Syllabus

• Prelims –GOVERNANCE

Context: Recently, there was a surge in complaints from passengers using various airports about the “coercive and deceptive” manner in which both private staff and CISF personnel were enrolling them for Digi Yatra.

Background:-

• In December 2023, as air travel peaked in the holiday season, it was found that security personnel and private staff were collecting facial biometrics at airport entry gates without the consent or knowledge of passengers for the Digi Yatra app.

About Digi Yatra:-

• DigiYatra is an industry-led initiative that uses facial recognition technology to make terminal entry & security clearance at the airport a seamless, hassle-free, and paperless process.
• DigiYatra is a decentralised mobile-based ID storage platform where air travellers can save their IDs and travel documents.
• Introduced by the Ministry of Civil Aviation (MOCA) and DigiYatra Foundation.
• This platform is the next step towards creating a digitally empowered society.
• DigiYatra enables the automatic digital processing of flyers with the benefit of reduced wait time.
• It makes the boarding process faster and more seamless.
• DigiYatra is built on four pillars, including connected passengers, connected flying, connected airports, and connected systems.
• It ensures easy entry at all checkpoints.
• It is a paperless entry at airports using facial recognition software.
• It results in lower-cost operations.

Significance:-

• Facial recognition technology is beneficial as it makes flying more convenient and reduces congestion at airports.
• Enhance security standards and improve current system performance. 

MUST READ: Digital India Programme

SOURCE: THE HINDU

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements: (2023)

1. It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using the US dollar or the SWIFT system.
2. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a timeframe for spending it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) Consider the following (2022)

1. Aarogya Setu
2. CoWIN
3. Digi Locker
4. DIKSHA

Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Syllabus

• Prelims –POLITY

Context: Recently, the Home Ministry cancelled the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) registration of the Centre for Policy Research.

Background:-

• One of the reasons cited is that the institute published reports on “current affairs programmes”, which is a violation of the Act.

About the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA):-

• The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) is responsible for regulating FCRA in India.
• The Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) was enacted during the Emergency in 1976 amid apprehensions that foreign powers were interfering in India’s affairs.
• The law sought to regulate foreign donations to individuals and associations so that they functioned “in a manner consistent with the values of a sovereign democratic republic”.
• The FCRA was amended in 2010 and 2020 by the government to give tighter control and scrutiny over the receipt and utilization of foreign funds by NGOs.

Definition of foreign contribution:-

• It defines the term ‘foreign contribution’ to include currency, articles other than gifts for personal use and securities received from foreign sources.
• While foreign hospitality refers to any offer from a foreign source to provide foreign travel, boarding, lodging, transportation or medical treatment cost.

FCRA Registration:-

• NGOs that want to receive foreign funds must apply online in a prescribed format with the required documentation.
• FCRA registrations are granted to individuals or associations that have definite cultural, economic, educational, religious, and social programs.
• Following the application by the NGO, the MHA makes inquiries through the Intelligence Bureau into the antecedents of the applicant and accordingly processes the application.

FCRA Exceptions and Prohibitions:-

• Prohibited Categories: Foreign donations are not permitted for candidates during elections, journalists, media broadcast companies, judges, government servants, members of the legislature, political parties or their office-bearers, and organizations of a political nature.
• Eligibility Criteria: Applicants must not be fictitious, prosecuted for conversion activities, involved in creating communal tension or disharmony, or engaged in the propagation of sedition.

Significance:–

• The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA) plays a crucial role in regulating foreign donations in India.
• It ensures the utilization of foreign funds for legitimate purposes, prevention of activities detrimental to the national interest, and maintaining transparency and accountability. (New Foreign Trade Policy)

 MUST READ: FCRA Changes: Ease of Monitoring vs Crippling Curbs

SOURCE: THE HINDU

 PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements: (2022)

1. As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest.
2. The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022)

1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of the rupee.
2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.
3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.

Which of the above statements is correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Syllabus

• Prelims –GOVERNANCE

Context: Recently, ICMR started revising current National Essential Diagnostics List for the first time.

Background:-

• The list contains the minimum diagnostic tests that should be available at healthcare facilities; ICMR asked stakeholders to submit suggestions on addition, deletion of tests by the end of February.

