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Nov 15, 2024 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 15th November 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

Nov 14, 2024 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 14th November 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) WIND ENERGY GENERATION Syllabus: Mains – GS 3 Context: Wind energy generators has obtained a stay from the Madras High Court against “Tamil Nadu Repowering, Refurbishment and Life Extension Policy for Wind Power Projects” released by Tamil Nadu government. Background: – Tamil Nadu, which is a pioneer in wind mill installations, has wind turbines that are over 30 years old. Key takeaways India has a wind power potential of 1,163.86 GW at 150m above ground level (National Institute of Wind Energy – NIWE). At 120m, typical turbine height today, potential is 695.51 GW, with 68.75 GW in Tamil Nadu. Only about 6.5% of this wind potential is used at the national level and nearly 15% in Tamil Nadu. Installed Capacity: India is ranked 4th globally in installed wind capacity. Key states: Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, and Andhra Pradesh, providing 93.37% of the country’s wind installations. Tamil Nadu has 10,603.5 MW of installed capacity, the second-highest in India. How are wind turbines maintained? Wind turbines that are more than 15 years old or have less than 2 MW capacity, can be completely replaced with new turbines, which is known as repowering. They can also be refurbished by increasing the height of the turbine, changing the blades, installing a higher capacity gear box, etc., to improve the energy generated. When wind energy generators take up safety measures in the old turbines and extend its life, its called life extension. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) released the “National Repowering & Life Extension Policy for Wind Power Projects -2023”. The NIWE estimates the repowering potential to be 25.4 GW if wind turbines of less than 2 MW capacity are taken into consideration. What does repowering and refurbishing entail? Wind energy generators say that when turbines were installed in the 1980s, potential wind sites were mapped and the mandatory gap required between two wind mills were determined based on the technology available then. Sources in the industry point out that a 2 MW wind turbine is usually 120 metres high and requires 3.5 acres of land. It can generate upto 65 lakh units of power. A 2.5 MW turbine, which is available now, is 140 metres high and can generate 80 lakh units. It requires five acres. So, when an existing wind turbine is to be repowered by replacing it with a high capacity turbine, more land is required. In Tamil Nadu, wind mills installed after 2018 do not have banking facility. When a turbine is repowered, it will be treated as a new installation and the generator cannot bank the energy generated. This impacts the financial viability of the project. Source: The Hindu CENTRE NOTIFIES NEW WATER ACT RULES Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: The Union Environment Ministry notified new rules for holding inquiry and imposing penalties for violations of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act. Background: – The new Rules – Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) (Manner of Holding Inquiry and Imposition of Penalty) rules, 2024, will come into effect immediately. Key takeaways The Rules come in the backdrop of the amendments made to the Water Act earlier this year, wherein offences and violations of the Act were decriminalised, replacing them with penalties instead. The amendments had also allowed the Centre to appoint officers to adjudicate offences, and violations and determine penalties. According to the Rules, the adjudication officer then has powers to issue notice to persons against whom complaints have been filed, detailing the nature of contravention alleged or committed. The adjudication office then considers the explanation provided and if needed, holds an inquiry into the complaint. The alleged violator could defend themselves or through a legal representative. The whole process has to be completed within six months from issuance of notice to the opposite party, the Rules state. Source: Indian Express CLIMATE GOVERNANCE: KEY THINGS TO KNOW Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: The 2024 United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP29) kicked off on November 11 in Baku, the capital of Azerbaijan. Background: In the midst of the expectations and demands surrounding various agendas at the ongoing conference, understanding the history of climate governance is crucial. Key takeaways United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) UNFCCC is an international treaty, signed in 1992, that has provided a basis for climate negotiations. UNFCCC was opened for signature on 19 June 1992 at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), also known as the Rio Earth Summit. The Framework Convention entered into force on 21 March 1994. The most remarkable feature of the UNFCCC is that it was a framework convention that provided a base upon which the infrastructure of climate governance has been built. It allowed and accommodated an extensive system of rules, mechanisms, processes, multiple actors and systems within it. The ultimate objective of the UNFCCC is to ‘stabilise greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous anthropogenic (human-caused) interference with the climate system’. The UNFCCC established foundational principles that guide international climate action. Chief among these principles is “common but differentiated responsibilities and respective capabilities” (CBDR-RC). Conference of Parties or COP Over time, the Framework Convention paved the way for the development of institutions, processes and structures, aimed at enhancing global cooperation, such as the establishment of the Conference of the Parties (COP), which serves as the convention’s governing body. Conference of the Parties or COP is the world’s only multilateral decision-making forum that brings together almost every country on the planet to formulate and implement policy responses to climate change collectively. Currently, there are 198 parties (197 countries plus the European Union) to the UNFCCC. The first COP, held in Berlin, Germany, in 1995, is notable for the Berlin Mandate, which marked a significant step forward. During this meeting, the need for legally binding commitments for developed nations was agreed upon. Kyoto Protocol The Berlin Mandate set the groundwork for the adoption of the Kyoto Protocol at the COP3 which took place in Kyoto, Japan, in 1997. The Kyoto Protocol introduced legally binding targets specifically for developed countries, known as Annex I Parties under the UNFCCC, which were given emission target that is the maximum amount of greenhouse gas emissions that a Party may emit over a specified commitment period. The move reinforced the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities (CBDR) that had been introduced in the 1992 UNFCCC. In addition, the Kyoto Protocol introduced three mechanisms to facilitate emissions trading between developed and developing countries: International Emissions Trading, the Clean Development Mechanism and the Joint Implementation. The Kyoto Protocol officially came into force on 16 February 2005 after it was ratified by a sufficient number of countries. Any meeting that discusses or builds upon the Kyoto Protocol at the annual COP meetings is known as the Conference of the Parties for the Meeting of the Parties to the Kyoto Protocol (CMP). This CMP designation signifies that it specifically pertains to negotiations and agreements under the Kyoto framework rather than the broader UNFCCC. Source: Indian Express EXERCISE SEA VIGIL Syllabus: Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: The Indian Navy is set to conduct the the fourth edition of the pan-India Coastal Defence Exercise ‘Sea Vigil-24’ on Nov 20- 21. Background: – While coastal security exercises are conducted by individual coastal states and maritime security agencies regularly, Exercise Sea Vigil coordinated by the Indian Navy stands out as a national level initiative that provides a holistic appraisal of India’s maritime defence and security capabilities. Key takeaways The exercise was first conceptualized in 2018 in response to the need for enhanced coastal defence following the 26/11 Mumbai terror attacks. Sea Vigil was designed to validate and enhance measures adopted to bolster Coastal Defence Encompassing the entire 11,098 km coastline and vast Exclusive Economic Zone of 2.4 