Syllabus

• Prelims – INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS/ GEOGRAPHY

Context: Recently, Chile became the 95th member of the International Solar Alliance.

About Chile:-

IMAGE SOURCE: maps-chile.com

• Capital: Santiago
• Geography:
  • Situated along the western seaboard of South America.
  • Chile’s relief is for the most part mountainous, with the Andes range dominating the landscape.
  • It borders Peru to the north, Bolivia to the northeast, Argentina to the east, and the Drake Passage in the south.
  • The Atacama desert is one of the driest places in the world that touches Chile on its northern side and is a source of sodium nitrate fertilizer.
  • Much of northern Chile is desert; the central part of the country is a temperate region where the bulk of the population lives and where the larger cities, including Santiago, are located.
  • South-central Chile, with a lake and forest region, is temperate, humid, and suitable for grain cultivation; and the southernmost third of the country, cut by deep fjords, is an inhospitable region—cold, wet, windy, and limited in resources.
• Climate and Natural events:
  • A land of extreme natural events: volcanic eruptions, violent earthquakes, and tsunamis.
  • Fierce winter storms and flash floods alternate with severe summer droughts.
• Economy: It is based on primary economic activities: agricultural production; copper, iron, and nitrate mining; and the exploitation of sea resources.
  • Chuquicamata is the World’s largest copper town in Chile.
  • Australia, Chile, China and Argentina are the world’s top four lithium-producing countries.

MUST READ: Renewable Energy Transition

SOURCE: AIR

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a: (2022)

1. Database created by a coalition of research organisations
2. Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change”
3. Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change”
4. Agency promoted and financed by the United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank

Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2016)

1. The International Solar Alliance was launched at the United Nations Climate Change Conference in 2015.
2. The Alliance includes all the member countries of the United Nations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Syllabus

• Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

Context: Recent genomic studies are opening new windows into understanding the complex interplay of Zika infections.

About Zika:-

• The Zika virus is a mosquito-borne flavivirus.
• It was first identified in Uganda in 1947 in monkeys.
• It was later identified in humans in 1952 in Uganda and the United Republic of Tanzania.
• Most infections in humans are asymptomatic or with mild symptoms, including fever, rash, and joint pain.

Transmission:-

• It is primarily transmitted to humans through the bite of infected Aedes mosquitoes, particularly Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus.
• It can also spread through sexual contact, blood transfusion, and from an infected mother to her baby during pregnancy or childbirth.
• The Zika virus became notorious during the 2015-2018 outbreak that swept through the Americas.
• The outbreak was characterized by an alarming increase in the number of microcephaly cases in newborns, prompting the World Health Organization to declare it a public health emergency of international concern in early 2016.

Treatment:-

• There is no vaccine or medicine for Zika.
• Instead, the focus is on relieving symptoms and includes rest, rehydration and acetaminophen for fever and pain.

MUST READ: Controlling Dengue Using Wolbachia Bacteria

SOURCE: THE HINDU

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following: (2022)

1. Aarogya Setu
2. COWIN
3. DigiLocker
4. DIKSHA

Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.2) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022)

1. The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform.
2. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform.
3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine.

Which of the statements given above is correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Syllabus

• Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

Context: Recently, Ken Mattingly, an astronaut who helped the Apollo 13 crew return safely home, died at age 87. He is best remembered for his efforts on the ground that helped bring the damaged Apollo 13 spacecraft safely back to Earth.

About Apollo 13:-

• Launched: April 11, 1970
• Launched from: Cape Canaveral, Florida.
• Agency: NASA (India – USA space cooperation)
• Rocket: Saturn V SA-508 rocket
• Seventh manned mission in the Apollo Space program (1961-1975).
• Its crew consisted of astronauts James Lovell Jr, Fred Haise Jr, and John Swigert Jr.
• Apollo 11 and 12 – the previous two missions had landed on Lunar Maria, the dark patches on the near side of the Moon which provide comparatively easier landing abilities. (Moon’s Wobble Effect)
• Apollo 13 was supposed to make a more challenging landing near the Fra Mauro, a crater which was formed as ejecta from the impact that formed the Imbrium Basin.
• While Apollo 13 did not land on the lunar surface, it was able to return with photographs that it took when it looped around the Moon.

