Syllabus

• Prelims –ECONOMY

Context: The Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs, Ministry of Finance (CBIC) recently requested support for India’s candidature for the TIR Executive Board (TIRExB).

Background:-

• The Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs, Ministry of Finance, in association with the Ministry of External Affairs organized an event in New Delhi yesterday for ambassadors and delegates from Contracting Parties to the Convention on International Transport of Goods Under Cover of TIR Carnets (TIR Convention, 1975).

About TIR Executive Board (TIRExB):-

• The TIR Executive Board (TIRExB) is a subsidiary body of the TIR Administrative Committee.
• Composition: it is composed of 9 members, each from different Contracting Parties to the TIR Convention.
• The TIRExB supervises and provides support in the application of the TIR procedure at the national and international levels.

About TIR Convention:-

• Establishment: 1975.
• The TIR Convention stands for the “Convention on International Transport of Goods Under Cover of TIR Carnets.”
• The Customs Convention on the International Transport of Goods under Cover of TIR Carnets (TIR Convention, 1975).
• It is one of the most successful international transport conventions.
• It is so far the only universal Customs transit system in existence. (International Customs Day, 2023)
• To date, it has 78 Contracting Parties, including the European Union.
• It covers the whole of Europe and reaches out to North Africa and the Near and Middle East.
• More than 33,000 operators are authorized to use the TIR system and around 1.5 million TIR transports are carried out per year.
• It is an international harmonized system of Customs control, which enables seamless transport of goods crossing multiple international borders using a single customs document (TIR Carnet) and a unified system of guarantee.

India and TIR:-

• India became a party to the TIR Convention in 2017.
• India is a significant trading nation in the Asia Pacific region.
• It has been a key participant in the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC).
• Since its accession to the Convention, India has taken several measures to promote the use of TIR.
• A National Guaranteeing Association has been appointed and a Circular 48/2018-Cus has been issued detailing the procedure and authorizing ports and other customs stations of the country.
• India has also conducted pilot runs, including one using digital TIR. (Free Trade Agreements regime)
• Measures have been initiated to ensure effective usage of TIR through stakeholder consultations.

MUST READ: Need for Reforms in UN

SOURCE: PIB 

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following infrastructure sectors: (2023)

1. Affordable housing
2. Mass rapid transport
3. Health care
4. Renewable energy

On how many of the above does the UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus on its investments?

1. Only one
2. Only two ·
3. Only three
4. All four

Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021)

1. 21st February is declared International Mother Language Day by UNICEF.
2. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Syllabus

• Prelims –GOVERNANCE

Context: Recently, Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Ltd. (IREDA) began the ‘Ek Taarikh, Ek Ghanta, Ek Saath’ Cleanliness Initiative under Swachhata Hi Seva Campaign.

Background:-

• As part of the ongoing ‘Swachhata Hi Seva’ Campaign 3.0, Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Ltd. (IREDA) joined the nation in organizing ‘Ek Taarikh, Ek Ghanta, Ek Saath’ cleanliness drive, at its office premises in Bhikaiji Cama Place, Delhi and adjoining areas recently.
• Ek Tareekh Ek Ghanta Ek Saath:-
• It is an initiative that is a massive voluntary effort for cleanliness in India, endorsed by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
• The initiative encourages citizens to engage in one hour of “shramdaan” (voluntary labour) for cleanliness at 10 a.m. on October 1st as a tribute to Mahatma Gandhi.

About Swachhata Hi Seva Campaign:-

• Ministry: Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA).
• Duration: The Swachhata Hi Seva (SHS) campaign is being celebrated from 15th September to 2nd October this year (2023).
• It is being celebrated as a prelude for the Swachh Bharat Diwas (2nd October) with nationwide participation.
• Implementation: It is under the joint aegis of DDWS & MoHUA.
• Theme of SHS-2023: ‘Garbage Free India’.
• Focus: visual cleanliness and welfare of SafaiMitras.
• The focus of these swachhata drives would be on high footfall public places like bus stands, railway stations, cantonment boards, beaches, tourist places, zoos, national parks & and sanctuaries, historical monuments, heritage sites, river fronts, ghats, drains and nallahs etc. in both rural & urban areas of State/ UT.

