IASbaba's Flagship Course: Integrated Learning Programme (ILP) - 2024 Read Details
Hello Friends
The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday)
Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday)
Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.
To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE
60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE
0 of 35 questions completed
Questions:
The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022.
To view Solutions, follow these instructions:
You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again.
Test is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the test.
You have to finish following test, to start this test:
0 of 35 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0)
Average score |
|
Your score |
|
Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
---|---|---|---|---|
Table is loading | ||||
No data available | ||||
Consider the following statements with respect to the Five-Year Planning (FYP) phase:
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Solution (d)
Statement 1 |
Statement 2 |
Statement 3 |
Incorrect |
Incorrect |
Incorrect |
The objective of fourth FYP (1969-74) includes “growth with stability and progressive achievement of self- reliance”. Implementation of Family Planning Programs was amongst the major targets of the Plan. | The tenth FYP (2002 – 2007) sought to double national per capita income and create a hundred million jobs in 10 years.
The 10th FYP emphasized regional imbalance and for the first time had a separate plan document on states. |
The eleventh plan (2007 – 2012) introduced the concept of inclusive growth. It focused on human resources, especially health and skill development. |
Solution (d)
Statement 1 |
Statement 2 |
Statement 3 |
Incorrect |
Incorrect |
Incorrect |
The objective of fourth FYP (1969-74) includes “growth with stability and progressive achievement of self- reliance”. Implementation of Family Planning Programs was amongst the major targets of the Plan. | The tenth FYP (2002 – 2007) sought to double national per capita income and create a hundred million jobs in 10 years.
The 10th FYP emphasized regional imbalance and for the first time had a separate plan document on states. |
The eleventh plan (2007 – 2012) introduced the concept of inclusive growth. It focused on human resources, especially health and skill development. |
Which of the following expenditures are considered as Non-Developmental expenditure?
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Solution (d)
Statement 1 |
Statement 2 |
Statement 3 |
Correct |
Correct |
Correct |
Non-developmental expenditure includes expenditures made for administrative service, defence service, debt servicing, subsidies, etc. | Non-developmental expenditure includes expenditure made on maintenance of law and order. | Cost of tax collection, cost of an audit, printing of notes, internal law and order are also included under Non-development expenditure. |
Solution (d)
Statement 1 |
Statement 2 |
Statement 3 |
Correct |
Correct |
Correct |
Non-developmental expenditure includes expenditures made for administrative service, defence service, debt servicing, subsidies, etc. | Non-developmental expenditure includes expenditure made on maintenance of law and order. | Cost of tax collection, cost of an audit, printing of notes, internal law and order are also included under Non-development expenditure. |
Consider the following pairs:
Deficit Description
How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Solution (b)
Statement 1 |
Statement 2 |
Statement 3 |
Incorrect |
Incorrect |
Correct |
Revenue deficit is the difference between revenue receipts and revenue expenditure.
Effective Revenue deficit is a new term introduced in the Union Budget 2011-12.
Effective Revenue Deficit = Revenue Deficit – Grants for the creation of capital assets. |
Primary Deficit is the difference between the current year’s fiscal deficit (Total income– Total expenditure of the government) and the interest paid on the borrowings of the previous year.
Primary Deficit = Fiscal deficit – Interest payments |
Monetized deficit is also known as the ‘net reserve bank credit to the government’. It is that part of the government deficit which is financed solely by borrowing from the RBI |
Solution (b)
Statement 1 |
Statement 2 |
Statement 3 |
Incorrect |
Incorrect |
Correct |
Revenue deficit is the difference between revenue receipts and revenue expenditure.
Effective Revenue deficit is a new term introduced in the Union Budget 2011-12.
Effective Revenue Deficit = Revenue Deficit – Grants for the creation of capital assets. |
Primary Deficit is the difference between the current year’s fiscal deficit (Total income– Total expenditure of the government) and the interest paid on the borrowings of the previous year.
