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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 29th January 2024

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All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) 2021-2022

Syllabus

  • Prelims –POLITY/GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES

Context: Recently, the Ministry of Education, released the All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) 2021-2022.

Background:-

  • The total number of Universities / University level institutions registered is 1,168, Colleges 45,473 and Standalone Institutions 12,002.

About All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) 2021-2022:-

  • Conducted by: Ministry of Education.
  • It was started in 2010-11.
  • All India Survey of Higher Education is an annual web-based survey.
  • Various parameters of data collection include teachers, student enrolment, programmes, examination results, education finance, and infrastructure.
  • Indicators of educational development such as Institution Density, Gross Enrolment Ratio, Pupil-teacher ratio, Gender Parity Index, Per Student Expenditure will also be calculated from the data collected through AISHE.

Significance:-

  • These are useful in making informed policy decisions and research for the development of the education sector.

Key findings from the report:-

  • Enrolment in higher education increases to 4.33 crore in 2021-22from 4.14 crore in 2020-21 and 3.42 crore in 2014-15 (an increase of 91 lakh students, i.e., 26.5%since 2014-15).
  • Female enrolment in Higher Education increases to 2.07 crore in 2021-22 from 1.57 crore in 2014-15(an increase of 50 lakh students, 32% increase).
  • GER increases to 28.4 in 2021-22 from 23.7 in 2014-15; Female GER increases to 28.5 in 2021-22 from 22.9 in 2014-15
  • Female GER continues to be more than male GER for fifth consecutive year since 2017-18.
  • Significant 44% increase in enrolment of SC students since 2014-15 (66.23 lakh in 2021-22 from 46.07 lakh in 2014-15)
  • Notable increase of 51% in enrolment of Female SC Students in 2021-22 (31.71 lakh), compared to 2014-15(21.02 lakh)
  • Substantial increase of 65.2% in enrolment of ST students in 2021-22(27.1 lakh), compared to 2014-15(16.41 lakh)
  • Remarkable 80% increase in the enrolment of Female ST Students in 2021-22 (13.46 lakh), since 2014-15 (7.47 lakh)
  • Increase of 45% in OBC Student enrolment in 2021-22 (1.63 crore) from 2014-15 (1.13 crore)
  • Significant 3% increase in Female OBC Students in 2021-22 (78.19 lakh) since 2014-15 (52.36 lakh)
  • Total Ph.D. enrolment has increased2% in 2021-22 (2.13 lakh) from 2014-15 (1.17 lakh)
  • Female Ph.D. enrolment has doubled in 2021-22(0.99lakh) from2014-15(0.48 lakh)
  • 3 % increase in Female Minority Student enrolment since 2014-15 (15.2 lakh in 2021-22 from 10.7 lakh in 2014-15)
  • 341 Universities/University level institutions have been established since 2014-15
  • Female faculty/teachers have increased to 6.94 lakh in 2021-22 from 5.69 lakh in 2014-15 (an increase of 1.25 lakh, i.e., 22% since 2014-15)

MUST READ: Gender gap in education

SOURCE: PIB

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q1. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the National Education Policy 2020 in India? (2020)

  1.  It proposes sweeping changes in the education system from pre-primary to PhD and skill development.
  2. It states that universities from among top 100 in the world will be able to set up campuses in India.
  3.  It expects that India will achieve 60% GER by 2030.
  4.  It suggests NAAC to be merged with UGC and AICTE.

Q2. Consider the following statements: (2018)

  1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
  2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
  3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 3 only

PM Young Achievers’ Scholarship Award Scheme for a Vibrant India (PM YASASVI)

Syllabus

  • Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES

Context: Recently, a total of ₹32.44 Crore has been released for Pre-matric Scholarships and ₹387.27 Crore for Post-Matric Scholarships to States/Union Territories (UTs) under the PM YASASVI scheme.

Background:-

  • These scholarships aim to assist students in pursuing their studies from pre-matriculation to post-secondary stages.

About PM YASASVI:-

  • Ministry: Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
  • Objective: To provide financial assistance to the OBC, EBC and DNT students studying at the post-matriculation or post-secondary stage to help them complete their education.
  • Testing Agency: The National Testing Agency has been entrusted with the responsibility of conducting the YASASVI ENTRANCE TEST.

