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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –8th May 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Artificial General Intelligence (AGI) Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Science Context: In a recent interview, Sam Altman, CEO of OpenAI, expressed his commitment to invest billions of dollars towards the development of Artificial General Intelligence (AGI). But even as Altman continues to champion what is considered to be the pinnacle of AI development, many in the global tech community are very apprehensive. Background:- AGI aims to emulate human cognitive abilities such that it allows it to do unfamiliar tasks, learn from new experiences, and apply its knowledge in new ways. About Artificial General Intelligence (AGI) AGI refers to a machine or a software that can perform any intellectual task that a human can do. AGI aims to emulate human cognitive abilities such that it allows it to do unfamiliar tasks, learn from new experiences, and apply its knowledge in new ways. The main difference between AGI and the more common form of AI, also known as narrow AI, lies in their scope and capabilities. Narrow AI is designed to perform specific tasks such as image recognition, translation, or even playing games like chess—at which it can outdo humans, but it remains limited to its set parameters. On the other hand, AGI envisions a broader, more generalised form of intelligence, not confined to any particular task (like humans). This is what puts AGI at the summit of all developments in artificial intelligence. The idea of AGI first emerged in the 20th century with a paper written by Alan Turing, widely considered to be the father of theoretical computer science and artificial intelligence. In ‘Computing Machinery and Intelligence’ (1950), he introduced what is now known as the Turing test, a benchmark for machine intelligence. Simply put, if a machine can engage in a conversation with a human without being detected as a machine, according to the Turing test, it has demonstrated human intelligence. When Turing wrote this influential paper, humans were nowhere close to developing artificial intelligence — even computers were in their nascency. Yet, his work led to wide-ranging discussions about the possibility of such machines, as well as their potential benefits and risks. In theory, AGI has innumerable positive implications in various fields such as healthcare, education, finance, and business. For instance, in healthcare, it can redefine diagnostics, treatment planning, and personalised medicine by integrating and analysing vast datasets, far beyond the capabilities of humans.In finance and business, AGI could automate various processes and enhance the overall decision-making, offering real-time analytics and market predictions with accuracy.When it comes to education, AGI could transform adaptive learning systems that work towards the unique needs of students. This could potentially democratise access to personalised education worldwide. Despite the promise AGI holds, it continues to fuel widespread apprehensions, due to a number of reasons. For instance, the humongous amount of computational power required to develop AGI systems raises concerns about its impact on the environment, both due to the energy consumption and generation of e-waste. AGI could also lead to a significant loss of employment, and widespread socio-economic disparity. It could introduce new security vulnerabilities, and its development could outrun the ability of governments and international bodies to come up with suitable regulations. And if humans were to become dependent on AGI, it might even lead to the loss of basic human skills and capabilities. But the most serious fear regarding AGI is that its abilities can outpace human beings’, making its actions difficult to understand and predict. Source:Indian Express Maharashtra gears up for tiger translocation Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: The Maharashtra forest department is gearing up for translocation of a few tigers from the Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve (TATR) in Chandrapur to Sahyadri, the lone tiger reserve in the state’s western region. Background: The translocation project is an important step in conservation of tigers in the forests of the northern Western Ghats, which form a key wildlife corridor between Maharashtra and Karnataka. Key Takeaways The Sahyadri Tiger Reserve (STR) is one of only five tiger reserves in the country — Kaval in Telangana, Kamlang in Arunachal Pradesh, Dampa in Mizoram and Satkosia in Odisha being the other four — with zero tigers within the reserve and the translocation is part of a long-term plan to revive the population of the big cats in the northern Western Ghats forests. STR straddles Kolhapur, Satara, Sangli and Ratnagiri districts in western Maharashtra. Spread over 1,165 sq km, the reserve was notified in 2010 by amalgamating the Chandoli national park and Koyna wildlife sanctuary. The Maharashtra forest department is awaiting the final go-ahead from the Union Environment Ministry. The NTCA (National Tiger Conservation Authority) had cleared the translocation plan in October 2023. In the initial phase, a male tiger or a pair of male and female tigers would be translocated from TATR to STR. The 2023 tiger population estimation report highlighted the threats posed to the wildlife corridor between the STR and Karnataka’s forests from mining activities, road projects and human settlements. The translocation of tigers from TATR will be followed by their translocation from the Pench Tiger Reserve landscape, which is spread over Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh. In all, the plan involves translocation of eight tigers — three males and five females. The translocation is part of the phase-II of the tiger recovery project; phase-I involves preparing the habitat for the big cats’ reintroduction, augmentation of prey, improving forest protection and building of a temporary enclosure for their soft release. Source: Indian Express Demographic Transition in India Syllabus Mains – GS 1 Context: India’s population growth has been a major focus, with projections of reaching 1.7 billion by 2065, according to the UN Population Division, underscoring the ongoing Transition of Demographic Dividend in India. Background: Several factors have jointly triggered a demographic transition in India, the rapid pace of economic development being the key one. Lower infant and child mortality rates reducing the need to have a large family for old-age support, would be the other factor, backed by the rise in women’s education and work participation rates. Improvement in housing conditions and the old-age security system are the other contributing factors. Demographic Transition: It refers to a change in the composition of a population over time. This change can occur due to various factors such as changes in birth and death rates, migration patterns, and changes in social and economic conditions. Demographic Dividend: It is a phenomenon that occurs when a country’s population structure shifts from having a high proportion of dependents (children and elderly) to having a higher proportion of working-age adults. This change in population structure can result in economic growth and development if the country invests in its human capital and creates conditions for productive employment. Factors that triggered Demographic Transition in India: The pace of economic development, particularly since the early years of the 21st century, has been a significant driver of demographic transition. Economic growth leads to improved living standards, better healthcare facilities, and increased access to education, which collectively contribute to lower fertility rates. Lower mortality rates among infants and children have reduced the need for families to have a large number of children for old-age support. As healthcare facilities improve and child mortality decreases, families feel more confident in having fewer children. Increased education and participation of women in the workforce have also played a crucial role. As women become more educated and financially independent, they tend to have fewer children and delay childbirth, leading to a decline in total fertility rates. Better housing conditions and access to basic amenities contribute to improved quality of life, which, in turn, affects family planning decisions. Issues/Challenges Faced by Demographic Transition in India: While initially, the decline in TFR leads to a fall in the dependency ratio and a larger working-age population, it eventually results in a larger share of elderly dependents. This places a strain on resources for healthcare and social welfare, similar to the situations observed in China, Japan, and European countries. The decline in fertility rates is not uniform across all states in India. Some states, particularly larger ones like Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and Jharkhand, may take longer to achieve replacement-level fertility. This can exacerbate regional disparities in economic development and healthcare access. While the demographic transition can potentially increase labour productivity and spur economic growth, it also poses challenges in terms of managing the aging workforce and ensuring adequate skills development for the younger population. Opportunities for Demographic Transition in India: The demographic transition can lead to a deceleration in population growth. This can result in higher availability of capital resources and infrastructure on a per capita basis, ultimately boosting labour productivity. Decreasing fertility rates enable the reallocation of resources towards education and skill development, which can lead to improved human capital and workforce productivity. A declining TFR will lead to a situation where the number of children enrolling in schools is lower, as is already happening in states like Kerala. This could improve educational outcomes without additional resources being spent by the state. A major factor responsible for the low participation of women in the workforce is their engagement in childcare at an age when they should be in the labour force. With less time needed for childcare, one would expect more women to join the labour force in the coming decades. The movement of labour from regions with surplus labour to regions with growing industries can create spatial balance in the labour market. This would get an impetus with the modern sectors in the southern states, and Gujarat and Maharashtra, soliciting cheaper labour from the northern states. This, over the years, must result in improved working conditions, elimination of wage discrimination for migrant workers, and the mitigation of security concerns in the receiving states through institutional safeguards. Source: Indian Express WEST NILE FEVER Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Multiple cases of West Nile fever reported in Kerala. Background: The Kerala Health Department is emphasizing mosquito control and the elimination of breeding sites to prevent further spread of the disease. About WEST NILE FEVER : West Nile Fever (WNV) is an infectious disease caused by the West Nile virus (WNV). West Nile virus belongs to the flavivirus family and is related to viruses that cause other diseases such as St. Louis encephalitis, Japanese encephalitis, and yellow fever. It is a mosquito-borne, single-stranded RNA virus. Global Prevalence: WNV outbreaks occur along major bird migratory routes. The virus was first identified in Uganda in 1937 and has since been found in various regions including Europe, Africa, Asia, Australia, and North America. The virus is commonly found in regions including Africa, Europe, the Middle East, North America, and West Asia. Prevalence in India: In India, WNV activity has been reported in southern, central, and western regions. Antibodies against WNV were first detected in humans in Mumbai in 1952. WNV has been isolated from mosquitoes in Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Kerala. Transmission Cycle: The principal vector for transmission is the Culex species of mosquitoes. Birds act as reservoir hosts for the virus. Infected mosquitoes transmit WNV between humans and animals, including birds. Prevention and Control: There is currently no vaccine available for humans; therefore, prevention and supportive care are key in managing the risk and impact of this disease. Preventive measures include mosquito control, avoiding mosquito bites, and monitoring bird populations. Source: The Hindu CARBON FARMING Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: Some techniques within carbon farming can reduce greenhouse gas emissions. Background: By adopting carbon-smart farming methods, we can simultaneously meet food demands and combat climate change. About CARBON FARMING : Carbon farming also known as carbon sequestration refers to a set of practices aimed at reducing greenhouse gas emissions from agriculture and land use. It aimed at storing carbon in the soil, crop roots, wood, and leaves. Key Techniques in Carbon Farming: Rotational Grazing: This involves moving livestock between pastures to allow vegetation to recover, enhancing soil carbon storage. Agroforestry: Incorporating trees and shrubs into farming systems to sequester carbon in vegetation. Conservation Agriculture: Practices like zero tillage, crop rotation, and cover cropping to minimize soil disturbance and improve organic content. Integrated Nutrient Management: Using organic fertilizers and compost to promote soil fertility and reduce emissions. Livestock Management: Optimizing feed quality and managing animal waste to lower methane emissions. Challenges in Implementation: Geographical Factors: Effectiveness varies based on location, soil type, crop selection, and water availability. Biodiversity: Practices must be balanced with maintaining ecosystem services to avoid negative impacts like biodiversity loss. Policy and Community Engagement: Requires sufficient policy support and community involvement for successful adoption. Source: The Hindu RECHARGE WELLS Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Water Conservation Context: The Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage Board has constructed more than 900 recharge wells across the city within a span of one month. Background: The current water crisis in Bengaluru is not solely due to a lack of water from the Cauvery River. Instead, it arises from inefficient rainwater harvesting practices and inadequate water tanks for recharging groundwater. RECHARGE WELLS Recharge wells are structures designed to directly recharge groundwater. They play a crucial role in replenishing aquifers and maintaining sustainable water availability. These wells are typically deep shafts (ranging from 0.5 to 3 meters in diameter and 10 to 15 meters deep). They allow surplus water (such as rainwater) to infiltrate into the aquifer, effectively recharging the groundwater. Benefits of Recharge Wells: Groundwater Replenishment: By allowing rainwater to percolate into the ground, recharge wells help maintain groundwater levels. This is especially important during dry periods or when wells are at risk of drying up. Environmental Sustainability: Recharge wells contribute to overall environmental health by ensuring a balanced water cycle. They prevent excessive runoff and erosion. Agricultural Productivity: Farmers with augmented water resources can secure two to three crops a year, improving their income and quality of life. Efficient water use also reduces input costs for irrigation and labour. Urban Water Management: In urban areas, recharge wells help manage stormwater runoff, reduce flooding, and maintain stable water tables. Energy Savings: Rising groundwater levels due to recharge wells can save energy. For instance, a 1-meter rise in water level saves approximately 0.4 kWh of electricity. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) With reference to the recharge wells, consider the following statements: Recharge wells are structures designed to directly recharge groundwater. They play a crucial role in replenishing aquifers and maintaining sustainable water availability. In urban areas, recharge wells help manage stormwater runoff, reduce flooding, and maintain stable water tables. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q2.) Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Carbon farming refers to a set of practices aimed at reducing greenhouse gas emissions from agriculture and land use. Statement-II: Carbon farming aims at storing carbon in the soil, crop roots, wood, and leaves. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Q3.) With reference to the West Nile Fever (WNV), consider the following statements: West Nile Fever is an infectious disease caused by the West Nile virus. The principal vector for transmission is the Culex species of mosquitoes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  8th May 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  7th May – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – b Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 8th May 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

[DAY 57] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – ECONOMY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question Consider the following with reference to reports: The Global Human Capital Index The Global Gender Gap Report Fiscal Monitor Report External Sector Report How many of the above given reports is/are published by World Economic Forum? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (b) World Economic Forum (WEF): The World Economic Forum is the International Organization for Public- Private Cooperation. The Forum engages the foremost political, business and other leaders of society to shape global, regional and industry agendas. It was established in 1971 as a not-for profit foundation and is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. It is independent, impartial and not tied to any special interests. The Global Human Capital Index Report- published by World Economic Forum, ranks 130 countries on how well they are developing their human capital on a scale from 0 (worst) to 100 (best) across four thematic dimensions and five distinct age groups to capture the full human capital potential profile of a country. (Hence 1 is correct) The Global Gender Gap Report is published by WEF, benchmarks 144 countries on their progress towards gender parity across four thematic dimensions: Economic Participation and Opportunity, Educational Attainment, Health and Survival, and Political Empowerment. (Hence 2 is correct) Fiscal Monitor Report: Launched in 2009, it is also published twice a year by IMF. It surveys and analyses the latest public finance developments and access policies to put public finances on a sustainable footing. Fiscal Monitor Report 2022 emphasises on how fiscal policy can foster economic resilience which allows house and firms to bounce back from present adversity and cope with future challenges. (Hence 3 is incorrect) External Sector Report: It is published annually by IMF since 2012. External sector reports emphasis on global external developments and provide multilaterally consistent assessments of external positions of the world’s largest economy representing over 90 per cent of the global GDP. (Hence 4 is incorrect) Incorrect Solution (b) World Economic Forum (WEF): The World Economic Forum is the International Organization for Public- Private Cooperation. The Forum engages the foremost political, business and other leaders of society to shape global, regional and industry agendas. It was established in 1971 as a not-for profit foundation and is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. It is independent, impartial and not tied to any special interests. The Global Human Capital Index Report- published by World Economic Forum, ranks 130 countries on how well they are developing their human capital on a scale from 0 (worst) to 100 (best) across four thematic dimensions and five distinct age groups to capture the full human capital potential profile of a country. (Hence 1 is correct) The Global Gender Gap Report is published by WEF, benchmarks 144 countries on their progress towards gender parity across four thematic dimensions: Economic Participation and Opportunity, Educational Attainment, Health and Survival, and Political Empowerment. (Hence 2 is correct) Fiscal Monitor Report: Launched in 2009, it is also published twice a year by IMF. It surveys and analyses the latest public finance developments and access policies to put public finances on a sustainable footing. Fiscal Monitor Report 2022 emphasises on how fiscal policy can foster economic resilience which allows house and firms to bounce back from present adversity and cope with future challenges. (Hence 3 is incorrect) External Sector Report: It is published annually by IMF since 2012. External sector reports emphasis on global external developments and provide multilaterally consistent assessments of external positions of the world’s largest economy representing over 90 per cent of the global GDP. (Hence 4 is incorrect) Question 2 of 35 2. Question Consider the following statements: India and Russia have mutually agreed to explore the feasibility of accepting RuPay and Mir payment cards from each other, aiming to facilitate smooth cross-border transactions between the two nations. The recent cross-border connectivity launch between UPI and Singapore’s PayNow has provided the Indian diaspora in Singapore with faster and cost-efficient digital transfers. Which of the above given statements is/are not correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (d) India and Russia have agreed to explore the possibility of accepting each other’s payment cards, RuPay and Mir, for seamless cross-border payments between the two countries. (Hence statement 1 is correct) The decision was taken during the meeting of the Internal Governmental Commission on Trade, Economic, Scientific, Technological, and Cultural Cooperation (IRIGC-TEC), jointly chaired by India’s External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar and Russia’s Deputy Prime Minister Denis Manturov. Benefits of Mutual Acceptance: The mutual acceptance of RuPay and Mir cards will facilitate transactions in Indian rupees and Russian rubles, making cross-border payments easier for citizens of both countries. This step is essential to minimize the impact of sanctions imposed on Russia by the West, as current overseas payments are reliant on the SWIFT network. Exploring UPI and FPS Interaction: The meeting also explored the possibility of interaction between India’s Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Russia’s Faster Payments System (FPS). This move aims to simplify cross-border payments further and enhance financial connectivity between India and Russia. Cross-Border Connectivity with PayNow: The participants discussed the recent launch of cross-border connectivity between UPI and Singapore’s PayNow. This linkage enables faster and cost-efficient digital transfers between India and Singapore, benefiting the Indian diaspora in Singapore, including migrant workers and students. (Hence statement 2 is correct)   Incorrect Solution (d) India and Russia have agreed to explore the possibility of accepting each other’s payment cards, RuPay and Mir, for seamless cross-border payments between the two countries. (Hence statement 1 is correct) The decision was taken during the meeting of the Internal Governmental Commission on Trade, Economic, Scientific, Technological, and Cultural Cooperation (IRIGC-TEC), jointly chaired by India’s External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar and Russia’s Deputy Prime Minister Denis Manturov. Benefits of Mutual Acceptance: The mutual acceptance of RuPay and Mir cards will facilitate transactions in Indian rupees and Russian rubles, making cross-border payments easier for citizens of both countries. This step is essential to minimize the impact of sanctions imposed on Russia by the West, as current overseas payments are reliant on the SWIFT network. Exploring UPI and FPS Interaction: The meeting also explored the possibility of interaction between India’s Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Russia’s Faster Payments System (FPS). This move aims to simplify cross-border payments further and enhance financial connectivity between India and Russia. Cross-Border Connectivity with PayNow: The participants discussed the recent launch of cross-border connectivity between UPI and Singapore’s PayNow. This linkage enables faster and cost-efficient digital transfers between India and Singapore, benefiting the Indian diaspora in Singapore, including migrant workers and students. (Hence statement 2 is correct)   Question 3 of 35 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding the International Monetary Fund (IMF): It monitors global economic conditions and identifies risks and provides technical assistance and short-term loans to prevent financial crises It plays a vital role in the fight against money laundering and terrorism. The IMF’s Board of Governors comprises one Governor and one Alternate Governor from each member country, where India’s finance minister serves as the Ex-officio Governor, and the RBI Governor acts as Alternate Governor the on the Board. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) International Monetary Fund The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an organization of 189 member countries. It stabilizes the global economy through three main functions. First, it monitors global economic conditions and identifies risks. Second, it advises its member countries on how to improve their economies. Third, it provides technical assistance and short-term loans to prevent financial crises. (Hence statement 1 is correct) The IMF was established in 1945 as part of the Bretton Woods agreement, which aimed to encourage international financial cooperation by introducing a system of convertible currencies at fixed exchange rates. The IMF’s goal is to prevent economic disasters by guiding its member countries. It offers emergency assistance to support recovery from natural disasters. The IMF plays a vital role in the fight against money laundering and terrorism. (Hence statement 2 is correct) The IMF achieves its objectives primarily through monitoring, capacity building, and lending. Surveillance: The IMF collects vast amounts of data on national economies, international trade, and the global economy. It provides regularly updated economic forecasts and discussions on the effect of fiscal, monetary, and trade policies on growth prospects and financial stability. Capacity Building: The IMF provides technical assistance, training, and policy advice to member countries through its capacity-building programs, including data collection and analysis. Lending: The IMF makes loans to countries experiencing economic distress to prevent or mitigate financial crises. Members contribute funds for this lending to a pool based on a quota system. The Board of Governors of the IMF consists of one Governor and one Alternate Governor from each member country. For India, the finance minister is the Ex-officio Governor while the RBI Governor is the Alternate Governor on the Board. (Hence statement 3 is correct) The day-to-day management of the IMF is carried out by the Managing Director who is Chairman of the Board of Executive Directors. The Board of Executive Directors consists of 24 directors appointed/elected by member countries/group of countries is the executive body of the IMF. India is represented at the IMF by an Executive Director, who also represents three other countries in India’s constituency, viz. Bangladesh, Sri Lanka and Bhutan. Incorrect Solution (c) International Monetary Fund The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an organization of 189 member countries. It stabilizes the global economy through three main functions. First, it monitors global economic conditions and identifies risks. Second, it advises its member countries on how to improve their economies. Third, it provides technical assistance and short-term loans to prevent financial crises. (Hence statement 1 is correct) The IMF was established in 1945 as part of the Bretton Woods agreement, which aimed to encourage international financial cooperation by introducing a system of convertible currencies at fixed exchange rates. The IMF’s goal is to prevent economic disasters by guiding its member countries. It offers emergency assistance to support recovery from natural disasters. The IMF plays a vital role in the fight against money laundering and terrorism. (Hence statement 2 is correct) The IMF achieves its objectives primarily through monitoring, capacity building, and lending. Surveillance: The IMF collects vast amounts of data on national economies, international trade, and the global economy. It provides regularly updated economic forecasts and discussions on the effect of fiscal, monetary, and trade policies on growth prospects and financial stability. Capacity Building: The IMF provides technical assistance, training, and policy advice to member countries through its capacity-building programs, including data collection and analysis. Lending: The IMF makes loans to countries experiencing economic distress to prevent or mitigate financial crises. Members contribute funds for this lending to a pool based on a quota system. The Board of Governors of the IMF consists of one Governor and one Alternate Governor from each member country. For India, the finance minister is the Ex-officio Governor while the RBI Governor is the Alternate Governor on the Board. (Hence statement 3 is correct) The day-to-day management of the IMF is carried out by the Managing Director who is Chairman of the Board of Executive Directors. The Board of Executive Directors consists of 24 directors appointed/elected by member countries/group of countries is the executive body of the IMF. India is represented at the IMF by an Executive Director, who also represents three other countries in India’s constituency, viz. Bangladesh, Sri Lanka and Bhutan. Question 4 of 35 4. Question With reference to the benefits of ‘WTO’s new Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies’, consider the following statements: The agreement stops giving financial help to fishing in areas where there are too many fish being caught, which helps protect those fishes when other rules are not working well. The agreement prohibits the developmental subsidies on fishing to prevent them from supporting illegal fishing activities. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) WTO’s new Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies: Switzerland becomes the first WTO member to formally accept the WTO’s new Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies. The acceptance was given at an informal WTO ministerial meeting during the World Economic Forum’s annual meeting in Davos, Switzerland. The Agreement was adopted during the 12th Ministerial Conference of WTO in 2022 under the ‘Geneva Package’. To come into effect, the Agreement requires acceptance from two-thirds of WTO members. Benefits of the New Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies: Curbs subsidies to Illegal, Unreported, and Unregulated (IUU) fishing, bolstering the fight against such fishing practices. Prohibits subsidies to fishing on overfished stocks, offering protection where management measures are ineffective.(Hence statement 1 is correct) Prohibits subsidies to fishing on unregulated high seas, providing vital safeguards where management measures are lacking. No prohibition on development subsidies, allowing WTO members to grant or maintain subsidies for vessel or operator capacity development, as long as it is not related to IUU activities.(Hence statement 2 is incorrect) Allows subsidies for fishing on overfished stocks, but with the condition that they are intended for rebuilding the stock to a biologically sustainable level. Aids in achieving Sustainable Development Goal (SDG 14.6) by addressing harmful fisheries subsidies and preserving the world’s fish stocks from further depletion. Incorrect Solution (a) WTO’s new Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies: Switzerland becomes the first WTO member to formally accept the WTO’s new Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies. The acceptance was given at an informal WTO ministerial meeting during the World Economic Forum’s annual meeting in Davos, Switzerland. The Agreement was adopted during the 12th Ministerial Conference of WTO in 2022 under the ‘Geneva Package’. To come into effect, the Agreement requires acceptance from two-thirds of WTO members. Benefits of the New Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies: Curbs subsidies to Illegal, Unreported, and Unregulated (IUU) fishing, bolstering the fight against such fishing practices. Prohibits subsidies to fishing on overfished stocks, offering protection where management measures are ineffective.(Hence statement 1 is correct) Prohibits subsidies to fishing on unregulated high seas, providing vital safeguards where management measures are lacking. No prohibition on development subsidies, allowing WTO members to grant or maintain subsidies for vessel or operator capacity development, as long as it is not related to IUU activities.