million square kilometres, this comprehensive exercise will engage complete coastal security infrastructure and all maritime stakeholders, including the fishing community and coastal populace. One of the aims of the exercise is to raise awareness amongst coastal communities about maritime security. ‘Sea Vigil-24’ Overview Scheduled for 20 & 21 November 2024 across India’s coastline. Scale and Participation: Largest edition yet, covering extensive geographical reach with 06 Ministries and 21 agencies/organizations participating. The exercise will focus on strengthening the security of coastal assets like ports, oil rigs, Single Point Moorings, Cable Landing Points and critical coastal infrastructure including the coastal population. Source: PIB WALKING PNEUMONIA Syllabus: Prelims – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: In recent weeks, doctors have reported cases of “walking pneumonia,” a mild yet persistent lung infection that can mimic symptoms of a common cold. Background: – Unlike typical pneumonia, which can lead to severe lung inflammation and difficulty breathing, walking pneumonia is often less intense. Key takeaways Walking pneumonia is a milder form of pneumonia caused by bacteria, primarily Mycoplasma pneumoniae. It is termed “walking” because patients are often able to carry on with daily activities despite the infection. Symptoms: It often presents symptoms similar to those of a common cold or mild respiratory infection, including cough, sore throat, low-grade fever, and fatigue. Symptoms develop gradually and may last for weeks, making it hard to diagnose immediately. Cause: The primary causative agent is the bacterium Mycoplasma pneumoniae, which lacks a cell wall, making it resistant to antibiotics that target cell wall synthesis (e.g., penicillin). Transmission: Spread via respiratory droplets (coughing or sneezing) and can spread easily in crowded spaces like schools and dormitories. Diagnosis: Diagnosed through physical examination, chest X-rays, and sometimes serological tests or PCR to detect the bacteria. Treatment: Treated with antibiotics such as macrolides (e.g., azithromycin), doxycycline, or fluoroquinolones. Since symptoms are mild, bed rest, hydration, and over-the-counter medications are often recommended to manage symptoms. Although typically not life-threatening, walking pneumonia can lead to complications in the immunocompromised or elderly if untreated. Source: India Today Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements regarding Walking Pneumonia: Walking pneumonia is typically a severe respiratory infection caused by viruses. The primary causative agent is Mycoplasma pneumoniae, which is resistant to antibiotics that target cell wall synthesis. Walking pneumonia spreads through respiratory droplets and can spread easily in crowded places like schools and dormitories. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Q2.) With reference to Exercise Sea Vigil, consider the following statements: Exercise Sea Vigil is a coastal defence exercise conducted by each individual coastal state in India. Sea Vigil was conceptualized in response to the 26/11 Mumbai terror attacks and provides a holistic appraisal of India’s maritime security capabilities. The upcoming Sea Vigil-24 exercise includes participation from multiple ministries, agencies, and organizations across India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Q3.) Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC): The UNFCCC entered into force on 21 March 1994. The ultimate objective of the UNFCCC is to stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations at levels that prevent dangerous human-caused interference with the climate system. The Kyoto Protocol, which established legally binding emission targets for both developed and developing nations, was adopted at COP4. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 13th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – b

Nov 14, 2024 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 14th November 2024

Nov 13, 2024

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 13th November 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) MAHARAJA RANJIT SINGH Syllabus: Prelims – HISTORY Context: November 13 marks the birth anniversary of Maharaja Ranjit Singh of Punjab. Background: – He was born on November 13, 1780 in Gujranwala, now in Pakistan, and ruled Punjab for almost four decades (1801-39). At the time of his death, he was the only sovereign leader left in India, all others having come under the control of the East India Company in some way or the other. Key takeaways In 1799, Ranjit Singh established a unified Sikh empire after conquering Lahore. He overthrew chieftains who had divided the territory into Misls. He was given the title Sher-e-Punjab because he stemmed the tide of Afghan invaders in Lahore, which remained his capital until his death. Ranjit Singh’s empire included the former Mughal provinces of Lahore and Multan besides part of Kabul and the entire Peshawar. The boundaries of his state went up to Ladakh — Zorawar Singh, a general from Jammu, had conquered Ladakh in Ranjit Singh’s name — in the northeast, Khyber pass in the northwest, and up to Panjnad in the south where the five rivers of Punjab fell into the Indus. During his regime, Punjab was a land of six rivers, the sixth being the Indus. Ranjit Singh struck balance between his role as a faithful Sikh ruler and his desire to act as friend and protector of his empire’s Muslim and Hindu people. He embarked on a campaign to restore Sikh temples – most notably rebuilding the Harmandir Sahib, the Golden Temple, at Amritsar in marble (1809) and gold (1830) – while also donating a tonne of gold to plate the Hindu Kashi Vishwanath temple. Ranjit Singh began to modernise his army along the line of European armies. He hired French and Italian mercenaries who had fought for Napoleon until the mighty French General’s defeat in 1815. The new Fauj-i-khas (‘special army’) brigade was led General Jean-Baptiste Ventura and General Jean-Francois Allard, who were given generous salaries. They were later joined by Auguste Court and Paolo Avitabile. These generals settled down in Lahore, and adapted to Indian culture. Immediately after Ranjit Singh’s death in 1839, the British East India Company began to bolster its military presence in regions adjacent to Punjab. Inevitably, conflict arose between the Khalsa (the Sikh army) and the British, leading to the Anglo-Sikh Wars. The first Anglo-Sikh War occurred from late 1845 to early 1846. This conflict led to the defeat and partial subjugation of the Sikh empire, resulting in the cession of Jammu and Kashmir as a separate princely state under British suzerainty. The Company inflicted a decisive and final defeat on Sikhs in 1849, after which 10-year-old Maharaja Duleep Singh became a pensioner of the British, and was exiled to London for the rest of his life. Source: Indian Express WAR EMISSIONS ON TABLE AS COP29 KICKS OFF Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: Besides resulting in human tragedy and largescale destruction, the two ongoing wars (gaza war & russia ukraine war) have also been exacerbating the climate change problem, adding significant amounts of greenhouse gas emissions into the atmosphere. Background: – Wars and armed conflicts generate pollution, exacerbate climate change, damage ecosystems, and cause health issues among local communities that are felt across generations. Key takeaways Emissions from conflicts is an issue that has largely been overlooked in the climate change conversation. Latest estimates suggest that the first two years of Russia-Ukraine war, which began in February 2022, would have contributed over 175 million tonnes of CO2 equivalent of emissions, including projected emissions estimated from reconstruction. The conflict in West Asia could have added at least another 50 million tonnes. Together, emissions from these two wars are comparable to annual emissions from Ukraine, Italy or Poland. Wars have a significant emissions footprint, not just from the explosives being used, but also from the military supply chains that are extremely energy intensive. Reconstruction has large emissions implications as well. Emissions from the weapons that cause damage — artillery, shells, mortars, missiles, rockets — constitute only a tiny fraction, just about 1.5%, of emissions from the warfare activities. Warfare itself comprises only about 29% of the emissions if the full impacts of the conflict, including manufacturing of weapons, iron and steel production and supply chains, rebuilding and reconstruction, are taken into account. The bigger sources