MUST READ: Luna 25 mission

SOURCE: THE HINDU

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022)

1. GPS and navigation systems could fail.
2. Tsunamis could occur in equatorial regions.
3. Power grids could be damaged.
4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.
5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.
6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2, 4, and 5 only
2. 2, 3, 5, 6, and 7 only
3. 1, 3, 4, 6, and 7 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

Q.2) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022)

1. A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space.
2. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions.
3. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
4. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on it.

Syllabus

• Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

Context: Recently, an Egyptian Vulture was rescued and is showing signs of improvement.

About Egyptian Vulture:-

• Scientific name: Neophorn Percnopterus
• Conservation status:- IUCN – Endangered (Vulture Conservation)
• It is a native bird of Europe, Central Asia and Africa, and in winter, it travels towards Asian countries, including India.
• They feed mainly on carrion but are opportunistic and will prey on small mammals, birds, and reptiles.
• They also feed on the eggs of other birds.
• It is considerably smaller than the other vultures in Europe.
• Adult animals have a bald yellow head and throat, and a white collar.
• The plumage is a creamy white, in sharp contrast with the black wing coverts.
• Young birds are brown with paler wing coverts and slowly whiten with each mould.
• These are monogamous, migrating between breeding seasons as a pair.

MUST READ: Himalayan Vulture

SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q1. Consider the following ‘fauna: (2023)

1. Lion-tailed Macaque
2. Malabar Civet
3. Sambar Deer

How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels: (2023)

1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground.
2. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.
3. They are omnivorous.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Syllabus

• Prelims – ART AND CULTURE

In News:

• The British film ‘Catching Dust’ will be opening at the 54th International Film Festival of India (IFFI).
• The American film ‘The Featherweight’ will be the closing movie
• The Turkish film ‘About Dry Grasses’ will be the midfest movie.

About the 54th International Film Festival of India (IFFI):-

• An annual event since
• Venue: Goa
• Organized by: National Film Development Corporation of India Ltd (NFDC)
• Ministry: Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
• Recognized by the International Federation of Film Producers Associations (FIAPF) as a Competitive Feature Film Festival
• Objectives:-
  • Provide a common platform for filmmakers of the world to project their excellence in film art.
  • Contribute to the understanding and appreciation of film cultures of different nations in the context of their social and cultural ethos
  • Promote friendship and co-operation among people of the world.
• Awards:
  • Satyajit Ray Lifetime Achievement Award for Excellence in Cinema: Instituted in the name of legendry filmmaker Satyajit Ray
  • Indian Film Personality of the Year Award
  • ICFT UNESCO – Gandhi Medal Award: Given to a film reflecting UNESCO’s fundamental mandate of building peace in the minds of men and women, particularly human rights.

MUST READ: Kochi-Muziris Biennale: Art exhibition and festival

SOURCE: AIR

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023)

1. It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India.
2. The official mascot was named Thambi.
3. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.
4. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021)

1. The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’.
2. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Syllabus

• Prelims – GOVERNANCE

Context: The Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Ministry started the Training of Master Trainers and Assessors Programme under the PM Vishwakarma scheme recently.

About PM Vishwakarma scheme:-

• Launched: 2023
• Ministry: Ministry of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME)
• It is a Central Sector Scheme.

Objectives of PM Vishwakarma scheme:-

• To strengthen and nurture the Guru-Shishya parampara or family-based practice of traditional skills by artisans and craftspeople working with their hands and tools.
• To improve the quality, as well as the reach of products and services of artisans and craftspeople.
• To ensure that the Vishwakarmas are integrated with the domestic and global value chains.

IMAGE SOURCE: oneindia.com

Salient Features:-

• The artisans and craftspeople will be provided recognition through a PM Vishwakarma certificate and ID card.
• Credit Support: Credit of up to Rs.1 lakh (First Tranche) and Rs.2 lakh (Second Tranche) will be given with a concessional interest rate of 5%.
• Skill learning: The Scheme will further provide Skill Upgradation, Toolkit Incentives, Incentives for Digital Transactions, and Marketing Support.
• Training: Skill development programs encompass both basic and advanced training.
• Stipend: Participants are entitled to a stipend of Rs 500 per day during their training period.
• Modern Tools and Equipment: Beneficiaries are eligible for financial support of up to ₹15,000 to procure modern tools, enhancing their efficiency and productivity.
• Sectors: Eighteen traditional trades will be covered in the first instance under PM Vishwakarma.
• These trades include (i) Carpenter (Suthar); (ii) Boat Maker; (iii) Armourer; (iv) Blacksmith (Lohar); (v) Hammer and Tool Kit Maker; (vi) Locksmith; (vii) Goldsmith (Sonar); (viii) Potter (Kumhaar); (ix) Sculptor (Moortikar, stone carver), Stone breaker; (x) Cobbler(Charmkar)/ Shoesmith/Footwear artisan; (xi) Mason (Rajmistri); (xii) Basket/Mat/Broom Maker/Coir Weaver; (xiii) Doll & Toy Maker (Traditional); (xiv) Barber (Naai); (xv) Garland maker (Malakaar); (xvi) Washerman (Dhobi); (xvii) Tailor (Darzi); and (xviii) Fishing Net Maker.
• It caters to both urban and rural areas, facilitating employment. (MSME Sustainable (ZED) Certification Scheme)

