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Question 1 of 35
1. Question
Which of the following is included under the Gross cropped area
Net sown area
Current fallow lands
Area sown more than once in an agricultural year
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3 only
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Incorrect
Correct
Net sown area
Area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus the net sown area is known as gross cropped area.
Fallow lands are not part of gross cropped area.
Current fallow – (left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year)
Other than the current fallow – (left uncultivated for the past 1 to 5 agricultural years
Gross cropped area
● Area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus the net sown area is known as gross cropped area.
● Gross Cropped Area (GCA) is the total area sown once as well as more than once in a particular year.
Example: When the crop is sown on a piece of land twice a year, then the area is counted twice while calculating the Gross Cropped Area (GCA) Land resources are used for the following purposes
● Forests
● Land not available for cultivation
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Incorrect
Correct
Net sown area
Area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus the net sown area is known as gross cropped area.
Fallow lands are not part of gross cropped area.
Current fallow – (left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year)
Other than the current fallow – (left uncultivated for the past 1 to 5 agricultural years
Gross cropped area
● Area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus the net sown area is known as gross cropped area.
● Gross Cropped Area (GCA) is the total area sown once as well as more than once in a particular year.
Example: When the crop is sown on a piece of land twice a year, then the area is counted twice while calculating the Gross Cropped Area (GCA) Land resources are used for the following purposes
● Forests
● Land not available for cultivation
Question 2 of 35
2. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to wheat cultivation
It requires a cool growing season and bright sunshine at the time of ripening
Wheat is also grown in the black soil region of the Deccan.
Aus, Aman, and Boro are the three important varieties of wheat grown in India
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Correct
Incorrect
Wheat is the second most important cereal crop after rice. It is the main food crop in the North and NorthWestern parts of the country.
This rabi crop requires a cool growing season and bright sunshine at the time of ripening.
● It requires 50 to 75 cm of annual rainfall evenly distributed over the growing season.
There are two important wheat-growing zones in the country – the Ganga-Satluj plains in the North-West and the black soil region of the Deccan.
● The major wheat-producing states are Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, and Rajasthan.
Recently, paddy has also become an important crop in Punjab and Haryana. In states like Assam, West Bengal, and Odisha, three crops of paddy are grown in a year namely, Aus Aman and Boro (these are not varieties of wheat)
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Correct
Incorrect
Wheat is the second most important cereal crop after rice. It is the main food crop in the North and NorthWestern parts of the country.
This rabi crop requires a cool growing season and bright sunshine at the time of ripening.
● It requires 50 to 75 cm of annual rainfall evenly distributed over the growing season.
There are two important wheat-growing zones in the country – the Ganga-Satluj plains in the North-West and the black soil region of the Deccan.
● The major wheat-producing states are Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, and Rajasthan.
Recently, paddy has also become an important crop in Punjab and Haryana. In states like Assam, West Bengal, and Odisha, three crops of paddy are grown in a year namely, Aus Aman and Boro (these are not varieties of wheat)
Question 3 of 35
3. Question
It is an equatorial crop, but under special conditions, it is also grown in tropical and sub-tropical areas. It requires a moist and humid climate with rainfall of more than 200 cm and temperatures above 25°C. It is mainly grown in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Andaman Nicobar Islands, and the Garo hills of Meghalaya.
The above description refers to which among the following crops?
a) Sugarcane
b) Rubber
c) Tea
d) Rice
Correct
Solution (b)
RUBBER
It is an equatorial crop, but under special conditions, it is also grown in tropical and sub-tropical areas. It requires a moist and humid climate with rainfall of more than 200 cm and temperature above 25°C. The rainfall should be well distributed throughout the year.
Rubber is an important industrial raw material that is mainly grown in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Andaman, Nicobar Islands, and the Garo hills of Meghalaya.
Rubber tree (Heveabrasiliensis) is a quick-growing tall tree acquiring 20-30 meters in height. It begins to yield latex in 5-7 years after planting.
Dry Spell and low temperatures are harmful. Deep well-drained loamy soils on the hill slopes at elevations ranging from 300 to 450 meters above sea level provide the best conditions for its growth.
Top Rubber Producing States: Kerala > Tamil Nadu > Karnataka
Incorrect
Solution (b)
RUBBER
It is an equatorial crop, but under special conditions, it is also grown in tropical and sub-tropical areas. It requires a moist and humid climate with rainfall of more than 200 cm and temperature above 25°C. The rainfall should be well distributed throughout the year.
Rubber is an important industrial raw material that is mainly grown in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Andaman, Nicobar Islands, and the Garo hills of Meghalaya.
Rubber tree (Heveabrasiliensis) is a quick-growing tall tree acquiring 20-30 meters in height. It begins to yield latex in 5-7 years after planting.
Dry Spell and low temperatures are harmful. Deep well-drained loamy soils on the hill slopes at elevations ranging from 300 to 450 meters above sea level provide the best conditions for its growth.
Top Rubber Producing States: Kerala > Tamil Nadu > Karnataka
Question 4 of 35
4. Question
Consider the following statements regarding coffee production in India
Majority of Indian coffee is grown in the shade area rather than under direct sunlight.
The traditional coffee growing regions are Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
White stem borer is the most serious pest of Robusta coffee in India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Correct
Incorrect
Direct sunlight is harmful for coffee plants; therefore, these are planted under shade of taller trees such as bananas, Orange, Cardamon and Pepper vines. In parts of Madikeri and Chikkamangaluru of Karnataka, leguminous plants are used which not only provide shade but also enrich soil with nitrogen.
Coffee is largely produced in the southern part of India. Karnataka is the largest producer accounting for about 70% of the total coffee production in India. Kerala is the second-largest producer of coffee but lags far behind, accounting only for about 23% of the total production. Tamil Nadu is the third-largest producer, where India’s 6% of the coffee is produced. Nearly half of Tamil Nadu’s coffee is made in the Nilgiri district, a major Arabica growing region. Orissa and the northeastern areas have a smaller proportion of production.
White stem borer is the most serious pest of Arabica coffee in India.
White stem borer in coffee Coffee white stem borer (Xylotrechus quadripes) is a serious pest of arabica coffee causing a yield loss up to 40 per cent in all coffee growing areas of India.
It is a blackish brown coloured beetle with three pairs of white stripes. The other plants on which this pest attack are rose sandal wood, teak etc. Infested plants show yellowing and wilting of leaves, presence of ridges on the stem, wilting of branches and occasional drying
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Correct
Incorrect
Direct sunlight is harmful for coffee plants; therefore, these are planted under shade of taller trees such as bananas, Orange, Cardamon and Pepper vines. In parts of Madikeri and Chikkamangaluru of Karnataka, leguminous plants are used which not only provide shade but also enrich soil with nitrogen.
Coffee is largely produced in the southern part of India. Karnataka is the largest producer accounting for about 70% of the total coffee production in India. Kerala is the second-largest producer of coffee but lags far behind, accounting only for about 23% of the total production. Tamil Nadu is the third-largest producer, where India’s 6% of the coffee is produced. Nearly half of Tamil Nadu’s coffee is made in the Nilgiri district, a major Arabica growing region. Orissa and the northeastern areas have a smaller proportion of production.
White stem borer is the most serious pest of Arabica coffee in India.
White stem borer in coffee Coffee white stem borer (Xylotrechus quadripes) is a serious pest of arabica coffee causing a yield loss up to 40 per cent in all coffee growing areas of India.