of warfare emissions are fuels burnt in airplanes or tanks, and the manufacturing of weapons. Even when a war like that in Ukraine or Gaza is not on, the carbon footprint of the world’s military is immense. Source: Indian Express THE TRADE DEBATE Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – ECONOMY Context: Niti Aayog CEO’s recent comment on Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) and Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP) has reignited debates around trade agreements and its pros and cons. Background: India should be a part of RCEP and CPTPP, Niti Aayog CEO BVR Subrahmanyam recently commented. India pulled out of the RCEP in 2019 after entering negotiations in 2013. Key takeaways Many experts had argued back in 2019 itself that withdrawing from RCEP was an opportunity lost. Staying out of trade agreements like RCEP and not being deeply integrated with the global value chains that run through RCEP countries, was difficult to reconcile with the objective of becoming a global manufacturing hub, capturing export opportunities and foreign capital. As per a recent report by Oxford Economics, while India has “benefited from US trade rerouting away from China”, the gains have been to “a much lesser extent” when compared to other Asian countries such as Vietnam, Indonesia and Malaysia. Further, the report points out that the country has not been able to attract a notably greater portion of global foreign direct investment, even as FDI flows to China plummeted. In this context, the recent comments by the CEO of Niti Aayog, BVR Subrahmanyam on trade agreements, are welcome. Subrahmanyam has said that India is missing out on the “China plus one” opportunity and that it should consider joining agreements such as the RCEP and the Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans Pacific Partnership. The China Plus One strategy, also known as C+1, is a business strategy adopted by companies to diversify their supply chain and manufacturing activities away from China. The primary goal is to reduce dependency on China to mitigate risks associated with over-reliance on a single country. Rising labor costs in China have also prompted companies to seek alternative locations with lower production costs. Trade policy is now guided, more, by geopolitical and security considerations. Donald Trump’s victory in the recent presidential elections has further sparked uncertainty about the direction of US trade policy — Trump has advocated for a 60 per cent tariff on imports from China, and 10-20 per cent tariff on other imports. India must reevaluate its trade policy. While the country has since signed some trade agreements with countries such as the UAE and Australia, progress on others, such as the agreements with the EU and UK, has been slow. Source: Indian Express COSTS OF POPULATION DECLINE Syllabus: Prelims – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: The Chief Ministers of both Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu expressed concerns about the low fertility rates in their States recently. Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister N. Chandrababu Naidu has said that he planned to introduce legislation to incentivise more children per family. Background: – After decades of family planning policies seeking to slow population growth, India has been waking up to the fact that the success of such policies is also leading to an increasingly ageing population. Key takeaways Aging Population: Due to decades of family planning, India now faces an aging population, especially pronounced in southern and smaller northern States where Total Fertility Rates (TFR) are below replacement levels. Example TFR (2019-2021): Tamil Nadu (1.4); Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Kerala, Punjab & Himachal Pradesh (1.5). Higher TFR in states like Bihar (3), Uttar Pradesh (2.7), Madhya Pradesh (2.6) indicates a demographic divide. Elderly population share is projected to rise across India, with more rapid increases in southern states. Projections for 2036: Kerala (22.8% elderly), Tamil Nadu (20.8%), Andhra Pradesh (19%), vs. Bihar (11%). Economic Impact of Demographic Changes Old Age Dependency Ratio: Key indicator for demographic challenges, reflecting the number of elderly for every 100 working-age individuals (18-59 years).The Critical threshold is 15% (indicating aging crisis); already exceeded by Kerala (26.1), Tamil Nadu (20.5), Himachal Pradesh (19.6), Andhra Pradesh (18.5). Southern states have a limited demographic dividend window, with increased dependency burdens on working populations. Health Expenditures: Aging populations increase health costs significantly. Southern states, with 20% of India’s population, accounted for 32% of national cardiovascular disease expenses (NSSO data, 2017-18). Resource Allocation Disparity: Slower population growth in southern states affects their share in central tax resources, despite higher contributions to central revenue. Political Implications Impact on Representation: The 2026 expiration of the freeze on parliamentary seat allocations could lead to redistribution based on population. Potential outcomes: Uttar Pradesh (+12 seats), Bihar (+10), Rajasthan (+7); likely losses for Tamil Nadu (-9), Kerala (-6), Andhra Pradesh (-5). Proposed Solutions Pro-Natalist Policies: Southern CMs advocate for policies encouraging higher fertility, but research suggests this approach is ineffective. Alternative focus on work-family policies: Paid maternity/paternity leave, childcare support, and policies to address the “motherhood penalty” can encourage sustainable fertility rates. Increasing Working Lifespan: Extending working years to balance the old age dependency ratio. Encouraging Migration: Southern states attract economic migrants, who contribute to the workforce yet are politically and financially counted in their home states, creating challenges for southern states in managing resources. Source: The Hindu FOREIGN CONTRIBUTION (REGULATION) ACT (FCRA) Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – POLITY Context: The centre recently announced that any NGO involved in anti-developmental activities and forced religious conversions will face cancellation of their registration under Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA), 2010. Background: – The government has increased scrutiny of NGOs receiving foreign funds. Key takeaways Originally enacted in 1976, and subsequently amended in 2010 and 2020, FCRA seeks to regulate the acceptance and utilization of foreign contributions and hospitality by individuals, associations, and NGOs. The primary goal is to prevent foreign contributions from being used to affect national security, integrity, and sovereignty or to influence political processes. Definition of Foreign Contribution (Section 2(1)(h), FCRA 2010): Donation, delivery, or transfer from a foreign source of: Articles: Not for personal use if market value exceeds the limit set by the government. Currency: Indian or foreign. Securities: As per Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956, and Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999. Indirect Foreign Contribution: Any article, currency, or foreign security received indirectly via another person from a foreign source is also treated as a foreign contribution. Interest and Income: Interest accrued on foreign contribution or any income derived from it is also considered foreign contribution. Exclusion: Fees from foreign students, cost of goods/services, and contributions towards these fees are not considered foreign contributions. Entities Restricted from Receiving Foreign Contribution (Section 3(1), FCRA 2010): Political Entities: Election candidates, Political parties or office bearers, Organizations of a political nature as specified by the Central Government. Media and Communication: Registered newspaper correspondents, editors, cartoonists, owners, printers, and publishers; Associations or companies involved in audio/video news production or broadcasting, current affairs programs in electronic or other mass communication modes. Government and Judiciary: Judges, government servants, and employees of government-owned or controlled corporations; Members of any legislature. Prohibited Individuals/Associations: Individuals or associations specifically barred from receiving foreign contributions by the government. Registration and Compliance: Organizations receiving foreign funds must register under FCRA, renewable every five years. They are required to open a designated FCRA bank account at the State Bank of India, New Delhi, for transparency and monitoring. Annual reports detailing the amount and usage of funds are mandatory to ensure compliance. Amendments and Key Provisions: The 2020 amendment introduced new provisions like restricting administrative expenses to 20% of total foreign funds (from 50% previously) and requiring Aadhaar identification for all office bearers. It prohibits the transfer of foreign contributions from one organization to another, limiting the potential for misuse. Suspension and Cancellation: The government can suspend or cancel the FCRA license of any organization if it finds irregularities or misuse of foreign funds, rendering it ineligible to receive foreign contributions. Appeals can be made but only after a one-year period following license cancellation. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements about the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP): RCEP is a free trade agreement involving countries from the Asia-Pacific region, including all ASEAN member states. India is one of the original signatories of RCEP and actively participates in the trade bloc. RCEP aims to reduce trade barriers among its member countries to enhance regional economic integration. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3 Q2.) Which of the following accurately describes a provision of the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA), 2010? a) Political parties can receive foreign contributions if disclosed. b) NGOs receiving foreign contributions must register and renew their licenses every ten years. c) Administrative expenses are restricted to a maximum of 20% of total foreign funds. d) The FCRA account for NGOs must be opened in any government bank of their choice. Q3.) Maharaja Ranjit Singh, known as the ‘Lion of Punjab,’ is best known for which of the following accomplishments during his reign? a) Establishing a mughal-style army under British generals. b) Expanding his empire to include Ladakh, Khyber Pass, and Peshawar. c) Creating a coalition of Misls in alliance with the East India Company. d) Adopting Hindu and Islamic laws exclusively within his empire. Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 11th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – d

Nov 13, 2024 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 13th November 2024

Nov 13, 2024 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 12th November 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) TADOBA-ANDHARI TIGER RESERVE Syllabus: Prelims – ENVIRONMENT Context: The Ministry of Tribal Affairs has directed the Maharashtra government to address complaints of “non-recognition of forest rights and forced eviction” raised by families living in Rantalodhi village inside the core area of Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve. Background: – Under the Wildlife Protection Act, tribal communities and forest dwellers living inside national parks and tiger reserves can be relocated only after obtaining informed consent from the Gram Sabha and after establishing that human presence will harm wildlife. Key takeaways The Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve (TATR) is located in Maharashtra. Tadoba became one of India’s earliest national parks when it was so notified in 1955. In 1986, 506.32 sq km of forest land adjoining the national park was notified as the Andhari Wildlife Sanctuary. The national park and the wildlife sanctuary were finally merged in 1993 when Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve (TATR), spanning 622.87 sq km, was established. Biodiversity: Flora: The reserve is rich in dry deciduous forests with teak as the dominant tree species. It also has bamboo thickets and patches of grasslands, which support diverse wildlife. Fauna: TATR is famed for its high tiger population. Alongside tigers, it is home to other predators like leopards, wild dogs (dhole), sloth bears, and various species of deer, such as sambar, spotted deer, and barking deer. The park also has a variety of reptiles, including marsh crocodiles, and over 200 bird species. Tiger Population: Tadoba is one of India’s prominent tiger reserves due to its healthy tiger population and relatively high sighting rates. Tourists flock to the reserve for a chance to see tigers in their natural habitat, making it a significant wildlife destination. Conservation Initiatives: The reserve falls under Project Tiger, a nationwide initiative for tiger conservation, helping to protect and boost the tiger population through anti-poaching measures, habitat improvement, and tourism regulation. Source: Indian Express TRUMP’S RE-ELECTION Syllabus: Mains – GS 2 Context: With Trump’s reelection as the United States’ President, companies will have to contend with a new reality. Background: – Silicon Valley workers and leaders have traditionally leaned towards the Democratic Party, and Trump 2.0 could pose a difficult balancing act for them. Key takeaways Under Trump’s first tenure saw the beginning of antitrust action against companies like Meta, Google Apple and Amazon; the trade war with China among others. In his reelection bid, Trump spoke against the Biden administration’s move to breakup Google, even though the investigation into the company started in his term. Elon Musk’s support for Trump could lead to tech-friendly government positions for him or similar figures, influencing the regulatory landscape. AI Regulation: Biden’s AI Order: The Biden administration introduced an order requiring AI companies to disclose their training and security practices. Trump’s Stance: Trump has promised to repeal this order, aiming for less regulation in AI, aligning with allies like Marc Andreessen who oppose heavy AI regulation. Expected Outcome: Minimal regulatory interference in AI development during Trump’s term, potentially favoring rapid AI advancements without stringent oversight. China Trade and Tariff Policies: Protectionism: Trump’s proposed 60% tariffs on Chinese goods and potential 20% tariffs on other imports could challenge tech giants like Apple, which relies on Chinese manufacturing. Apple’s Supply Chain: With a significant production base still in China, Apple may face supply chain disruptions under new tariffs. Musk’s Position: Tesla’s manufacturing in China could also be impacted, though Trump might modulate policies due to his alliance with Musk. Uncertain Stance: Trump’s past stance on banning TikTok if not sold to a U.S. company remains unclear; however, he joined TikTok recently, hinting at mixed views. Indian IT Sector and H1-B Visa Policies: Increased Spending: Analysts predict increased U.S. tech spending may benefit Indian IT companies. H1-B Visa Concerns: While Trump has advocated for tougher H1-B policies, analysts suggest the impact on Indian IT services might be less significant than feared. Overall Impact on Tech Industry: Deregulation Trend: Trump’s administration may continue a deregulatory approach, particularly in emerging sectors like AI. Strategic Realignments: The tech sector may see shifts to adjust for Trump’s protectionist policies and antitrust approaches, particularly with new international trade constraints and evolving China policies. Source: Indian Express DESPITE SELL-OFF, MORE FOREIGN PORTFOLIO INVESTORS SET TO ENTER INDIAN MARKET Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – ECONOMY Context: The sustained sell-off by foreign portfolio investors (FPIs) since October this year hasn’t deterred new FPIs from seeking permission to invest in Indian markets. Applications of about 40-50 new FPI registrations have come to the market regulator Securities and Exchange Board of India (Sebi) during the month. Background: The number of FPIs registered with the Sebi was 11,219 as of March 2024. Only 138 FPIs had registered with the Sebi in full fiscal 2023-24. This means an average of 12-13 FPI registrations every month. Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPI) FPIs are investors from foreign countries who invest in a country’s financial assets, including stocks, bonds, and mutual funds, without obtaining control over the companies in which they invest. FPIs can be institutional investors like mutual funds, hedge funds, pension funds, and insurance companies, as well as individual investors. Key Characteristics: Portfolio Investments: FPIs invest in securities and other financial assets, not in physical assets or direct ownership. Short-term Focus: FPIs typically focus on short-to-medium term returns, unlike Foreign Direct Investment (FDI), which is more long-term. High Liquidity: FPIs can be quickly liquidated, which makes them sensitive to market volatility. FPI Regulations in India: Regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) under the SEBI (FPI) Regulations, 2019. FPIs must register with SEBI to invest in Indian markets. Reasons for FPI Optimism Towards India: SEBI has recently relaxed norms for Non-Resident Indians (NRIs), allowing up to 100% participation and simplifying entry and operational procedures, boosting FPI interest in Indian markets. Political Stability: Long-term political certainty supports investor confidence. Economic Growth Potential: India offers attractive long-term growth prospects and yields. Capex Spending: Significant capital expenditure by the Indian government is expected to fuel growth. RBI’s Vigilant Approach: The central bank’s cautious interest rate adjustments help control inflation and provide stability for fund-raising in India Inc. Impact of U.S.