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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 15th March 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   TRAFFIC (Trade Records Analysis of Flora and Fauna in Commerce) Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: An analysis by TRAFFIC and WWF-India between January 2010 and December 2022 has revealed that Tamilnadu accounted for almost 65% of illegal trade in shark body parts. Background:- Illegal trade in wildlife species is a serious conservation threat. About TRAFFIC:-   TRAFFIC (Trade Records Analysis of Flora and Fauna in Commerce), the Wildlife Trade Monitoring Network, is a global non-governmental organization monitoring the trade in wild plants and animals. TRAFFIC focuses on preserving biodiversity and sustainable legal wildlife trade while working against unsustainable illegal wildlife trade TRAFFIC’s mission is built on the long-term vision of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework: a world living in harmony with nature where by 2050, biodiversity is valued, conserved, restored, and wisely used, maintaining ecosystem services, sustaining a healthy planet and delivering benefits essential for all people. It was originally created in 1976 as a specialist group of the Species Survival Commission of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), and evolved into a strategic alliance of the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) and the IUCN TRAFFIC IS part of the Cambridge Conservation Initiative – based in the David Attenborough Building – a hub which brings together Cambridge University and several international NGOs striving for sustainability and to conserve nature. TRAFFIC came to India in 1991, operating as a division of WWF-India. Source: Hindu Gulbadan Begum Syllabus Prelims – History Context: Historian Ruby Lal has written a book on Gulbadan Begum titled ‘Vagabond Princess: The Great Adventures of Gulbadan’. Background: She is one of the most prominent women of Mughal era. About Gulbadan Begum: Gulbadan Begum (1523 – 1603) was a Mughal princess and the daughter of Emperor Babur, the founder of the Mughal Empire. She is best known as the author of Humayun-Nama, the account of the life of her half-brother, Emperor Humayun, which she wrote on the request of her nephew, Emperor Akbar. Akbar asked his aunt to write the book as she had known and interacted with three Mughal emperors. Her book is not political unlike the other accounts of the time. It provides details of everyday life in the royal palace and is also an account of the empire as it was taking shape. Gulbadan wrote in simple Persian, without the erudite language used by better-known writers. Her father Babur had written Babur-nama in the same style. Gulbadan is the first and only woman historian of the Mughal era. Gulbadan Begum is mentioned throughout the Akbarnama of Abu’l Fazl. Source: Hindu OCEANSAT-3 Syllabus Prelims- Science Context: ISRO’s Oceansat-3 reveals phytoplankton bloom that maintains marine ecosystem. Background: The satellite revealed the seasonal greening and browning of continents, alongside the dynamic movements of chlorophyll blooms in the oceans, from April to December 2023. Phytoplankton are microscopic, photosynthetic organisms that form the foundation of the marine food web. They play a crucial role in the Earth’s ecosystems as primary producers, converting sunlight into chemical energy through photosynthesis. About OCEANSAT-3 Oceansat-3, also known as Earth Observing Satellite 6 (EOS-6), is a remarkable oceanographical Earth observation mission launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). Oceansat-3 was launched on 26th November 2022. It is part of India’s ocean observation program and is the third satellite in the Oceansat series. The satellite is designed to operate until 2027. Oceansat-3 is equipped with multiple sensors to observe various parameters: Ocean Colour Monitor (OCM-3): Measures Ocean colour data, providing insights into phytoplankton distribution and other biological processes. Ku-band Scatterometer (SCAT-3): Provides high-resolution global ocean surface wind speed and direction information. Sea Surface Temperature Monitor (SSTM): Measures Sea surface temperature (SST) variations. Oceansat-3’s data is crucial for: Oceanography: Studying ocean currents, upwelling zones, and marine ecosystems. Climatology: Monitoring climate patterns and changes. Meteorology: Enhancing cyclone prediction. Fisheries: Identifying potential fishing zones. Continuity and Enhancement: Oceansat-3, in conjunction with Oceansat-2, improves the frequency of measurements:Ocean colour measurements are now available every 24 hours, Wind vector measurements are available every 12 hours. Source: India Today JUNO SPACECRAFT Syllabus Prelims : Science Context: Recently, NASA posted an image of Great Red Spot on Jupiter captured by Juno spacecraft. Background: The Great Red Spot is a giant anticyclonic storm that is larger than Earth itself. It has been observed since the 17th century and continues to be a fascinating subject of study for scientists. Juno’s mission to Jupiter has provided us with unprecedented views of this iconic feature, allowing us to delve deeper into its mysteries. About JUNO SPACECRAFT: NASA’s Juno spacecraft is a space probe orbiting Jupiter. It was built by Lockheed Martin and is operated by NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory. The spacecraft was launched from Cape Canaveral Air Force Station on August 5, 2011, as part of the New Frontiers program. Juno entered a polar orbit of Jupiter on July 5, 2016, after a five-year, 1,740-million-mile journey. The spacecraft’s mission is to measure Jupiter’s composition, gravitational field, magnetic field, and polar magnetosphere. It also aims to search for clues about how the planet formed, including whether it has a rocky core, the amount of water present within the deep atmosphere, mass distribution, and its deep winds. Juno is the first explorer to peer below Jupiter’s dense clouds to answer questions about the gas giant itself and the origins of our solar system. Now in an extended mission phase, the agency’s most distant planetary orbiter continues its investigation. This extension tasks Juno with becoming an explorer of the full Jovian system – Jupiter and its rings and moons – with additional rendezvous planned for two of Jupiter’s most intriguing moons: Europa and Io. Source: Business Today REAL ESTATE INVESTMENT TRUSTS (REITS) Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: SEBI Chairperson Madhabi Puri Buch recently highlighted the remarkable growth of Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs), Infrastructure Investment Trusts (INVITs), and Municipal bonds in India. Background: The Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs), Infrastructure Investment Trusts (INVITs), and Municipal bonds are all investment vehicles that allow investors to earn income from specific sectors. About REAL ESTATE INVESTMENT TRUSTS (REITS) Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) are financial instruments that allow investors to participate in income-generating real estate assets. REITs are similar to mutual funds but specifically focus on real estate. They pool money from investors and invest it in commercial real estate projects, including properties like office buildings, shopping malls, apartments, hotels, and warehouses. REITs are structured as trusts and are listed on stock exchanges, allowing investors to buy units in the trust. Types of REITs: Equity REITs: These purchase, own, and manage income-generating properties. Mortgage REITs: They lend money directly or indirectly to real estate owners. Hybrid REITs: A combination of equity and mortgage REITs. Significance of REITs: REITs can help cash-strapped developers monetize their existing properties. They reduce risk by diversifying portfolios across different types of properties. 80% of the value of an REIT should be in completed and rent-generating assets. Source: Hindu Previous Year Question Q1. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable. Statement-II: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the ‘Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002’. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Digitization of Agriculture Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Context: Digitization of agriculture holds significant potential to solve many underlying problems of agriculture. Background: The G20 Delhi declaration has committed to promoting responsible, sustainable, and inclusive use of digital technology by farmers and an ecosystem of Agri-Tech start-ups and MSMEs. About Digitization of Agriculture : It is the integration of cutting-edge digital technologies into the farm production system, including Artificial Intelligence (AI), robotics, unmanned aviation systems, sensors, and communication networks is referred to as Digitization of Agriculture. Significance of Digitization of Agriculture: It helps to optimize the input resources like fertilizers, pesticides, water, etc. at the right time. Ex: Use of AI with agricultural data. It increases operational efficiency and decreases the production cost of farming due to reduced manpower requirements and labour hours. Ex: Sub Mission on Agricultural Mechanization (SMAM). The right price for the produce is obtained by the elimination of middlemen thereby increasing the profitability. Ex: e-NAM. It aids scientific decision making in farming activities, which will reduce burdens of crop loss or failure, low yield, pest attack, etc. It provides better agriculture governance, by using agriculture data gathered across the country for the welfare of farmers and citizens. Ex: National e-Governance Plan in Agriculture (NeGP-A). It bridges the gender gap, through the promotion of women-centric innovations enabling them to be involved in agricultural activities at par with males. Ex: PM-KISAN Mobile App. Issues/Challenges in the Digitization of Agriculture in India: Digital illiteracy makes the farmers shy away from trying new-generation technologies in agriculture. The recent increase in digital fraud cases using mobile devices has affected the trust in digital mode. Lack of awareness about the schemes and subsidies provided by the government to make use of digital technologies. Capital requirement is high at the initial stages which makes it difficult for a small and marginal farmer to acquire them. Fragmented landholdings are a major concern for digitization as it makes the scalability of technology difficult. As per the latest Agriculture Census, the average size of operational holdings has decreased from 2.28 hectares in 1970-71 to 1.08 hectares in 2015-16. Fear of unemployment as the automation would reduce the number of manpower required for the process. Lack of infrastructure in rural areas like access to electricity, internet, service centers for machinery, etc. Limitations of available products like lack of content in regional languages, user-friendly interface, inadequate farm and farmer-level datasets, etc. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) are financial instruments that allow investors to participate in income-generating real estate assets. Statement-II: They reduce risk by diversifying portfolios across different types of properties. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Q2.) With reference to Juno Space craft, consider the following statements: Juno Space craft is launched by ISRO. Juno aims to study Jupiter’s composition, magnetic and gravity fields, and polar magnetosphere. It seeks to investigate the planet’s formation, origin, and the presence of water in its atmosphere. How many of above given statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q3.) Consider the following: Studying ocean currents Monitoring climate patterns and changes Enhancing cyclone prediction Identifying potential fishing zones. Data from Oceansat -3 is applicable to how many of the above given purposes? Only one Only two Only three All four Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  15th March  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  14th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 15th March 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

[DAY 11] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question Consider the following: Radioactive waste is any pollution that emits radiation which is naturally released by the environment. Radioactive waste can persist in environment for not more than a hundred years. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect Radioactive waste is any pollution that emits radiation beyond what is naturally released by the environment. It’s generated by uranium mining, nuclear power plants, and the production and testing of military weapons, as well as by universities and hospitals that use radioactive materials for research and medicine. Hence, statement 1 is false. Radioactive waste can persist in the environment for thousands of years, making disposal a major challenge.  Accidentally released or improperly disposed of contaminants threaten groundwater, surface water, and marine resources. Hence, statement 2 is false. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect Radioactive waste is any pollution that emits radiation beyond what is naturally released by the environment. It’s generated by uranium mining, nuclear power plants, and the production and testing of military weapons, as well as by universities and hospitals that use radioactive materials for research and medicine. Hence, statement 1 is false. Radioactive waste can persist in the environment for thousands of years, making disposal a major challenge.  Accidentally released or improperly disposed of contaminants threaten groundwater, surface water, and marine resources. Hence, statement 2 is false. Question 2 of 35 2. Question Consider the following with regard to ‘Butterfly Mines’, recently in the news: They are anti-tank mines. They can be deployed in the field only through air-dropping via helicopters. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect The PFM-1 and PFM-1S are two kinds of anti-personnel landmines that are commonly referred to as ‘Butterfly mines’ or ‘Green Parrots’. In Donetsk and Kramatorsk, Russia has highly likely attempted employment of PFM-1 and PFM-1S scatterable anti-personnel mines. Commonly called the ‘butterfly mine’, the PFM-1 series are deeply controversial, indiscriminate weapons. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. These mines can be deployed in the field of action through several means, which include being dropped from helicopters or through ballistic dispersion using artillery and mortar shells. These mines glide to the ground without exploding and later explode on coming in contact. Since these mines were green in color when they were first put to use them also earned the name ‘Green Parrots’. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect The PFM-1 and PFM-1S are two kinds of anti-personnel landmines that are commonly referred to as ‘Butterfly mines’ or ‘Green Parrots’. In Donetsk and Kramatorsk, Russia has highly likely attempted employment of PFM-1 and PFM-1S scatterable anti-personnel mines. Commonly called the ‘butterfly mine’, the PFM-1 series are deeply controversial, indiscriminate weapons. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. These mines can be deployed in the field of action through several means, which include being dropped from helicopters or through ballistic dispersion using artillery and mortar shells. These mines glide to the ground without exploding and later explode on coming in contact. Since these mines were green in color when they were first put to use them also earned the name ‘Green Parrots’. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. Question 3 of 35 3. Question Consider the following in the context of the Advanced Towed Artillery Gun System (ATAGS): ATAGS is an indigenously developed howitzer gun. The ATAGS is developed by the Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd (BHEL). Which of the above statements is/are true? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect In a first, an indigenously developed howitzer gun, ATAG, became part of the 21-gun salute during the Independence Day ceremony at the Red Fort. Developed by the DRDO, the Advanced Towed Artillery Gun System (ATAGS) was used alongside the traditional British-origin ’25 Pounders’ artillery guns. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The ATAGS is an indigenous 155 mm x 52 calibre howitzer gun developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) with its Pune-based facility Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE) being the nodal agency. Howitzers is an umbrella term for a category of long-range artillery guns. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect In a first, an indigenously developed howitzer gun, ATAG, became part of the 21-gun salute during the Independence Day ceremony at the Red Fort. Developed by the DRDO, the Advanced Towed Artillery Gun System (ATAGS) was used alongside the traditional British-origin ’25 Pounders’ artillery guns. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The ATAGS is an indigenous 155 mm x 52 calibre howitzer gun developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) with its Pune-based facility Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE) being the nodal agency. Howitzers is an umbrella term for a category of long-range artillery guns. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Question 4 of 35 4. Question Consider the following with regard to the Dornier 228 aircraft It has been manufactured by the National Aerospace Laboratories. It is a versatile multi-purpose light transport aircraft. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Built by Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd or HAL, the aircraft is a highly versatile multi-purpose light transport aircraft. It has been developed specifically to meet the manifold requirements of utility and commuter transport, third level services and air-taxi operations, coast guard duties and maritime surveillance. Roles: ·       Maritime Surveillance ·       Pollution Prevention ·       Troop Transport ·       Aerial Survey ·       Search and Rescue ·       Commuter Transport ·       Calibration of airport NAV-COM Aids ·       Remote Sensing Applications ·       Causality Evacuation ·       Executive Transport ·       Cargo & Logistics Support Hence statement 1 is not true. The 19 seater HAL – DO – 228 aircraft is a highly versatile multi-purpose light transport aircraft. It has been developed specifically to meet the manifold requirements of utility and commuter transport, third level services and air-taxi operations, coast guard duties and maritime surveillance. Hence, statement 2 is true. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Built by Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd or HAL, the aircraft is a highly versatile multi-purpose light transport aircraft. It has been developed specifically to meet the manifold requirements of utility and commuter transport, third level services and air-taxi operations, coast guard duties and maritime surveillance. Roles: ·       Maritime Surveillance ·       Pollution Prevention ·       Troop Transport ·       Aerial Survey ·       Search and Rescue ·       Commuter Transport ·       Calibration of airport NAV-COM Aids ·       Remote Sensing Applications ·       Causality Evacuation ·       Executive Transport ·       Cargo & Logistics Support Hence statement 1 is not true. The 19 seater HAL – DO – 228 aircraft is a highly versatile multi-purpose light transport aircraft. It has been developed specifically to meet the manifold requirements of utility and commuter transport, third level services and air-taxi operations, coast guard duties and maritime surveillance. Hence, statement 2 is true. Question 5 of 35 5. Question Consider the following statements about S-400 missile: It is indigenously developed by DRDO. It can hit the target up to an altitude of 400km. It is a surface-to-surface missile. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect It is developed in Russia. It is one of the world’s most Advanced air defence system. S-400 missile system carries separate radar systems which can detect aerial targets to a range of 400 km. It can hit target up to altitude of 30 km. It is a mobile long-range surface-to-air missile system Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect It is developed in Russia. It is one of the world’s most Advanced air defence system. S-400 missile system carries separate radar systems which can detect aerial targets to a range of 400 km. It can hit target up to altitude of 30 km. It is a mobile long-range surface-to-air missile system Question 6 of 35 6. Question Consider the following statements about Pralay missile: It is developed by DRDO. It is a surface-to-surface missile. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Pralay missile is developed by DRDO. It has a range of 150-500 km. It is a Short Range Ballistic Missile. Pralay missle is a surface-to-surface missile. Its payload capacity is 500-1000kg. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Pralay missile is developed by DRDO. It has a range of 150-500 km. It is a Short Range Ballistic Missile. Pralay missle is a surface-to-surface missile. Its payload capacity is 500-1000kg. Question 7 of 35 7. Question Consider the following: ASTRA is a missile system designed to be mounted on fighter aircraft. ASTRA missile system is being integrated with Rafael aircraft of the Indian Air Force. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect ASTRA is a Beyond Visual Range (BVR) class of Air-to-Air Missile (AAM) system designed to be mounted on fighter aircraft. The missile is designed to engage and destroy highly maneuvering supersonic aircraft. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The missile has all weather day and night capability. The missile is being developed in multiple variants to meet specific requirements. The ASTRA Mk-I Weapon System integrated with SU-30 Mk-I aircraft is being inducted into the Indian Air Force (IAF). Hence, statement 2 is not correct. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect ASTRA is a Beyond Visual Range (BVR) class of Air-to-Air Missile (AAM) system designed to be mounted on fighter aircraft. The missile is designed to engage and destroy highly maneuvering supersonic aircraft. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The missile has all weather day and night capability. The missile is being developed in multiple variants to meet specific requirements. The ASTRA Mk-I Weapon System integrated with SU-30 Mk-I aircraft is being inducted into the Indian Air Force (IAF). Hence, statement 2 is not correct. Question 8 of 35 8. Question With reference to cruise missiles, consider the following statements: Cruise missiles have ranges of 300 to 5000 km. They are easy to intercept. They have low precision. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Cruise missiles have short ranges of 300 to 1000 km. Hence, statement 1 is false. They are easy to intercept because of high terminal speeds. Hence, statement 2 is true. They have high precision due to the navigation system. Hence, statement 3 is false. Incorrect Solution (a) Cruise missiles have short ranges of 300 to 1000 km. Hence, statement 1 is false. They are easy to intercept because of high terminal speeds. Hence, statement 2 is true. They have high precision due to the navigation system. Hence, statement 3 is false. Question 9 of 35 9. Question With reference to Drones, consider the following statements: In India, the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) governs the use of all (manned or automated) aerial vehicles. Rustom-2 is a medium altitude long endurance indigenous prototype drone. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) A drone or UAV (Unmanned Aerial Vehicle) is a remotely controlled flying device. Drones do not require much technical expertise to use. In India, the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) governs the use of all (manned or automated) aerial vehicles. Hence, statement 1 is true. In 2020, the Defense Research and Development Organization (DRDO) flight tested the Rustom-2 medium altitude long endurance indigenous prototype drone. It is a surveillance drone. Hence, statement 2 is true. Incorrect Solution (c) A drone or UAV (Unmanned Aerial Vehicle) is a remotely controlled flying device. Drones do not require much technical expertise to use. In India, the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) governs the use of all (manned or automated) aerial vehicles. Hence, statement 1 is true. In 2020, the Defense Research and Development Organization (DRDO) flight tested the Rustom-2 medium altitude long endurance indigenous prototype drone. It is a surveillance drone. Hence, statement 2 is true. Question 10 of 35 10. Question Consider the following statements Statement-I : A ballistic missile is difficult to intercept. Statement-II : Prithvi-I is a long-range surface-to-surface tactical ballistic missile. Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Correct Solution (c) A ballistic missile is generally a projectile shot up in the atmosphere. They are difficult to intercept due to high terminal speeds of 5000 m/s. Hence, statement 1 is true. Prithvi-I is a short-range surface-to-surface tactical ballistic missile. Hence, statement 2 is false. Incorrect Solution (c) A ballistic missile is generally a projectile shot up in the atmosphere. They are difficult to intercept due to high terminal speeds of 5000 m/s. Hence, statement 1 is true. Prithvi-I is a short-range surface-to-surface tactical ballistic missile. Hence, statement 2 is false. Question 11 of 35 11. Question Consider the following statements Statement-I : Supersonic combustion ramjet or Scramjet operate at supersonic speeds. Statement-II : Air from the atmosphere is rammed into the scramjet engine’s combustion chamber at a supersonic speed. Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Correct Solution (d) Ramjets operate at supersonic speeds, and Scramjets operate at hypersonic speeds. Hence, statement 1 is false. In the chamber, the air mixes with the fuel to ignite a supersonic combustion but the cruiser’s flight will be at a hypersonic speed of Mach six to seven. Air from the atmosphere was then rammed into the scramjet engine’s combustion chamber at a supersonic speed. The air mixed with the atomized fuel, the fuel was ignited and the scramjet engine revved into action. Hence, statement 2 is true. Incorrect Solution (d) Ramjets operate at supersonic speeds, and Scramjets operate at hypersonic speeds. Hence, statement 1 is false. In the chamber, the air mixes with the fuel to ignite a supersonic combustion but the cruiser’s flight will be at a hypersonic speed of Mach six to seven. Air from the atmosphere was then rammed into the scramjet engine’s combustion chamber at a supersonic speed. The air mixed with the atomized fuel, the fuel was ignited and the scramjet engine revved into action. Hence, statement 2 is true. Question 12 of 35 12. Question Consider the following statements regarding Harpoon Missiles: It is a U.S.-designed subsonic antiship cruise missile. It has a range of more than 2000 km. It is an all-weather, over-the-horizon, anti-ship missile system. Which of the statements given above are correct? a) One only b) Two only c) Three only d) None Correct Solution (b) Taiwan recently decided to buy 400 U.S. land-launched Harpoon missiles in the face of rising threat from China. It is a S.-designed subsonic antiship cruise missile that has been in service since 1977. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Numerous variants have been produced since its inception, including air-, ship-, and sub-launched versions. It is currently in service with the armed forces of more than 30 countries including India. Features: It is an all-weather, over-the-horizon, anti-ship missile system. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Propulsion: Turbojet, solid propellent. It has a low-level, sea-skimming cruise trajectory with active radar guidance. It is capable of executing both land-strike and anti-ship missions. This missile is fitted with a heavy 221-kilogram penetration blast warhead. It uses GPS-aided inertial navigation to hit a designated target aimpoint. Range: 90-240 km. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) Incorrect Solution (b) Taiwan recently decided to buy 400 U.S. land-launched Harpoon missiles in the face of rising threat from China. It is a S.-designed subsonic antiship cruise missile that has been in service since 1977. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Numerous variants have been produced since its inception, including air-, ship-, and sub-launched versions. It is currently in service with the armed forces of more than 30 countries including India. Features: It is an all-weather, over-the-horizon, anti-ship missile system. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Propulsion: Turbojet, solid propellent. It has a low-level, sea-skimming cruise trajectory with active radar guidance. It is capable of executing both land-strike and anti-ship missions. This missile is fitted with a heavy 221-kilogram penetration blast warhead. It uses GPS-aided inertial navigation to hit a designated target aimpoint. Range: 90-240 km. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) Question 13 of 35 13. Question Consider the following pairs regarding India’s Missile System: Helina : Anti-Tank Guided missile Trishul : Surface to air missile Astra : New Generation Anti-Radiation Missile Rudram: Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 c) 1 and 3 d) 2 and 3 Correct Solution (b) Anti-tank guided missile: HELINA (Helicopter based NAG) is a third-generation fire and forget class anti-tank guided missile (ATGM) system mounted on the Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH). The system has all weather day and night capability and can defeat battle tanks with conventional armor as well as explosive reactive armor. The HELINA missile can engage targets both in direct hit mode as well as top attack mode. (Hence 1st pair is correct) Surface to air missile: THRISHUL is a short-range (500m to 9 km) quick reaction all-weather surface-to-air missile designed to counter a low-level attack developed by India. It was developed by DRDO as a part of the Integrated Guided Missile Development Program. (Hence 2nd pair is correct) Air to air missile: ASTRA, India’s Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM), has been completely tested and is under induction. It has a range of around 100 km. (Hence 3rd pair is incorrect) Air to ground missile: RUDRAM, a New Generation Anti-Radiation Missile (NGRAM). With a maximum range of around 200 km, the missile mainly targets communication, radar and surveillance systems of the adversary. (Hence 4th pair is incorrect). Incorrect Solution (b) Anti-tank guided missile: HELINA (Helicopter based NAG) is a third-generation fire and forget class anti-tank guided missile (ATGM) system mounted on the Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH). The system has all weather day and night capability and can defeat battle tanks with conventional armor as well as explosive reactive armor. The HELINA missile can engage targets both in direct hit mode as well as top attack mode. (Hence 1st pair is correct) Surface to air missile: THRISHUL is a short-range (500m to 9 km) quick reaction all-weather surface-to-air missile designed to counter a low-level attack developed by India. It was developed by DRDO as a part of the Integrated Guided Missile Development Program. (Hence 2nd pair is correct) Air to air missile: ASTRA, India’s Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM), has been completely tested and is under induction. It has a range of around 100 km. (Hence 3rd pair is incorrect) Air to ground missile: RUDRAM, a New Generation Anti-Radiation Missile (NGRAM). With a maximum range of around 200 km, the missile mainly targets communication, radar and surveillance systems of the adversary. (Hence 4th pair is incorrect). Question 14 of 35 14. Question With reference to Indian defense system, consider the following statements: INS Trishul is a Long-Range surface to air missile. Agni-V is an Indian nuclear capable intercontinental ballistic missile. The BrahMos is a medium-range stealth ramjet supersonic cruise missile. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) INS Trishul is the second frigate of the Talwar class of the Indian Navy. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect) These have been built in Russia under an Indo-Russian joint production. These missile frigates are modified Krivak III class frigates from Russia. It has a displacement capacity of 4,000 tons and a speed of 30 knots and is capable of accomplishing a wide variety of naval missions, primarily, finding and eliminating enemy submarines and large surface ships. Due to the use of stealth technologies and a special hull design, the resulting frigate features reduced radar cross section (RCS) as well as electromagnetic, acoustic and infrared signatures. Agni V: Agni-5 is an ingeniously built advanced surface-to-surface ballistic missile developed under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP). (Hence statement 2 is correct) It is a fire-and-forget missile, which cannot be stopped without an interceptor missile. The missile has the capability of hitting targets beyond the range of 5000 km and is crucial for India’s self-defense systems. The Agni missile class is the backbone of India’s nuclear launch capability, as are Prithvi short-range ballistic missiles, submarine-launched ballistic missiles, and fighter aircraft. Agni-1 to 5 missiles are designed & developed by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). The BrahMos missile: The BrahMos missile, an Indo-Russian joint venture, has a range of 290 km and is the fastest cruise missile in the world with a top speed of Mach 2.8 (nearly three times the speed of sound). (Hence statement 3 is correct) BrahMos is named for the rivers Brahmaputra and Moskva. It is a two-stage (solid propellant engine in the first stage and liquid ramjet in second) missile. It is a multiplatform missile i.e., it can be launched from land, air, and sea and multi capability missile with pinpoint accuracy that works in both day and night irrespective of the weather conditions. It operates on the “Fire and Forgets” principle i.e it does not require further guidance after launch. Incorrect Solution (b) INS Trishul is the second frigate of the Talwar class of the Indian Navy. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect) These have been built in Russia under an Indo-Russian joint production. These missile frigates are modified Krivak III class frigates from Russia. It has a displacement capacity of 4,000 tons and a speed of 30 knots and is capable of accomplishing a wide variety of naval missions, primarily, finding and eliminating enemy submarines and large surface ships. Due to the use of stealth technologies and a special hull design, the resulting frigate features reduced radar cross section (RCS) as well as electromagnetic, acoustic and infrared signatures. Agni V: Agni-5 is an ingeniously built advanced surface-to-surface ballistic missile developed under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP). (Hence statement 2 is correct) It is a fire-and-forget missile, which cannot be stopped without an interceptor missile. The missile has the capability of hitting targets beyond the range of 5000 km and is crucial for India’s self-defense systems. The Agni missile class is the backbone of India’s nuclear launch capability, as are Prithvi short-range ballistic missiles, submarine-launched ballistic missiles, and fighter aircraft. Agni-1 to 5 missiles are designed & developed by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). The BrahMos missile: The BrahMos missile, an Indo-Russian joint venture, has a range of 290 km and is the fastest cruise missile in the world with a top speed of Mach 2.8 (nearly three times the speed of sound). (Hence statement 3 is correct) BrahMos is named for the rivers Brahmaputra and Moskva. It is a two-stage (solid propellant engine in the first stage and liquid ramjet in second) missile. It is a multiplatform missile i.e., it can be launched from land, air, and sea and multi capability missile with pinpoint accuracy that works in both day and night irrespective of the weather conditions. It operates on the “Fire and Forgets” principle i.e it does not require further guidance after launch. Question 15 of 35 15. Question Consider the following pairs: Satellite Navigation system                     Country GPS                                                                      USA GLONASS                                                        Russia Galileo                                                      United Kingdom BeiDou                                                              China How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched? a) One pair only b) Two pairs only c) Three pairs only d) All four pairs Correct Solution (c) Global Positioning System (GPS) Initiated in 1978 and achieved global coverage in 1995 and is owned by the United States government and operated by the United States Air Force. It consists of 24 to 32 medium Earth orbit satellites in six different orbital planes. (Hence first pair is correct) Global Navigation Satellite System (GLONASS) Operated by Roscosmos, a state corporation responsible for the space flight and cosmonautics program for the Russian Federation. It became operational in 1982 and achieved global coverage in 1996, and again in 2011 (after the system had fallen into disrepair). It has full global coverage with 24 satellites. (Hence second pair is correct) GALILEO It was initiated in 2005 by the European Space Agency and projected to provide global coverage by 2020 with 30 satellites. (Hence third pair is incorrect) BeiDou It is a satellite navigation system of China. Like any other navigation satellite system, BeiDou is made up of 35 satellites that orbit the Earth and transmit precise data all the time. The signal from the satellite travels from the satellite to the Earth’s ground stations and then to the receiver and vice versa. (Hence fourth pair is correct) Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS) It is operated by the Japanese government. It is a four-satellite regional time transfer system and enhancement for GPS covering Japan and the Asia-Oceania regions. Its services have been available on a trial basis since January 2018. Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC) Technology An autonomous regional satellite navigation system, also known as Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), is developed by ISRO. It has been designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary. It will provide two types of services: Standard Positioning Service (SPS): provided to all the users. Restricted Service (RS): It is an encrypted service provided only to the authorized users. The IRNSS System is expected to provide a position accuracy of better than 20 m in the primary service area. Presently, it consists of 7 active satellites located at a distance of approximately 36,000 Km. 3 satellites are in Geostationary Orbit (GEO). 4 satellites are in inclined Geosynchronous Orbit (GSO). Incorrect Solution (c) Global Positioning System (GPS) Initiated in 1978 and achieved global coverage in 1995 and is owned by the United States government and operated by the United States Air Force. It consists of 24 to 32 medium Earth orbit satellites in six different orbital planes. (Hence first pair is correct) Global Navigation Satellite System (GLONASS) Operated by Roscosmos, a state corporation responsible for the space flight and cosmonautics program for the Russian Federation. It became operational in 1982 and achieved global coverage in 1996, and again in 2011 (after the system had fallen into disrepair). It has full global coverage with 24 satellites. (Hence second pair is correct) GALILEO It was initiated in 2005 by the European Space Agency and projected to provide global coverage by 2020 with 30 satellites. (Hence third pair is incorrect) BeiDou It is a satellite navigation system of China. Like any other navigation satellite system, BeiDou is made up of 35 satellites that orbit the Earth and transmit precise data all the time. The signal from the satellite travels from the satellite to the Earth’s ground stations and then to the receiver and vice versa. (Hence fourth pair is correct) Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS) It is operated by the Japanese government. It is a four-satellite regional time transfer system and enhancement for GPS covering Japan and the Asia-Oceania regions. Its services have been available on a trial basis since January 2018. Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC) Technology An autonomous regional satellite navigation system, also known as Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), is developed by ISRO. It has been designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary. It will provide two types of services: Standard Positioning Service (SPS): provided to all the users. Restricted Service (RS): It is an encrypted service provided only to the authorized users. The IRNSS System is expected to provide a position accuracy of better than 20 m in the primary service area. Presently, it consists of 7 active satellites located at a distance of approximately 36,000 Km. 3 satellites are in Geostationary Orbit (GEO). 4 satellites are in inclined Geosynchronous Orbit (GSO). Question 16 of 35 16. Question Which of the following functions can be performed by the unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs)? Attacking enemy targets Transportation of extracted body organs Delivery of E-commerce goods Surveillance and reconnaissance activities Choose the correct answer using the codes given below a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) All of the above Correct Solution (d) Leveraging drone’s potential for commercial operations: It will foster various new forms of air freight capabilities, allowing transport of temperature and time sensitive commodities like bodily organs, lifesaving medicines etc. They can also be used to discharge materials for supplementing agricultural irrigation, survey landscapes, actively monitor rail/road traffic, or survey/inspect agricultural land. Recent aerial attacks such as, on Saudi Arabian refineries and killing of Iran’s top military commander are few such instances where drones were used. Incorrect Solution (d) Leveraging drone’s potential for commercial operations: It will foster various new forms of air freight capabilities, allowing transport of temperature and time sensitive commodities like bodily organs, lifesaving medicines etc. They can also be used to discharge materials for supplementing agricultural irrigation, survey landscapes, actively monitor rail/road traffic, or survey/inspect agricultural land. Recent aerial attacks such as, on Saudi Arabian refineries and killing of Iran’s top military commander are few such instances where drones were used. Question 17 of 35 17. Question Consider the following statements regarding Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM3): LVM3 is India’s heaviest rocket. It does not have a fixed orbit and can go anywhere—GEO (Geosynchronous Earth Orbit), MEO (Medium Earth Orbit), LEO (Low Earth Orbit). It is a three-stage launch vehicle with cryogenic upper stage. How many of the above statements are correct? a) One only b) Two only c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) had renamed the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) Mark -III as Launch Vehicle Mark-III, mainly to identify its task of placing satellites into a variety of orbits. The LVM3 will go everywhere —GEO (Geosynchronous Earth Orbit), MEO (Medium Earth Orbit), LEO (Low Earth Orbit), missions to the moon, sun. LVM3 is India’s heaviest rocket. The launch vehicle can carry up to 8 tonnes of payload to the lower earth orbits (LEO), which is about 200 km from the Earth’s surface. But when it comes to the geostationary transfer orbits (GTO), which lie much further ahead, up to about 35,000 km from the Earth, it can carry much less, only about four tonnes. LVM3 is essentially a three-stage launch vehicle, including two solid boosters (S200), the core liquid fuel-based stage (L110), and the cryogenic upper stage (C25). Hence, statement 1, 2, 3 are correct.   Incorrect Solution (c) The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) had renamed the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) Mark -III as Launch Vehicle Mark-III, mainly to identify its task of placing satellites into a variety of orbits. The LVM3 will go everywhere —GEO (Geosynchronous Earth Orbit), MEO (Medium Earth Orbit), LEO (Low Earth Orbit), missions to the moon, sun. LVM3 is India’s heaviest rocket. The launch vehicle can carry up to 8 tonnes of payload to the lower earth orbits (LEO), which is about 200 km from the Earth’s surface. But when it comes to the geostationary transfer orbits (GTO), which lie much further ahead, up to about 35,000 km from the Earth, it can carry much less, only about four tonnes. LVM3 is essentially a three-stage launch vehicle, including two solid boosters (S200), the core liquid fuel-based stage (L110), and the cryogenic upper stage (C25). Hence, statement 1, 2, 3 are correct.   Question 18 of 35 18. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC): It is the highest decision-making body of the Defence Ministry on procurement. The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) acts as the chairman of DAC. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) recently approved the capital acquisition of indigenously-developed military hardware worth Rs 70,584 crore. The DAC is the highest decision-making body of the defence Ministry on procurement. Its objective is to ensure expeditious procurement of the approved requirements of the armed forces. It was formed after the Group of Minister’s recommendations on ‘Reforming the National Security System’, in 2001, post-Kargil War (1999). Composition: The defence minister is the chairman of DAC. Its members include the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) and chiefs of the Army, Navy, and Air Force. Functions: Give in-principal approval of a 15 years Long Term Integrated Perspective Plan (LTIPP) for defence forces. Accord of acceptance of necessity to acquisition proposals. Categorization of the acquisition proposals relating to ‘Buy’, ‘Buy & Make’, and ‘Make’. Look into issues relating to single vendor clearance. Take decisions regarding ‘offset’ provisions in respect of acquisition proposals above Rs 300 crore. Take decisions regarding the Transfer of Technology under the ‘Buy and Make’ category of acquisition proposals. Field trial evaluation. Hence statement 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (a) The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) recently approved the capital acquisition of indigenously-developed military hardware worth Rs 70,584 crore. The DAC is the highest decision-making body of the defence Ministry on procurement. Its objective is to ensure expeditious procurement of the approved requirements of the armed forces. It was formed after the Group of Minister’s recommendations on ‘Reforming the National Security System’, in 2001, post-Kargil War (1999). Composition: The defence minister is the chairman of DAC. Its members include the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) and chiefs of the Army, Navy, and Air Force. Functions: Give in-principal approval of a 15 years Long Term Integrated Perspective Plan (LTIPP) for defence forces. Accord of acceptance of necessity to acquisition proposals. Categorization of the acquisition proposals relating to ‘Buy’, ‘Buy & Make’, and ‘Make’. Look into issues relating to single vendor clearance. Take decisions regarding ‘offset’ provisions in respect of acquisition proposals above Rs 300 crore. Take decisions regarding the Transfer of Technology under the ‘Buy and Make’ category of acquisition proposals. Field trial evaluation. Hence statement 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect. Question 19 of 35 19. Question Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Vayulink’ Platform: It is a data link communication system that provides secure and uninterrupted communication with the base station. It is developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Indian Air Force (IAF) recently developed an indigenous ‘Vayulink’ platform to enable jammer-proof communication with the base station. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Vayulink is an ad-hoc data link communication system that would help pilots deal with bad weather and provide jammer-proof uninterrupted communication with the base station. It is developed by the Indian Air Force (IAF). (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) It uses the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) to send radio communication to the base station when the signals are low. Vayulink, when installed in an aircraft, gives the position of other aircraft close by and encrypted traffic data over a secure channel. Uses: The platform helps to prevent fratricide or friendly fire, i.e., it helps us to know where the friendly forces are present. It provides better combat teaming. Helps plan real-time basis where multiple teams can get together and go towards the target coming from different areas. It can also give the pilots data on the weather. Incorrect Solution (a) Indian Air Force (IAF) recently developed an indigenous ‘Vayulink’ platform to enable jammer-proof communication with the base station. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Vayulink is an ad-hoc data link communication system that would help pilots deal with bad weather and provide jammer-proof uninterrupted communication with the base station. It is developed by the Indian Air Force (IAF). (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) It uses the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) to send radio communication to the base station when the signals are low. Vayulink, when installed in an aircraft, gives the position of other aircraft close by and encrypted traffic data over a secure channel. Uses: The platform helps to prevent fratricide or friendly fire, i.e., it helps us to know where the friendly forces are present. It provides better combat teaming. Helps plan real-time basis where multiple teams can get together and go towards the target coming from different areas. It can also give the pilots data on the weather. Question 20 of 35 20. Question With reference to India’s defence, the INS Marmagao is a? a) Aircraft carrier b) Submarine c) Missile destroyer d) Guided missile frigate Correct Solution (c) Defense Minister Rajnath Singh RECENTLY commissioned INS Marmagao into the Indian Navy. It is a P15B stealth-guided missile destroyer. (Hence option c is correct) It is the second of the four ‘Visakhapatnam’ class destroyers that has been designed by the Indian Navy’s Warship Design Bureau. It has over 75% indigenous content and was built by the Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited. It is equipped with surface-to-surface and surface-to-air missiles besides modern surveillance radar that provides target data to the weapon systems. The warship, measuring 163 meters by 17 meters, displacement of 7300 tonnes It is named after the historic port city of Mormugao in Goa. Propelled by four powerful gas turbines, the warship can achieve speeds of over 30 knots. It is said to feature state-of-the-art weapons, stealth features and sensors. It has a total atmospheric control system (TACS) that protects crew from nuclear, biological, and chemical threats. It undertook its first sea sortie in 2021, marking 60 years of Goa’s liberation from Portuguese rule. Incorrect Solution (c) Defense Minister Rajnath Singh RECENTLY commissioned INS Marmagao into the Indian Navy. It is a P15B stealth-guided missile destroyer. (Hence option c is correct) It is the second of the four ‘Visakhapatnam’ class destroyers that has been designed by the Indian Navy’s Warship Design Bureau. It has over 75% indigenous content and was built by the Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited. It is equipped with surface-to-surface and surface-to-air missiles besides modern surveillance radar that provides target data to the weapon systems. The warship, measuring 163 meters by 17 meters, displacement of 7300 tonnes It is named after the historic port city of Mormugao in Goa. Propelled by four powerful gas turbines, the warship can achieve speeds of over 30 knots. It is said to feature state-of-the-art weapons, stealth features and sensors. It has a total atmospheric control system (TACS) that protects crew from nuclear, biological, and chemical threats. It undertook its first sea sortie in 2021, marking 60 years of Goa’s liberation from Portuguese rule. Question 21 of 35 21. Question Consider the following statements: Both SACRED Portal and SAGE Portal work under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. SACRED Portal helps to select, support, and create a “one-stop access” to elderly care products and services. SAGE Portal brings together both job providers and job seekers on a transparent online portal. How many of the above statements are correct?  a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Senior Able Citizens for Re-Employment in Dignity (SACRED) Portal was launched in 2021. It is a unique and innovative technology-driven employment marketplace that aims to devise ways to ensure senior citizens live healthy, happy, empowered, dignified, and self-reliant life. Senior Care Aging Growth Engine (SAGE) Portal was launched in 2021. It identifies, evaluates, verifies, aggregates, and delivers products, Solutions, and servicesdirectly to the stakeholders. Both SACRED Portal and SAGE Portal work under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. Hence statement 1 is correct. SAGE Portal helps to select, support, and create a “one-stop access” to elderly careproducts and services. It encourages the selected “startups” based on innovative products and services to address the services from health, housing, care centers, and technology access linked to needs ranging from finances, food, and wealth management to legal guidance. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. SACRED Portal brings together both job providers and job seekers on a transparent online portal. It will help private and public sector enterprises across sectors to share their demand for human resources and help senior experienced citizens get themselves registered for visibility of the emerging workplace demands, and apply for relevant job opportunities. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (a) Senior Able Citizens for Re-Employment in Dignity (SACRED) Portal was launched in 2021. It is a unique and innovative technology-driven employment marketplace that aims to devise ways to ensure senior citizens live healthy, happy, empowered, dignified, and self-reliant life. Senior Care Aging Growth Engine (SAGE) Portal was launched in 2021. It identifies, evaluates, verifies, aggregates, and delivers products, Solutions, and servicesdirectly to the stakeholders. Both SACRED Portal and SAGE Portal work under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. Hence statement 1 is correct. SAGE Portal helps to select, support, and create a “one-stop access” to elderly careproducts and services. It encourages the selected “startups” based on innovative products and services to address the services from health, housing, care centers, and technology access linked to needs ranging from finances, food, and wealth management to legal guidance. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. SACRED Portal brings together both job providers and job seekers on a transparent online portal. It will help private and public sector enterprises across sectors to share their demand for human resources and help senior experienced citizens get themselves registered for visibility of the emerging workplace demands, and apply for relevant job opportunities. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements: Acute Hepatitis is the inflammation of the liver that presents with sicknesses like jaundice, fever, and vomiting. Chronic Hepatitis is the inflammation of the liver that lasts more than six months but essentially shows no symptoms. The theme for World Hepatitis Day 2023 was “One life, one liver”, focusing on creating awareness about viral hepatitis. Vaccination is available for all the five kinds of viral hepatitis. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) Hepatitis is an inflammation of the liver. Acute Hepatitis is the inflammation of the liver that presents with sicknesses like jaundice, fever, and vomiting. Hence statement 1 is correct. Chronic Hepatitis is the inflammation of the liver that lasts more than six months but essentially shows no symptoms. Hence statement 2 is correct. The World Hepatitis Alliance, established in 2007, organized the first community-driven World Hepatitis Day in 2008 on July 28. This date was chosen to honour Dr. Baruch Samuel Blumberg. Dr. Baruch Samuel Blumberg was the American physician who discovered Hepatitis B in the 1960s. World Hepatitis Day serves as an occasion to strengthen national and international efforts against hepatitis, urging individuals, partners, and the public to take action. The theme for World Hepatitis Day 2023 was “One life, one liver”, focusing on creating awareness about viral hepatitis. Hence statement 3 is correct. Vaccination is not available for all the five kinds of viral hepatitis. Vaccines are available for Hepatitis A (HAV) and Hepatitis B (HBV) whereas there are no vaccines for Hepatitis C (HCV) and Hepatitis E (HEV). Hepatitis D (HDV) can be prevented by preventing HBV infection through vaccination. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.   Incorrect Solution (c) Hepatitis is an inflammation of the liver. Acute Hepatitis is the inflammation of the liver that presents with sicknesses like jaundice, fever, and vomiting. Hence statement 1 is correct. Chronic Hepatitis is the inflammation of the liver that lasts more than six months but essentially shows no symptoms. Hence statement 2 is correct. The World Hepatitis Alliance, established in 2007, organized the first community-driven World Hepatitis Day in 2008 on July 28. This date was chosen to honour Dr. Baruch Samuel Blumberg. Dr. Baruch Samuel Blumberg was the American physician who discovered Hepatitis B in the 1960s. World Hepatitis Day serves as an occasion to strengthen national and international efforts against hepatitis, urging individuals, partners, and the public to take action. The theme for World Hepatitis Day 2023 was “One life, one liver”, focusing on creating awareness about viral hepatitis. Hence statement 3 is correct. Vaccination is not available for all the five kinds of viral hepatitis. Vaccines are available for Hepatitis A (HAV) and Hepatitis B (HBV) whereas there are no vaccines for Hepatitis C (HCV) and Hepatitis E (HEV). Hepatitis D (HDV) can be prevented by preventing HBV infection through vaccination. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.   Question 23 of 35 23. Question Consider the following statements about Scrub Typhus It is a viral disease caused by orientia tsutsugamushi. It is spread to people through bites of infected mosquitoes. No vaccine is available to prevent scrub typhus. It can be treated with the antibiotic Doxycycline. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (b) Scrub Typhus is a bacterial disease caused by orientia tsutsugamushi. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is also known as bush typhus. Its common symptoms include fever, headache, body aches, rash, dry cough, skin rashes, red eyes, and mental changes ranging from confusion to coma. It is spread to people through bites of infected larval mites. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. No vaccine is available to prevent scrub typhus. Hence statement 3 is correct. It can be treated with the antibiotic  Hence statement 4 is correct. Doxycycline is a broad-spectrum antibiotic used in the treatment of some bacterial and parasitic infections such as bacterial pneumonia, acne, chlamydia infections, Lyme disease, cholera, typhus, and syphilis. Incorrect Solution (b) Scrub Typhus is a bacterial disease caused by orientia tsutsugamushi. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is also known as bush typhus. Its common symptoms include fever, headache, body aches, rash, dry cough, skin rashes, red eyes, and mental changes ranging from confusion to coma. It is spread to people through bites of infected larval mites. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. No vaccine is available to prevent scrub typhus. Hence statement 3 is correct. It can be treated with the antibiotic  Hence statement 4 is correct. Doxycycline is a broad-spectrum antibiotic used in the treatment of some bacterial and parasitic infections such as bacterial pneumonia, acne, chlamydia infections, Lyme disease, cholera, typhus, and syphilis. Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements about Cell-free DNAs (cfDNA) They are short fragments of DNA released into the bloodstream through a natural process of cell death. They can help in the early detection, diagnosis, and treatment of cancers. They can help in understanding why a body is rejecting a transplanted organ. They can be used as a biomarker for neurological disorders like Alzheimer’s disease. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) Cell-free DNAs are short fragments of DNA released into the bloodstream through a natural process of cell death. Hence statement 1 is correct. During pregnancy, the mother’s blood contains cell-free DNA (cfDNA), both from her own tissue and from the fetus via the placenta. The cell degradation is influenced by multiple processes causing variations in the amount, size, and origin of cfDNA. The release of cfDNA could occur together with a variety of processes, including those required for normal development, those related to the development of certain cancers, and those associated with several other diseases. They help in screening foetuses for specific chromosomal abnormalities, an application known as non-invasive prenatal testing. They can help in the early detection, diagnosis, and treatment of cancers. Hence statement 2 is correct. They can help in understanding why a body is rejecting a transplanted organ. Hence statement 3 is correct. They can be used as a biomarker for neurological disorders like Alzheimer’s disease, neuronal tumours, stroke, and traumatic brain injury. Hence statement 4 is correct. Incorrect Solution (d) Cell-free DNAs are short fragments of DNA released into the bloodstream through a natural process of cell death. Hence statement 1 is correct. During pregnancy, the mother’s blood contains cell-free DNA (cfDNA), both from her own tissue and from the fetus via the placenta. The cell degradation is influenced by multiple processes causing variations in the amount, size, and origin of cfDNA. The release of cfDNA could occur together with a variety of processes, including those required for normal development, those related to the development of certain cancers, and those associated with several other diseases. They help in screening foetuses for specific chromosomal abnormalities, an application known as non-invasive prenatal testing. They can help in the early detection, diagnosis, and treatment of cancers. Hence statement 2 is correct. They can help in understanding why a body is rejecting a transplanted organ. Hence statement 3 is correct. They can be used as a biomarker for neurological disorders like Alzheimer’s disease, neuronal tumours, stroke, and traumatic brain injury. Hence statement 4 is correct. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements about Akira It is a type of ransomware that targets only Windows that spreads through spear phishing emails. It deletes Windows Shadow Volume copies and leaves a note with attack details and a link to the negotiation site. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Akira is a type of ransomware that targets both Windows and Linux devices that spreads through spear phishing emails that contain malicious attachments in the form of archived content (zip/rar) files. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It gets its name due to its ability to modify the filenames of all encrypted files by appending them with the “.akira” extension. Windows Shadow Volume copies are instrumental in ensuring that organizations can back up data used in their applications for day-to-day functioning. It deletes Windows Shadow Volume copies and leaves a note with attack details and a link to the negotiation site. Hence statement 2 is correct. The attackers then demand a ransom, threatening to publish the data on their dark web blog if the demands are not met.   Incorrect Solution (b) Akira is a type of ransomware that targets both Windows and Linux devices that spreads through spear phishing emails that contain malicious attachments in the form of archived content (zip/rar) files. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It gets its name due to its ability to modify the filenames of all encrypted files by appending them with the “.akira” extension. Windows Shadow Volume copies are instrumental in ensuring that organizations can back up data used in their applications for day-to-day functioning. It deletes Windows Shadow Volume copies and leaves a note with attack details and a link to the negotiation site. Hence statement 2 is correct. The attackers then demand a ransom, threatening to publish the data on their dark web blog if the demands are not met.   Question 26 of 35 26. Question Which of the following products have got the Geographical Indication Tag? Jaderi namakatti Kashmir’s Mushqbudji rice Agra leather footwear Jammu Kashmir’s Rajouri Chikri Wood Craft Choose the correct code: a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) The following products have got the Geographical Indication Tag: Jaderi namakatti of Tamil Nadu Kashmir’s Mushqbudji rice Agra leather footwear Jammu Kashmir’s Rajouri Chikri Wood Craft Chedibutta saree of Tamil Nadu Kanniyakumari Matti banana Rajasthan’s Nathdwara Pichhwai Painting Bihar’s Marcha Rice Agsechi Vayingim (Agassaim Brinjal) of Goa Sat Shiro Bheno (Sat Shirancho Bhendo) of Goa Hence option d is correct.   Incorrect Solution (d) The following products have got the Geographical Indication Tag: Jaderi namakatti of Tamil Nadu Kashmir’s Mushqbudji rice Agra leather footwear Jammu Kashmir’s Rajouri Chikri Wood Craft Chedibutta saree of Tamil Nadu Kanniyakumari Matti banana Rajasthan’s Nathdwara Pichhwai Painting Bihar’s Marcha Rice Agsechi Vayingim (Agassaim Brinjal) of Goa Sat Shiro Bheno (Sat Shirancho Bhendo) of Goa Hence option d is correct.   Question 27 of 35 27. Question Which of the following are the key features of Pradhan Mantri Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (PM- USHA)? It targets remote areas, Left-Wing Extremism (LWE) affected regions, aspirational districts, and areas with low Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER). It has provisions for establishing new model degree colleges and allocates grants for the effective functioning of universities. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA) was a Centrally Sponsored Scheme to fund States/UTs institutions, with the vision to attain higher levels of access, equity, and excellence in the State higher education system with greater efficiency, transparency, accountability, and responsiveness. The first phase of the scheme was launched in 2013 and the second phase was launched in 2018. Now, in the light of the National Education Policy, the RUSA scheme has been launched as Pradhan Mantri Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (PM-USHA). It covers government and government-aided institutions of the States and UTs. As the demand for higher education is increasing continuously over the years, there has been an unprecedented expansion in the number of institutions, universities, and volume of students in the country. The features/objectives of PM-USHA are: To improve the overall quality of existing state higher educational institutions by ensuring their conformity to prescribed norms and standards and adoption of accreditation as a quality assurance framework; Usher transformative reforms in the State higher education system by creating a facilitating institutional structure for planning and monitoring at the state level, promoting autonomy in State Universities, and improving governance in institutions; Implementation of recommendations of the NEP 2020 through funding support provided to State HEIs; Ensure governance, academic, and examination (and evaluation) reforms in the State higher educational institutions and establish backward and forward linkages with school education on one hand and employment market, on the other hand, to facilitate self-reliance and thus create an Atma-Nirbhar Bharat; Create an enabling atmosphere in the higher educational institutions to devote themselves to research and innovations; Correct regional imbalances in access to higher education by facilitating access to high-quality institutions in urban & semi‐urban areas, creating opportunities for students from rural areas to get access to better quality institutions, and setting up institutions in unserved & underserved areas; Developing infrastructure for ODL/Online/Digital mode of education in such States/UTs; Improve equity in higher education by providing adequate opportunities for higher education to socially deprived communities; promote inclusion of women, minorities, SC/ST/OBCs, and special-abled persons; To identify and fill up the existing gaps in higher education, by augmenting and supporting the State Governments’ efforts; Enhancing employability through skilling and vocationalization; Improving the accreditation status of accredited institutions and getting accreditation of non-accredited institutions; Providing better hostel facilities in remote areas; Focusing on low GER, Left Wing Extremism (LWE), border area districts, aspirational districts, and districts with higher SC/ ST population; Hence statement 1 is correct. Establishing New Model Degree Colleges in the districts where there are no Government and Government-aided institutions; Hence statement 2 is correct. Focus on multidisciplinary education, including STEM, commerce, and humanities fields of education. Incorrect Solution (c) Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA) was a Centrally Sponsored Scheme to fund States/UTs institutions, with the vision to attain higher levels of access, equity, and excellence in the State higher education system with greater efficiency, transparency, accountability, and responsiveness. The first phase of the scheme was launched in 2013 and the second phase was launched in 2018. Now, in the light of the National Education Policy, the RUSA scheme has been launched as Pradhan Mantri Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (PM-USHA). It covers government and government-aided institutions of the States and UTs. As the demand for higher education is increasing continuously over the years, there has been an unprecedented expansion in the number of institutions, universities, and volume of students in the country. The features/objectives of PM-USHA are: To improve the overall quality of existing state higher educational institutions by ensuring their conformity to prescribed norms and standards and adoption of accreditation as a quality assurance framework; Usher transformative reforms in the State higher education system by creating a facilitating institutional structure for planning and monitoring at the state level, promoting autonomy in State Universities, and improving governance in institutions; Implementation of recommendations of the NEP 2020 through funding support provided to State HEIs; Ensure governance, academic, and examination (and evaluation) reforms in the State higher educational institutions and establish backward and forward linkages with school education on one hand and employment market, on the other hand, to facilitate self-reliance and thus create an Atma-Nirbhar Bharat; Create an enabling atmosphere in the higher educational institutions to devote themselves to research and innovations; Correct regional imbalances in access to higher education by facilitating access to high-quality institutions in urban & semi‐urban areas, creating opportunities for students from rural areas to get access to better quality institutions, and setting up institutions in unserved & underserved areas; Developing infrastructure for ODL/Online/Digital mode of education in such States/UTs; Improve equity in higher education by providing adequate opportunities for higher education to socially deprived communities; promote inclusion of women, minorities, SC/ST/OBCs, and special-abled persons; To identify and fill up the existing gaps in higher education, by augmenting and supporting the State Governments’ efforts; Enhancing employability through skilling and vocationalization; Improving the accreditation status of accredited institutions and getting accreditation of non-accredited institutions; Providing better hostel facilities in remote areas; Focusing on low GER, Left Wing Extremism (LWE), border area districts, aspirational districts, and districts with higher SC/ ST population; Hence statement 1 is correct. Establishing New Model Degree Colleges in the districts where there are no Government and Government-aided institutions; Hence statement 2 is correct. Focus on multidisciplinary education, including STEM, commerce, and humanities fields of education. Question 28 of 35 28. Question Recently in the news, HE 1005-1439 is a a) group of asteroids found in Whirlpool galaxy b) a black hole in Cigar galaxy c) carbon-enhanced metal-poor (CEMP) star d) none Correct Solution (c) HE 1005-1439 is a carbon-enhanced metal-poor (CEMP) star. They are primarily characterized by diverse heavy elements and abundance patterns. They are formed from the ejected material of the first stars that formed after the Big Bang. HE 1005-1439 defies previous classifications and challenges previous understanding of star formation processes and shows signs of having been formed through the combination of two different neutron-capture processes — the slow (s-) and intermediate (i-). Hence option c is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) HE 1005-1439 is a carbon-enhanced metal-poor (CEMP) star. They are primarily characterized by diverse heavy elements and abundance patterns. They are formed from the ejected material of the first stars that formed after the Big Bang. HE 1005-1439 defies previous classifications and challenges previous understanding of star formation processes and shows signs of having been formed through the combination of two different neutron-capture processes — the slow (s-) and intermediate (i-). Hence option c is correct. Question 29 of 35 29. Question Consider the following statements about the Malayali tribe They are a tribal group from the Eastern Ghats in North Kerala. They constructed huts with red clay on teak wood frames. The roof of their huts was made of dry bamboo leaves and cow dung. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Malayali tribes mean Malai meaning “hill” and yali meaning “people”. Malayali tribes are a tribal group from the Eastern Ghats in North Tamil Nadu. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. They constructed huts with red clay on teak wood frames. It signifies the tribe’s connection to nature. Hence statement 2 is correct. It was initially used for living and later used for seed storage. The roof of their huts was made of dry bamboo leaves and cow dung. It prevented leaks during monsoons. Hence statement 3 is correct. Currently, only one such hut remains on Yelagiri Hill in Tamil Nadu as a symbol of their transition from foraging to a more modern lifestyle. Incorrect Solution (b) Malayali tribes mean Malai meaning “hill” and yali meaning “people”. Malayali tribes are a tribal group from the Eastern Ghats in North Tamil Nadu. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. They constructed huts with red clay on teak wood frames. It signifies the tribe’s connection to nature. Hence statement 2 is correct. It was initially used for living and later used for seed storage. The roof of their huts was made of dry bamboo leaves and cow dung. It prevented leaks during monsoons. Hence statement 3 is correct. Currently, only one such hut remains on Yelagiri Hill in Tamil Nadu as a symbol of their transition from foraging to a more modern lifestyle. Question 30 of 35 30. Question Consider the following statements: Both male and female African elephants have tusks, while only male Asian elephants have tusks. The elephant is a national heritage animal in India that is protected under Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Gaj Soochna is a centralized database that includes physical and genetic information of every captive elephant individual in the country. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) India alone hosts over 60% of the worldwide wild elephant population. The elephant population within India is spread across the southern, northeastern, east-central, and northern parts of the country. Both male and female African elephants have tusks, while only male Asian elephants have tusks. Hence statement 1 is correct. The elephant is a national heritage animal in India that is protected under Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Hence statement 2 is correct. Indian elephants are listed as endangered in the IUCN List and Appendix I of the CITES. Gaj Soochna is a centralized database that includes physical and genetic information of every captive elephant individual in the country. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is being carried out in collaboration with the Wildlife Institute of India and will act as the ‘Adhaar card of captive elephants’. Incorrect Solution (c) India alone hosts over 60% of the worldwide wild elephant population. The elephant population within India is spread across the southern, northeastern, east-central, and northern parts of the country. Both male and female African elephants have tusks, while only male Asian elephants have tusks. Hence statement 1 is correct. The elephant is a national heritage animal in India that is protected under Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Hence statement 2 is correct. Indian elephants are listed as endangered in the IUCN List and Appendix I of the CITES. Gaj Soochna is a centralized database that includes physical and genetic information of every captive elephant individual in the country. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is being carried out in collaboration with the Wildlife Institute of India and will act as the ‘Adhaar card of captive elephants’. Question 31 of 35 31. Question If the height of Ramesh is less by 20% than Suresh, the height of Suresh will be greater than that of Ramesh by how many percent? a) 25% b) 30% c) 32% d) 28% Correct Solution (a) Let the height of Suresh is x and height of Ramesh is y. Then, height of Ramesh = x – 20% of x y = x – (20/100)x y = x – (1/5)x = (4/5)x x = (5/4)y Now, height of Suresh – height of Ramesh = (5/4)y – y = y/4 ∴ Height of Suresh will be greater than that of Ramesh by ((y/4)/y)*100% = y/(4*y)*100 = 100/4 = 25% Incorrect Solution (a) Let the height of Suresh is x and height of Ramesh is y. Then, height of Ramesh = x – 20% of x y = x – (20/100)x y = x – (1/5)x = (4/5)x x = (5/4)y Now, height of Suresh – height of Ramesh = (5/4)y – y = y/4 ∴ Height of Suresh will be greater than that of Ramesh by ((y/4)/y)*100% = y/(4*y)*100 = 100/4 = 25% Question 32 of 35 32. Question Three wheels can complete 40, 45 and 50 revolutions per minute. There is a green spot on each wheel that touches the ground at time zero. After how much time will all these spots simultaneously touch the ground again? a) 15 sec b) 18 sec c) 12 sec d) 8 sec Correct Solution (c) The time taken by the green spot on all the three wheels to simultaneously touch the ground again will be equal to the LCM of the times taken by the three wheels to complete one revolution. Since the time taken by the first wheel to complete 40 revolutions = 60 seconds (1 minute) So, the time taken by the first wheel to complete 1 revolution = 60/40 s = 3/2 s. Also, time taken by the second wheel to complete 45 revolutions = 60 seconds So, the time taken by the second wheel to complete 1 revolution = 60/45s = 4/3 s. Again, time taken by the third wheel to complete 50 revolutions = 60 seconds So, the time taken by the third wheel to complete 1 revolution = 60/50 s = 6/5 s. The LCM of 3/2, 4/3 and 6/5 = LCM (3, 4, 6)/HC F (2, 3, 5) = 12/1 = 12 sec. So, after every 12 s, the green spots of the three wheels will touch the ground simultaneously. Incorrect Solution (c) The time taken by the green spot on all the three wheels to simultaneously touch the ground again will be equal to the LCM of the times taken by the three wheels to complete one revolution. Since the time taken by the first wheel to complete 40 revolutions = 60 seconds (1 minute) So, the time taken by the first wheel to complete 1 revolution = 60/40 s = 3/2 s. Also, time taken by the second wheel to complete 45 revolutions = 60 seconds So, the time taken by the second wheel to complete 1 revolution = 60/45s = 4/3 s. Again, time taken by the third wheel to complete 50 revolutions = 60 seconds So, the time taken by the third wheel to complete 1 revolution = 60/50 s = 6/5 s. The LCM of 3/2, 4/3 and 6/5 = LCM (3, 4, 6)/HC F (2, 3, 5) = 12/1 = 12 sec. So, after every 12 s, the green spots of the three wheels will touch the ground simultaneously. Question 33 of 35 33. Question All the students of a class are sitting in a row. Raman is 7th from the left and Rohan is 14th from the right. The number of students sitting in between them is 1/4th of the total of students in the row. How many students are sitting in the row? a) 18 b) 26 c) 30 d) 28 Correct Solution (d) Let the total number of students = n. Number of students to the left of Raman = 6. Number of students to the right of Rohan = 13. Number of students between Raman and Rohan = n/4. Total number of students in the row = 6 + 13 + 2 + n/4 = n So, 3n/4 = 21 Or n = 28. Incorrect Solution (d) Let the total number of students = n. Number of students to the left of Raman = 6. Number of students to the right of Rohan = 13. Number of students between Raman and Rohan = n/4. Total number of students in the row = 6 + 13 + 2 + n/4 = n So, 3n/4 = 21 Or n = 28. Question 34 of 35 34. Question Suppose there is a number ‘n’. When ‘n’ is divided by 5, the remainder will be 2. What will be the remainder when n2 is divided by 5? a) 6 b) 4 c) 1 d) 8 Correct Solution (b) According to the question when ‘n’ is divided by 5, we will get the remainder 2 n/5 = remainder 2 On putting n =7, and on dividing it with 5 we will get remainder 2 So, n = 7, and n2 = 49 n2/5 = 49/5 = remainder 4 Incorrect Solution (b) According to the question when ‘n’ is divided by 5, we will get the remainder 2 n/5 = remainder 2 On putting n =7, and on dividing it with 5 we will get remainder 2 So, n = 7, and n2 = 49 n2/5 = 49/5 = remainder 4 Question 35 of 35 35. Question All the page numbers in a book are added, beginning from page 1. However, a page number was added twice by mistake. If the sum obtained was 850, which page number must have been added twice? a) 25 b) 30 c) 35 d) 40 Correct Solution (b) Let the total number of pages in the book be ‘n’. Let page number ‘x’ be repeated. Then, x + ⇒ x + n(n+1) /2 = 850 So, n(n+1)/2 ≤ 850 ⇒ n2 + n ≤ 1700 The greatest possible value of n = 40. Now, for n = 40, n(n+1)/2 = 40×41/2 = 820 So, x = 30. Incorrect Solution (b) Let the total number of pages in the book be ‘n’. Let page number ‘x’ be repeated. Then, x + ⇒ x + n(n+1) /2 = 850 So, n(n+1)/2 ≤ 850 ⇒ n2 + n ≤ 1700 The greatest possible value of n = 40. 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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 14th March 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   ‘Five Eyes’ alliance Syllabus Prelims – Current event Context: ‘Five Eyes’ alliance member New Zealand’s Deputy PM and Foreign Minister Winston Peters discusses bilateral ties with S. Jaishankar Background:- At the end of a four-day visit to India, Mr. Peters said that India and New Zealand shared common views on Indo-Pacific security challenges. About ‘Five Eyes’ alliance:-   Est: Post-World War II Members states: Australia, Canada, New Zealand, the United Kingdom, and the United States. The term “Five Eyes” refers to the five countries’ collective efforts to gather and share signals intelligence (SIGINT) to address common security threats and challenges. Objectives: Intelligence Sharing: The alliance members collaborate to share signals intelligence, which includes intercepted communications and electronic data, to enhance their collective understanding of global security threats. Counterterrorism and National Security: The Five Eyes network focuses on countering terrorism and addressing other national security concerns by exchanging vital intelligence and cooperating on joint operations. Cybersecurity and Cyber Threats: Given the growing significance of cyber threats, the alliance works together to monitor and address cyber activities from adversarial nations and non-state actors. Information and Technology Sharing: The Five Eyes partners share expertise and technological advancements in the field of intelligence gathering, analysis, and cryptography. Source: Hindu Infrastructure investment trust (InvIT) Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: InvITs and REITs have gained popularity as preferred investment options, with fundraising, through the route, surging 10-fold year-on-year to ₹11,474 crore in 2023, supported by measures taken by regulator SEBI and attractive returns offered by the instruments. Background: InvITs and REITs are new concepts in the Indian market but have been a popular choice globally for their lucrative returns and capital appreciation. About Infrastructure Investment Trust (InvITs) An Infrastructure Investment Trust (InvITs) is a Collective Investment Scheme similar to a mutual fund. It enables direct investment of money from individual and institutional investors in infrastructure projects to earn a small portion of the income as return. ( FPI and InvITs) The InvIT is designed as a tiered structure with Sponsor setting up the InvIT which in turn invests into the eligible infrastructure projects either directly or via special purpose vehicles (SPVs). Regulated by: SEBI (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2014. An InvIT has four parties namely: Trustee, Sponsor(s) and Investment Manager and Project Manager. While the trustee (certified by Sebi) has the responsibility of inspecting the performance of an InvIT, sponsor(s) are promoters of the company that set up the InvIT. Types of InvITs As per current SEBI Regulations InvITs can be divided into 5 key types depending on the types of infrastructure they own or operate: Energy such as power generation and distribution. Transport & Logisticsg. operating highways and other toll roads optical fiber networks and telecom towers Social and Commercial Infrastructure g. parks Water and Sanitationg. irrigation networks From the perspective of the source of funds, InvITs can be of two types: Privately-Held InvITs:- This type of InvIT is not listed on the stock exchange and units of this type of infrastructure trust cannot be bought or sold on a stock exchange. All units of this type of unit are held privately by a very limited number of individuals or institutions. Public-Listed InvITs:- After an Infrastructure Trust lists itself on the stock exchange, it is known as a public-listed InvIT. Units of a public-listed InvIT can be bought and sold on stock exchanges by retail as well as institutional investors. Current SEBI regulations do not require a mandatory listing of InvITs on stock exchanges. Source: Hindu Businessline MINES AND MINERALS DEVELOPMENT AND REGULATION ACT (MMDRA) Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: The Supreme Court has recently examined a batch of over 80 petitions filed by various private mining companies. Background: Petitions challenge the right of state governments to levy taxes on mining activities within their respective territories. The crux of the dispute lies in the distinction between royalty charged on mining and taxes imposed by states. About MINES AND MINERALS DEVELOPMENT AND REGULATION ACT (MMDRA): The The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 forms the basic framework of mining regulation in India. The act is applicable to all minerals except minor minerals and atomic minerals. MMDR Act, 1957, mandate that every mining lease holder needs to pay royalty for major minerals removed or consumed. This royalty compensates for the privilege of extracting minerals from leased areas. The MMDR Act explicitly places the responsibility for mineral development and regulation within the purview of the Central Government. Central Government has the authority to specify the royalty rates for various minerals. The Second Schedule of the MMDR Act provides royalty rates for various minerals. Under the MDR Act, states have the authority to collect royalties. This provision ensures that mining activities contribute to state revenue while adhering to sustainable practices. It was amended in 2015 and 2016 to bring several reforms in the mineral sector. Source: Money Control MINIMUM ALTERNATE TAX (MAT) Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Recently, the Mumbai bench of the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT) has made an important observation regarding the Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT). Background: According to their recent ruling, the assessee is eligible to claim credit for MAT under the Vivad se Vishwas (VSV) Scheme for the relevant assessment year. This decision could have significant implications for taxpayers seeking resolution of their tax disputes. About MINIMUM ALTERNATE TAX (MAT): Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT) is a provision in India’s Income Tax Act. MAT ensures that companies contribute a minimum amount of tax, regardless of their tax exemptions and deductions. MAT was introduced to bring “zero tax companies” into the tax net. It applies to domestic companies, foreign companies operating in India and Special Economic Zone units. The tax is calculated based on the normal income tax liability of the company or entity. MAT ensures tax fairness and prevents companies from completely avoiding taxes. The Vivad se Vishwas (VSV) Scheme aims to provide a mechanism for taxpayers to settle pending income tax disputes and avoid prolonged litigation. By allowing credit for MAT under this scheme, the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT) is acknowledging the importance of providing relief to taxpayers and promoting a more efficient resolution process. Source: Times of India FOOD CORPORATION OF INDIA (FCI) Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The Food Corporation of India (FCI) has recently reported a decline in wheat stocks, falling below 100 lakh tonnes for the first time since 2018. Background: Currently, the wheat stock stands at 97 lakh tonnes this month. Despite the drop in wheat stocks, the existing stock is sufficient to meet the National Food Security requirements and surpasses the buffer norm. About Food Corporation of India (FCI): The Food Corporation of India (FCI), established in 1965, plays a crucial role in ensuring food security in India. FCI’s primary mandate is to procure, store, and distribute food grains across the country. It operates under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food, and Public Distribution. FCI procures wheat, rice, and other food grains directly from farmers during the harvest season. This procurement helps stabilize prices and ensures that farmers receive fair remuneration. FCI maintains a buffer stock of food grains to meet emergency requirements, such as natural disasters or supply disruptions. This stock acts as a safety net for the nation. FCI supplies food grains to states for distribution through the Public Distribution System (PDS). Under the PDS, eligible households receive subsidized food grains at affordable prices. FCI operates a vast network of storage facilities across the country. These include godowns (warehouses) and silos where food grains are stored. FCI transports food grains from surplus-producing states to deficit states. It ensures that food reaches even the remotest areas. By regulating the supply of food grains, FCI helps stabilize prices in the market. It intervenes when prices rise too high or fall too low. FCI’s efforts contribute to national food security by ensuring a steady supply of essential commodities. The economic cost of food grains procured by the Food Corporation of India (FCI) is a total of Minimum Support Price (MSP) and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus the procurement incidentals and distribution cost. Source: Economic Times Previous Year Question Q1. The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus transportation cost only interest cost only procurement incidentals and distribution cost procurement incidentals and charges for godowns Inland Fisheries Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Context: India has recently overtaken China to become the largest contributor of inland capture water fisheries, thereby emerging as one of the top three fish-producing countries in the world. Background: The Constitution amendment Bill was passed by the Lok Sabha with near-unanimity, with only two members opposing it and was unanimously passed by the Rajya Sabha. Inland Fisheries: It refers to the harvesting, management, and conservation of fish generally in freshwater bodies such as rivers, lakes, reservoirs, ponds, etc. It is mainly done by two methods: Capture fisheries: It is the method of obtaining fish directly from lakes, rivers, or ponds with the help of fishing gear or nets, etc. Culture fisheries: It is the method of obtaining fish by raising and harvesting them in controlled environments with tools of breeding or feed management, etc. Significance/Benefits of Inland Fisheries: It provides nutritional and food security as fishes are rich in protein, omega-3 fatty acids, and Vitamin D. They act as cheap alternatives and help in dietary diversity and nutritional requirements. It provides economic benefits like employment opportunities, development of rural infrastructure, diverse supply chain, exports of processed products increasing foreign exchange earnings, etc. It helps to maintain healthy ecosystems by controlling invasive species and supporting biodiversity. Bioremediation helps in habitat restoration and removal of excess nutrients from urban or agricultural runoff and reduces the likelihood of toxic algal blooms. Ecological balance is sustained as fishes being an important component of aquatic food webs benefit other species as well. Traditional knowledge systems of the community and their strong cultural ties contribute to cultural heritage. Recreational fishing also promotes physical and mental well-being. Issues/Challenges associated with Indian Inland Fisheries: Slow adoption of cutting-edge technologies such as innovative hatchery technologies, water-efficient aquaculture practices, etc. Limited extension services such as lack of standardised prices, and shortage of soil and water testing facilities limit the scope of development of the sector. Like lack of timely credit, inadequate price discovery mechanism due to lack of efficient electronic trading platform, post-harvest losses, etc. Like inadequate cold chain facilities, inadequate post-harvest infrastructure, etc. Inadequate mechanisation and use of traditional boats often result in water pollution and improper aquaculture management. Sustainability issues due to the rising demand for animal protein, fish stocks are often being fully exploited, overfished, or severely depleted at various places. Source: Hindu Businessline Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.)With reference to the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, consider the following statements? The act is applicable to all minerals except minor minerals and atomic minerals. As per the Act, State Government has the authority to specify the royalty rates for various minerals. Under the Act, states have the authority to collect royalties. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None    Q2.) Consider the following statements about Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT): It ensures that companies contribute a minimum amount of tax, regardless of their tax exemptions and deductions. It applies to all companies in India, including foreign companies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3.)With reference to the Food Corporation of India (FCI), consider the following statements: FCI procures food grains directly from farmers during the harvest season. FCI maintains a buffer stock of food grains to meet emergency requirements. FCI supplies food grains to states for distribution through the Public Distribution System. FCI transports food grains from surplus-producing states to deficit states. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  14th March  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  13th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 14th March 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