(Hence statement 2 is incorrect) Allows subsidies for fishing on overfished stocks, but with the condition that they are intended for rebuilding the stock to a biologically sustainable level. Aids in achieving Sustainable Development Goal (SDG 14.6) by addressing harmful fisheries subsidies and preserving the world’s fish stocks from further depletion. Question 5 of 35 5. Question The World Bank has introduced the concept of ‘Learning Poverty,’ which is defined as: a) The percentage of individuals aged 18 and above who lack the ability to read and comprehend a basic text. b) The percentage of children aged 8 and above who are not enrolled in any form of school education. c) The percentage of 10-year-old children who are not able to read and comprehend a basic text. d) The percentage of 12-year-old children who are unable to read and write a simple text. Correct Solution (c) The World Bank, in collaboration with the UNESCO Institute for Statistics, has introduced the concept of ‘Learning Poverty.’ This term signifies the inability to read and comprehend a basic text by the age of 10. (Hence option (c) is correct) The World Bank emphasises the importance of every child acquiring the skill of reading by the age of 10. Reading acts as a crucial pathway to further learning as a child progresses through their educational journey. Conversely, the inability to read effectively closes off this pathway. Moreover, when children struggle with reading, it often indicates that educational systems are inadequately structured to facilitate learning in subjects like mathematics, science, and the humanities. While it’s still possible to learn later in life with significant effort, children who are unable to read by age 10, or at the latest, by the completion of primary school, generally face difficulties in mastering reading skills as they advance in their educational pursuits. Incorrect Solution (c) The World Bank, in collaboration with the UNESCO Institute for Statistics, has introduced the concept of ‘Learning Poverty.’ This term signifies the inability to read and comprehend a basic text by the age of 10. (Hence option (c) is correct) The World Bank emphasises the importance of every child acquiring the skill of reading by the age of 10. Reading acts as a crucial pathway to further learning as a child progresses through their educational journey. Conversely, the inability to read effectively closes off this pathway. Moreover, when children struggle with reading, it often indicates that educational systems are inadequately structured to facilitate learning in subjects like mathematics, science, and the humanities. While it’s still possible to learn later in life with significant effort, children who are unable to read by age 10, or at the latest, by the completion of primary school, generally face difficulties in mastering reading skills as they advance in their educational pursuits. Question 6 of 35 6. Question Consider the following statements in context of World Trade Organisation (WTO). It was established in 2005 by the Uruguay Round of GATT negotiations. India is a founder member of WTO. India is treated as the part of developing countries group in WTO. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) World Trade Organization (WTO): The World Trade Organization (WTO) is an intergovernmental organization that regulates international trade. The WTO officially commenced on 1 January 1995 under the Marrakesh Agreement, signed by 124 nations on 15 April 1994, replacing the General Agreement on Tariff s and Trade (GATT), which commenced in 1948. One of the key achievements of the Uruguay Round of GATT negotiations was the decision to set up a permanent institution for looking after the promotion of free and fair trade amongst nations. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect) It is the largest international economic organization in the world. The Headquarter of WTO is situated at Geneva, Switzerland. The present strength of WTO membership is 164 and 25 observer governments. The WTO is based on agreements signed by the majority of the world’s trading nations. India is a founder member of WTO and also treated as the part of developing countries group for accessing the concessions granted by the organization. (Hence statement 2 and 3 are correct) It governs trade not only in goods, but also in services and intellectual property rights. At its heart are the WTO agreements, negotiated and signed by the bulk of the world’s trading nations and ratified in their parliaments. The goal is to ensure that trade flows as smoothly, predictably and freely as possible. Incorrect Solution (b) World Trade Organization (WTO): The World Trade Organization (WTO) is an intergovernmental organization that regulates international trade. The WTO officially commenced on 1 January 1995 under the Marrakesh Agreement, signed by 124 nations on 15 April 1994, replacing the General Agreement on Tariff s and Trade (GATT), which commenced in 1948. One of the key achievements of the Uruguay Round of GATT negotiations was the decision to set up a permanent institution for looking after the promotion of free and fair trade amongst nations. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect) It is the largest international economic organization in the world. The Headquarter of WTO is situated at Geneva, Switzerland. The present strength of WTO membership is 164 and 25 observer governments. The WTO is based on agreements signed by the majority of the world’s trading nations. India is a founder member of WTO and also treated as the part of developing countries group for accessing the concessions granted by the organization. (Hence statement 2 and 3 are correct) It governs trade not only in goods, but also in services and intellectual property rights. At its heart are the WTO agreements, negotiated and signed by the bulk of the world’s trading nations and ratified in their parliaments. The goal is to ensure that trade flows as smoothly, predictably and freely as possible. Question 7 of 35 7. Question Consider the following statements with reference to Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication (SWIFT): It is a global member owned cooperative that is headquartered in Brussels. It also facilitates funds transfer. It is a secure financial message carrier. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Society for worldwide interbank financial telecommunication (SWIFT) The SWIFT is a global member-owned cooperative that is headquartered in Brussels, Belgium. (Hence statement 1 is correct) It was founded in 1973 by a group of 239 banks from 15 countries which formed a co-operative utility to develop a secure electronic messaging service and common standards to facilitate cross border payments. SWIFT does not facilitate funds transfer: rather, it sends payment orders, which must be settled by correspondent accounts that the institutions have with each other. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) The SWIFT is a secure financial message carrier — in other words, it transports messages from one bank to its intended bank recipient. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Messages sent by SWIFT’s customers are authenticated using its specialized security and identification technology. Encryption is added as the messages leave the customer environment and enter the SWIFT Environment. Messages remain in the protected SWIFT environment, subject to all its confidentiality and integrity commitments, throughout the transmission process while they are transmitted to the operating centres (OPCs) where they are processed until they are safely delivered to the receiver. Incorrect Solution (b) Society for worldwide interbank financial telecommunication (SWIFT) The SWIFT is a global member-owned cooperative that is headquartered in Brussels, Belgium. (Hence statement 1 is correct) It was founded in 1973 by a group of 239 banks from 15 countries which formed a co-operative utility to develop a secure electronic messaging service and common standards to facilitate cross border payments. SWIFT does not facilitate funds transfer: rather, it sends payment orders, which must be settled by correspondent accounts that the institutions have with each other. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) The SWIFT is a secure financial message carrier — in other words, it transports messages from one bank to its intended bank recipient. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Messages sent by SWIFT’s customers are authenticated using its specialized security and identification technology. Encryption is added as the messages leave the customer environment and enter the SWIFT Environment. Messages remain in the protected SWIFT environment, subject to all its confidentiality and integrity commitments, throughout the transmission process while they are transmitted to the operating centres (OPCs) where they are processed until they are safely delivered to the receiver. Question 8 of 35 8. Question With reference to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF), consider the following statements: It was set up by the G-7, plays a crucial role as the global watchdog to address issues related to money laundering and terrorist financing. The Black List consists of Non-Cooperative Countries or Territories (NCCTs) that support terror funding and money laundering. Pakistan and Afghanistan were recently added to the blacklist of FATF. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Financial Action Task Force (FATF): The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an intergovernmental organization, initially founded in 1989 to develop policies that combat money laundering. Its role expanded in 2001 to additionally develop policies that combat terrorist and proliferation financing. FATF is the global money laundering and terrorist financing watchdog established in 1989 by G-7 nations in Paris. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Post the 9/11 attacks, its mandate expanded to include efforts against terrorist financing. In 2012, it also focused on countering the financing of Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) proliferation. The FATF Plenary is the decision-making body, meeting three times per year. The Secretariat supports the substantive work of the FATF membership and global network. The FATF Secretariat is located at the OECD Headquarters in Paris. FATF Recommendations: Issued the Forty Recommendations in 1990 to fight against money laundering. Published the 40+9 Recommendations in 2004, strengthening standards against money laundering and terrorist financing. Revised the recommendations in 2012 to address new threats, including WMD financing. Over 200 jurisdictions committed to FATF Recommendations through nine FATF-Style Regional Bodies (FSRBs) and FATF memberships. Members and Observers of FATF: FATF has 39 members, including major financial centers worldwide. Two regional organizations are part of FATF: the European Commission and the Gulf Cooperation Council. Member countries include Argentina, Australia, Canada, China, Germany, India, Japan, the UK, and the US, among others. India joined as observer in 2006 and became a full member in 2010. Grey and Black Lists of FATF: The FATF Plenary reviews countries through Mutual Evaluation Reports (MERs). Countries with major AML/CFT deficiencies are placed on the “grey list” for increased monitoring. Failure to address concerns results in being listed as a “black list” high-risk jurisdiction. Grey List: Countries considered safe havens for terror funding and money laundering. Black List: Non-Cooperative Countries or Territories (NCCTs) supporting terror funding and money laundering. As of now, Iran, North Korea, and Myanmar are blacklisted. (Hence statement 2 is correct and 3 is incorrect) Consequences of Being Enlisted: Enlisted countries face economic sanctions from affiliated financial institutions like IMF, World Bank, ADB, etc. Difficulty in obtaining loans and reduced international trade. International boycott. India, Pakistan, and FATF Grey Listing: Recently, Pakistan was removed from the grey list after four years due to significant progress in actions against designated terrorists. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) India agreed to the decision as Pakistan provided “documentary evidence” of its efforts to combat terrorist financing. Being removed from the grey list boosted Pakistan’s reputation and received international recognition for its actions. Incorrect Solution (b) Financial Action Task Force (FATF): The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an intergovernmental organization, initially founded in 1989 to develop policies that combat money laundering. Its role expanded in 2001 to additionally develop policies that combat terrorist and proliferation financing. FATF is the global money laundering and terrorist financing watchdog established in 1989 by G-7 nations in Paris. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Post the 9/11 attacks, its mandate expanded to include efforts against terrorist financing. In 2012, it also focused on countering the financing of Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) proliferation. The FATF Plenary is the decision-making body, meeting three times per year. The Secretariat supports the substantive work of the FATF membership and global network. The FATF Secretariat is located at the OECD Headquarters in Paris. FATF Recommendations: Issued the Forty Recommendations in 1990 to fight against money laundering. Published the 40+9 Recommendations in 2004, strengthening standards against money laundering and terrorist financing. Revised the recommendations in 2012 to address new threats, including WMD financing. Over 200 jurisdictions committed to FATF Recommendations through nine FATF-Style Regional Bodies (FSRBs) and FATF memberships. Members and Observers of FATF: FATF has 39 members, including major financial centers worldwide. Two regional organizations are part of FATF: the European Commission and the Gulf Cooperation Council. Member countries include Argentina, Australia, Canada, China, Germany, India, Japan, the UK, and the US, among others. India joined as observer in 2006 and became a full member in 2010. Grey and Black Lists of FATF: The FATF Plenary reviews countries through Mutual Evaluation Reports (MERs). Countries with major AML/CFT deficiencies are placed on the “grey list” for increased monitoring. Failure to address concerns results in being listed as a “black list” high-risk jurisdiction. Grey List: Countries considered safe havens for terror funding and money laundering. Black List: Non-Cooperative Countries or Territories (NCCTs) supporting terror funding and money laundering. As of now, Iran, North Korea, and Myanmar are blacklisted. (Hence statement 2 is correct and 3 is incorrect) Consequences of Being Enlisted: Enlisted countries face economic sanctions from affiliated financial institutions like IMF, World Bank, ADB, etc. Difficulty in obtaining loans and reduced international trade. International boycott. India, Pakistan, and FATF Grey Listing: Recently, Pakistan was removed from the grey list after four years due to significant progress in actions against designated terrorists. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) India agreed to the decision as Pakistan provided “documentary evidence” of its efforts to combat terrorist financing. Being removed from the grey list boosted Pakistan’s reputation and received international recognition for its actions. Question 9 of 35 9. Question Which of the following factors relies on the ‘QUOTA’ allocated by the IMF to its member nations? The financial resources that the member country is obligated to contribute to the IMF. Voting rights within the IMF. Allocation of Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) to member countries. The borrowing capacity of a member nation. Select the correct answer by using the code below: a) 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 4 only d) All of the above Correct Solution (d) Upon joining the International Monetary Fund (IMF), a nation is allocated a QUOTA, which is determined based on factors including the country’s GDP (50%), degree of openness (30%), economic variability (15%), and international reserves (5%). QUOTAs are expressed in Special Drawing Rights (SDRs), the IMF’s standard unit of account. India, for instance, possesses a QUOTA of 2.76%, China’s is 6.41%, and the United States holds a QUOTA of 17.46%. A member’s QUOTA subscription designates the maximum financial commitment the member must extend to the IMF. Upon joining the IMF, the subscription must be paid in full, with up to 25% in SDRs or widely recognised currencies (such as the US dollar, Euro, Yen, Pound, or Yuan), and the remaining 75% in the member’s domestic currency. These QUOTAs are intended to undergo review every five years. Moreover, a member’s QUOTA determines the extent of financial assistance they can receive from the IMF. For instance, a member is eligible to borrow up to 145% of its QUOTA annually and 435% cumulatively, with potential exceptions in exceptional circumstances. Notably, the IMF exclusively extends loans to member countries. QUOTAs serve to determine several key aspects: Subscription, reflecting the maximum financial commitment a member must provide. (Hence 1 is correct) Voting power and participation in IMF decision-making. (Hence 2 is correct) A country’s allocation share of SDRs. (Hence 3 is correct) Borrowing capacity for potential financial support from the IMF. (Hence 4 is correct) In August 2021, the IMF executed its most substantial allocation of 456.5 billion SDRs, resulting in a total SDR allocation of approximately 650 billion. Among the allocated SDRs, India received 12.57 billion SDRs, equivalent to 2.75% of the total allocation. India’s overall SDR holdings surged from 1.09 billion SDRs to 13.66 billion SDRs, reflecting a significant increase. Incorrect Solution (d) Upon joining the International Monetary Fund (IMF), a nation is allocated a QUOTA, which is determined based on factors including the country’s GDP (50%), degree of openness (30%), economic variability (15%), and international reserves (5%). QUOTAs are expressed in Special Drawing Rights (SDRs), the IMF’s standard unit of account. India, for instance, possesses a QUOTA of 2.76%, China’s is 6.41%, and the United States holds a QUOTA of 17.46%. A member’s QUOTA subscription designates the maximum financial commitment the member must extend to the IMF. Upon joining the IMF, the subscription must be paid in full, with up to 25% in SDRs or widely recognised currencies (such as the US dollar, Euro, Yen, Pound, or Yuan), and the remaining 75% in the member’s domestic currency. These QUOTAs are intended to undergo review every five years. Moreover, a member’s QUOTA determines the extent of financial assistance they can receive from the IMF. For instance, a member is eligible to borrow up to 145% of its QUOTA annually and 435% cumulatively, with potential exceptions in exceptional circumstances. Notably, the IMF exclusively extends loans to member countries. QUOTAs serve to determine several key aspects: Subscription, reflecting the maximum financial commitment a member must provide. (Hence 1 is correct) Voting power and participation in IMF decision-making. (Hence 2 is correct) A country’s allocation share of SDRs. (Hence 3 is correct) Borrowing capacity for potential financial support from the IMF. (Hence 4 is correct) In August 2021, the IMF executed its most substantial allocation of 456.5 billion SDRs, resulting in a total SDR allocation of approximately 650 billion. Among the allocated SDRs, India received 12.57 billion SDRs, equivalent to 2.75% of the total allocation. India’s overall SDR holdings surged from 1.09 billion SDRs to 13.66 billion SDRs, reflecting a significant increase. Question 10 of 35 10. Question Which of the following actions are deemed as restrictive according to the provisions of the ‘Trade Related Investment Measures (TRIMS)’ Agreement under the World Trade Organisation (WTO)? Domestic employment Mandating local content Imposing export obligations Requiring technology transfer Select the correct answer by using the code below: a) 1 only b) 1, 2 and 3 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) All of the above Correct Solution (d) The WTO’s Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS) Agreement is founded on the premise that a robust link exists between trade and investment. The imposition of limitations on investment has the potential to distort trade. Numerous constraints on investment, which inhibit trade, are deemed impermissible. These include conditions such as mandating local content, imposing export obligations, stipulating domestic employment requirements, and necessitating technology transfer. (Hence all are correct) Incorrect Solution (d) The WTO’s Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS) Agreement is founded on the premise that a robust link exists between trade and investment. The imposition of limitations on investment has the potential to distort trade. Numerous constraints on investment, which inhibit trade, are deemed impermissible. These include conditions such as mandating local content, imposing export obligations, stipulating domestic employment requirements, and necessitating technology transfer. (Hence all are correct) Question 11 of 35 11. Question Which countries are eligible to become members of BRICS Bank? a) Members of United Nations b) Any Country c) Any developing country d) Members of World Bank or IMF Correct Solution (a) The BRICS New Development Bank (NDB), often referred to as the BRICS Bank, is a multilateral financial institution established by the BRICS countries – Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa. It was established in 2014 to provide funding for infrastructure and sustainable development projects in emerging economies and developing countries. The NDB aims to support projects that have a positive impact on economic growth, social progress, and environmental sustainability. The bank’s primary focus areas include renewable energy, transportation, water supply, and other infrastructure projects that promote sustainable development. The NDB operates alongside other international financial institutions but aims to provide an alternative source of funding for projects that align with the development priorities of its member countries. BRICS bank has five members but any country which is a member of United Nations is eligible to become a member of BRICS bank. Incorrect Solution (a) The BRICS New Development Bank (NDB), often referred to as the BRICS Bank, is a multilateral financial institution established by the BRICS countries – Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa. It was established in 2014 to provide funding for infrastructure and sustainable development projects in emerging economies and developing countries. The NDB aims to support projects that have a positive impact on economic growth, social progress, and environmental sustainability. The bank’s primary focus areas include renewable energy, transportation, water supply, and other infrastructure projects that promote sustainable development. The NDB operates alongside other international financial institutions but aims to provide an alternative source of funding for projects that align with the development priorities of its member countries. BRICS bank has five members but any country which is a member of United Nations is eligible to become a member of BRICS bank. Question 12 of 35 12. Question The Global Risk Financing Facility is a/an a) IMF’s initiative to assist the developing countries in case of a foreign exchange crisis. b) World Bank collaboration to help vulnerable countries manage the financial impact of climate change and natural hazard-induced shocks. c) Collaboration among the major banks of the world working with the OECD to maintain Basel III norms. d) UNCCD funded initiative that seeks to finance the developing countries to check the risk of desertification. Correct Solution (b) The World Bank Group and the Governments of Germany and the UK, with support from representatives of the Vulnerable Twenty Group (V20), had launched a US$145 million Global Risk Financing Facility (GRiF) to help vulnerable countries manage the financial impacts of climate change and natural hazard-induced shocks. GRiF will be implemented by the World Bank, the Global Facility for Disaster Reduction and Recovery (GFDRR), and select implementing partners. The Facility was announced at the World Bank and International Monetary Fund (IMF) Annual Meetings, which convened in October 2018, in Bali, Indonesia. Incorrect Solution (b) The World Bank Group and the Governments of Germany and the UK, with support from representatives of the Vulnerable Twenty Group (V20), had launched a US$145 million Global Risk Financing Facility (GRiF) to help vulnerable countries manage the financial impacts of climate change and natural hazard-induced shocks. GRiF will be implemented by the World Bank, the Global Facility for Disaster Reduction and Recovery (GFDRR), and select implementing partners. The Facility was announced at the World Bank and International Monetary Fund (IMF) Annual Meetings, which convened in October 2018, in Bali, Indonesia. Question 13 of 35 13. Question Consider the given statements concerning the ‘Net International Investment Position (NIIP)’: It gauges the disparity between a country’s foreign asset holdings and the foreign ownership of assets within that country at a specific juncture. The influx of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) into a nation will have a negative impact on that country’s NIIP condition. It embodies the obligation associated with servicing both debt and equity. Enhancement in a nation’s foreign exchange reserves will enhance its NIIP status. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) Any foreign borrowing by the government or other entities creates a debt or liability for our nation. When we acquire shares of a foreign company, these shares become assets for us (our nation) and liabilities for the respective foreign country or company. Consequently, any Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) made in India, often accomplished through shares, becomes a liability for both the Indian company and the country. For instance, if my company borrows from abroad, the debt paper held by the foreign bank becomes an asset for the foreign country or bank and a liability for my company or country. The Net International Investment Position (NIIP) quantifies the disparity between the foreign assets held by our nation (including individuals, companies, and the government) and the foreign ownership of our nation’s assets. As FDI inflow into our country increases, it augments the liability burden for our company or country, or conversely, it enlarges the foreign ownership of our nation’s assets held by foreigners. Accumulating more foreign borrowings or FDI investments burdens us, as we will eventually need to repay these through interest, principal, or dividends. Foreign exchange reserves, held by our residents like the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), essentially constitute claims on non-residents. Thus, a higher amount of foreign currency assets strengthens our NIIP position, enhancing our overall economic standing. (Hence all statements are correct) Incorrect Solution (d) Any foreign borrowing by the government or other entities creates a debt or liability for our nation. When we acquire shares of a foreign company, these shares become assets for us (our nation) and liabilities for the respective foreign country or company. Consequently, any Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) made in India, often accomplished through shares, becomes a liability for both the Indian company and the country. For instance, if my company borrows from abroad, the debt paper held by the foreign bank becomes an asset for the foreign country or bank and a liability for my company or country. The Net International Investment Position (NIIP) quantifies the disparity between the foreign assets held by our nation (including individuals, companies, and the government) and the foreign ownership of our nation’s assets. As FDI inflow into our country increases, it augments the liability burden for our company or country, or conversely, it enlarges the foreign ownership of our nation’s assets held by foreigners. Accumulating more foreign borrowings or FDI investments burdens us, as we will eventually need to repay these through interest, principal, or dividends. Foreign exchange reserves, held by our residents like the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), essentially constitute claims on non-residents. Thus, a higher amount of foreign currency assets strengthens our NIIP position, enhancing our overall economic standing. (Hence all statements are correct) Question 14 of 35 14. Question Which of the following organisation publishes “Global Hunger Index”? a) World Health Organization (WHO) b) International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI) c) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) d) Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) Correct Solution (b) The Global Hunger Index (GHI), developed by the International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI), serves as a comprehensive measure of hunger worldwide. The GHI considers factors like undernourishment, child wasting, child stunting, and child mortality to assess and rank countries. (Hence statement b is correct). Important Points/Value Additions: India ranks 111 out of a total of 125 countries in the Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2023. With a score of 28.7, India has a level of hunger that is serious.   Incorrect Solution (b) The Global Hunger Index (GHI), developed by the International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI), serves as a comprehensive measure of hunger worldwide. The GHI considers factors like undernourishment, child wasting, child stunting, and child mortality to assess and rank countries. (Hence statement b is correct). Important Points/Value Additions: India ranks 111 out of a total of 125 countries in the Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2023. With a score of 28.7, India has a level of hunger that is serious.   Question 15 of 35 15. Question Global Foreign Exchange Committee (GFXC) was in news recently. Consider the following statements about it. It is forum of central bankers and experts working towards promotion of a robust and transparent forex market. It has been established under the aegis of International Monetary Fund. The committee comprises of public and private sector representatives. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) It is forum of central bankers and experts working towards promotion of a robust and transparent forex market. It has been established under the aegis of Bank of International Settlements. The committee comprises of public and private sector representatives from the foreign exchange committees of 16 international forex trading centers. One of the major tasks of the committee is to maintain and update the “Global Code of Conduct for the Foreign Exchange Markets”. India will soon get a seat in the newly constituted Global Foreign Exchange Committee (GFXC). Incorrect Solution (b) It is forum of central bankers and experts working towards promotion of a robust and transparent forex market. It has been established under the aegis of Bank of International Settlements. The committee comprises of public and private sector representatives from the foreign exchange committees of 16 international forex trading centers. One of the major tasks of the committee is to maintain and update the “Global Code of Conduct for the Foreign Exchange Markets”. India will soon get a seat in the newly constituted Global Foreign Exchange Committee (GFXC). Question 16 of 35 16. Question Recently Official Development Assistance (ODA) was in news. Consider the following statements about it. In 1970, the United Nations agreed that economically advanced countries should provide 0.7% of their gross national income (GNI) as ODA. It means financial or technical help given by one country’s government to another country to assist social, political and economic development or to respond to a disaster in the receiving country. Loans and credits for military purposes are excluded. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) It means financial or technical help given by one country’s government to another country to assist social and economic development or to respond to a disaster in the receiving country. It can involve providing financial grants or loans, technical advice, training, equipment and commodities such as food, health, infrastructure and transport. Loans and credits for military purposes are excluded. In 1970, the United Nations agreed that economically advanced countries should provide 0.7% of their gross national income (GNI) as ODA.   Incorrect Solution (b) It means financial or technical help given by one country’s government to another country to assist social and economic development or to respond to a disaster in the receiving country. It can involve providing financial grants or loans, technical advice, training, equipment and commodities such as food, health, infrastructure and transport. Loans and credits for military purposes are excluded. In 1970, the United Nations agreed that economically advanced countries should provide 0.7% of their gross national income (GNI) as ODA.   