It is a blackish brown coloured beetle with three pairs of white stripes. The other plants on which this pest attack are rose sandal wood, teak etc. Infested plants show yellowing and wilting of leaves, presence of ridges on the stem, wilting of branches and occasional drying
Question 5 of 35
5. Question
Which of the following is/are plantation crops?
Cashew
Coffee
Banana
Cotton
Sugarcane
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 2, 3, and 5 only
b) 2, 3, 4, and 5 only
c) 1, 2, 3, and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Correct
Solution (d)
The term plantation crop refers to those crops which are cultivated on an extensive scale
Plantations are a type of commercial farming where a single crop of tea, coffee, sugarcane, cashew, rubber, banana, or cotton is grown. The term plantation crop refers to those crops which are cultivated on an extensive scale
Large amounts of labour and capital are required.
The produce may be processed on the farm itself or in nearby factories. The development of a transport network is thus essential for such farming.
Major plantations are found in the tropical regions of the world. Rubber in Malaysia, coffee in Brazil, and tea in India and Sri Lanka are some examples.
These are high-value commercial crops of greater economic importance and play a vital role in improving the Indian economy, especially given their export potential and employment generation.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
The term plantation crop refers to those crops which are cultivated on an extensive scale
Plantations are a type of commercial farming where a single crop of tea, coffee, sugarcane, cashew, rubber, banana, or cotton is grown. The term plantation crop refers to those crops which are cultivated on an extensive scale
Large amounts of labour and capital are required.
The produce may be processed on the farm itself or in nearby factories. The development of a transport network is thus essential for such farming.
Major plantations are found in the tropical regions of the world. Rubber in Malaysia, coffee in Brazil, and tea in India and Sri Lanka are some examples.
These are high-value commercial crops of greater economic importance and play a vital role in improving the Indian economy, especially given their export potential and employment generation.
Question 6 of 35
6. Question
Consider the following pairs regarding the local names of shifting cultivation across the world
Milpa – Mexico
Jhumming – Malaysia
Ladang – Brazil
Roca – India
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Correct
Solution (a)
Shifting cultivation is known by different names in different parts of the world Shifting cultivation is practised in the thickly forested areas of the Amazon basin, tropical Africa, parts of Southeast Asia, and Northeast India.
These are the areas of heavy rainfall and quick regeneration of vegetation.
A plot of land is cleared by felling the trees and burning them. The ashes are then mixed with the soil and crops like maize, yam, potatoes, and cassava are grown.
After the soil loses its fertility, the land is abandoned and the cultivator moves to a new plot.
Shifting cultivation is also known as ‘slash-and-burn agriculture.
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Statement 4
correct
Incorrect
Incorrect
Incorrect
Milpa – Mexico
Jhum – North-East India
Ladang – Malaysia
Roca – Brazil.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Shifting cultivation is known by different names in different parts of the world Shifting cultivation is practised in the thickly forested areas of the Amazon basin, tropical Africa, parts of Southeast Asia, and Northeast India.
These are the areas of heavy rainfall and quick regeneration of vegetation.
A plot of land is cleared by felling the trees and burning them. The ashes are then mixed with the soil and crops like maize, yam, potatoes, and cassava are grown.
After the soil loses its fertility, the land is abandoned and the cultivator moves to a new plot.
Shifting cultivation is also known as ‘slash-and-burn agriculture.
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Statement 4
correct
Incorrect
Incorrect
Incorrect
Milpa – Mexico
Jhum – North-East India
Ladang – Malaysia
Roca – Brazil.
Question 7 of 35
7. Question
Consider the following pairs
Pisciculture – Cultivation of grapes
Sericulture – Rearing of honey bees
Viticulture – Rearing of silkworms
Apiculture – Breeding of fish in specially constructed tanks and ponds.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) None
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Statement 4
Incorrect
Incorrect
Incorrect
Incorrect
Pisciculture: Breeding of fish in specially constructed tanks and ponds.
The breeding, rearing, and transplantation of fish by artificial means is called pisciculture. Pisciculture is a process of growing fish and selling it or using its products for domestic or commercial use.
Sericulture: Commercial rearing of silkworms. It may supplement the income of the farmer.
Sericulture is an alternate crop to tobacco, maize, etc., which gives frequent returns to a farmer in every alternate month by an income of Rs.35000/- to Rs.45000/- per crop, such crops can be harvested 4 to 5 in a year per acre. So that the farmer can sustain his family economically.
Viticulture: Cultivation of grapes.
Viticulture is the study and practice of cultivating grapevines, usually with the overall goal of producing fruit that is suitable for some specific end purpose.
Apiculture: Rearing of honey bees
The scientific method of rearing honey bees is called apiculture. It is also called beekeeping, where bees are bred commercially in apiaries, are well maintained, taken care of and managed, to produce wax and honey.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Statement 4
Incorrect
Incorrect
Incorrect
Incorrect
Pisciculture: Breeding of fish in specially constructed tanks and ponds.
The breeding, rearing, and transplantation of fish by artificial means is called pisciculture. Pisciculture is a process of growing fish and selling it or using its products for domestic or commercial use.
Sericulture: Commercial rearing of silkworms. It may supplement the income of the farmer.
Sericulture is an alternate crop to tobacco, maize, etc., which gives frequent returns to a farmer in every alternate month by an income of Rs.35000/- to Rs.45000/- per crop, such crops can be harvested 4 to 5 in a year per acre. So that the farmer can sustain his family economically.
Viticulture: Cultivation of grapes.
Viticulture is the study and practice of cultivating grapevines, usually with the overall goal of producing fruit that is suitable for some specific end purpose.
Apiculture: Rearing of honey bees
The scientific method of rearing honey bees is called apiculture. It is also called beekeeping, where bees are bred commercially in apiaries, are well maintained, taken care of and managed, to produce wax and honey.
Question 8 of 35
8. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to organic farming
It makes use of organic manure and natural pesticides instead of chemical fertilizers and pesticides.
Genetic modification is done to increase the yield of the crop
It aims to protect the long-term fertility of the soil by encouraging soil biological activity.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Incorrect
Correct
Organic farming is a method of the farming system aimed at cultivating the land and raising crops in such a way, as to keep the soil alive and in good health by use of organic wastes (crop, animal and farm wastes, aquatic wastes) and other biological materials along with beneficial microbes (biofertilizers) to release nutrients to crops for increased sustainable production in an eco-friendly pollution free environment.
In this type of farming, organic manure and natural pesticides are used instead of chemicals
No genetic modification is done to increase the yield of the crop.
Protecting the long-term fertility of soils by maintaining organic matter levels, encouraging soil biological activity, and careful mechanical intervention
● Nitrogen self-sufficiency through the use of legumes and biological nitrogen fixation, as well as effective recycling of organic materials including crop residues and livestock manure
● Weed, disease, and pest control relying primarily on crop rotations, natural predators, diversity, organic manuring, resistant varieties, and limited (preferably minimal) thermal, biological, and chemical intervention
● The extensive management of livestock, paying full regard to their evolutionary adaptations, behavioural needs, and animal welfare issues with respect to nutrition, housing, health, breeding, and rearing
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Incorrect
Correct
Organic farming is a method of the farming system aimed at cultivating the land and raising crops in such a way, as to keep the soil alive and in good health by use of organic wastes (crop, animal and farm wastes, aquatic wastes) and other biological materials along with beneficial microbes (biofertilizers) to release nutrients to crops for increased sustainable production in an eco-friendly pollution free environment.
In this type of farming, organic manure and natural pesticides are used instead of chemicals
No genetic modification is done to increase the yield of the crop.