-India Strategic Relations: The recent U.S. election results have spurred optimism due to the strategic partnership between the two nations, which may positively influence trade policies and attract further FPI inflows. Source: Indian Express ALIGARH MUSLIM UNIVERSITY (AMU) Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: Recently, in a narrow 4-3 majority verdict, the Supreme Court overturned its 1967 ruling in S. Azeez Basha v. Union of India, which had previously served as the basis for denying Aligarh Muslim University (AMU) its minority institution status. Background: – In its 4-3 majority verdict, the Supreme Court established a “holistic and realistic” test to determine the “minority character” of an educational institution but left the factual determination for AMU’s status to a smaller bench. Key takeaways Article 30(1) of the Constitution guarantees religious and linguistic minorities the fundamental right to establish and manage educational institutions of their choice. Article 30(2) mandates that the state must ensure “equality of treatment” in granting aid to all educational institutions, regardless of their minority status. Such institutions enjoy greater autonomy than most others. Under Article 15(5), they are exempt from providing reservations for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, and may reserve up to 50% of seats for students from their own community. In the landmark T.M.A. Pai Foundation (2002) case, the Supreme Court clarified that a ‘minority’ status should be determined based on the demographic composition of the concerned State, rather than the national population. What is the background of the case? In 1875, Sir Syed Ahmed Khan established the Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental (MAO) College in Aligarh to offer modern British education rooted in Islamic values to Muslims. In 1920, the Aligarh Muslim University Act (AMU Act) was passed, incorporating MAO College and the Muslim University Association into AMU. In 1967, the Supreme Court in S. Azeez Basha v Union of India held that AMU was neither established nor administered by the Muslim minority — it came into existence through an Act of the central legislature — and did not, therefore, qualify as a minority institution under Article 30 of the Constitution. In 1981, the government amended the AMU Act, 1920, to say that the institution was established by the Muslim community to promote the cultural and educational advancement of Muslims in India. In 2005, AMU provided 50% reservation for Muslims in postgraduate medical programs. In 2006, the Allahabad HC struck down both the university order and the 1981 amendment on the ground that AMU was not a minority institution as per Azeez Basha. This judgment was challenged at the SC, and in 2019 the matter was referred to a seven-judge Bench. What did the majority rule? Justice Chandrachud, in an expansive interpretation of Article 30, affirmed that educational institutions established prior to the Constitution are equally entitled to the protections of Article 30(1). Justice Chandrachud clarified that statutory enactments conferring legal recognition or status upon such institutions do not compromise their minority character, provided their foundational purpose was “predominantly” aimed at benefiting the minority community. The majority verdict emphasised that an institution does not forfeit its minority character simply because its administration is no longer vested with the community. Accordingly, the majority overturned the longstanding Azeez Basha ruling, asserting that treating legal formalities for recognition or degree conferral as grounds to nullify an institution’s minority status would constitute a breach of fundamental rights. What happens next? A regular bench, assigned by CJI Sanjiv Khanna, will now reevaluate AMU’s minority character based on criteria set by the majority without being constrained by Azeez Basha. Meanwhile, the stay on the university’s 2005 reservation policy will persist until a final determination is made. Source: The Hindu GLUTEN Syllabus: Prelims – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: The Punjab Agricultural University (PAU) has been granted a patent on “Gluten free whole grain flour composition and food products”. The invention provides gluten-free whole grain flour composition and products based on it, particularly gluten-free whole grain flat bread. Background: – This new composition would be highly beneficial for people allergic to gluten-based products Key takeaways Gluten is a group of proteins found primarily in wheat, barley, and rye, which helps foods maintain their shape by providing elasticity and moisture. It also gives bread its chewy texture. Composition: Gluten consists of two main proteins, gliadin and glutenin. Gliadin gives dough the ability to rise during baking, while glutenin provides elasticity. Health Implications: Celiac Disease: An autoimmune disorder where ingestion of gluten damages the small intestine, causing malabsorption of nutrients. Wheat Allergy: A common food allergy where the immune system reacts to proteins in wheat, including gluten. Non-Celiac Gluten Sensitivity: Some individuals may experience digestive discomfort after consuming gluten without having celiac disease or a wheat allergy. Labeling Regulations: In India, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) requires foods containing gluten to display a “Contains Gluten” label. Gluten-free foods must meet specific standards to be labeled as such. Gluten is commonly found in traditional Indian foods such as wheat-based rotis and parathas. Source: Tribune India Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Which of the following statements is/are correct about gluten and its health implications? Gluten is a group of proteins found in wheat, barley, and rice. Celiac disease is an autoimmune disorder triggered by gluten intake, leading to damage in the small intestine. In India, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) mandates labeling of foods containing gluten. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Q2.) Consider the following statements regarding Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI): FPI investors can directly control companies in which they invest. FPI investments are considered short-term and liquid, making them sensitive to market volatility. FPIs in India are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) under the SEBI (FPI) Regulations, 2019. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Q3.) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve? TATR is located in Maharashtra and is known for its dry deciduous forests, primarily composed of teak trees. It has a significant tiger population, making it one of the prominent reserves under India’s Project Tiger initiative. Tadoba Lake and Andhari River within the reserve are home to significant populations of crocodiles. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 11th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – a

