii) uniting two or more States, (iii) uniting parts of States and (iv) uniting any territory to a part of any State. Parliament’s power under Article 3 extends to increasing or diminishing the area of any State and altering the boundaries or name of any State. Two checks constrain Parliament’s power to enact legislation for the formation of new States. Firstly, a bill calling for formation of new States may be introduced in either House of Parliament only on the recommendation of the President. Secondly, such a bill must be referred by the President to the concerned State Legislature for expressing its views to Parliament if it contains provisions which affect the areas, boundaries or name of that State. Parliament will not be bound by these views in the process of enacting legislation for the formation of new States. Source: Indian Express   U - WIN Syllabus Prelims & Mains – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY; HEALTH Context: On the government’s 100-day health agenda is the countrywide rollout of U-WIN, an online vaccine management portal for childhood vaccination — similar to CoWIN used during the Covid-19 pandemic. Background: The platform is already being piloted in several states, and national implementation is imminent What is U-WIN & how does it work Children, up to the age of six years, and pregnant mothers are registered on U-WIN using government ID like Aadhaar, and their mobile numbers. Upon registration, records of all 25 shots given to a child — and the two given to pregnant mothers — can be added.For this, the platform generates a checkered vaccination certificate that colour codes all vaccines. After each shot is administered (and recorded on U-WIN), its date gets added to the card, which also shows the due date for the next set of vaccines. The platform also sends reminders to parents before their children are due for the next dose. The digital vaccine certificate — which can be downloaded by parents — does away with the need to maintain the physical vaccination booklet, and allows one to get vaccinated anywhere in the country. U-WIN itself can be used to locate the nearest vaccination centre, and book a slot. As for health workers, the platform can automatically generate a due-list of children in their respective areas. U-WIN also registers all births, the three vaccines against polio, hepatitis B, and tuberculosis administered at birth, a child’s birth weight, and any physical deformities observed at birth. These data-points can be utilised by other government programmes as well — the idea is to eventually connect all digital records through ABHA (Ayushman Bharat Health Account) ID. U-WIN will also be linked to the government’s existing eVIN platform for inventory management. eVIN tracks all vaccine vials, from large central stores to each vaccination site in the country. It keeps track of the number of doses used, the number of doses that go to waste, and the number of open vials that are submitted back by the sites, and is used by sites to raise demands for vaccines. eVIN also keeps track of, in real-time, the temperature and humidity that a vial has been subjected to using a sensor attached to each freezer. How will U-WIN help with immunisation? There are a number of benefits that the government foresees with U-WIN. Reminders that U-WIN will furnish to parents are likely to improve compliance. U-WIN will ensure portability — children who have received their first vaccines in one village/city can receive the rest of the doses elsewhere in the country. This will be especially useful to ensure that children of migrant workers do not drop out. The portal might help reduce errors from the part of health workers. U-WIN will provide granular, individualised details of childhood immunisation across the country. Registration at birth will help in bringing down the number of “zero dose” children — those who have not received any vaccinations. A centralised database, especially in the long-term, may facilitate better policy-making and implementation. Source: Indian Express KADAMBINI GANGULY Syllabus Prelims – HISTORY Context: Recently, country celebrated the birth anniversary of Kadambini Ganguly Background: Despite her many achievements, Kadambini remains largely unrecognised, absent from our textbooks or museums and ignored in the writings of Indian history. About Kadambini Ganguly Kadambini was born in 1862 in Bhagalpur, Bihar. Her father, Brajkishore Basu, was a school headmaster and a stalwart of the Brahmo Samaj movement. Kadambini completed her BA from Bethune in 1882 and became the first woman graduate in Bengal along with Chandramukhi Bose. Kadambini had already begun considering a medical degree by then. This was a far-fetched dream since the Calcutta Medical College (CMC) did not have any provision for allowing women students. Lieutenant Governor of Bengal, Augustus Rivers Thompson, stepped in and ensured that the medical college opened its doors to women. Kadambini graduated from CMC in 1886 and was appointed doctor at the Lady Dufferin Women’s Hospital in 1888. Anandibai Joshi, who also graduated as a doctor in 1888 after studying in America, died of tuberculosis shortly after and couldn’t practice medicine. Thus, Kadambini is widely regarded as the first woman medical practitioner in India. Kadambini decided to pursue another degree, this time from Britain.In 1893, Kadambini graduated from the University of Edinburgh, the only one of 14 women to pass the exams. At the 1889 Congress session, where six women were present, Kadambini moved the vote of thanks. Annie Besant hailed her as a “symbol that India’s freedom would uplift India’s womanhood.” She organised the Women’s Annual Conference in Calcutta in 1906 in the aftermath of the Partition of Bengal. Role in Age of Consent Act The government had introduced a bill in 1890 to raise the age of consent for sexual intercourse for all girls in India, both married and unmarried. Kadambini was then appointed to carry out a