Protecting the long-term fertility of soils by maintaining organic matter levels, encouraging soil biological activity, and careful mechanical intervention
● Nitrogen self-sufficiency through the use of legumes and biological nitrogen fixation, as well as effective recycling of organic materials including crop residues and livestock manure
● Weed, disease, and pest control relying primarily on crop rotations, natural predators, diversity, organic manuring, resistant varieties, and limited (preferably minimal) thermal, biological, and chemical intervention
● The extensive management of livestock, paying full regard to their evolutionary adaptations, behavioural needs, and animal welfare issues with respect to nutrition, housing, health, breeding, and rearing
Question 9 of 35
9. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Green Revolution’.
It was characterized by the use of genetically modified seeds.
It promoted dependence on chemical fertilizers.
It brought with itself inter-regional inequalities too.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Incorrect
correct
correct
The Green Revolution was centered around the use of the High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds (and not genetically modified). These seeds were popularly called the ‘dwarf’ variety of seeds.
The level of nutrients HYV seeds required could not be supplied with the traditional compost because they have a low concentration of nutrients. Hence, high-concentration fertilizers were required—urea (N), phosphate (P), and potash (K).
The methods undertaken under the green revolution were region-specific and limited only to Haryana, Punjab, and western Uttar Pradesh. Thus, while north-western regions developed, the regions in the northern plains like Bihar, and Odisha were not focused upon. This has increased the inter-regional disparities in India.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Incorrect
correct
correct
The Green Revolution was centered around the use of the High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds (and not genetically modified). These seeds were popularly called the ‘dwarf’ variety of seeds.
The level of nutrients HYV seeds required could not be supplied with the traditional compost because they have a low concentration of nutrients. Hence, high-concentration fertilizers were required—urea (N), phosphate (P), and potash (K).
The methods undertaken under the green revolution were region-specific and limited only to Haryana, Punjab, and western Uttar Pradesh. Thus, while north-western regions developed, the regions in the northern plains like Bihar, and Odisha were not focused upon. This has increased the inter-regional disparities in India.
Question 10 of 35
10. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to the Cropping patterns in India:
The tea plantations require a warm and moist, frost-free climate throughout the year.
The black soil region of the Deccan is an important wheat-growing region in India.
Barley and mustard are Rabi Crops which are aided in growth by western temperate cyclones.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
correct
Correct
Correct
Tea is a plantation crop used as a beverage. It is grown over the undulating topography of hilly areas. The tea plant grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates endowed with deep and fertile well-drained soil, rich in humus and organic matter. Tea bushes require a warm and moist frost-free climate all through the year. Frequent showers evenly distributed over the year ensure continuous growth of tender leaves. Tea is a labour-intensive industry It requires abundant labour as well.
There are two important wheat-growing zones in the country – the Ganga- Satluj plains in the northwest and the black soil region of the Deccan. The major wheat-producing states are Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan and parts of Madhya Pradesh.
Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer from April to June. Some of the important rabi crops are wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard. The availability of precipitation during winter months due to the western temperate cyclones helps in the success of these crops.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
correct
Correct
Correct
Tea is a plantation crop used as a beverage. It is grown over the undulating topography of hilly areas. The tea plant grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates endowed with deep and fertile well-drained soil, rich in humus and organic matter. Tea bushes require a warm and moist frost-free climate all through the year. Frequent showers evenly distributed over the year ensure continuous growth of tender leaves. Tea is a labour-intensive industry It requires abundant labour as well.
There are two important wheat-growing zones in the country – the Ganga- Satluj plains in the northwest and the black soil region of the Deccan. The major wheat-producing states are Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan and parts of Madhya Pradesh.
Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer from April to June. Some of the important rabi crops are wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard. The availability of precipitation during winter months due to the western temperate cyclones helps in the success of these crops.
Question 11 of 35
11. Question
Consider the following statements.
Tea plantations require well-drained soil, rich in humus and organic matter.
The tea plant grows in tropical and subtropical climates.
In India, tea plantations are only in Assam, the hills of Darjeeling, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Correct
Incorrect
The tea plant grows well in well-drained fertile soil that is rich in humus and organic matter. Tea bushes require a warm and moist frost-free climate all through the year. Frequent showers evenly distributed over the year ensure the continuous growth of tender leaves.
Tea cultivation is an example of plantation agriculture.
The tea plant grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates endowed with deep and fertile well-drained soil,
Major tea-producing states are Assam, the hills of Darjeeling and Jalpaiguri districts, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala. Apart from these, Himachal Pradesh, Uttaranchal, Meghalaya, Andhra Pradesh, and Tripura are also tea-producing states in the country.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Correct
Incorrect
The tea plant grows well in well-drained fertile soil that is rich in humus and organic matter. Tea bushes require a warm and moist frost-free climate all through the year. Frequent showers evenly distributed over the year ensure the continuous growth of tender leaves.
Tea cultivation is an example of plantation agriculture.
The tea plant grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates endowed with deep and fertile well-drained soil,
Major tea-producing states are Assam, the hills of Darjeeling and Jalpaiguri districts, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala. Apart from these, Himachal Pradesh, Uttaranchal, Meghalaya, Andhra Pradesh, and Tripura are also tea-producing states in the country.
Question 12 of 35
12. Question
Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in –
a) desert margins, liable to strong wind action
b) low flat plains, close to stream courses, liable to flooding
c) scrublands, liable to spread of weed growth
d) None of the above
Correct
Solution (d)
Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in employed in hilly areas.
Earthen embankments are built across the slope of the land, following the contour as close as possible.
This helps in reducing the flow of water down the slope.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in employed in hilly areas.
Earthen embankments are built across the slope of the land, following the contour as close as possible.
This helps in reducing the flow of water down the slope.
Question 13 of 35
13. Question
Match the following crops according to the types of tillage used:
Tillages Crops
Deep Tillage – Cotton
Subsoiling – Pigeon pea
Year-Round tillage – Paddy
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) None
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Incorrect
Incorrect
Correct
Deep ploughing turns out large-sized clods, which are baked by the hot sun when it is done in summer. These clods crumble due to alternate heating and cooling and due to occasional summer showers. This process of the gradual disintegration of clods improves soil structure. The rhizomes and tubers of perennial weeds (the world’s problematic weeds viz., Cynodon dactylon and Cyperus rotundus) die due to exposure to the hot sun. Summer deep ploughing kills pests due to exposure of pupae to the hot sun.
A deep tillage of 25-30 cm depth is necessary for a deep-rooted crop like pigeon pea while moderate deep tillage of 15-20 cm is required for maize.
Deep tillage also improves soil moisture content. However, the advantage of deep tillage in dry farming conditions depends on rainfall patterns and crops.
It is advisable to go for deep ploughing only for long-duration, deep-rooted crops. Depth of ploughing should be related to the amount of rainfall that can wet
Hard pans may be present in the soil which restricts the root growth of crops. These may be silt pans, iron or aluminium pans, clay pans, or -man-made pans. Man-made pans are tillage pans induced by repeated tillage at the same depth. Root growth of crops is confined to the top few centimetres of soil where deep penetration of roots is inhibited by hard pans.
For example, cotton roots grow to a depth of 2 m in deep alluvial soil without any pans. When hard pans are present, they grow only up to hard pans, say 15-20 cm. Similarly, the vertical root growth of sugarcane is restricted due to hard pans and it is not compensated by the horizontal spread. Subsoiling is breaking the hard pan without inversion and with less disturbance of topsoil. A narrow cut is made in the topsoil while a share of the subsoiler shatters hard pans. Chisel ploughs are also used to break hard pans present even at 60-70 cm. The effect of subsoiling does not last long. To avoid the closing of subsoil furrow, vertical mulching is adopted.
