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Syllabus

• Prelims – International Relations

About Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC):

• It is a regional organization that was established in 1997 with the signing of the Bangkok Declaration.
• Initially known as BIST-EC (Bangladesh-India-Sri Lanka-Thailand Economic Cooperation).
• It became renamed ‘BIMST-EC’ in 1997, following the inclusion of Myanmar.
• It became a  seven Member organization with the admission of Bhutan and Nepal in 2004.
• The BIMSTEC Charter was signed and adopted during the ‘Fifth BIMSTEC Summit’ held in the virtual format in Colombo, Sri Lanka, in 2022.
• It is headquartered in Dhaka, Bangladesh.
• H. E. Mr. Tenzin Lekphell assumed office as the Secretary-General of BIMSTEC in 2020 as the third BIMSTEC Secretary-General.
• Chairmanship-the Chairmanship of BIMSTEC rotates according to the alphabetical order of the English names of the Member States.
• India hosted the first meeting of Governing Board of BIMSTEC Energy Centre in Bengaluru in 2023.

BIMSTEC Principles

• Cooperation within the BIMSTEC will be based on respect for the principle of sovereign equality, territorial integrity, political independence, non-interference in internal affairs, non-aggression, peaceful co-existence, mutual respect, and mutual benefit.
• Cooperation within the BIMSTEC will be complementary to and not be a substitute for bilateral, sub-regional, regional, or multilateral cooperation involving the Member States.

Source: DOWN TO EARTH

Previous Year Questions

Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020)

International agreement/ set-up Subject

1. Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people
2. Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons
3. Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change
4. Under2 Coalition – Child Rights

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 4 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 2,3 and 4 only

Q.2) Consider the following statements (2020)

1. The value of Indo-Sri Lanka Trade has consistently increased in the last decade.
2. Textile and textile articles constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh
3. In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1 ,2, and 3

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Syllabus

• Prelims –Art and Culture

Context: Recently, the ancient city of Sisupalgarh was in news due to the damages by the Land mafias.

About Sisupalgarh:

• It is located near the city of Bhubaneswar in Odisha.
• It was once the capital of Kalinga, which is the ancient name of Odisha.
• It dates back prior to the Mauryan period.
• It is a 2,000-year-old fortified city.
• It is considered one of the largest and best-preserved ancient fortifications in India.
• The remains of the fortification were discovered in 1948 by the Indian archaeologist B.B. Lal.

Features of Sisupalgarh :

• It was designed and constructed in a complete square shape that was surrounded by defensive walls.
• Each side spreads for over half a mile, and the interior is full of stone ruins and sculptures.
• The walls of the fortification are a little over nine meters (30 feet) tall.
• There were eight gateways into the city, two on each of the four sides of the wall.
• The gateways were connected by streets in a grid-like arrangement with the palace in the center.
• The gates were elaborate structures made of brick and stone.
• There is evidence of stone-lined reservoirs that were likely used for harvesting rainwater.
• Intelligent traffic management, pedestrian-friendly pathways, grand gateways with guard houses, wide roads, and a vast open space.
• It is identified with Kalinganagara of Kharavela and Tosali of Ashoka.
• The construction of Sisupalgarh was based on JalaDurga(Water Fort) concept, which in Odia is known as the GadaKhai concept.
• Jala Durga is a type of Durga or fort, which must be situated within a water body.
• It is divided into two categories, viz., the Anterdvipa (Island fort) and the Sthala Durga (Land fort).
• Antardvipa-Durga (island fortress) is surrounded by natural (sea or river) water bodies.
• Sthala-Durga (plain fortress) is surrounded by artificial moats or irrigated by a river.

MUST READ

Source: THE HINDU

Previous Year Questions

Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2021)

Historical place           Well-known for

1. (1) Burzahom              Rock-cut shrines
2. (2) Chandraketugarh  Terracotta art
3. (3) Ganeshwar Copper artifacts

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 3 only
4. 2 and 3

Q.2) Which one of the following statements is correct? (2021)

1. Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora river. 
2. Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of the Chambal river.
3. Pandu – lena cave shrines lie in the gorge of the Narmada river.
4. Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of the Godavari river.

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Syllabus

• Prelims –  International Relations

Context:  Bakhmut has been  in news recently, regarding the Russian-Ukrainian war.