Primary Deficit = Fiscal deficit – Interest payments |
Monetized deficit is also known as the ‘net reserve bank credit to the government’. It is that part of the government deficit which is financed solely by borrowing from the RBI |
With reference to the First Five-Year Plan in India, consider the following statement:
Choose the correct code:
Solution (b)
Statement 1 |
Statement 2 |
Incorrect |
Correct |
An influx of refugees, severe food shortage & mounting inflation confronted the country at the onset of the First Five-year Plan.
The Plan Focused on agriculture, price stability, power, and transport. |
The First Five-Year Plan (1951-56) kept the Growth rate target of 2.1%.
Whereas, the actual Growth rate was 3.6%.
|
Solution (b)
Statement 1 |
Statement 2 |
Incorrect |
Correct |
An influx of refugees, severe food shortage & mounting inflation confronted the country at the onset of the First Five-year Plan.
The Plan Focused on agriculture, price stability, power, and transport. |
The First Five-Year Plan (1951-56) kept the Growth rate target of 2.1%.
Whereas, the actual Growth rate was 3.6%.
|
Which of the following can lead to the condition of ‘Fiscal Slippage’ in an economy?
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (b)
Statement 1 |
Statement 2 |
Statement 3 |
Correct |
Correct |
Incorrect |
Fiscal slippage in simple terms is any deviation in expenditure from the expected. When the Government’s expenditure surpasses the expected or estimated levels, the nation might face the threat of fiscal slippage.
Farm loan waivers increase the expenditure that will lead to the condition of fiscal slippage. |
Tax rate cuts lead to a decline in tax revenue that will lead to the condition of fiscal slippage.
|
Increase in disinvestment proceed rather prevents (not lead to) the situation of fiscal slippage |
Solution (b)
Statement 1 |
Statement 2 |
Statement 3 |
Correct |
Correct |
Incorrect |
Fiscal slippage in simple terms is any deviation in expenditure from the expected. When the Government’s expenditure surpasses the expected or estimated levels, the nation might face the threat of fiscal slippage.
Farm loan waivers increase the expenditure that will lead to the condition of fiscal slippage. |
Tax rate cuts lead to a decline in tax revenue that will lead to the condition of fiscal slippage.
|
Increase in disinvestment proceed rather prevents (not lead to) the situation of fiscal slippage |
With reference to Revenue Deficit, consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (c)
Statement 1 |
Statement 2 |
Correct |
Correct |
The revenue deficit includes only such transactions that affect the current income and expenditure of the government. When the government incurs a revenue deficit, it implies that the government is dissaving and is using up the savings of the other sectors of the economy to finance a part of its consumption expenditure.
|
This situation means that the government will have to borrow not only to finance its investment but also its consumption requirements. This will lead to a build-up of stock of debt and interest liabilities and force the government, eventually, to cut expenditure. Since a major part of revenue expenditure is committed expenditure, it cannot be reduced. Often the government reduces productive capital expenditure or welfare expenditure. This would mean lower growth and adverse welfare implications. |
Solution (c)
Statement 1 |
Statement 2 |
Correct |
Correct |
The revenue deficit includes only such transactions that affect the current income and expenditure of the government. When the government incurs a revenue deficit, it implies that the government is dissaving and is using up the savings of the other sectors of the economy to finance a part of its consumption expenditure.