Nov 12, 2024 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 11th November 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) UKRAINE LAUNCHES ITS BIGGEST DRONE ATTACK ON MOSCOW SINCE START OF WAR Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: Ukraine attacked Moscow on Sunday with at least 34 drones, the biggest drone strike on the Russian capital since the start of the war in 2022, forcing flights to be diverted from three of the city’s major airports and injuring at least five people. Background: – The barrages come amid expectations that US president-elect Donald Trump may put pressure on both sides to end the conflict. Key takeaways Moscow and its surrounding region, with a population of at least 21 million, is one of the biggest metropolitan areas in Europe, alongside Istanbul. The 2-1/2-year-old war in Ukraine is entering what some officials say could be its final act after Moscow’s forces advanced at the fastest pace since the early days of the war and Donald Trump was elected 47th president of the United States. Kyiv, itself the target of repeated mass drone strikes from Russian forces, has tried to strike back against its neighbour with repeated drone strikes against oil refineries, airfields and even Russian strategic early-warning radar stations. Moscow and Kyiv have both sought to buy and develop new drones, deploy them in innovative ways, and seek new ways to destroy them – from using farmers’ shotguns to advanced electronic jamming systems. Russia has developed a series of electronic “umbrellas” over Moscow, with additional advanced internal layers over strategic buildings, and a complex web of air defences to shoot down the drones before they reach the Kremlin in the heart of the capital. Additional Information: As the Russia-Ukraine war continues to rage, newer weapons of destruction have come into play. Recently, both sides have posted visuals of drones appearing to rain down fire — earning this weapon the moniker of “dragon drone”. Dragon drones essentially release a substance called thermite — a mixture of aluminium and iron oxide — developed a century ago to weld railroad tracks. When ignited (usually with the help of an electrical fuse), thermite triggers a self-sustaining reaction that is quite difficult to extinguish. It can burn through almost anything, from clothes to trees to military-grade vehicles, and can even burn underwater. Source: BBC REGIONAL COMPREHENSIVE ECONOMIC PARTNERSHIP (RCEP) Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: India should be a part of the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership and Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership, Niti Aayog CEO BVR Subrahmanyam said recently. Background: – Subrahmanyam emphasised that India will have to get into the global value supply chain as 70 per cent of the world’s trade happens through the global supply chain. Key takeaways The Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) is a significant free trade agreement among 15 Asia-Pacific nations: Australia, Brunei, Cambodia, China, Indonesia, Japan, South Korea, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, New Zealand, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam. Collectively, these countries account for approximately 30% of the world’s GDP, trade, and population, making RCEP the largest trading bloc globally. Key Features of RCEP: Trade Liberalization: RCEP aims to reduce tariffs and non-tariff barriers, facilitating smoother trade flows among member countries. Market Access: The agreement enhances market access for goods and services, promoting increased economic integration in the region. Investment Opportunities: By creating a more predictable and transparent investment environment, RCEP encourages cross-border investments among member states. Economic Cooperation: The partnership fosters collaboration in areas such as intellectual property, e-commerce, and competition policy, aiming to harmonize standards and regulations. India’s Position on RCEP: Initially, India participated in RCEP negotiations but decided to withdraw in 2019, citing concerns over trade deficits and the potential impact on domestic industries. Despite its absence, RCEP remains open to India’s future participation, should it choose to reconsider its position. Source: Business Standard SUTLEJ RIVER Syllabus: Prelims – GEOGRPAHY Context: Local residents of Sri Ganganagar district,Rajasthan held protests against alleged pollution in the river Sutlej, which they blame on factories in the neighbouring Punjab. Background: The National Green Tribunal had imposed a fine of Rs 50 crore on the Punjab government in 2018 for “uncontrolled industrial discharge” into Sutlej and Beas. The tribunal once again pulled up the state in 2021, ordering it, as well as Rajasthan, to submit quarterly compliance reports to the Union Ministry of Jal Shakti (water resources) about the measures taken to curb the inflow of effluent discharge into the two rivers. About Sutlej River The Sutlej River is the longest river among the five rivers of the Punjab region. The other four rivers that flow through the Punjab region are the Beas, Ravi, Chenab, and Jhelum. It originates from the Rakshastal Lake near Mount Kailash in the Tibet Autonomous Region of China. From Tibet, it flows through Himachal Pradesh, enters the Punjab plains in India, and then moves into Pakistan, where it merges with the Chenab River to form the Panjnad River, which ultimately joins the Indus River. Tributaries: Major tributaries include the Baspa and Spiti rivers. Hydroelectric and Irrigation Projects: Bhakra Nangal Dam: One of India’s largest dams, providing hydroelectric power and irrigation. Nathpa Jhakri Dam: A major hydroelectric project in Himachal Pradesh. Indira Gandhi Canal: One of the longest irrigation canals in the world, transporting Sutlej water to Rajasthan for agricultural purposes. Indus Waters Treaty (1960): The Sutlej River is allocated to India under the Indus Waters Treaty, signed between India and Pakistan. The treaty divides the waters of the Indus River and its tributaries, ensuring the Sutlej, along with the Ravi and Beas rivers, are under India’s control for usage. Important Places Along the River: Ropar Wetland: A recognized Ramsar site in Punjab that is ecologically important. Harike Wetland: Another Ramsar site where the Sutlej meets the Beas River. Source: Indian Express HOKERSAR WETLAND Syllabus: Prelims – ENVIRONMENT Context: Lack of water due to excess deficit rainfall at the Hokersar wetland in the Kashmir Valley in recent years has impacted the arrival of migratory bird populations in the region. Background: – According to the India Meteorological Department (IMD), Kashmir is facing a rainfall deficit of 81 per cent. About Hokersar Wetland Hokersar Wetland is located near Srinagar in the Kashmir Valley, Jammu and Kashmir, India. It lies to the north of the famous Dal Lake and is situated at an elevation of about 1,585 meters (5,200 feet) above sea level. Ecological Importance: The wetland is a bird sanctuary, hosting a variety of migratory species, especially during the winter months. It is an important stopover for birds migrating along the Central Asian Flyway. Protection and Conservation: Hokersar Wetland was designated as a Wetland of International Importance under the Ramsar Convention in 2005 due to its global ecological significance. Source: Down To Earth CENTRAL ADOPTION RESOURCE AUTHORITY (CARA) Syllabus: Prelims – POLITY Context: Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA), Ministry of Women and Child Development celebrates November as National Adoption Awareness Month to promote legal adoptions in the country Background: – The theme for Adoption Awareness Month 2024 is “Rehabilitation of Older Children through Foster Care and Foster Adoption”. Key takeaways The Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Women & Child Development, Government of India. Established in 1990, it serves as the nodal agency for the adoption of Indian children, overseeing and regulating both in-country and inter-country adoptions. Key Functions of CARA: Regulation of Adoption Procedures: CARA monitors and regulates the adoption process for orphaned, abandoned, and surrendered children, ensuring adherence to standardized protocols. Implementation of the Hague Convention: Designated as the Central Authority under the Hague Convention on Inter-country Adoption (1993), CARA manages international adoption cases in compliance with international standards. Accreditation of Agencies: CARA accredits and supervises Specialised Adoption Agencies (SAAs) across India, ensuring they meet required standards for child care and adoption services. Child Adoption Resource Information and Guidance System (CARINGS): CARA operates CARINGS, an online platform that facilitates transparency and efficiency in the adoption process by connecting prospective adoptive parents with available children. Source: PIB KODO MILLET PLANTS Syllabus: Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: Ten wild elephants died in Madhya Pradesh’s Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve recently after consuming a “large quantity” of kodo millet plants, which had been infected with a fungus, a toxicology report released last week by ICAR-Indian Veterinary Research Institute (IVRI), Bareilly, said. Background: – The toxicological examination report also rejected suspicions that the elephants may have been poisoned intentionally. This was after the samples tested negative for several other toxic substances. Key takeaways Kodo millet is a nutritious