Objectives:-

• For undertaking shramdaan activities aiming to generate Jan andolan through community participation.
• To provide impetus for the implementation of SBM.
• To disseminate the importance of a sampoorna swachh village.
• To reinforce the concept of Sanitation as everyone’s business.

Activities:-

Activities proposed for States / Districts / Blocks to organize SHS from 15th September 2023 to 2nd October 2023 are as follows:-

• Removal of garbage from all important places.
• Repair, painting, cleaning, and branding of all sanitation assets like litter bins, public toilets, dhalaos, waste transport vehicles, MRFs, etc. in the area.
• Drives to clean riverbanks and remove of waste (including plastic) from water bodies, especially in Ganga Grams and Ganga Towns.
• Cleaning of zoos, national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, etc. under MoEFCC along with regulation of plastic materials in protected areas to prevent littering.
• Cleanliness drives of tourist spots, ASI protected monuments along with IEC initiatives to discourage usage of single-use plastic items, saturating dry and wet waste bins in line with the Hara Geela Sookha Neela campaign, etc.

MUST READ: Swachh Bharat 2.0

SOURCE: PIB

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana : (2023)

1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.
2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.
3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.

Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Q.2) In the context of India’s preparation for Climate-smart Agriculture, consider the following statements: (2021)

1. The ‘Climate-Smart Village’ approach in India is part of a project led by Climate Change, Agriculture, and Food Security (CCAFS), an international research program.
2. The project of CCAFS is carried out under the Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France.
3. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’s research centers.

Which of the statements given above is correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Syllabus

• Prelims –POLITY-GOVERNMENT SCHEMES

Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi has recently lauded the PM SVANidhi scheme which has crossed the milestone of 50 lakh beneficiaries.

About PM SVANidhi scheme:-

IMAGE SOURCE: transformingindia. mygov.in

• Launched in 2020. (UPSC CSE: PM SVANidhi scheme)
• Ministry: Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs.
• Implementation agency: Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI).
• Objective: Providing affordable Working Capital loans to street vendors to resume their livelihoods that have been adversely affected due to the COVID-19 lockdown.
• The scheme intends to facilitate collateral-free working capital loans of up to INR10,000/- of one-year tenure, to approximately 50 lakh street vendors.
• It is a Central Sector Scheme.
  • Central sector schemes: schemes with 100% funding by the Central government and implemented by the Central Government machinery.
• Duration of the scheme: The duration of the scheme initially was until March 2022. It has been extended till December 2024.

Salient Features:-

• Loan limit: Vendors can avail a working capital loan of up to Rs. 10,000.(PM SVANidhi scheme)
  • This loan is repayable in monthly installments for the tenure of one year.
  • No collateral is required to avail of the loan.
• Processing fee: There is no processing fee to apply for the scheme, making it cost-effective for street vendors.
• Loan repayment period: one year.
• Interest subsidy: On timely/ early repayment of the loan, an interest subsidy @ 7% per annum. It will be credited to the bank accounts of beneficiaries through Direct Benefit Transfers on a quarterly basis.

 Eligibility Criteria:-

The eligible vendors are identified as per the following criteria:-

• Certificate of Vending/Identity Card: Street vendors in possession of a Certificate of Vending/Identity Card issued by Urban Local Bodies (ULBs).
• Urban Local Bodies(ULBs) are encouraged to issue such vendors the permanent Certificate of Vending and Identification Card immediately and positively within a period of one month
• Letter of Recommendation: Street Vendors, left out of the ULB-led identification survey or who have started vending after completion of the survey and have been issued a Letter of Recommendation (LoR) to that effect by the ULB/Town Vending Committee (TVC).

Advantages of the scheme:-

• The scheme promotes digital transactions through cash-back incentives up to an amount of Rs. 100 per month.
• The scheme encourages entrepreneurship.
• It also helps to create employment opportunities. (Programme of Socio-Economic Profiling of PM SVANidhi launched)

MUST READ: SVANidhi se Samriddhi program

SOURCE: AIR

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023)

1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents, and pregnant women.
2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth.
3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents.
4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Q.2) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana: (2023)

1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.
2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.
3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Syllabus

• Prelims –IMPORTANT AWARDS

Context: The Chemistry Nobel 2023 was announced recently.