About the Battle of Bakhmut:

• Bakhmut is a city in the eastern Ukraine region of Donetsk
• Bakhmut is currently in ruins, having been the focal point of Russian assaults and a site of dogged defence by the Ukrainian military.
• The industrial city, is known for its salt and gypsum mines.
• It’s also the site of a winery established on the order of Soviet dictator Joseph Stalin in 1950.
• Background : Bakhmut has been caught up in conflict since 2014, when Russia-backed separatists launched a push to capture Donetsk. The separatists briefly seized parts of the city that year, before Ukrainian forces drove them out.
• Bakhmut is proximate to multiple important roads which may have some strategic value to the Russian advance.
• It’s an important transport hub, a lot of supply lines go through there and Russia could use it as a base.

Source: THE INDIAN EXPRESS

Previous Year Questions

Q.1) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries?(2019)

1. Japan
2. Russia
3. The United Kingdom
4. The United States of America

Q.2) The term “two-state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of (2018)

1. Chin China
2. Israel
3. Iraq
4. Yemen

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Syllabus

• Prelims – Polity (Government Schemes ), Geography

Context: Recently, the Government of India has constituted Greater Panna Landscape Council(GPLC).

About Greater Panna Landscape Council (GPLC):

• It has been constituted under the chairmanship of the Chief Secretary, Govt of Madhya Pradesh.
• Objective: To ensure systematic and time-bound implementation of the Greater Panna Landscape Management plan.
• Its goal is to ensure a “win-win” situation for conservation through integration with the development process based on a balanced approach and considering the diverse stakes.

About Ken-Betwa Link Project (KBLP) :

• Ken-Betwa Link Project (KBLP), the first interlinking of rivers project.
• It is  under National Perspective Plan (NPP).
• It would be a game-changer for the socio-economic prosperity of the Bundelkhand region, which faces recurrent drought situations.
• The project is aimed at not only providing water security in the Bundelkhand but also ensuring the overall conservation of the region and especially for landscape-dependent species such as tigers, vultures, and gharial.
• Apart from taking mitigation measures as per the approved Environmental Management Plan, the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) has prepared a comprehensive Integrated Landscape Management Plan (ILMP) for the conservation of wildlife and biodiversity not only in Panna Tiger Reserve (PTR) but also in surrounding areas.
• The Integrated Landscape Management Plan under the Ken-Betwa Link Project is one of the major and unique conservation measures being initiated in the conservation history of India.
• Implementing Agency:

A Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) called Ken-Betwa Link Project Authority (KBLPA) will be set up to implement the project.

About Ken and Betwa Rivers:

• Ken and Betwa rivers originate in MP and are the tributaries of Yamuna.
• The river originates near the village of Ahirgawan on the north-west slopes of Kaimur Range in the district of Jabalpur.
• Important tributaries of the Ken River:  Sonar, Bearma, Kopra, Bewas, Urmil, Mirhasan, Kutni, Kail, Gurne, Patan, Siameri, Chandrawal, Banne, and others. Sonar, the longest tributary.
• Ken meets with Yamuna in the Banda district of UP and with Betwa in the Hamirpur district of UP.
• Ken River passes through the Panna tiger reserve.
• Betwa River, Sanskrit Vetravati (“Containing Reeds”), rises in the Vindhya Range just north of Hoshangabad, Madhya Pradesh.
• It flows generally northeast through Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh states and empties into the Yamuna River just east of Hamirpur.
• The Jamni and Dhasan rivers are the main tributaries.

About Panna Tiger Reserve:

• It is a national park located in the Panna and Chhatarpur districts of Madhya Pradesh in India.
• It was declared in 1994 as the twenty-second Tiger reserve of India and the fifth in Madhya Pradesh.
• Panna was given the Award of Excellence in 2007 as the best-maintained national park of India by the Ministry of Tourism of India.
• In 2020, UNESCO included Panna National Park of Madhya Pradesh under its list of Biosphere reserves
• Among the animals found here is the tiger, leopard, chital, chinkara, nilgai, sambhar, and sloth bear.

Source: PIB

Previous Year Questions

Q.1) With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements : (2022)

1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled to equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.
3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only

Q.2) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin? (2020)

1. Nagarhole National Park
2. Papikonda National Park
3. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
4. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 3, and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Syllabus

• Prelims – Environment and Ecology

Context: Recently, a frog endemic to the higher altitudes of Western Ghats was rediscovered after 89 years.

About Jerdon’s narrow-mouthed frog (Uperodon montanus):

• Uperodon montanus, also known as Jerdon’s narrow-mouthed frog, Jerdon’s ramanella, mountain dot frog, mountain globular frog, or Malabar Hill frog.
• It is a species of narrow-mouthed frog (family Microhylidae)
• It is endemic to the Western Ghats of India.
• This species is found in Moist deciduous forests, Semi-evergreen forests, and Evergreen forests.
• It is classified as ‘Near Threatened’ in the International Union for Conservation of Nature Red List of Threatened Species. 