cereal grain grown in parts of India, particularly in central and eastern India, as well as in parts of Africa. It is known for its resilience to drought and harsh growing conditions, making it an important crop in rain-fed regions. Kodo millet has recently gained attention as a nutrient-dense alternative to rice and wheat, especially under the Indian Government’s initiative to promote millets for better nutrition and sustainable farming. Growing Season: Kodo millet is a short-duration crop, typically grown during the kharif season. It thrives in poor, dry soils with low water requirements, making it suitable for regions with limited irrigation. The plant height is typically around 1.5 to 2 meters, and it requires less water and fertilizers compared to traditional cereal crops like rice or wheat. Kodo millet is rich in proteins, fiber, and minerals such as iron, magnesium, and calcium. It has a low glycemic index, making it a healthy food choice for diabetics. It is a good source of antioxidants and vitamins, including B vitamins. Challenges Mycotoxin Contamination: Kodo millet can be contaminated with mycotoxins, particularly cyclopiazonic acid (CPA), which can cause poisoning in both humans and animals. Anti-Nutritional Factors: Contains phytic acid, which can interfere with nutrient absorption Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Which of the following statements about Kodo Millet are correct? Kodo millet is a drought-resistant crop grown primarily in the Kharif season in India. It is rich in fiber, iron, and calcium, and is also beneficial for diabetic patients due to its low glycemic index. Kodo millet is primarily grown in highly irrigated areas and requires large amounts of fertilizers. Select the correct answer using the code below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Q2.) Consider the following statements about the Hokersar Wetland: Hokersar Wetland is located in Punjab, India, and is recognized as a Ramsar site. It is an important habitat for migratory birds and supports species such as the Northern Pintail and Bar-headed Goose. The wetland faces threats from encroachment, pollution, and climate change. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Q3.) Which of the following statements regarding the Sutlej River is/are correct? It originates from the Rakshastal Lake near Mount Kailash. The river plays a critical role in irrigation and hydropower generation in India, with significant projects like the Bhakra Nangal Dam. Under the Indus Waters Treaty, the Sutlej is allocated to Pakistan for its use. Select the correct answer using the code below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 8th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – a Q.3) – d

Nov 12, 2024 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 12th November 2024

Nov 12, 2024 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 9th November 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) NATIONAL LEGAL SERVICES DAY Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – POLITY Context: National Legal Services Day is observed in India every year on November 9. Background: – Article 39A of the Constitution of India: It provides that State shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity, and shall in particular, provide free legal aid, by suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way, to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disability. Key takeaways The Supreme Court of India established National Legal Services Day in 1995 to provide free legal assistance and support to society’s most vulnerable section. The day emphasizes empowering marginalised communities, highlighting the importance of equal access to justice, and advocating that no one should be deprived of legal representation due to economic disadvantages. It aims to bridge the gap between the law and people in greatest need through a variety of activities organised by NALSA and other legal entities, including legal awareness programs, workshops, and camps. In 1987 Legal Services Authorities Act was enacted to give a statutory base to legal aid programmes throughout the country on a uniform pattern. This Act was finally enforced on 9th of November, 1995 after certain amendments were introduced therein by the Amendment Act of 1994. National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) The NALSA has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to provide free Legal Services to the weaker sections of the society. It organizes Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes. It also monitors and reviews various legal aid programs and provides rules and principles for legal services under the Act. NALSA also distributes funding and grants to state legal services authorities and non-profit organisations to help them execute legal aid systems and initiatives. Hon’ble Chief Justice of India is the Patron-in-Chief and NALSA is housed at Supreme Court of India State Legal Services Authority (SLSA) & District Legal Services Authority (DLSA) The State Legal Services Authority is established in every state to implement NALSA policies and provide free legal services, including Lok Adalats. The State Legal Services Authority is headed by Hon’ble Chief Justice of the respective High Court who is the Patron-in-Chief of the State Legal Services Authority. Similarly, in every District, District Legal Services Authority has been constituted to implement Legal Services Programmes in the District. The District Legal Services Authority is chaired by the District Judge of the respective district and is situated in the District Courts Complex in every District. Who is Eligible for Getting Free Legal Services? Under Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities Act every person who has to file or defend a case shall be entitled to legal services under this Act if that person is: Women and children; Members of SC/ST, Industrial workmen; Victims of mass disaster, violence, flood, drought, earthquake, industrial disaster; Disabled persons; Persons in custody. If that person is related to section 2 of the Juvenile Justice Act, 1986 (53 of 1986) or in a psychiatric hospital or psychiatric nursing home within the meaning of clause (g) of section 2 of the Mental Health Act, 1987 (14 of 1987) Those persons who have annual income of less than the amount prescribed by the respective State Government, if the case is before any court other than the Supreme Court, and less than Rs. 5 Lakhs, if the case is before the Supreme Court. Victims of Trafficking in Human beings or begar. Source: Indian Express OLYMPICS BID Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: The Indian Olympic Association (IOA) has sent a letter of intent to the International Olympic Committee (IOC), expressing its desire to host the Olympic and Paralympic Games in India. Background: – After submitting the ‘Letter of Intent’, India advances from the ‘Informal Dialogue’ to the ‘Continuous Dialogue’ stage of the host election process. During this stage, the IOC performs a ‘feasibility study’ on the status of Games-related projects in the possible host country. Key takeaways Confirming the contents of the letter, officials involved said it has dipped into the country’s “vast cultural diversity, shaped by thousands of years of history”. The entire nation is united in this dream by the spirit of ‘Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam’ — a Sanskrit phrase that means ‘the world is one family’ — and to seek peace, friendship and collective progress among all nations. This is India’s and our Olympic bid’s message to the world at a time when it is needed most,” it says, according to sources. India is the “only major economy yet to host the Games”, the letter says. Apart from highlighting the possibility of the Games serving as a “critical catalyst for India’s continued rise on the global stage”, the letter also talks about the “transformative economic, social and cultural impact in wider SAARC nations in South Asia”. India is learnt to have told the IOC that “there are over 600 million Indians under the age of 25” and “in India’s current stage of economic development, the Games would serve as a powerful force for job creation and business opportunities, particularly in sectors connected to sports infrastructure, services and tourism”. India is one of the many countries in contention to host the Olympic Games in 2036, the earliest available slot after the Los Angeles Games in 2028 followed by Brisbane in 2032. A decision, following a long-drawn process, is not expected before 2026 or 2027, the IOC has said. While there is no mention of a host city in the letter of intent, Ahmedabad