|
This situation means that the government will have to borrow not only to finance its investment but also its consumption requirements. This will lead to a build-up of stock of debt and interest liabilities and force the government, eventually, to cut expenditure. Since a major part of revenue expenditure is committed expenditure, it cannot be reduced. Often the government reduces productive capital expenditure or welfare expenditure. This would mean lower growth and adverse welfare implications. |
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Short Term Capital Gains Tax’ in India:
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Solution (d)
Statement 1 |
Statement 2 |
Incorrect |
Incorrect |
Short Term Capital Gains Tax (STCG) is the tax levied on profits generated from the sale of an asset which is held for a short-term period which differs for various items – for example it is 36 months or less in the case of immovable property such as land and building and 12 months or less for equity, bonds, government securities etc. | The Securities Transaction Tax (STT) is a type of direct tax which is levied at the time of purchase and sale of securities listed on stock exchanges in India. Securities are tradable investment instruments such as shares bonds, debentures, equity-oriented mutual funds (MFs) and so on and are issued either by companies or by the Indian government. This tax was introduced in the Union Budget of 2004. |
Solution (d)
Statement 1 |
Statement 2 |
Incorrect |
Incorrect |
Short Term Capital Gains Tax (STCG) is the tax levied on profits generated from the sale of an asset which is held for a short-term period which differs for various items – for example it is 36 months or less in the case of immovable property such as land and building and 12 months or less for equity, bonds, government securities etc. | The Securities Transaction Tax (STT) is a type of direct tax which is levied at the time of purchase and sale of securities listed on stock exchanges in India. Securities are tradable investment instruments such as shares bonds, debentures, equity-oriented mutual funds (MFs) and so on and are issued either by companies or by the Indian government. This tax was introduced in the Union Budget of 2004. |
Which of the following statements is correct with respect to ‘General Anti-Avoidance Rule (GAAR)’?
Solution (b)
Solution (b)
In the context of Indian economy, what is ‘Economic Capital Framework’?
Solution (b)
Solution (b)
Which of the following fiscal policy statements are required to be laid before the Parliament under the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003 (FRBMA)?
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Solution (b)
Statement 1 |
Statement 2 |
Statement 3 |
Statement 4 |
Correct |
Correct |
Incorrect |
Correct |
The FRBM Act includes the Medium Term Fiscal Policy. It sets out the three-year rolling targets for five specific fiscal indicators in relation to GDP at market prices, namely(i) Revenue Deficit, (ii) Fiscal Deficit,(iii) Effective Revenue Deficit(iv) Tax to GDP ratio and(v) Total outstanding Central Government Debt at the end of the year. |
The Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement, presented to Parliament as per the FRBM Act. The Strategy Statement outlines the strategic priorities of Government in the fiscal area for the ensuing financial year relating to taxation, expenditure, lending and investments, administered pricing, borrowings and guarantees. The Statement explains how the current policies are in conformity with sound fiscal management principles and gives the rationale for any major deviation in key fiscal measures. | The introduction of Outcome Budget is an executive action by the government. From the year 2017-18 onwards, it has been decided that the output and outcomes of the schemes of 68 Ministries and Departments will be available along with the financial outlays as a part of the Budget documents, so that clearly defined objectives and goals for each scheme can be seen by all. | The medium-term expenditure framework (MTEF) statement sets a three-year rolling target for expenditure indicators, along with specifications of underpinning assumptions and risks. This statement is presented in Parliament under Section 3 of the FRBM Act, 2003.
The statement provides an estimate of expenditure for various sectors, including education, health, rural development, energy, subsidies and pension, and so on. |
Solution (b)
Statement 1 |
Statement 2 |
Statement 3 |
Statement 4 |
Correct |
Correct |
Incorrect |
Correct |
The FRBM Act includes the Medium Term Fiscal Policy. It sets out the three-year rolling targets for five specific fiscal indicators in relation to GDP at market prices, namely(i) Revenue Deficit, (ii) Fiscal Deficit,(iii) Effective Revenue Deficit(iv) Tax to GDP ratio and(v) Total outstanding Central Government Debt at the end of the year. |
The Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement, presented to Parliament as per the FRBM Act. The Strategy Statement outlines the strategic priorities of Government in the fiscal area for the ensuing financial year relating to taxation, expenditure, lending and investments, administered pricing, borrowings and guarantees. The Statement explains how the current policies are in conformity with sound fiscal management principles and gives the rationale for any major deviation in key fiscal measures. | The introduction of Outcome Budget is an executive action by the government. From the year 2017-18 onwards, it has been decided that the output and outcomes of the schemes of 68 Ministries and Departments will be available along with the financial outlays as a part of the Budget documents, so that clearly defined objectives and goals for each scheme can be seen by all. | The medium-term expenditure framework (MTEF) statement sets a three-year rolling target for expenditure indicators, along with specifications of underpinning assumptions and risks. This statement is presented in Parliament under Section 3 of the FRBM Act, 2003.