Source: DOWN TO EARTH

Previous Year Questions

Q.1) Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of

fungi? (2022)

1. Ant
2. Cockroach
3. Crab
4. Spider

Q.2) Consider the following animals  (2021)

1. Hedgehog
2. Marmot
3. Pangolin

To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/protects its/their vulnerable parts?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1 and 3

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Syllabus

• Prelims – Economy

Context: The government of India recently announced that the sale of gold jewellery and gold artefacts hallmarked without a six-digit alphanumeric shall not be permitted from April 1, 2023.

About Bureau of Indian Standards(BIS):

• BIS is the National Standard Body of India established under the BIS Act 2016
• It works under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution.
• It was formerly the Indian Standards Institution (ISI), set up under the Resolution of the Department of Industries and Supplies in 1946.
• The ISI was registered under the Societies Registration Act, of 1860.
• A new Bureau of Indian standard (BIS) Act 2016 was brought into force in 2017.
• BIS has its Headquarters in New Delhi.
• President, Ex-officio: Hon’ble Minister for Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, Government of India.
• Vice President, Ex-officio: Hon’ble Minister of State for Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, Government of India.
• Objectives:  harmonious development of the activities of standardization, marking and quality certification of goods and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

BIS is involved in various activities as given below:

• Standards Formulation
• Product Certification Scheme
• Compulsory Registration Scheme
• Foreign Manufacturers Certification Scheme
• Hall Marking Scheme
• Laboratory Services
• Laboratory Recognition Scheme
• Sale of Indian Standards
• Consumer Affairs Activities
• Promotional Activities
• Training Services, National & International level
• Information Services

About Hallmark:

• Hallmarks are thus official marks used in many countries as a guarantee of the purity or fineness of precious metal articles.
• The principle objectives of the Hallmarking Scheme :
  • to protect the public against adulteration
  • to obligate manufacturers to maintain legal standards of fineness.

• Who issues Hallmark: Bureau of Indian Standards
• For which products: Gold and silver jewellery
• Applicable since: It is applicable for gold since 2000 and for silver since 2005.

Procedure For Obtaining Registration by Jeweller for Sale of Hallmarked Jeweller / Artefacts

• Any jeweller willing to obtain a certificate of registration for selling Hallmarked Gold and Silver Jewelry/artefacts shall apply online in the BIS portal.
• The certificate of registration is granted instantly to the jeweller without the need to upload any document or pay any fees for the same.
• The certificate of registration stands valid for a lifetime. 

About  Hallmark Unique Identification (HUID):

• HUID is a six-digit alphanumeric code .
• It is given to every piece of jewellery at the time of hallmarking and is unique for each piece.
• It is being implemented by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) in a phased manner.
• Hallmarking & HUID are mandatory for 14-, 18- and 22-carat gold jewellery and artefacts.
• The Government has made it mandatory the introduction of a HUID number in every piece of jewellery.

Source: THE HINDU

Previous Year Questions

Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2017)

1. The Standard Mark of the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes.
2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) What is/are the purpose/purposes of the Government’s ‘Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme’ and ‘Gold Monetization Scheme’? (2016)

1. To bring the idle gold lying with Indian households into the economy
2. To promote FDI in the gold and jewelry sector
3. To reduce India’s dependence on gold imports

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

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Syllabus

• Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance)

Context: Recently, a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court (SC) has stated the rules for appointment of Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and Election Commissioners (ECs).

Highlights of the Supreme Court rulings:

• A high-power committee consisting of the Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha and the Chief Justice of India.
• In case no leader of Opposition is available, the leader of the largest opposition Party in the Lok Sabha in terms of numerical strength will take in that position.
  • This is an example of violation of the separation of powers between legislature and the judiciary.
• Earlier, Vishaka guidelines formed by the SC was one such example.
• For funding of ECI, government should create a permanent Secretariat and expenditure be charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

About Election Commission India:

• The Election Commission was established in accordance with the Constitution on 25th January 1950.
• The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional body responsible for administering Union and State election processes in India.
• The body administers elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, State Legislative Councils and the offices of the President and Vice President of the country.
• It is not concerned with the elections to panchayats and municipalities in the states.
• For this, the Constitution of India provides for a separate State Election Commission.