survey and submit a report in this regard. It was on the basis of her report that the Age of Consent Act 1891 was passed. Source: Indian Express INTERNATIONAL COURT OF JUSTICE Syllabus Prelims – INTERNATIONAL Context: The International Court of Justice (ICJ) said on July 19 that Israel’s occupation of the West Bank and East Jerusalem violated international law, and its presence in Palestinian territories should come to an end as soon as possible. Background: Israel has occupied the West Bank and East Jerusalem since the Six-Day War in 1967. Prior to this, the territories were under Jordanian control. About International Court of Justice : The ICJ is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN). It was established in June 1945 by the Charter of the United Nations and began work in April 1946. The court is the successor to the Permanent Court of International Justice (PCIJ), which was brought into being through, and by, the League of Nations, 1922. Like the PCIJ, the ICJ is based at the Peace Palace in The Hague. It is the only one of the six principal organs of the UN that is not located in New York City. The other five organs are the General Assembly, the Security Council, the Economic and Social Council, the Trusteeship Council, and the Secretariat. According to the ICJ’s own description, its role is “to settle, in accordance with international law, legal disputes submitted to it by States and to give advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by authorized United Nations organs and specialized agencies”. The court “as a whole must represent the main forms of civilization and the principal legal systems of the world”. English and French are the ICJ’s official languages. All members of the UN are automatically parties to the ICJ statute, but this does not automatically give the ICJ jurisdiction over disputes involving them. The ICJ gets jurisdiction only if both parties consent to it. The judgment of the ICJ is final and technically binding on the parties to a case. There is no provision of appeal; it can at the most, be subject to interpretation or, upon the discovery of a new fact, revision. However, the ICJ has no way to ensure compliance of its orders, and its authority is derived from the willingness of countries to abide by them. The ICJ has 15 judges who are elected to nine-year terms by the UN General Assembly and Security Council, which vote simultaneously but separately. To be elected, a candidate must receive a majority of the votes in both bodies. A third of the court is elected every three years. Four Indians have been members of the ICJ so far. Source: Indian Express INDIA MARITIME CENTRE (IMC) Syllabus Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: The Ministry of Ports, Shipping, and Waterways (MoPSW) is establishing the India Maritime Centre (IMC). Background: The Task Force for the IMC was formed in January 2024 and divided into subgroups focused on Awareness and Outreach, Infrastructure and Operationalization, and Procedure and Documentation. To date, two meetings of the entire Task Force and three subgroup meetings have been conducted at the Ministry. About India Maritime Centre (IMC)  : India Maritime Centre (IMC) is a cornerstone initiative of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping, and Waterways (MoPSW) under the Maritime India Vision 2030. The IMC aims to provide a unified platform for the Indian maritime industry, acting as a think tank for policy formulation and industry recommendations. Its primary goals include strengthening India’s participation in the International Maritime Organization (IMO) and global maritime forums, creating a robust domestic maritime sector through a unified and synchronized approach, conducting flagship events to build a strong global brand for the Indian maritime cluster, providing expert analysis and recommendations for sustainable growth, establishing platforms for industry stakeholders to collaborate and network, and creating a pool of funds to support the industry, including startups. The establishment of the India Maritime Centre marks a significant milestone in MoPSWs efforts to bolster the maritime sector in India. The IMC will serve as a central platform for collaboration, innovation, and policy advocacy, ensuring sustainable growth and enhancing India’s position in the global maritime community. The IMC is poised to be a pivotal institution in advancing India’s maritime interests both domestically and internationally. By fostering collaboration, driving policy advocacy, and providing expert analysis, the IMC will play a crucial role in shaping the future of India’s maritime sector. Source: PIB KANWAR YATRA Syllabus Prelims – POLITY Prelims – ART & CULTURE Context: Supreme Court prohibits enforcement of directives of UP, Uttarakhand govts on food stalls en route the Kanwar Yatra. Background: The UP and Uttarakhand governments had issued directives requiring food stalls en route the Kanwar Yatra to exhibit the names and other identity details of their owners and employees. About Kanwar Yatra : The Kanwar Yatra, also known as Kavad Yatra, is an annual pilgrimage undertaken by devotees of Lord Shiva. It typically takes place in the month of Shravan (July or August) according to the Hindu calendar. Devotees, known as Kanwarias or Bhole, embark on this pilgrimage to fetch holy water from significant Hindu pilgrimage sites. During this pilgrimage, millions of devotees, known as Kanwariyas, travel to sacred places like Haridwar, Gaumukh, Gangotri, Sultanganj, Prayagraj, Ayodhya, and Varanasi. They carry containers of holy water (called kanwars) from the Ganga River and offer it at Shiva temples, including the 13 Jyotirlingas across India. Rituals and Practices: Jal Abhishek: Devotees pour the collected water over Shiva lingams in temples. Barefoot Walk: Kanwariyas walk barefoot, often covering long distances. Saffron Attire: Devotees wear saffron clothes as a mark of devotion. Fasting: Many observe fasts during the yatra. Source: Times of India Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements about Kadambini Ganguly She is regarded as the first female medical practitioner in India. She played a crucial role in the passing of Age of Consent Act 1891. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? One only Two only Both 1 & 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2.) Consider the following statements: India Maritime Centre (IMC) is a cornerstone initiative of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping, and Waterways under the Maritime India Vision 2030. The IMC aims to provide a unified platform for the Indian maritime industry, acting as a think tank for policy formulation and industry recommendations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 & 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3.) Consider the following statements about the Kanwar Yatra: The Kanwar Yatra is a sacred pilgrimage undertaken by devotees of Lord Shiva. Devotees carry sacred water from the Ganges River to Shiva temples. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 & 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  23rd July 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  22nd July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) –  a Q.2) – c Q.3) – c For a dedicated peer group, Motivation & Quick updates, Join our official telegram channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccount Subscribe to our YouTube Channel HERE to watch Explainer Videos, Strategy Sessions, Toppers Talks & many more…

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 23rd July 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 22nd July 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   HARAPPAN CIVILISATION AND SARASVATI RIVER Syllabus Prelims & Mains – ART & CULTURE, GEOGRAPHY Context: The new NCERT Class 6 Social Science textbook includes several new elements, such as referring to the Harappan civilisation as the ‘Sindhu-Sarasvati’ and ‘Indus-Sarasvati’ civilisation and multiple mentions of the ‘Sarasvati’ river, including noting its desiccation as a reason for the decline of Harappan society. Background:- ‘Exploring Society: India and Beyond’ is the first Social Science textbook released by the NDA government in alignment with the National Curriculum Framework for School Education 2023. Focus on Sarasvati river The new textbook makes multiple references to the ‘Sarasvati’ river in the chapter on the beginnings of Indian civilisation. The Harappan civilisation is referred to as the ‘Indus-Sarasvati’ or ‘Sindhu-Sarasvati’ civilisation, and the river is given a prominent place. According to new text, ‘Sarasvati’ basin included major cities of the harappan civilisation — Rakhigarhi and Ganweriwala — along with smaller cities and towns. The river today goes by the name of ‘Ghaggar’ in India and ‘Hakra’ in Pakistan (hence the name ‘Ghaggar-Hakra River’), and is now seasonal. The river also plays a key role in a section on how the Harappan civilisation declined. It states that two factors are agreed upon: one is “climate change,” which led to reduced rainfall, and the other is that the “Sarasvati river dried up in its central basin; as a result, cities like Kalibangan and Banawali were suddenly abandoned.” Content in the Old textbook The old History textbook, ‘Our Past I’, mentioned the river only once in a section on the Rig Veda, where it is included among the rivers named in the hymns in the Vedas. The old one does not cite the drying up of the river as a reason for the decline of Harappan cities. Instead, it mentions that some scholars suggest river desiccation, while others point to deforestation and floods in certain areas. “But none of these reasons can explain the end of all the cities. Flooding, or a river drying up, would have had an effect in only some areas. It appears as if the rulers lost control,” the old book stated. Source: The Indian Express CYPRUS Syllabus Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: Turkey’s president recently dampened hopes for quick talks to resolve Cyprus’s ethnic division, reaffirming his support for a two-state deal that Greek Cypriots reject. Background: President Recep Tayyip Erdogan ruled out a peace deal based on a United Nations-endorsed plan for federation, speaking ahead of a military parade to mark the 50th anniversary of a Turkish invasion that split the island along ethnic lines. About Cyprus Cyprus, officially the Republic of Cyprus, is an island country in the eastern Mediterranean Sea, north of the Sinai Peninsula, south of the Anatolian Peninsula, and west of the Levant. It is geographically a part of West Asia, but its cultural ties and geopolitics are overwhelmingly Southeast European. Cyprus is the third largest and third-most populous island in the Mediterranean. It is east of Greece, north of Egypt, south of Turkey, and west of Lebanon and Syria. Its capital and largest city is Nicosia. The northeast portion of the island is de facto governed by the self-declared Turkish Republic of Northern Cyprus.   Cyprus was formally annexed by the UK in 1914. The future of the island became a matter of disagreement between the two prominent ethnic communities, GreekCypriots, who made up 77% of the population and Turkish Cypriots, who made up 18% of the population. From the 19th century onwards, the Greek Cypriot population pursued enosis, union with Greece, which became a Greek national policy in the 1950s. The Turkish Cypriot population initially advocated the continuation of the British rule, then demanded the annexation of the island to Turkey, and in the 1950s, together with Turkey, established a policy of taksim, the partition of Cyprus and the creation of a Turkish polity in the north. Following nationalist violence in the 1950s, Cyprus was granted independence from UK in 1960 . On 15 July 1974, a coup was staged by Greek Cypriot nationalists and elements of the Greek military junta in an attempt at