About National Essential Diagnostics List:-

• It is a list that would provide guidance to the government for deciding the kind of diagnostic tests that different healthcare facilities in villages and remote areas require.
• The World Health Organisation (WHO) released the first edition of the Essential Diagnostics List (EDL) in May 2018. (National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM) 2022)
• Even though WHO’s EDL acts as a reference point for the development of national EDL, India’s diagnostics list has been customised and prepared as per the landscape of India’s health care priorities.
• In India, diagnostics are regulated under the regulatory provisions of the Medical Device Rules, 2017.
• Diagnostics (medical devices and in vitro diagnostics) follow a regulatory framework based on the drug regulations under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 and Drugs and Cosmetics Rules 1945.
• The Indian Council of Medical Research released the first National Essential Diagnostics List (NEDL) in 2019 to make the availability of diagnostics an essential component of the health care system.
• NEDL has been developed for all levels of health care – village level, primary, secondary and tertiary care.
• It includes a group of general laboratory tests for routine patient care and for diagnosis of communicable and non-communicable diseases.
• It also recommends list of human resources such as ASHA workers, lab technicians pathologists for different levels of health care as per the proposed list of diagnostics.

Significance:-

• This NEDL aims to bridge the current regulatory system’s gap that does not cover all medical devices and in-vitro diagnostic devices (IVD).

 MUST READ: National Institute of Biologicals (NIB)

SOURCE: THE HINDU

 PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022)

1. The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform.
2. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform.
3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine.

Which of the statements given above is correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) Consider the following statements:

1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues.
2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces.
3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance.

Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022)

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Syllabus

• Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES

Context: Tamil Nadu was recognised as the ‘Best Performer,’ the top category in the States’ Startup Ranking 2022, released recently.

Background:-

• It was the 4th edition of Startup India Ranking carried out by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade.

About Startup Ranking 2022:-

• Released by: Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).
• Objective: to evaluate all of India’s States and Union Territories (UT) on their efforts to build an ecosystem conducive to startup growth.
• The States’ Startup Ranking is a periodic capacity building exercise .
• States’ Startup Ranking was launched in February 2018.
• It aims to evaluate the Indian startup landscape through the eyes of state / UT policy intervention and identify practices that accelerate ecosystem growth and development.
• The States’ Startup Ranking Exercise has led each state / UT to have dedicated startup policies and through its annual rankings, it is able to track the evolution of these policies and the overall efforts of states / UTs in ecosystem building.
• The States Startup Ranking Framework accelerates efforts put in by the Center and States / UTs to enliven the entrepreneurial mindset across the length and breadth of the country.
• Capacity-building measures have also been undertaken by the Startup India Team across States and Union Territories for ecosystem enablers and innovators in promoting economic growth by upholding the spirit of cooperative federalism.

Startup Ranking 2022:-

• The fourth edition of the exercise was launched in 2022 wherein the ranking framework comprised of 7 reform areas with a total of 25 action points with score of 85 marks and an overall score of 100 marks including that of the feedback exercise.
• This edition saw the maximum participation across all editions, of 33 States and Union Territories.
• The states and union territories were divided into Category-A (Population more than 1 crore) and Category-B (Population less than 1 crore) to establish uniformity and ensure standardization in the ranking process.
• The results of the 4th edition of the States’ Startup Ranking 2022 on National Startup Day – 16th January 2024 at an event held in New Delhi at Bharat Mandapam.

Category A States (Population more than 1 crore)

• Best performer: Gujarat, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu.
• Top Performer: Maharashtra, Odisha, Punjab, Rajasthan, Telangana.
• Leader: Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand.
• Aspiring leader: Bihar, Haryana
• Emerging Ecosystems: Chhattisgarh, Delhi, Jammu and Kashmir

Category B States (Population less than 1 crore)

• Best performer: Himachal Pradesh
• Top Performer: Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya
• Leader: Goa, Manipur, Tripura
• Aspiring leader: Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Nagaland
• Emerging Ecosystems: Chandigarh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu, Ladakh, Mizoram, Puducherry, Sikkim.
  Performers

MUST READ: Ranking of States on Support to Startup Ecosystems

SOURCE: BUISINESSLINE

 PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana: (2023)

1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.
2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.
3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Q.2) With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: (2022)

1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
3. It has seamless portability across the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Syllabus

• Prelims –ART AND CULTURE

Context: Jagannath Temple Heritage corridor project at Puri in Odisha will be open to the public on 17 Jan 2024.