Constitutional Provisions:

• Its powers, appointment and duties are mentioned in Part XV of the Constitution (Article 324 to Article 329) and the Representation of People Act.
• Article 324: Superintendence, direction and control of elections to be vested in an Election Commission.
• Article 325: No person to be ineligible for inclusion in, or to claim to be included in a special electoral roll on the ground of religion, race, caste or sex.
• Article 326: Elections to the Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies of States to be on the basis of adult suffrage.
• Article 327: Power of Parliament to make provision with respect to elections to legislature.
• Article 328: Power of Legislature of a State to make provision with respect to elections to such Legislature.
• Article 329: Bar to interference by courts in electoral matters.

Composition of Election Commission:

• Originally the commission had only a Chief Election Commissioner.
• It currently consists of the Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners.
• For the first time, two additional Commissioners were appointed on 16th October 1989 but they had a very short tenure till 1st January 1990.
• Later, on 1st October 1993 two additional Election Commissioners were appointed.
• The concept of a multi-member Commission has been in operation since then, with decision making power by majority vote.

Appointment ,Tenure and Privileges of Commissioners:

• The President appoints Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners.
• They have a tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
• They enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as available to Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
• The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only through impeachment by Parliament.

Removal of Election Commissioners:

• They can resign anytime or can also be removed before the expiry of their term.
• The CEC can be removed from office only by the order of the President, just like a judge of the Supreme Court.

Issue in Removal of other Commissioners:

• The Constitutional provision is silent about the procedure for removal of the two Election Commissioners.
• It only provides that they cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the CEC.
• The Constitution has not specified the term of the members of the Election Commission.
• The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government.

Power and Functions of ECI:

• Determining the Electoral Constituencies’ territorial areas throughout the country.
• Preparing and periodically revising electoral rolls and registering all eligible voters.
• Notifying the schedules and dates of elections and scrutinising nomination papers.
• Granting recognition to the various political parties and allocating them election symbols.
• The Commission also has advisory jurisdiction in the matter of post-election disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures.
• It issues the Model Code of Conduct in elections for political parties and candidates so that no one indulges in unfair practice or there is no arbitrary abuse of powers by those in power.
• Under the Constitution, the Commission also has advisory jurisdiction in the matter of post-election disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures.
• Further, the cases of persons found guilty of corrupt practices at elections which come before the Supreme Court and High Courts are also referred to the Commission for its opinion on the question as to whether such person shall be disqualified and, if so, for what period.
• The opinion of the Commission in all such matters is binding on the President or, as the case may be, the Governor to whom such opinion is tendered.
• The Commission has the power to disqualify a candidate who has failed to lodge an account of his election expenses within the time and in the manner prescribed by law.
• The Commission has also the power for removing or reducing the period of such disqualification as also other disqualification under the law.

Significance of current Judgement:

• The functional autonomy of the CEC and the EC has a direct link with the process by which they are selected.
• As stated by the Court, “a vulnerable Election Commission would result in an insidious situation and detract from its efficient functioning.”
• The SC’s verdict, apart from ensuring fairness in the process, can act as a constitutional lesson in India’s troubled times.
• It found that in India, there is “an unrelenting abuse of the electoral process”.
• The judgment recognises the fine distinction between conventional democracy and constitutional democracy.
  • In the former, the majority alone matters.
  • In the latter, it is the Constitution that matters.
• In the judgment, the country finds an activist judiciary after a long time. This revival of judicial activism is well supported by legal reasoning and binding precedents.
• It has come out during a dark phase of majoritarianism with an aggrandising executive. This adds to the intrinsic value of the judgment.

Source: Indian Express

Previous Year Questions

Q.1) Consider the following statements :

1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2017)

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 3 only

Q.2) Consider the following statements:

1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2017)

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

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Syllabus

• Mains – GS 2 (Governance)

Context: All-India Organisation of Chemists and Druggists threatens a country-wide agitation against e-pharmacies.

• Recently, the Ministry of Health has pulled up at least 20 companies including Tata-1mg, Flipkart, Apollo, PharmEasy, Amazon and Reliance Netmeds, by issuing them a show cause notice, for selling medicines online.

About E-Pharmacy:

• E-pharmacy, or online pharmacy, refers to a platform that allows customers to purchase medicines and other healthcare products online.
• E-pharmacies operate through websites or mobile apps where users can upload their prescriptions, select the products they need, and place orders.
• The products are then delivered to the customers’ doorstep leading to such mode becoming increasingly popular due to their convenience, accessibility, and cost-effectiveness.
• However, they also pose regulatory challenges and concerns related to the safety, authenticity, and quality of medicines sold online.