enosis. This action precipitated the Turkish invasion of Cyprus on 20 July, which led to the capture of the present-day territory of Northern Cyprus. A separate Turkish Cypriot state in the north was established by unilateral declaration in 1983; the move was widely condemned by the international community, with Turkey alone recognising the new state. These events and the resulting political situation are matters of a continuing dispute. Cyprus is a major tourist destination in the Mediterranean. Source: The Hindu ARTICLE 361 OF INDIAN CONSTITUTION Syllabus Mains & Mains – POLITY Context: The Supreme Court recently agreed to examine the question of immunity to Governors from any kind of criminal prosecution, granted under Article 361 of the Constitution. Background: The Bench, headed by Chief Justice of India D Y Chandrachud, was hearing a plea filed by a contractual woman employee of West Bengal Raj Bhavan, who has alleged sexual harassment by Governor C V Ananda Bose. A 361: Protection to President and Governors 361(1) The President, or the Governor of a State, shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or purporting to be done by him in the exercise and performance of those powers and duties : Provided that the conduct of the President may be brought under review by any court, tribunal or body appointed or designated by either House of Parliament for the investigation of a charge under article 61 : Provided further that nothing in this clause shall be construed as restricting the right of any person to bring appropriate proceedings against the Government of India or the Government of a State. 361 (2) No criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President, or the Governor, in any court during his term of office. 361 (3) No process for the arrest or imprisonment of the President, or the Governor of a State, shall issue from any court during hi s term of office. 361 (4) No civil proceedings seeking relief against the President or a State Governor can be initiated during their term for acts done in their personal capacity, either before or after assuming office, until two months after written notice detailing the nature of the proceedings, cause of action, and the claimant’s details has been delivered to them or left at their office. Note: Articles presented above are concise form of constitutional language. Present Case In a complaint to the Kolkata Police, a woman had alleged that she was sexually harassed by West Bengal Governor when he called her to Raj Bhavan under the pretext of offering her a job on April 24 and May 2. She stated that she was left “remediless” due to the Governor’s immunity under Article 361(2) and urged the court to set guidelines and qualifications for exercising this immunity. Source: Indian Express   URANIUM CONTAMINATION Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: A new study by Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) has concluded that concentration of uranium up to 60 micrograms per litre (millionth of a gram per litre or µg/l) in drinking water was entirely safe, suggesting that the recently formulated “more stringent” national standard of 30 µg/l could be counterproductive. Background: For years, the acceptable level of uranium concentration in drinking water in India was 60 µg/l. In 2021, the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), the custodian of standards and quality in India announced a new limit of 30 µg/l, in line with recommendations of the World Health Organization (WHO). About Uranium : Uranium is a silvery-white metallic chemical element, with atomic number 92. It is assigned the chemical symbol U. A uranium atom has 92 protons and 92 electrons, of which 6 are valence electrons. Uranium has the highest atomic weight of all naturally occurring elements. Uranium occurs naturally in low concentrations in soil, rock and water, and is commercially extracted from uranium-bearing minerals such as uraninite. Uranium ore can be mined from open pits or underground excavations. The ore can then be crushed and treated at a mill to separate the valuable uranium from the ore. Uranium may also be dissolved directly from the ore deposits in the ground (in-situ leaching) and pumped to the surface. Uranium mined from the earth is stored, handled, and sold as uranium oxide concentrate (U3O8). Uranium was discovered in 1789 by Martin Klaproth, a German chemist. He named his discovery “uran” after the planet Uranus. For many years, uranium was used primarily as a colorant for ceramic glazes and for tinting in early photography. Its radioactive properties were not recognized until 1866, and its potential for use as an energy source was not manifested until the mid-20th century. About the new standards The BARC study cited several medical researches to argue that small concentrations of uranium in drinking water pose no threat. According to the researchers, the WHO’s standards of uranium concentration in drinking water — 30 µg/l — were mere guidelines, and not a recommended safety limit. Finland and Slovakia — two nations with considerable amounts of uranium consumption — have prescribed safety limits of 100 and 350 µg/l respectively; another uranium-rich country, South Africa, has a limit of 70 µg/l. The limits in countries like Canada and Australia that have the largest deposits of uranium among others, however, are 20 and 15 µg/l, respectively. Germany, which does not have uranium, has even lower limits. According to the BARC study, in the absence of any evidence of adverse health impacts at such small concentrations, considerations like geological (prevalence of uranium) and socio-economic conditions, and population dynamics must also be taken into account while deciding on national standards on uranium contamination. Source: Indian Express   RATAPANI WILDLIFE SANCTUARY Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT Context: The Madhya Pradesh State Wildlife Board has accorded approval to declare Ratapani Wildlife