[DAY 10] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – ECONOMY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question Consider the following statements about the Multidimensional Poverty Index: Poverty in all the countries, which are part of the United Nations, is measured using this indicator. Access to cooking fuel, drinking water and electricity are used as indicators for measuring poverty. It assesses poverty at the individual level as well. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct The global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is an international measure of acute multidimensional poverty covering only 100 developing countries. Access to cooking fuel, drinking water and electricity are used as indicators for measuring poverty. Also Housing, Sanitation and Assets are other indicators that come under Living Standard Dimension. It complements traditional monetary poverty measures by capturing the acute deprivations in health, education and living standards that a person faces simultaneously. The MPI assesses poverty at the individual level. If a person is deprived in a third or more of 10 (weighted) indicators, the global MPI identifies him as ‘MPI Poor’. The extent – or intensity –of his poverty is also measured through the percentage of deprivations he is experiencing. Note: The global MPI was developed by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI), with the UN Development Programme (UNDP) for inclusion in the UNDP’s flagship Human Development Report (HDR) in 2010. It has been published annually by the OPHI and in the HDRs ever since. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct The global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is an international measure of acute multidimensional poverty covering only 100 developing countries. Access to cooking fuel, drinking water and electricity are used as indicators for measuring poverty. Also Housing, Sanitation and Assets are other indicators that come under Living Standard Dimension. It complements traditional monetary poverty measures by capturing the acute deprivations in health, education and living standards that a person faces simultaneously. The MPI assesses poverty at the individual level. If a person is deprived in a third or more of 10 (weighted) indicators, the global MPI identifies him as ‘MPI Poor’. The extent – or intensity –of his poverty is also measured through the percentage of deprivations he is experiencing. Note: The global MPI was developed by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI), with the UN Development Programme (UNDP) for inclusion in the UNDP’s flagship Human Development Report (HDR) in 2010. It has been published annually by the OPHI and in the HDRs ever since. Question 2 of 35 2. Question The Head Count Ratio, used in the National Statistical Organization (NSO) report, is related to the estimation of which of the following? a) Population census b) Population that exists below the poverty line c) Number of children who are enrolled in primary education d) Number of births in any year Correct Solution (b) Head Count Ratio: The Head Count Ratio, used in the National Statistical Organization (NSO) report, is related to the estimation of the population that exists below the poverty line. The Head Count Ratio (HCR) is the population proportion that exists, or lives, below the poverty threshold. One of the undesirable features of the Head Count Ratio (HCR) is that it ignores the depth of poverty; if the poor become poorer, the Head Count Index does not change. Incorrect Solution (b) Head Count Ratio: The Head Count Ratio, used in the National Statistical Organization (NSO) report, is related to the estimation of the population that exists below the poverty line. The Head Count Ratio (HCR) is the population proportion that exists, or lives, below the poverty threshold. One of the undesirable features of the Head Count Ratio (HCR) is that it ignores the depth of poverty; if the poor become poorer, the Head Count Index does not change. Question 3 of 35 3. Question Which of the following Committees were involved in the Poverty Line Estimation in India? The Alagh Committee The Lakdawala Committee The Rangarajan Committee The Tendulkar Committee The Narasimham Committee Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only b) 1, 3 and 4 only c) 1, 2 and 5 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 The Alagh Committee Statement 2 The Lakdawala Committee Statement 3 The Rangarajan Committee Statement 4 The Tendulkar Committee Statement 5 The Narasimham Committee Correct Correct Correct Correct Incorrect Committee for Poverty Line Estimation in India. Committee for Poverty Line Estimation in India. Committee for Poverty Line Estimation in India. Committee for Poverty Line Estimation in India. Committee for analysing India’s banking sector.   Note: The Alagh Committee, the Lakdawala Committee, the Rangarajan Committee and the Tendulkar Committee were involved in the Poverty Line Estimation in India. The Narasimham Committee: From the 1991 India economic crisis to its status of the third largest economy in the world by 2011, India has grown significantly in terms of economic development. So has its banking sector. During this period, recognising the evolving needs of the sector, the Finance Ministry of the Government of India set up various Committees with the task of analysing India’s banking sector, and recommending legislation and regulations to make it more effective, competitive and efficient. Two such expert Committees were set up under the chairmanship of M. Narasimham. The Committees submitted their recommendations in the 1990s in their reports, widely known as the Narasimham Committee-I (1991) report and the Narasimham Committee-II (1998) Report. These recommendations not only helped unleash the potential of banking in India, they are also recognised as a factor towards minimizing the impact of global financial crisis. Starting in 2007 universities will be given special dispensation regarding regulatory, governance and content norms on par with other autonomous institutions of India. All educational institutions will be held to similar standards of audit and disclosure as a ‘not for profit entity’. Surpluses, if any, will be reinvested in the educational sector. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 The Alagh Committee Statement 2 The Lakdawala Committee Statement 3 The Rangarajan Committee Statement 4 The Tendulkar Committee Statement 5 The Narasimham Committee Correct Correct Correct Correct Incorrect Committee for Poverty Line Estimation in India. Committee for Poverty Line Estimation in India. Committee for Poverty Line Estimation in India. Committee for Poverty Line Estimation in India. Committee for analysing India’s banking sector.   Note: The Alagh Committee, the Lakdawala Committee, the Rangarajan Committee and the Tendulkar Committee were involved in the Poverty Line Estimation in India. The Narasimham Committee: From the 1991 India economic crisis to its status of the third largest economy in the world by 2011, India has grown significantly in terms of economic development. So has its banking sector. During this period, recognising the evolving needs of the sector, the Finance Ministry of the Government of India set up various Committees with the task of analysing India’s banking sector, and recommending legislation and regulations to make it more effective, competitive and efficient. Two such expert Committees were set up under the chairmanship of M. Narasimham. The Committees submitted their recommendations in the 1990s in their reports, widely known as the Narasimham Committee-I (1991) report and the Narasimham Committee-II (1998) Report. These recommendations not only helped unleash the potential of banking in India, they are also recognised as a factor towards minimizing the impact of global financial crisis. Starting in 2007 universities will be given special dispensation regarding regulatory, governance and content norms on par with other autonomous institutions of India. All educational institutions will be held to similar standards of audit and disclosure as a ‘not for profit entity’. Surpluses, if any, will be reinvested in the educational sector. Question 4 of 35 4. Question Consider the following statements about the Poverty Gap Index: It is defined as the average poverty gap in the population as a proportion of the poverty line. It helps provide an overall assessment of a region’s progress in poverty reduction and the evaluation of specific public policies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The poverty gap index is a measure of the intensity of poverty. It is defined as the average poverty gap in the population as a proportion of the poverty line. It also helps provide an overall assessment of a region’s progress in poverty reduction and the evaluation of specific public policies or private initiatives. Note: Poverty Gap Index: The poverty gap index is a measure of the intensity of poverty. It is defined as the average poverty gap in the population as a proportion of the poverty line. The poverty gap index is an improvement over the poverty measure head count ratio which simply counts all the people below a poverty line, in a given population, and considers them equally poor. Poverty gap index estimates the depth of poverty by considering how far, on the average, the poor are from that poverty line. Poverty gap index provides a clearer perspective on the depth of poverty. It enables poverty comparisons. It also helps provide an overall assessment of a region’s progress in poverty reduction and the evaluation of specific public policies or private initiatives. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The poverty gap index is a measure of the intensity of poverty. It is defined as the average poverty gap in the population as a proportion of the poverty line. It also helps provide an overall assessment of a region’s progress in poverty reduction and the evaluation of specific public policies or private initiatives. Note: Poverty Gap Index: The poverty gap index is a measure of the intensity of poverty. It is defined as the average poverty gap in the population as a proportion of the poverty line. The poverty gap index is an improvement over the poverty measure head count ratio which simply counts all the people below a poverty line, in a given population, and considers them equally poor. Poverty gap index estimates the depth of poverty by considering how far, on the average, the poor are from that poverty line. Poverty gap index provides a clearer perspective on the depth of poverty. It enables poverty comparisons. It also helps provide an overall assessment of a region’s progress in poverty reduction and the evaluation of specific public policies or private initiatives. Question 5 of 35 5. Question Consider the following statements: Persons who are unemployed, but are seeking work, are part of the labour force. The Worker Population Ratio measures the percentage of persons who are employed in the population. The Unemployment Rate measures the total number of people unemployed out of the total population. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect According to the CMIE, the labor force consists of people who are 15 years or older, and belong to either of the following two categories.ie Are Employed or Are unemployed and are willing to work and are actively looking for a job. Further the Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) is defined as the percentage of persons in the labour force (i.e., working or seeking or available for work) in the population. Worker Population Ratio (WPR): WPR is defined as the percentage of employed persons in the population. Unemployment Rate (UR): UR is defined as the percentage of persons unemployed among the persons in the labour force. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect According to the CMIE, the labor force consists of people who are 15 years or older, and belong to either of the following two categories.ie Are Employed or Are unemployed and are willing to work and are actively looking for a job. Further the Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) is defined as the percentage of persons in the labour force (i.e., working or seeking or available for work) in the population. Worker Population Ratio (WPR): WPR is defined as the percentage of employed persons in the population. Unemployment Rate (UR): UR is defined as the percentage of persons unemployed among the persons in the labour force. Question 6 of 35 6. Question Consider the following statements about Economic Curves: The Phillips Curve traces the relationship between inflation and employment. The Beveridge Curve traces the relationship between the job openings rate and unemployment. The Engel Curve traces the relationship between the household expenditure on a particular goods and the variation of income of the households. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Phillips Curve: It is an economic concept developed by A. W. Phillips, stating that inflation and unemployment have a stable and inverse relationship. Beveridge Curve: A Beveridge Curve, or a UV Curve, is a graphical representation of the relationship between unemployment and the job vacancy rate, the number of unfilled jobs expressed as a proportion of the labour force. Engel Curve: In micro-economics, an Engel Curve describes how the household expenditure on a particular goods or service varies with the household income. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Phillips Curve: It is an economic concept developed by A. W. Phillips, stating that inflation and unemployment have a stable and inverse relationship. Beveridge Curve: A Beveridge Curve, or a UV Curve, is a graphical representation of the relationship between unemployment and the job vacancy rate, the number of unfilled jobs expressed as a proportion of the labour force. Engel Curve: In micro-economics, an Engel Curve describes how the household expenditure on a particular goods or service varies with the household income. Question 7 of 35 7. Question Consider the following statements: Per capita income for a nation is calculated by dividing the country’s national income by its population. Per capita income counts each man, woman, and child, including newborn babies, as a member of the population. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Per capita income is a measure of the amount of money earned per person in a nation or geographic region. Per capita income can be used to determine the average per-person income for an area and to evaluate the standard of living and quality of life of the population. Per capita income for a nation is calculated by dividing the country’s national income by its population. Per capita income counts each man, woman, and child, even newborn babies, as a member of the population. This stands in contrast to other common measurements of an area’s prosperity, such as household income, which counts all people residing under one roof as a household. For comparison between countries, total income is not such a useful measure. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Per capita income is a measure of the amount of money earned per person in a nation or geographic region. Per capita income can be used to determine the average per-person income for an area and to evaluate the standard of living and quality of life of the population. Per capita income for a nation is calculated by dividing the country’s national income by its population. Per capita income counts each man, woman, and child, even newborn babies, as a member of the population. This stands in contrast to other common measurements of an area’s prosperity, such as household income, which counts all people residing under one roof as a household. For comparison between countries, total income is not such a useful measure. Question 8 of 35 8. Question ‘World Development Report’ is published by which organization/ institution? a) World Economic Forum b) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development c) International Monetary Fund d) Asian Development Bank Correct Solution (b) The World Development Report is an annual report published since 1978 by the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development or World Bank. Each WDR provides in-depth analysis of a specific aspect of economic development. Incorrect Solution (b) The World Development Report is an annual report published since 1978 by the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development or World Bank. Each WDR provides in-depth analysis of a specific aspect of economic development. Question 9 of 35 9. Question Consider the following statements: A situation in which individuals are forced to work in low-paying or low-skill jobs is known as underemployment. It is similar to unemployment in that the person is working but not at their full capability. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Underemployment is a measure of employment and labor utilization in the economy that looks at how well the labor force is being used in terms of skills, experience, and availability to work. It refers to a situation in which individuals are forced to work in low-paying or low-skill jobs. People who are classified as underemployed include workers who are highly skilled but working in low-paying or low-skill jobs and part-time workers who would prefer to be full-time whereas the term unemployment refers to a situation when a person who is actively searching for employment is unable to find work. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Underemployment is a measure of employment and labor utilization in the economy that looks at how well the labor force is being used in terms of skills, experience, and availability to work. It refers to a situation in which individuals are forced to work in low-paying or low-skill jobs. People who are classified as underemployed include workers who are highly skilled but working in low-paying or low-skill jobs and part-time workers who would prefer to be full-time whereas the term unemployment refers to a situation when a person who is actively searching for employment is unable to find work. Question 10 of 35 10. Question With reference to various types of economic systems, consider the following: In a market economy, the government decides what goods are to be produced in accordance with the needs of society. In a socialist economy, the desires of individual consumers are not given much importance. In a mixed economy, the market will provide whatever goods and services it can produce well. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct In a market economy, also called capitalism, only those consumer goods will be produced that are in demand, i.e., goods that can be sold profitably either in the domestic or in the foreign markets. In a capitalist society the goods produced are distributed among people not on the basis of what people need but on the basis of what people can afford and are willing to purchase. In a socialist society the government decides what goods are to be produced in accordance with the needs of society. It is assumed that the government knows what is good for the people of the country and so the desires of individual consumers are not given much importance. The government decides how goods are to be produced and how they should be distributed. Most economies are mixed economies, i.e., the government and the market work together. In a mixed economy, the market will provide whatever goods and services it can produce well, and the government will provide essential goods and services which the market fails to do. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct In a market economy, also called capitalism, only those consumer goods will be produced that are in demand, i.e., goods that can be sold profitably either in the domestic or in the foreign markets. In a capitalist society the goods produced are distributed among people not on the basis of what people need but on the basis of what people can afford and are willing to purchase. In a socialist society the government decides what goods are to be produced in accordance with the needs of society. It is assumed that the government knows what is good for the people of the country and so the desires of individual consumers are not given much importance. The government decides how goods are to be produced and how they should be distributed. Most economies are mixed economies, i.e., the government and the market work together. In a mixed economy, the market will provide whatever goods and services it can produce well, and the government will provide essential goods and services which the market fails to do. Question 11 of 35 11. Question Consider the following statements: The estimates of monthly per capita consumption expenditure are vital in gauging the demand dynamics of the economy. The mechanism for determining the Poverty Line does not take into consideration social factors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The estimates of monthly per capita consumption expenditure are vital in gauging the demand dynamics of the economy as well as for understanding the shifting priorities in terms of baskets of goods and services, and in assessing living standards and growth trends across multiple strata.     There are many factors, other than income and assets, which are associated with poverty; for instance, the accessibility to basic education, health care, drinking water and sanitation. The mechanism for determining the Poverty Line also does not take into consideration social factors that trigger and perpetuate poverty such as illiteracy, ill health, lack of access to resources, discrimination or lack of civil and political freedoms. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The estimates of monthly per capita consumption expenditure are vital in gauging the demand dynamics of the economy as well as for understanding the shifting priorities in terms of baskets of goods and services, and in assessing living standards and growth trends across multiple strata.     There are many factors, other than income and assets, which are associated with poverty; for instance, the accessibility to basic education, health care, drinking water and sanitation. The mechanism for determining the Poverty Line also does not take into consideration social factors that trigger and perpetuate poverty such as illiteracy, ill health, lack of access to resources, discrimination or lack of civil and political freedoms. Question 12 of 35 12. Question The term, ‘Sen Index’ is related to: a) Poverty Measurement b) Women Empowerment c) Malnutrition levels d) Stunting levels Correct Solution (a) The Sen Index or Sen poverty index is a composite poverty measure, which combines incidence and intensity of poverty risk with the distribution of income among those at risk of poverty. Amartya Sen, noted Nobel Laureate, has developed an index known as Sen Index. There are other tools such as Poverty Gap Index and Squared Poverty Gap. Incorrect Solution (a) The Sen Index or Sen poverty index is a composite poverty measure, which combines incidence and intensity of poverty risk with the distribution of income among those at risk of poverty. Amartya Sen, noted Nobel Laureate, has developed an index known as Sen Index. There are other tools such as Poverty Gap Index and Squared Poverty Gap. Question 13 of 35 13. Question Consider the following statements: The demand curve is a relation between the quantity of the good chosen by a consumer and the price of the good. The relation between the consumer’s optimal choice of the quantity of a good and its price is called the demand function. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The demand curve is a relation between the quantity of the good chosen by a consumer and the price of the good. The independent variable (price) is measured along the vertical axis and dependent variable (quantity) is measured along the horizontal axis. The demand curve gives the quantity demanded by the consumer at each price. The relation between the consumer’s optimal choice of the quantity of a good and its price is very important and this relation is called the demand function. Thus, the consumer’s demand function for a good gives the amount of the good that the consumer chooses at different levels of its price when the other things remain unchanged. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The demand curve is a relation between the quantity of the good chosen by a consumer and the price of the good. The independent variable (price) is measured along the vertical axis and dependent variable (quantity) is measured along the horizontal axis. The demand curve gives the quantity demanded by the consumer at each price. The relation between the consumer’s optimal choice of the quantity of a good and its price is very important and this relation is called the demand function. Thus, the consumer’s demand function for a good gives the amount of the good that the consumer chooses at different levels of its price when the other things remain unchanged. Question 14 of 35 14. Question Consider the following statements regarding Substitution Effect It is the decrease in sales for a product due to switch to cheaper alternatives when its price rises. A decrease in consumer spending power can offset the substitution effect. Select the correct answer using the code given below. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The substitution effect is the decrease in sales for a product that can be attributed to consumers switching to cheaper alternatives when its price rises. A product may lose market share for many reasons, but the substitution effect is purely a reflection of frugality. When the price of a product or service increases but the buyer’s income stays the same, the substitution effect generally kicks in. The substitution effect is strongest for products that are close substitutes. An increase in consumer spending power can offset the substitution effect. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The substitution effect is the decrease in sales for a product that can be attributed to consumers switching to cheaper alternatives when its price rises. A product may lose market share for many reasons, but the substitution effect is purely a reflection of frugality. When the price of a product or service increases but the buyer’s income stays the same, the substitution effect generally kicks in. The substitution effect is strongest for products that are close substitutes. An increase in consumer spending power can offset the substitution effect. Question 15 of 35 15. Question Macroeconomics, emerged as a separate branch of economics, after which of the following economist’s work? a) Adam Smith b) Paul Krugman c) Milton Friedman d) John Maynard Keynes Correct Solution (d) Macroeconomics, as a separate branch of economics, emerged after the British economist John Maynard Keynes published his celebrated book The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money in 1936. His ideas fundamentally changed the theory and practice of macroeconomics and the economic policies of governments. Incorrect Solution (d) Macroeconomics, as a separate branch of economics, emerged after the British economist John Maynard Keynes published his celebrated book The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money in 1936. His ideas fundamentally changed the theory and practice of macroeconomics and the economic policies of governments. Question 16 of 35 16. Question Which of the following are considered as characteristics of Capitalism? Production takes place for selling the output in the market. Sale and purchase of labour at wage rate. Private ownership of means of production. Select the answer: a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct A capitalist economy can be defined as an economy in which most of the economic activities have the characteristics that there is production taking place for selling the output in the market. The most important element of human labour is needed to carry out production. This is referred to as labour. In capitalist economy, there is sale and purchase of labour services at a price which is called the wage rate (the labour which is sold and purchased against wages is referred to as wage labour). In a capitalist country production activities are mainly carried out by capitalist enterprises. Profits are often used by the producers in the next period to buy new machinery or to build new factories, so that production can be expanded. This necessitates private ownership of means of production. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct A capitalist economy can be defined as an economy in which most of the economic activities have the characteristics that there is production taking place for selling the output in the market. The most important element of human labour is needed to carry out production. This is referred to as labour. In capitalist economy, there is sale and purchase of labour services at a price which is called the wage rate (the labour which is sold and purchased against wages is referred to as wage labour). In a capitalist country production activities are mainly carried out by capitalist enterprises. Profits are often used by the producers in the next period to buy new machinery or to build new factories, so that production can be expanded. This necessitates private ownership of means of production. Question 17 of 35 17. Question In the context of economic activity in India, the primary sector includes. Agriculture Quarrying Banking Mining Select the correct answer using the code given below. a) 1 only b) 1, 2 and 4 c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution (b) When we produce a good by exploiting natural resources, it is an activity of the primary sector. This is because it forms the base for all other products that we subsequently make. Since most of the natural products are from agriculture, dairy, fishing, and forestry, this sector is also called agriculture and related sector. Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4  Correct Correct Incorrect Correct Since Agriculture is practiced by exploiting earth’s natural resources, it becomes an integral part of the primary sector Quarrying comes under the Primary sector. Banking is a component of the tertiary sector Mining in a developing country like India comes under the Primary sector itself. However, In Developed countries, it can come under the secondary sector also.   