Draft e-pharmacy rules:

• The draft e-pharmacy rules were introduced in 2018, and were intended to whip e-pharmacy businesses into shape, but were shoved into cold storage.
• E-pharmacies made a bang in the market in 2015 by offering hefty discounts on medicines and calling themselves facilitators of doorstep delivery.
• However, companies like PharmEasy are building a supply chain from the ground up by buying out big and small wholesale drug distributors.
• Since 2015, e-pharmacies have recorded losses year-on-year. Tata-1 Mg posted a loss of ?146 crore in FY22, whereas PharmEasy’s losses widened to ?2,700 crore in the same fiscal.
• Both e-pharmacies and offline retail pharmacists have realized that it is futile to stick to any one way of doing business.

Associated concerns:

• The Centre is of the view that online sale of drugs without a doctor’s prescription or even otherwise, poses threats to the public health including drug abuse, especially among youth. Many instances of drug abuse, especially among youth have surfaced lately.
• It’s a great risk to national security as well as the online data can be misused for criminal activities by promoting addictive medicines.
• The government has been receiving various representations raising concerns regarding sale of drugs via online platforms in contravention to the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 & rules there under.
• Some drugs are also being sold online which are only allowed for sale by retail under a valid prescription of a registered medical practitioner and supplied under the supervision of a pharmacist.
• Not just adults, children too use the internet, and this may cause severe health hazards in case we don’t put a ban on online sales.

Significance

• E-pharmacies are a part of the government’s intent to build digital infrastructure as a key pillar driving India’s long-term growth strategy.
• The potential of India’s over $344 million e-pharmacy market is promising and is expected to grow at an enviable 40-45% owing to its surging internet connectivity, mobile phone penetration, government initiatives, and rising investments.
• E-pharmacies can provide access to affordable and genuine medicines, especially in areas where traditional pharmacies may not be accessible.

Associated challenges:

• The Centre is of the view that online sale of drugs without a doctor’s prescription or even otherwise, poses threats to the public health including drug abuse, especially among youth. Many instances of drug abuse, especially among youth have surfaced lately.
• It’s a great risk to national security as well as the online data can be misused for criminal activities by promoting addictive medicines.
• The government has been receiving various representations raising concerns regarding sale of drugs via online platforms in contravention to the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 & rules there under.
• Some drugs are also being sold online which are only allowed for sale by retail under a valid prescription of a registered medical practitioner and supplied under the supervision of a pharmacist.
• Not just adults, children too use the internet, and this may cause severe health hazards in case we don’t put a ban on online sales.

Laws regulating e-pharmacies:

• The Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) first banned the online sale of medicines in 2015.
• The latest draft New Drugs, Medical Devices, and Cosmetics Bill, 2022, has comprehensive provisions including:
• Periodic inspections, complaint redressal mechanisms, monitoring e-pharmacies, and others.
• Indian regulations require that pharmacies, both online and offline, be registered with the central drugs regulator CDSCO and have permits from state regulators for sales and distribution.
• Previously, the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry developed a self-regulation code for e-pharmacies in 2016.

Way Forward:

In recent years, the market penetration of e-pharmacies has seen a growth from 3% to 5%. It is an important option for consumers for buying chronic care medicines for diabetes, high blood pressure, cardiac issues, and so on.

Hence, an outright ban on heaving e-pharmacies to the hellbox must be avoided. It goes against the government’s intent of building digital infrastructure as a key pillar driving India’s long-term growth strategy.

Therefore, It is crucial for the government and stakeholders to work together towards ensuring that e-pharmacies operate efficiently and legitimately, while protecting the health and safety of the public.

Source: The Hindu   

Q.1) Consider the following countries:

1. India
2. Sri Lanka
3. Pakistan
4. Nepal
5. Myanmar

Which of the above are part of  Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC)?

1. 1 2 3 and 4 only
2. 1 2 4 and 5 only
3. 2 3 and 5 only
4. All of the above

Q.2) The construction of site was based on JalaDurga(Water Fort) concept, which is known as the GadaKhai concept. It is identified with Kalinganagara of Kharavela and Tosali of Ashoka. The gates were elaborate structures made of brick and stone. There is evidence of stone-lined reservoirs that were likely used for harvesting rainwater. Intelligent traffic management, pedestrian-friendly pathways, grand gateways with guard houses, wide roads, and a vast open space are other features of the site.

Which of the following sites described in the above passage?

1. Sisupalgarh
2. Rakhigarhi
3. Vadakkupattu
4. Adichanallur

Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Bureau of Indian Standards(BIS):

1. BIS is the National Standard Body of India established under the BIS Act 2016.
2. It works under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
3. BIS has its Headquarters in Mumbai.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 only
4. 2 and 3 only

Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!!

ANSWERS FOR ’4th March 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st

Q.1) – d

Q.2) – a

Q.3) – b