Tillage operations carried out throughout the year are known as year-round tillage. In dry farming regions, field preparation is initiated with the help of summer showers. Repeated tillage operations are carried out until the sowing of the crop. Even after harvesting the crop, the field is repeatedly ploughed or harrowed to avoid weed growth in the off-season.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Incorrect
Incorrect
Correct
Deep ploughing turns out large-sized clods, which are baked by the hot sun when it is done in summer. These clods crumble due to alternate heating and cooling and due to occasional summer showers. This process of the gradual disintegration of clods improves soil structure. The rhizomes and tubers of perennial weeds (the world’s problematic weeds viz., Cynodon dactylon and Cyperus rotundus) die due to exposure to the hot sun. Summer deep ploughing kills pests due to exposure of pupae to the hot sun.
A deep tillage of 25-30 cm depth is necessary for a deep-rooted crop like pigeon pea while moderate deep tillage of 15-20 cm is required for maize.
Deep tillage also improves soil moisture content. However, the advantage of deep tillage in dry farming conditions depends on rainfall patterns and crops.
It is advisable to go for deep ploughing only for long-duration, deep-rooted crops. Depth of ploughing should be related to the amount of rainfall that can wet
Hard pans may be present in the soil which restricts the root growth of crops. These may be silt pans, iron or aluminium pans, clay pans, or -man-made pans. Man-made pans are tillage pans induced by repeated tillage at the same depth. Root growth of crops is confined to the top few centimetres of soil where deep penetration of roots is inhibited by hard pans.
For example, cotton roots grow to a depth of 2 m in deep alluvial soil without any pans. When hard pans are present, they grow only up to hard pans, say 15-20 cm. Similarly, the vertical root growth of sugarcane is restricted due to hard pans and it is not compensated by the horizontal spread. Subsoiling is breaking the hard pan without inversion and with less disturbance of topsoil. A narrow cut is made in the topsoil while a share of the subsoiler shatters hard pans. Chisel ploughs are also used to break hard pans present even at 60-70 cm. The effect of subsoiling does not last long. To avoid the closing of subsoil furrow, vertical mulching is adopted.
Tillage operations carried out throughout the year are known as year-round tillage. In dry farming regions, field preparation is initiated with the help of summer showers. Repeated tillage operations are carried out until the sowing of the crop. Even after harvesting the crop, the field is repeatedly ploughed or harrowed to avoid weed growth in the off-season.
Question 14 of 35
14. Question
Consider the following crops
Cotton
Groundnut
Rice
Wheat
Which of these are Kharif crops?
a) 1 and 4
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2, 3 and 4
Correct
Solution (c)
The kharif cropping season is from July –October during the south-west monsoon. The kharif crops include rice, maize, sorghum, pearl millet/bajra, finger millet/ragi (cereals), arhar (pulses), soyabean, groundnut (oilseeds), cotton etc.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
The kharif cropping season is from July –October during the south-west monsoon. The kharif crops include rice, maize, sorghum, pearl millet/bajra, finger millet/ragi (cereals), arhar (pulses), soyabean, groundnut (oilseeds), cotton etc.
Question 15 of 35
15. Question
Consider the following statements with regards to the footloose Industries:
They are largely dependent on component parts which can be obtained anywhere.
Footloose industries significantly contribute to pollution in the region.
These industries should be located in remote areas.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (a)
The footloose industry is a general term for an industry that can be placed and located at any location without effect from factors such as resources or transport.
Statement 1
Statement 2 and Statement 3
Correct
Incorrect
Footloose industries can be located in a wide variety of places. They are not dependent on any specific raw material, weight loss, or otherwise. They largely depend on component parts that can be obtained anywhere.
The reason for the growth of footloose industries lies in the rapid development of highly sophisticated products requiring a great deal of scientific research and development. Footloose industries enable quick product improvement of their products to suit the market demand.
Characteristic features of footloose Industries which favor the free choice of location:
o light industries that often do not use raw materials but component parts
o power requirements, usually only electricity — available from the national grid
o the end product is small and often cheaper and easier to move;
o employs a small labor force
o non-polluting industries which can be located near residential areas
o accessibility – needs to be near a road network
Incorrect
Solution (a)
The footloose industry is a general term for an industry that can be placed and located at any location without effect from factors such as resources or transport.
Statement 1
Statement 2 and Statement 3
Correct
Incorrect
Footloose industries can be located in a wide variety of places. They are not dependent on any specific raw material, weight loss, or otherwise. They largely depend on component parts that can be obtained anywhere.
The reason for the growth of footloose industries lies in the rapid development of highly sophisticated products requiring a great deal of scientific research and development. Footloose industries enable quick product improvement of their products to suit the market demand.
Characteristic features of footloose Industries which favor the free choice of location:
o light industries that often do not use raw materials but component parts
o power requirements, usually only electricity — available from the national grid
o the end product is small and often cheaper and easier to move;
o employs a small labor force
o non-polluting industries which can be located near residential areas
o accessibility – needs to be near a road network
Question 16 of 35
16. Question
Consider the following pairs concerning methods involved in the extraction of minerals
Open cast mining – Boring deep wells to take out minerals from far below the Earth’s surface
Drilling – Digging out minerals near the surface
Shaft Mining – Minerals at shallow depths are taken out by removing the Surface layer
Quarrying – Deep bores to reach mineral deposits at great depth.
How many of the above pairs are not correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Correct
Solution (d)
The process of taking out minerals from rocks buried under the Earth’s surface is called mining.
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Statement 4
Incorrect
Incorrect
Incorrect
Incorrect
OPEN CAST MINING
Minerals that lie at shallow depths are taken out by removing the surface layer, this is known as open-cast mining.
DRILLING
Petroleum and natural gas occur far below the Earth’s surface. Deep wells are bored to take them out, this is called drilling
SHAFT MINING
Deep bores called to have to be made to reach mineral deposits that lie at great depths. This is called shaft mining.
QUARRYING
Minerals that lie near the surface are simply dug out, by the process known as quarrying.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
The process of taking out minerals from rocks buried under the Earth’s surface is called mining.
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Statement 4
Incorrect
Incorrect
Incorrect
Incorrect
OPEN CAST MINING
Minerals that lie at shallow depths are taken out by removing the surface layer, this is known as open-cast mining.
DRILLING
Petroleum and natural gas occur far below the Earth’s surface. Deep wells are bored to take them out, this is called drilling
SHAFT MINING
Deep bores called to have to be made to reach mineral deposits that lie at great depths. This is called shaft mining.
QUARRYING
Minerals that lie near the surface are simply dug out, by the process known as quarrying.
Question 17 of 35
17. Question
Which of the following is/are prominent mineral deposit regions in North America?
The Appalachians region
Canadian Shield region
Ruhr region
Western Cordilleras
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
a) 2 and 4 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1, 2, and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Statement 4
Correct
Correct
Incorrect
Correct
The Appalachian region and the mountain ranges of the West. coal is mined predominantly in this region.
The Canadian shield region north of the Great Lakes. Iron ore, nickel, gold, uranium, and copper are mined in this Region
Ruhr region which is rich in coal and iron ore deposits is situated in the European continent
Western Cordilleras have vast copper, lead, zinc, gold, and silver deposits.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Statement 4
Correct
Correct
Incorrect
Correct
The Appalachian region and the mountain ranges of the West. coal is mined predominantly in this region.