Sanctuary, on the outskirts of Bhopal, as the eighth tiger reserve of MP. Background: Ratapani’s diverse ecosystem make it a valuable addition to India’s tiger conservation efforts. About Ratapani Wildlife Sanctuary : Ratapani Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Madhya Pradesh. Ratapani was first notified in 1976 and later extended in 1983. The proposal to declare Ratapani wildlife sanctuary as tiger reserve has been in discussion since 2008. The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) has accorded in principle approval to notify Ratapani wildlife sanctuary as the tiger reserve in 2011. It is situated in the Vindhya ranges and spans an area of 824 square kilometers. Ratapani tiger reserve, when notified, will be the first tiger reserve in the country to have proximity to a state capital. The proposed tiger reserve will be the eighth one in Madhya Pradesh. The seven other existing tiger reserves are Bandhavgarh, Kanha, Panna, Pench, Sanjay-Dubri, Satpura and Veerangana Durgavati. Flora: The sanctuary features a diverse landscape with teak forests, hills, plateaus, valleys, and plains. Two major reservoirs, Barna Reservoir and Ratapani Dam (Barrusot lake), enhance its ecological significance. Fauna: Ratapani hosts over 150 species of birds, including the paradise flycatcher, which is the state bird of Madhya Pradesh. The wildlife includes tigers, leopards, wild dogs, hyenas, jackals, foxes, spotted deer, blue bulls, sambhar, barking deer, chinkara, black bucks, and monkeys. Historical and Cultural Significance: The Bhimbetka rock shelters, adorned with ancient rock paintings, are a UNESCO World Heritage Site within the sanctuary. The Chinkara, an endangered species, also finds refuge here. Other inhabitants include the Panther, Hyena, Jackal, Indian Fox, Wild Dog, Jungle Cat, Small Indian Civet, Blue Bull, Chinkara, Black Buck, Chausingha, Spotted Deer, and Barking Deer. Historical Connection: Ratapani is home to the Bhimbetka rock shelters, adorned with ancient rock paintings dating back over 30,000 years. UNESCO has recognized Bhimbetka as a World Heritage Site. Source: Deccan Chronicle   THE INTERNATIONAL CENTRE FOR AUDIT OF LOCAL GOVERNANCE (iCAL) Syllabus Prelims – POLITY Context: The International Centre for Audit of Local Governance (iCAL) was inaugurated by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India. Background: By establishing iCAL, the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) aims to create a cooperative ecosystem, elevate auditing standards, and enhance financial accountability at the grassroots level in India. About The International Centre for Audit of Local Governance (iCAL): The International Centre for Audit of Local Governance (iCAL), a pioneering initiative by supreme audit institutions (SAIs) India, was officially inaugurated in Rajkot, Gujarat on 18th July 2024. iCAL’s primary objectives are to develop and enhance standards for Local Government Audits, strengthen data collection and reporting, and empower auditors, executives, and elected representatives through comprehensive training programs and leadership development initiatives. It aims to improve financial performance assessment and service delivery by providing Technical Guidance and Support to Local Government auditors. iCAL would assist Local Governments in achieving the Sustainable Development Goals, fostering community engagement, and addressing global challenges, like climate change and the blue economy, as they play a crucial role in effective policy implementation and economic growth at the grassroots level. Need for iCAL: Increased Funding: With significant funds flowing to local bodies, proper auditing is essential to ensure efficient utilization. Global Practices: The CAG highlighted the need to adopt global best practices in local government auditing, noting that 40 countries have supreme audit institutions (SAIs) for this purpose. Capacity Building: Building the capacity of auditors and local government employees is essential to improve financial management practices and internal controls. Source: PIB   Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements about Cyprus It is an island country in the eastern Mediterranean Sea, north of the Sinai Peninsula, south of the Anatolian Peninsula, and west of the Levant. The northeast portion of the island is de facto governed by the self-declared Greek Republic of Northern Cyprus. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? One only Two only Both 1 & 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2.) Consider the following statements: The International Centre for Audit of Local Governance (iCAL), a pioneering initiative by supreme audit institutions (SAIs) India. iCAL’s main objectives are to improve Local Government Audit standards, strengthen data collection and reporting, and empower auditors, executives, and elected representatives with training programs and leadership development initiatives. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 & 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3.)Ratapani Wildlife Sanctuary, recently seen in news is located in Karnataka Mizoram Madhya Pradesh Odisha Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  22nd July 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  20th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) –  d Q.2) – d Q.3) – b For a dedicated peer group, Motivation & Quick updates, Join our official telegram channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccount Subscribe to our YouTube Channel HERE to watch Explainer Videos, Strategy Sessions, Toppers Talks & many more…