The statement provides an estimate of expenditure for various sectors, including education, health, rural development, energy, subsidies and pension, and so on. |
Which of the following actions implemented by the government may lead to reduction in its deficit?
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (b)
Statement 1 |
Statement 2 |
Statement 3 |
Correct |
Correct |
Incorrect |
Government deficit can be reduced by an increase in taxes or reduction in expenditure. In India, the government has been trying to increase tax revenue with greater reliance on direct taxes. |
There has also been an attempt to raise receipts through the sale of shares in PSUs. |
The other way is to change the scope of the government by withdrawing from some of the areas where it operated before. Cutting back government programmes in vital areas like agriculture, education, health, poverty alleviation, etc. would adversely affect the economy. |
Solution (b)
Statement 1 |
Statement 2 |
Statement 3 |
Correct |
Correct |
Incorrect |
Government deficit can be reduced by an increase in taxes or reduction in expenditure. In India, the government has been trying to increase tax revenue with greater reliance on direct taxes. |
There has also been an attempt to raise receipts through the sale of shares in PSUs. |
The other way is to change the scope of the government by withdrawing from some of the areas where it operated before. Cutting back government programmes in vital areas like agriculture, education, health, poverty alleviation, etc. would adversely affect the economy. |
The government of a nation performs its income distribution function through which of the following mechanisms?
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (b)
Statement 1 |
Statement 2 |
Statement 3 |
Correct |
Correct |
Incorrect |
Through its tax and expenditure policy, the government attempts to bring about a distribution of income that is considered, fair by society. The government affects the personal disposable income of households by making transfer payments and collecting taxes and, therefore, can alter the income distribution. This is the distribution function. |
Transfer Payment is a payment made or income received in which no goods or services are being paid for, such as a benefit payment or subsidy. Unlike the exchange transaction which mutually benefits all the parties involved in it, the transfer payment consists of a donor and a recipient, with the donor giving up something of value without receiving anything in return. |
In any period, the level of expenditures may not be sufficient for full utilisation of labour and other resources of the economy. Since wages and prices are generally rigid downwards (they do not fall below a level), employment cannot be restored automatically. Hence, policy measures are needed to raise aggregate demand. |
Solution (b)
Statement 1 |
Statement 2 |
Statement 3 |
Correct |
Correct |
Incorrect |
Through its tax and expenditure policy, the government attempts to bring about a distribution of income that is considered, fair by society. The government affects the personal disposable income of households by making transfer payments and collecting taxes and, therefore, can alter the income distribution. This is the distribution function. |
Transfer Payment is a payment made or income received in which no goods or services are being paid for, such as a benefit payment or subsidy. Unlike the exchange transaction which mutually benefits all the parties involved in it, the transfer payment consists of a donor and a recipient, with the donor giving up something of value without receiving anything in return. |
In any period, the level of expenditures may not be sufficient for full utilisation of labour and other resources of the economy. Since wages and prices are generally rigid downwards (they do not fall below a level), employment cannot be restored automatically. Hence, policy measures are needed to raise aggregate demand. |
Which of the following is/are included in Public Debt of India?