Question 17 of 35 17. Question With reference to the Special Drawing Rights (SDR), consider the following currencies: S. Dollar Japanese Yen Euro Pound Sterling Swiss Franc Chinese Renminbi Which of the above currencies make the basket of SDR under the International Monetary Fund (IMF)? a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only b) 2, 3, 5 and 6 only c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6 only d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 Correct Solution (c) About Special Drawing Rights (SDR): The Special Drawing Right (SDR) is an interest-bearing international reserve asset created by the IMF in 1969 to supplement other reserve assets of member countries. The SDR is based on a basket of international currencies comprising the U.S. dollar, Japanese Yen, Euro, Pound Sterling, and Chinese Renminbi. (Hence c is the correct option). Important Points/Value Additions: Special Drawing Right (SDR): Purpose: Designed to supplement member nations’ other reserve assets. Composition: Based on a basket of foreign currencies including the US dollar, Japanese yen, euro, British pound, and Chinese renminbi. Nature: Not a currency or a direct claim on the IMF but may represent a claim on IMF members’ freely usable currencies. India’s Quota in the IMF: Current Quota: India is the 13th largest quota holder among 190 member countries. Voting Share: India holds a 2.75% voting share in the IMF, providing it with a slightly stronger voice in IMF decisions compared to many developing nations. Incorrect Solution (c) About Special Drawing Rights (SDR): The Special Drawing Right (SDR) is an interest-bearing international reserve asset created by the IMF in 1969 to supplement other reserve assets of member countries. The SDR is based on a basket of international currencies comprising the U.S. dollar, Japanese Yen, Euro, Pound Sterling, and Chinese Renminbi. (Hence c is the correct option). Important Points/Value Additions: Special Drawing Right (SDR): Purpose: Designed to supplement member nations’ other reserve assets. Composition: Based on a basket of foreign currencies including the US dollar, Japanese yen, euro, British pound, and Chinese renminbi. Nature: Not a currency or a direct claim on the IMF but may represent a claim on IMF members’ freely usable currencies. India’s Quota in the IMF: Current Quota: India is the 13th largest quota holder among 190 member countries. Voting Share: India holds a 2.75% voting share in the IMF, providing it with a slightly stronger voice in IMF decisions compared to many developing nations. Question 18 of 35 18. Question With reference to Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA), consider the following statements: MIGA is part of the World Bank Group. India is a member of MIGA. MIGA is Headquartered in Washington DC, U.S.A. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3 Correct Solution (d) Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA) is indeed part of the World Bank Group. Established in 1988, MIGA aims to promote foreign direct investment in developing countries by providing political risk insurance and credit enhancement. (Hence statement 1 is correct). India is a member of MIGA. Joining in 1994, India benefits from MIGA’s services that help safeguard investments against political risks such as expropriation, breach of contract, and currency inconvertibility. (Hence statement 2 is correct). MIGA primarily focuses on providing financial funding to investors. Contrary to providing direct financial assistance, MIGA’s core function involves offering guarantees and insurance to attract private sector investment by assuring investors against certain political risks, fostering economic development in less developed regions. Headquartered in Washington DC, U.S., MIGA is a part of the World Bank Group (Hence statement 3 is correct). Incorrect Solution (d) Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA) is indeed part of the World Bank Group. Established in 1988, MIGA aims to promote foreign direct investment in developing countries by providing political risk insurance and credit enhancement. (Hence statement 1 is correct). India is a member of MIGA. Joining in 1994, India benefits from MIGA’s services that help safeguard investments against political risks such as expropriation, breach of contract, and currency inconvertibility. (Hence statement 2 is correct). MIGA primarily focuses on providing financial funding to investors. Contrary to providing direct financial assistance, MIGA’s core function involves offering guarantees and insurance to attract private sector investment by assuring investors against certain political risks, fostering economic development in less developed regions. Headquartered in Washington DC, U.S., MIGA is a part of the World Bank Group (Hence statement 3 is correct). Question 19 of 35 19. Question With reference to World Trade Organization (WTO), consider the following statements: The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) is the predecessor to the WTO. The WTO does not have authority to impose sanctions on member countries that violate its trade rules. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) is indeed the predecessor to the World Trade Organization (WTO). GATT, established in 1947, laid the foundation for international trade cooperation and the reduction of trade barriers. The WTO, formed in 1995, absorbed and expanded upon the principles and agreements established under GATT, providing a more comprehensive framework for global trade. (Hence statement 1 is correct). The WTO does have the authority to impose sanctions on member countries that violate its trade rules. This enforcement mechanism is a crucial aspect of the WTO’s role in ensuring compliance with agreed-upon trade regulations. Sanctions may include trade restrictions or other measures aimed at compelling adherence to international trade norms, fostering a rules-based global trading system. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect). Incorrect Solution (a) The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) is indeed the predecessor to the World Trade Organization (WTO). GATT, established in 1947, laid the foundation for international trade cooperation and the reduction of trade barriers. The WTO, formed in 1995, absorbed and expanded upon the principles and agreements established under GATT, providing a more comprehensive framework for global trade. (Hence statement 1 is correct). The WTO does have the authority to impose sanctions on member countries that violate its trade rules. This enforcement mechanism is a crucial aspect of the WTO’s role in ensuring compliance with agreed-upon trade regulations. Sanctions may include trade restrictions or other measures aimed at compelling adherence to international trade norms, fostering a rules-based global trading system. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect). Question 20 of 35 20. Question Doha Round of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) covers negotiations on which of the following? Agriculture Non-Agricultural Market Access Special and Differential Treatment Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) The Ministerial Conference, 2001 of the World Trade Organisation (WTO), often referred to as Doha Development Agenda, had the agenda of Liberalizing Global Agricultural Trade. It covers the following: Agriculture: It called for the end agreement to commit to substantial improvements in market access, reductions (and ultimate elimination) of all forms of export subsidies (including under green and blue box) and substantial reductions in trade-distorting support. Non-Agricultural Market Access: The ministers agreed to launch tariff-cutting negotiations on all non-agricultural products. The aim is “to reduce, or as appropriate eliminate tariffs, including the reduction or elimination of tariff peaks, high tariffs, and tariff escalation, as well as non-tariff barriers, in particular on products of export interest to developing countries.” Special and Differential Treatment (SDT): Members agreed that Developing and Least developed countries will continue to be eligible for a favourable treatment. However, developed countries now claim that big developing countries like India, China, Brazil, and South Africa are unreasonable in their demand and only least developed countries are rightful claimants of differential treatment. Incorrect Solution (c) The Ministerial Conference, 2001 of the World Trade Organisation (WTO), often referred to as Doha Development Agenda, had the agenda of Liberalizing Global Agricultural Trade. It covers the following: Agriculture: It called for the end agreement to commit to substantial improvements in market access, reductions (and ultimate elimination) of all forms of export subsidies (including under green and blue box) and substantial reductions in trade-distorting support. Non-Agricultural Market Access: The ministers agreed to launch tariff-cutting negotiations on all non-agricultural products. The aim is “to reduce, or as appropriate eliminate tariffs, including the reduction or elimination of tariff peaks, high tariffs, and tariff escalation, as well as non-tariff barriers, in particular on products of export interest to developing countries.” Special and Differential Treatment (SDT): Members agreed that Developing and Least developed countries will continue to be eligible for a favourable treatment. However, developed countries now claim that big developing countries like India, China, Brazil, and South Africa are unreasonable in their demand and only least developed countries are rightful claimants of differential treatment. Question 21 of 35 21. Question Consider the following statements about Kuchipudi It is one of the Indian Classical dances belonging to Andhra Pradesh. It incorporates both pure dance (Nritta) and expressive dance (Nritya) elements, as well as storytelling through dance (Natya). It is largely developed as a Hindu god Krishna-oriented Vaishnavism tradition. The typical musical instruments in Kuchipudi are mridangam, cymbals, veena, flute, and the tambura. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) Kuchipudi is one of the Indian Classical dances belonging to Andhra Pradesh. Hence statement 1 is correct. It was originally performed by a group of itinerant actors known as Bhagavathalu, who would travel from village to village, performing plays and dances based on Hindu mythology. In the 15th century, the great poet and musician, Siddhendra Yogi, played a major role in the development of Kuchipudi. He is credited with transforming the dance form from a simple folk art to a sophisticated and refined classical dance form. It incorporates both pure dance (Nritta) and expressive dance (Nritya) elements, as well as storytelling through dance (Natya). Hence statement 2 is correct. The dance form is characterized by its intricate footwork, graceful movements, and subtle facial expressions. It is also performed on the edge of a brass plate (known as Tarangam) on the beats of Carnatic music. It is largely developed as a Hindu god Krishna-oriented Vaishnavism tradition. Hence statement 3 is correct. The Kuchipudi performer apart from being a dancer and actor has to be skilled in Sanskrit and Telugu languages, music, and manuscripts of the performance. The Kuchipudi dancers wear light make-up and ornaments like the Rakudi (head ornament), Chandra Vanki (arm band), Adda Bhasa, and Kasina Sara (necklace). A long plait is decorated with flowers and jewelry. The ornaments are made of light wood called Boorugu. The typical musical instruments in Kuchipudi are mridangam, cymbals, veena, flute, and the tambura. Hence statement 4 is correct. Incorrect Solution (d) Kuchipudi is one of the Indian Classical dances belonging to Andhra Pradesh. Hence statement 1 is correct. It was originally performed by a group of itinerant actors known as Bhagavathalu, who would travel from village to village, performing plays and dances based on Hindu mythology. In the 15th century, the great poet and musician, Siddhendra Yogi, played a major role in the development of Kuchipudi. He is credited with transforming the dance form from a simple folk art to a sophisticated and refined classical dance form. It incorporates both pure dance (Nritta) and expressive dance (Nritya) elements, as well as storytelling through dance (Natya). Hence statement 2 is correct. The dance form is characterized by its intricate footwork, graceful movements, and subtle facial expressions. It is also performed on the edge of a brass plate (known as Tarangam) on the beats of Carnatic music. It is largely developed as a Hindu god Krishna-oriented Vaishnavism tradition. Hence statement 3 is correct. The Kuchipudi performer apart from being a dancer and actor has to be skilled in Sanskrit and Telugu languages, music, and manuscripts of the performance. The Kuchipudi dancers wear light make-up and ornaments like the Rakudi (head ornament), Chandra Vanki (arm band), Adda Bhasa, and Kasina Sara (necklace). A long plait is decorated with flowers and jewelry. The ornaments are made of light wood called Boorugu. The typical musical instruments in Kuchipudi are mridangam, cymbals, veena, flute, and the tambura. Hence statement 4 is correct. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements about the Jiadhal River It is a northern tributaryof the Brahmaputra It originatesat a height of 6,315 metres from the Bandarpunch Mountain in Uttarakhand. It joins Yamuna near Kalsi in the Dehradun district, Uttarakhand. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Jiadhal River is a northern tributaryof the Brahmaputra Hence statement 1 is correct. It originatesin the sub-Himalayan mountains of Arunachal Pradesh at an altitude of 1247m. After passing through a narrow gorge in Arunachal Pradesh, the river enters the plains of Assamin Dhemaji district, where it flows in braided channels. The river finally debouches into the Brahmaputranear Selamukh in Lakhimpur district. Tons River originatesat a height of 6,315 metres from the Bandarpunch Mountain in Uttarakhand. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It flows through the Garhwal region of Uttarakhandand touches Himachal Pradesh. Tons River joins Yamuna near Kalsi in the Dehradun district, Uttarakhand. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (a) Jiadhal River is a northern tributaryof the Brahmaputra Hence statement 1 is correct. It originatesin the sub-Himalayan mountains of Arunachal Pradesh at an altitude of 1247m. After passing through a narrow gorge in Arunachal Pradesh, the river enters the plains of Assamin Dhemaji district, where it flows in braided channels. The river finally debouches into the Brahmaputranear Selamukh in Lakhimpur district. Tons River originatesat a height of 6,315 metres from the Bandarpunch Mountain in Uttarakhand. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It flows through the Garhwal region of Uttarakhandand touches Himachal Pradesh. Tons River joins Yamuna near Kalsi in the Dehradun district, Uttarakhand. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Question 23 of 35 23. Question Consider the following statements about the Qudsia Bagh It was built in the Persian char-bagh style. It is built with red sandstones,and plastered with limestone. It was built by Qudsia Begum, the wife of Mughal Emperor Mohammad Shah Rangeela. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) The Qudsia Bagh was built in the Persian char-bagh style. Hence statement 1 is correct. Chahar Bagh is a Persian and Islamic quadrilateral garden layout based on the four gardens of Paradise mentioned in the Qur’an. It is built with red sandstones, and plastered with limestone. Hence statement 2 is correct. Stucco workis done on the walls. It had cusped arches with floral patterns above. It is situated in North Delhi. The only remains of the Bagh are its imposing western gateway, the Qudsia Mosque, and a couple of pavilions in carved red sandstone. It was built by Qudsia Begum, the wife of Mughal Emperor Mohammad Shah Rangeela. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) The Qudsia Bagh was built in the Persian char-bagh style. Hence statement 1 is correct. Chahar Bagh is a Persian and Islamic quadrilateral garden layout based on the four gardens of Paradise mentioned in the Qur’an. It is built with red sandstones, and plastered with limestone. Hence statement 2 is correct. Stucco workis done on the walls. It had cusped arches with floral patterns above. It is situated in North Delhi. The only remains of the Bagh are its imposing western gateway, the Qudsia Mosque, and a couple of pavilions in carved red sandstone. It was built by Qudsia Begum, the wife of Mughal Emperor Mohammad Shah Rangeela. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements: An easementary right is a right possessed by the owneror occupier of the land on some other land, not his own, the purpose of which is to provide the beneficial enjoyment of the land. An easement should always be in written form, except whenit has been enjoyed for a very long time without restrictions. The concept of easement has been defined underSection 4 of the Land Acquisition Act of 1894. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) An easementary right is a right possessed by the owner or occupier of the land on some other land, not his own, the purpose of which is to provide the beneficial enjoyment of the land. Hence statement 1 is correct. This right is granted because, without the existence of this right an occupier or owner cannot fully enjoy his property. The word ‘land’ refers to everything permanently attached to the earth, and the word ‘beneficial enjoyment’ denotes convenience, advantage or amenity, or any necessity. The owner or occupierreferred to in the provision is known as the Dominant Owner and the land for the benefit of which the easementary right exists is called Dominant Heritage. Whereas the owner upon whose land the liability is imposedis known as the Serviant Owner and the land on which such liability is imposed to do or prevent something is known as the Servient Heritage. An easement should always be in written form, except when it has been enjoyed for a very long time without restrictions. Hence statement 2 is correct. The concept of easement has been defined under Section 4 of the Indian Easements Act of 1882. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. According to the provisions of Section 4, an easementary right is a right possessed by the owneror occupier of the land on some other land, not his own, the purpose of which is to provide the beneficial enjoyment of the land. Incorrect Solution (b) An easementary right is a right possessed by the owner or occupier of the land on some other land, not his own, the purpose of which is to provide the beneficial enjoyment of the land. Hence statement 1 is correct. This right is granted because, without the existence of this right an occupier or owner cannot fully enjoy his property. The word ‘land’ refers to everything permanently attached to the earth, and the word ‘beneficial enjoyment’ denotes convenience, advantage or amenity, or any necessity. The owner or occupierreferred to in the provision is known as the Dominant Owner and the land for the benefit of which the easementary right exists is called Dominant Heritage. Whereas the owner upon whose land the liability is imposedis known as the Serviant Owner and the land on which such liability is imposed to do or prevent something is known as the Servient Heritage. An easement should always be in written form, except when it has been enjoyed for a very long time without restrictions. Hence statement 2 is correct. The concept of easement has been defined under Section 4 of the Indian Easements Act of 1882. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. According to the provisions of Section 4, an easementary right is a right possessed by the owneror occupier of the land on some other land, not his own, the purpose of which is to provide the beneficial enjoyment of the land. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements: Cosmic Microwave Background (CMB) is a sea of photons, the particles of light, present throughoutthe universe. Cosmic Distance Ladder is a set of techniques used to measure the distance to objectsthat are close, further away, or very far away from the earth. The Hubble tension refers to a discrepancy betweenthe measurements of the rate of expansion of the universe. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Cosmic Microwave Background (CMB) is a sea of photons, the particles of light, present throughout the universe. Hence statement 1 is correct. They are left over from the Big Bang, it’s afterglow. Scientists have measured temperature changes in the CMBand studied its large-scale properties using complicated trigonometry. Based on these studies, cosmologists have estimated space to be expanding ataround 68 kilometres per second per megaparsec ((km/s)/Mpc). That is, an object one megaparsec (3.26 million lightyears) away is moving away at 68 km/s)/Mpc. Cosmic Distance Ladder is a set of techniques used to measure the distance to objects that are close, further away, or very far away from the earth. Hence statement 2 is correct. One object in particular isthe Cepheid variable star. The Cepheid variables have a unique feature: their brightness varies in a predictable way over time. Based on how bright a Cepheid variable is, scientists can estimate how far away it is. Using this, cosmologists have estimated based on various Cepheid variables (and other such objects)  73 (km/s)/Mpc. The Hubble tension refers to a discrepancy between the measurements of the rate of expansion of the universe, known as the Hubble constant. Hence statement 3 is correct. The Hubble constant, denoted as H0, describes the rate at which galaxies are moving away from each otherdue to the expansion of the universe. Incorrect Solution (c) Cosmic Microwave Background (CMB) is a sea of photons, the particles of light, present throughout the universe. Hence statement 1 is correct. They are left over from the Big Bang, it’s afterglow. Scientists have measured temperature changes in the CMBand studied its large-scale properties using complicated trigonometry. Based on these studies, cosmologists have estimated space to be expanding ataround 68 kilometres per second per megaparsec ((km/s)/Mpc). That is, an object one megaparsec (3.26 million lightyears) away is moving away at 68 km/s)/Mpc. Cosmic Distance Ladder is a set of techniques used to measure the distance to objects that are close, further away, or very far away from the earth. Hence statement 2 is correct. One object in particular isthe Cepheid variable star. The Cepheid variables have a unique feature: their brightness varies in a predictable way over time. Based on how bright a Cepheid variable is, scientists can estimate how far away it is. Using this, cosmologists have estimated based on various Cepheid variables (and other such objects)  73 (km/s)/Mpc. The Hubble tension refers to a discrepancy between the measurements of the rate of expansion of the universe, known as the Hubble constant. Hence statement 3 is correct. The Hubble constant, denoted as H0, describes the rate at which galaxies are moving away from each otherdue to the expansion of the universe. Question 26 of 35 26. Question Consider the following statements about Doxxing It is a form of online harassment involving the publication of personal information about an individual without their consent. It is often carried out to expose, threaten, or intimidate someone and can lead to severe consequences, such as physical harm, stalking, or loss of employment. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Doxxing is a form of online harassment involving the publication of personal information about an individual without their consent. Hence statement 1 is correct. This information can include details such as their full name, home address, telephone number, place of work, and other sensitive information. It is often carried out to expose, threaten, or intimidate someone and can lead to severe consequences, such as physical harm, stalking, or loss of employment. Hence statement 2 is correct. Such information is usually obtained through illegal methods such ashacking or theft.   Incorrect Solution (c) Doxxing is a form of online harassment involving the publication of personal information about an individual without their consent. Hence statement 1 is correct. This information can include details such as their full name, home address, telephone number, place of work, and other sensitive information. It is often carried out to expose, threaten, or intimidate someone and can lead to severe consequences, such as physical harm, stalking, or loss of employment. Hence statement 2 is correct. Such information is usually obtained through illegal methods such ashacking or theft.   Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements about the Global Forest Watch (GFW) It is an open-source web applicationto monitor global forests in near real-time using satellite data. It is a project of the Washington-based non-profit research organization, the World Resources Institute (WRI). Brazil, the Democratic Republic of Congo,and Bolivia topped the ranking of tropical countries with the most primary forest losses. According to its data, deforestationglobally declined by 3.2% in 2023. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) The Global Forest Watch (GFW) is an open-source web application to monitor global forests in near real-time using satellite data. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is a project of the Washington-based non-profit research organization, the World Resources Institute (WRI). Hence statement 2 is correct. Key findings of the report: India has lost 2.33 million hectares of tree cover since 2000, equivalent to a six percent decrease in tree cover during this period. The country lost 4,14,000 hectares of humid primary forest (4.1 percent) from 2002 to 2023, making up 18 percent of its total tree cover loss in the same period. Between 2001 and 2022, forests in India emitted 51 million tons of carbon dioxide equivalent a year and removed 141 million tons of carbon dioxide equivalent a year. This represents a net carbon sink of 89.9 million tons of carbon dioxide equivalent a year. An average of 51.0 million tons of carbon dioxide equivalent per year was released into the atmosphere as a result of tree cover loss in India. The data showed that 95 percent of the tree cover loss in India from 2013 to 2023 occurred within natural forests. Brazil, the Democratic Republic of Congo, and Bolivia topped the ranking of tropical countries with the most primary forest losses. Hence statement 3 is correct. The loss of primary forests–those untouched by people and sometimes known as old-growth forests – in the tropics declined 9% last year compared to 2022. The world last year lost about 37,000 square kilometers (14,000 square miles) of tropical primary forest, an area nearly as big as Switzerland. According to its data, deforestation globally rose by 3.2% in 2023. Hence statement 4 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (c) The Global Forest Watch (GFW) is an open-source web application to monitor global forests in near real-time using satellite data. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is a project of the Washington-based non-profit research organization, the World Resources Institute (WRI). Hence statement 2 is correct. Key findings of the report: India has lost 2.33 million hectares of tree cover since 2000, equivalent to a six percent decrease in tree cover during this period. The country lost 4,14,000 hectares of humid primary forest (4.1 percent) from 2002 to 2023, making up 18 percent of its total tree cover loss in the same period. Between 2001 and 2022, forests in India emitted 51 million tons of carbon dioxide equivalent a year and removed 141 million tons of carbon dioxide equivalent a year. This represents a net carbon sink of 89.9 million tons of carbon dioxide equivalent a year. An average of 51.0 million tons of carbon dioxide equivalent per year was released into the atmosphere as a result of tree cover loss in India. The data showed that 95 percent of the tree cover loss in India from 2013 to 2023 occurred within natural forests. Brazil, the Democratic Republic of Congo, and Bolivia topped the ranking of tropical countries with the most primary forest losses. Hence statement 3 is correct. The loss of primary forests–those untouched by people and sometimes known as old-growth forests – in the tropics declined 9% last year compared to 2022. The world last year lost about 37,000 square kilometers (14,000 square miles) of tropical primary forest, an area nearly as big as Switzerland. According to its data, deforestation globally rose by 3.2% in 2023. Hence statement 4 is incorrect. Question 28 of 35 28. Question Consider the following statements about Platelets They are small, colourless cell fragments in our bloodthat help with clotting. They form in the soft tissue of your bones (bone marrow). A normal plateletcount ranges from 150,000 to 450,000 platelets per microliter of blood. They are smaller than red or white blood cells. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) Platelets are small, colourless cell fragments in our blood that help with clotting. Hence statement 1 is correct. Platelets are your body’s natural bandage to stop bleeding. They form in the soft tissue of your bones (bone marrow). Hence statement 2 is correct. The largest cells in your bone marrow(megakaryocytes) make platelets. They form in the shape of a plate,which is where they get their name. A normal platelet count ranges from 150,000 to 450,000 platelets per microliter of blood. Hence statement 3 is correct. Having more than 450,000platelets is a condition called thrombocytosis; having less than 150,000 is known as thrombocytopenia. Symptoms of low plateletsinclude bruising easily and unusual bleeding, such as excessive bleeding from a small cut or blood in urine or stool. Platelets can be essential to surviving surgeriessuch as organ transplants, as well as fighting cancer, chronic diseases, and traumatic injuries. Donor plateletsare given to patients who don’t have enough of their own, or when a person’s platelets aren’t working correctly. They are smaller than red or white blood cells. Hence statement 4 is correct. Incorrect Solution (d) Platelets are small, colourless cell fragments in our blood that help with clotting. Hence statement 1 is correct. Platelets are your body’s natural bandage to stop bleeding. They form in the soft tissue of your bones (bone marrow). Hence statement 2 is correct. The largest cells in your bone marrow(megakaryocytes) make platelets. They form in the shape of a plate,which is where they get their name. A normal platelet count ranges from 150,000 to 450,000 platelets per microliter of blood. Hence statement 3 is correct. Having more than 450,000platelets is a condition called thrombocytosis; having less than 150,000 is known as thrombocytopenia. Symptoms of low plateletsinclude bruising easily and unusual bleeding, such as excessive bleeding from a small cut or blood in urine or stool. Platelets can be essential to surviving surgeriessuch as organ transplants, as well as fighting cancer, chronic diseases, and traumatic injuries. Donor plateletsare given to patients who don’t have enough of their own, or when a person’s platelets aren’t working correctly. They are smaller than red or white blood cells. Hence statement 4 is correct. Question 29 of 35 29. Question Consider the following statements: Shrinkflation occurs when goods increase in sizebut consumers pay the same price. Rising production costs and market competition are the reason for shrinkflation. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Shrinkflation occurs when goods shrink in size but consumers pay the same price. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It occurs when manufacturers downsize products to offset higher production costs but keep retail prices the same. It is basically a form of hidden inflation. Instead of increasing the price of a product, producers reduce the size of the product while maintaining the same price. The absolute price of the product doesn’t go up, but the price per unit of weightor volume has Rising production costs and market competition are the reason for shrinkflation. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) Shrinkflation occurs when goods shrink in size but consumers pay the same price. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It occurs when manufacturers downsize products to offset higher production costs but keep retail prices the same. It is basically a form of hidden inflation. Instead of increasing the price of a product, producers reduce the size of the product while maintaining the same price. The absolute price of the product doesn’t go up, but the price per unit of weightor volume has Rising production costs and market competition are the reason for shrinkflation. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 30 of 35 30. Question Consider the following statements about the Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB) It is a government bodyset up under the Department of Financial Services (DFS), Ministry of Home Affairs. Its primary role is to identify manpower capabilities and ensure the properselection of talent for senior positions at financial institutions owned by the government. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) The Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB) is a government body set up under the Department of Financial Services (DFS), Ministry of Finance. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It replaced the Bank Board’s Bureau (BBB). FSIB would be headed by a chairman, a central government nominee. The board would comprise theSecretaries of the DFS, the chairman of IRDAI, and a deputy governor of the RBI. Additionally, it will have three part-time members who are experts in banking and three more from the insurance sector. Its primary role is to identify manpower capabilities and ensure the proper selection of talent for senior positions at financial institutions owned by the government. Hence statement 2 is correct. It recommends personsfor appointment as whole-time directors (WTDs) and non-executive chairpersons (NECs) on the Boards of Directors in Public Sector Banks (PSBs), financial institutions (FIs), and Public Sector Insurers (PSIs). It would also issue guidelines for selecting general managers and directors of public sector general insurance companies. The final decisionon the FSIB recommendation would be taken by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet, headed by the Prime Minister.   Incorrect Solution (b) The Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB) is a government body set up under the Department of Financial Services (DFS), Ministry of Finance. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It replaced the Bank Board’s Bureau (BBB). FSIB would be headed by a chairman, a central government nominee. The board would comprise theSecretaries of the DFS, the chairman of IRDAI, and a deputy governor of the RBI. Additionally, it will have three part-time members who are experts in banking and three more from the insurance sector. Its primary role is to identify manpower capabilities and ensure the proper selection of talent for senior positions at financial institutions owned by the government. Hence statement 2 is correct. It recommends personsfor appointment as whole-time directors (WTDs) and non-executive chairpersons (NECs) on the Boards of Directors in Public Sector Banks (PSBs), financial institutions (FIs), and Public Sector Insurers (PSIs). It would also issue guidelines for selecting general managers and directors of public sector general insurance companies. The final decisionon the FSIB recommendation would be taken by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet, headed by the Prime Minister.   Question 31 of 35 31. Question In an examination, Akshay has scored 10 marks more than Rakesh. If Rakesh has scored 10 % less marks than Akshay, how much total marks Akshay and Rakesh scored? a) 180 b) 190 c) 191 d) 181 Correct Solution (b) Let marks of Akshay be x and marks of Rakesh be y. Therefore, x=y+10 and y=x-10% of x, or y=9x/10 Therefore, x=(9x/10)+10 =>x/10=10 =>x=100 Therefore y= (9*100)/10=90 So, total marks=100+90=190 Incorrect Solution (b) Let marks of Akshay be x and marks of Rakesh be y. Therefore, x=y+10 and y=x-10% of x, or y=9x/10 Therefore, x=(9x/10)+10 =>x/10=10 =>x=100 Therefore y= (9*100)/10=90 So, total marks=100+90=190 Question 32 of 35 32. Question Hari and Shiva contest in an election. There were 7000 votes totally and Hari won by securing 55% of the valid votes. What would have been the valid votes secured by Shiva, if 20% of the total votes were declared invalid? a) 2135 b) 2425 c) 2365 d) 2520 Correct Solution (d) Total no. of invalid votes = 20% So, total no of valid votes = 80% So, 80% of 7000= (80/100) * 7000 =5600 Total valid votes secured by Hari = 55% Total valid votes secured by Shiva = 45% So, 45% of 5600 = (45/100 )*  5600 = 45 x 56 = 2520   Incorrect Solution (d) Total no. of invalid votes = 20% So, total no of valid votes = 80% So, 80% of 7000= (80/100) * 7000 =5600 Total valid votes secured by Hari = 55% Total valid votes secured by Shiva = 45% So, 45% of 5600 = (45/100 )*  5600 = 45 x 56 = 2520   Question 33 of 35 33. Question Find the greatest 4 digit number which is exactly divisible by each 8, 12 and 20 a) 9940 b) 9960 c) 9980 d) 9990 Correct Solution (b) First we have to find the LCM of 8,12 and 20 ∴ LCM of given numbers =2×2×2×3×5=120 According to given condition, we need a greatest number of 4 -digit which is exactly divisible by 120. Greatest number of 4-digit =9999 We divide 9999 by 120 and find the remainder, we get 39 ∴ The required number =9999−39=9960 Incorrect Solution (b) First we have to find the LCM of 8,12 and 20 ∴ LCM of given numbers =2×2×2×3×5=120 According to given condition, we need a greatest number of 4 -digit which is exactly divisible by 120. Greatest number of 4-digit =9999 We divide 9999 by 120 and find the remainder, we get 39 ∴ The required number =9999−39=9960 Question 34 of 35 34. Question The ratio of a two-digit natural number to a number formed by reversing its digits is 8: 14. The number of such pairs is a) 5 b) 4 c) 3 d) 2 Correct Solution (b) Let the two digit number be 10a + b and the number formed by reversing its digits be 10b + a. =>10a+b/10b+a=8/14=4/7 =>70a + 7b = 40b + 4a =>66a=33b =>a/b=1/2 Values of a can be=1,2,3,4 Values of b can be=2,4,6,8 Therefore, 4 pairs can be formed. Incorrect Solution (b) Let the two digit number be 10a + b and the number formed by reversing its digits be 10b + a. =>10a+b/10b+a=8/14=4/7 =>70a + 7b = 40b + 4a =>66a=33b =>a/b=1/2 Values of a can be=1,2,3,4 Values of b can be=2,4,6,8 Therefore, 4 pairs can be formed. Question 35 of 35 35. Question If P and Q are two prime numbers and their difference is an odd number, then which of the following statements is correct? a) P + Q is an even number b) P × Q is an odd number c) P^2 + Q^2 is an odd number d) (P + Q)^2 is an even number Correct Solution (c) Every prime number is an odd number except number 2. So, for the condition to be true, one number has to be 2. The other prime number could be 1 or 3 or 7 or any number Let us assume the numbers to be 2 and 3   First condition- (2 + 3) = 5 is an odd number Second condition- (2 * 3) = 6 is an even number Third condition- (2^2 + 3^2) = 13 is an odd number Fourth condition- (2 + 3)^2 = 25 is an odd number Therefore, the only condition which was satisfied was the third condition, hence option c is the right answer. Incorrect Solution (c) Every prime number is an odd number except number 2. So, for the condition to be true, one number has to be 2. The other prime number could be 1 or 3 or 7 or any number Let us assume the numbers to be 2 and 3   First condition- (2 + 3) = 5 is an odd number Second condition- (2 * 3) = 6 is an even number Third condition- (2^2 + 3^2) = 13 is an odd number Fourth condition- (2 + 3)^2 = 25 is an odd number Therefore, the only condition which was satisfied was the third condition, hence option c is the right answer. window.wpProQuizInitList = window.wpProQuizInitList || []; window.wpProQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpProQuiz_3717', init: { quizId: 3717, mode: 1, globalPoints: 70, timelimit: 1800, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 704, qpp: 0, catPoints: [70], formPos: 0, lbn: "Test-summary", json: {"33809":{"type":"single","id":33809,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33810":{"type":"single","id":33810,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33811":{"type":"single","id":33811,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33814":{"type":"single","id":33814,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"33815":{"type":"single","id":33815,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33817":{"type":"single","id":33817,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33819":{"type":"single","id":33819,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33822":{"type":"single","id":33822,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33825":{"type":"single","id":33825,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33828":{"type":"single","id":33828,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33829":{"type":"single","id":33829,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"33832":{"type":"single","id":33832,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33834":{"type":"single","id":33834,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33837":{"type":"single","id":33837,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33840":{"type":"single","id":33840,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33841":{"type":"single","id":33841,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33842":{"type":"single","id":33842,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33845":{"type":"single","id":33845,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33848":{"type":"single","id":33848,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"33849":{"type":"single","id":33849,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33851":{"type":"single","id":33851,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33853":{"type":"single","id":33853,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"33856":{"type":"single","id":33856,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33858":{"type":"single","id":33858,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33860":{"type":"single","id":33860,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33863":{"type":"single","id":33863,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33866":{"type":"single","id":33866,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33867":{"type":"single","id":33867,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33869":{"type":"single","id":33869,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33871":{"type":"single","id":33871,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33872":{"type":"single","id":33872,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33875":{"type":"single","id":33875,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33878":{"type":"single","id":33878,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33880":{"type":"single","id":33880,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33883":{"type":"single","id":33883,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]}} } }); All the Best IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –7th May 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   The question of Article 31C Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Constitution Context: During the ongoing hearing in the Supreme Court to decide whether the government can acquire and redistribute private property, a nine-judge Constitution Bench led by Chief Justice of India D Y Chandrachud asked a question of  “radical constitutional consequence”: Does Article 31C still exist? Background:- Bench stated that the question of whether Article 31C still lives following the Minerva Mills decision has to be decided to avoid “constitutional uncertainty”. Key Takeaways Article 31C protects laws enacted to ensure the “material resources of the community” are distributed to serve the common good (Article 39(b)) and that wealth and the means of production are not “concentrated” to the “common detriment” (Article 39(c)). Article 39 of the Constitution lists certain directive principles of state policy, which are meant to be guiding principles for the enactment of laws, but are not directly enforceable in any court of law. As per Article 31C, these particular directive principles (Articles 39(b) and 39(c)) cannot be challenged by invoking the right to equality (Article 14) or the rights under Article 19 (freedom of speech, right to assemble peacefully, etc). Article 31C was introduced by The Constitution (Twenty-fifth) Amendment Act, 1971. The 25th amendment was challenged in the seminal Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) in which 13 judges held by a narrow 7-6 majority that the Constitution has a “basic structure” that cannot be altered, even by a constitutional amendment. As a part of this verdict, the court struck down the last portion of Article 31C, i.e., the part that states “…and no law containing a declaration that it is for giving effect to such policy shall be called in question in any court on the ground that it does not give effect to such policy”. In 1976, Parliament enacted The Constitution (Forty-second) Amendment Act, which expanded the protection under Article 31C to “all or any of the principles laid down in Part IV of the Constitution”, under clause 4. As a result, every single directive principle (Articles 36-51) was protected from challenges under Articles 14 and 19 of the Constitution. The Statement of Objects of Reasons for the amendment stated that it was meant to give precedence to the directive principles “over those fundamental rights which have been allowed to be relied upon to frustrate socio-economic reforms for implementing the directive principles”. In 1980, in its judgment in Minerva Mills v. Union of India, the SC struck down clauses 4 and 5 of the amendment. The five-judge Bench held that Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution was limited, and it could not be used to remove these limitations and grant itself “unlimited” and “absolute” powers of amendment. However, this ruling birthed a conundrum that the apex court must now address. By striking down part of the 25th amendment, did the court strike down Article 31C as a whole, or did it restore the post-Kesavananda Bharati position wherein Articles 39(b) and (c) remained protected? Source:Indian Express The challenge and necessity of ‘balanced’ in use of fertilisers Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Agriculture Context: The fiscal ended March 2024 saw urea consumption hit a record 35.8 million tonnes (mt), 16.9% higher than the 30.6 mt in 2013-14, the year before the Narendra Modi government came to power. Background: In January the government has brought di-ammonium phosphate (DAP), muriate of potash (MOP) and all other such fertilisers that receive nutrient-based subsidy (NBS) support under “reasonable pricing” controls. Key Takeaways The consumption of urea, containing 46% nitrogen (N), actually fell during 2016-17 and 2017-18, which was attributed to the mandatory coating of all urea with neem oil from May 2015. Neem coating was intended to check illegal diversion of the highly-subsidised urea for non-agricultural uses, including by plywood, dye, cattle feed and synthetic milk makers. Neem oil supposedly also acted as a mild nitrification inhibitor, allowing more gradual release of nitrogen. Improved nitrogen use efficiency, in turn, brought down the number of urea bags required per acre. Despite compulsory neem-coating, and the government reducing the bag size from 50 to 45 kg in March 2018, the consumption of urea has only gone up during the last six years. Balanced fertilisation — discouraging farmers from applying too much urea, di-ammonium phosphate (DAP) or muriate of potash (MOP), which only have primary nutrients in high concentrations — is likely to be a key policy goal for the government taking over after the Lok Sabha elections. Balanced fertilisation means supplying these primary (N, phosphorus-P and potassium-K), secondary (sulphur-S, calcium, magnesium) and micro (iron, zinc, copper, manganese, boron, molybdenum) nutrients in the right proportion, based on soil type and the crop’s own requirement at different growth stages. The nutrient-based subsidy (NBS) system, instituted in April 2010 by the previous United Progressive Alliance (UPA) government, was expected to promote balanced fertilisation. Here subsidy was linked to  nutrient content. Under it, the government fixed a per-kg subsidy for N, P, K and S. The subsidy on any fertiliser was, thereby, linked to its nutrient content. The underlying idea was to induce product innovation and wean away farmers from urea, DAP (18% N and 46% P content) and MOP (60% K), in favour of complex fertilisers containing N, P, K, S and other nutrients in balanced proportions with lower concentrations. NBS achieved its objective initially. But NBS failed simply because it excluded urea. With its maximum retail price (MRP) being controlled, and cumulatively raised by just 16.5 per cent – from Rs 4,830 to Rs 5,628 per tonne – post the introduction of NBS, consumption of urea increased both through the UPA’s 10 years and the 10 years (so far) of the NDA government. The last couple of years have seen even non-urea fertilisers being brought under price control. An immediate challenge that arises is to ensure a proper “price hierarchy” among non-urea fertilisers. That would mean pricing DAP the highest, MOP the lowest and complexes in between. DAP use should be restricted mainly to rice and wheat. Other crops can meet their P requirement through complexes and SSP. India is heavily import-dependent in fertilisers, be it of finished products or intermediates and raw materials. High global prices add to the country’s foreign exchange outgo and also the government’s subsidy burden. There is a dip in fertiliser prices due to geopolitical reasons. Opportunity for India: The cooling of international prices, nevertheless, gives some flexibility for the next government to rationalise MRPs of fertilisers and promote balanced plant nutrition. This could involve bringing urea under NBS and mitigating the impact of a significant hike in its MRP by increasing the subsidy rates on other nutrients. Additional Information There are two concerns over rising urea consumption. The first is imports, which accounted for 7.6 mt out of the total 35.7 mt sold last fiscal. The second concern is NUE. Barely 35% of the N applied through urea in India is actually utilised by crops to produce harvested yields. The balance 65% N is unavailable to the plants, much of it “lost” through release into the atmosphere as ammonia gas or leaching below the ground after conversion into nitrate. Source: Indian Express DRIP PRICING Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The Centre recently warned about “drip pricing”, saying it can surprise consumers with “hidden charges”. Background: The Department of Consumer Affairs asked consumers to reach out to NCH 1915 for assistance or via WhatsApp at 8800001915 if they need help with ‘drip pricing’. About DRIP PRICING Drip pricing is a pricing technique used by firms where they initially advertise only part of a product’s price (referred to as the “headline price”). As the customer proceeds through the buying process, additional charges are gradually revealed. This technique can lead to “hidden charges” that surprise consumer. Key Points: Initial Advertisement: Firms may advertise a base price that does not include mandatory fees such as booking, service, or credit card fees. Incremental Disclosure: Additional costs, which may be unavoidable, are disclosed one by one or “dripped” to the buyer at the point of purchase. Common Usage: This strategy is prevalent in the hospitality and travel industries, as well as for other online payments. Consumer Impact: It can make comparison shopping difficult and may cause frustration for consumers who expect to know the full cost upfront. Example: An airline ticket advertised without including baggage fees is a form of drip pricing Source: Hindustan Times CENTRAL DRUGS STANDARD CONTROL ORGANISATION (CDSCO) Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Starting from May 15, 2024, the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) will be the sole authority responsible for granting no-objection certificates (NOCs) to pharmaceutical companies that manufacture drugs. Background: These NOCs will specifically apply to drugs that are unapproved, new, or banned, but intended solely for export purposes. This move centralizes the approval process and removes the power previously held by state governments in this regard. About CENTRAL DRUGS STANDARD CONTROL ORGANISATION (CDSCO) : The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) plays a crucial role in regulating pharmaceuticals and ensuring their safety and quality in India. The CDSCO is the Central Drug Authority responsible for discharging functions assigned to the Central Government under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act of 1940. It operates under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare and serves as the National Regulatory Authority (NRA) for India. CDSCO’s primary responsibilities include: Approval of Drugs: It approves new drugs for use in India. Clinical Trials: It oversees and regulates clinical trials conducted within the country. Setting Standards for Drugs: CDSCO lays down quality standards for pharmaceuticals. Quality Control of Imported Drugs: It ensures the quality of imported drugs. Coordination with State Drug Control Organizations: CDSCO collaborates with state regulators. Specialized Licenses: Along with state regulators, CDSCO grants licenses for critical drugs such as vaccines and sera. Medical Devices Oversight: The Indian government plans to subject all medical devices (including implants and contraception) to CDSCO scrutiny. Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI): The DCGI is the head of the CDSCO department. DCGI approves licenses for specific categories of drugs, including blood products, IV fluids, vaccines, and sera in India. Additionally, DCGI sets standards for drug manufacturing, sales, import, and distribution within the country. Source: Livemint OXYTOCIN Syllabus Prelims – Science Context: The Delhi High Court has taken a strong stance against the spurious use of oxytocin on cattle in dairy colonies within the capital. Background: The court has directed the Delhi government’s Department of Drugs Control to conduct weekly inspections and register cases against the administration of oxytocin. About OXYTOCIN : Oxytocin, often referred to as the “love hormone,” is a crucial hormone secreted by the pituitary glands in mammals during various physiological processes. Oxytocin is a hormone produced in the brain’s hypothalamus and secreted by the pituitary gland. It plays dual roles as both a hormone and a neurotransmitter. Functions: Childbirth: Oxytocin helps contract the uterus during labour, facilitating childbirth. Breastfeeding: It promotes the release of breast milk. Social Bonding: Oxytocin is associated with social interactions, trust, and emotional bonding. Controversies and Bans: Misuse in Dairy Industry: Oxytocin misuse occurs in the dairy sector, where livestock (milch cattle) is injected with the hormone to increase milk production. Human Health Concerns: The same hormone, when consumed through milk, can affect human health. Government Ban: In April 2018, the Indian government banned the use of oxytocin on milch cattle due to these concerns. The administration of oxytocin is considered as an “animal cruelty” and a cognizable offense under Section 12 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960. Alternative Solution: The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends carbetocin as a safe and effective alternative to oxytocin. Unlike oxytocin, carbetocin does not require refrigeration and remains effective even at higher temperatures. It retains efficacy for at least three years when stored at 30°C and 75% relative humidity. Source: Times of India Custodial Death Syllabus Mains – GS 2 Context: The Supreme Court has emphasized the necessity of adopting a “more rigorous approach” when considering bail applications from police officers charged in cases of custodial deaths. Background: Observing that a police officer may wield more influence than an ordinary person the Supreme Court has set aside the bail granted to a police constable in a case of custodial death. Custodial Death: Custodial death refers to a death that occurs while a person is in the custody of law enforcement officials or a correctional facility. It can occur due to various causes such as the use of excessive force, neglect, or abuse by the authorities. According to the Law Commission of India, the crime by a public servant against the arrested or the detained person who is in custody amounts to custodial violence. Constitutional Framework Related to Custodial Death: Article 21 of the Constitution of India guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, which includes the right to be free from torture and other cruel, inhuman, or degrading treatment or punishment. Article 20 grants protection against arbitrary and excessive punishment to an accused person, whether a citizen or foreigner or a legal person like a company or a corporation. It contains three provisions in that direction – No ex-post-facto law (Article 20 (1)), No double jeopardy (Article 20 (2)), and No self-incrimination (Article 20 (3)). In Selvi v. State of Karnataka, the court observed that the state could not perform narco-analysis, polygraph, and brain-mapping tests on any individual without their consent. Legal Protections Associated with Custodial Death: Section 24 Indian Evidence Act, of 1872 declares that all the confessions made by the accused by succumbing to the threat of investigating agencies would not be admissible in a court of law. This Section primarily works to prevent the accused from giving confessions using force against his will. Sections 330 and 331 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) criminalise voluntarily causing hurt or grievous hurt to extort confession or information from any person. Section 41 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) was amended in 2009 to include safeguards so that: Arrests and detentions for interrogation have reasonable grounds and documented procedures; Arrests are made transparent to family, friends, and the public, and there is protection through legal representation. International Conventions Against Custodial Torture: International Human Rights Law of 1948 contains a provision that protects people from torture and other enforced disappearances. United Nations Charter of 1945 calls for treating prisoners with dignity. The Charter clearly states that despite being prisoners, their fundamental freedoms and human rights are set out in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, and the International Covenant on Economic, Social, and Cultural Rights. The International Human Rights Law contains a provision that protects people from torture and other enforced disappearances. The Nelson Mandela Rules of 2015 were adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 2015 to treat prisoners with inherent dignity and to prohibit torture and other ill-treatment. United Nations Convention Against Torture (UNCAT) is an international human rights treaty under the purview of the United Nations that aims to prevent torture and other acts of cruel, inhuman, or degrading treatment or punishment around the world. Way Forward to Combat Custodial Torture: Strengthening Legal Systems by enacting comprehensive legislation explicitly criminalising custodial torture like Supreme Court directives in Prakash Singh Case 2006. SC directed the separation of investigation and law and order functions to better improve policing, setting up of State Security Commissions (SSC) that would have members from civil society, and forming a National Security Commission. By ensuring prompt and impartial investigations into allegations of custodial torture. By enhancing police training programs to emphasise respect for human rights and dignity. By promoting a culture of accountability, professionalism, and empathy within law enforcement agencies. By establishing oversight mechanisms to monitor and address cases of custodial torture effectively. Empowering Civil Society and Human Rights Organisations to actively advocate for victims of custodial torture. The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) should be allowed to inquire into any matter even after one year from the date of the alleged human rights violation. Its jurisdiction should be expanded to cases of human rights violations by armed forces with appropriate measures. By providing support and legal assistance to victims and their families. By collaborating with international human rights bodies and organisations to seek redress and justice. Source: ET Legal World Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements about the Oxytocin: Oxytocin is a hormone produced in the brain’s hypothalamus and secreted by the pituitary gland. Oxytocin helps contract the uterus during labour, facilitating childbirth. In the dairy sector livestock is injected with the hormone to increase milk production. The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends carbetocin as a safe and effective alternative to oxytocin. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q2.) With reference to the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO), consider the following statements: It is the Central Drug Authority responsible for discharging functions assigned to the Central Government under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act of 1940. It operates under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare. The Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare is the head of the CDSCO department. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q3.) Consider the following statements about Drip Pricing: It is a pricing technique used by firms where they initially advertise only part of a product’s price. It makes comparison shopping easy. An airline ticket advertised without including baggage fees is a form of drip pricing How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  7th May 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  4th May – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

