Syllabus

• Prelims –POLITY

Context: Recently, both Houses of Parliament took up a discussion on the Motion of Thanks on President Murmu’s address.

Background:-

• The President had addressed the joint sitting of both the Houses.

About Motion of Thanks:-

• As per constitutional provisions, at the commencement of the first session after each general election to the House of the People and at the commencement of the first session of each year, the President shall address both Houses of Parliament assembled together and inform Parliament of the causes of its summons.
• The Address contains a review of various activities and achievements of the Government during the previous year and sets out the policies, projects and programmes which the Government of the day wishes to pursue with regard to important national and international issues.
• The President’s speech essentially highlights the government’s policy priorities and plans for the upcoming year.
• The address provides a broad framework of the government’s agenda and direction.
• After the address, each House of Parliament discusses the Motion of Thanks, and the Prime Minister responds.
• At the end of the discussion, the motion is put to vote.

Constitutional Provisions:-

• Article 86 confers a right on the President to address either House of Parliament or both Houses assembled together, and for that purpose requires the attendance of members.
• Article 87 deals with Special Address by the President and provides that the President shall address both Houses of Parliament assembled together at the commencement of the first session after each general election to the Lok Sabha and at the commencement of the first session of each year and inform Parliament of the causes of its summons

Significance:-

• The Motion of Thanks must be passed in the House, Otherwise, it amounts to the defeat of the government.
• It is one of the ways through which the Lok Sabha can also express a lack of confidence in the government.

MUST READ: Privilege Motion

SOURCE: PIB 

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022)

1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q2) Consider the following statements: (2017)

1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 3 only

Syllabus

• Prelims –GOVERNMENT INIIATIVES

Context: Recently, Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat) Portal surpassed 1.45 Crore Youth registrations in three months.

Background:-

• This has been possible due to the user-friendly interface that allows registration to be completed within a few minutes.

About Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat):-

• Establishment: 2023.
• Ministry: Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
• Objective: The primary objective of Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat) is to make it a whole of Government platform for youth development.
• Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat) is an autonomous body.
• It will serve as an overarching enabling mechanism powered by technology for youth development and youth-led development.
• Under the new arrangement, with access to resources & connection to opportunities, youth would become community change agents and nation builders allowing them to act as the Yuva Setu between the Government and the citizens.
• It seeks to harness the immense youth energy for nation-building.
• It will benefit the youth in the age group of 15-29 years, in line with the definition of ‘Youth’ in the National Youth Policy.
• In the case of programme components specifically meant for adolescents, the beneficiaries will be in the age group of 10-19 years.
• It will provide equitable access to youth to actualize their aspirations and build Viksit Bharat across the entire spectrum of the Government.

Advantages:-

• Better alignment between youth aspirations and community needs.
• Act as a one-stop shop for young people and Ministries.
• Create a centralized youth database. (‘Responsible Artificial Intelligence (AI) for Youth’ program launched)
• Ensuring accessibility by creating a physical ecosystem.

Significance: –

• It will help ensure accessibility by creating a physical ecosystem. 
• It will help to increase the Youth outreach efforts of the Department of Youth Affairs.

MUST READ: (National Youth Festival)

SOURCE: PIB

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics:

1. The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’.
2. Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate and Baseball are included in this Olympics.

Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2021)

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the ICC World Test Championship:

1. The finalists were decided by the number of matches they won.
2. New Zealand was ranked ahead of England because it won more matches than England.

Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2021)

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 and 2

Syllabus

• Prelims –GOVERNANCE

Context: Recently, the last Date for submission of nominations for Prime Minister’s Awards for Excellence in Public Administration 2023 was extended to February 12, 2024.

Background:-

• The registration and submission of nominations under the Prime Minister’s Awards for Excellence in Public Administration, 2023 was commenced on January 3, 2024.