The Canadian shield region north of the Great Lakes. Iron ore, nickel, gold, uranium, and copper are mined in this Region
Ruhr region which is rich in coal and iron ore deposits is situated in the European continent
Western Cordilleras have vast copper, lead, zinc, gold, and silver deposits.
Question 18 of 35
18. Question
Consider the following statements:
Pulses need high moisture and wet conditions.
Pulses help in restoring soil fertility by fixing oxygen from the air.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Incorrect
Incorrect
Pulses need less moisture and survive even in dry conditions.
Being leguminous crops, all these crops except arhar help in restoring soil fertility by fixing nitrogen from the air. Therefore, these are mostly grown in rotation with other crops.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Incorrect
Incorrect
Pulses need less moisture and survive even in dry conditions.
Being leguminous crops, all these crops except arhar help in restoring soil fertility by fixing nitrogen from the air. Therefore, these are mostly grown in rotation with other crops.
Question 19 of 35
19. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Minerals
They are created by natural processes without any human interference.
A non-ferrous metallic mineral does not contain iron
There is an inverse relationship in quality and quantity of minerals
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (c)
A naturally occurring substance that has a definite chemical composition is a mineral.
Minerals are not evenly distributed over space. They are concentrated in a particular area or rock formations. Some minerals are found in areas that are not easily accessible such as the Arctic Ocean bed and Antarctica.
Statement Analysis
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Correct
Correct
Minerals are formed in different types of geological environments, under varying conditions. They are created by natural processes without any human interference.
They can be identified based on their physical properties such as colour, density, and hardness, and chemical properties such as solubility.
Based on composition, minerals are classified mainly as metallic and non-metallic minerals
● Metallic minerals contain metal in raw form. Metals are hard substances that conduct heat and electricity and have a characteristic lustre or shine. Iron ore, bauxite, and manganese ore are some examples.
● Metallic minerals may be ferrous or non-ferrous. Ferrous minerals like iron ore, manganese, and chromites contain iron.
A non-ferrous mineral does not contain iron but may contain some other metal such as gold, silver, copper, or lead.
There is an inverse relationship in quality and quantity of minerals i.e. good quality minerals are less in quantity as compared to low quality minerals and vice versa.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
A naturally occurring substance that has a definite chemical composition is a mineral.
Minerals are not evenly distributed over space. They are concentrated in a particular area or rock formations. Some minerals are found in areas that are not easily accessible such as the Arctic Ocean bed and Antarctica.
Statement Analysis
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Correct
Correct
Minerals are formed in different types of geological environments, under varying conditions. They are created by natural processes without any human interference.
They can be identified based on their physical properties such as colour, density, and hardness, and chemical properties such as solubility.
Based on composition, minerals are classified mainly as metallic and non-metallic minerals
● Metallic minerals contain metal in raw form. Metals are hard substances that conduct heat and electricity and have a characteristic lustre or shine. Iron ore, bauxite, and manganese ore are some examples.
● Metallic minerals may be ferrous or non-ferrous. Ferrous minerals like iron ore, manganese, and chromites contain iron.
A non-ferrous mineral does not contain iron but may contain some other metal such as gold, silver, copper, or lead.
There is an inverse relationship in quality and quantity of minerals i.e. good quality minerals are less in quantity as compared to low quality minerals and vice versa.
Question 20 of 35
20. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to mica:
India has a near-monopoly in the production of mica, producing more than half of the world’s total production.
In India, Rajasthan has the largest deposits of mica.
Mica has a unique combination of elasticity, toughness, flexibility, and transparency and therefore is mainly used in the electronic industry.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Incorrect
Correct
India has a near-monopoly in the production of mica, producing about 60% of the world’s total production.
Andhra Pradesh leads with a 41% share of the country’s total resources followed by Rajasthan (28%), Odisha (17%), Maharashtra (13%), and Bihar (2%), and a small number of resources are found in Jharkhand and Telangana.
Among the non-metallic minerals produced in India, mica has a unique combination of elasticity, toughness, flexibility, and transparency. It possesses resistance to heat and sudden changes in temperature and high dielectric strength. It is chemically inert, stable, and does not absorb water. Mica is mainly used in the electrical and electronic industries. It can be split into very thin sheets which are tough and flexible.
Mica has been declared a minor mineral by Government of India.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Incorrect
Correct
India has a near-monopoly in the production of mica, producing about 60% of the world’s total production.
Andhra Pradesh leads with a 41% share of the country’s total resources followed by Rajasthan (28%), Odisha (17%), Maharashtra (13%), and Bihar (2%), and a small number of resources are found in Jharkhand and Telangana.
Among the non-metallic minerals produced in India, mica has a unique combination of elasticity, toughness, flexibility, and transparency. It possesses resistance to heat and sudden changes in temperature and high dielectric strength. It is chemically inert, stable, and does not absorb water. Mica is mainly used in the electrical and electronic industries. It can be split into very thin sheets which are tough and flexible.
Mica has been declared a minor mineral by Government of India.
Question 21 of 35
21. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Payments Bank:
It was set up based on the recommendations of the Nachiket Mor Committee.
It is registered as a public limited company under the Companies Act 2013 and licensed under the Banking Regulation Act 1949.
The minimum paid-up equity capital for payments banks shall be Rs. 100 crores.
It cannot issue loans, or credit cards and cannot accept time deposits or NRI deposits.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Correct
Solution (d)
Payments Bank was set up based on the recommendations of the Nachiket Mor Committee. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It is like any other bank but operates on a smaller scale without involving any credit risk.
Its objective is to advance financial inclusion by offering banking and financial services to the unbanked and underbanked areas, helping the migrant labour force, low-income households, small entrepreneurs, etc.
It is registered as a public limited company under the Companies Act 2013 and licensed under the Banking Regulation Act 1949. Hence statement 2 is correct.
It is governed by a host of legislation, such as the Banking Regulation Act, 1949; RBI Act, 1934; Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, etc.
The minimum paid-up equity capital for payments banks shall be Rs. 100 crores. Hence statement 3 is correct.
They are differentiated, and not universal banks. They operate on a smaller scale.
The minimum initial contribution of the promoter to the Payment Bank to the paid-up equity capital shall be at least 40% for the first five years from the commencement of its business.
It can take deposits up to Rs. 2,00,000. It can accept demand deposits in the form of savings and current accounts.
It cannot issue loans, or credit cards and cannot accept time deposits or NRI deposits. Hence statement 4 is correct.
It cannot set up subsidiaries to undertake non-banking financial activities.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Payments Bank was set up based on the recommendations of the Nachiket Mor Committee. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It is like any other bank but operates on a smaller scale without involving any credit risk.
Its objective is to advance financial inclusion by offering banking and financial services to the unbanked and underbanked areas, helping the migrant labour force, low-income households, small entrepreneurs, etc.
It is registered as a public limited company under the Companies Act 2013 and licensed under the Banking Regulation Act 1949. Hence statement 2 is correct.
It is governed by a host of legislation, such as the Banking Regulation Act, 1949; RBI Act, 1934; Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, etc.
The minimum paid-up equity capital for payments banks shall be Rs. 100 crores. Hence statement 3 is correct.
They are differentiated, and not universal banks. They operate on a smaller scale.
The minimum initial contribution of the promoter to the Payment Bank to the paid-up equity capital shall be at least 40% for the first five years from the commencement of its business.
It can take deposits up to Rs. 2,00,000. It can accept demand deposits in the form of savings and current accounts.