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (b)
Statement 1 |
Statement 2 |
Statement 3 |
Correct |
Correct |
Incorrect |
In India, public debt refers to a part of the total borrowings by the Union Government which includes such items as market loans, special bearer bonds, treasury bills and special loans and securities issued by the Reserve Bank. |
It also includes the outstanding external debt.At end-March 2021, India’s external debt was placed at US$ 570.0 billion |
Public debt does not include the following items of borrowings:
· small savings, · provident funds, · other accounts, reserve funds and deposits. |
Solution (b)
Statement 1 |
Statement 2 |
Statement 3 |
Correct |
Correct |
Incorrect |
In India, public debt refers to a part of the total borrowings by the Union Government which includes such items as market loans, special bearer bonds, treasury bills and special loans and securities issued by the Reserve Bank. |
It also includes the outstanding external debt.At end-March 2021, India’s external debt was placed at US$ 570.0 billion |
Public debt does not include the following items of borrowings:
· small savings, · provident funds, · other accounts, reserve funds and deposits. |
With reference to Primary Deficit, consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (d)
Statement 1 |
Statement 2 |
Incorrect |
Incorrect |
Gross Primary deficit is defined as gross fiscal deficit minus net interest payments. Net primary deficit, is gross primary deficit minus net domestic lending. |
It excludes the burden of the past debt and shows the net increase in the government’s indebtedness due to the current year’s fiscal operations. A reduction in primary deficit is reflective of government’s efforts at bridging the fiscal gap during a financial year. |
Solution (d)
Statement 1 |
Statement 2 |
Incorrect |
Incorrect |
Gross Primary deficit is defined as gross fiscal deficit minus net interest payments. Net primary deficit, is gross primary deficit minus net domestic lending. |
It excludes the burden of the past debt and shows the net increase in the government’s indebtedness due to the current year’s fiscal operations. A reduction in primary deficit is reflective of government’s efforts at bridging the fiscal gap during a financial year. |
With reference to Minimum Alternate Tax, consider the following statements:
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (b)
Statement 1 |
Statement 2 |
Statement 3 |
Correct |
Correct |
Incorrect |
Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT) is a tax effectively introduced in India by the Finance Act of 1987, vide Section 115J of the Income Tax Act, 1961 (IT Act), to facilitate the taxation of ‘zero tax companies’ i.e., those companies which show zero or negligible income to avoid tax. It is a direct tax. |
Under MAT, such companies are made liable to pay to the government, by deeming a certain percentage of their book profit as taxable income.
However, it does not apply to any income accruing or arising to a company from life insurance business. |
The applicability of MAT extends to all types of companies, including a private company, one-person company, public limited company and Nidhi company. |
Solution (b)
Statement 1 |
Statement 2 |
Statement 3 |
Correct |
Correct |
Incorrect |
Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT) is a tax effectively introduced in India by the Finance Act of 1987, vide Section 115J of the Income Tax Act, 1961 (IT Act), to facilitate the taxation of ‘zero tax companies’ i.e., those companies which show zero or negligible income to avoid tax. It is a direct tax. |
Under MAT, such companies are made liable to pay to the government, by deeming a certain percentage of their book profit as taxable income.
However, it does not apply to any income accruing or arising to a company from life insurance business. |
The applicability of MAT extends to all types of companies, including a private company, one-person company, public limited company and Nidhi company. |
In the context of the Indian Economy, what are Ways and Means advances?
Solution (c)
Solution (c)
Consider the following statements regarding the differences between Proportional and Progressive Taxation:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (c)
Statement 1 |
Statement 2 |
Correct |
Correct |
A proportional tax is an income tax system where the same percentage of tax is levied on all taxpayers, regardless of their income. A proportional tax applies the same tax rate across low, middle, and high-income taxpayers.
Whereas, progressive taxation is based on the taxable amount of an individual’s income. They follow an accelerating schedule, so high-income earners pay more than low-income earners. |
The proportional income tax acts as an automatic stabiliser – a shock absorber because it makes disposable income, and thus consumer spending, less sensitive to fluctuations in GDP as compared to progressive taxation. When GDP rises, disposable income also rises but by less than the rise in GDP because a part of it is siphoned off as taxes. This helps limit the upward fluctuation in consumption spending. |
Solution (c)
Statement 1 |
Statement 2 |
Correct |
Correct |
A proportional tax is an income tax system where the same percentage of tax is levied on all taxpayers, regardless of their income. A proportional tax applies the same tax rate across low, middle, and high-income taxpayers.