About Prime Minister’s Awards for Excellence in Public Administration 2023:-

• Launched by: Department of Administrative Reforms & Public Grievances.
• The Award Scheme has been redesigned to spotlight the District Collector’s performance by targeting individual beneficiaries and employing a saturation approach in implementation.
• This year, the Award Scheme is restructured to highlight the performance of District Collectors, emphasizing individual beneficiaries and implementation with a saturation approach.
• The evaluation for the Awards will be based on three parameters: Good Governance, Qualitative, and Quantitative achievements.
• The scheme recognizes the contribution of civil servants under two categories:
• Category 1: Holistic Development of Districts under 12 priority sector programs
  • 10 awards will be conferred under this category.
• Category 2: Innovations for Central Ministries/Departments States, Districts
  • 6 awards will be conferred under this category.
• The evaluation process involves short-listing by a Screening Committee, evaluation by an Expert Committee, and final approval by an Empowered Committee, with the Prime Minister’s approval sought for the award recommendations.
• The Prime Minister’s Awards 2023 will include a trophy, scroll, and a significant incentive of Rs. 20 lakh for the awarded District/Organization.
  • This amount is intended for the implementation of projects/programs or bridging resource gaps in any area of public welfare.( Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Award (PBSA))

 MUST READ: Prime Minister’s Awards for Excellence in Public Administration 2022

SOURCE: PIB

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards : (2023)

1. Major Dhyan Chand:       For the most spectacular and outstanding performance and outstanding   Khel Ratna Award performance over a period of the last four years.
2. Arjuna Award:                   For the lifetime achievement of a sportsperson.
3. Dronacharya Award:       To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams.
4. Rashtriya Khel:                 To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement. Protsahan Puraskar

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023)

1. It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India.
2. The official mascot was named Thambi.
3. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.
4. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Syllabus

• Prelims –ECONOMY

Context: Recently, Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) increased by 3.8 per cent (provisional) in Dec 2023 as compared to Dec 2022.

Background:-

• The production of Coal, Natural Gas, Steel, Fertilizers, Refinery Products, Cement and Electricity recorded positive growth in December 2023.

About Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI):-

• Ministry: Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
• The ICI measures combined and individual performance of production of eight core industries viz. Cement, Coal, Crude Oil, Electricity, Fertilizers, Natural Gas, Refinery Products and Steel.
• The Eight Core Industries comprise 40.27 percent of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
• IIP is a prime indicator of economic development for the measurement of trends in the behaviour of Industrial Production over a period of time with reference to a chosen base year.
• The eight core sector industries in decreasing order of their weightage: Refinery Products> Electricity> Steel> Coal> Crude Oil> Natural Gas> Cement> Fertilizers.
• The current base year for the IIP in India is 2011-12.
• Details of annual and monthly indices are compiled and released by the Office of Economic Adviser (OEA), Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

 MUST READ: Industrial Revolution 4.0

SOURCE: PIB

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements with reference to India: (2023)

1. According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, the ‘medium enterprises are those with investments in plant and machinery between (15 crore and 25 crore).
2. All bank loans to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) In the ‘Index of Eight Core Industries’, which one of the following is given the highest weight? (2015)

1. Coal production
2. Electricity generation
3. Fertilizer production
4. Steel production

Syllabus

• Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

Context: Recently, James Webb Space Telescope captured ‘stunning’ images of 19 spiral galaxies.

Background:-

• The closest of the 19 galaxies is called NGC5068, about 15 million light years from Earth, and the most distant of them is NGC1365, about 60 million light years from Earth.
  • NGC 5068 lies around 20 million light-years from Earth in the constellation Virgo.
  • NGC 5068’s distance from Earth is 19,194,302.83 light years.
  • NGC 5068 is called NGC 5068 in the New General Catalogue (NGC).

About James Webb Space Telescope:-

• It is an infrared observatory orbiting the Sun. (International Space Station (ISS))
• Launched: 2021.
• Type: Orbiter.
• Launched by: National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
• Launch Vehicle: Ariane 5 rocket, provided by the European Space Agency (ESA).
• Launch site: French Guiana.
• Objective: to find the first galaxies that formed in the early universe and to see stars forming planetary systems.
• It is NASA’s largest and most powerful space science telescope.

Functions of the telescope:-

• It will study every phase in the history of our universe, ranging from the first luminous glows after the big bang, to the formation of solar systems capable of supporting life on planets like Earth, to the evolution of our own solar system.
• It will build on the Hubble Space Telescope’s 
  • NASA’s Hubble Space Telescope: it is the first astronomical observatory placed into orbit around Earth with the ability to record images in wavelengths of light spanning from ultraviolet to near infrared.
• It will look deeper into the cosmos and thus further back in time than is possible with Hubble.
• It will attempt to detect the light from the very first population of stars in the Universe to switch on more than 13.5 billion years ago.