Background:-

• The Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2023 was awarded to Moungi G. Bawendi, Louis E. Brus, and Alexei I. Ekimov. (Nobel Prize for Chemistry 2021)

About Chemistry Nobel 2023:-

• The 2023 Nobel Prize in Chemistry was awarded for the discovery of quantum dots used in light-emitting diode or LED lights.
• These particles have unique properties and now spread their light from television screens and LED lamps.
• They catalyze chemical reactions and their clear light can illuminate tumour tissue for a surgeon.

Timeline of the experiments:-

• In the early 1980s, this year’s chemistry laureates Louis Brus and Alexei Ekimov succeeded in creating (independently of each other) quantum dots.
• In 1993, chemistry laureate Moungi Bawendi revolutionized the methods for manufacturing quantum dots, making their quality extremely high which is a vital prerequisite for their use in today’s nanotechnology.

Understanding the significance of the Experiment:-

• Quantum dots are nanoparticles or small particles ranging between 1 and 100 nanometres in size. ( Cordy gold nanoparticles)
• These are so tiny that their size determines their properties.
• The smallest quantum dots shine in blue and the big ones shine in yellow and red, and they only differ by size.
• The team succeeded in growing nanocrystals of a specific size.
• They did this by varying the temperature of the solution.
• These crystals also had a smooth and even surface.
• Researchers primarily utilized quantum dots to create coloured light.

Applications:-

• The quantum dots can contribute to flexible electronics, miniscule sensors, slimmer solar cells, and perhaps encrypted quantum communication.
• It can Help spread light from television screens.
• It can help LED lamps use their clear light to illuminate tumor tissue during surgery.

MUST READ: Nobel Prize Chemistry 2022

SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023)

1. It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India.
2. The official mascot was named Thambi.
3. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.
4. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021)

1. The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’.
2. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Syllabus

• Prelims –POLITY-GOVERNMENT SCHEMES

Context: The Government has recently, increased the LPG subsidy per cylinder by 100 rupees for the PM Ujjwala Yojana beneficiaries.

Background:-

• Briefing the media, Information and Broadcasting Minister Anurag Singh Thakur said that in a major decision, the Union Cabinet approved an increase in LPG subsidy, raising it from the current 200 rupees per cylinder to 300 rupees per cylinder for the beneficiaries under Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana.

About PM Ujjwala Yojana:-

• Launched: May 2016.
• Ministry: Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.
• Objective: to make clean cooking fuel such as LPG available to the rural and deprived households that were otherwise using traditional cooking fuels such as firewood, coal, cow-dung cakes, etc.
• PM Ujjwala 1.0 had a target to provide deposit-free LPG connections to 5 crore women members of BPL households.
• The scheme was expanded in April 2018 to include women beneficiaries from seven more categories (SC/ST, PMAY, AAY, most backward classes, tea garden, forest dwellers, etc.).
• EMI facilities were given for stove and refill costs (Interest-free loan).

Ujjwala 2.0:-

• The Union budget for FY 21-22, announced the provision for an additional one crore LPG connection under the PMUY scheme.
• Additional allocation of 1.6 Crore LPG Connections under the PMUY Scheme with a special facility to migrant households.
• It will provide a deposit-free LPG connection.
• It will also give the first refill and hotplate (stove) free of cost to the beneficiaries.
• The migrants will not be required to submit ration cards or address proof.
• A self-declaration for both a ‘family declaration’ and a ‘proof of address’ will suffice.
• It will help achieve the Prime Minister’s vision of universal access to LPG.

MUST READ: Pradhan MantriUjjwalaYojana (PMUY) – Diversion of LPG

SOURCE: AIR

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy : (2023)

1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents, and pregnant women.
2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth.
3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents.
4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Q.2) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019)

1. Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave.
2. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily.
3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Syllabus

• Prelims –GEOGRAPHY

Context: Bursting of  South Lhonak Lake which took place recently was forewarned by researchers two years ago.

Background:-

• Scientists had warned in 2021 that the South Lhonak lake in Sikkim would burst.
• The disaster finally took place on the intervening night of October 3-4, 2023.