Historical Background:-

  • MSJ&E, a national testing agency founded by the government of India, is an autonomous, self-sufficient premier testing organization that conducts efficient and transparent standardized tests for the admission of applicants to premier higher education institutions. Consequently, the government has developed the PM Young Achievers Scholarship Award Scheme for a Vibrant India (YASASVI).

Salient Features:-

Components:-

  • Pre-Matric Scholarships.
  • Post-Matric Scholarships
  • Top Class School Education
  • Top Class College Education
  • Construction of Hostels for OBC

Eligibility:-

  • Applicant students must be permanent residents of India to get benefits under the PM Yashasvi Scheme.
  • Candidate students should belong to any one of OBC, EBC, DNT SAR, NT or SNT community.
  • Only students studying in class 9 or class 11 will be considered eligible to get this scholarship.
  • The family annual income of the applicant students should be a maximum of 2.5 lakh rupees to get this scholarship.
  • Students of all genders will be eligible to get the benefits under PM Yashasvi Scheme 2023.

Selection:-

  • To get the benefits of this scheme, the candidate students have to pass the computer-based entrance test.

Benefits:-

  • Financial assistance of Rs 75,000 per year is provided to eligible students of class IX in the form of scholarship.
  • An amount of Rs 125,000 per year is provided to the students of class 11th as financial assistance.

 MUST READ: New National Education Policy

SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023)

  1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women.
  2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth.
  3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents.
  4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. Only three
  4. All four

Q.2) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana: (2023)

  1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.
  2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.
  3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
  4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. Only three
  4. All four

International Court of Justice

Syllabus

  • Prelims –POLITY

Context: Recently, the International Court of Justice ruled that Israel must take steps to prevent genocide in Gaza.

Background:-

  • The International Court of Justice issued an interim ruling in a wider case about whether Israel is committing genocide against Palestinians in the enclave.

About the International Court of Justice:-

  • Established: June 1945.
  • HQ: The Hague (Netherlands).
  • The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN).
  • It was established in June 1945 by the Charter of the United Nations and began work in April 1946.
  • The seat of the Court is at the Peace Palace in The Hague (Netherlands).
  • Of the six principal organs of the United Nations, it is the only one not located in New York (United States of America).
  • The Court’s role is to settle, in accordance with international law, legal disputes submitted to it by States and to give advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by authorized United Nations organs and specialized agencies.
  • The Court is composed of 15 judges, who are elected for terms of office of nine years by the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council.
  • It is assisted by a Registry, its administrative organ.
  • Its official languages are English and French.

MUST READ: International Criminal Court

SOURCE: THE NEW YORK TIMES

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) International Labour Organization’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to (2018)

  1. Child labour
  2. Adaptation of agriculture practices to global climate change
  3. Regulation of food prices and food security
  4. Gender parity in the workplace

Q.2) In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’? (2018)

  1. Civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.
  2. The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of the IAEA
  3. The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).
  4. The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG

BrahMos

Syllabus

  • Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS/ECONOMY

Context: India is to export BrahMos supersonic missile systems to Philippines in next 10 days.

Background:-

  • India is gearing up to export ground systems for the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile, with the missiles expected to be dispatched to the Philippines by March this year.

About BrahMos:-

  • BrahMos is a joint venture between the DRDO and Russia’s NPO Mashinostroyeniya .
  • It is a supersonic cruise missile.
  • The missile derives its name from Brahmaputra and Moskva rivers.
  • On June 12, 2001, the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile was first tested from a land-based launcher in
  • BrahMos has been upgraded several times, with versions tested on land, air, and sea platforms.
  • It is a two-stage missile with a solid propellant engine in the first stage and a liquid ramjet in the second.
  • BrahMos is equipped with stealth technology designed to make it less visible to radar and other detection methods.
  • It has an inertial navigation system (INS) for use against ship targets and an INS/Global Positioning System for use against land targets.
  • It is an air to surface missile with a flight range of around 300 km.
  • However, India’s entry into the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) has extended the range of the BRAHMOS missile to reach 450 km-600km.

MUST READ: Defence Acquisition Council

SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023)

  1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
  2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security.
  3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states.