MUST READ: (ISRO’s hybrid propulsion system)

SOURCE: THE HINDU

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022)

1. A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space.
2. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions.
3. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
4. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface speed.

Q.2) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022)

1. GPS and navigation systems could fail.
2. Tsunamis could occur in equatorial regions.
3. Power grids could be damaged.
4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.
5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.
6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
2. 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only
3. 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

Syllabus

• Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY

Context: Recently, a survey was conducted in Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (NBR).

Background:-

• More than 300 vultures were recorded in the recently completed synchronous vulture survey.

About Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (NBR):-

• The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was the first biosphere reserve in India established in the year 1986.
• The total area of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is 5,520 sq. km.
• It is located in the Western Ghats.
• The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve encompasses parts of Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka.
• The annual rainfall of the reserve ranges from 500 mm to 7000 mm.
• Vegetation: dry scrub to evergreen forests and swamps thus contributing to the highest biodiversity.
• Flora: Adenoon, Calacanthus, Baeolepis, Frerea, Jarodina, Wagatea, Poeciloneuron, etc.
• Fauna: Nilgiri tahr, Nilgiri langur, slender loris, blackbuck, tiger, gaur, Indian elephant and marten aresome of the animals found here.

MUST READ: Tiger Estimation

SOURCE: THE HINDU

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements are correct? (2020)

1. It is spread over two districts.
2. There is no human habitation inside the Park.
3. It is one of the natural habitats of Great Indian Bustard.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements: (2020)

1. The leader of an elephant group is a female
2. The maximum gestation period can be 22 months
3. An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only
4. Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 3, and 4 only

Syllabus

• Prelims –WORLD GEOGRAPHY

Context: Recently, 3 people were killed, and 300 injured in massive fire in Nairobi, Kenya.

Background:-

• Government spokesperson Isaac Maigua Mwaura on a social media platform said, the fire broke out last night in the Embakasi neighbourhood, southeast of the capital.

About Nairobi:-

IMAGE SOURCE: BRITANNICA

• Nairobi, city, capital of Kenya.
• It is situated in the south-central part of the country, in the highlands at an elevation of about 5,500 feet (1,680 metres).
• The city lies 300 miles (480 km) northwest of Mombasa, Kenya’s major port on the Indian Ocean.
• Nairobi is the principal industrial centre of the country.
• Light-manufacturing industries produce beverages, cigarettes, and processed food.
• Tourism is also important.

About Kenya:-

• Kenya, country in East Africa.
• Official Languages: Swahili; English.
• It is famed for its scenic landscapes and vast wildlife preserves.
• Its Indian Ocean coast provided historically important ports by which goods from Arabian and Asian traders have entered the continent for many centuries.
• Kenya’s western provinces, marked by lakes and rivers, are forested, while a small portion of the north is desert and semidesert.
• It is bisected horizontally by the Equator and vertically by longitude 38° E.
• Kenya is bordered to the north by South Sudan and Ethiopia, to the east by Somalia and the Indian Ocean, to the south by Tanzania, and to the west by Lake Victoria and (Horn of Africa)
• Seasonal climatic changes are controlled by the large-scale pressure systems of the western Indian Ocean and adjacent landmasses.
• The African peoples of Kenya, who constitute virtually the entire population, are divided into three language groups: Bantu, Nilo-Saharan, and Afro-Asiatic.
  • Bantu is by far the largest.

MUST READ: Drought Emergency in Somalia

SOURCE: AIR

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions? (2022)

1. Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores
2. The region along North African shores stretches from Egypt to Morocco
3. The region along the Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa
4. The entire coastal areas of the Mediterranean Sea

Q.2) Which one of the lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert? (2022)

1. Lake Victoria
2. Lake Faguibine
3. Lake Oguta
4. Lake Volta

Q1) Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Q2) Consider the following statements

Statement-I :

Statement-II :

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q3) With reference to the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (NBR), consider the following statements:

1. It was established in the year 1986.
2. It is located in the Eastern Ghats.
3. The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is only in Karnataka.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 3 only

Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!!

ANSWERS FOR ’  3rd February  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st

Q.1) – a

Q.2) – c

Q.3) –