About South Lhonak Lake:-

IMAGE SOURCE: ResearchGate

• Location: North Sikkim.
• Altitude: approximately 17,000 feet above sea level.
• Formation: Its formation is attributed to the melting glaciers of the region, a process accelerated by rising global temperatures.
• It plays a role in the hydrological cycle, releasing water downstream, ultimately benefiting the Teesta River basin.
• It is one of the fastest expanding lakes in the Sikkim Himalaya region.
• South Lhonak Lake is a Glacial lake.
• It is also one of the 14 potentially dangerous lakes susceptible to Glacial lake outburst floods (GLOFs).
• Glacial lakes are large bodies of water that sit in front of, on top of, or beneath a melting glacier.
• As they grow larger, they become more dangerous because glacial lakes are mostly dammed by unstable ice or sediment composed of loose rock and debris.
• In case the boundary around them breaks, huge amounts of water rush down the side of the mountains, which could cause flooding in the downstream areas.
• This is called glacial lake outburst floods or GLOF. ()

MUST READ: Lake

SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which ~ of the following statements is correct? (2023)

1. The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about ·10 times of that received at the poles.
2. Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation.
3. Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere.
4. Infrared waves are a part of the visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation.

Q.2) Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers? (2022)

1. Cauvery
2. Manjira
3. Pennar
4. Tungabhadra

Syllabus

• Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY

Context: Recent studies show that even platypuses aren’t safe from bushfires in Australia.

Background:-

• Platypuses are disappearing from waterways after fire.

About Platypuses:-

• Platypus is a duck-billed semi-aquatic organism.
• Distribution: They are found in Australia.
• Habitat: It is known for its reclusive nature and highly specific habitat requirements.
• It is found near small streams and cool moving rivers.
• Platypuses are unique to Australia.
• As monotremes, they lay eggs.
• They’re one of only five species of mammals that do.
  • The other four are echidnas.
• They have webbed feet for swimming.
• They have electroreceptors in their bills to help them find food in rivers and streams.
• But they can be hard to find.
• It’s difficult to determine whether there’s a platypus living in a particular waterway.
• The Taronga Conservation Society Australia and the New South Wales government recently announced the plans to establish the world’s first platypus sanctuary consisting of ponds and burrows at a zoo near Sydney by 2022.

MUST READ: National Surveillance Programme for Aquatic Animal Diseases (NSPAAD)

SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023)

1. In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives
2. of the Nagoya Protocol.
3. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) Recently, there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites? (2017)

1. Corbett National Park
2. Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary
3. Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
4. Sariska National Park

Syllabus

• Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Internal security)

Context: The Delhi Police has sealed the office of news portal NewsClick, by invoking the UAPA Act, alleging it received money for pro-China propaganda.

About the UAPA Act:

• Enacted in 1967 the UAPA presents an alternate criminal law framework where the general principles of criminal law are reversed.
  • By relaxing timelines for the state to file chargesheets and its stringent conditions for bail, the UAPA gives the state more powers compared with the Indian Penal Code (IPC).
• Mandate: It is aimed at “more effective prevention of certain unlawful activities of individuals and associations for dealing with terrorist activities”.
• Unlawful activity: Unlawful activity means any conduct which constitutes a crime or which contravenes any law whether such conduct occurred before or after the commencement of this Act and whether such conduct occurred in the Republic or elsewhere.
• Terrorist act: Section 15 of the act defines “terrorist act” and is punishable with imprisonment for a term of at least five years to life.
• Power to central government: The Act assigns absolute power to the central government, by way of which if the Centre deems an activity as unlawful then it may, by way of an Official Gazette, declare it so.
• Applicability: The provisions of this Act apply;
  • citizens of India outside India;
  • persons in the service of the Government, wherever they may be; and
  • persons on ships and aircrafts, registered in India, wherever they may be.
• 2004 amendment: It added “terrorist act” to the list of offences, to ban organisations for terrorist activities.
  • Till 2004, “unlawful” activities referred to actions related to secession and cession of territory.
  • Following the 2004 amendment, the “terrorist act” was added to the list of offences.
• 2019 amendment: The Parliament cleared the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Bill, 2019 to designate individuals as terrorists on certain grounds provided in the Act.
  • The Act empowers the Director General of National Investigation Agency (NIA) to grant approval of seizure or attachment of property when the case is investigated by the said agency.
  • The Act empowers the officers of the NIA, of the rank of Inspector or above, to investigate cases of terrorism in addition to those conducted by the DSP or ACP or above rank officer in the state.