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 20th July 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   ROLE OF THE FINANCE COMMISSION Syllabus Prelims & Mains – POLITY Context: The sixteenth Finance Commission headed by former Niti Aayog Vice-Chairman Arvind Panagariya has begun its work by inviting suggestions from the public on the mandate set for it by the Centre. Background:- The most recent Finance Commission, composed of five members including the chairman, was established in December last year. It is anticipated to present its recommendations by October 2025, which will be applicable for five years starting April 1, 2026. About Finance Commission The Finance Commission is a constitutional body that recommends how tax revenues collected by the Central government should be distributed among the Centre and various States in the country. Article 280 states that : The President shall, within two years from the commencement of this Constitution and thereafter at the expiration of every fifth year or at such earlier, time as the President considers necessary, by order constitute a Finance Commission which shall consist of a Chairman and four other members to be appointed by the President. The Commission is reconstituted typically every five years and usually takes a couple of years to make its recommendations to the Centre. The Centre is not legally bound to implement the suggestions made by the Finance Commission. How does the Commission decide? The Finance Commission decides what proportion of the Centre’s net tax revenue goes to the States overall (vertical devolution) and how this share for the States is distributed among various States (horizontal devolution). The horizontal devolution of funds between States is usually decided based on a formula created by the Commission that takes into account a State’s population, fertility level, income level, geography, etc. The vertical devolution of funds, however, is not based on any such objective formula. The last few Finance Commissions have recommended greater vertical devolution of tax revenues to States. The 13th, 14th and 15th Finance Commissions recommended that the Centre share 32%, 42% and 41% of funds, respectively, from the divisible pool with States. The 16th Financial Commission is also expected to recommend ways to augment the revenues of local bodies such as panchayats and municipalities. It should be noted that, as of 2015, only about 3% of public spending in India happened at the local body level, as compared to other countries such as China where over half of public spending happened at the level of the local bodies. What are the disagreements between centre and states? States argue that the Centre does not allocate even the recommended funds from the Finance Commissions, which they believe are already insufficient. Analysts point out that, under the Fifteenth Finance Commission, the Centre has devolved an average of only 38% of the funds from the divisible pool to the States, compared to the Commission’s recommendation of 41%. States have complaints about what portion of the Centre’s overall tax revenues should be considered as part of the divisible pool out of which the States are funded. Cesses and surcharges, which do not come under the divisible pool and hence not shared with the States, can constitute as much as 28% of the Centre’s overall tax revenue. The increased devolution of funds from the divisible pool, as recommended by successive Finance Commissions, may be offset by rising cess and surcharge collections. In fact, it is estimated that if cesses and surcharges that go to the Centre are also taken into account, the share of States in the Centre’s overall tax revenues may fall to as low as 32% under the 15th Finance Commission. More developed States such as Karnataka and Tamil Nadu have also complained that they receive less money from the Centre than what they contribute as taxes. Tamil Nadu, for example, received only 29 paise for each rupee that the State contributed to the Centre’s exchequer while Bihar gets more than ₹7 for each rupee it contributes. In other words, it is argued that more developed States with better governance are being penalised by the Centre to help States with poor governance. Critics also believe that the Finance Commission, whose members are appointed by the Centre, may not be fully independent and immune from political influence. Source: Hindu RWANDA Syllabus Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: Rwanda’s President Paul Kagame has been re-elected with 99.18% of the vote, the National Electoral Commission said, extending his near quarter-century in office. Background: Rights groups says that election was marred by crack-down on journalists, the opposition and civil society groups , a criticism which government has rejected. About Rwanda Rwanda, officially the Republic of Rwanda, is a landlocked country in the Great Rift Valley of Central Africa, where the African Great Lakes region and Southeast Africa converge. Located a few degrees south of the Equator, Rwanda is bordered by Uganda, Tanzania, Burundi, and the Democratic Republic of the Congo. It is highly elevated, giving it the soubriquet “land of a thousand hills”), with its geography dominated by mountains in the west and savanna to the southeast, with numerous lakes throughout the country. The climate is temperate to subtropical, with two rainy seasons and two dry seasons each year. It is the most densely populated mainland African country; among countries larger than 10,000 km2, it is the fifth-most densely populated country in the world. Its capital and largest city is Kigali. Coffee and tea are the major cash crops that it exports. Tourism is a fast-growing sector and is now the country’s leading foreign exchange earner. The country is a member of the African Union, the United Nations, the Commonwealth of Nations, COMESA, OIF and the East African Community. Although Rwanda has low levels of corruption compared with neighbouring countries, it ranks among the lowest in international measurements of government transparency, civil liberties and quality of life. The population is young and predominantly rural; Rwanda has one of the youngest populations in the world. Source: Reuters SIGNIFICANCE OF THE GULF REGION IN INDIA’S ENERGY SECURITY Syllabus Mains – GS 2 Context: Today, India is the world’s third-largest energy consumer after China and the United States. Given the enormous import dependence for energy needs, relations with Gulf states are crucial. Background: A seamless energy supply is crucial to ensure energy security, which means meeting domestic demands and protecting energy infrastructure from threats. Energy consumption According to Energy Statistics India, 2024, prepared by the National Statistical Office under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, India’s total primary energy production in 2022-23 was 19.55 exajoules and total consumption during the same period was 35.16 exajoule. This means that about 68 per cent of the demands were met through domestic production, underlining significant external dependence. Coal is India’s largest source of primary energy supply, comprising 58.12 per cent of the total in 2023. Despite significant domestic coal production, India has to source part of its coal demands externally, given the huge consumption. Oil and gas External dependence becomes starker when it comes to oil and gas, which is the second largest source of primary energy supply in India. India’s total oil consumption was 5.44 million barrels per day in 2023, while total oil production was 0.73 million barrels per day. Similarly, natural gas consumption was 62.6 billion cubic metres, while natural gas production was only 31.6 billion cubic metres. This meant that most oil and gas are sourced externally, underlining India’s dependence on imports for its energy security, especially in meeting the oil and gas demands. Gulf countries, the most dependable suppliers Historically, the Persian Gulf states, namely the six Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) countries—Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia and United Arab Emirates (UAE)—and Iran and Iraq have been the primary oil and gas suppliers to India contributing nearly 55-60 per cent of total oil and gas imports. According to the Directorate General of Commercial Intelligence and Statistics of the Ministry of Commerce, in 2023-24, five of the Gulf countries, namely Iraq (second), Saudi Arabia (third), UAE (fourth), Qatar (seventh) and Kuwait (ninth), were among top ten petroleum suppliers to India while Russia (first), United States (fifth), Australia (sixth), Indonesia (eight) and Nigeria (tenth) were other five. Notably, the Gulf countries have been among India’s top petroleum suppliers since the 1980s and have remained the most dependable suppliers despite the fluctuations in the international oil and gas market and supply chains. Continued significance of the Gulf  In recent years, India has made deliberate efforts to diversify its sources of energy consumption and petroleum imports. This has meant that the focus on clean and renewable sources has increased, and simultaneously, countries such as Russia, the United States, Australia and Nigeria have emerged as important sources. Nonetheless, several factors contribute to the continued significance of the Gulf region, remaining critical to India’s energy security. The most important factors are: its geographical proximity to India established buyer-seller networks. the capacity and commitment of the Gulf states to supply oil and gas at special prices. Trade and investment The attraction of the Indian market as one of the biggest global consumers has worked in India’s favour, given it provides Gulf suppliers with a stable and large market for crude oil and natural gas. This has made India an attractive destination for Gulf investments in the energy sector, with mega Gulf energy corporations such as Saudi Aramco and Emirati ADNOC committing big long-term investments. In 2023-24, of the total US$1.11 trillion foreign trade, US$208.48 billion came from the Gulf and West Asia region, comprising 18.17 percent of India’s foreign trade. Notably, 14.28 percent of this came from the six GCC countries. The region’s economic importance has accorded the Gulf region a special place in India’s Look West policy. Besides commodity and petroleum trade, the flow of Indian expatriates to the GCC countries, the remittances they send and the two-way flow of investments are important components of economic relations. According to the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, the total FDI from the GCC countries into India between April 2000 and March 2024 was US$24.09 billion. Bilateral ties Indian investments and participation in the GCC market have witnessed a sharp rise, with companies such as Larsen & Toubro, Shapoorji-Pallonji and Tata increasing their presence while Indian businesses, such as Lulu hypermarket chain, making their mark in the GCC market. Besides the strong economic relations, the strengthening of bilateral political and strategic ties, especially since the early 2000s, has played a crucial role in making the Gulf a dependable partner. The bilateral ties, especially with the UAE, Saudi Arabia and Qatar, have further flourished under Modi, and this has helped India overcome challenges due to sanctions on major global oil and gas suppliers such as Iran and Venezuela, impact of regional conflicts during and after the Arab Spring (2010-12), as well as during the global COVID-19 pandemic (2020-22). Source: Indian Express ENEMY PROPERTIES Syllabus Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: The Indian government has recently taken a significant step to auction properties classified as “enemy properties.” Background: Over 9,400 ‘enemy’ properties, worth more than Rs 1 lakh crore, are set to be auctioned with the home ministry starting the process of identifying all such estates. About Enemy properties : Enemy properties are those that were once owned by individuals who took Chinese or Pakistani citizenship after India fought wars with these countries. Enemy properties include both immovable (real estate) and movable (such as bank accounts, shares, and gold) properties left behind by those who migrated to