Incorrect Solution (b) When we produce a good by exploiting natural resources, it is an activity of the primary sector. This is because it forms the base for all other products that we subsequently make. Since most of the natural products are from agriculture, dairy, fishing, and forestry, this sector is also called agriculture and related sector. Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4  Correct Correct Incorrect Correct Since Agriculture is practiced by exploiting earth’s natural resources, it becomes an integral part of the primary sector Quarrying comes under the Primary sector. Banking is a component of the tertiary sector Mining in a developing country like India comes under the Primary sector itself. However, In Developed countries, it can come under the secondary sector also.   Question 18 of 35 18. Question Consider the following statements. The primary sector covers activities in which natural products are changed into other forms through industrial activities. Knowledge-based economic activities are included in the quaternary sector. Activities in the tertiary sector, by themselves, do not produce a good but they are an aid or a support for the production process. Greater the development in primary and secondary sectors, more would be the demand for the service sector How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Correct Correct Correct The secondary sector covers activities in which natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing that we associate with industrial activity. ● The primary sector includes all those activities the end purpose of which consists in exploiting natural resources: agriculture, fishing, forestry, mining, deposits. The quaternary sector is the economic activity based on the intellectual or knowledge-based economy. This involves work that conceives, creates, interprets, organizes, directs and transmits with the help and support of scientific and technical knowledge. Tertiary sector, by itself, do not produce a good but they are an aid or support for the production process which includes banking, financing, insurance etc. Greater the development in primary and secondary sectors, more would be the demand for the service sector. This is because the production needs supportive services of trading and banking for its growth. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Correct Correct Correct The secondary sector covers activities in which natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing that we associate with industrial activity. ● The primary sector includes all those activities the end purpose of which consists in exploiting natural resources: agriculture, fishing, forestry, mining, deposits. The quaternary sector is the economic activity based on the intellectual or knowledge-based economy. This involves work that conceives, creates, interprets, organizes, directs and transmits with the help and support of scientific and technical knowledge. Tertiary sector, by itself, do not produce a good but they are an aid or support for the production process which includes banking, financing, insurance etc. Greater the development in primary and secondary sectors, more would be the demand for the service sector. This is because the production needs supportive services of trading and banking for its growth. Question 19 of 35 19. Question Consider the following statements with respect to National Income. National Income is a Net National Product at market price. Net National Product is the most appropriate measure of economic growth. National Income represents Gross National Product at market price minus depreciation and indirect taxes plus subsidies How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct National income is a Net national product at factor cost and not the market price. NNP is the most appropriate measure of economic growth because it measures Net factors from abroad and depreciation. National income represents gross national product at market price minus depreciation and indirect taxes plus subsidies. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct National income is a Net national product at factor cost and not the market price. NNP is the most appropriate measure of economic growth because it measures Net factors from abroad and depreciation. National income represents gross national product at market price minus depreciation and indirect taxes plus subsidies. Question 20 of 35 20. Question Which of the following are characteristics of ‘Public Goods’? These are available to all without discrimination. The enjoyment of one is not at the expense of others. The rich can be made to pay for access to these goods. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Public goods are commodities or services that benefit all members of society and are often provided for free through public taxation Public goods exhibit a property of non-excludability: this means that when the public good is provided to one person, it is not possible to prevent others from enjoying its consumption – sometimes summarized as: ‘Provision at all means Provision for all’; thus, if a police force, a flood- control dam or a national defense system is successful in offering protection to citizens of a country, once it has been provided it is impossible to exclude anyone within the country from consuming and benefiting from such goods; similarly, for a paved and well-lit public street – nobody can be prevented from enjoying its benefits. An important issue that is related to public goods is referred to as the free-rider problem. Since public goods are made available to all people–regardless of whether each person individually pays for them. Therefore, the rich and poor need not pay for these goods. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Public goods are commodities or services that benefit all members of society and are often provided for free through public taxation Public goods exhibit a property of non-excludability: this means that when the public good is provided to one person, it is not possible to prevent others from enjoying its consumption – sometimes summarized as: ‘Provision at all means Provision for all’; thus, if a police force, a flood- control dam or a national defense system is successful in offering protection to citizens of a country, once it has been provided it is impossible to exclude anyone within the country from consuming and benefiting from such goods; similarly, for a paved and well-lit public street – nobody can be prevented from enjoying its benefits. An important issue that is related to public goods is referred to as the free-rider problem. Since public goods are made available to all people–regardless of whether each person individually pays for them. Therefore, the rich and poor need not pay for these goods. Question 21 of 35 21. Question Consider the following statements about Smishing: It typically involves sending fraudulent emails to individuals. It involves tricking individuals into divulging sensitive personal information. It often involves messages that appear to be from legitimate sources, such as banks. How many of the above statements are correct?  a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Smishing is a social engineering attack that uses fake mobile text messages to trick people into downloading malware, sharing sensitive information, or sending money to cybercriminals. Phishing attacks typically occur through email. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is a type of phishing attack that is a combination of “SMS” (Short Message Service) and “phishing.” It involves tricking individuals into divulging sensitive personal information, such as passwords, credit card numbers, or other confidential data. Hence statement 2 is correct. It often involves messages that appear to be from legitimate sources, such as banks, government agencies, or well-known companies. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) Smishing is a social engineering attack that uses fake mobile text messages to trick people into downloading malware, sharing sensitive information, or sending money to cybercriminals. Phishing attacks typically occur through email. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is a type of phishing attack that is a combination of “SMS” (Short Message Service) and “phishing.” It involves tricking individuals into divulging sensitive personal information, such as passwords, credit card numbers, or other confidential data. Hence statement 2 is correct. It often involves messages that appear to be from legitimate sources, such as banks, government agencies, or well-known companies. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements about Chokuwa Rice: It is a part of Telangana’s culinary heritage. It has been a staple of the troops of the mighty Ahom dynasty. It is cultivated around the Krishna River area. How many of the above statements are correct?  a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Chokuwa rice is a part of Assam’s culinary heritage. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is also known as Magic Rice. It has been a staple of the troops of the mighty Ahom dynasty. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is cultivated around the Brahmaputra River area. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. It is a semi-glutinous winter rice, known as Sali rice. The sticky and glutinous variety is categorized as Bora and Chokuwa based on their amylose concentration. The low amylose Chokuwa rice variants are used to make soft rice, which is known as Komal Chaul or soft rice. This rice variety is widely consumed for its convenience of preparation and nutritional value. Incorrect Solution (a) Chokuwa rice is a part of Assam’s culinary heritage. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is also known as Magic Rice. It has been a staple of the troops of the mighty Ahom dynasty. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is cultivated around the Brahmaputra River area. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. It is a semi-glutinous winter rice, known as Sali rice. The sticky and glutinous variety is categorized as Bora and Chokuwa based on their amylose concentration. The low amylose Chokuwa rice variants are used to make soft rice, which is known as Komal Chaul or soft rice. This rice variety is widely consumed for its convenience of preparation and nutritional value. Question 23 of 35 23. Question Band-e-Amir National Park which was in news recently is located in? a) Turkey b) Iran c) Pakistan d) Afghanistan Correct Solution (d) Band-e-Amir National Park was declared Afghanistan’s firstnational park in 2009. It features a chain of six lakesset in the Hindu Kush Mountains. The lakes are famous for their intense and varying colors, ranging from faint turquoise to deep blue. The colour is a result of the minerals that fill the water and create the lake beds. It’s been called Afghanistan’s Grand Canyon. Incorrect Solution (d) Band-e-Amir National Park was declared Afghanistan’s firstnational park in 2009. It features a chain of six lakesset in the Hindu Kush Mountains. The lakes are famous for their intense and varying colors, ranging from faint turquoise to deep blue. The colour is a result of the minerals that fill the water and create the lake beds. It’s been called Afghanistan’s Grand Canyon. Question 24 of 35 24. Question BRIGHT STAR-23 recently in news is a? a) Multinational tri-services joint military exercise. b) Bilateral joint naval exercise. c) It is a supernova. d) It is a galaxy. Correct Solution (a) As per recent reports, thirty-four countries including India will participate in the joint military exercise, BRIGHT STAR-23. About BRIGHT STAR-23:- Date: 31 August to 14 October 2023. Venue: Mohammed Naguib Military Base, Indian Army contingent comprising 137 personnel will participate in a military exercise. It is a multinational tri-services joint military exercise. It will be led by US CENTCOM and the Egyptian Army. This year 34 countries will participate in the Exercise. It will be the largest-ever joint military exercise in West Asia and North Africa region. This is the first time that the Indian Armed Force with 549 personnel participated in the exercise. During the exercise participating countries will share the best practices to combat emerging unconventional threats and enhance regional partnerships. Significance: The exercise will provide a unique opportunity for the Indian Army to share best practices and experiences with other armies aimed at enhancing defense cooperation. Incorrect Solution (a) As per recent reports, thirty-four countries including India will participate in the joint military exercise, BRIGHT STAR-23. About BRIGHT STAR-23:- Date: 31 August to 14 October 2023. Venue: Mohammed Naguib Military Base, Indian Army contingent comprising 137 personnel will participate in a military exercise. It is a multinational tri-services joint military exercise. It will be led by US CENTCOM and the Egyptian Army. This year 34 countries will participate in the Exercise. It will be the largest-ever joint military exercise in West Asia and North Africa region. This is the first time that the Indian Armed Force with 549 personnel participated in the exercise. During the exercise participating countries will share the best practices to combat emerging unconventional threats and enhance regional partnerships. Significance: The exercise will provide a unique opportunity for the Indian Army to share best practices and experiences with other armies aimed at enhancing defense cooperation. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements about ASTRA Missile: It is an indigenous Beyond Visual Range (BVR) missile. It is a surface-to-air missile. It can engage and destroy highly maneuvering supersonic aerial targets. How many of the above statements are correct?  a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) ASTRA Missile is an indigenous Beyond Visual Range (BVR) missile. Hence statement 1 is correct. Beyond Visual Range (BVR) is a class of missiles that can target and eliminate aerial threats beyond the reach of direct visual observation, enhancing the aircraft’s combat range and effectiveness. It is an air-to-air missile. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It can engage and destroy highly manoeuvring supersonic aerial targets. Hence statement 3 is correct. The missile is intended for use by both the Indian Air Force (IAF) and the Indian Navy. It boasts advanced air combat capabilities. It can engage multiple high-performance targets.   Incorrect Solution (b) ASTRA Missile is an indigenous Beyond Visual Range (BVR) missile. Hence statement 1 is correct. Beyond Visual Range (BVR) is a class of missiles that can target and eliminate aerial threats beyond the reach of direct visual observation, enhancing the aircraft’s combat range and effectiveness. It is an air-to-air missile. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It can engage and destroy highly manoeuvring supersonic aerial targets. Hence statement 3 is correct. The missile is intended for use by both the Indian Air Force (IAF) and the Indian Navy. It boasts advanced air combat capabilities. It can engage multiple high-performance targets.   Question 26 of 35 26. Question Consider the following statements: Side Channel Attacks (SCAs) are a method of hacking a cryptographic algorithm based on the analysis of auxiliary systems used in the encryption method. Acoustic Side Channel Attacks(ASCA) use the sound of clicks generated by a keyboard to analyze keystrokes and interpret what is being typed to leak sensitive information. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Side Channel Attacks(SCAs) are a method of hacking a cryptographic algorithm based on the analysis of auxiliary systems used in the encryption method. Hence statement 1 is correct. These can be performed using a collection of signals emitted by devices including electromagnetic waves, power consumption, mobile sensors as well as sound from keyboards and printers to target devices. Acoustic Side Channel Attacks(ASCA) use the sound of clicks generated by a keyboard to analyze keystrokes and interpret what is being typed to leak sensitive information. Hence statement 2 is correct. These attacks are particularly dangerous as the acoustic sounds from a keyboard are not only readily available but also because their misuse is underestimated by users. Incorrect Solution (c) Side Channel Attacks(SCAs) are a method of hacking a cryptographic algorithm based on the analysis of auxiliary systems used in the encryption method. Hence statement 1 is correct. These can be performed using a collection of signals emitted by devices including electromagnetic waves, power consumption, mobile sensors as well as sound from keyboards and printers to target devices. Acoustic Side Channel Attacks(ASCA) use the sound of clicks generated by a keyboard to analyze keystrokes and interpret what is being typed to leak sensitive information. Hence statement 2 is correct. These attacks are particularly dangerous as the acoustic sounds from a keyboard are not only readily available but also because their misuse is underestimated by users. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements regarding Hangul: It is the state animal of Jammu and Kashmir. It is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. It is listed as endangered on the IUCN Red List. How many of the given statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Hangul is the state animal of Jammu and Kashmir. Hence statement 1 is correct. In Kashmir, it is found primarily in the Dachigam National Park. It is a subspecies of Central Asian red deer endemic to Kashmir and surrounding areas. It is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is listed as critically endangered on the IUCN Red List. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (b) Hangul is the state animal of Jammu and Kashmir. Hence statement 1 is correct. In Kashmir, it is found primarily in the Dachigam National Park. It is a subspecies of Central Asian red deer endemic to Kashmir and surrounding areas. It is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is listed as critically endangered on the IUCN Red List. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Question 28 of 35 28. Question Consider the following statements regarding the recent study released by the Reserve Bank of India on investments: Andhra Pradesh, Tamilnadu, and Telangana accounted for more than half of the total bank-assisted investment proposals made during the year 2022-23. The investment in green field projects accounted for more than 90% in the total cost of projects financed by banks and Financial institutions (FIs) during 2022-23. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) According to the recent study released by the Reserve Bank of India on investments: Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat, Odisha, Maharashtra, and Karnataka accounted for more than half of the total bank-assisted investment proposals made during the year 2022-23. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Kerala, Goa, and Assam were at the bottom of the table in getting the lowest number of new investments. The investment in green field projects accounted for the largest share of 93.1% in the total cost of projects financed by banks and Financial institutions(FIs) during 2022-23. Hence statement 2 is correct. Overall investment plans shot up by 79.50% with a capital outlay of around 3.5 lakh- the highest since 2014-15. Incorrect Solution (b) According to the recent study released by the Reserve Bank of India on investments: Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat, Odisha, Maharashtra, and Karnataka accounted for more than half of the total bank-assisted investment proposals made during the year 2022-23. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Kerala, Goa, and Assam were at the bottom of the table in getting the lowest number of new investments. The investment in green field projects accounted for the largest share of 93.1% in the total cost of projects financed by banks and Financial institutions(FIs) during 2022-23. Hence statement 2 is correct. Overall investment plans shot up by 79.50% with a capital outlay of around 3.5 lakh- the highest since 2014-15. Question 29 of 35 29. Question The 10th plenary of the Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) was held recently. Consider the following statements in this regard:  The focus of 10th IPEBES was the thematic assessment of invasive alien species and their control. IPBES is a United Nations body. The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) provides secretariat services to IPBES. How many of the given statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) About the 10th plenary of IPBES:- Dates: 28 August – 2 September 2023. Location: Bonn, Germany. Agenda: the scientific assessment report on “Invasive Alien Species and their Control”. The focus of IPBES 10 was the thematic assessment of invasive alien species and their control, whose preparation was approved at IPBES 8. IPBES10 is the first meeting of this global body since the adoption of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF). IPBES Established: 2012. HQ: Bonn, Germany. IPBES Member States: 143. It is an independent intergovernmental body. It provides evidence-based and policy-relevant information on biodiversity and ecosystem services. Observer states and stakeholders also participate in Plenary sessions. IPBES assesses the state of biodiversity and the ecosystem services it provides to society, in response to requests from decision-makers. It is not a United Nations body. (UN Biodiversity Summit) The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) provides secretariat services to IPBES. Incorrect Solution (b) About the 10th plenary of IPBES:- Dates: 28 August – 2 September 2023. Location: Bonn, Germany. Agenda: the scientific assessment report on “Invasive Alien Species and their Control”. The focus of IPBES 10 was the thematic assessment of invasive alien species and their control, whose preparation was approved at IPBES 8. IPBES10 is the first meeting of this global body since the adoption of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF). IPBES Established: 2012. HQ: Bonn, Germany. IPBES Member States: 143. It is an independent intergovernmental body. It provides evidence-based and policy-relevant information on biodiversity and ecosystem services. Observer states and stakeholders also participate in Plenary sessions. IPBES assesses the state of biodiversity and the ecosystem services it provides to society, in response to requests from decision-makers. It is not a United Nations body. (UN Biodiversity Summit) The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) provides secretariat services to IPBES. Question 30 of 35 30. Question The Hubble Space Telescope captured an image of the ESO 300-16. The ESO 300-16 is a? a) Comet b) Dwarf planet c) Satellite d) Galaxy Correct Solution (d) The Hubble Space Telescope captured an image of the ESO 300-16. The ESO 300-16 is an irregular galaxy. It is located at a distance of 28.7 million lightyears in the southern constellation of Eridanus. It is made of many tiny stars all clumped together, surrounded by a diffuse light. In the central, brightest part there is a bubble of blue gas. The galaxy is surrounded by mostly very small and faint objects, though there are bright stars above and to the left of it, and a string of galaxies nearby. Hence option d is correct. Note: An irregular galaxy is a galaxy that does not have a distinct regular shape, unlike a spiral or an elliptical galaxy. They have unusual shapes, like toothpicks, rings, or even little groupings of stars. Incorrect Solution (d) The Hubble Space Telescope captured an image of the ESO 300-16. The ESO 300-16 is an irregular galaxy. It is located at a distance of 28.7 million lightyears in the southern constellation of Eridanus. It is made of many tiny stars all clumped together, surrounded by a diffuse light. In the central, brightest part there is a bubble of blue gas. The galaxy is surrounded by mostly very small and faint objects, though there are bright stars above and to the left of it, and a string of galaxies nearby. Hence option d is correct. Note: An irregular galaxy is a galaxy that does not have a distinct regular shape, unlike a spiral or an elliptical galaxy. They have unusual shapes, like toothpicks, rings, or even little groupings of stars. Question 31 of 35 31. Question 124 chocolates were left when the total chocolates in a box were divided equally among 403 students. How many chocolates would remain if the chocolates from the same box are distributed equally among 31 students? a) 0 b) 5 c) 124 d) 23 Correct Solution (a) Assume that the box had X chocolates and each of the 403 students got ‘A’ chocolates. X = 124 + 403 × A Now, 403 = 13 × 31 & 124 = 4 × 31 Clearly, X is divisible by 31. So no chocolates would remain when distributing those among 31 students. Incorrect Solution (a) Assume that the box had X chocolates and each of the 403 students got ‘A’ chocolates. X = 124 + 403 × A Now, 403 = 13 × 31 & 124 = 4 × 31 Clearly, X is divisible by 31. So no chocolates would remain when distributing those among 31 students. Question 32 of 35 32. Question Total expenses of a guest house are partly fixed and partly varying linearly with the number of guests arriving. Average expense per guest is Rs. 1000 when there are 50 guests and Rs. 800 when there are 100 guests. What is the average expense (in Rs) per guest when there are 200 guests? a) 650 b) 600 c) 500 d) 700 Correct Solution (d) Let x (Rs) be the fixed cost and y (Rs/guest), the variable cost. Then, x + 50y = 50000 ……………(І) and x + 100y = 80000 ……………(ІІ). From (І) and (ІІ), we get, y = 600 and x = 20000. Now let the average expense of 200 guests be Rs ‘z’, Since the variable cost of the guest house is linearly related to the number of guests Therefore, 200 × z = x + 200y = 20000 + 600×200 or z = Rs 700   Incorrect Solution (d) Let x (Rs) be the fixed cost and y (Rs/guest), the variable cost. Then, x + 50y = 50000 ……………(І) and x + 100y = 80000 ……………(ІІ). From (І) and (ІІ), we get, y = 600 and x = 20000. Now let the average expense of 200 guests be Rs ‘z’, Since the variable cost of the guest house is linearly related to the number of guests Therefore, 200 × z = x + 200y = 20000 + 600×200 or z = Rs 700   Question 33 of 35 33. Question Mahesh and Suresh are ranked 7th and 11th respectively from the top of their class. If the number of students in the class is 31, then what will be the sum of the ranks of Mahesh and Suresh from the bottom of the class? a) 44 b) 46 c) 48 d) None of the above Correct Solution (b) Total number of students in the class = 31 Rank of Mahesh from top = 7th Number of students behind Mahesh = 31 – 7 = 24 Rank of Mahesh from bottom = 25th Rank of Suresh = 11th Number of students behind Suresh = 31 – 11 = 20 Rank of Suresh from the bottom = 21st Sum of ranks of Mahesh and Suresh from the bottom = 25 + 21 = 46 Incorrect Solution (b) Total number of students in the class = 31 Rank of Mahesh from top = 7th Number of students behind Mahesh = 31 – 7 = 24 Rank of Mahesh from bottom = 25th Rank of Suresh = 11th Number of students behind Suresh = 31 – 11 = 20 Rank of Suresh from the bottom = 21st Sum of ranks of Mahesh and Suresh from the bottom = 25 + 21 = 46 Question 34 of 35 34. Question Consider the following fractions and given statements – 1/2, 2/3, 3/4 and 4/5 S1: If in each fraction, 1 is added to numerator and 2 is added to denominator, then the value of only one fraction will remain unchanged. S2: If in each fraction, 1 is subtracted from denominator, then the value of all fractions will be the same. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) Only S1 is correct. b) Only S2 is correct. c) Both S1 and S2 are correct. d) Both S1 and S2 are incorrect. Correct Solution (c) Given fractions – 1/2, 2/3, 3/4 and 4/5 Considering statement -1, (1+1)/(2+2), (2+1)/(3+2), (3+1)/(4+2) and (4+1)/(5+2)` Or 2/4, 3/5, 4/6 and 5/7 Or 1/2, 3/5, 2/3 and 5/7 Clearly, we can see that the value of only one fraction (i.e. 1/2) remained unchanged. Considering statement -2, 1/(2 – 1), 2/(3 – 1), 3/(4 – 1) and 4/(5 –1) Or 1/1, 2/2, 3/3 and 4/4 Or 1, 1, 1 and 1 Clearly, we can see that the value of each fraction is the same now. Hence, both S1 and S2 are correct. Incorrect Solution (c) Given fractions – 1/2, 2/3, 3/4 and 4/5 Considering statement -1, (1+1)/(2+2), (2+1)/(3+2), (3+1)/(4+2) and (4+1)/(5+2)` Or 2/4, 3/5, 4/6 and 5/7 Or 1/2, 3/5, 2/3 and 5/7 Clearly, we can see that the value of only one fraction (i.e. 1/2) remained unchanged. Considering statement -2, 1/(2 – 1), 2/(3 – 1), 3/(4 – 1) and 4/(5 –1) Or 1/1, 2/2, 3/3 and 4/4 Or 1, 1, 1 and 1 Clearly, we can see that the value of each fraction is the same now. Hence, both S1 and S2 are correct. Question 35 of 35 35. Question A certain bacteria divides into two every two minutes. If the growth of one single bacterium continues uninterrupted for twenty minutes, how many bacteria would be there at the end of twenty minutes? a) 513 b) 512 c) 1024 d) None of the above Correct Solution (c) The number of bacteria increases as per the series: 1, 2, 4, 8, 16 …. Clearly, this is a geometric progression with the common ratio, r = 2. The number of bacteria at the end of twenty minutes will be given by the eleventh term of the GP. [Because, the number of bacteria doubles every two minutes and initially there was already one bacterium]. Eleventh Term, Tn = a × r(n-1) = 1 × 2(n-1) = 210 = 1024 Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.   Incorrect Solution (c) The number of bacteria increases as per the series: 1, 2, 4, 8, 16 …. Clearly, this is a geometric progression with the common ratio, r = 2. The number of bacteria at the end of twenty minutes will be given by the eleventh term of the GP. [Because, the number of bacteria doubles every two minutes and initially there was already one bacterium]. Eleventh Term, Tn = a × r(n-1) = 1 × 2(n-1) = 210 = 1024 Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.   