Criticisms associated with UAPA:

• Low conviction: According to a source, in 2018-20, as many as 4,690 people were arrested under the UAPA but only 3% were convicted.
• Sharp Rise in Use: This caution is significant given the sharp surge in the state’s use of this provision in a sweeping range of alleged offences
  • Against tribals in Chhattisgarh
  • Those using social media through proxy servers in Jammu and Kashmir; and
  • Journalists in Manipur among others.
• Ignoring Fundamental Rights: It can simply be used to bypass fundamental rights and procedures. For instance, those arrested under UAPA can be incarcerated up to 180 days without a charge sheet being filed.
  • It thus directly violates Article 21 of the constitution.
• Stringent Provision of bail: The standard for bail under the UAPA is that it cannot be granted unless the court is of the view that the accused is innocent of the alleged offence.
• It means that the onus of proof of innocence for the purpose of obtaining bail is effectively reversed. It is for the accused to show that he is innocent.
• Highly Discretionary: It confers upon the government broad discretionary powers and also authorizes the creation of special courts with the ability to use secret witnesses and to hold closed-door hearings.

Recent judgments related to the UAPA, 1967:

• A. Najeeb v. Union of India (2021): The Supreme Court concluded that, despite the UAPA’s restrictions on bail, constitutional courts can nevertheless grant bail if the accused’s fundamental rights have been violated.
• Asif Iqbal Tanha v. State of NCT (2021): The Delhi High Court carried this logic a step further saying that courts should not wait until the accused’s right to a speedy trial has been completely revoked before releasing them.
• Bikramjit Singh v. The State Of Punjab (2020): SC declared that it is a fundamental right granted to an accused person to be released on bail once the conditions of the first proviso to Section 167(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (CrPC) are met.
  • According to Section 167 (2) of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, an accused person’s imprisonment cannot be extended beyond the statutory time limit for the conclusion of the investigation.

Way Forward:

The Right to reputation is an intrinsic part of fundamental right to life with dignity under Article 21 of the Constitution of India and terming/tagging an individual as ‘terrorist’ even before the commencement of trial or any application of judicial mind over it does not adhere to procedure established by law.

The Act has indeed been the centre of several debates because of its abusive nature and lack of a proper mechanism for backup. It is up to the state, judiciary, civil society to balance constitutional freedom and the imperative of anti-terror pursuits.

Source: Indian Express

Syllabus

• Mains – GS 1 (Society)

Context: In India, internal migration, which is migration within a particular country or State, has almost always been circular.

• With rapid industrialisation, there has been a huge flow of migrants from rural areas to urban cities.

About circular migration:

• Circular migration is defined by temporary residence, potential for multiple entries, and freedom of movement between origin and destination.
• A circular migrant completes at least two loops between the origin and destination.
• India experiences substantial internal circular migration, notably from rural to urban areas, often for jobs in sectors like construction.
• According to Philippe Fargues, migration can define as circular if it meets the following criteria:
  • there is a temporary residence in the destination location ,
  • there is the possibility of multiple entries into the destination country,
  • there is a freedom of movement between the country of origin and the country of destination during the period of residence,
  • there is a legal right to stay in the destination country,
  • there is protection of migrants’ rights, and
  • if there is a healthy demand for temporary labour in the destination country.

Circular migration within India:

• In India, internal migration has almost always been circular.
• Between 2004–2005 and 2011–2012, the construction sector witnessed one of the largest net increases in employment for all workers, specifically for rural males.
• In India, the uneven development post-liberalisation, has led to a lot of inter-State migration, with States like West Bengal, Odisha and Bihar having some of the highest rates of out-migration.
• Initially, while most of the migration was to Delhi, nowadays it has increased to southern States as well.

Positive Impacts of circular migration:

• Labor Demand and Supply: Migration fills gaps in demand for and supply of labor, and efficiently allocates skilled labor, unskilled labor, and cheap labor.
• Economic Remittances: The economic well-being of migrants provides insurance against risks to households in the areas of origin, increases consumer expenditure and investment in health, education and assets formation.
• Skill Development: Migration enhances the knowledge and skills of migrants through exposure and interaction with the outside world.
• Social Remittances: Migration helps to improve the social life of migrants, as they learn about new cultures, customs, and languages which helps to improve brotherhood among people and ensures greater equality and tolerance.
• Food and Nutrition Security: According to the 2018 State of Food and Agriculture report by Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), outmigration often leads to improved food and nutrition security for migrants.
• Demographic Advantage: As a result of outmigration, the population density of the place of origin is reduced and the birth rate decreases.
• Climate Change Adaptive Mechanism: Migration has also emerged as a possible adaptive mechanism in the context of climate change and the occurrence of extreme weather events like floods, droughts, and cyclones.