How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All three
  4. None

Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019)

  1. Japan
  2. Russia
  3. The United Kingdom
  4. The United States of America

Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC)

Syllabus

  • Prelims –ECONOMY

Context: Recently, Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) celebrated International Customs Day-2024.

Background:-

  • This year, the World Customs Organisation (WCO) has dedicated the International Customs Day to the theme of ‘Customs engaging traditional and new partners with purpose’.

About Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC):-

  • Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs is a part of the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance.
  • It is a statutory body established under the Central Boards of Revenue Act, of 1963.
  • It was formed in 1964 when the Central Board of Revenue was split into the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) and the Central Board of Excise and Customs.
    • Central Board of Excise and Customs was renamed the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs in 2018.
  • It is the nodal national agency responsible for administering:-
    • Customs
    • GST 
    • Central Excise
    • Service Tax
    • Narcotics in India.
  • The Board is the administrative authority for its subordinate organizations, including Custom Houses, Central Excise and Central GST Commissionerate and the Central Revenues Control Laboratory(Tax administration in India)
  • Functions performed by the CBIC include:-
    • Formulation of policy concerning levy and collection of Customs, Central Excise duties, Central Goods & Services Tax and IGST.
    • Prevention of smuggling.
    • Administration of matters relating to Customs, Central Excise, Central Goods & Services Tax, IGST and Narcotics to the extent under CBIC’s purview.

MUST READ: International Customs Day, 2023

SOURCE: PIB

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’? (2017)

  1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India.
  2. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves.
  3. It will enormously increase the growth and size of the economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) Consider the following statements : (2017)

  1. Tax revenue as a per cent of the GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
  2. Fiscal deficit as a per cent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Western Equine Encephalitis

Syllabus

  • Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

Context: Recently, an outbreak of Western Equine Encephalitis Virus occurred in Argentina.

Background:-

  • The present outbreak also comes in the context of an ongoing outbreak in horses in Argentina and Uruguay.

About Western Equine Encephalitis:-

  • It is a mosquito-borne infection.
  • It is caused by the Western Equine Encephalitis Virus (WEEV), which belongs to the Togaviridae family of viruses with neurological symptoms in severe cases, and there is no specific antiviral treatment.
  • The virus has an approximately 11.5 kilobases long single-stranded RNA genome and is a recombinant of the eastern equine encephalitis virus (EEEV) and a Sindbis-like virus.
  • Passerine birds are thought to be the reservoir and equine species as intermediate hosts.

Symptoms:-

  • Fever
  • Headache
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Poor appetite
  • Tiredness
  • Weakness

Transmission:-

  • The primary mode of WEE virus transmission is through the bites of infected mosquitoes, which act as vectors.
  • The principal vector is Culex tarsalis; however, there are multiple vectors that contribute to transmission, including Aedes melanimon, Aedes dorsalis, and Aedes campestris.

Diagnosis:-

  • The diagnosis of WEE infection requires confirmation through laboratory techniques since the clinical presentation is not specific.
  • Western equine encephalitis is most common in the plains regions of the western and central United States.
  • It also has been reported in Central America and South America.

MUST READ: malaria

SOURCE: THE HINDU

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements:

  1. The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform.
  2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform.
  3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine.

Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022)

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements:

  1. Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines.
  2. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021)

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Practice MCQs

Daily Practice MCQs

Q1) Consider the following pairs:

DISEASE CAUSED BY
Anthrax Bacillus anthracis
Chickenpox Naegleria fowleri
Meningoencephalitis Varicella zoster virus

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All three
  4. None

Q2) Consider the following statements

Statement-I :

PM YASASVI is under the Ministry of Education.

Statement-II :

The National Testing Agency has been entrusted with the responsibility of conducting the YASASVI ENTRANCE TEST.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
  2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
  3. Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q3) With reference to Western Equine Encephalitis, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a mosquito-borne infection.
  2. Western Equine Encephalitis Virus (WEEV) belongs to the Togaviridae family.
  3. It is only found in western and central United States.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 2 only
  2. 1, 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 1 only

Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!!

ANSWERS FOR ’  29th January 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st


ANSWERS FOR 28th January – Daily Practice MCQs

Answers- Daily Practice MCQs

Q.1) – a

Q.2) – c

Q.3) – a