Whereas, progressive taxation is based on the taxable amount of an individual’s income. They follow an accelerating schedule, so high-income earners pay more than low-income earners. |
The proportional income tax acts as an automatic stabiliser – a shock absorber because it makes disposable income, and thus consumer spending, less sensitive to fluctuations in GDP as compared to progressive taxation. When GDP rises, disposable income also rises but by less than the rise in GDP because a part of it is siphoned off as taxes. This helps limit the upward fluctuation in consumption spending. |
Which of the following are the quantitative methods of credit control in India?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Solution (c)
Statement 1 |
Statement 2 |
Statement 3 |
Statement 4 |
Incorrect |
Incorrect |
Correct |
Correct |
Regulation of consumer credit is a Qualitative method of money control. | Rationing Credit credit is a Qualitative method of money control. | Discount Rate Policy points to the rate of interest that is going to be paid by the banks and other financial institutions on the credits that they avail from the central bank through discount window loan procedure. This will infuse more liquidity in the market. | Open Market Operations refers to buying and selling of bonds issued by the Government in the open market.
When thes central bank want to infuse liquidity in the monetary system, it will buy government securities in the open market. |
Solution (c)
Statement 1 |
Statement 2 |
Statement 3 |
Statement 4 |
Incorrect |
Incorrect |
Correct |
Correct |
Regulation of consumer credit is a Qualitative method of money control. | Rationing Credit credit is a Qualitative method of money control. | Discount Rate Policy points to the rate of interest that is going to be paid by the banks and other financial institutions on the credits that they avail from the central bank through discount window loan procedure. This will infuse more liquidity in the market. | Open Market Operations refers to buying and selling of bonds issued by the Government in the open market.
When thes central bank want to infuse liquidity in the monetary system, it will buy government securities in the open market. |
Which of the following was/were the financial sector reforms taken up by the Government of India post the economic reforms of 1991?
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (b)
Statement 1 |
Statement 2 |
Statement 3 |
Correct |
Incorrect |
Correct |
Foreign Institutional Investors (FII), such as merchant bankers, mutual funds and pension funds, are allowed to invest in Indian financial markets. | Those banks which fulfill certain conditions have been given freedom to set up new branches without the approval of the RBI and rationalize their existing branch networks.
|
Though banks have been given permission to generate resources from India and abroad, certain managerial aspects have been retained with the RBI to safeguard the interests of the account-holders and the nation. |
Solution (b)
Statement 1 |
Statement 2 |
Statement 3 |
Correct |
Incorrect |
Correct |
Foreign Institutional Investors (FII), such as merchant bankers, mutual funds and pension funds, are allowed to invest in Indian financial markets. | Those banks which fulfill certain conditions have been given freedom to set up new branches without the approval of the RBI and rationalize their existing branch networks.
|
Though banks have been given permission to generate resources from India and abroad, certain managerial aspects have been retained with the RBI to safeguard the interests of the account-holders and the nation. |
Which of the following category of people are exempted from income tax?
Solution (a)
Solution (a)
Consider the following statements about Anthrax:
Choose the correct code:
Solution (d)
Solution (d)
It is located in the state of Tamil Nadu. It lies adjacent to the Bay of Bengal along the east coast. It is one of the major wetlands on the Coromandel Coast after Pulicat Lake. The southern part of the wetland has been reserved land since 2001. It is listed as one of Tamil Nadu’s 141 prioritised wetlands, Kazhuveli is also a wetland of international significance and a potential Ramsar site. It has a feeding ground for long-distance migrants from the cold subarctic regions of Central Asia and Siberia including Black-tailed Godwits, Eurasian Curlew, White Stork, Ruff, and Dunlin.