Negative Impact of circular migration:

• Demographic Profile: Emigration in large numbers can alter demographic profiles of communities, as most of the young men move out, leaving only the women and elderly to work on the land.
• Political Exclusion: Migrant workers are deprived of many opportunities to exercise their political rights like the right to vote.
  • Population Explosion and the Influx of workers in the place of destination increases competition for the job, houses, school facilities etc and a large population puts too much pressure on natural resources, amenities, and services.
• Illiterate and Under-skilled Migrants are not only unfit for most jobs, because of a lack of basic knowledge and life skills but are also prone to the victimization of exploitation, trafficking, psychological abuse, and gender-based violence in the case of female migrants.
• Increased Slum: Mass Migration results into an increase in slum areas, compromising quality of infrastructure and life at the destination, which further translates into many other problems such as unhygienic conditions, crime, pollution, etc.

Challenges of circular migration:

• Worker Exploitation: In India, circular migrants, particularly to southern states, can face exploitation and unsafe working conditions.
  • They sometimes work in unsanitary conditions, with limited protective equipment, and might deal with middlemen or brokers who may take advantage of them.
• Economic Strain: Migrants often engage in low-skill jobs, earning just enough to support themselves and their families, with little room for savings or asset creation.
  • Although they may access higher-paying jobs in the destination, the work is often seasonal and irregular, leading to financial instability.
• Pressure on Society and Infrastructure: Both rural and urban areas can experience different kinds of strain.
  • Rural areas might see economic and demographic declines, while urban areas might face infrastructural breakdown due to the influx of migrants.

Steps taken by the Government for Migrant Workers:

• Prime Minister Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) Scheme: Provides affordable working capital loans to street vendors to restart their livelihoods that have been adversely affected due to the Covid-19 lockdown.
• Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana: It is a food security welfare scheme announced during the COVID-19 pandemic in India.
• Garib Kalyan Rojgar Abhiyaan (GKRA) initiative: GKRA aims to give employment to migrant workers, that has gone back to rural areas during COVID-19 migrant crisis.
• e-Shram portal: It is a centralized database of unorganized workers seeded with Aadhaar.
  • It envisages the optimum realization of their employability and extension of social security scheme benefits to them.
• National policy on migrant workers: The draft policy by NITI Aayog makes efforts to bring together different sectoral concerns related to migration, including social protection, housing, health and education.
• One Nation One Ration Card scheme: It allows migrant labourers to get ration benefits from any part of the country, irrespective of the place where their ration card is registered.
• PM Awas Yojana: A scheme to provide affordable housing for migrants too.
• Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) and Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY): Provides for life & disability cover due to natural or accidental death.
• Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY): Provides Rs.5 lakh health coverage for secondary and tertiary health benefits to those migrant workers who are covered as eligible beneficiaries as per deprivation and occupation criteria.

Source:   TH

Q1) Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Q2) Consider the following statements

Statement-I:

TIR Executive Board (TIRExB) is a subsidiary body of the TIR Administrative Committee.

Statement-II:

India became a party to the TIR Convention in 2007.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q3) With reference to the Swachhata Hi Seva Campaign, consider the following statements:

1. ‘Ek Taarikh, Ek Ghanta, Ek Saath’ cleanliness drive was organized under it.
2. It is being celebrated as a prelude to the Swachh Bharat Diwas (12^th October).
3. Cleaning of zoos, national parks, and wildlife sanctuaries are a few activities in the initiatives.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 3 only

Mains Practice Questions

Q.1) Indian government has recently strengthened the anti-terrorism laws by amending the unlawful activities (Prevention) act (UAPA), 1967 and the NIA Act. Analyze the changes in the context of prevailing security environment while discussing the scope and reasons for opposing the UAPA by human rights organizations. (250 words)

Q.2) What is Circular Migration? Discuss the challenges in addressing internal labor migration issues in India? What are the government policies taken to protect internal migrants? (250 words)

Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!!

ANSWERS FOR ’  5th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st

Q.1) – b

Q.2) – b

Q.3) – c