It cannot issue loans, or credit cards and cannot accept time deposits or NRI deposits. Hence statement 4 is correct.
It cannot set up subsidiaries to undertake non-banking financial activities.
Question 22 of 35
22. Question
Consider the following statements:
Ankasamudra Bird Conservation Reserve is a human-made village irrigation tank in Telangana.
Aghanashini Estuary is formed at the confluence of the Aghanashini River with the Arabian Sea.
Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary is one of the largest inland wetlands of Tamil Nadu.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
Ankasamudra Bird Conservation Reserve is a human-made village irrigation tank in Karnataka. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
It supports more than 1% of the biogeographic population of Painted Stork and Black-headed Ibis.
Aghanashini Estuary is formed at the confluence of the Aghanashini River with the Arabian Sea. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The brackish water of the estuary provides diverse ecosystem services including flood and erosion risk mitigation, biodiversity conservation, and livelihood support.
The wetland helps in traditional fish farming in the estuarine rice fields (locally known as Gazni rice fields), bivalve shell collection, and salt production.
Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary is one of the largest inland wetlands of Tamil Nadu. Hence statement 3 is correct.
It is a significant source of groundwater recharge for the area.
Note: Recently, five wetlands were added to the Ramsar list. They are Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve, Ankasamudra Bird Conservation Reserve, Aghanashini Estuary from Karnataka Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary, and Longwood Shola Reserve Forest from Tamil Nadu.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Ankasamudra Bird Conservation Reserve is a human-made village irrigation tank in Karnataka. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
It supports more than 1% of the biogeographic population of Painted Stork and Black-headed Ibis.
Aghanashini Estuary is formed at the confluence of the Aghanashini River with the Arabian Sea. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The brackish water of the estuary provides diverse ecosystem services including flood and erosion risk mitigation, biodiversity conservation, and livelihood support.
The wetland helps in traditional fish farming in the estuarine rice fields (locally known as Gazni rice fields), bivalve shell collection, and salt production.
Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary is one of the largest inland wetlands of Tamil Nadu. Hence statement 3 is correct.
It is a significant source of groundwater recharge for the area.
Note: Recently, five wetlands were added to the Ramsar list. They are Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve, Ankasamudra Bird Conservation Reserve, Aghanashini Estuary from Karnataka Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary, and Longwood Shola Reserve Forest from Tamil Nadu.
Question 23 of 35
23. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the ‘One Stop Centre Scheme’:
It is a centrally sponsored scheme under the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD).
It provides integrated support and assistance to women affected by violence, both in private and public spaces under one roof.
Choose the correct code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (c)
The One Stop Centre Scheme is a centrally sponsored scheme under the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD). Hence statement 1 is correct.
It will be funded through the Nirbhaya Fund. The Central Government will provide 100% financial assistance under the scheme.
The day-to-day implementation and administrative matters would be the responsibility of the District Collector/District Magistrate.
It supports all women including girls below 18 years of age affected by violence, irrespective of caste, class, religion, region, sexual orientation, or marital status.
It aims to facilitate immediate, emergency, and non-emergency access to a range of services including medical, legal, psychological, and counselling support under one roof to fight against any forms of violence against women.
It provides integrated support and assistance to women affected by violence, both in private and public spaces under one roof. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
The One Stop Centre Scheme is a centrally sponsored scheme under the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD). Hence statement 1 is correct.
It will be funded through the Nirbhaya Fund. The Central Government will provide 100% financial assistance under the scheme.
The day-to-day implementation and administrative matters would be the responsibility of the District Collector/District Magistrate.
It supports all women including girls below 18 years of age affected by violence, irrespective of caste, class, religion, region, sexual orientation, or marital status.
It aims to facilitate immediate, emergency, and non-emergency access to a range of services including medical, legal, psychological, and counselling support under one roof to fight against any forms of violence against women.
It provides integrated support and assistance to women affected by violence, both in private and public spaces under one roof. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Question 24 of 35
24. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Martand Sun Temple’:
It is a Hindu temple located in the Kashmir Valley of Jammu and Kashmir.
It is dedicated to the Sun and was built by King Lalitaditya Muktapida around the 18th Century CE.
Its architecture is a blend of the local Kashmiri style with the architectural styles of Gupta, Chinese, Gandhara, Roman, and Greek.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
The Martand Sun Temple is a Hindu temple located in the Kashmir Valley of Jammu and Kashmir. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It is located on top of a plateau and has been constructed entirely out of stone.
It stands in the middle of a large courtyard with 86 fluted columns. The courtyard is connected to the main shrine, where Sun God’s idol was installed.
It is dedicated to the Sun and was built by King Lalitaditya Muktapida around the 8th Century CE. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Lalitaditya Muktapida was the third ruler of the Karkota Dynasty.
The construction of the main shrine was such that during most of the days’ time, especially during sunrise and sunset, the rays would directly fall on the idol.
Its architecture is a blend of the local Kashmiri style with the architectural styles of Gupta, Chinese, Gandhara, Roman, and Greek. Hence statement 3 is correct.
There are 84 smaller shrines around the main Sun Temple. They are lined along the perimeter of the complex.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
The Martand Sun Temple is a Hindu temple located in the Kashmir Valley of Jammu and Kashmir. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It is located on top of a plateau and has been constructed entirely out of stone.
It stands in the middle of a large courtyard with 86 fluted columns. The courtyard is connected to the main shrine, where Sun God’s idol was installed.
It is dedicated to the Sun and was built by King Lalitaditya Muktapida around the 8th Century CE. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Lalitaditya Muktapida was the third ruler of the Karkota Dynasty.
The construction of the main shrine was such that during most of the days’ time, especially during sunrise and sunset, the rays would directly fall on the idol.
Its architecture is a blend of the local Kashmiri style with the architectural styles of Gupta, Chinese, Gandhara, Roman, and Greek. Hence statement 3 is correct.
There are 84 smaller shrines around the main Sun Temple. They are lined along the perimeter of the complex.
Question 25 of 35
25. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the recent analysis of radioactive discharges carried out by the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC):
The radioactive discharges from nuclear plants were found to have a minimal impact on the environment.
Gaseous waste released into the atmosphere includes Argon 41, radioiodine, and particulate radionuclides.
The concentrations of caesium-137 and strontium-90 in sediments were within the statistical variation of values observed in natural sediments.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (c)
The recent analysis of radioactive discharges carried out by the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) reveals the following:
The radioactive discharges from nuclear plants were found to have a minimal impact on the environment. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The concentrations of fission products beyond a 5 km radius have been below the minimum detectable activity of the instruments used, implying that the monitored values are “insignificant”.
Gaseous waste released into the atmosphere includes Argon 41, radioiodine, and particulate radionuclides. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Liquid discharge consists of fission product radionuclides, radioiodine, tritium, strontium -90, caesium-137 — and activation products like cobalt-60.
The average gross alpha activity in air particulates at all seven nuclear plants was less than 0.1 megabecquerel (mBq) per cubic meter.
The Narora Atomic Power Station, Uttar Pradesh, exhibited higher maximum values, attributed to a higher atmospheric dust load.
The concentrations of caesium-137 and strontium-90 in sediments were within the statistical variation of values observed in natural sediments. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Tritium was detectable above the minimum detectable activity at all sites except the Kudankulam Nuclear Power Station.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
The recent analysis of radioactive discharges carried out by the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) reveals the following:
The radioactive discharges from nuclear plants were found to have a minimal impact on the environment. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The concentrations of fission products beyond a 5 km radius have been below the minimum detectable activity of the instruments used, implying that the monitored values are “insignificant”.