is considered to be the frontrunner. India’s primary contenders are likely to be Saudi Arabia and Qatar, as there is an unwritten law of continent rotation, with the 2036 Games scheduled for Asia following Paris 2024 (Europe), Los Angeles 2028 (Americas), and Brisbane 2032 (Oceania). Source: Indian Express CPI INFLATION AND IIP DATA Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – ECONOMY Context: The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) recently announced a change to the decade-old practice of releasing the Consumer Price Index (CPI) and Index of Industrial Production (IIP) data at 5:30 pm on the 12th of each month. The new release time is now set to 4 pm. Background: While retail inflation data has always been released on a monthly basis, the wholesale inflation data was released weekly till December 2012. Now, it’s released on the 14th of every month around noon. Key takeaways Back in 2013, there were reports of data getting leaked before the official release time that had led to many representations to the Ministry to keep the timing of the data release after the market hours. The retail inflation and IIP data used to be released around 11-11:30 am on the 12th of every month till June 2013. Retail inflation data, which is a closely watched indicator for the Indian economy, would then become a crucial input for trading and taking positions in markets, especially in the forex and government bond markets. After the representations were made about data leaks at that time, the Ministry then changed the release time for the retail inflation and IIP data to 5:30 pm from July 2013 onwards. The timing was changed keeping in mind that the forex and government bond markets close at 5 pm. Now, the new change has been introduced “to provide more time on the day of release to access CPI (Consumer Price Index) & IIP (Index of Industrial Production) data, according to the ministry. The Ministry stated that the new release time aligns with the closing hours of major financial markets in India, “ensuring that CPI data dissemination does not interfere with active trading”. “This adjustment also adheres to MoSPI’s commitment to transparency and accessibility in data dissemination,” it said. Analysts, however, point to the fact that while the stock markets may close by the 4pm release time, some financial markets such as the government bond and the foreign exchange markets, which are also sensitive to inflation data releases, remain open till 5 pm, The suggestion, therefore, is that the release time of 4 pm still does means the data could be sensitive, given the extended timings of the bond market and the currency market. Source: Indian Express CYANOBACTERIA Syllabus: Prelims – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: Researchers has discovered a novel strain of cyanobacteria, or algae, isolated from volcanic ocean vents that is especially adept at growing rapidly in the presence of CO2 and readily sinks in water, making it a prime candidate for biologically-based carbon sequestration projects. Background: – The strain, nicknamed “Chonkus,” was found off the coast of the island of Vulcano in Sicily, Italy — an environment in which marine CO2 is abundant due to shallow volcanic vents. Key takeaways Cyanobacteria, also known as blue-green algae, are a group of photosynthetic bacteria found in various aquatic and terrestrial ecosystems. They are some of the oldest organisms on Earth and played a crucial role in the oxygenation of the Earth’s atmosphere during the Great Oxygenation Event around 2.5 billion years ago. Structure: They are prokaryotic organisms (lack a nucleus) and differ from true algae, which are eukaryotic. They contain chlorophyll a and other pigments like phycocyanin and phycoerythrin, giving them their blue-green color. Photosynthesis: Cyanobacteria are capable of oxygenic photosynthesis (producing oxygen), similar to plants, as they have chlorophyll. They are autotrophic, meaning they produce their own food using sunlight. Nitrogen Fixation: Certain cyanobacteria, such as Anabaena and Nostoc, have specialized cells called heterocysts that can fix atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia, which is essential for soil fertility. Habitat: They are found in freshwater, marine, and terrestrial environments. They can thrive in extreme conditions, including hot springs, polar regions, and deserts. Ecological Importance: Primary Producers: Cyanobacteria form the base of the food chain in many aquatic ecosystems and contribute significantly to global primary production. Role in Nitrogen Cycle: Through nitrogen fixation, they improve soil fertility and support plant growth, especially in rice paddy fields. Oxygen Production: They played a critical role in oxygenating the Earth’s atmosphere billions of years ago, enabling the evolution of aerobic (oxygen-breathing) organisms. Formation of Stromatolites: Cyanobacteria contribute to the formation of stromatolites, which are layered rock structures and some of the oldest known fossils, providing evidence of early life on Earth. Potential Hazards: Harmful Algal Blooms (HABs): Under nutrient-rich conditions, cyanobacteria can proliferate and form blooms, known as harmful algal blooms (HABs), which produce toxins dangerous to aquatic life and humans. Cyanotoxins: Certain species produce cyanotoxins (e.g., microcystins) that can contaminate drinking water sources, posing health risks. Source: Harvard CENTRAL ADOPTION RESOURCE AUTHORITY (CARA) Syllabus: Prelims – POLITY Context: Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA), Ministry of Women and Child Development celebrates November as National Adoption Awareness Month to promote legal adoptions in the country Background: – The theme for Adoption Awareness Month 2024 is “Rehabilitation of Older Children through Foster Care and Foster Adoption”. Key takeaways The Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Women & Child Development, Government of India. Established in 1990, it serves as the nodal agency for the adoption of Indian children, overseeing and regulating both in-country and inter-country adoptions. Key Functions of CARA: Regulation of Adoption Procedures: CARA monitors and regulates the adoption process for orphaned, abandoned, and surrendered children, ensuring adherence to standardized protocols. Implementation of the Hague Convention: Designated as the Central Authority under the Hague Convention on Inter-country Adoption (1993), CARA manages international adoption cases in compliance with international standards. Accreditation of Agencies: CARA accredits and supervises Specialised Adoption Agencies (SAAs) across India, ensuring they meet required standards for child care and adoption services. Child Adoption Resource Information and Guidance System (CARINGS): CARA operates CARINGS, an online platform that facilitates transparency and efficiency in the adoption process by connecting prospective adoptive parents with available children. Source: PIB Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements regarding the Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA): CARA is a statutory body under the Ministry of Women & Child Development, Government of India. CARA is the designated Central Authority for managing inter-country adoptions in India under the Hague Convention on Inter-country Adoption. CARA exclusively oversees adoption services within India and has no role in international adoption procedures. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Q2.) With reference to cyanobacteria, consider the following statements: Cyanobacteria are capable of nitrogen fixation, which can enhance soil fertility. They are prokaryotic organisms and are different from eukaryotic algae. Cyanobacteria perform anoxygenic photosynthesis, releasing sulfur instead of oxygen as a byproduct. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Q3.) Consider the following statements about National Legal Services Day and the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987: National Legal Services Day is observed on November 9 each year to provide free legal assistance and empower marginalized communities. The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, was enacted to establish a uniform pattern for legal aid programs throughout India. Article 39A of the Indian Constitution mandates that the State shall provide free legal aid and promote justice based on equal opportunity. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR 8th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – b

Nov 11, 2024 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

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