[DAY 56] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Standard Census Definition’ A marginal worker is a person working for at least 90 days a year. A main worker is a person working for at least 183 days a year. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) According to the ‘Standard Census Definition’, a marginal worker is a person who works less than 183 days in a year. There is no lower cap on the number of days a marginal worker should work. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. A main worker is a person who works for at least 183 days a year. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) According to the ‘Standard Census Definition’, a marginal worker is a person who works less than 183 days in a year. There is no lower cap on the number of days a marginal worker should work. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. A main worker is a person who works for at least 183 days a year. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 2 of 35 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding the types of rural settlement If a settlement is fragmented into several units physically separated from each other bearing a common name, it is called a dispersed settlement. If hamlets of a few huts are found in remote jungles or on small hills with farms or pastures on the slopes, it is called a hamleted settlement. One or more sections of the village society choose or are forced to live a little away from the main village, it is called a semi-clustered settlement. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) If a settlement is fragmented into several units physically separated from each other bearing a common name, it is called a hamleted settlement. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. They are found in the middle and lower Ganga plain, Chhattisgarh, and lower valleys of the Himalayas. If hamlets of a few huts are found in remote jungles or on small hills with farms or pastures on the slopes, it is called a dispersed settlement. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. They are found in many areas of Meghalaya, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, and Kerala. One or more sections of the village society choose or are forced to live a little away from the main village, it is called a semi-clustered settlement. Hence statement 3 is correct. They are widespread in the Gujarat Plain and some parts of Rajasthan. Incorrect Solution (a) If a settlement is fragmented into several units physically separated from each other bearing a common name, it is called a hamleted settlement. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. They are found in the middle and lower Ganga plain, Chhattisgarh, and lower valleys of the Himalayas. If hamlets of a few huts are found in remote jungles or on small hills with farms or pastures on the slopes, it is called a dispersed settlement. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. They are found in many areas of Meghalaya, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, and Kerala. One or more sections of the village society choose or are forced to live a little away from the main village, it is called a semi-clustered settlement. Hence statement 3 is correct. They are widespread in the Gujarat Plain and some parts of Rajasthan. Question 3 of 35 3. Question Consider the following statements about the World Population Day It was established by the World Health Organisation in 1989, inspired by the significance of the world’s population reaching five billion people. It is observed annually on July 11th to raise awareness about global population issues and its impact. The theme of World Population Day 2023 was  ‘Imagine a world where everyone all 8 billion of us has a future bursting with promise and potential’. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) World Population Day was established by the United Nations in 1989. It was suggested by Dr. K.C. Zachariah. It was sparked by excitement on Five Billion Day on July 11, 1987, roughly the day the world’s population surpassed five billion. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The objective of World Population Day is to raise awareness of a variety of population-related issues, including the value of family planning, gender equality, poverty, maternal health, and human rights. World Population Day is observed annually on July 11th to raise awareness about global population issues and their impact on social, economic, and environmental aspects. Hence statement 2 is correct. The United Nations Population Fund releases a statement every year on the occasion of World Population Day. The World Population Day 2023 theme is  “Imagine a world where everyone all 8 billion of us has a future bursting with promise and potential”. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) World Population Day was established by the United Nations in 1989. It was suggested by Dr. K.C. Zachariah. It was sparked by excitement on Five Billion Day on July 11, 1987, roughly the day the world’s population surpassed five billion. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The objective of World Population Day is to raise awareness of a variety of population-related issues, including the value of family planning, gender equality, poverty, maternal health, and human rights. World Population Day is observed annually on July 11th to raise awareness about global population issues and their impact on social, economic, and environmental aspects. Hence statement 2 is correct. The United Nations Population Fund releases a statement every year on the occasion of World Population Day. The World Population Day 2023 theme is  “Imagine a world where everyone all 8 billion of us has a future bursting with promise and potential”. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 4 of 35 4. Question Consider the following statements: Helium is the second most abundant element in the universe, after hydrogen. Helium is extracted from natural gas using a process called cryogenic distillation. Russia has the largest reserves of helium globally followed by Algeria and the United States. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Helium is the second most abundant element in the universe, after hydrogen. However, it is relatively rare on Earth, with most of it being produced by the decay of radioactive elements in the Earth’s crust. Hence statement 1 is correct. Natural gas is the primary source of helium on Earth. Helium is extracted from natural gas using a process called cryogenic distillation. Hence statement 2 is correct. As of 2022, the reserves of helium in the United States have the largest reserves of helium globally followed by Algeria and Russia. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. India’s Rajmahal volcanic basin in Jharkhand is the storehouse of helium trapped for billions of years. Incorrect Solution (b) Helium is the second most abundant element in the universe, after hydrogen. However, it is relatively rare on Earth, with most of it being produced by the decay of radioactive elements in the Earth’s crust. Hence statement 1 is correct. Natural gas is the primary source of helium on Earth. Helium is extracted from natural gas using a process called cryogenic distillation. Hence statement 2 is correct. As of 2022, the reserves of helium in the United States have the largest reserves of helium globally followed by Algeria and Russia. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. India’s Rajmahal volcanic basin in Jharkhand is the storehouse of helium trapped for billions of years. Question 5 of 35 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Classification of Cities based on the population size An urban area that has a population of more than one lakh is considered a city or class I town. Cities that have a population of more than one million but less than 5 million are considered megalopolis. Cities that have a population of more than 5 million are considered metro cities. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) The Classification of Cities based on population size: An urban area with a population of more than one lakh is considered a city or class I town. Hence statement 1 is correct. Cities with a population of more than one million but less than 5 million are considered metro cities. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Cities with a population of more than 5 million are considered megalopolis. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (a) The Classification of Cities based on population size: An urban area with a population of more than one lakh is considered a city or class I town. Hence statement 1 is correct. Cities with a population of more than one million but less than 5 million are considered metro cities. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Cities with a population of more than 5 million are considered megalopolis. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Question 6 of 35 6. Question The Farmers’ Distress Index is released by the a) Central Research Institute for Dryland Agriculture b) Food Corporation of India c) Agricultural and Process Food Export Development Authority d) Both a and b Correct Solution (a) The Farmers’ Distress Index tries to anticipate agrarian distress and prevent its spread from a few farmers to the village or block level. It will enable various entities such as the central government, state governments, local bodies, and non-governmental agencies to receive early warnings about impending farmers’ distress, thus facilitating proactive interventions. It is released by theCentral Research Institute for Dryland Agriculture (CRIDA), an institution under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR). Hence option a is correct. Incorrect Solution (a) The Farmers’ Distress Index tries to anticipate agrarian distress and prevent its spread from a few farmers to the village or block level. It will enable various entities such as the central government, state governments, local bodies, and non-governmental agencies to receive early warnings about impending farmers’ distress, thus facilitating proactive interventions. It is released by theCentral Research Institute for Dryland Agriculture (CRIDA), an institution under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR). Hence option a is correct. Question 7 of 35 7. Question Consider the following statements about the Meitei people They are the predominant ethnic group of Manipur State. They speak the Meitei language which is the sole official language of Manipur State. A majority follow Islam, while more than 8% are Hindus. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Meitei people, also known as the Manipuri people, are the predominant ethnic group of Manipur State. The Meitei ethnic group represents about 53% of Manipur’s population. Hence statement 1 is correct. The Meiteis primarily settled in the Imphal Valley region in modern-day Manipur, though a sizable population has settled in the other Indian states of Assam, Tripura, Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Mizoram. There is also a notable presence of Meitei in the neighbouring countries of Myanmar and Bangladesh. They speak the Meitei language (officially called Manipuri), one of the 22 official languages of India and the sole official language of Manipur State. Hence statement 2 is correct. A majority follow Hinduism, while more than 8% are Muslims. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. They are divided into clans, the members of which do not intermarry. Rice cultivation on irrigated fields is the basis of their economy.   Note: Yaoshang Festival is celebrated by the Meitei people at the same time as Holi and is known as ‘Manipur’s version of Holi’. The five-day-long celebration begins with the burning of ‘yaoshang’(a small thatch hut/straw hut), which is constructed with bamboo and straws on the first day. The highlight of the festival is the ThabalChongba, a traditional Manipuri folk dance where boys and girls hold hands and sing and dance in a circle. The festival marks the rejuvenation of the spirit of life and commemorates the birthday of Chaitanya Mahaprabhu. Incorrect Solution (b) The Meitei people, also known as the Manipuri people, are the predominant ethnic group of Manipur State. The Meitei ethnic group represents about 53% of Manipur’s population. Hence statement 1 is correct. The Meiteis primarily settled in the Imphal Valley region in modern-day Manipur, though a sizable population has settled in the other Indian states of Assam, Tripura, Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Mizoram. There is also a notable presence of Meitei in the neighbouring countries of Myanmar and Bangladesh. They speak the Meitei language (officially called Manipuri), one of the 22 official languages of India and the sole official language of Manipur State. Hence statement 2 is correct. A majority follow Hinduism, while more than 8% are Muslims. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. They are divided into clans, the members of which do not intermarry. Rice cultivation on irrigated fields is the basis of their economy.   Note: Yaoshang Festival is celebrated by the Meitei people at the same time as Holi and is known as ‘Manipur’s version of Holi’. The five-day-long celebration begins with the burning of ‘yaoshang’(a small thatch hut/straw hut), which is constructed with bamboo and straws on the first day. The highlight of the festival is the ThabalChongba, a traditional Manipuri folk dance where boys and girls hold hands and sing and dance in a circle. The festival marks the rejuvenation of the spirit of life and commemorates the birthday of Chaitanya Mahaprabhu. Question 8 of 35 8. Question Consider the following statements regarding Demographic Trap It is a combination of low fertility rates and increasing mortality rates in developing countries. It may lead to rapid growth in the nation’s population and underutilization of its demographic dividend. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) The term demographic trap is used by demographers, to describe the combination of high fertility which means increasing birth rates, and declining mortality which means decreasing death rates in developing countries, resulting in a period of high population growth rate (PGR). High fertility combined with declining mortality happens when a developing country moves through the demographic transition of becoming developed. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. During stage II of the demographic transition, the quality of health care improves and death rates fall, but birth rates remain high, resulting in a period of high population growth. The term demographic trap is used by some demographers to describe a situation where stage II persists because falling living standards reinforce the prevailing high fertility, which in turn reinforces the decline in living standards. This results in more poverty, where people rely on more children to provide them with economic security. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) The term demographic trap is used by demographers, to describe the combination of high fertility which means increasing birth rates, and declining mortality which means decreasing death rates in developing countries, resulting in a period of high population growth rate (PGR). High fertility combined with declining mortality happens when a developing country moves through the demographic transition of becoming developed. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. During stage II of the demographic transition, the quality of health care improves and death rates fall, but birth rates remain high, resulting in a period of high population growth. The term demographic trap is used by some demographers to describe a situation where stage II persists because falling living standards reinforce the prevailing high fertility, which in turn reinforces the decline in living standards. This results in more poverty, where people rely on more children to provide them with economic security. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 9 of 35 9. Question Which of the following schemes helps in building human capital? Skill India Mission Ayushman Bharat Yojana Samagra Siksha Abhiyan Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act Scheme Choose the correct code: a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) Human Capital refers to the measure of the skills, education, health, and attributes of labour that helps in increasing the productivity potential. The Skill India Mission helps the younger generation by providing them with employment opportunities through upgrading their skills. Thus it helps increase the productivity potential by generating employment for people and increasing their standard of living. Ayushman Bharat Yojana is a government-sponsored health insurance scheme that will provide free coverage of up to Rs 5 lakh per family per year at any government or even empanelled private hospitals all over India for secondary and tertiary medical care facilities. Thus it helps in increasing the productivity potential by providing better health facilities to people. Samagra Siksha Abhiyan aims to deliver inclusive, equitable, and affordable education from preschool to senior secondary level. Thus it helps increase the productivity potential by providing education to people. MGNREGA provides a guarantee of 100 days of employment in every financial year to adult members of any rural household willing to do public work-related unskilled manual work. Thus it helps increase the productivity potential by generating employment for people. Hence option d is correct. Incorrect Solution (d) Human Capital refers to the measure of the skills, education, health, and attributes of labour that helps in increasing the productivity potential. The Skill India Mission helps the younger generation by providing them with employment opportunities through upgrading their skills. Thus it helps increase the productivity potential by generating employment for people and increasing their standard of living. Ayushman Bharat Yojana is a government-sponsored health insurance scheme that will provide free coverage of up to Rs 5 lakh per family per year at any government or even empanelled private hospitals all over India for secondary and tertiary medical care facilities. Thus it helps in increasing the productivity potential by providing better health facilities to people. Samagra Siksha Abhiyan aims to deliver inclusive, equitable, and affordable education from preschool to senior secondary level. Thus it helps increase the productivity potential by providing education to people. MGNREGA provides a guarantee of 100 days of employment in every financial year to adult members of any rural household willing to do public work-related unskilled manual work. Thus it helps increase the productivity potential by generating employment for people. Hence option d is correct. Question 10 of 35 10. Question Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Standard Census Definition’ Literacy is the ability to read and write with understanding in any language. A person who can merely read but cannot write can be classified as literate. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) As per the ‘Standard Census Definition’, Literacy is the ability to read and write with understanding in any language. Literacy can be tested in any language, not only in our official languages. Hence statement 1 is correct. A person who can merely read but cannot write is not classified as literate. Any formal education or minimum educational standard is not necessary to be considered literate. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The information on literacy was collected in all censuses. Information on the standard of education was collected for the first time in the 1941 census and after that, it was asked in every subsequent census. In 1971, information on literacy and educational level was collected from each individual. Incorrect Solution (a) As per the ‘Standard Census Definition’, Literacy is the ability to read and write with understanding in any language. Literacy can be tested in any language, not only in our official languages. Hence statement 1 is correct. A person who can merely read but cannot write is not classified as literate. Any formal education or minimum educational standard is not necessary to be considered literate. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The information on literacy was collected in all censuses. Information on the standard of education was collected for the first time in the 1941 census and after that, it was asked in every subsequent census. In 1971, information on literacy and educational level was collected from each individual. Question 11 of 35 11. Question Arrange the following states in the decreasing order of population density West Bengal Maharastra Uttar Pradesh Bihar Choose the correct code: a) 3-4-2-1 b) 1-3-4-2 c) 4-1-3-2 d) 2-1-4-3 Correct Solution (c) State Population Density (person/sq.km) Bihar 1106 West Bengal 1028 Uttar Pradesh 829 Maharashtra 365 Hence option c is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) State Population Density (person/sq.km) Bihar 1106 West Bengal 1028 Uttar Pradesh 829 Maharashtra 365 Hence option c is correct. Question 12 of 35 12. Question Consider the following statements about the Sentinelese tribe They are an indigenous tribe of the Lakshadweep Islands. They practice primitive agriculture for subsistence. They speak the Jarawa language. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (d) The Sentinelese people are an indigenous people of the Andaman Islands, in the Bay of Bengal. They inhabit North Sentinel Island, which lies westward off the southern tip of the Great Andaman archipelago. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. They are hunter-gatherers and do not practice any form of agriculture. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. They resist contact with the outside world and are among the last people to remain virtually untouched and uncontacted by modern civilization. Their language remains unclassified and is not mutually intelligible with the Jarawa language of their nearest neighbours. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (d) The Sentinelese people are an indigenous people of the Andaman Islands, in the Bay of Bengal. They inhabit North Sentinel Island, which lies westward off the southern tip of the Great Andaman archipelago. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. They are hunter-gatherers and do not practice any form of agriculture. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. They resist contact with the outside world and are among the last people to remain virtually untouched and uncontacted by modern civilization. Their language remains unclassified and is not mutually intelligible with the Jarawa language of their nearest neighbours. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Question 13 of 35 13. Question Consider the following statements: Nomadic pastoralism is the irregular movement of herders. Transhumance is the regular and seasonal movement of herders. Nomadic pastoralism prefers higher pasturelands in summer and low valleys in winter. Transhumance prefers higher plateaus in summer and desert plains in winter. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (b) Pastoralism refers to herding or tending livestock as the primary occupation. Transhumance and nomadic pastoralism are forms of pastoralism. Nomadic pastoralism is the irregular movement of herders. Hence statement 1 is correct. They are called nomads as they do not follow a pattern in their movements. Transhumance is the regular and seasonal movement of herders. Hence statement 2 is correct. Nomadic pastoralism prefers higher plateaus in summer and desert plains in winter. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Transhumance prefers higher pasturelands in summer and low valleys in winter. Hence statement 4 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (b) Pastoralism refers to herding or tending livestock as the primary occupation. Transhumance and nomadic pastoralism are forms of pastoralism. Nomadic pastoralism is the irregular movement of herders. Hence statement 1 is correct. They are called nomads as they do not follow a pattern in their movements. Transhumance is the regular and seasonal movement of herders. Hence statement 2 is correct. Nomadic pastoralism prefers higher plateaus in summer and desert plains in winter. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Transhumance prefers higher pasturelands in summer and low valleys in winter. Hence statement 4 is incorrect. Question 14 of 35 14. Question Match the following Himalayan Range Orientation 1.     Greater Himalayan Range a)     Eastward 2.     Darjiling and Sikkim b)     Southwest – Northeast 3.     Nagaland and Manipur c)     Northwest – Southeast 4.     Arunachal Pradesh d)     North – South Choose the correct code: a) 1-d;2-a;3-b;4-c; b) 1-c;2-d;3-a;4-b; c) 1-b;2-a;3-d;4-c; d) 1-c;2-a;3-d;4-b; Correct Solution (d) Himalayan Range Orientation 1.     Greater Himalayan Range Northwest – Southeast 2.     Darjiling and Sikkim Eastward 3.     Nagaland and Manipur North – South 4.     Arunachal Pradesh Southwest – Northeast           Incorrect Solution (d) Himalayan Range Orientation 1.     Greater Himalayan Range Northwest – Southeast 2.     Darjiling and Sikkim Eastward 3.     Nagaland and Manipur North – South 4.     Arunachal Pradesh Southwest – Northeast           Question 15 of 35 15. Question Arrange the following ranges from south to north: Zaskar Siwalik Karakoram Pir Panjal Ladakh Choose the correct code: a) 2-4-1-5-3 b) 5-4-3-2-1 c) 5-4-1-2-3 d) 4-1-2-5-3 Correct Solution (a) Ranges from south to north: Siwalik Pir Panjal Zaskar Ladakh Karakoram Hence option a is correct. Incorrect Solution (a) Ranges from south to north: Siwalik Pir Panjal Zaskar Ladakh Karakoram Hence option a is correct. Question 16 of 35 16. Question Consider the following statements: The Western Ghats are higher in elevation compared to the Eastern Ghats. The Western Ghats are continuous, while the Eastern Ghats are discontinuous. The Western Ghats are called Anaimalai Hills and Cardamom Hills in Kerala. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Western Ghats Eastern Ghats They are continuous chains of mountains and can be crossed through passes only. The Eastern ghats are not continuous and are cut by rivers falling into the Bay of Bengal. The height ranges from 900-1600 meters. The height is lower than the western ghats, height ranges from 600 to 900 meters. Most of the Peninsular rivers originate from the Western Ghats. No major river originates from the Eastern Ghats. The soil is highly fertile. The soil is not so fertile here. The onset of monsoon is felt by the western ghats. The retreating of the monsoon is felt here in October and November. Western Ghats are locally known by different names such as Sahyadri in Maharashtra, Nilgiri Hills in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu and Anaimalai Hills, and Cardamom Hills in Kerala.   The Western Ghats are higher in elevation compared to the Eastern Ghats.   Incorrect Solution (c) Western Ghats Eastern Ghats They are continuous chains of mountains and can be crossed through passes only. The Eastern ghats are not continuous and are cut by rivers falling into the Bay of Bengal. The height ranges from 900-1600 meters. The height is lower than the western ghats, height ranges from 600 to 900 meters. Most of the Peninsular rivers originate from the Western Ghats. No major river originates from the Eastern Ghats. The soil is highly fertile. The soil is not so fertile here. The onset of monsoon is felt by the western ghats. The retreating of the monsoon is felt here in October and November. Western Ghats are locally known by different names such as Sahyadri in Maharashtra, Nilgiri Hills in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu and Anaimalai Hills, and Cardamom Hills in Kerala.   The Western Ghats are higher in elevation compared to the Eastern Ghats.   Question 17 of 35 17. Question Consider the following statements: Most of the rivers in Nagaland form the tributary of the Brahmaputra. Barak River is the tributary of Meghna. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Major rivers of Nagaland like Dhansiri, Doyang, and Dikhu flow westward into the Brahmaputra River that falls into Bangladesh, while the Tizu River flows eastwards and joins the Chindwin River in Burma. Hence statement 1 is correct. Barak raises in the Manipur hills and enters the plains near Lakhipur. The Meghna is formed due to the joining of the Surma and Kushiyara rivers (together known as the Barak River in India) originating from the hilly regions of eastern India. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) Major rivers of Nagaland like Dhansiri, Doyang, and Dikhu flow westward into the Brahmaputra River that falls into Bangladesh, while the Tizu River flows eastwards and joins the Chindwin River in Burma. Hence statement 1 is correct. Barak raises in the Manipur hills and enters the plains near Lakhipur. The Meghna is formed due to the joining of the Surma and Kushiyara rivers (together known as the Barak River in India) originating from the hilly regions of eastern India. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 18 of 35 18. Question Consider the following statements: Meghalaya Plateau receives maximum rainfall from the North East monsoon. Cherrapunji, receiving the highest rainfall after Mawsynram is devoid of any permanent vegetation cover. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Meghalaya Plateau receives maximum rainfall from the South West monsoon. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Cherrapunji, receiving the highest rainfall after Mawsynram is devoid of any permanent vegetation cover. The Cherapunji area receives maximum rainfall from the South West monsoon. As a result, the Meghalaya plateau has a highly eroded surface. Cherrapunji displays a bare rocky surface devoid of any permanent vegetation cover. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) Meghalaya Plateau receives maximum rainfall from the South West monsoon. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Cherrapunji, receiving the highest rainfall after Mawsynram is devoid of any permanent vegetation cover. The Cherapunji area receives maximum rainfall from the South West monsoon. As a result, the Meghalaya plateau has a highly eroded surface. Cherrapunji displays a bare rocky surface devoid of any permanent vegetation cover. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 19 of 35 19. Question Consider the following statements: The general elevation of the Central Highlands ranges between 700 – 1000 m above the mean sea level and slopes towards the north and northeastern directions. It is a prime example of relict mountains, which are densely forested and form discontinuous ranges. They are divided into two parallel chains of hills known as the Vindhyas and the Satpuras and are separated by the Yamuna River valley. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The general elevation of the Central Highlands ranges between 700 – 1000 m above the mean sea level and slopes towards the north and northeastern directions. Hence statement 1 is correct. The Aravali range borders them on the west. The Satpura range is formed in the south by a succession of scarped plateaus. The Central Highlands are the parts of the Peninsular plateau to the north of the Narmada River that encompass a calculated area of the Malwa plateau. It is a prime example of relict mountains, which are densely forested and form discontinuous ranges. Relict Mountains, also known as residual mountains or mountains of denudation, are a kind of landform formed through time as a result of the erosion of formerly high areas. Hence statement 2 is correct. They are divided into two parallel chains of hills known as the Vindhyas and the Satpuras and are separated by the Narmada River Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (b) The general elevation of the Central Highlands ranges between 700 – 1000 m above the mean sea level and slopes towards the north and northeastern directions. Hence statement 1 is correct. The Aravali range borders them on the west. The Satpura range is formed in the south by a succession of scarped plateaus. The Central Highlands are the parts of the Peninsular plateau to the north of the Narmada River that encompass a calculated area of the Malwa plateau. It is a prime example of relict mountains, which are densely forested and form discontinuous ranges. Relict Mountains, also known as residual mountains or mountains of denudation, are a kind of landform formed through time as a result of the erosion of formerly high areas. Hence statement 2 is correct. They are divided into two parallel chains of hills known as the Vindhyas and the Satpuras and are separated by the Narmada River Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Question 20 of 35 20. Question To the Northwest of the Aravalli Hills lie the Great Indian Desert. Which of the following statements are true about it? It is a land of undulating topography dotted with longitudinal dunes and barchans. The underlying rock structure of the desert is an extension of the peninsular plateau. This region was once under the sea during the Paleozoic Era. Choose the correct code: a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution (a) The Great Indian Desert is a land of undulating topography dotted with longitudinal dunes and barchans. Hence statement 1 is correct. This region receives low rainfall below 150 mm per year; hence it has an arid climate with low vegetation cover. It is because of this characteristic feature it is also known as Marusthali. The underlying rock structure of the desert is an extension of the peninsular plateau. Yet, due to extremely arid conditions, its surface features have been craved by physical weathering and wind actions. Hence statement 2 is correct. This region was once under the sea during the Mesozoic Era. This can be corroborated by the evidence available at the Wood Fossils Park (its approximate age is estimated to be 180 million years) at Aakal and marine deposits around Brahmsar, near Jaisalmer. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (a) The Great Indian Desert is a land of undulating topography dotted with longitudinal dunes and barchans. Hence statement 1 is correct. This region receives low rainfall below 150 mm per year; hence it has an arid climate with low vegetation cover. It is because of this characteristic feature it is also known as Marusthali. The underlying rock structure of the desert is an extension of the peninsular plateau. Yet, due to extremely arid conditions, its surface features have been craved by physical weathering and wind actions. Hence statement 2 is correct. This region was once under the sea during the Mesozoic Era. This can be corroborated by the evidence available at the Wood Fossils Park (its approximate age is estimated to be 180 million years) at Aakal and marine deposits around Brahmsar, near Jaisalmer. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Question 21 of 35 21. Question Consider the following statements regarding Lumpy Skin Disease It is an infectious viral disease of cattle. It is currently endemic in Africa, the Middle East, and Turkey. It is transmitted by blood-feeding insects, such as certain species of flies, mosquitoes, or ticks. It is a zoonotic disease and has no direct antiviral treatment. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) Lumpy Skin Disease is an infectious viral disease of cattle. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is caused by the lumpy skin disease virus (LSDV), which belongs to the genus Capripoxvirus, a part of the poxviridae family (smallpox and monkeypox viruses are also a part of the same family). It is currently endemic in Africa, the Middle East, and Turkey. Hence statement 2 is correct. Since 2015, the disease has spread to most of the Balkan countries, the Caucasus, and the Russian Federation. Since 2019, several outbreaks of LSD have been reported by countries in Asia (Bangladesh, India, China, Chinese Taipei, Vietnam, Bhutan, Hong Kong (SAR-RPC), Nepal, Sri Lanka, Myanmar, and Thailand). It is transmitted by blood-feeding insects, such as certain species of flies, mosquitoes, or ticks. Hence statement 3 is correct. Infected animals shed the virus through oral and nasal secretions, which may contaminate common feeding and water troughs. Thus, the disease can either spread through direct contact with the vectors or through contaminated fodder and water. LSD affects the lymph nodes of the infected animal, causing the nodes to enlarge and appear like lumps on the skin, which is where it derives its name from. The cutaneous nodules, 2–5 cm in diameter, appear on the infected cattle’s head, neck, limbs, udder, genitalia, and perineum. The nodules may later turn into ulcers and eventually develop scabs over the skin. The other symptoms include high fever, a sharp drop in milk yield, discharge from the eyes and nose, salivation, loss of appetite, depression, damaged hides, emaciation (thinness or weakness) of animals, infertility, and abortions. It can also lead to death, especially in animals that have not previously been exposed to the virus or have low immunity. LSDV is not a zoonotic virus, meaning the disease cannot spread to humans. It has no direct antiviral treatment. Instead, the infected animals receive supportive care, which involves the use of antibiotics, painkillers, and wound care sprays to treat symptoms. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.   Incorrect Solution (c) Lumpy Skin Disease is an infectious viral disease of cattle. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is caused by the lumpy skin disease virus (LSDV), which belongs to the genus Capripoxvirus, a part of the poxviridae family (smallpox and monkeypox viruses are also a part of the same family). It is currently endemic in Africa, the Middle East, and Turkey. Hence statement 2 is correct. Since 2015, the disease has spread to most of the Balkan countries, the Caucasus, and the Russian Federation. Since 2019, several outbreaks of LSD have been reported by countries in Asia (Bangladesh, India, China, Chinese Taipei, Vietnam, Bhutan, Hong Kong (SAR-RPC), Nepal, Sri Lanka, Myanmar, and Thailand). It is transmitted by blood-feeding insects, such as certain species of flies, mosquitoes, or ticks. Hence statement 3 is correct. Infected animals shed the virus through oral and nasal secretions, which may contaminate common feeding and water troughs. Thus, the disease can either spread through direct contact with the vectors or through contaminated fodder and water. LSD affects the lymph nodes of the infected animal, causing the nodes to enlarge and appear like lumps on the skin, which is where it derives its name from. The cutaneous nodules, 2–5 cm in diameter, appear on the infected cattle’s head, neck, limbs, udder, genitalia, and perineum. The nodules may later turn into ulcers and eventually develop scabs over the skin. The other symptoms include high fever, a sharp drop in milk yield, discharge from the eyes and nose, salivation, loss of appetite, depression, damaged hides, emaciation (thinness or weakness) of animals, infertility, and abortions. It can also lead to death, especially in animals that have not previously been exposed to the virus or have low immunity. LSDV is not a zoonotic virus, meaning the disease cannot spread to humans. It has no direct antiviral treatment. Instead, the infected animals receive supportive care, which involves the use of antibiotics, painkillers, and wound care sprays to treat symptoms. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.   Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements: A swell is the formation of long wavelength waves on the surface of the sea. Swell waves can propagate in directions that differ from the direction of the wind. The Swell Surge Forecast System launched by the Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) gives forewarning twelve days in advance. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) A swell is the formation of long wavelength waves on the surface of the sea. Hence statement 1 is correct. These are composed of a series of surface gravity waves. They occur not due to the local winds, but rather due to distant storms like hurricanes, or even long periods of fierce gale winds. During such storms, huge energy transfer takes place from the air into the water, leading to the formation of very high waves. Such waves can travel thousands of kilometres from the storm centre until they strike the shore. Swells have a narrower range of frequencies and directions than locally generated wind waves, because swell waves have dispersed from their generation area, have dissipated, and therefore lost an amount of randomness, taking on a more defined shape and direction. Swell waves can propagate in directions that differ from the direction of the wind. Hence statement 2 is correct. Their wavelengths may rarely exceed more than 150 m. Swell wavelength, also, varies from event to event. Occasionally, swells which are longer than 700 m occur as a result of the most severe storms. It occurs without precursors or any kind of local wind activity and as a result. The Swell Surge Forecast System launched by the Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) gives forewarning seven days in advance. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.   Incorrect Solution (b) A swell is the formation of long wavelength waves on the surface of the sea. Hence statement 1 is correct. These are composed of a series of surface gravity waves. They occur not due to the local winds, but rather due to distant storms like hurricanes, or even long periods of fierce gale winds. During such storms, huge energy transfer takes place from the air into the water, leading to the formation of very high waves. Such waves can travel thousands of kilometres from the storm centre until they strike the shore. Swells have a narrower range of frequencies and directions than locally generated wind waves, because swell waves have dispersed from their generation area, have dissipated, and therefore lost an amount of randomness, taking on a more defined shape and direction. Swell waves can propagate in directions that differ from the direction of the wind. Hence statement 2 is correct. Their wavelengths may rarely exceed more than 150 m. Swell wavelength, also, varies from event to event. Occasionally, swells which are longer than 700 m occur as a result of the most severe storms. It occurs without precursors or any kind of local wind activity and as a result. The Swell Surge Forecast System launched by the Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) gives forewarning seven days in advance. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.   Question 23 of 35 23. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Marine Products Export Development Authority It is a statutory body entrusted with the primary task of promoting of export of marine products. It is responsible for registering fishing vessels, processing plants, or storage premises for marine products and conveyances used for the transport of marine products. It is under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry, and Dairying. It is headquartered in Kochi, Kerala. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) The Marine Products Export Development Authority is a statutory body entrusted with the primary task of promoting of export of marine products. Hence statement 1 is correct. It was set up by an act of Parliament in 1972. The erstwhile Marine Products Export Promotion Council established by the Government of India in September 1961 was converged into MPEDA on 24th August 1972. It is responsible for registering fishing vessels, processing plants, or storage premises for marine products and conveyances used for the transport of marine products. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is responsible for developing and regulating off-shore and deep-sea fishing and undertaking measures for the conservation and management of off-shore and deep-sea fisheries It is under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. It has set up five full-fledged Quality Control Laboratories, at Kochi, Nellore & Bhimavaram, Bhubaneshwar, and Porbandar. In addition, fifteen ELISA Screening Laboratories were set up by MPEDA in the maritime states. To reach out to the exporters in different parts of the country, it has set up 18 – Regional / Sub Regional Divisions / Desk offices. It is headquartered in Kochi, Kerala. Hence statement 4 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) The Marine Products Export Development Authority is a statutory body entrusted with the primary task of promoting of export of marine products. Hence statement 1 is correct. It was set up by an act of Parliament in 1972. The erstwhile Marine Products Export Promotion Council established by the Government of India in September 1961 was converged into MPEDA on 24th August 1972. It is responsible for registering fishing vessels, processing plants, or storage premises for marine products and conveyances used for the transport of marine products. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is responsible for developing and regulating off-shore and deep-sea fishing and undertaking measures for the conservation and management of off-shore and deep-sea fisheries It is under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. It has set up five full-fledged Quality Control Laboratories, at Kochi, Nellore & Bhimavaram, Bhubaneshwar, and Porbandar. In addition, fifteen ELISA Screening Laboratories were set up by MPEDA in the maritime states. To reach out to the exporters in different parts of the country, it has set up 18 – Regional / Sub Regional Divisions / Desk offices. It is headquartered in Kochi, Kerala. Hence statement 4 is correct. Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Probing ReionizATion of the Universe using Signal from Hydrogen (PRATUSH) It is a radio telescope to be situated on Venus’s far side. It is being built by the Raman Research Institute (RRI) in collaboration with theIndian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). It will be to detect signalsfrom the first stars and galaxies and reveal the cosmic dawn of the universe. Choose the correct code: a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Probing ReionizATion of the Universe using Signal from Hydrogen (PRATUSH) is a radio telescope to be situated on the Moon’s far side. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is being built by the Raman Research Institute (RRI) in collaboration with the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). Hence statement 2 is correct. Initially, ISRO will place PRATUSH into orbit around the earth. After some fine-tuning, the space agency will launch its moon wards. It will be to detect signals from the first stars and galaxies and reveal the cosmic dawn of the universe. Hence statement 3 is correct. It will answer the question of when the first stars formed, the nature of the first stars and what was the light from the first stars. It will carry a wideband frequency-independent antenna, a self-calibrating analog receiver, and a digital correlator to catch radio noise in the all-important signal from the Dark Ages. Incorrect Solution (b) The Probing ReionizATion of the Universe using Signal from Hydrogen (PRATUSH) is a radio telescope to be situated on the Moon’s far side. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is being built by the Raman Research Institute (RRI) in collaboration with the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). Hence statement 2 is correct. Initially, ISRO will place PRATUSH into orbit around the earth. After some fine-tuning, the space agency will launch its moon wards. It will be to detect signals from the first stars and galaxies and reveal the cosmic dawn of the universe. Hence statement 3 is correct. It will answer the question of when the first stars formed, the nature of the first stars and what was the light from the first stars. It will carry a wideband frequency-independent antenna, a self-calibrating analog receiver, and a digital correlator to catch radio noise in the all-important signal from the Dark Ages. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements: The Enhanced Fujita scale is used to measure the strength of an earthquake. The Richter scale is used to measure the strength of a tornado. A tiltmeter is used to measure subtle changes in ground slope and shape at volcanoes. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) The Enhanced Fujita scale is used to measure the strength of a tornado. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The Richter scale is used to measure the strength of an earthquake. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. A tiltmeter is used to measure subtle changes in ground slope and shape at volcanoes. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (a) The Enhanced Fujita scale is used to measure the strength of a tornado. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The Richter scale is used to measure the strength of an earthquake. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. A tiltmeter is used to measure subtle changes in ground slope and shape at volcanoes. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 26 of 35 26. Question Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing bacteria? Cyanobacteria Anabaena Nostoc Beijerinckia Rhizobium Choose the correct code: a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria are prokaryotic microorganisms that are capable of transforming nitrogen gas from the atmosphere into “fixed nitrogen” compounds, such as ammonia, that are usable by plants. They are: Cyanobacteria Anabaena Nostoc Beijerinckia Rhizobium Azotobacter Clostridium Hence option d is correct. Incorrect Solution (d) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria are prokaryotic microorganisms that are capable of transforming nitrogen gas from the atmosphere into “fixed nitrogen” compounds, such as ammonia, that are usable by plants. They are: Cyanobacteria Anabaena Nostoc Beijerinckia Rhizobium Azotobacter Clostridium Hence option d is correct. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements regarding Carbon Fibre It has a high stiffness and stiffness-to-weight ratio. It has high tensile strength and strength-to-weight ratio. It has high-temperature tolerance with special resins. It consists of low thermal expansion and has high chemical resistance. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) Carbon Fibre is a material consisting of thin, strong crystalline filaments of carbon, essentially carbon atoms bonded together in long chains. It has a high stiffness and stiffness-to-weight ratio. Hence statement 1 is correct. It has high tensile strength and strength-to-weight ratio. Hence statement 2 is correct. It has high-temperature tolerance with special resins. Hence statement 3 is correct. It consists of low thermal expansion and has high chemical resistance. Hence statement 4 is correct. They are extremely stiff, strong, and light, and are used in many processes to create excellent structural materials. Currently, India does not produce any carbon fibre, relying entirely on imports from countries such as the US, France, Japan, and Germany. It is essential for various applications such as fighter planes’ noses, civilian airplanes, drone frames, car chassis, and fire-resistant building material. It is a critical material in technical textiles and is known for its high strength and lightweight properties.   Incorrect Solution (d) Carbon Fibre is a material consisting of thin, strong crystalline filaments of carbon, essentially carbon atoms bonded together in long chains. It has a high stiffness and stiffness-to-weight ratio. Hence statement 1 is correct. It has high tensile strength and strength-to-weight ratio. Hence statement 2 is correct. It has high-temperature tolerance with special resins. Hence statement 3 is correct. It consists of low thermal expansion and has high chemical resistance. Hence statement 4 is correct. They are extremely stiff, strong, and light, and are used in many processes to create excellent structural materials. Currently, India does not produce any carbon fibre, relying entirely on imports from countries such as the US, France, Japan, and Germany. It is essential for various applications such as fighter planes’ noses, civilian airplanes, drone frames, car chassis, and fire-resistant building material. It is a critical material in technical textiles and is known for its high strength and lightweight properties.   Question 28 of 35 28. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Laurel Tree It is mainly found in both dry and moist deciduous forests up to 1000 m. It is principally native only to India. Its leaves are used as food by Antheraea paphiawhich produces the tussar silk. Its bark and fruit yield pyrogallol and catecholto dye and tan leather. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) The Indian Laurel Tree is mainly found in both dry and moist deciduous forests up to 1000 m. Hence statement 1 is correct. Its other names are marutham (Tamil); matti (Kannada); ain (Marathi); taukkyan (Burma); asana (Sri Lanka); and casually crocodile bark because of the characteristic bark pattern. It is principally native to southern and Southeast Asia in India, Nepal, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Thailand, Laos, Cambodia and Vietnam. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Its wood is used for furniture, cabinetwork, joinery, paneling, specialty items, boat-building, railroad cross-ties (treated), decorative veneers, and musical instruments (e.g. for guitar fretboard). Its leaves are used as food by Antheraea paphia which produces the tussar silk. Hence statement 3 is correct. Its bark is used medicinally against diarrhoea. Oxalic acid can be extracted from it. Its bark and fruit yield pyrogallol and catechol to dye and tan leather. Hence statement 4 is correct.   Incorrect Solution (c) The Indian Laurel Tree is mainly found in both dry and moist deciduous forests up to 1000 m. Hence statement 1 is correct. Its other names are marutham (Tamil); matti (Kannada); ain (Marathi); taukkyan (Burma); asana (Sri Lanka); and casually crocodile bark because of the characteristic bark pattern. It is principally native to southern and Southeast Asia in India, Nepal, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Thailand, Laos, Cambodia and Vietnam. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Its wood is used for furniture, cabinetwork, joinery, paneling, specialty items, boat-building, railroad cross-ties (treated), decorative veneers, and musical instruments (e.g. for guitar fretboard). Its leaves are used as food by Antheraea paphia which produces the tussar silk. Hence statement 3 is correct. Its bark is used medicinally against diarrhoea. Oxalic acid can be extracted from it. Its bark and fruit yield pyrogallol and catechol to dye and tan leather. Hence statement 4 is correct.   Question 29 of 35 29. Question Consider the following statements about the Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission It is an autonomous institution of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Its basic function is to update regularlythe standards of drugs commonly required for the treatment of diseases prevailing in the region. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) The Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission is an autonomous institution of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is created to set standards for drugsin the country. Its basic function is to update regularly the standards of drugs commonly required for the treatment of diseases prevailing in the region. Hence statement 2 is correct. It publishes official documents for improving the Quality of Medicinesby way of adding new and updating existing monographs in the form of Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP). It promotes the rationaluse of generic medicines by publishing the National Formulary of India. It prescribes standards for identity, purity, and strength of drugs essentially required from the health care perspective of human beings and animals. It provides IP Reference Substances(IPRS) which act as a fingerprint for identification of an article under test and its purity as prescribed in IP. Incorrect Solution (c) The Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission is an autonomous institution of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is created to set standards for drugsin the country. Its basic function is to update regularly the standards of drugs commonly required for the treatment of diseases prevailing in the region. Hence statement 2 is correct. It publishes official documents for improving the Quality of Medicinesby way of adding new and updating existing monographs in the form of Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP). It promotes the rationaluse of generic medicines by publishing the National Formulary of India. It prescribes standards for identity, purity, and strength of drugs essentially required from the health care perspective of human beings and animals. It provides IP Reference Substances(IPRS) which act as a fingerprint for identification of an article under test and its purity as prescribed in IP. Question 30 of 35 30. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Sea of Japan It is bounded by Japan and Sakhalin Island to the east and by Russia and Korea on the Asian mainland to the west. Dohoku Seamount, an underwater volcano, is its deepest point. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) The Sea of Japan is a marginal sea of the western Pacific Ocean. It is bounded by Japan and Sakhalin Island to the east and by Russia and Korea on the Asian mainland to the west. Hence statement 1 is correct. It covers 978,000 square km. The average depth is 1,667 meters. The depth of the deepest point is 3,742 meters. Dohoku Seamount, an underwater volcano, is its deepest point. Hence statement 2 is correct. The sea itself lies in a deep basin, separated from the East China Sea to the south by the Tsushima and Korea straits and from the Sea of Okhotsk to the north by the La Perouse (or Sōya) and Tatar straits. To the east, it is also connected to the Inland Sea of Japan by the Kanmon Strait, and to the Pacific by the Tsugaru Strait. It influences the climate of Japan because of its relatively warm waters. It serves as the meeting point of the cold currents from the north and the warm currents from the south. Incorrect Solution (c) The Sea of Japan is a marginal sea of the western Pacific Ocean. It is bounded by Japan and Sakhalin Island to the east and by Russia and Korea on the Asian mainland to the west. Hence statement 1 is correct. It covers 978,000 square km. The average depth is 1,667 meters. The depth of the deepest point is 3,742 meters. Dohoku Seamount, an underwater volcano, is its deepest point. Hence statement 2 is correct. The sea itself lies in a deep basin, separated from the East China Sea to the south by the Tsushima and Korea straits and from the Sea of Okhotsk to the north by the La Perouse (or Sōya) and Tatar straits. To the east, it is also connected to the Inland Sea of Japan by the Kanmon Strait, and to the Pacific by the Tsugaru Strait. It influences the climate of Japan because of its relatively warm waters. It serves as the meeting point of the cold currents from the north and the warm currents from the south. Question 31 of 35 31. Question The pages of a book are numbered starting with 1 and 3289 digits have been used in the book for numbering. How many pages does the book have? a) 1000 b) 1074 c) 1099 d) 1080 Correct Solution (c) No. of digits in 1-digit page nos. = 1×9 = 9. No. of digits in 2-digit page nos. = 2 x 90 = 180. => Therefore no. of pages with 2-digit page nos = 180/2=90. No. of digits in 3-digit page nos. = 3 x 900 = 2700. => Therefore no. of pages with 3-digit page nos = 2700/3=900. No. of digits in 4-digit page nos. = 3289 – (9 + 180 + 2700) = 3289 – 2889 = 400 => Therefore No. of pages with 4-digit page nos. = (400/4) = 100 Hence, total number of pages = (9+90+900+100) = 1099. Incorrect Solution (c) No. of digits in 1-digit page nos. = 1×9 = 9. No. of digits in 2-digit page nos. = 2 x 90 = 180. => Therefore no. of pages with 2-digit page nos = 180/2=90. No. of digits in 3-digit page nos. = 3 x 900 = 2700. => Therefore no. of pages with 3-digit page nos = 2700/3=900. No. of digits in 4-digit page nos. = 3289 – (9 + 180 + 2700) = 3289 – 2889 = 400 => Therefore No. of pages with 4-digit page nos. = (400/4) = 100 Hence, total number of pages = (9+90+900+100) = 1099. Question 32 of 35 32. Question A number is selected at random from the first 30 natural numbers. What is the probability that it is either a multiple of 7 or 15? a) 1/3 b) 2/7 c) 1/6 d) 1/5 Correct Solution (d) n(S) = number of ways of selecting 1 number out of 30 = 30 Number of multiples of 7 from 1 to 30 = 4 Number of multiples of 15 from 1 to 30 = 2 Since LCM of 7 and 15 is 105, there is no number in the range that is a multiple of both 7 and 15. ∴ n(A) = 4 + 2 = 6 ∴ Required probability = 6/30 = 1/5 Hence, option d. Incorrect Solution (d) n(S) = number of ways of selecting 1 number out of 30 = 30 Number of multiples of 7 from 1 to 30 = 4 Number of multiples of 15 from 1 to 30 = 2 Since LCM of 7 and 15 is 105, there is no number in the range that is a multiple of both 7 and 15. ∴ n(A) = 4 + 2 = 6 ∴ Required probability = 6/30 = 1/5 Hence, option d. Question 33 of 35 33. Question Amulya and Gowri can individually build a wall in 10 days and 15 days respectively. If they work on it on alternate days with Amulya working first, in how many days will they completely build the wall? a) 12 b) 14 c) 11 d) 13 Correct Solution (a) Let the wall correspond to 30 units of work. Let Amulya and Gowri respectively do ‘a’ and ‘b’ units of work per day. ∴ a = 30/10 = 3 and b = 30/15 = 2 Amulya works on day 1 and Gowri works on day 2. ∴ Work done in two days = a + b = 3 + 2 = 5 units Hence, six such lots of 2 days will be required to complete the work. ∴ Total time = 6(2) = 12 days Hence, option a. Incorrect Solution (a) Let the wall correspond to 30 units of work. Let Amulya and Gowri respectively do ‘a’ and ‘b’ units of work per day. ∴ a = 30/10 = 3 and b = 30/15 = 2 Amulya works on day 1 and Gowri works on day 2. ∴ Work done in two days = a + b = 3 + 2 = 5 units Hence, six such lots of 2 days will be required to complete the work. ∴ Total time = 6(2) = 12 days Hence, option a. Question 34 of 35 34. Question What is the largest four-digit number divisible by 12, 32, 40 and 72? a) 8460 b) 9280 c) 8640 d) 8280 Correct Solution (c) The required number will be a multiple of the LCM of 12, 32, 40 and 72. LCM of 12, 32, 40 and 72 = 1440 The largest four-digit multiple of 1440 is 8640 Hence, the required number is 8640. Hence, option c. Incorrect Solution (c) The required number will be a multiple of the LCM of 12, 32, 40 and 72. LCM of 12, 32, 40 and 72 = 1440 The largest four-digit multiple of 1440 is 8640 Hence, the required number is 8640. Hence, option c. Question 35 of 35 35. Question The half of perimeter of a rectangle is 20m, and its length is 4 metre more than its width. Find the dimensions of the rectangle. a) 12m, 8m b) 7m, 3m c) 8m, 4m d) Can‘t be determined Correct Solution (a) Let the length of the rectangle be ‘L’ and breadth be ‘B’ Perimeter= 2(L+B) a/q, Half of perimeter=20m Perimeter= 40m 2(L+B)= 40 L+B= 20 Now, L= B+4 So, L+B= B+4+B=20 2B+4=20 2B=16 B=8 L= B+4= 8+4=12 Incorrect Solution (a) Let the length of the rectangle be ‘L’ and breadth be ‘B’ Perimeter= 2(L+B) a/q, Half of perimeter=20m Perimeter= 40m 2(L+B)= 40 L+B= 20 Now, L= B+4 So, L+B= B+4+B=20 2B+4=20 2B=16 B=8 L= B+4= 8+4=12 window.wpProQuizInitList = window.wpProQuizInitList || []; window.wpProQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpProQuiz_3715', init: { quizId: 3715, mode: 1, globalPoints: 70, timelimit: 1800, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 704, qpp: 0, catPoints: [70], formPos: 0, lbn: "Test-summary", json: {"33736":{"type":"single","id":33736,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33739":{"type":"single","id":33739,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"33742":{"type":"single","id":33742,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33745":{"type":"single","id":33745,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33747":{"type":"single","id":33747,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"33748":{"type":"single","id":33748,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"33751":{"type":"single","id":33751,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33754":{"type":"single","id":33754,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33755":{"type":"single","id":33755,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33756":{"type":"single","id":33756,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"33759":{"type":"single","id":33759,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33761":{"type":"single","id":33761,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33763":{"type":"single","id":33763,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33766":{"type":"single","id":33766,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33769":{"type":"single","id":33769,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"33772":{"type":"single","id":33772,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33774":{"type":"single","id":33774,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33775":{"type":"single","id":33775,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33776":{"type":"single","id":33776,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33777":{"type":"single","id":33777,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"33780":{"type":"single","id":33780,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33781":{"type":"single","id":33781,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33783":{"type":"single","id":33783,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33785":{"type":"single","id":33785,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33786":{"type":"single","id":33786,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"33788":{"type":"single","id":33788,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33790":{"type":"single","id":33790,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33791":{"type":"single","id":33791,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33793":{"type":"single","id":33793,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33795":{"type":"single","id":33795,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33797":{"type":"single","id":33797,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33798":{"type":"single","id":33798,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33800":{"type":"single","id":33800,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"33803":{"type":"single","id":33803,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33806":{"type":"single","id":33806,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]}} } }); All the Best IASbaba

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 7th May 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 6th May 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the TestClick Here