Eligibility Criteria: –

• Indian Citizenship: Applicants must be Indian.
• Artisan or Craftsman: The applicant should be a traditional artisan or craftsman.
• Age Limit: No Age Limit for applying to the scheme. (Production Linked Incentive Scheme and its Implications)

MUST READ: PM SVANidhi scheme

SOURCE: AIR

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023)

1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents, and pregnant women.
2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth.
3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents.
4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Q.2) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements : (2018)

1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Syllabus

• Mains – GS II – INDIAN CONSTITUTION

Context: A battery of non-BJP ruled States have approached the Supreme Court accusing their Governors of using a non-existent discretion to unreasonably delay the passing of crucial Bills into law. The Bills in limbo cover sectors such as public health, higher education, Lokayukta and cooperative societies.

Governor’s Power Over State Bills:

Article 200

• Article 200 of the Indian Constitution outlines the process for a Bill passed by the Legislative Assembly of a State to be presented to the Governor for assent, who may either assent, withhold assent or reserve the Bill for consideration by the President.
• The Governor may also return the Bill with a message requesting reconsideration by the House or Houses.

Article 201

• It states that when a Bill is reserved for the consideration of the President, the President may assent to, or withhold assent from the Bill.
• The President may also direct the Governor to return the Bill to the House or Houses of the Legislature of the State for reconsideration.

Options Available with the Governor

• He may give assent, or he can send it back to the Assembly requesting it to reconsider some provisions of the Bill, or the Bill itself.
• He may reserve the bill for the consideration of the President.
• The reservation is obligatory where the bill passed by the state legislature endangers the position of the state’s High Court. However, the Governor can also reserve the bill if it is of the following nature:
  • Against the provisions of the Constitution
  • Opposed to the DPSP
  • Against the larger interest of the country
  • Of grave national importance
  • Deals with compulsory acquisition of property under Article 31A of the Constitution.
• Another option is to withhold the assent, this is the accusation being made by various state governments.
  • Example in Kerala Governor withhold his assent for over eight bills passed by its Legislative Assembly not for months, but years. Of the eight, three Bills were waiting for the Governor’s word for over two years.

Governors Discretion Power

The Supreme Court in the Shamsher Singh case verdict has held that as a formal head of the State a “Governor exercises all his powers and functions conferred on him by or under the Constitution on the aid and advice of his Council of Ministers; save in spheres where the Governor is required by or under the Constitution to exercise his functions in his discretion.”  The assent or return of the Bill does not involve the discretion of individuals occupying the Governor’s post.

1. Constitutional Discretion

• When they have to reserve the bill for the consideration of the President of India, Governors can decide on their own without the advice of the Council of Ministers
• When he has to recommend for the President’s rule in the state, he can act at his own discretion
• When he is given an additional charge as the administrator of the Union Territory, he can take actions at his own discretion
• When he has to determine the amount payable by the Government of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram to an autonomous Tribal District Council as royalty accruing from licenses for mineral exploration
• When he calls upon the Chief Minister to seek information regarding administrative and legislative affairs

1. Situational Discretion

• When he has to appoint a Chief Minister after no party has a clear majority in the election or when the incumbent dies in the office
• When he dismisses the council of ministers on an inability to prove confidence in the state legislative assembly
• When he dissolves the state legislative assembly on time when it loses its majority

Supreme Court’s Stand

• In 1972 judgment in Durga Pada Ghosh versus State of West Bengal, the Supreme Court had interpreted “as soon as possible” in Article 200 to mean “as early as practicable without avoidable delay.”
• SC in recent petition filed by the Punjab government accusing the Governor of sitting on seven key Bills related to subjects including fiscal and State-affiliated colleges, has noted that the Governors should not be oblivious of the fact that they are not elected by the people.”
• The 1988 Sarkaria Commission report on Centre-State relations had suggested consultation with the Governor while drafting the Bill and fixing a deadline for its disposal.