Gaseous waste released into the atmosphere includes Argon 41, radioiodine, and particulate radionuclides. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Liquid discharge consists of fission product radionuclides, radioiodine, tritium, strontium -90, caesium-137 — and activation products like cobalt-60.
The average gross alpha activity in air particulates at all seven nuclear plants was less than 0.1 megabecquerel (mBq) per cubic meter.
The Narora Atomic Power Station, Uttar Pradesh, exhibited higher maximum values, attributed to a higher atmospheric dust load.
The concentrations of caesium-137 and strontium-90 in sediments were within the statistical variation of values observed in natural sediments. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Tritium was detectable above the minimum detectable activity at all sites except the Kudankulam Nuclear Power Station.
Question 26 of 35
26. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry (APAAR):
It is a specialised identification system designed for all students in India.
All students in India of all ages must register with APAAR.
It is introduced in accordance with the National Education Policy (NEP) of 2020 and the National Credit and Qualifications Framework (NCrF).
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
The Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry (APAAR) is a specialised identification system designed for all students in India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It aims to streamline and enhance the academic experience for students throughout India by assigning a unique and permanent 12-digit ID to each student, consolidating their academic records into a single accessible platform.
It is not mandatory but voluntary for all students in India of all ages to register with APAAR. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
It is emphasised as not only a vital tool for tracking the educational progress of 260 million students in India but also as an aspirational and globally recognized document for students.
It is introduced in accordance with the National Education Policy (NEP) of 2020 and the National Credit and Qualifications Framework (NCrF). Hence statement 3 is correct.
It ensures accountability and transparency in education by tracking student progress and streamlining academic records. It enhances efficiency, combats fraud, and includes co-curricular achievements for holistic student development.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
The Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry (APAAR) is a specialised identification system designed for all students in India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It aims to streamline and enhance the academic experience for students throughout India by assigning a unique and permanent 12-digit ID to each student, consolidating their academic records into a single accessible platform.
It is not mandatory but voluntary for all students in India of all ages to register with APAAR. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
It is emphasised as not only a vital tool for tracking the educational progress of 260 million students in India but also as an aspirational and globally recognized document for students.
It is introduced in accordance with the National Education Policy (NEP) of 2020 and the National Credit and Qualifications Framework (NCrF). Hence statement 3 is correct.
It ensures accountability and transparency in education by tracking student progress and streamlining academic records. It enhances efficiency, combats fraud, and includes co-curricular achievements for holistic student development.
Question 27 of 35
27. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘India Stack’:
It is a government-led initiative that focuses on building a robust digital infrastructure.
Its key components include Aadhaar, Unified Payments Interface, and Digital Locker.
It is used only by governments and is limited to one country.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
India Stack is a government-led initiative that focuses on building a robust digital infrastructure. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It aims to streamline and enhance identity verification, data exchange, and digital payment processes to make them more accessible and efficient for citizens.
Its key components include Aadhaar, Unified Payments Interface, and Digital Locker. Hence statement 2 is correct.
It includes digital public goods, which are digital resources and tools made available to the public to support various digital services and initiatives.
It is a set of APIs (Application Programming Interface) used by governments, businesses, start-ups, and developers to utilize a unique digital Infrastructure to solve India’s hard problems towards presence-less, paperless, and cashless service delivery.
The vision of India Stack is not limited to one country (India); it can be applied to any nation, be it a developed one or an emerging one. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
India Stack is a government-led initiative that focuses on building a robust digital infrastructure. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It aims to streamline and enhance identity verification, data exchange, and digital payment processes to make them more accessible and efficient for citizens.
Its key components include Aadhaar, Unified Payments Interface, and Digital Locker. Hence statement 2 is correct.
It includes digital public goods, which are digital resources and tools made available to the public to support various digital services and initiatives.
It is a set of APIs (Application Programming Interface) used by governments, businesses, start-ups, and developers to utilize a unique digital Infrastructure to solve India’s hard problems towards presence-less, paperless, and cashless service delivery.
The vision of India Stack is not limited to one country (India); it can be applied to any nation, be it a developed one or an emerging one. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Question 28 of 35
28. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Fungus’:
They include eukaryotic microorganisms and macroorganisms.
They are primarily decomposers as they obtain nutrients by absorbing organic matter from their surroundings.
Mycorrhizal fungi form symbiotic relationships with plant roots.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (c)
Fungus includes eukaryotic microorganisms and macroorganisms. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Like plants, animals, and protists, fungi have complex, membrane-bound cell organelles and a true nucleus. So they are called eukaryotic.
They are primarily decomposers as they obtain nutrients by absorbing organic matter from their surroundings. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Hence, they are called heterotrophic.
Fungi secrete enzymes to break down complex organic compounds into simpler substances, which they can then absorb.
Fungi play a vital role in soil carbon storage by participating in the carbon cycle. They decompose organic matter, cycle carbon from dead plants, and form symbiotic relationships with plant roots.
Mycorrhizal fungi form symbiotic relationships with plant roots. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Fungi have been found to help degrade various pollutants from the environment, such as plastic and other petroleum-based products, pharmaceuticals and personal care products, and oil.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Fungus includes eukaryotic microorganisms and macroorganisms. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Like plants, animals, and protists, fungi have complex, membrane-bound cell organelles and a true nucleus. So they are called eukaryotic.
They are primarily decomposers as they obtain nutrients by absorbing organic matter from their surroundings. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Hence, they are called heterotrophic.
Fungi secrete enzymes to break down complex organic compounds into simpler substances, which they can then absorb.
Fungi play a vital role in soil carbon storage by participating in the carbon cycle. They decompose organic matter, cycle carbon from dead plants, and form symbiotic relationships with plant roots.
Mycorrhizal fungi form symbiotic relationships with plant roots. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Fungi have been found to help degrade various pollutants from the environment, such as plastic and other petroleum-based products, pharmaceuticals and personal care products, and oil.
Question 29 of 35
29. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Sahel Region:
It forms a transitional zone between the arid Sahara desert to the north and the belt of humid savannas to the south.
It includes Burkina Faso, Cameroon, the Gambia, Guinea, Mali, Mauritania, Niger, Nigeria, Senegal, and Chad.
Choose the correct code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (c)
The Sahel Region forms a transitional zone between the arid Sahara desert to the north and the belt of humid savannas to the south. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It is a semiarid region of western and north-central Africa extending from Senegal eastward to Sudan.
It is one of the world’s richest, gifted with vast energy and mineral resources such as oil, gold, and uranium. However, political instability hinders development progress.
The United Nations limits the Sahel region to 10 countries. It includes Burkina Faso, Cameroon, the Gambia, Guinea, Mali, Mauritania, Niger, Nigeria, Senegal, and Chad. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
The Sahel Region forms a transitional zone between the arid Sahara desert to the north and the belt of humid savannas to the south. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It is a semiarid region of western and north-central Africa extending from Senegal eastward to Sudan.
It is one of the world’s richest, gifted with vast energy and mineral resources such as oil, gold, and uranium. However, political instability hinders development progress.
The United Nations limits the Sahel region to 10 countries. It includes Burkina Faso, Cameroon, the Gambia, Guinea, Mali, Mauritania, Niger, Nigeria, Senegal, and Chad. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Question 30 of 35
30. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the “Bharat Ratna Award”:
It is the highest civilian award in India.
Its recipients rank seventh in the Indian order of precedence.
The rule of a maximum of five awards in a year is a guideline for the Bharat Ratna.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
The Bharat Ratna Award is the highest civilian award in India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It was instituted on 2 January 1954, and the award is conferred in recognition of “exceptional service/performance of the highest order”.