The above paragraph refers to which of the following?
Solution (a)
Kazhuveli Bird Sanctuary is located in the state of Tamil Nadu. It lies adjacent to the Bay of Bengal along the east coast. It is one of the major wetlands on the Coromandel Coast after Pulicat Lake. The southern part of the wetland has been reserved land since 2001. It is listed as one of Tamil Nadu’s 141 prioritised wetlands, Kazhuveli is also a wetland of international significance and a potential Ramsar site. It has a feeding ground for long-distance migrants from the cold subarctic regions of Central Asia and Siberia including Black-tailed Godwits, Eurasian Curlew, White Stork, Ruff, and Dunlin. Hence option a is correct.
Solution (a)
Kazhuveli Bird Sanctuary is located in the state of Tamil Nadu. It lies adjacent to the Bay of Bengal along the east coast. It is one of the major wetlands on the Coromandel Coast after Pulicat Lake. The southern part of the wetland has been reserved land since 2001. It is listed as one of Tamil Nadu’s 141 prioritised wetlands, Kazhuveli is also a wetland of international significance and a potential Ramsar site. It has a feeding ground for long-distance migrants from the cold subarctic regions of Central Asia and Siberia including Black-tailed Godwits, Eurasian Curlew, White Stork, Ruff, and Dunlin. Hence option a is correct.
Consider the following statements about the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (b)
Solution (b)
Consider the following statements about Pompe Disease:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (c)
Solution (c)
Consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (d)
Solution (d)
Consider the following statements about the European Free Trade Association (EFTA):
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (b)
Note: Customs unions are groups of countries that apply one common system of procedures, rules, and tariffs for all or almost all their imports, exports, and transit goods. Usually, countries participating in customs unions share common trade and competition policies.
Solution (b)
Note: Customs unions are groups of countries that apply one common system of procedures, rules, and tariffs for all or almost all their imports, exports, and transit goods. Usually, countries participating in customs unions share common trade and competition policies.
Consider the following statements about Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs):
Choose the correct code:
Solution (c)
Solution (c)
Consider the following statements:
Choose the correct code:
Solution (a)
Solution (a)
Consider the following statements:
Choose the correct code:
Solution (d)
Solution (d)
Consider the following statements about Chousingha:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (b)
Solution (b)
The diagonal of a rectangle is √21 cm and its area is 50 sq. cm. What is the perimeter of the rectangle? (Note – Diagonal equals the square root of the width squared plus the height squared)
Solution (b)
For a rectangle, d^2 = l^2 + b^2 where l= length, b = breadth and d = diagonal of the of the rectangle
d= √21
d^2 = l^2 + b^2
l^2 + b^2= 21 ….. (1)
Area = l × b = 50 …..(2)
We know that (a+b)^2 = a^2 + b^2 + 2ab
Using the same formula, we have
(l+b)^2 = l^2 + b^2 + 2lb
(l+b)^2 = 21 + 2*50
(l+b) = 11
Perimeter of the rectangle = 2(l + b)
= 2(11)
= 22 cm
Solution (b)
For a rectangle, d^2 = l^2 + b^2 where l= length, b = breadth and d = diagonal of the of the rectangle
d= √21
d^2 = l^2 + b^2
l^2 + b^2= 21 ….. (1)
Area = l × b = 50 …..(2)
We know that (a+b)^2 = a^2 + b^2 + 2ab