Pakistan and China. These properties are vested with the Custodian of Enemy Property for India (CEPI), an authority created under the Enemy Property Act, 1968. The Enemy Property Act, 1968 governs the allocation and management of these properties. It was enacted in the aftermath of the 1965 Indo-Pakistani war. The Enemy Property (Amendment and Validation) Act 2017: In 2017, the Enemy Property (Amendment and Validation) Act clarified that Successors of those who migrated to Pakistan or China no longer have a claim over these properties. The law of succession does not apply to enemy properties. Transfers of such properties by enemies, enemy subjects, or enemy firms are prohibited. The custodian preserves these properties until they are disposed of according to the Act’s provisions. CEPI currently manages 13,252 enemy properties across India. Their total value exceeds Rs 1 lakh crore. Most of these properties belong to individuals who migrated to Pakistan, while a smaller number are associated with those who migrated to China. State-wise Distribution: Uttar Pradesh has the highest number of enemy properties (5,982). West Bengal follows closely with 4,354 properties. Source: Hindu INDIA AI MISSION Syllabus Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: Artificial intelligence is all over news as companies try to come up with AI loaded products and services. Governments across the globe are trying to enter the race for an AI powered future. Background: It was Vladimir Putin who famously put AI on every country’s priority list when he declared back in 2017 that the nation that leads in AI “will be the ruler of the world”. Every world leader has echoed this in some way. About India AI mission : The Cabinet approved the IndiaAI Mission with an allocation of Rs 10,300 crore in march, 2024. The Mission will be implemented by ‘IndiaAI’ Independent Business Division (IBD) under Digital India Corporation (DIC) and has the following components: IndiaAI Compute Capacity: The IndiaAI compute pillar will build a high-end scalable AI computing ecosystem to cater to the increasing demands from India’s AI start-ups and research ecosystem. The ecosystem will comprise AI compute infrastructure of 10,000 or more Graphics Processing Units (GPUs), built through public-private partnership. IndiaAI Innovation Centre: It will undertake the development and deployment of indigenous Large Multimodal Models (LMMs) and domain-specific foundational models in critical sectors. IndiaAI Datasets Platform – The IndiaAI Datasets Platform will streamline access to quality non-personal datasets for AI Innovation. IndiaAI Application Development Initiative – It will promote the AI applications in critical sectors for the problem statements sourced from Central Ministries, State Departments, and other institutions. IndiaAI FutureSkills – It is conceptualized to mitigate barriers to entry into AI programs and will increase AI courses in undergraduate, masters-level, and Ph.D. programs. Further, Data and AI Labs will be set-up in Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities across India to impart foundational level courses. IndiaAI Startup Financing: It is conceptualized to support and accelerate deep-tech AI startups and provide them streamlined access to funding to enable futuristic AI Projects. Safe & Trusted AI – Recognizing the need for adequate safeguards to advance the responsible development, deployment, and adoption of AI, the Safe & Trusted AI pillar will enable the implementation of Responsible AI projects including the development of indigenous tools and frameworks, self-assessment checklists for innovators, and other guidelines and governance frameworks. Source: Indian Express SQUALUS HIMA Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT Context: Scientists from the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) recently discovered a new species named Squalus Hima.. Background: The discovery of this new species is crucial for conservation efforts, as dogfish sharks are exploited for their fins, liver oil, and meat. About SQUALUS HIMA : Squalus belongs to the genus of dogfish sharks (commonly known as spurdogs) in the family Squalidae. These sharks are characterized by their smooth dorsal fin spines. Squalus hima was discovered off the coast of Kerala, specifically at the Sakthikulangara fishing harbor along the Arabian Sea. In the Indian coast, two species of Squalus are found from the southwest coast of India and the new species, Squalus hima n.sp. very similar to Squalus lalannei, but differs in many characteristics. Squalus hima sp.nov differs from other species by the number of precaudal vertebrae, total vertebrae, teeth count, trunk & head heights, fin structure and fin colour. Importance and Conservation: The shark species belonging to the genus Squalus and Centrophorus are exploited for their liver oil, which contains high levels of squalene (or squalane when processed for products). This oil is in demand for pharmaceutical industries, especially for high-end cosmetic and anti-cancer products. The discovery of the new species is important to conserve such varieties of shark Source: Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following countries Rwanda Botswana Chad Zambia How many of the countries given above are landlocked? One only Two only Three only All four Q2.) Squalus Hima, recently found in news is a green pit viper wolf snake burrowing frog dogfish shark Q3.)With reference to the Enemy properties in India, consider the following statements: Enemy properties are those that were once owned by individuals who took Chinese or Pakistani citizenship after India fought wars with these countries. Enemy properties include immovable properties only. The law of succession does not apply to enemy properties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  20th July 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  19th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) –  a Q.2) – b Q.3) – d