window.wpProQuizInitList = window.wpProQuizInitList || []; window.wpProQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpProQuiz_3533', init: { quizId: 3533, mode: 1, globalPoints: 70, timelimit: 1800, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 704, qpp: 0, catPoints: [70], formPos: 0, lbn: "Test-summary", json: {"30111":{"type":"single","id":30111,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30113":{"type":"single","id":30113,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30114":{"type":"single","id":30114,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30115":{"type":"single","id":30115,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30116":{"type":"single","id":30116,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30118":{"type":"single","id":30118,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30120":{"type":"single","id":30120,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30121":{"type":"single","id":30121,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30123":{"type":"single","id":30123,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30125":{"type":"single","id":30125,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30128":{"type":"single","id":30128,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30129":{"type":"single","id":30129,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30130":{"type":"single","id":30130,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30133":{"type":"single","id":30133,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30134":{"type":"single","id":30134,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30135":{"type":"single","id":30135,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30137":{"type":"single","id":30137,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30139":{"type":"single","id":30139,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30140":{"type":"single","id":30140,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30141":{"type":"single","id":30141,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30144":{"type":"single","id":30144,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30146":{"type":"single","id":30146,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30148":{"type":"single","id":30148,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30150":{"type":"single","id":30150,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30151":{"type":"single","id":30151,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30152":{"type":"single","id":30152,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30154":{"type":"single","id":30154,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30155":{"type":"single","id":30155,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30157":{"type":"single","id":30157,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30160":{"type":"single","id":30160,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30161":{"type":"single","id":30161,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30164":{"type":"single","id":30164,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30166":{"type":"single","id":30166,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30169":{"type":"single","id":30169,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30170":{"type":"single","id":30170,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]}} } }); All the Best IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 13th March 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Nuclear waste Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Science Context: Recently, India loaded the core of its long-delayed prototype fast breeder reactor (PFBR) vessel. Background:- Large-scale use of nuclear power is accompanied by a difficult problem: waste management. About Nuclear Waste:-   In a fission reactor, neutrons bombard the nuclei of atoms of certain elements. When one such nucleus absorbs a neutron, it destabilises and breaks up, yielding some energy and the nuclei of different elements. For example, when the uranium-235 (U-235) nucleus absorbs a neutron, it can fission to barium-144, krypton-89, and three neutrons. If the ‘debris’ (barium-144 and krypton-89) constitute elements that can’t undergo fission, they become nuclear waste. Fuel that is loaded into a nuclear reactor will become irradiated and will eventually have to be unloaded.At this stage it is called spent fuel. The spent fuel contains all the radioactive fission products that are produced when each nucleus breaks apart to produce energy, as well as those radioactive elements, produced when uranium is converted into heavier elements following the absorption of neutrons and subsequent radioactive decays. Handling the spent fuel is the main challenge: it is hot and radioactive, and needs to be kept underwater. Once it has cooled, it can be transferred to dry casks for longer-term storage. All countries with longstanding nuclear power programmes have accumulated a considerable inventory of spent fuel. For example, the U.S. had 69,682 tonnes (as of 2015), Canada 54,000 tonnes (2016), and Russia 21,362 tonnes (2014). Depending on radioactivity levels, the storage period can run up to a few millennia, meaning they have to be isolated from human contact for periods of time that are longer than anatomically modern Homo sapiens have been around on the planet. How is nuclear waste dealt with? Once spent fuel has been cooled in the spent-fuel pool for at least a year, it can be moved to dry-cask storage, and is placed inside large steel cylinders and surrounded by an inert gas. The cylinders are sealed shut and placed inside larger steel or concrete chambers. Reprocessing — the name for technologies that separate fissile from non-fissile material in spent fuel — is another way to deal with the spent fuel. Here, the material is chemically treated to separate fissile material left behind from the non-fissile material. Because spent fuel is so hazardous, reprocessing facilities need specialised protections and personnel of their own. Such facilities present the advantage of higher fuel efficiency but are also expensive. Source: Hindu Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Assam Cabinet on March 10 decided to de-notify a prime one-horned rhino habitat – the Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary about 48km east of Guwahati. Background: Environment activists says the decision, taken 26 years after the Assam Forest Department notified Pobitora as a wildlife sanctuary on March 17, 1998, is the first of its kind for any protected area in the country. About Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary  Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary on the southern bank of the Brahmaputra in Morigaon district in Assam, India. The sanctuary has the highest concentration of the one-horned rhinos on earth. The Grasslands of Pobitora offer sightings of the Greater One Horned Rhinoceros, Wild Water Buffalo, Monitor Lizard, Wild Boar, etc. Pobitora also holds the distinction of being the source population of the Indian Rhinoceros Vision, 2020 (IRV), Eight Rhinos were translocated from Pobitora Wild life Sanctuary and introduced into Manas National Park Source: Hindu AGNI-5 MISSILE WITH MIRV TECHNOLOGY Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Recently, India successfully conducted the first flight test of indigenously developed Agni-5 missile with Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle (MIRV) technology from Dr A P J Abdul Kalam Island off the coast of Odisha. Background: The flight test was conducted as part of India’s ‘Mission Divyastra’. About Agni-V: The Agni-V is an advanced surface-to-surface ballistic missile developed under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP) in India. The Agni-V is an intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) developed indigenously by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) of India. It’s a fire-and-forget missile, which means once fired, it doesn’t require further guidance and can’t be stopped without an interceptor missile. The missile has a range of over 5000 km, making it capable of hitting targets beyond this range. It can carry a warhead of about 1500 kg. The Agni series of missiles, which includes Agni-1 to Agni-5, forms the backbone of India’s nuclear launch capability. Agni-V has been successfully tested multiple times since 2012. Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle (MIRV) Technology The latest variant of the Agni missile is equipped with MIRV (Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle) technology. MIRV technology allows a single missile to deploy multiple warheads at different locations or at the same location with a time gap. This technology significantly enhances the missile’s effectiveness by enabling it to hit multiple targets simultaneously. Agni-V’s MIRV capability is aimed primarily at countering challenges from China. These missiles can be launched from land or from sea from a submarine. Global Context: Currently, only a handful of countries possess MIRV-equipped missiles. These countries include the United States, Russia, China, France, and the United Kingdom. While Pakistan is developing such a missile system, there are suspicions that Israel may also possess or be developing one. Previous Year Question Q1. With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct? It is a surface-to-surface missile. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 SABROOM LAND PORT Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi virtually inaugurated the 3rd Land Port at Sabroom in South Tripura. Background: In addition to the modern Land Port in Sabroom, the Prime Minister inaugurated 11 projects in Tripura. About SABROOM LAND PORT : The Sabroom Land Port is strategically located in the South Tripura district of the state of Tripura, India, along the international border with Bangladesh. It plays a vital role in linking India and Bangladesh, facilitating cross-border trade. Sabroom is directly connected to the Chittagong port of Bangladesh via the Maitree bridge over the River Feni, which is approximately 75 km from the proposed land port. The land port provides facilities such as a passenger terminal building, cargo administrative building, and warehouse. It aims to enhance connectivity and boost trade between India and Southeast Asia. Source: Times of India AVAANA SUSTAINABILITY FUND (ASF) Syllabus Prelims -Current Event Context: Recently, SIDBI has secured a substantial investment of $24.5 million from the Green Climate Fund (GCF) for its Avaana Sustainability Fund (ASF). Background: The Green Climate Fund (GCF) is the world’s largest climate fund, established within the framework of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change. Its mission is to assist developing countries in both adaptation and mitigation practices to counter the effects of climate change. About AVAANA SUSTAINABILITY FUND (ASF): The Avaana Sustainability Fund (ASF) is a USD 120 million venture capital fund that aims to invest in early-stage climate technology companies in India. This fund is launched by the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI). ASF focuses on supporting the transition to low-carbon and climate-resilient development pathways by investing in innovative technologies across key sectors such as sustainable resource management, mobility and supply chains, and sustainable agriculture and food systems. ASF’s strategies include investing in low-carbon and climate-resilient businesses, adding value for climate and sustainability leaders, establishing a virtuous cycle of sourcing and value addition for the larger ecosystem, and focusing on social, economic, and environmental impact with tailored investment strategies across various sectors. The ASF project has been approved by the Green Climate Fund (GCF) and aims to contribute to India’s efforts in addressing climate challenges and promoting sustainable solution. Source: Economic Times Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam Syllabus Mains – GS 2 Context: Parliament passed the Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023, to provide for one-third reservation to women in the Lok Sabha, State Assemblies, and the Assembly of NCT of Delhi. Background: The Constitution amendment Bill was passed by the Lok Sabha with near-unanimity, with only two members opposing it and was unanimously passed by the Rajya Sabha. Key features of the Act: It provided for inserting Article 330A into the constitution, which borrows from the provisions of Article 330, which provides for the reservation of seats to SCs/STs in the Lok Sabha. It provided that reserved seats for women may be allotted by rotation to different constituencies in states or Union Territories. In the seats reserved for SCs/STs, it sought to provide one-third of the seats to be reserved for women on a rotational basis. It introduces Article 332A, which mandates the reservation of seats for women in every state legislative assembly. Additionally, one-third of the seats reserved for SCs and STs must be allocated for women, and one-third of the total seats filled through direct elections to the Legislative Assemblies shall also be reserved for women. It added a new clause in 239AA to the constitution that grants special status to the Union Territory of Delhi as the national capital concerning its administrative and legislative functioning. Article 239AA(2)(b) was amended to add that the laws framed by parliament shall apply to the National Capital Territory of Delhi. It added new Article 334A which states that the reservation will be effective after the census conducted after the commencement of this Act has been published. Based on the census, delimitation will be undertaken to reserve seats for women. The reservation will be provided for 15 years. However, it shall continue till such date as determined by a law made by Parliament. Seats reserved for women will be rotated after each delimitation, as determined by a law made by Parliament. Issues/Concerns with the Act: The idea of reservation runs counter to the principle of equality enshrined in the Constitution, as women may not be competing on merit. Reservation of seats for women in legislature restricts voter’s choices and runs counter to the idea of self-determination. Women are not a homogeneous community, such as a caste group. Therefore, the arguments made for caste-based reservations cannot be made for women. There are larger issues of electoral reforms such as the criminalization of politics, internal democracy in political parties, etc., that might act as an impediment to the political empowerment of women. The act provides for the reservation of 1/3rd seats across all Lok Sabha seats as against the provision of reserving 1/3rd seats in each State/UT as mentioned in the 2008 bill. The act provides for the rotation of seats after every delimitation exercise as against after every general election to the Parliament/ State legislative assemblies. The Act does not contain any provision for reservation for women in Rajya Sabha and Legislative Councils of the States. Geeta Mukherjee Committee (1996) recommended providing reservations for women in Rajya Sabha and Legislative Councils as well. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.)With reference to the Avaana Sustainability Fund (ASF), consider the following statements: The Avaana Sustainability Fund (ASF) is a venture capital fund. It aims to invest in early-stage climate technology companies in India. It is launched by the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI). How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q2.) The Sabroom Land Port, recently seen in news is located in India, along the international border with Myanmar Bangladesh Nepal Bhutan Q3.) With reference to the Agni-V Missile, consider the following statements: Agni-V is an advanced surface-to-surface ballistic missile. It is developed indigenously by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) of India. Agni-V missile with MIRV technology can carry multiple warheads that can independently target different locations. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  13th March  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  12th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – a Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 13th March 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.  To take the Test Click Here

[DAY 09] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – ECONOMY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question Which among the following parameters is/are used for the calculation of GDP at Basic Price? Cost of factors of production, such as land, labour and capital Production subsidies Product taxes Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Cost of factors of production, such as land, labour and capital are one of the parameters used for calculation of GDP at Basic Price. Production subsidies is one of the parameters used for calculation of GDP at Basic Price. Product taxes is not a parameter used for calculation of GDP at Basic Price. Note: The Basic Price is the price expected to be received by the producer. It is calculated as: ‘Factor Cost ‘+ ‘Production Taxes ‘– ‘Production Subsidies ‘. Hence, GDP at Basic Price = ‘GDP at Factor Cost’ + ‘Production Taxes’ – ‘Production Subsidies’. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Cost of factors of production, such as land, labour and capital are one of the parameters used for calculation of GDP at Basic Price. Production subsidies is one of the parameters used for calculation of GDP at Basic Price. Product taxes is not a parameter used for calculation of GDP at Basic Price. Note: The Basic Price is the price expected to be received by the producer. It is calculated as: ‘Factor Cost ‘+ ‘Production Taxes ‘– ‘Production Subsidies ‘. Hence, GDP at Basic Price = ‘GDP at Factor Cost’ + ‘Production Taxes’ – ‘Production Subsidies’. Question 2 of 35 2. Question Which among the following can be considered either as ‘Production tax/taxes or Production subsidy/subsidies? Stamp Duty Goods and Services Tax (GST) Subsidies on food and kerosene Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Stamp Duty à Production Tax GST à Product Tax   Subsidies on food and kerosene à Product Subsidy   Note: Production Taxes or Production Subsidies: Production taxes or production subsidies are paid or received with relation to production and are independent of the volume of actual production. Some examples of production taxes are land revenues, stamps and registration fees, and tax on profession. Some production subsidies include subsidies to the railways, input subsidies to the farmers, subsidies to the village and small industries, administrative subsidies to the corporations or co-operatives, etc. Product Tax or Product Subsidy: Product taxes or subsidies are paid or received on per unit of product. Some examples of product taxes are excise tax, sales tax, service tax, and import and export duties. Product subsidies include food, petroleum and fertilizer subsidies, interest subsidies given to the farmers, households, etc. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Stamp Duty à Production Tax GST à Product Tax   Subsidies on food and kerosene à Product Subsidy   Note: Production Taxes or Production Subsidies: Production taxes or production subsidies are paid or received with relation to production and are independent of the volume of actual production. Some examples of production taxes are land revenues, stamps and registration fees, and tax on profession. Some production subsidies include subsidies to the railways, input subsidies to the farmers, subsidies to the village and small industries, administrative subsidies to the corporations or co-operatives, etc. Product Tax or Product Subsidy: Product taxes or subsidies are paid or received on per unit of product. Some examples of product taxes are excise tax, sales tax, service tax, and import and export duties. Product subsidies include food, petroleum and fertilizer subsidies, interest subsidies given to the farmers, households, etc. Question 3 of 35 3. Question Which among the following correctly depicts/depict the nature of relationship between the GDP at Factor Cost, Basic Price and Market Price? GDP at Market Price = GDP at Factor Cost + Product Taxes – Product Subsidies GDP at Basic Price = GDP at Factor Cost + Production taxes – Production Subsidies GDP at Market Price = GDP at Basic Price + Product Taxes – Product Subsidies Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 3 only d) 2 and 3 only Correct Solution (d) Relationship between GDP at Market Price and GDP at Basic Price: GDP at Market Price = GDP at Basic Price + Product Taxes – Product Subsidies Relationship between GDP at Market Price and GDP at Factor Cost: GDP at Basic Price = GDP at Factor Cost + Production Taxes – Production Subsidies Substituting the value of GDP at Basic Price with GDP at Factor Cost in equation 1, GDP at Market Price = (GDP at Factor Cost + Production Taxes – Production Subsidies) + Product Taxes – Product Subsidies GDP at Market Price = GDP at Factor Cost + (Production Taxes + Product Taxes) – (Production Subsidies + Product Subsidies) GDP at Market price = GDP at Factor Cost + Indirect Taxes – Subsidies Incorrect Solution (d) Relationship between GDP at Market Price and GDP at Basic Price: GDP at Market Price = GDP at Basic Price + Product Taxes – Product Subsidies Relationship between GDP at Market Price and GDP at Factor Cost: GDP at Basic Price = GDP at Factor Cost + Production Taxes – Production Subsidies Substituting the value of GDP at Basic Price with GDP at Factor Cost in equation 1, GDP at Market Price = (GDP at Factor Cost + Production Taxes – Production Subsidies) + Product Taxes – Product Subsidies GDP at Market Price = GDP at Factor Cost + (Production Taxes + Product Taxes) – (Production Subsidies + Product Subsidies) GDP at Market price = GDP at Factor Cost + Indirect Taxes – Subsidies Question 4 of 35 4. Question If the Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA) of a particular country is positive, what would it denote? a) GDP is higher than GNP b) GNP is higher than GDP c) Higher external liabilities of the country d) None of the above Correct Solution (b) The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) measures the value of goods and services produced within a country’s borders, by both the citizens and the noncitizens. On the other hand, the Gross National Product (GNP) measures the value of goods and services produced by only the country’s citizens, but both domestically and abroad. GNP = GDP + Income earned by the Indians outside India – Income earned by the foreigners within India. GNP = GDP + Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA). Incorrect Solution (b) The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) measures the value of goods and services produced within a country’s borders, by both the citizens and the noncitizens. On the other hand, the Gross National Product (GNP) measures the value of goods and services produced by only the country’s citizens, but both domestically and abroad. GNP = GDP + Income earned by the Indians outside India – Income earned by the foreigners within India. GNP = GDP + Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA). Question 5 of 35 5. Question With reference to the GDP estimation in India, consider the following statements: The GDP is estimated at the Market Prices, instead of the Factor Cost. The base year for the calculation of the GDP is 2011-12. The GDP is estimated by the National Statistical Office (NSO). How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The GDP is estimated at the Market Prices, instead of the Factor Cost. The base year for the calculation of the GDP is 2011-12. The GDP is estimated by the National Statistical Office (NSO). Note: Gross Domestic Product (GDP): The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) refers to the market value of all final goods and services produced within an economy.   Recent changes in the GDP estimation (2015): Change in the base year from 2004-05 to 2011-12. Usually, the base years are revised at a frequency of 7-10 years by taking into account the changing economic landscape of the country. Change in the GDP estimation from the GDP at the Factor Cost to GDP at the Market Prices. Change in the database for capturing economic activity from RBI’s database to the MCA-21 database of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. This database is basically used for two purposes: Estimate the production of goods and services in the organized sector, based upon the tax returns. Extrapolate the production of goods and services in the unorganized sector, based upon the organized sector activity. The GDP is estimated by the National Statistical Office (NSO). Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The GDP is estimated at the Market Prices, instead of the Factor Cost. The base year for the calculation of the GDP is 2011-12. The GDP is estimated by the National Statistical Office (NSO). Note: Gross Domestic Product (GDP): The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) refers to the market value of all final goods and services produced within an economy.   Recent changes in the GDP estimation (2015): Change in the base year from 2004-05 to 2011-12. Usually, the base years are revised at a frequency of 7-10 years by taking into account the changing economic landscape of the country. Change in the GDP estimation from the GDP at the Factor Cost to GDP at the Market Prices. Change in the database for capturing economic activity from RBI’s database to the MCA-21 database of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. This database is basically used for two purposes: Estimate the production of goods and services in the organized sector, based upon the tax returns. Extrapolate the production of goods and services in the unorganized sector, based upon the organized sector activity. The GDP is estimated by the National Statistical Office (NSO). Question 6 of 35 6. Question With reference to the ‘Veblen Goods’, consider the following statements: The demand for these goods increases with the increase in their prices. These goods are normally considered to be the ‘Inferior Goods’. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect ‘Veblen Goods‘ are the goods for which the demand increases as the price increases. Veblen goods are typically high-quality goods that are made well, are exclusive and are a status symbol. Veblen goods are generally sought after by the affluent consumers, who place a premium on the utility of the goods. Some of the examples include diamonds, iPhones, etc. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect ‘Veblen Goods‘ are the goods for which the demand increases as the price increases. Veblen goods are typically high-quality goods that are made well, are exclusive and are a status symbol. Veblen goods are generally sought after by the affluent consumers, who place a premium on the utility of the goods. Some of the examples include diamonds, iPhones, etc. Question 7 of 35 7. Question Consider the following statements: All the Giffen Goods are Inferior Goods, but all the Inferior Goods are not Giffen Goods. The demand for the Giffen Goods increases with the increase in their prices. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct A Giffen good is a type of inferior good, but not all inferior goods are Giffen goods. An inferior good is a good for which the quantity demanded decreases as its price increases, meaning that as the consumer’s income increases, they will demand less of the good. A Giffen good is a specific type of inferior good for which an increase in price leads to an increase in the quantity demanded, resulting in a violation of the basic law of demand. This occurs because the good is so poor in quality and expensive that as the price increases, it becomes a luxury item and consumers demand more of it. Giffen Goods are those goods whose demand increases with the increase in their prices. Note: Giffen Goods: In economics and consumer theory, a Giffen good is a product that people consume more of as the price rises and vice versa—violating the basic law of demand in microeconomics. For any other sort of good, as the price of the good rises, the substitution effect makes consumers purchase less of it, and more of substitute goods; for most goods, the income effect (due to the effective decline in available income due to more being spent on existing units of this good) reinforces this decline in demand for the good. But a Giffen good is so strongly an inferior good in the minds of consumers (being more in demand at lower incomes) that this contrary income effect more than offsets the substitution effect, and the net effect of the good’s price rise is to increase demand for it. This phenomenon is known as the Giffen paradox. A Giffen good is considered to be the opposite of an ordinary good. There are three necessary preconditions for this situation to arise: the good in question must be an inferior good, there must be a lack of close substitute goods, and the goods must constitute a substantial percentage of the buyer’s income, but not such a substantial percentage of the buyer’s income that none of the associated normal goods are consumed. Some examples of it are wheat, potatoes and Rice. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct A Giffen good is a type of inferior good, but not all inferior goods are Giffen goods. An inferior good is a good for which the quantity demanded decreases as its price increases, meaning that as the consumer’s income increases, they will demand less of the good. A Giffen good is a specific type of inferior good for which an increase in price leads to an increase in the quantity demanded, resulting in a violation of the basic law of demand. This occurs because the good is so poor in quality and expensive that as the price increases, it becomes a luxury item and consumers demand more of it. Giffen Goods are those goods whose demand increases with the increase in their prices. Note: Giffen Goods: In economics and consumer theory, a Giffen good is a product that people consume more of as the price rises and vice versa—violating the basic law of demand in microeconomics. For any other sort of good, as the price of the good rises, the substitution effect makes consumers purchase less of it, and more of substitute goods; for most goods, the income effect (due to the effective decline in available income due to more being spent on existing units of this good) reinforces this decline in demand for the good. But a Giffen good is so strongly an inferior good in the minds of consumers (being more in demand at lower incomes) that this contrary income effect more than offsets the substitution effect, and the net effect of the good’s price rise is to increase demand for it. This phenomenon is known as the Giffen paradox. A Giffen good is considered to be the opposite of an ordinary good. There are three necessary preconditions for this situation to arise: the good in question must be an inferior good, there must be a lack of close substitute goods, and the goods must constitute a substantial percentage of the buyer’s income, but not such a substantial percentage of the buyer’s income that none of the associated normal goods are consumed. Some examples of it are wheat, potatoes and Rice. Question 8 of 35 8. Question Which of the following is/ are the characteristics of a mixed economy? Maintaining private ownership. Economic freedom in the use of capital. Government control of the means of production of public goods. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Mixed economies typically maintain private ownership and control of most of the means of production, but often under government regulation. A mixed economic system protects private property and allows a level of economic freedom in the use of capital, but also allows for the governments to interfere in the economic activities, in order to achieve social aims. A mixed economy is an economy organized with some free-market elements and some socialistic elements, which lies on a continuum, somewhere between pure capitalism and pure socialism. Mixed economies socialize select industries that are deemed essential or that produce public goods. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Mixed economies typically maintain private ownership and control of most of the means of production, but often under government regulation. A mixed economic system protects private property and allows a level of economic freedom in the use of capital, but also allows for the governments to interfere in the economic activities, in order to achieve social aims. A mixed economy is an economy organized with some free-market elements and some socialistic elements, which lies on a continuum, somewhere between pure capitalism and pure socialism. Mixed economies socialize select industries that are deemed essential or that produce public goods. Question 9 of 35 9. Question Which of the following economic activities come under the tertiary sector of the economy? Transport Storage Food processing Communication Banking Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1, 4 and 5 only b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only c) 4 and 5 only d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Statement 5 Correct Correct Incorrect Correct Correct Transportation is part of Tertiary Sector Storage is part of Tertiary Sector Food Processing is part of Primary or Secondary Sector Communication is part of Tertiary Sector Banking is part of Tertiary Sector Note: Primary Sector: When we produce goods by exploiting the natural resources, it is an activity of the primary sector. This is because it forms the base for all other products that we subsequently make. Since most of the natural products we get are from agriculture, dairy, fishing and forestry, this sector is also called agriculture and related sector. Secondary Sector: The secondary sector covers activities in which the natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing that we associate with industrial activity. It is the next step after primary. The product is not produced by nature, but has to be made and, therefore, some process of manufacturing is essential. This could be in a factory, a workshop or at home. For example, using cotton fibre from the plant, we spin yarn and weave cloth. Tertiary Sector: After primary and secondary, there is a third category of activities that falls under the tertiary sector and is different from the above two. These are the activities that help in the development of the primary and the secondary sectors. These activities, by themselves, do not produce goods, but they are an aid or a support for the production process. For example, goods that are produced in the primary or secondary sector would need to be transported by trucks or trains and then sold in the wholesale and retail shops. At times, it may be necessary to store these in godowns. Transport, storage, communication, banking and trade are some examples of tertiary activities. Since these activities generate services rather than goods, the tertiary sector is also called the service sector. Service sector also includes some essential services that may not directly help in the production of goods. For example, we require teachers, doctors, and those who provide personal services, such as washermen, barbers, cobblers, lawyers and people to do administrative and accounting works. In recent times, certain new services, based on information technology, such as internet cafe, ATM booths, call centres, software companies, etc., have become important. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Statement 5 Correct Correct Incorrect Correct Correct Transportation is part of Tertiary Sector Storage is part of Tertiary Sector Food Processing is part of Primary or Secondary Sector Communication is part of Tertiary Sector Banking is part of Tertiary Sector Note: Primary Sector: When we produce goods by exploiting the natural resources, it is an activity of the primary sector. This is because it forms the base for all other products that we subsequently make. Since most of the natural products we get are from agriculture, dairy, fishing and forestry, this sector is also called agriculture and related sector. Secondary Sector: The secondary sector covers activities in which the natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing that we associate with industrial activity. It is the next step after primary. The product is not produced by nature, but has to be made and, therefore, some process of manufacturing is essential. This could be in a factory, a workshop or at home. For example, using cotton fibre from the plant, we spin yarn and weave cloth. Tertiary Sector: After primary and secondary, there is a third category of activities that falls under the tertiary sector and is different from the above two. These are the activities that help in the development of the primary and the secondary sectors. These activities, by themselves, do not produce goods, but they are an aid or a support for the production process. For example, goods that are produced in the primary or secondary sector would need to be transported by trucks or trains and then sold in the wholesale and retail shops. At times, it may be necessary to store these in godowns. Transport, storage, communication, banking and trade are some examples of tertiary activities. Since these activities generate services rather than goods, the tertiary sector is also called the service sector. Service sector also includes some essential services that may not directly help in the production of goods. For example, we require teachers, doctors, and those who provide personal services, such as washermen, barbers, cobblers, lawyers and people to do administrative and accounting works. In recent times, certain new services, based on information technology, such as internet cafe, ATM booths, call centres, software companies, etc., have become important. Question 10 of 35 10. Question Consider the following statements about the Human Capital Index: It is published by the World Economic Forum. It is a measure of poverty in various countries. Income per household is one of the components used by the Index. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Human Capital Index is published by the World Bank. The Human Capital Index (HCI) measures the human capital that a child born today can expect to attain by her 18th birthday, given the risks of poor health and poor education prevailing in her country. Components : 1: Survival from birth to school age, measured using under-5 mortality rates. Component 2: Expected years of learning-adjusted school, combining information on the quantity and quality of education. Component 3: Health – In the absence of a single broadly-accepted, directly measured and widely available metric, the overall health environment is captured by two proxies- a)         Adult survival rates, defined as the fraction of 15-year-olds who survive until age 60 b)         The rate of stunting for children under age 5.   Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Human Capital Index is published by the World Bank. The Human Capital Index (HCI) measures the human capital that a child born today can expect to attain by her 18th birthday, given the risks of poor health and poor education prevailing in her country. Components : 1: Survival from birth to school age, measured using under-5 mortality rates. Component 2: Expected years of learning-adjusted school, combining information on the quantity and quality of education. Component 3: Health – In the absence of a single broadly-accepted, directly measured and widely available metric, the overall health environment is captured by two proxies- a)         Adult survival rates, defined as the fraction of 15-year-olds who survive until age 60 b)         The rate of stunting for children under age 5.   Question 11 of 35 11. Question Which of the following are the examples of human capital? Knowledge of the bus driver. Construction of a factory. Increase in the number of doctors. Publication of school books. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 2 and 4 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) 1, 3 and 4 only Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Incorrect The owner of a physical capital, say a bus, need not be present in the place where it is used; whereas, a bus driver, who possesses the knowledge and ability to drive the bus, should be present when the bus is used for transportation of people and materials. Construction of a factory is a physical capital. Increase in the number of doctors is an increase in the human capital. Publication of school books is a part of physical capital. However, it helps in augmenting human capital. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Incorrect The owner of a physical capital, say a bus, need not be present in the place where it is used; whereas, a bus driver, who possesses the knowledge and ability to drive the bus, should be present when the bus is used for transportation of people and materials. Construction of a factory is a physical capital. Increase in the number of doctors is an increase in the human capital. Publication of school books is a part of physical capital. However, it helps in augmenting human capital. Question 12 of 35 12. Question Consider the following statements regarding the World Bank’s classification of the world economies: The World Bank classifies the world’s economies into four income groups namely high, upper-middle, lower-middle and low. The classification is based on estimates of a country’s Gross National Income (GNI) per capita. India and China fall in the same category of the World Bank’s classification. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The World Bank classifies economies for analytical purposes into four income groups: low, lower-middle, upper-middle, and high income. For this purpose, it uses gross national income (GNI) per capita data in U.S. dollars, converted from local currency using the World Bank Atlas method, which is applied to smooth exchange rate fluctuations. Estimates of GNI are obtained from economists in World Bank country units who rely primarily on official data published by the countries; the size of the population is estimated by World Bank demographers from a variety of sources, including the UN’s biennial World Population Prospects. Countries are classified each year on July 1, based on the estimate of their GNI per capita for the previous calendar year. Income groupings remain fixed for the entire World Bank fiscal year (i.e., until July 1 of the following year), even if GNI per capita estimates are revised in the meantime. Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect The World Bank classifies the world’s economies into four income groups – high, upper-middle, lower- middle, and low. This assignment is based on Gross National Income (GNI) per capita (current US$). The classification is updated each year on July 1st. India currently falls in the World Bank’s lower-middle income category while China currently falls in the    upper-middle income category. Incorrect Solution (b) The World Bank classifies economies for analytical purposes into four income groups: low, lower-middle, upper-middle, and high income. For this purpose, it uses gross national income (GNI) per capita data in U.S. dollars, converted from local currency using the World Bank Atlas method, which is applied to smooth exchange rate fluctuations. Estimates of GNI are obtained from economists in World Bank country units who rely primarily on official data published by the countries; the size of the population is estimated by World Bank demographers from a variety of sources, including the UN’s biennial World Population Prospects. Countries are classified each year on July 1, based on the estimate of their GNI per capita for the previous calendar year. Income groupings remain fixed for the entire World Bank fiscal year (i.e., until July 1 of the following year), even if GNI per capita estimates are revised in the meantime. Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect The World Bank classifies the world’s economies into four income groups – high, upper-middle, lower- middle, and low. This assignment is based on Gross National Income (GNI) per capita (current US$). The classification is updated each year on July 1st. India currently falls in the World Bank’s lower-middle income category while China currently falls in the    upper-middle income category. Question 13 of 35 13. Question The maximum amount of income available within a domestic economy for the consumption of goods and services is termed as: a) Gross Domestic Product b) Gross National Product c) National Disposable Income d) Gross Value Added Correct Solution (c) National Disposable Income is the maximum amount of goods and services a country has which could be used for the purpose of saving and consumption. It is obtained by adding Net National Product at market prices with current transfers from the rest of the world. It gives an idea of what is the maximum amount of goods and services the domestic economy has at its Incorrect Solution (c) National Disposable Income is the maximum amount of goods and services a country has which could be used for the purpose of saving and consumption. It is obtained by adding Net National Product at market prices with current transfers from the rest of the world. It gives an idea of what is the maximum amount of goods and services the domestic economy has at its Question 14 of 35 14. Question With reference to “Income elasticity of demand”, which of the following statements is/are correct? Normal goods have a positive income elasticity of demand. Inferior goods have a negative income elasticity of demand. Select the correct answer using the code given below. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Normal goods have a positive income elasticity of demand. As incomes rise, more goods are demanded at each price level. The quantity demanded for normal necessities will increase with income, but at a slower rate than luxury goods. This is because consumers, rather than buying more of the necessities, will likely use their increased income to purchase more luxury goods and services. Inferior goods have a negative income elasticity of demand – the quantity demanded for inferior goods falls as incomes rise. For example, the quantity demanded for generic food items tends to decrease during periods of increased incomes.   Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Normal goods have a positive income elasticity of demand. As incomes rise, more goods are demanded at each price level. The quantity demanded for normal necessities will increase with income, but at a slower rate than luxury goods. This is because consumers, rather than buying more of the necessities, will likely use their increased income to purchase more luxury goods and services. Inferior goods have a negative income elasticity of demand – the quantity demanded for inferior goods falls as incomes rise. For example, the quantity demanded for generic food items tends to decrease during periods of increased incomes.   Question 15 of 35 15. Question “These are final goods that are of a durable character. They make the production of other commodities feasible, but they themselves don’t get transformed into the production goods. They gradually undergo wear and tear, and thus are repaired or gradually replaced over time” Which of the following is described in the above passage? a) Consumption goods b) Capital goods c) Intermediate goods d) Consumer durables Correct Solution (b) Final Goods are the items which are meant for final use and will not pass through any more stages of production or transformations are called a final Of the final goods, we can distinguish between consumption goods and capital Consumption goods are goods like food and clothing and services like recreation that are consumed when purchased by their ultimate Capital goods are those goods that are of a durable character which are used in the production These are tools, implements, and machines. While they make the production of other commodities feasible, they themselves don’t get transformed into the production process. Consumer durables are commodities like television sets, automobiles or home computers, although they are for ultimate consumption, have one characteristic in common with capital goods – they are also Of the total production taking place in the economy a large number of products do not end up in final consumption and are not capital goods Such goods may be used by other producers as material inputs. Examples are steel sheets used for making automobiles and copper used for making utensils. These are intermediate goods. Incorrect Solution (b) Final Goods are the items which are meant for final use and will not pass through any more stages of production or transformations are called a final Of the final goods, we can distinguish between consumption goods and capital Consumption goods are goods like food and clothing and services like recreation that are consumed when purchased by their ultimate Capital goods are those goods that are of a durable character which are used in the production These are tools, implements, and machines. While they make the production of other commodities feasible, they themselves don’t get transformed into the production process. Consumer durables are commodities like television sets, automobiles or home computers, although they are for ultimate consumption, have one characteristic in common with capital goods – they are also Of the total production taking place in the economy a large number of products do not end up in final consumption and are not capital goods Such goods may be used by other producers as material inputs. Examples are steel sheets used for making automobiles and copper used for making utensils. These are intermediate goods. Question 16 of 35 16. Question Which of the following is/are observed in an economy during the expansion phase of the economic cycle? High-interest rates Moderate to high inflation Increased unemployment Select the correct answer using the code given below. a) 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect During the expansion phase, the economy experiences relatively rapid growth, interest rates tend to be low, and production increases. During the expansion phase, the economy experiences relatively moderate to high inflation due to rise in aggregate demand. In the expansion phase, there is an increase in various economic factors, such as production, employment, output, wages, profits, demand and supply of products, and sales. Thus, there is decrease in unemployment. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect During the expansion phase, the economy experiences relatively rapid growth, interest rates tend to be low, and production increases. During the expansion phase, the economy experiences relatively moderate to high inflation due to rise in aggregate demand. In the expansion phase, there is an increase in various economic factors, such as production, employment, output, wages, profits, demand and supply of products, and sales. Thus, there is decrease in unemployment. Question 17 of 35 17. Question In an open economy, for the barter system to operate successfully, which of the following principle must be completely satisfied? a) Law of diminishing returns b) Double coincidence of wants c) The law of supply d) The law of demand Correct Solution (b) Double coincidence of wants is a situation where two economic agents have complementary demand for each other’s surplus It refers to the simultaneous fulfilment of mutual wants of buyers and sellers. For example, a person with a particular good has to find a person who has the goods of his wants and he should also possess the wanted good of the other Incorrect Solution (b) Double coincidence of wants is a situation where two economic agents have complementary demand for each other’s surplus It refers to the simultaneous fulfilment of mutual wants of buyers and sellers. For example, a person with a particular good has to find a person who has the goods of his wants and he should also possess the wanted good of the other Question 18 of 35 18. Question In the Product method or Gross Value Added (GVA) method, the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is calculated by adding the gross value added (GVA) of all firms in the economy. Which of the following are used to find the GVA of a firm? Sales of the firm Change in inventories Value of intermediate goods used Select the correct answer using the code given below. a) 1 and 3 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct In the Product method or Gross Value Added (GVA) method, the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is calculated by adding the gross value added (GVA) of all firms in the economy. GVA = Value of sales by the firm + Value of change in inventories – Value of intermediate goods used by the firm. This equation has been derived by using; Change in inventories of a firm during a year = Production of the firm during the year – Sale of the firm during the year. Gross value added of firm = Gross value of the output produced by the firm – Value of intermediate goods used by the firm. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct In the Product method or Gross Value Added (GVA) method, the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is calculated by adding the gross value added (GVA) of all firms in the economy. GVA = Value of sales by the firm + Value of change in inventories – Value of intermediate goods used by the firm. This equation has been derived by using; Change in inventories of a firm during a year = Production of the firm during the year – Sale of the firm during the year. Gross value added of firm = Gross value of the output produced by the firm – Value of intermediate goods used by the firm. Question 19 of 35 19. Question Factor Cost is a measure of national income or output based on the cost of factors of production. Which of the following are included in the factor cost? Government grants Subsidies Customs duty Service tax Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution (c) The total cost incurred in deploying all factors, which led to the production or generation of goods and commodities available in the market, is known as factor cost. Taxes paid to the government are not included in the factor cost since they are not directly engaged in the production process and so are not a component of the direct production cost. Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Incorrect Incorrect Factor cost refers to the actual cost of the various factors of production that includes government grants. Factor cost refers to the actual cost of the various factors of production that even includes subsidies. Factor cost excludes custom duty.   Factor cost excludes indirect taxes like service tax.   Incorrect Solution (c) The total cost incurred in deploying all factors, which led to the production or generation of goods and commodities available in the market, is known as factor cost. Taxes paid to the government are not included in the factor cost since they are not directly engaged in the production process and so are not a component of the direct production cost. Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Incorrect Incorrect Factor cost refers to the actual cost of the various factors of production that includes government grants. Factor cost refers to the actual cost of the various factors of production that even includes subsidies. Factor cost excludes custom duty.   Factor cost excludes indirect taxes like service tax.   Question 20 of 35 20. Question Consider the following statements regarding GDP calculation. Newly produced goods are counted. Final goods and services are counted. Central Statistics Office (CSO) added care economy to calculate GDP. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Gross domestic product (GDP) is the single standard indicator used across the globe to indicate the health of a nation’s economy: one single number that represents the monetary value of all the finished goods and services produced within a country’s borders in a specific period. Only newly produced goods are counted. Transactions in existing goods, such as second-handed cars, are not included as these do not involve the production of new goods.   GDP measures the monetary value of final goods and services that is, those that are bought by the final user produced in a country in a given period of time Much of the work done by women at home taking care of the children, aged, chores etc. which is called care economy is outside the GDP. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Gross domestic product (GDP) is the single standard indicator used across the globe to indicate the health of a nation’s economy: one single number that represents the monetary value of all the finished goods and services produced within a country’s borders in a specific period. Only newly produced goods are counted. Transactions in existing goods, such as second-handed cars, are not included as these do not involve the production of new goods.   GDP measures the monetary value of final goods and services that is, those that are bought by the final user produced in a country in a given period of time Much of the work done by women at home taking care of the children, aged, chores etc. which is called care economy is outside the GDP. Question 21 of 35 21. Question Consider the following statements: The Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change notifies the green hydrogen standard for India. The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) is the nodal authority for accreditation of agencies for the certification of green hydrogen production projects. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy notifies the green hydrogen standard for India. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Green hydrogen is the hydrogen derived from renewable energy sources, either via electrolysis or biomass conversion. It also encompasses green energy preserved in energy storage systems. The emission thresholds for the production of hydrogen to be classified as ‘green’ are – Green hydrogen having a well-to-gate emission of not more than two kg carbon dioxide (CO2) equivalent per kg hydrogen(H2). The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) under the Ministry of Power will be the nodal authority for the accreditation of agencies for the monitoring, verification, and certification of green hydrogen production projects. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy notifies the green hydrogen standard for India. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Green hydrogen is the hydrogen derived from renewable energy sources, either via electrolysis or biomass conversion. It also encompasses green energy preserved in energy storage systems. The emission thresholds for the production of hydrogen to be classified as ‘green’ are – Green hydrogen having a well-to-gate emission of not more than two kg carbon dioxide (CO2) equivalent per kg hydrogen(H2). The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) under the Ministry of Power will be the nodal authority for the accreditation of agencies for the monitoring, verification, and certification of green hydrogen production projects. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 22 of 35 22. Question He was born on 25th December 1924. He was elected 10 times to the Lok Sabha from four different States. He was twice a member of the Rajya Sabha. He was the first non-Congress Prime Minister to have finished a full term. His birthday is observed as Good Governance Day. He advocated and practiced positive nationalism. He proudly took Hindi to the United Nations first time and spoke it in the UN General Assembly. He envisaged and executed the first round of Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana which connected rural India. He conducted the nuclear test in Pokhran. The above paragraph refers to which of the following personality? a) Morarji Desai b) P. V. Narasimha Rao c) H. D. Deve Gowda d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee Correct Solution (d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee was born on 25th December 1924. He was elected 10 times to the Lok Sabha from four different States. He was twice a member of the Rajya Sabha. He was the first non-Congress Prime Minister to have finished a full term. He was Prime Minister thrice in 1996, 1998-1999, and 1999-2004. His birthday is observed as Good Governance Day. He advocated and practiced positive nationalism. He proudly took Hindi to the United Nations first time and spoke it in the UN General Assembly. He rode a bus to Lahore for Indo-Pak peace. He envisaged and executed the first round of Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana which connected rural India. He conducted the nuclear test in Pokhran. He brought in the National Highway Development Project leading to East West North South Corridor or the Golden Quadrilateral. The New Telecom Policy of 1999 brought in by him was also a crucial part of the Indian telecom revolution. He was awarded Padma Vibhushan in 1992 and India’s highest civilian honor, Bharat Ratna in 2015. Hence option d is correct. Incorrect Solution (d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee was born on 25th December 1924. He was elected 10 times to the Lok Sabha from four different States. He was twice a member of the Rajya Sabha. He was the first non-Congress Prime Minister to have finished a full term. He was Prime Minister thrice in 1996, 1998-1999, and 1999-2004. His birthday is observed as Good Governance Day. He advocated and practiced positive nationalism. He proudly took Hindi to the United Nations first time and spoke it in the UN General Assembly. He rode a bus to Lahore for Indo-Pak peace. He envisaged and executed the first round of Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana which connected rural India. He conducted the nuclear test in Pokhran. He brought in the National Highway Development Project leading to East West North South Corridor or the Golden Quadrilateral. The New Telecom Policy of 1999 brought in by him was also a crucial part of the Indian telecom revolution. He was awarded Padma Vibhushan in 1992 and India’s highest civilian honor, Bharat Ratna in 2015. Hence option d is correct. Question 23 of 35 23. Question Which of the following are the factors that influence the intensity of southwest monsoons in India? Strengths of high pressure over Tibet Strengths of low pressure over the southern Indian Ocean Somali Current Indian Ocean branch of Walker Cell Choose the correct code: a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (b) The factors that influence the intensity of southwest monsoons in India: Strengths of low pressure over Tibet Strengths of high pressure over the southern Indian Ocean Somali Current Indian Ocean branch of Walker Cell Indian Ocean Dipole Somali Jet Hence option b is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) The factors that influence the intensity of southwest monsoons in India: Strengths of low pressure over Tibet Strengths of high pressure over the southern Indian Ocean Somali Current Indian Ocean branch of Walker Cell Indian Ocean Dipole Somali Jet Hence option b is correct. Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements about the Grant for Research and Entrepreneurship across Aspiring Innovators in Technical Textiles (GREAT) scheme: It aims to support individuals and companies to translate prototypes into technologies & products, including commercialization. It is launched by the Ministry of Textiles to provide much-needed impetus for the development of the technical textiles startup ecosystem in India. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) The Grant for Research and Entrepreneurship across Aspiring Innovators in Technical Textiles (GREAT) scheme aims to support individuals and companies to translate prototypes into technologies and products, including commercialization. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is launched by the Ministry of Textiles to provide much-needed impetus for the development of the technical textiles startup ecosystem in India, especially in niche sub-segments such as bio-degradable and sustainable textiles, high-performance and specialty fibers, and smart textiles. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) The Grant for Research and Entrepreneurship across Aspiring Innovators in Technical Textiles (GREAT) scheme aims to support individuals and companies to translate prototypes into technologies and products, including commercialization. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is launched by the Ministry of Textiles to provide much-needed impetus for the development of the technical textiles startup ecosystem in India, especially in niche sub-segments such as bio-degradable and sustainable textiles, high-performance and specialty fibers, and smart textiles. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements about the State of India’s Birds Report 2023: About 70% of bird species show clear declines over the past decades. Forest degradation, urbanization, and energy infrastructure are the major threats faced by birds. Raptors, migratory shorebirds, and ducks have experienced the most significant declines. How many of the above statements are correct?  a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Zero-day attack refers to an unknown vulnerability that can be exploited by any malicious The findings of the State of India’s Birds Report 2023 released by the State of India’s Birds Partnership are: About 39% of bird species show clear declines over the past decades. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. 