Conclusion

The framers of the Constitution did not anticipate Governors sitting on Bills indefinitely without taking any action under Article 200. Gubernatorial Procrastination is a new phenomenon that requires a new solution within the framework of the Constitution. Therefore, the Supreme Court should set a reasonable time frame for Governors to make a decision on a Bill passed by the Assembly in the interest of federalism in the country.

Connect the dots:

1. Whether the Supreme Court judgement can settle the political tussle between the Governors and elected governments of states? Examine.

Syllabus

•    Mains –GS III – ECONOMY

What Is Net Neutrality?

• Net neutrality is the principle that Internet access providers must treat all traffic originating from and terminating to the Internet in the same way.
• The idea has been developed by Columbia Law School professor Tim Wu, he coined the term “net neutrality” in a 2003 paper titled “Network Neutrality, Broadband Discrimination.”
• Wu proposed the concept of net neutrality to promote an even playing field on the Internet, ensuring that all data is treated equally without discrimination by Internet service providers (ISPs)

Why In News?

• The OTT consultation has renewed the clamor from the telecom companies that content providers such as Netflix, Amazon Prime, and Disney+ Hotstar be asked to share in the costs of bandwidth.
• They argue that streaming platforms are free riders, benefiting from the infrastructure built and maintained by the telecom companies.
• However, this argument is fundamentally flawed and sets a dangerous precedent that undermines the principle of net neutrality.

Argument Between Telecom And Ott

• By offering services that consumer’s desire, OTT platforms generate demand for Internet access. They also pay for the content delivery networks (CDNs) to create pathways that substantially augment the capacity of the internet to deliver their content.
• Telecom companies capitalize on this demand (and the availability of OTT content) by providing connectivity to the Internet and charging subscribers for it.
• OTT services compete in their own market on the basis of variety and quality of content, the quality of streaming (such as, support for HD or better resolution or 5.1 surround sound), ease in navigation and discovery of content, and its availability on multiple devices.
• Similarly, in the marketplace for Internet access, the consumers are free to choose the provider that offers them the highest bandwidth, data volume, and reliability at an affordable price.
• These are distinct markets because services from one are not substitutable for services in the other. Therefore, it is logical to maintain a separation of costs between these two markets.
• The attempt of telcos to double dip by charging both consumers and content providers is not only avaricious but also undermines net neutrality.

TRAI Regulations

• Net neutrality formed the basis of TRAI’s regulation on prohibition of discriminatory tariffs for data services.
• The regulator’s action forced the withdrawal of Facebook’s Free Basics platform and some other offerings in India.
• The Body of European Regulators for Electronic Communications (BEREC) and TRAI agreed through a memorandum of understanding to cooperate in developing technological and policy initiatives for net neutrality.

Penetration of Internet in India

• According to a joint report by industry body IAMAI and market data analytics firm Kantar, more than half of Indians, 759 million citizens, are active internet users and access the internet at least once a month.
• The active internet base in India is expected to grow to 900 million by 2025

OTT Subscribers In India

• Each OTT paying audience member in India has 2.4 subscriptions on an average, according to Ormax OTT Audience Sizing Report 2022.
• The consultancy firm estimates that India has 424 million OTT users.
• On the other hand, India has an approximate 150 million households with TVs, which translates to 600 million TV viewers.
• The study also showed that 72 per cent consumers in India would pay for an all-in-one platform for their entertainment services.

In addition, five in six (83 per cent) want the ability to share their streaming profiles across platforms to allow for better personalization of content.

Connect the Dots 

1.Do you think self-regulation of OTT is a appropriate step?

Q1) Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Q2) Consider the following statements

Statement-I :

Apollo 13 was the seventeenth manned mission in the Apollo Space program.

Statement-II :

It used the Saturn V SA-508 rocket.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q3) With reference to the PM Vishwakarma scheme, consider the following statements:

1. It is under the Ministry of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME).
2. It is a Centrally sponsored scheme.
3. It caters to only rural areas, facilitating employment.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1 only

Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!!

ANSWERS FOR ’  7th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st

Q.1) – a

Q.2) – c

Q.3) – a