It is bestowed upon individuals who have made exceptional contributions to the nation in various fields, such as arts, literature, science, and public service.
However, the Government, in 2011, expanded the criteria to include “any field of human endeavour”.
The recommendations for the award are made by the Prime Minister to the President.
Its recipients rank seventh in the Indian order of precedence. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The Order of Precedence of the Republic of India is a protocol list under which the authorities and the functionaries of the Union and State Government are recorded by rank and office.
The recipients receive a Sanad (certificate) signed by the President and a peepal leaf-shaped medallion with no monetary grant associated with the award.
There is no formal provision that recipients of the Bharat Ratna should be Indian citizens.
It has been conferred on one naturalized citizen, Mother Teresa, and two non-Indians: Abdul Ghaffar Khan (born in British India and later a citizen of Pakistan) and Nelson Mandela, a citizen of South Africa.
The rule of a maximum of three awards in a year is a guideline for the Bharat Ratna. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
The rule was broken for the first time in 1999, when four recipients were conferred the award: Jayaprakash Narayan, Amartya Sen, Gopinath Bordoloi, and Ravi Shankar.
The rule was broken again in 2024 when five recipients were conferred the award: Karpoori Thakur, Mankombu Sambasivan (MS) Swaminathan, Pamulaparthi Venkata (P. V.) Narasimha Rao, Lal Krishna Advani, and Chaudhary Charan Singh.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
The Bharat Ratna Award is the highest civilian award in India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It was instituted on 2 January 1954, and the award is conferred in recognition of “exceptional service/performance of the highest order”.
It is bestowed upon individuals who have made exceptional contributions to the nation in various fields, such as arts, literature, science, and public service.
However, the Government, in 2011, expanded the criteria to include “any field of human endeavour”.
The recommendations for the award are made by the Prime Minister to the President.
Its recipients rank seventh in the Indian order of precedence. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The Order of Precedence of the Republic of India is a protocol list under which the authorities and the functionaries of the Union and State Government are recorded by rank and office.
The recipients receive a Sanad (certificate) signed by the President and a peepal leaf-shaped medallion with no monetary grant associated with the award.
There is no formal provision that recipients of the Bharat Ratna should be Indian citizens.
It has been conferred on one naturalized citizen, Mother Teresa, and two non-Indians: Abdul Ghaffar Khan (born in British India and later a citizen of Pakistan) and Nelson Mandela, a citizen of South Africa.
The rule of a maximum of three awards in a year is a guideline for the Bharat Ratna. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
The rule was broken for the first time in 1999, when four recipients were conferred the award: Jayaprakash Narayan, Amartya Sen, Gopinath Bordoloi, and Ravi Shankar.
The rule was broken again in 2024 when five recipients were conferred the award: Karpoori Thakur, Mankombu Sambasivan (MS) Swaminathan, Pamulaparthi Venkata (P. V.) Narasimha Rao, Lal Krishna Advani, and Chaudhary Charan Singh.
Question 31 of 35
31. Question
A tap drips at a rate of one drop per second. 600 drops make 100ml. The number of litres wasted in 300 days is
a) 4320
b) 43200
c) 53200
d) 432000
Correct
Solution (a)
We know that,
1 days = 24 hours = 24 * 60 * 60 seconds
So, 300 days = 300 * 24 * 60 * 60 seconds
Number of drops in 300 days = 300 * 24 * 60 * 60
600 drops = 100 ml
i.e. 1 drop = 1/6 ml
and 1000 ml = 1L
1/6 ml = 1/ (6*1000)L
So, the number of litres wasted in 300 days is,
(300*24*60*60)*1/(6*1000) L
= 4320 litres
Hence, the correct answer is 4320 litres
Incorrect
Solution (a)
We know that,
1 days = 24 hours = 24 * 60 * 60 seconds
So, 300 days = 300 * 24 * 60 * 60 seconds
Number of drops in 300 days = 300 * 24 * 60 * 60
600 drops = 100 ml
i.e. 1 drop = 1/6 ml
and 1000 ml = 1L
1/6 ml = 1/ (6*1000)L
So, the number of litres wasted in 300 days is,
(300*24*60*60)*1/(6*1000) L
= 4320 litres
Hence, the correct answer is 4320 litres
Question 32 of 35
32. Question
Three times the first of three consecutive odd integers is 3 more than twice the third. The third integer is
a) 11
b) 13
c) 15
d) 9
Correct
Solution (c)
Let the three integers be x, x + 2 and x + 4
Then, 3x = 2(x + 4) + 3 ⇔ x = 11
∴ Third integer = x + 4 = 15
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Let the three integers be x, x + 2 and x + 4
Then, 3x = 2(x + 4) + 3 ⇔ x = 11
∴ Third integer = x + 4 = 15
Question 33 of 35
33. Question
A man takes 6 hours 15 minutes in walking a distance and riding back to starting place. He could walk both ways in 7 hours 45 minutes. The time taken by him to ride back both ways is:
a) 4 hours
b) 4 hours 30 min
c) 4 hours 45 min
d) 4 hours 35 min
Correct
Solution (c)
Time taken in walking both the ways = 7 hours 45 minutes ——– (i)
Time taken in walking one way and riding back = 6 hours 15 minutes ———– (ii)
By the equation (ii) × 2 – (i), we have,
Time taken by the man in riding both ways,
= 12 hours 30 minutes – 7 hours 45 minutes
= 4 hours 45 minutes.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Time taken in walking both the ways = 7 hours 45 minutes ——– (i)
Time taken in walking one way and riding back = 6 hours 15 minutes ———– (ii)
By the equation (ii) × 2 – (i), we have,
Time taken by the man in riding both ways,
= 12 hours 30 minutes – 7 hours 45 minutes
= 4 hours 45 minutes.
Question 34 of 35
34. Question
The difference between a two-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the digits is 36. What is the difference between the sum and the difference of the digits of the number if the ratio between the digits of the number is 1:2?
a) 4
b) 8
c) 16
d) None of these
Correct
Solution (b)
Since the number is greater than the number obtained on reversing the digits, so the ten’s digit is greater than the unit’s digit.
Let ten’s and unit’s digits be 2x and x respectively.
Then, (10 × 2x + x) – (10x + 2x) = 36
⇒ 9x = 36
⇒ x = 4
∴ Required difference
= (2x + x) – (2x – x)
= 2x
= 8
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Since the number is greater than the number obtained on reversing the digits, so the ten’s digit is greater than the unit’s digit.
Let ten’s and unit’s digits be 2x and x respectively.
Then, (10 × 2x + x) – (10x + 2x) = 36
⇒ 9x = 36
⇒ x = 4
∴ Required difference
= (2x + x) – (2x – x)
= 2x
= 8
Question 35 of 35
35. Question
Find out the wrong term: 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, 64
a) 17
b) 26
c) 37
d) 64
Correct
Solution (d)
The term of the series are (1^2 + 1)(2^2 + 1)(3^2 + 1)(4^2 + 1)(5^2 + 1)(6^2 + 1)(7^2 + 1),…………..
So, 64 is wrong and must be replaced by (8^2 + 1) i.e., 65
Incorrect
Solution (d)
The term of the series are (1^2 + 1)(2^2 + 1)(3^2 + 1)(4^2 + 1)(5^2 + 1)(6^2 + 1)(7^2 + 1),…………..
So, 64 is wrong and must be replaced by (8^2 + 1) i.e., 65
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IASbaba