178 species classified as of High Conservation Priority, and require immediate attention. Forest degradation, urbanization, and energy infrastructure are the major threats faced by birds. Hence statement 2 is correct. Long-distance migratory birds, such as those from Eurasia and the Arctic, have suffered significant declines. Several species like the Indian Peafowl, Rock Pigeon, Asian Koel, and House Crow are thriving and increasing in both abundance and distribution. Raptors, migratory shorebirds, and ducks have experienced the most significant declines. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) Zero-day attack refers to an unknown vulnerability that can be exploited by any malicious The findings of the State of India’s Birds Report 2023 released by the State of India’s Birds Partnership are: About 39% of bird species show clear declines over the past decades. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. 178 species classified as of High Conservation Priority, and require immediate attention. Forest degradation, urbanization, and energy infrastructure are the major threats faced by birds. Hence statement 2 is correct. Long-distance migratory birds, such as those from Eurasia and the Arctic, have suffered significant declines. Several species like the Indian Peafowl, Rock Pigeon, Asian Koel, and House Crow are thriving and increasing in both abundance and distribution. Raptors, migratory shorebirds, and ducks have experienced the most significant declines. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 26 of 35 26. Question Consider the following statements about Seethakali folk art: It is a centuries-old folk art form that originated in Kerala. It is based on certain episodes taken from the Indian epic Ramayana. Its props and instruments are made of natural materials like bamboo and palm leaves. How many of the above statements are correct?  a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Seethakali folk art is a centuries-old folk art form that originated in Kerala. Hence statement 1 is correct. This art form was first performed some 150 years back by the people of Vedar and Pulayar communities. It is based on certain episodes taken from the Indian epic Ramayana. Hence statement 2 is correct. Mythic characters such as Rama, Seetha, Ravana, and Hanuman come alive in Seethakali performances that portray the tale of Seetha’s journey, from the time she accompanied Rama to the woods to her ascent to the heavens. Its props and instruments are made of natural materials like bamboo and palm leaves. Hence statement 3 is correct. The costumes and the make-up are loud and eye-catching. The characters of Rama and Laxmana appear in green since the colour is used to represent gods and goddesses in Kathakali. Incorrect Solution (c) Seethakali folk art is a centuries-old folk art form that originated in Kerala. Hence statement 1 is correct. This art form was first performed some 150 years back by the people of Vedar and Pulayar communities. It is based on certain episodes taken from the Indian epic Ramayana. Hence statement 2 is correct. Mythic characters such as Rama, Seetha, Ravana, and Hanuman come alive in Seethakali performances that portray the tale of Seetha’s journey, from the time she accompanied Rama to the woods to her ascent to the heavens. Its props and instruments are made of natural materials like bamboo and palm leaves. Hence statement 3 is correct. The costumes and the make-up are loud and eye-catching. The characters of Rama and Laxmana appear in green since the colour is used to represent gods and goddesses in Kathakali. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements regarding the features of Nataraja: The upper left hand holds the drum which signifies the sound of creation. The upper right hand holds the eternal fire which signifies the destruction. The lower right hand is raised in the gesture of Abhay Mudra signifying benediction and reassuring the devotee to not be afraid. The lower left hand points towards the upraised foot and indicates the path of salvation. How many of the above statements are correct?  a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (b) Nataraja is the representation of the Hindu god Shiva during his form as the cosmic dance. It is represented in metal or stone in many Shaivite temples, particularly in South India. It is an important piece of Chola sculpture. The features of Nataraja are: The upper right hand holds the drum which signifies the sound of creation. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The upper left hand holds the eternal fire which signifies the destruction. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The lower right hand is raised in the gesture of Abhay Mudra signifying benediction and reassuring the devotee to not be afraid. Hence statement 3 is correct. The lower left hand points towards the upraised foot and indicates the path of salvation. Hence statement 4 is correct. Shiva is dancing on the figure of a small dwarf. The dwarf symbolizes ignorance and the ego of an individual. The matted and flowing locks of Shiva represent the flow of the river Ganges. In ornamentation, one ear of Shiva has a male earring while the other has a female. This represents the fusion of male and female and is often referred to as A snake is wrapped around the arm of Shiva. The snake symbolizes the kundalini power, which resides in the human spine in the dormant stage. Incorrect Solution (b) Nataraja is the representation of the Hindu god Shiva during his form as the cosmic dance. It is represented in metal or stone in many Shaivite temples, particularly in South India. It is an important piece of Chola sculpture. The features of Nataraja are: The upper right hand holds the drum which signifies the sound of creation. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The upper left hand holds the eternal fire which signifies the destruction. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The lower right hand is raised in the gesture of Abhay Mudra signifying benediction and reassuring the devotee to not be afraid. Hence statement 3 is correct. The lower left hand points towards the upraised foot and indicates the path of salvation. Hence statement 4 is correct. Shiva is dancing on the figure of a small dwarf. The dwarf symbolizes ignorance and the ego of an individual. The matted and flowing locks of Shiva represent the flow of the river Ganges. In ornamentation, one ear of Shiva has a male earring while the other has a female. This represents the fusion of male and female and is often referred to as A snake is wrapped around the arm of Shiva. The snake symbolizes the kundalini power, which resides in the human spine in the dormant stage. Question 28 of 35 28. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Horn of Africa: It consists of Somalia, Ethiopia, Eritrea, Libya, and Djibouti It is equidistant from the equator and the Tropic of Capricorn. It is a UNESCO Biodiversity Hotspot. How many of the above statements are correct?  a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) The Horn of Africa consists of Somalia, Ethiopia, Eritrea, and Djibouti. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The Greater Horn of Africa region includes Burundi, Djibouti, Eritrea, Ethiopia, Kenya, Rwanda, Somalia, South Sudan, Sudan, Tanzania, and Uganda. It is equidistant from the equator and the Tropic of Cancer. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It extends out into the Arabian Sea for hundreds of kilometers. It is located along the south of the Gulf of Aden. It is a UNESCO Biodiversity Hotspot. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (a) The Horn of Africa consists of Somalia, Ethiopia, Eritrea, and Djibouti. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The Greater Horn of Africa region includes Burundi, Djibouti, Eritrea, Ethiopia, Kenya, Rwanda, Somalia, South Sudan, Sudan, Tanzania, and Uganda. It is equidistant from the equator and the Tropic of Cancer. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It extends out into the Arabian Sea for hundreds of kilometers. It is located along the south of the Gulf of Aden. It is a UNESCO Biodiversity Hotspot. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 29 of 35 29. Question ‘Chail Wildlife Sanctuary’ which was in news recently is located in? a) Himachal Pradesh b) Rajasthan c) Arunanchal Pradesh d) Assam Correct Solution (a) Chail Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Indian state of Himachal Pradesh. It encompasses hills, valleys, forests, and grasslands. Its flora includes oak, pine, cedar, rhododendron, and grasslands. Its fauna includes pheasants, Himalayan bears, deer, langurs, and porcupines. It comprises part of the catchment area of a tributary of the Giri River. Incorrect Solution (a) Chail Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Indian state of Himachal Pradesh. It encompasses hills, valleys, forests, and grasslands. Its flora includes oak, pine, cedar, rhododendron, and grasslands. Its fauna includes pheasants, Himalayan bears, deer, langurs, and porcupines. It comprises part of the catchment area of a tributary of the Giri River. Question 30 of 35 30. Question The Kampala Declaration is related to? a) Chickenpox b) Good governance c) Artificial intelligence d) Climate change Correct Solution (d) The Kampala Declaration is related to climate change. Hence option d is correct. Kampala Ministerial Declaration on Migration, Environment, and Climate Change (KDMECC) was signed in 2022 at Kampala, Uganda by 15 African states. Its objective is to address the nexus of human mobility and climate change in the continent. It is the first comprehensive, action-oriented framework led by Member States to address climate-induced mobility in a practical and effective manner. Incorrect Solution (d) The Kampala Declaration is related to climate change. Hence option d is correct. Kampala Ministerial Declaration on Migration, Environment, and Climate Change (KDMECC) was signed in 2022 at Kampala, Uganda by 15 African states. Its objective is to address the nexus of human mobility and climate change in the continent. It is the first comprehensive, action-oriented framework led by Member States to address climate-induced mobility in a practical and effective manner. Question 31 of 35 31. Question A = (45% of P) – (15% of Q) and B = (25% of P) + (20% of Q). In which of the following cases is A – B positive?   a) P = 700 and Q = 400 b) P = 700 and Q = 300 c) P = 700 and Q = 500 d) None of the above Correct Solution (b) We will check by substituting the values for each option:   For option (a): A = (45% of P) – (15% of Q) = 0.45 × 700 – 0.15 × 400 = 255 B = (25% of P) + (20% of Q) = 0.25 × 700 + 0.20 × 400 = 255 Clearly, A = B, hence option (a) is wrong.   For option (b): A = (45% of P) – (15% of Q) = 0.45 × 700 – 0.15 × 300 = 315 – 45 = 270 B = (25% of P) + (20% of Q) = 0.25 × 700 + 0.20 × 300 = 175 + 60 = 235   For option (c): A = (45% of P) – (15% of Q) = 0.45 * 700 – 0.15 * 500 = 315 – 75 = 240 B = ( 25% of P ) + ( 20% of Q) = ( 0.25 * 700) + ( 0.2 * 500 ) = ( 175 + 100 ) = 275 A-B = -35. Clearly, A-B > 0 Hence, option (b) is the correct answer. Incorrect Solution (b) We will check by substituting the values for each option:   For option (a): A = (45% of P) – (15% of Q) = 0.45 × 700 – 0.15 × 400 = 255 B = (25% of P) + (20% of Q) = 0.25 × 700 + 0.20 × 400 = 255 Clearly, A = B, hence option (a) is wrong.   For option (b): A = (45% of P) – (15% of Q) = 0.45 × 700 – 0.15 × 300 = 315 – 45 = 270 B = (25% of P) + (20% of Q) = 0.25 × 700 + 0.20 × 300 = 175 + 60 = 235   For option (c): A = (45% of P) – (15% of Q) = 0.45 * 700 – 0.15 * 500 = 315 – 75 = 240 B = ( 25% of P ) + ( 20% of Q) = ( 0.25 * 700) + ( 0.2 * 500 ) = ( 175 + 100 ) = 275 A-B = -35. Clearly, A-B > 0 Hence, option (b) is the correct answer. Question 32 of 35 32. Question A ball is dropped on the ground from a height of 1000 metre. Each time the ball bounces 4/5 times of the height of its every last bounce. Find the total distance covered by the ball before coming to rest. a) 5000 m b) 8000 m c) 10000 m d) 9000 m Correct Solution (d) Distance covered in the 1st round = AP + PB = 1000 + (4/5)×1000 = 1000 + 800 = 1800 m. Distance covered in the 2nd round = BQ + QC = 800 + (4/5)×800 = 800 + 640 = 1440 m. Distance covered in the 3rd round = CR + RD = 640 + 4/5×640 = 640 + 512 = 1152 m and so on. So, the total distance covered = 1800 + 1440 + 1152 + ……………….∞ terms. This is an infinite G.P. (geometric progression) with common ratio 4/5. So, Sum, S∞ = a/1-r , a = first term = 1800 and r = common ratio = 4/5. Hence, the required distance = 1800/(1-4/5) = 1800/(1/5) = 9000 m Incorrect Solution (d) Distance covered in the 1st round = AP + PB = 1000 + (4/5)×1000 = 1000 + 800 = 1800 m. Distance covered in the 2nd round = BQ + QC = 800 + (4/5)×800 = 800 + 640 = 1440 m. Distance covered in the 3rd round = CR + RD = 640 + 4/5×640 = 640 + 512 = 1152 m and so on. So, the total distance covered = 1800 + 1440 + 1152 + ……………….∞ terms. This is an infinite G.P. (geometric progression) with common ratio 4/5. So, Sum, S∞ = a/1-r , a = first term = 1800 and r = common ratio = 4/5. Hence, the required distance = 1800/(1-4/5) = 1800/(1/5) = 9000 m Question 33 of 35 33. Question Tina goes to her office by car. She usually reaches the office at 10:10 AM. One day she drove at 4/5th (four- fifth) of her usual speed and reached the office at 10:30 AM. What is the time taken by her to reach the office at her usual speed? a) 100 minutes b) 80 minutes c) 70 minutes d) None of these Correct Solution (b) New speed = 4/5 of its usual speed So, New time taken = 5/4 of the usual time [time = distance/speed, if distance is constant then time ∝ 1/speed ] So, (5/4 of the usual time) – (usual time) = 20 min ➱ (5/4 -1) of the usual time = 20 min ➱ ¼ of the usual time = 20 min ➱ usual time = (4×20) min = 80 min. Incorrect Solution (b) New speed = 4/5 of its usual speed So, New time taken = 5/4 of the usual time [time = distance/speed, if distance is constant then time ∝ 1/speed ] So, (5/4 of the usual time) – (usual time) = 20 min ➱ (5/4 -1) of the usual time = 20 min ➱ ¼ of the usual time = 20 min ➱ usual time = (4×20) min = 80 min. Question 34 of 35 34. Question A student took five papers in an examination, where the full marks were the same for each paper. His marks in these papers were in the proportion of 4:5:6:7:8. In all papers together, the candidate obtained 60% of the total marks. Then the number of papers in which he got at least 70% marks is: a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) None of these Correct Solution (c) Let the marks scored in five subjects be 4x, 5x, 6x, 7x and 8x (on a scale of 100). Average score = 60% = 60 marks So, (4x+5x+6x+7x+8x) / 5 = 60 or x = 10. So, the marks obtained are 40, 50, 60, 70 and 80. Hence the number of papers in which he got at least 70% marks = 2 (70 & 80). Incorrect Solution (c) Let the marks scored in five subjects be 4x, 5x, 6x, 7x and 8x (on a scale of 100). Average score = 60% = 60 marks So, (4x+5x+6x+7x+8x) / 5 = 60 or x = 10. So, the marks obtained are 40, 50, 60, 70 and 80. Hence the number of papers in which he got at least 70% marks = 2 (70 & 80). Question 35 of 35 35. Question In an exam 12% students scored less than 30 marks, 6% students scored more than 200 marks, 22% students scored more than 100 marks, and 990 students scored between 30 and 100 marks. How many students scored between 100 and 200 marks? a) 250 b) 240 c) 230 d) 225 Correct Solution (b) According to the question: Students who scored more than 100 marks = 22% And students who scored more than 200 = 6% Hence, students who scored between 100 and 200 = 22 – 6 = 16% Now, students who scored less than 30 = 12% Students who scored between 30 and 100 = 100 – (22 + 12) = 66% = 990 So, Total number of students = 990 × (100/66) = 1500 Students who scored between 100 and 200 = 16% = (16/100) × 1500 = 240   Incorrect Solution (b) According to the question: Students who scored more than 100 marks = 22% And students who scored more than 200 = 6% Hence, students who scored between 100 and 200 = 22 – 6 = 16% Now, students who scored less than 30 = 12% Students who scored between 30 and 100 = 100 – (22 + 12) = 66% = 990 So, Total number of students = 990 × (100/66) = 1500 Students who scored between 100 and 200 = 16% = (16/100) × 1500 = 240   window.wpProQuizInitList = window.wpProQuizInitList || []; window.wpProQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpProQuiz_3528', init: { quizId: 3528, mode: 1, globalPoints: 70, timelimit: 1800, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 704, qpp: 0, catPoints: [70], formPos: 0, lbn: "Test-summary", json: {"30034":{"type":"single","id":30034,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30037":{"type":"single","id":30037,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30038":{"type":"single","id":30038,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30039":{"type":"single","id":30039,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30041":{"type":"single","id":30041,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30044":{"type":"single","id":30044,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30046":{"type":"single","id":30046,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30047":{"type":"single","id":30047,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30049":{"type":"single","id":30049,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30051":{"type":"single","id":30051,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30052":{"type":"single","id":30052,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30053":{"type":"single","id":30053,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30055":{"type":"single","id":30055,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30056":{"type":"single","id":30056,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30057":{"type":"single","id":30057,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30060":{"type":"single","id":30060,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30062":{"type":"single","id":30062,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30065":{"type":"single","id":30065,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30066":{"type":"single","id":30066,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30067":{"type":"single","id":30067,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30069":{"type":"single","id":30069,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30071":{"type":"single","id":30071,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30074":{"type":"single","id":30074,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30075":{"type":"single","id":30075,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30078":{"type":"single","id":30078,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30080":{"type":"single","id":30080,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30082":{"type":"single","id":30082,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30083":{"type":"single","id":30083,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30086":{"type":"single","id":30086,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30089":{"type":"single","id":30089,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30091":{"type":"single","id":30091,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30093":{"type":"single","id":30093,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30096":{"type":"single","id":30096,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30099":{"type":"single","id":30099,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30100":{"type":"single","id":30100,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]}} } }); All the Best IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 12th March 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Spratly Islands & Second Thomas Shoal Syllabus Prelims – Current event Context: Tensions are rising in the South China Sea after Chinese vessels attempted to block a Philippine mission to resupply their troops on the contested reef Background:- A recent incident in the area, where the Philippines claims that China Coast Guard ships caused two collisions with their boats and water cannoned one of them, has renewed global interest in the flashpoint.The Philippine vessels were part of a routine mission to deliver provisions to troops stationed on the grounded navy vessel BRP Sierra Madre at Second Thomas Shoal. About Spratly Islands:-   The Spratly Islands are a disputed archipelago in the South China Sea. Composed of islands, islets, cays and more than 100 reefs, the archipelago lies off the coasts of the Philippines, Malaysia and southern Vietnam. The islands are largely uninhabited, but offer rich fishing grounds and may contain significant oil and natural gas reserves. China, the Philippines, Taiwan (ROC) and Vietnam claim the whole Spratly Islands while Brunei and Malaysia claim part of the Islands. China claims sovereignty over most of the South China Sea based on the historical and controversial Nine-dash line. In 2013, the Philippines had filed a case against China with the Permanent Court of Arbitration in The Hague, challenging the legality of China’s claims and activities in the South China Sea. The Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA) in The Hague, Netherlands, ruled that China’s claims of historical rights over South China Sea (SCS) has no legal basis. About Second Thomas shoal Second Thomas Shoal is a submerged reef in the Spratly Islands of the South China Sea. It is a disputed territory and claimed by several nations. The reef is occupied by Philippine Navy personnel aboard ship, the BRP Sierra Madre, that was intentionally grounded on the reef in 1999 and has been periodically replenished since then. Source: Hindu Sela Tunnel Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Saturday inaugurated the strategically significant Sela Tunnel in Arunachal Pradesh. Background: According to a Bloomberg report, India has freed up thousands of soldiers to strengthen its disputed border with China. As a response, China has said that deploying more troops at the border would not ease tensions. About Sela Tunnel The foundation of the project was laid by Modi in February 2019, with a cost estimation of Rs 825 crore, but work got delayed due to various reasons, including the Covid-19 pandemic. The Sela Tunnel, situated at an elevation of 13,000 feet, will provide all-weather connectivity to Tawang in Arunachal Pradesh. Strategically crucial, the Sela Tunnel project includes two tunnels and 8.780 km of approach road. The total length of the project, including the tunnels, the approach and the link roads, will be around 12 km. Of the two tunnels, the first is a single-tube tunnel of 980 metres in length, and the second is 1.5 km long with an escape tube for emergencies. An official said that the tunnel, stretching through the Sela-Charbela ridge and constructed with the New Austrian Tunneling Method (NATM), will be the world’s longest bi-lane tunnel at an altitude of 13,000 feet. The tunnel has been made on the road connecting Assam’s Tezpur to Arunachal Pradesh’s Tawang. It will enable all-weather connectivity to the Tawang region and is said to be strategically significant due to its proximity to the Line of Actual Control (LAC). It has been excavated below the 4,200-metre (13,800 ft) Sela Pass, which connects the Tawang district with the rest of Arunachal Pradesh and is often closed due to snowfall and landslides. Source: Economic Times DESERT STAR DUNES Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: The age of one of Earth’s largest and most complex types of star shaped sand dune has been calculated for the first time. Background: Star dunes are among Earth’s largest and most complex types of sand dunes. Experts had never before been able to put a date on when they were formed. Now scientists have discovered that a dune called Lala Lallia in Morocco formed 13,000 years ago. About sand dune: A sand dune is an accumulation of sand grains that takes the form of a mound or ridge due to the influence of wind and gravity. Star dunes – or pyramid dunes – are named after their distinctive shapes and reach hundreds of metres in height. Star dunes resembling stars when viewed from above. Star dunes are massive sand dunes characterized by arms radiating from a central peak. Star dunes are widespread in modern deserts across the globe, including sand seas in Africa, Arabia, China, and North America. Dynamic Movement: Star dunes are not static; they shift and evolve over time. Star dunes are formed by opposing winds with changing directions. The Sahara’s star dunes move at an impressive pace—about 50 centimeters per year across the desert. Unlike other dunes, star dunes never collapse due to this continuous reorganization process. Source: BBC NATIONAL COMMISSION FOR SCHEDULED CASTES (NCSC) Syllabus Prelims – Polity Context: Recently, the Union government has reconstituted the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC). Background: Kishor Makwana has taken charge as the Chairman of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC). This appointment follows the resignation of former Chairman Vijay Sampla. About NATIONAL COMMISSION FOR SCHEDULED CASTES (NCSC): The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) is a constitutional body established under Article 338 of the Indian Constitution. Its primary goal is to fully protect the rights of Scheduled Castes (SCs). The NCSC operates under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, Government of India. It was established to provide safeguards against the exploitation of Scheduled Castes and Anglo-Indian communities and to promote and protect their social, educational, economic, and cultural interests. Structure The NCSC consists of five members including Chairperson. The President of India appoints the chairperson of the NCSC. The appointment is made by warrant under the President’s hand and seal. The term of office for the chairperson, vice-chairperson, and each member is three years from the date they assume charge of their office Duties and Functions Investigate and monitor all matters related to the safeguards provided for Scheduled Castes under the Constitution or any other law. Inquire into specific complaints regarding the deprivation of rights and safeguards of Scheduled Castes. Participate in and advise the planning process for socio-economic development of Scheduled Castes. Present annual reports to the President, evaluating the working of safeguards and making recommendations. Discharge other functions related to the protection, welfare, and development of Scheduled Castes as specified by the President. Powers While investigating any matter, the Commission has the powers of a civil court. It can regulate its own procedure. Both the Union and State Governments consult the Commission on major policy matters affecting Scheduled Castes. Source: PIB RAJYA SABHA NOMINATION Syllabus Prelims – Polity Context: Recently, Sudha Murthy was nominated as a Member of Rajya Sabha. Background: Sudha Murthy, who is married to the co-founder of Infosys, N. R. Narayana Murty, has made significant contributions to diverse fields including social work, philanthropy, and education. Last year, she was honoured with the Padma Bhushan, India’s third-highest civilian award, in recognition of her outstanding social work. About Raja Sabha: The Rajya Sabha, also known as the Upper House of Parliament, is modelled after the House of Lords in the United Kingdom. Composition of the Rajya Sabha: It consists of a total of 245 members, including 233 elected members and 12 nominated members. The constitutional limit for the Upper House’s strength is 250 members. The number of elected seats varies based on states’ population, which can change due to mergers, bifurcations, or the creation of new states. The nominated members are chosen by the President of India and come from fields such as art, literature, science, and social service. Tenure and Permanent House: The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and not subject to dissolution. However, like the Lok Sabha, it can be prorogued by the President. Every Rajya Sabha MP has a tenure of six years, and elections to one-third seats are held every two years. The Vice-President is the ex-officio chairperson of the Rajya Sabha. The Deputy Chairman, who is elected from amongst the house’s members, takes care of the day-to-day matters of the house in the absence of the Chairman. Election Process: Rajya Sabha members are elected indirectly by the people through the Members of Legislative Assembly (MLAs). Members of a state’s Legislative Assembly vote in the Rajya Sabha elections in proportional representation with the single transferable vote (STV) system. Each MLA’s vote is counted only once. To win a Rajya Sabha seat, a candidate should get a required number of votes. That number is found out using the formula: Required vote = Total number of votes / (Number of Rajya Sabha seats + 1 ) + 1 Nominated Members: The President of India nominates these 12 members from individuals who have special knowledge or practical experience in art, literature, science, and social service. This principle of nomination is adopted to provide distinguished persons a place in the Rajya Sabha without going through the process of election. Source: Livemint Previous Year Question Q1. Consider the following statements: The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Self-Driving Cars and Ethical Dilemmas Syllabus Mains – GS 4 Context: There were a series of lawsuits and a criminal case arising out of fatal Tesla accidents. Background: The issue has become serious as machines become more and more autonomous. About Self-Driving Cars: It is a vehicle capable of sensing its environment and operating without human involvement. A human passenger is not required to take control of the vehicle at any time, nor is a human passenger required to be present in the vehicle at all. It can go anywhere a traditional car goes and does everything that an experienced human driver does. One of the biggest dilemmas of self-driving cars is whether it would be right to hand over the control to the driver at the last instant. This will not only raise a question about the ethics of self-driving cars but also the ethics of the driver. Self-driving cars are robots that have been programmed using algorithms. So, they are most likely to follow set rules or patterns in all cases. There is a debate about who should decide the ethics of self-driving cars. It can be argued that no one is the right owner to decide the ethics of self-driving cases. The decision must lie in the hands of the driver of the car. Some also argue that the best way for a self-driving car is to make an impartial decision in case of accidents. They must not discriminate between humans based on age, gender, or other parameters. They should always make the decision that causes the least impact. There is always a risk of a cyber-criminal hacking into the car’s system to gain access to sensitive data or to carry out a misdeed. Source: Forbes Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.)Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Rajya Sabha members are elected indirectly by the people through the Members of Legislative Assembly (MLAs). Statement-II: The ex-officio chairperson of the Rajya Sabha nominates these 12 members from individuals who have special knowledge or practical experience in art, literature, science, and social service. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Q2.) Consider the following statements about the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC): The National Commission for Scheduled Castes is a constitutional body. The Chairperson of the NCSC is appointed by the Prime Minister of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3.) With reference to Desert Star dunes, consider the following statements: Star dunes are formed by opposing winds with changing directions. Unlike other dunes, star dunes never collapse due to the continuous reorganization process. Star dunes are currently found in deserts of African region only. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  12th March  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  11th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) –  Q.2) –  Q.3) –