Using the same formula, we have
(l+b)^2 = l^2 + b^2 + 2lb
(l+b)^2 = 21 + 2*50
(l+b) = 11
Perimeter of the rectangle = 2(l + b)
= 2(11)
= 22 cm
A and B playing a game with rolling a fare dice, one after the other replacing it every time till one of them gets a six. If A begins the game, then the probability that A wins the game is
Solution (c)
Let S denote the success (getting a ‘6’) and F denote the failure (not getting a ‘6’) . Thus, P(S)= 1/6 ​ =p,
P(F)= 5/6​ =q
P(A wins in first throw)=P(S)=p P(A wins in third throw)=P(FFS)=qqp P(A wins in fifth throw)=P(FFFFS)=qqqqp
So, P(A wins)=p+qqp+qqqqp+… =p(1+q^2 +q^4 +…) = 1−q^2 p ​ = (1/6)/(1− 25/36) ​ ​ = 6/11
​ P(B wins)=1–P(A wins) P(B wins) =1− 6/11 ​ = 5/11 ​
So, P(A wins)= 6/11 ​ , P(B wins)= 5/11
Solution (c)
Let S denote the success (getting a ‘6’) and F denote the failure (not getting a ‘6’) . Thus, P(S)= 1/6 ​ =p,
P(F)= 5/6​ =q
P(A wins in first throw)=P(S)=p P(A wins in third throw)=P(FFS)=qqp P(A wins in fifth throw)=P(FFFFS)=qqqqp
So, P(A wins)=p+qqp+qqqqp+… =p(1+q^2 +q^4 +…) = 1−q^2 p ​ = (1/6)/(1− 25/36) ​ ​ = 6/11
​ P(B wins)=1–P(A wins) P(B wins) =1− 6/11 ​ = 5/11 ​
So, P(A wins)= 6/11 ​ , P(B wins)= 5/11
When a particular positive number is divided by 3, the remainder is 1. If the same number is divided by 5, the remainder is 4. If the difference between the quotients of the division is 3, then find the number.
Solution (b)
Let the quotients when this number is divided by 3 and 5 be x and y respectively. (Note that x will be greater than y as 3 is smaller than 5)
Number = 3x + 1 = 5y + 4
Given that, x – y = 3
On solving both equation we get, x = 6, y=3 Thus the number is 5 × 3 + 4= 19.
Solution (b)
Let the quotients when this number is divided by 3 and 5 be x and y respectively. (Note that x will be greater than y as 3 is smaller than 5)
Number = 3x + 1 = 5y + 4
Given that, x – y = 3
On solving both equation we get, x = 6, y=3 Thus the number is 5 × 3 + 4= 19.
In 10 years, A will be thrice as old as B was 5 years ago. If A is now 9 years older than B, the present age of B is
Solution (c)
Let B’s present age = x years.
Then, A’s present age = (x + 9) years.
(x + 9) + 10 = 3(x – 5)
=> x + 19 = 3x – 15
=> x =17
Solution (c)
Let B’s present age = x years.
Then, A’s present age = (x + 9) years.
(x + 9) + 10 = 3(x – 5)
=> x + 19 = 3x – 15
=> x =17
Out of the four annual examinations, each with a total of 100 marks, a student secured average marks of 35%, 65% and 50% in the first, second and third annual examinations. To have an overall average of 60%, how many marks does the student need to secure in the fourth annual examination?
Solution (d)
Let the average marks in the third Annual examination be x.
Total marks = (Marks in first + second + third + forth) Annual examination
= > 4(60) ( 100/100) = ( 35/100) (100) + ( 65/100) (100) + ( 50/100) (100) + ( x/100) (100)
=> 4(60) = 35 + 65 +50 + x =>x = 90
So, the student must score 90% in the fourth annual examination to secure 60% overall average.
∴ Average marks in the third annual examination (90/100) × 100 = 90 marks.
Solution (d)
Let the average marks in the third Annual examination be x.
Total marks = (Marks in first + second + third + forth) Annual examination
= > 4(60) ( 100/100) = ( 35/100) (100) + ( 65/100) (100) + ( 50/100) (100) + ( x/100) (100)
=> 4(60) = 35 + 65 +50 + x =>x = 90
So, the student must score 90% in the fourth annual examination to secure 60% overall average.
∴ Average marks in the third annual examination (90/100) × 100 = 90 marks.
All the Best
IASbaba