Background:-

• The Temple heritage corridor has been built to enhance the visual connection between devotees and the shrine.

About Jagannath Temple:-

• It was built in the 12th century by Anatavarman Chodaganga of Eastern Ganga Dynasty.
• It was rebuilt over the centuries by later rulers like Gajapatis.
• It is believed to be the site of an earlier temple linked to King Indrayumna.
• An important Hindu pilgrimage site as part of Char Dham.
• It is dedicated to Lord Jagannath, Balabhadra, Subhadra.
• Lord Jagannath is a form of Lord Vishnu.
• This temple was called the “White Pagoda” and is a part of Char Dham pilgrimages (Badrinath, Dwaraka, Puri, Rameswaram).
• It is a part of Char Dham circuit, called “Yamanika Tirtha”.
• Unique wooden deities replaced periodically.
• The temple’s main attraction is the Annual Rath Yatra festival, in which the three main deities of the temple, Lord Jagannath, Lord Balabhadra and Devi Subhadra are taken out in a grand procession on a chariot.
• The temple is also known for its unique food offering, the

Architecture:-

• The temple stands in the center of an inner courtyard on a high-raised platform.
• It has four components:-
  • Vimana or Deula (Garbagriha)
  • Jagamohana
  • Natamandapa
  • Bhogamandapa
• The architectural style of the Jagannath temple is a combination of two types-Rekha and Pidha.
• It has Four intricately carved gates.
• Other features like Nila Chakra, Aruna Stambha.
  • Nila Chakra is located on the top of the temple and a different flag, each named as Patita Pavana, is hoisted on the chakra daily.

 MUST READ: Somnath Temple

SOURCE: AIR

 PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022)

1. Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines.
2. A description of the Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni.
3. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Q.2) With reference  to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: (2021)

1. It is a circular temple built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata Dynasty.
2. It is the only circular temple built in India.
3. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region.
4. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building.

Which of the statements given above is correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

Syllabus

• Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY

Context: Recently, experts have appealed to IUCN  to upgrade Horn of Africa cheetah status to ‘endangered’.

Background:-

• A group of experts have appealed to the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) to reclassify the status of the Northeast African Cheetah (Acinonyx jubatus soemmeringii), found in the Horn of Africa, to ‘endangered’ from ‘vulnerable’.

About Africa cheetah:-

• Scientific Name: Acinonyx jubatus jubatus
• Habitat: African Savannahs.
• They have a long, slender body measuring 1.2 meters (4 feet), with a long tail (65–85 cm ) to balance, that generally ends in a white tuft.
• Their weight ranges from 34 to 54 kg (75 to 119 pounds), males being slightly larger than females.
• They are bigger in size as compared to Asiatic Cheetah.
• They have small black round spots all over their body, black markings running from the inside of the eye to the corner of the mouth.
• Its very name originates from Sanskrit and means ‘the spotted one’.
• They prey on small antelopes, mammals, birds.
• They are the fastest of all land animals. (Cheetah Reintroduction)

Conservation status:-

• IUCN status: Vulnerable
• CITES: Appendix I

 MUST READ: Cheetahs and others: know the 7 big cats

SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH

 PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous? (2020)

1. Kanha National Park
2. Manas National Park
3. Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
4. Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary

Q.2) Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”? (2019)

1. Corbett
2. Ranthambore
3. Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam
4. Sundarbans

Q1) Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Q2) Consider the following statements

Statement-I :

As per Startup Ranking 2022 ,Gujarat is one of the Best performer in Category A States.

Statement-II :

Bihar and Haryana are aspiring leaders in Category A States.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

 Q3) With reference to Jagannath Temple, consider the following statements:

1. It was built in the 10th century.
2. It was rebuilt over the centuries by later rulers like Gajapatis.
3. It is an important Hindu pilgrimage site as part of Char Dham.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 3 only

Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!!

ANSWERS FOR ’  17th January 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st

Q.1) – a

Q.2) – d

Q.3) – b