[DAY 55] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 Siddhartha mish 2024/05/06 11:55 AM 18 50 % 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question Consider the following statements about the Troposphere: It is thicker at the equator than at the poles. This is the only layer in which all kinds of weather changes occur. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) The troposphere is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere. Its average height is 13 km and extends roughly to a height of 8 km near the poles and about 18 km at the equator. It is thicker at the equator than at the poles because heat is transported to greater heights by strong convectional currents. Hence statement 1 is correct. The air never remains static in this layer. Therefore this layer is called changing sphere or troposphere. This is the only layer in which all kinds of weather changes occur. This is the most important layer for all biological activity. Hence statement 2 is correct.   Incorrect Solution (c) The troposphere is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere. Its average height is 13 km and extends roughly to a height of 8 km near the poles and about 18 km at the equator. It is thicker at the equator than at the poles because heat is transported to greater heights by strong convectional currents. Hence statement 1 is correct. The air never remains static in this layer. Therefore this layer is called changing sphere or troposphere. This is the only layer in which all kinds of weather changes occur. This is the most important layer for all biological activity. Hence statement 2 is correct.   Question 2 of 35 2. Question Consider the following statements: Homosphere extends up to a height of 90 km from sea level. Heterosphere extends from 90 km to 10,000 km. There is a greater variation in the composition of gases in the homosphere. There is no greater variation in the composition of gases in the heterosphere. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Homosphere Heterosphere Homosphere extends up to a height of 90 km from sea level. Heterosphere extends from 90 km to 10,000 km. There is no greater variation in the composition of gases in the homosphere. There is a greater variation in the composition of gases in the heterosphere.   The homosphere contains a higher proportion of heavier gases such as nitrogen and oxygen. The heterosphere contains a higher proportion of lighter gases such as hydrogen and helium. The gases in the homosphere occur in the form of a homogenous mixture. The gases in the heterosphere occur in the form of layers. The gases in the homosphere show a higher reactivity. The gases in the heterosphere show a lower reactivity. Hence option d is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) Homosphere Heterosphere Homosphere extends up to a height of 90 km from sea level. Heterosphere extends from 90 km to 10,000 km. There is no greater variation in the composition of gases in the homosphere. There is a greater variation in the composition of gases in the heterosphere.   The homosphere contains a higher proportion of heavier gases such as nitrogen and oxygen. The heterosphere contains a higher proportion of lighter gases such as hydrogen and helium. The gases in the homosphere occur in the form of a homogenous mixture. The gases in the heterosphere occur in the form of layers. The gases in the homosphere show a higher reactivity. The gases in the heterosphere show a lower reactivity. Hence option d is correct. Question 3 of 35 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Torrid Zone: It receives the maximum amount of sunlight and is the hottest zone among all the other zones. It includes Mexico, Brazil, Sudan, Egypt, Sahara, Libya, Malawi, Zimbabwe, Namibia, United Arab Emirates, and Oman. It covers almost 60% of Earth’s total surface and has a very rich biodiversity, fauna, and flora. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Torrid zone, also known as the Tropical Zone or the Tropics, refers to that area of Earth that is located near the Equator. On the North of the Torrid Zone, there is the Tropic of Cancer, and towards its south is the Tropic of Capricorn. The Torrid zone receives the maximum amount of Sunlight and, therefore, is the hottest zone among all three zones. Hence statement 1 is correct. This zone includes Mexico, Brazil, Sudan, Egypt, Sahara, Libya, Malawi, Zimbabwe, Namibia, United Arab Emirates, Oman, Southern India, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Maldives, some parts of Australia, etc. Hence statement 2 is correct. The Torrid zone covers almost 40% of Earth’s total surface, has a very rich biodiversity, fauna, and flora, and also consists of 40% of the total world population due to its hospitable and viable climatic conditions for human settlement. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (b) The Torrid zone, also known as the Tropical Zone or the Tropics, refers to that area of Earth that is located near the Equator. On the North of the Torrid Zone, there is the Tropic of Cancer, and towards its south is the Tropic of Capricorn. The Torrid zone receives the maximum amount of Sunlight and, therefore, is the hottest zone among all three zones. Hence statement 1 is correct. This zone includes Mexico, Brazil, Sudan, Egypt, Sahara, Libya, Malawi, Zimbabwe, Namibia, United Arab Emirates, Oman, Southern India, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Maldives, some parts of Australia, etc. Hence statement 2 is correct. The Torrid zone covers almost 40% of Earth’s total surface, has a very rich biodiversity, fauna, and flora, and also consists of 40% of the total world population due to its hospitable and viable climatic conditions for human settlement. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Question 4 of 35 4. Question The Karman Line is located in the: a) Troposphere b) Stratosphere c) Thermosphere d) Mesosphere Correct Solution (c) The Karman line is located in the thermosphere at an altitude of 100 km. It is commonly used to define the boundary between the Earth’s atmosphere and outer space. Hence option c is correct.   Incorrect Solution (c) The Karman line is located in the thermosphere at an altitude of 100 km. It is commonly used to define the boundary between the Earth’s atmosphere and outer space. Hence option c is correct.   Question 5 of 35 5. Question Consider the following statements: If the sun’s rays are vertical, the angle of incidence is small hence, they heat up a small area. If the sun’s rays are oblique, the angle of incidence is large hence, they heat up a large area. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (d) The earth is round so the sun’s rays strike the surface at different angles at different places. The angle formed by the sun’s ray with the tangent of the earth’s surface circle at a point is called the angle of incidence. It has the following influences: If the sun’s rays are vertical, the angle of incidence is large hence, they heat up a small area. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. If the sun’s rays are oblique, the angle of incidence is small hence, they heat up a large area. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The sun’s rays with small angles traverse more of the atmosphere than rays striking at a large angle. Note: The longer the path of the sun’s rays, the greater is the amount of reflection and absorption of heat by the atmosphere. Hence the intensity of insolation at a place is less. Incorrect Solution (d) The earth is round so the sun’s rays strike the surface at different angles at different places. The angle formed by the sun’s ray with the tangent of the earth’s surface circle at a point is called the angle of incidence. It has the following influences: If the sun’s rays are vertical, the angle of incidence is large hence, they heat up a small area. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. If the sun’s rays are oblique, the angle of incidence is small hence, they heat up a large area. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The sun’s rays with small angles traverse more of the atmosphere than rays striking at a large angle. Note: The longer the path of the sun’s rays, the greater is the amount of reflection and absorption of heat by the atmosphere. Hence the intensity of insolation at a place is less. Question 6 of 35 6. Question The variations in the length of day and night from season to season is due to the? a) Latitudinal position of the place b) Revolution of the earth on a tilted axis c) Earth’s rotation on its own axis d) None Correct Solution (b) The variations in the length of day and night from season to season is due to the revolution of the earth on a tilted axis. This results in changes in the intensity of the Sun’s rays falling on a given location over the course of a year, resulting in changes in day and night time. Hence option b is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) The variations in the length of day and night from season to season is due to the revolution of the earth on a tilted axis. This results in changes in the intensity of the Sun’s rays falling on a given location over the course of a year, resulting in changes in day and night time. Hence option b is correct. Question 7 of 35 7. Question Consider the following statements regarding the evolution of the Earth’s atmosphere: The hot interior of the earth contributed to the evolution of the atmosphere. The solar winds haven’t played a significant role in the evolution of the atmosphere. The early atmosphere was mainly composed of hydrogen and helium. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) There are three stages in the evolution of the present-day atmosphere. The first stage is marked by the loss of the primordial atmosphere. In the second stage, the hot interior of the earth contributed to the evolution of the atmosphere. Hence statement 1 is correct. In the third stage, the composition of the atmosphere was modified by the living world through the process of photosynthesis. The solar winds have played a significant role in the evolution of the atmosphere by stripping off the early atmosphere. This has happened in all the terrestrial planets which have lost their primordial atmosphere. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The early atmosphere was mainly composed of hydrogen and helium. The present-day atmosphere is chiefly contributed by nitrogen and oxygen. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) There are three stages in the evolution of the present-day atmosphere. The first stage is marked by the loss of the primordial atmosphere. In the second stage, the hot interior of the earth contributed to the evolution of the atmosphere. Hence statement 1 is correct. In the third stage, the composition of the atmosphere was modified by the living world through the process of photosynthesis. The solar winds have played a significant role in the evolution of the atmosphere by stripping off the early atmosphere. This has happened in all the terrestrial planets which have lost their primordial atmosphere. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The early atmosphere was mainly composed of hydrogen and helium. The present-day atmosphere is chiefly contributed by nitrogen and oxygen. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 8 of 35 8. Question Consider the following statements: The Dry Adiabatic Lapse rate is mainly associated with unstable conditions. The Wet Adiabatic Lapse rate is mainly associated with stable conditions. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (d) The Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate (DALR) is the rate of fall in temperature with altitude for a parcel of dry or unsaturated air rising under adiabatic conditions. Unsaturated air has less than 100% relative humidity. When a rising air parcel has little moisture, condensation during upliftment is low, and the latent heat of condensation released is low [Less additional heat from inside]. As a result, the fall in temperature with height is greater compared to the Adiabatic Lapse Rate (normal parcel of air). The dry adiabatic lapse rate for the Earth’s atmosphere equals 8° C per kilometre. The Dry Adiabatic Lapse rate is mainly associated with stable conditions because it has less moisture. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The Wet Adiabatic Lapse Rate is when an air parcel that is saturated with water vapour rises, some of the vapour will condense and release latent heat. This process causes the parcel to cool more slowly than it would if it were not saturated. The moist adiabatic lapse rate varies considerably because the amount of water vapour in the air is highly variable. The greater the amount of vapour, the smaller the adiabatic lapse rate [because the condensation process keeps on adding more latent heat of condensation]. On average, it is taken as 4° C per kilometre. Wet Adiabatic Lapse rate is mainly associated with unstable conditions because it has more moisture. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. As an air parcel rises and cools, it may eventually lose its moisture through condensation; its lapse rate then increases and approaches the dry adiabatic value. Note: Saturated air cannot hold any more moisture. Unsaturated air can accommodate some more moisture.   Incorrect Solution (d) The Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate (DALR) is the rate of fall in temperature with altitude for a parcel of dry or unsaturated air rising under adiabatic conditions. Unsaturated air has less than 100% relative humidity. When a rising air parcel has little moisture, condensation during upliftment is low, and the latent heat of condensation released is low [Less additional heat from inside]. As a result, the fall in temperature with height is greater compared to the Adiabatic Lapse Rate (normal parcel of air). The dry adiabatic lapse rate for the Earth’s atmosphere equals 8° C per kilometre. The Dry Adiabatic Lapse rate is mainly associated with stable conditions because it has less moisture. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The Wet Adiabatic Lapse Rate is when an air parcel that is saturated with water vapour rises, some of the vapour will condense and release latent heat. This process causes the parcel to cool more slowly than it would if it were not saturated. The moist adiabatic lapse rate varies considerably because the amount of water vapour in the air is highly variable. The greater the amount of vapour, the smaller the adiabatic lapse rate [because the condensation process keeps on adding more latent heat of condensation]. On average, it is taken as 4° C per kilometre. Wet Adiabatic Lapse rate is mainly associated with unstable conditions because it has more moisture. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. As an air parcel rises and cools, it may eventually lose its moisture through condensation; its lapse rate then increases and approaches the dry adiabatic value. Note: Saturated air cannot hold any more moisture. Unsaturated air can accommodate some more moisture.   Question 9 of 35 9. Question Which of the following factors affect the Pattern of Planetary Winds? The Rotation of the Earth The Emergence of Pressure Belts The Latitudinal Variation of Atmospheric Heating The Distribution of Continents and Oceans Choose the correct code: a) 2, 3 and 4 b) 1, 3 and 4 c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution (d) The pattern of the movement of the planetary winds is called the general circulation of the atmosphere. It also sets influences the ocean water circulation which influences the earth’s climate. The factors that affect the Pattern of Planetary Winds: The Rotation of the Earth The Emergence of Pressure Belts The Latitudinal Variation of Atmospheric Heating The Distribution of Continents and Oceans The Migration of Belts Following the apparent path of the Sun Hence option d is correct. Incorrect Solution (d) The pattern of the movement of the planetary winds is called the general circulation of the atmosphere. It also sets influences the ocean water circulation which influences the earth’s climate. The factors that affect the Pattern of Planetary Winds: The Rotation of the Earth The Emergence of Pressure Belts The Latitudinal Variation of Atmospheric Heating The Distribution of Continents and Oceans The Migration of Belts Following the apparent path of the Sun Hence option d is correct. Question 10 of 35 10. Question Consider the following statements: Water vapour does not play a major role in atmospheric thermodynamics. The amount of water vapour is measured by an instrument called Hygrometer. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Water vapour is crucial to the thermal radiation balance and the hydrological cycle. It is a key component in atmospheric thermodynamics because it transfers latent heat, and contributes to absorption and emission in a range of groups. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It condenses into clouds that reflect and absorb solar radiation, affecting the energy balance directly. The amount of water vapour is measured by an instrument called Hygrometer. Hence statement 2 is correct.   Note: Water vapour in the air varies from zero to four per cent by volume of the atmosphere (averaging around 2% in the atmosphere).   Incorrect Solution (b) Water vapour is crucial to the thermal radiation balance and the hydrological cycle. It is a key component in atmospheric thermodynamics because it transfers latent heat, and contributes to absorption and emission in a range of groups. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It condenses into clouds that reflect and absorb solar radiation, affecting the energy balance directly. The amount of water vapour is measured by an instrument called Hygrometer. Hence statement 2 is correct.   Note: Water vapour in the air varies from zero to four per cent by volume of the atmosphere (averaging around 2% in the atmosphere).   Question 11 of 35 11. Question Consider the following statements: Evaporation is a process by which water is converted from liquid to gas. The latent heat of vaporization is called the temperature at which the water starts to evaporate. The greater the motion of the air, the lesser the evaporation. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Evaporation is a process by which water is converted from liquid to gas. Hence statement 1 is correct. Temperature is the main cause of evaporation. The latent heat of vaporization is called the temperature at which the water starts to evaporate. Hence statement 2 is correct. The rise in temperature increases the absorption of water and the concentration of air in the parcel. Air movement replaces an unsaturated layer with a saturated layer. The greater the motion of the air, the greater the evaporation. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (b) Evaporation is a process by which water is converted from liquid to gas. Hence statement 1 is correct. Temperature is the main cause of evaporation. The latent heat of vaporization is called the temperature at which the water starts to evaporate. Hence statement 2 is correct. The rise in temperature increases the absorption of water and the concentration of air in the parcel. Air movement replaces an unsaturated layer with a saturated layer. The greater the motion of the air, the greater the evaporation. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Question 12 of 35 12. Question Consider the following statements regarding Frost: It forms only on warm surfaces when condensation takes place below the freezing point. In this, the excess moisture is deposited in the form of minute ice crystals. The air temperature must be at or below the freezing point to form frost. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) It forms on cold surfaces when condensation takes place below the freezing point (0° C), i.e. the dew point is at or below the freezing point. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The excess moisture is deposited in the form of minute ice crystals instead of water droplets. Hence statement 2 is correct. The air temperature must be at or below the freezing point to form frost. Hence statement 3 is correct. The other conditions for its formation are a clear sky, calm air, high relative humidity, and cold and long nights. Incorrect Solution (b) It forms on cold surfaces when condensation takes place below the freezing point (0° C), i.e. the dew point is at or below the freezing point. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The excess moisture is deposited in the form of minute ice crystals instead of water droplets. Hence statement 2 is correct. The air temperature must be at or below the freezing point to form frost. Hence statement 3 is correct. The other conditions for its formation are a clear sky, calm air, high relative humidity, and cold and long nights. Question 13 of 35 13. Question Consider the following statements: Fog is defined as the thick layer of cloud composed of small droplets of water suspended in the air. Mist is defined as the layer of cloud that is created due to volcanic activities. The density of mist is always thick as compared to fog. Fog last for a longer period while mist lasts for a shorter period. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) Fog is defined as the thick layer of cloud, that appears at the surface level and is a composition of small droplets of water suspended in the air. Hence statement 1 is correct. Mist is defined as the layer of cloud, that is created due to volcanic activities, and changes in the level of temperature and humidity. Hence statement 2 is correct. The density of fog is always thick as compared to mist. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Fog last for a longer period while mist lasts for a shorter period. Hence statement 4 is correct. Fog is visible for less than one kilometre. Mist is visible between one to two kilometres.   Incorrect Solution (c) Fog is defined as the thick layer of cloud, that appears at the surface level and is a composition of small droplets of water suspended in the air. Hence statement 1 is correct. Mist is defined as the layer of cloud, that is created due to volcanic activities, and changes in the level of temperature and humidity. Hence statement 2 is correct. The density of fog is always thick as compared to mist. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Fog last for a longer period while mist lasts for a shorter period. Hence statement 4 is correct. Fog is visible for less than one kilometre. Mist is visible between one to two kilometres.   Question 14 of 35 14. Question Consider the following statements about Lightning: It is a very rapid and massive discharge of electricity into the atmosphere. It is a result of the difference in electrical charge between the top and bottom of a cloud. The lightning-generating clouds base about 100-200 km from the Earth’s surface. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Lightning is a very rapid and massive discharge of electricity into the atmosphere. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is the process of occurrence of a natural electrical discharge of very short duration and high voltage between a cloud and the ground or within a cloud, accompanied by a bright flash and sound, and sometimes thunderstorms. It is a result of the difference in electrical charge between the top and bottom of a cloud. Hence statement 2 is correct. The lightning-generating clouds are typically about 10-12 km in height, with their base about 1-2 km from the Earth’s surface. The temperatures at the top range from -35°C to -45°C. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Note: Intercloud or intra-cloud (IC) lightning is visible and harmless. Cloud-to-ground (CG) lightning is harmful as the ‘high electric voltage and electric current’ leads to electrocution. Incorrect Solution (b) Lightning is a very rapid and massive discharge of electricity into the atmosphere. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is the process of occurrence of a natural electrical discharge of very short duration and high voltage between a cloud and the ground or within a cloud, accompanied by a bright flash and sound, and sometimes thunderstorms. It is a result of the difference in electrical charge between the top and bottom of a cloud. Hence statement 2 is correct. The lightning-generating clouds are typically about 10-12 km in height, with their base about 1-2 km from the Earth’s surface. The temperatures at the top range from -35°C to -45°C. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Note: Intercloud or intra-cloud (IC) lightning is visible and harmless. Cloud-to-ground (CG) lightning is harmful as the ‘high electric voltage and electric current’ leads to electrocution. Question 15 of 35 15. Question Which of the following conditions leads to Hailstorm formation? Highly developed cumulonimbus clouds Strong air currents descending through these clouds Clouds with high concentrations of supercooled liquid water How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Hail is a type of solid rain made up of balls or lumps of ice. Storms that produce hail which reaches the ground are known as hailstorms. The conditions that lead to Hailstorms: Highly developed Cumulonimbus clouds need to be present. These are the massive anvil or mushroom-shaped clouds that are seen during thunderstorms which can reach heights up to 65,000 feet. Hence statement 1 is correct. There must be strong currents of air ascending through these clouds. These currents are commonly known as updrafts. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The clouds will need to contain high concentrations of supercooled liquid water. Hence statement 3 is correct.   Incorrect Solution (b) Hail is a type of solid rain made up of balls or lumps of ice. Storms that produce hail which reaches the ground are known as hailstorms. The conditions that lead to Hailstorms: Highly developed Cumulonimbus clouds need to be present. These are the massive anvil or mushroom-shaped clouds that are seen during thunderstorms which can reach heights up to 65,000 feet. Hence statement 1 is correct. There must be strong currents of air ascending through these clouds. These currents are commonly known as updrafts. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The clouds will need to contain high concentrations of supercooled liquid water. Hence statement 3 is correct.   Question 16 of 35 16. Question Consider the following statements: The fairweather waterspout is formed along the dark flat base of the embryonic column of the cloud. The tornadic waterspout is formed when air moves across the steam that comes from the extremely cold water. The winter waterspout is formed over water or moves from land to water. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) The fairweather waterspout is generally formed along the dark flat base of the embryonic column of the cloud. It is not so intense because it develops on the surface of the water and moves upwards. Hence statement 1 is correct. The tornadic waterspout is formed over water or moves from land to water. It is very intense because it is accompanied by high winds and seas, large hail, and frequent dangerous lightning. It is associated with thunderstorms. It forms as a vertical shape of a coiled column of mist and air from severe thunderstorm clouds to a water body. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The winter waterspout is formed when air moves across the steam that comes from the extremely cold water. It is also known as a snow devil, an ice spout, an ice devil, a snownado, or a snowspout. This type of waterspout formation is very rare, especially under the base of a snow squall. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (a) The fairweather waterspout is generally formed along the dark flat base of the embryonic column of the cloud. It is not so intense because it develops on the surface of the water and moves upwards. Hence statement 1 is correct. The tornadic waterspout is formed over water or moves from land to water. It is very intense because it is accompanied by high winds and seas, large hail, and frequent dangerous lightning. It is associated with thunderstorms. It forms as a vertical shape of a coiled column of mist and air from severe thunderstorm clouds to a water body. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The winter waterspout is formed when air moves across the steam that comes from the extremely cold water. It is also known as a snow devil, an ice spout, an ice devil, a snownado, or a snowspout. This type of waterspout formation is very rare, especially under the base of a snow squall. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Question 17 of 35 17. Question Consider the following statements about Squall: It is the downward movement and divergence of cold air at the ground surface. It is produced after the thunderstorm becomes mature and heavy precipitation occurs. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Squall is the downward movement and divergence of cold air at the ground surface. Hence statement 1 is correct. The velocity of squalls is equal to and sometimes greater than hurricane velocity and hence they inflict great damage to human structures and vegetation. It is produced after the thunderstorm becomes mature and heavy precipitation occurs. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) Squall is the downward movement and divergence of cold air at the ground surface. Hence statement 1 is correct. The velocity of squalls is equal to and sometimes greater than hurricane velocity and hence they inflict great damage to human structures and vegetation. It is produced after the thunderstorm becomes mature and heavy precipitation occurs. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 18 of 35 18. Question Consider the following statements: The dust particles in the atmosphere cannot be transported to greater heights due to convectional air currents. The higher concentration of dust particles is found in the sub-tropical and temperate regions. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) The dust particles in the atmosphere can be transported to greater heights due to convectional air currents. In general, the dust particles are mainly concentrated in the lower layers of the atmosphere. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The higher concentration of dust particles is found in the sub-tropical and temperate regions. It is because this region has dry winds when compared to equatorial and polar regions. Hence statement 2 is correct. Note: Dust and salt particles act as hygroscopic nuclei around which water vapour condenses to produce clouds.   Incorrect Solution (b) The dust particles in the atmosphere can be transported to greater heights due to convectional air currents. In general, the dust particles are mainly concentrated in the lower layers of the atmosphere. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The higher concentration of dust particles is found in the sub-tropical and temperate regions. It is because this region has dry winds when compared to equatorial and polar regions. Hence statement 2 is correct. Note: Dust and salt particles act as hygroscopic nuclei around which water vapour condenses to produce clouds.   Question 19 of 35 19. Question Consider the following statements about Westerlies: They blow from subtropical high-pressure belts to subpolar low-pressure belts. They blow from the northwest to the southeast in the northern hemisphere. The westerlies in the southern hemisphere are stronger than the northern hemisphere. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Westerlies are winds that move from subtropical high-pressure belts to subpolar low-pressure belts. Hence statement 1 is correct. They blow from the southwest to the northeast in the northern hemisphere, and from the northwest to the southeast in the southern hemisphere. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The westerlies in the southern hemisphere are stronger and more persistent due to the great expanse of the ocean, but those in the northern hemisphere are irregular due to uneven relief of vast landmasses. Hence statement 3 is correct.   Incorrect Solution (b) The Westerlies are winds that move from subtropical high-pressure belts to subpolar low-pressure belts. Hence statement 1 is correct. They blow from the southwest to the northeast in the northern hemisphere, and from the northwest to the southeast in the southern hemisphere. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The westerlies in the southern hemisphere are stronger and more persistent due to the great expanse of the ocean, but those in the northern hemisphere are irregular due to uneven relief of vast landmasses. Hence statement 3 is correct.   Question 20 of 35 20. Question Consider the following statements about Types of Thunderstorms: Convectional Thunderstorms are caused by the intense heating of the ground during summer. Frontal Thunderstorms are caused at cold fronts by the movements of air masses. Orographic Thunderstorms are caused when warm moist air parcels are forced uplifted as they travel over a mountain barrier. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Convectional Thunderstorms are caused by the intense heating of the ground during summer. It is also known as a thermal thunderstorm. Hence statement 1 is correct. Frontal Thunderstorms are caused at cold fronts by the movements of air masses. The colder, denser air pushes beneath the warm front’s warmer air, raising it. Thermal thunderstorms cover a bigger region, whereas frontal thunderstorms are less intense. Hence statement 2 is correct. Orographic Thunderstorms are caused when warm moist air parcels are forced uplifted as they travel over a mountain barrier, bringing heavy precipitation on the windward side. It is associated with Cumulonimbus Clouds. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) Convectional Thunderstorms are caused by the intense heating of the ground during summer. It is also known as a thermal thunderstorm. Hence statement 1 is correct. Frontal Thunderstorms are caused at cold fronts by the movements of air masses. The colder, denser air pushes beneath the warm front’s warmer air, raising it. Thermal thunderstorms cover a bigger region, whereas frontal thunderstorms are less intense. Hence statement 2 is correct. Orographic Thunderstorms are caused when warm moist air parcels are forced uplifted as they travel over a mountain barrier, bringing heavy precipitation on the windward side. It is associated with Cumulonimbus Clouds. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 21 of 35 21. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) It exercises jurisdiction only in relation to the service matters of the parties covered by the Administrative Tribunals Act 1985. It adjudicates disputes and complaints with respect to the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services. The conditions of service of the chairman and members of CAT are the same as applicable to a Judge of the High Court. The salaries, allowances, and conditions of service of the officers and other employees of the Tribunal are specified by the Central Government. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) exercises jurisdiction only in relation to the service matters of the parties covered by the Administrative Tribunals Act 1985. Hence statement 1 is correct. It had been established under Article 323-A of the Constitution. It adjudicates disputes and complaints with respect to the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services. Hence statement 2 is correct. In addition to the Ministries and Departments of Central Government, the Government has notified about 214 organizations under Section 14(2) of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, to bring them within the jurisdiction of the CAT from time to time. A bench consists of one Judicial Member and one Administrative Member. The conditions of service of the chairman and members of CAT are the same as applicable to a Judge of the High Court. Hence statement 3 is correct. The Tribunal is guided by the principles of natural justice in deciding cases and is not bound by the procedure prescribed by the Civil Procedure Code. CAT is empowered to frame its own rules of procedure and practice. It has been conferred with the power to exercise the same jurisdiction and authority in respect of contempt of itself as a High Court. The salaries, allowances, and conditions of service of the officers and other employees of the Tribunal are specified by the Central Government. Hence statement 4 is correct. Incorrect Solution (d) The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) exercises jurisdiction only in relation to the service matters of the parties covered by the Administrative Tribunals Act 1985. Hence statement 1 is correct. It had been established under Article 323-A of the Constitution. It adjudicates disputes and complaints with respect to the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services. Hence statement 2 is correct. In addition to the Ministries and Departments of Central Government, the Government has notified about 214 organizations under Section 14(2) of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, to bring them within the jurisdiction of the CAT from time to time. A bench consists of one Judicial Member and one Administrative Member. The conditions of service of the chairman and members of CAT are the same as applicable to a Judge of the High Court. Hence statement 3 is correct. The Tribunal is guided by the principles of natural justice in deciding cases and is not bound by the procedure prescribed by the Civil Procedure Code. CAT is empowered to frame its own rules of procedure and practice. It has been conferred with the power to exercise the same jurisdiction and authority in respect of contempt of itself as a High Court. The salaries, allowances, and conditions of service of the officers and other employees of the Tribunal are specified by the Central Government. Hence statement 4 is correct. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Red Sea It is bordered by Saudi Arabia to the north and west and by Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti to the west. Its northern portion is bifurcated by the Sinai Peninsula into the Gulf of Aqaba and the Gulf of Suez. It is connected to the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean to the south through the Gulf of Aden and Strait of Bab El-Mandeb. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Red Sea is bordered by Egypt to the north and west and by Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti to the west. It is bordered by Yemen and Saudi Arabia to the east. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is a semi-enclosed inlet (or extension) of the Indian Ocean between the continents of Africa and Asia. Its northern portion is bifurcated by the Sinai Peninsula into the Gulf of Aqaba and the Gulf of Suez. Hence statement 2 is correct. Some well-known islands include Tiran Island, which is located near the mouth of the Gulf of Aqaba, and Shadwan Island, which is located at the entrance of the Gulf of Suez. With its connection to the Mediterranean Sea via the Suez Canal, it is one of the most heavily travelled waterways in the world, carrying maritime traffic between Europe and Asia. It is connected to the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean to the south through the Gulf of Aden and Strait of Bab El-Mandeb. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) The Red Sea is bordered by Egypt to the north and west and by Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti to the west. It is bordered by Yemen and Saudi Arabia to the east. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is a semi-enclosed inlet (or extension) of the Indian Ocean between the continents of Africa and Asia. Its northern portion is bifurcated by the Sinai Peninsula into the Gulf of Aqaba and the Gulf of Suez. Hence statement 2 is correct. Some well-known islands include Tiran Island, which is located near the mouth of the Gulf of Aqaba, and Shadwan Island, which is located at the entrance of the Gulf of Suez. With its connection to the Mediterranean Sea via the Suez Canal, it is one of the most heavily travelled waterways in the world, carrying maritime traffic between Europe and Asia. It is connected to the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean to the south through the Gulf of Aden and Strait of Bab El-Mandeb. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 23 of 35 23. Question Consider the following statements regarding Caracal It is primarily a nocturnal animal. It is found in Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Madhya Pradesh. It lives in tropical wet evergreen forests. It is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) Caracal is primarily a nocturnal animal. Hence statement 1 is correct. In India, it is called siya gosh, a Persian name that translates as ‘black ear’. They typically use abandoned porcupine burrows and rock crevices for maternal dens but can be found with their young in dense vegetation. It is found in Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Madhya Pradesh, the Malwa Plateau, the Aravalli hill range, and the Bundelkhand region. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is found in Africa, the Middle East, and Central and South Asia. It lives in woodlands, savannahs, and in scrub forests. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Large-scale hunting, illegal trading, and loss of natural habitats are considered significant threats to the species. It is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Hence statement 4 is correct.   Incorrect Solution (c) Caracal is primarily a nocturnal animal. Hence statement 1 is correct. In India, it is called siya gosh, a Persian name that translates as ‘black ear’. They typically use abandoned porcupine burrows and rock crevices for maternal dens but can be found with their young in dense vegetation. It is found in Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Madhya Pradesh, the Malwa Plateau, the Aravalli hill range, and the Bundelkhand region. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is found in Africa, the Middle East, and Central and South Asia. It lives in woodlands, savannahs, and in scrub forests. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Large-scale hunting, illegal trading, and loss of natural habitats are considered significant threats to the species. It is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Hence statement 4 is correct.   Question 24 of 35 24. Question Which of the following reports are published by the International Energy Agency? World Energy Outlook World Energy Investment Report India Energy Outlook Report Coal Market Report Choose the correct code: a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) Reports published by the International Energy Agency (IEA): World Energy Outlook World Energy Investment Report India Energy Outlook Report Coal Market Report Hence option d is correct. Note: IEA is an autonomous inter-governmental organisation within the OECD framework. It works with governments and industry to shape a secure and sustainable energy future for all. It was founded in 1974 to ensure the security of oil supplies. Clean Energy Transitions Programme is the IEA’s flagship initiativelaunched in 2017 to accelerate progress toward a global net-zero energy system. It leverages the insights and influence of the world’s leading energy authority to accelerate clean energy transitions, particularly in emerging and developing economies. Incorrect Solution (d) Reports published by the International Energy Agency (IEA): World Energy Outlook World Energy Investment Report India Energy Outlook Report Coal Market Report Hence option d is correct. Note: IEA is an autonomous inter-governmental organisation within the OECD framework. It works with governments and industry to shape a secure and sustainable energy future for all. It was founded in 1974 to ensure the security of oil supplies. Clean Energy Transitions Programme is the IEA’s flagship initiativelaunched in 2017 to accelerate progress toward a global net-zero energy system. It leverages the insights and influence of the world’s leading energy authority to accelerate clean energy transitions, particularly in emerging and developing economies. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements regarding SCORES  It is a web-based centralized grievance redress system of the Reserve Bank of India. It enables investors to lodge and follow up on their complaints and track the status of redressal of such complaints online from anywhere. It enables market intermediaries and listed companies to receive complaints online from investors. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) SEBI Complaint Redress System (SCORES) is a web-based centralized grievance redress system of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It enables investors to lodge and follow up on their complaints and track the status of redressal of such complaints online from anywhere. Hence statement 2 is correct. An investor who is not familiar with SCORES or does not have access to SCORES can lodge complaints in physical form at any of the offices of SEBI. Such complaints would be scanned and also uploaded in SCORES for processing. It enables market intermediaries and listed companies to receive complaints online from investors. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) SEBI Complaint Redress System (SCORES) is a web-based centralized grievance redress system of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It enables investors to lodge and follow up on their complaints and track the status of redressal of such complaints online from anywhere. Hence statement 2 is correct. An investor who is not familiar with SCORES or does not have access to SCORES can lodge complaints in physical form at any of the offices of SEBI. Such complaints would be scanned and also uploaded in SCORES for processing. It enables market intermediaries and listed companies to receive complaints online from investors. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 26 of 35 26. Question Consider the following statements regarding Organic Electrochemical Transistors They have low power consumption, high driving voltages, and a limited structure. They can be used to create biosensors, wearable devices, and neuromorphic systems. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Organic Electrochemical Transistors are an emerging class of transistors based on organic superconducting materialsknown for their ability to modulate electrical current in response to small changes in the voltage applied to their gate electrode. It is a device capable of simultaneously controlling the flow of electronic and ionic currents. They have promising amplification and sensing capabilities, low power consumption, low driving voltages, and a versatile structure. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. They can be used to create biosensors, wearable devices, and neuromorphic systems. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) Organic Electrochemical Transistors are an emerging class of transistors based on organic superconducting materialsknown for their ability to modulate electrical current in response to small changes in the voltage applied to their gate electrode. It is a device capable of simultaneously controlling the flow of electronic and ionic currents. They have promising amplification and sensing capabilities, low power consumption, low driving voltages, and a versatile structure. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. They can be used to create biosensors, wearable devices, and neuromorphic systems. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements regarding Zero FIR It was introduced on the recommendation of the Justice Verma Committee. It refers to a First Investigation Report (FIR) that is registered irrespective of the area where the offense is committed. The police in such a case can no longer claim that they have no jurisdiction. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Zero FIR was introduced on the recommendation of the Justice Verma Committee. Hence statement 1 is correct. It was formed at the backdrop of the brutal Nirbhaya gang rape in Delhi in 2012. It refers to a First Investigation Report (FIR) that is registered irrespective of the area where the offense is committed. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is later transferred to the police station that has the actual jurisdiction so that the investigation can begin. The police in such a case can no longer claim that they have no jurisdiction. Hence statement 3 is correct. This puts a legal obligation on the police to begin an investigation and take quick action without the excuse of the absence of jurisdiction. It aims to ensure the victim doesn’t have to run from pillar to post to get a police complaint registered. The provision is meant to provide speedy redressal to the victim so that timely action can be taken after the filing of the FIR. Incorrect Solution (c) Zero FIR was introduced on the recommendation of the Justice Verma Committee. Hence statement 1 is correct. It was formed at the backdrop of the brutal Nirbhaya gang rape in Delhi in 2012. It refers to a First Investigation Report (FIR) that is registered irrespective of the area where the offense is committed. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is later transferred to the police station that has the actual jurisdiction so that the investigation can begin. The police in such a case can no longer claim that they have no jurisdiction. Hence statement 3 is correct. This puts a legal obligation on the police to begin an investigation and take quick action without the excuse of the absence of jurisdiction. It aims to ensure the victim doesn’t have to run from pillar to post to get a police complaint registered. The provision is meant to provide speedy redressal to the victim so that timely action can be taken after the filing of the FIR. Question 28 of 35 28. Question Consider the following statements regarding Lalit Kala Akademi It is registered under the Societies Registration Act of 1860. It has preserved and documented a permanent collection of contemporary, modern, folk, and tribal art in India. It is funded by the Ministry of Culture. It organizes the National Exhibition of Art every year. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (d) Lalit Kala Akademi is registered under the Societies Registration Act of 1860. Hence statement 1 is correct. It was inaugurated on 5th August 1954 by the then Minister for Education, Maulana Abul Kalam Azad. It is India’s national academy of fine arts established by the Government of India to promote and propagate understanding of Indian art, in and outside the country. It has preserved and documented a permanent collection of contemporary, modern, folk, and tribal art in India. Hence statement 2 is correct. It promotes the Visual Art of India in various countries of the world through Cultural Agreements and Cultural Exchange Programmes. It is funded by the Ministry of Culture. Hence statement 3 is correct. It has regional centres situated at Chennai, Lucknow, Kolkata, Bhubaneswar, and Garhi. It is headquartered in New Delhi. It organizes the National Exhibition of Art every year. Hence statement 4 is correct. Incorrect Solution (d) Lalit Kala Akademi is registered under the Societies Registration Act of 1860. Hence statement 1 is correct. It was inaugurated on 5th August 1954 by the then Minister for Education, Maulana Abul Kalam Azad. It is India’s national academy of fine arts established by the Government of India to promote and propagate understanding of Indian art, in and outside the country. It has preserved and documented a permanent collection of contemporary, modern, folk, and tribal art in India. Hence statement 2 is correct. It promotes the Visual Art of India in various countries of the world through Cultural Agreements and Cultural Exchange Programmes. It is funded by the Ministry of Culture. Hence statement 3 is correct. It has regional centres situated at Chennai, Lucknow, Kolkata, Bhubaneswar, and Garhi. It is headquartered in New Delhi. It organizes the National Exhibition of Art every year. Hence statement 4 is correct. Question 29 of 35 29. Question Recently, in the news, Punnett Square is related to a) Cyber Security b) Genetic Engineering c) Space Technology d) None Correct Solution (b) Punnett Square is related to Genetic Engineering. The Punnett Square is named after British geneticist Reginald Punnett. Punnett Squares are commonly used in biology to understand inheritance patterns, like when you learn about dominant and recessive genes in school. It is a useful tool that helps predict the variations and probabilities resulting from cross-breeding. It can also be used to understand the genetic traits in the offspring of animals, including humans. Hence option b is correct.   Incorrect Solution (b) Punnett Square is related to Genetic Engineering. The Punnett Square is named after British geneticist Reginald Punnett. Punnett Squares are commonly used in biology to understand inheritance patterns, like when you learn about dominant and recessive genes in school. It is a useful tool that helps predict the variations and probabilities resulting from cross-breeding. It can also be used to understand the genetic traits in the offspring of animals, including humans. Hence option b is correct.   Question 30 of 35 30. Question Consider the following pairs Moon Planet 1.     Callisto Jupiter 2.     Phobos Mars 3.     Miranda Saturn 4.     Enceladus Uranus How many given pairs are correctly matched? a) One pair b) Two pairs c) Three pairs d) Four pairs Correct Solution (b) Moon Planet 1.     Callisto Jupiter 2.     Phobos Mars 3.     Miranda Uranus 4.     Enceladus Saturn Hence option b is correct. Moons of Jupiter: Ganymede, Europa, and Lo. Moons of Mars:  Deimos Moons of Saturn: Titan, Hyperion, Prometheus, Pandora, Mimas, and Telesto. Moons of Uranus: Ariel, Umbriel, and Titania. Moons of Neptune: Despina, Halimede, Larissa, and Proteus. Incorrect Solution (b) Moon Planet 1.     Callisto Jupiter 2.     Phobos Mars 3.     Miranda Uranus 4.     Enceladus Saturn Hence option b is correct. Moons of Jupiter: Ganymede, Europa, and Lo. Moons of Mars:  Deimos Moons of Saturn: Titan, Hyperion, Prometheus, Pandora, Mimas, and Telesto. Moons of Uranus: Ariel, Umbriel, and Titania. Moons of Neptune: Despina, Halimede, Larissa, and Proteus. Question 31 of 35 31. Question How many times are the hands of a clock at right angle in a day? a) 22 b) 24 c) 44 d) 48 Correct Solution (c) In 12 hours, they are at right angles 22 times. ∴ In 24 hours, they are at right angles 44 times. Incorrect Solution (c) In 12 hours, they are at right angles 22 times. ∴ In 24 hours, they are at right angles 44 times. Question 32 of 35 32. Question Rahul wants to go to railway station and then return to his home on the same day. He has to change the bus at city-bus terminal between his home and railway station. There are five buses available from his home to city-bus terminal and four buses are available from city-bus terminal to railway station. If Rahul does not want to use a bus more than once, in how many ways can he make the round trip? a) 100 b) 144 c) 120 d) 240 Correct Solution (d) Number of ways he can go to railway station from his home = 5 × 4 = 20 On returning, if he doesn’t take the same bus then, Number of buses from railway station to city-bus terminal = 3 buses Number of buses from city-bus terminal to his home = 4 buses Number of ways he can go to his home from railway station = 3 × 4 = 12 For round trip, number of ways = 20 × 12 = 240 Incorrect Solution (d) Number of ways he can go to railway station from his home = 5 × 4 = 20 On returning, if he doesn’t take the same bus then, Number of buses from railway station to city-bus terminal = 3 buses Number of buses from city-bus terminal to his home = 4 buses Number of ways he can go to his home from railway station = 3 × 4 = 12 For round trip, number of ways = 20 × 12 = 240 Question 33 of 35 33. Question A pizza vendor sells a large pizza for Rs. 120 and small pizza for Rs. 85. In a day, he sells total 190 pizzas and earns Rs. 18,775. How many small pizzas does he sell that day? a) 115 b) 120 c) 105 d) 110 Correct Solution (a) Let the number of small pizzas be x and number of large pizzas be y. ∴ x + y = 190 … (i) Also: 85x + 120y = 18775 … (ii) Solving (i) and (ii): y = 75 and x = 115 Hence, he sells 115 small pizzas. Hence, option a. Incorrect Solution (a) Let the number of small pizzas be x and number of large pizzas be y. ∴ x + y = 190 … (i) Also: 85x + 120y = 18775 … (ii) Solving (i) and (ii): y = 75 and x = 115 Hence, he sells 115 small pizzas. Hence, option a. Question 34 of 35 34. Question A watch, which loses time uniformly, was observed to be 5 minutes fast at 8.00 p.m. on Thursday. It was noticed to be 7 minutes slow at 8.00 a.m. on the subsequent Monday. When did the watch show the correct time?   a) 7 a.m. Saturday b) 7 a.m. on Friday c) 10 a.m. on Sunday d) 11 a.m. on Friday Correct Solution (a) The number of hours from 8:00 p.m. on Thursday to 8:00 a.m. on Monday = 84 hours. In 84 hours, the clock gained 12 minutes. But to show the correct time, the clock has to gain 5 minutes. :. 5/12 *84 = 35 hours. 35 hours from 8:00 p.m. on Thursday is 7:00 a.m. on Saturday. Incorrect Solution (a) The number of hours from 8:00 p.m. on Thursday to 8:00 a.m. on Monday = 84 hours. In 84 hours, the clock gained 12 minutes. But to show the correct time, the clock has to gain 5 minutes. :. 5/12 *84 = 35 hours. 35 hours from 8:00 p.m. on Thursday is 7:00 a.m. on Saturday. Question 35 of 35 35. Question The cost of a half ticket for a fun-fair was Rs. 15 and the cost of a full ticket was Rs. 25. If 500 people visited the fun-fair on a certain day and the total revenue earned by selling only tickets was Rs. 10200, how many half tickets were sold that day? a) 230 b) 250 c) 260 d) 220 Correct Solution (a) Let the number of half tickets sold be x and no. of full tickets sold be y. ∴ x + y = 500 … (i) and 15x + 25y = 10200 … (ii) Solving (i) and (ii), we get x = 230 and y = 270 Hence, 230 half-tickets were sold. Incorrect Solution (a) Let the number of half tickets sold be x and no. of full tickets sold be y. ∴ x + y = 500 … (i) and 15x + 25y = 10200 … (ii) Solving (i) and (ii), we get x = 230 and y = 270 Hence, 230 half-tickets were sold. window.wpProQuizInitList = window.wpProQuizInitList || []; window.wpProQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpProQuiz_3710', init: { quizId: 3710, mode: 1, globalPoints: 70, timelimit: 1800, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 704, qpp: 0, catPoints: [70], formPos: 0, lbn: "Test-summary", json: {"33642":{"type":"single","id":33642,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33644":{"type":"single","id":33644,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33646":{"type":"single","id":33646,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33649":{"type":"single","id":33649,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33650":{"type":"single","id":33650,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33653":{"type":"single","id":33653,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33655":{"type":"single","id":33655,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33657":{"type":"single","id":33657,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33658":{"type":"single","id":33658,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33661":{"type":"single","id":33661,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33663":{"type":"single","id":33663,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33664":{"type":"single","id":33664,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33666":{"type":"single","id":33666,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33668":{"type":"single","id":33668,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33671":{"type":"single","id":33671,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33674":{"type":"single","id":33674,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"33677":{"type":"single","id":33677,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33678":{"type":"single","id":33678,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33680":{"type":"single","id":33680,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33683":{"type":"single","id":33683,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33684":{"type":"single","id":33684,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33685":{"type":"single","id":33685,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33686":{"type":"single","id":33686,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33689":{"type":"single","id":33689,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33691":{"type":"single","id":33691,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33692":{"type":"single","id":33692,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33695":{"type":"single","id":33695,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33696":{"type":"single","id":33696,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33697":{"type":"single","id":33697,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33700":{"type":"single","id":33700,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33701":{"type":"single","id":33701,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33704":{"type":"single","id":33704,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33705":{"type":"single","id":33705,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"33707":{"type":"single","id":33707,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"33710":{"type":"single","id":33710,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]}} } }); All the Best IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –4th May 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   El Nino, anti-cyclone systems: Why large parts of India experienced heatwaves in April Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Geography Context: April has been abnormally hot. In the first 26 days of the month, either a small pocket or a considerably large geographical area in India experienced heatwave conditions, according to the India Meteorological Department (IMD). Background:- Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) reports and analysis of weather models clearly indicate that heatwaves in India shall no longer remain contained over only those regions traditionally believed to be prone. Newer areas, especially from the southern peninsular India,  are already experiencing heatwaves. Which areas in India are prone to heatwaves? The Core Heatwave Zone (CHZ) spanning central, north, and peninsular India between Gujarat and West Bengal is prone to heatwave conditions every year, during the summer season March to June and occasionally in July. Rajasthan, Punjab, Haryana, Chandigarh, Delhi, West Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Vidarbha in Maharashtra, parts of Gangetic West Bengal, coastal Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana are the most heatwave-prone states or regions. When does IMD declare a heatwave? IMD declares a heatwave when the normal maximum temperature recorded over at least two localities in plains touches 40 degree Celsius or exceeds 4.5 degree Celsius from normal.  Heatwave is declared in hilly and coastal regions when temperatures cross 30 degree Celsius and 37 degree Celsius respectively. A severe heatwave is declared if the temperature departure exceeds 6 degree Celsius from normal. Why has April been so hot? One, 2024 is a year that began in an El Niño state. El Niño, is a climate pattern that describes the unusual warming of surface waters in the eastern Pacific Ocean, which leads to extreme heat in many parts of the world and the ocean. It developed in June 2023 and generally, the years which begin in an El Niño state, experience extreme temperatures, harsh, multiple and extended heatwave spells, and lack of pre-monsoon rainfall. Two, the persistent presence of anticyclone systems over southern peninsular and southeastern coastal areas is also partly responsible for such a hot April. These high-pressure systems, which exist at about the altitude of 3 km and extend between 1,000 and 2,000 km in length,  push the air underneath them towards the Earth, in a process called air subsidence. As a result, the forcefully sunk air generates more heat on the surface closer to the Earth. The presence of anticyclone systems also leads to wind flow from land towards the sea and prevents the incoming cooler sea breeze, which is otherwise responsible for cooling land from time to time. El Niño and anticyclone systems collectively created sweltering hot conditions and heatwaves during April, especially over Gangetic West Bengal, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka, and Maharashtra. What has been the extent of heatwaves this April? Except for four days (April 1, 10, 11 and 12), a small pocket or a considerably large geographical area of the country experienced either heatwave or severe heatwave conditions, according to the IMD. The worst affected were southern peninsular India and the southeastern coast areas, including Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu along with large areas of Karnataka, Kerala, Sikkim, Bihar, Jharkhand, and Gangetic West Bengal. The inclusion of Kerala and Sikkim to the list of heatwave-affected areas indicates that the temperatures are rapidly rising during summers over regions outside that of the CHZ. Source: Indian Express Patachitra Painting Syllabus Prelims – Art & Culture Context: The first generation women patachitra artists of West Bengal sell their work online & are recognised world over, encouraging future generations to stay in the profession Background: Patachitra or Pattachitra is a general term for traditional, cloth-based scroll painting, based in the eastern Indian states of Odisha, West Bengal and parts of Bangladesh. Patachitra artform is known for its intricate details as well as mythological narratives and folktales inscribed in it. About Patachitra Painting : Patachitra painting dates back to the 12th century and its origins can be traced to the modern-day state of Odisha. Pattachitra is one of the ancient artworks of Odisha, originally created for ritual use and as souvenirs for pilgrims to Puri, as well as other temples in Odisha The word ‘patachitra’ is a combination of two words in the Sanskrit language, where ‘pata’ means ‘cloth’ and ‘chitra’ means ‘picture’. It is a narrative scroll art and a form of storytelling, focusing on themes of mythology and culture. It is difficult to determine the exact year when Patachitra as an art form reached Bengal but art historians believe that it occurred approximately three centuries ago. When people migrated from Odisha to Bengal back then, they brought the tradition of Patachitra with them. In their native homeland, they would worship Durga on Patachitra and carried this form of worship when they travelled to Bengal. Source: Down To Earth CONTEMPT OF COURTS ACT I971 Syllabus Prelims – Polity Context: The Allahabad High Court recently observed that orders issued by the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) under the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, are subject to appeal solely to the Supreme Court and not the High Court. Background: While the High Courts retain jurisdiction under Article 226/227 for orders issued under Section 14(1) of the Administrative Tribunals Act, orders falling under Section 17 of the Act are appealable solely to the Supreme Court. About CONTEMPT OF COURTS ACT I971 The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, is an important statute in India that defines and limits the powers of courts in punishing contempts of courts. It also regulates their procedure in relation to contempt proceedings. The act defines contempt of court as any act that scandalizes or tends to scandalize, prejudices, or interferes with the administration of justice. The Act distinguishes between civil and criminal contempt. Civil contempt refers to willful disobedience to any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ, or other process of a court, or willful breach of an undertaking given to a court. Criminal contempt includes any act that scandalizes or tends to scandalize, or lowers the authority of the court, prejudices, or interferes with judicial proceedings, or obstructs the administration of justice. The Act provides protection for the innocent publication and distribution of matter not considered contempt, ensuring freedom of expression while respecting the course of justice. It allows for fair and accurate reporting of judicial proceedings and fair criticism of judicial acts without constituting contempt of court. High Courts have the power to punish contempts of subordinate courts and to try offences committed outside their jurisdiction. The Act outlines the punishment for contempt of court, which can include imprisonment or fine. Source: Livelaw SEA OF JAPAN Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: North Korea recently fired a ballistic missile into the Sea of Japan, also known as the East Sea. Background: These missile tests are closely monitored by neighboring countries and the international community due to their potential implications for regional security.   About SEA OF JAPAN: The Sea of Japan is a marginal sea located between the Japanese archipelago, Sakhalin, the Korean Peninsula, and the mainland of the Russian Far East. The Japanese archipelago separates the Sea of Japan from the Pacific Ocean. The Sea of Japan is bordered by the following countries: Japan: To the east and south, with major islands like Hokkaidō, Honshū, and Kyūshū. Russia: To the north, including the mainland and Sakhalin Island. North Korea: To the west, across the sea from Japan. South Korea: Also, to the west, separated from Japan by the Korea Strait. Source: NDTV TORNADO Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Recently, a deadly tornado struck in West Bengal and killed five people and injured over a 100. Background: In recent years, an increasing number of tornadoes have formed across India and caused destruction. A warming Bay of Bengal and land, along with anomalous wind patterns could be a reason behind this.   About TORNADO A tornado is a violently rotating column of air that extends from a cumulonimbus cloud to the Earth’s surface. It forms during severe thunderstorms. Unlike cyclones (which are large-scale weather systems), tornadoes are local and short-lived. The formation of a tornado involves a complex interaction between a supercell (a long-lived thunderstorm with a deep, persistently rotating updraft) and the environment. Wind shear (changes in wind speed and direction with height) plays a crucial role in creating the necessary conditions for tornado development. Tornadoes are more likely to occur in regions where warm, moist air near the surface interacts with cooler, drier air aloft. Composition and Impact: Tornadoes consist of air, water droplets, dust, and debris. The visible funnel is primarily made of water droplets formed from condensation, along with dust and debris picked up from the ground. The core of the storm contains the lowest pressure and highest wind speeds, causing the most significant damage. Tornadoes can destroy buildings, homes, bridges, vehicles, uproot trees, and alter landscapes. The Enhanced Fujita Scale (EF Scale) rates tornado intensity based on the damage they cause, ranging from EF0 (weakest) to EF5 (strongest). Source: Down To Earth India and Greece Syllabus Mains – GS 2 Context: During extensive talks between Prime Minister Narendra Modi and his Greek counterpart Kyriakos Mitsotakis held recently, the leaders aimed to inject “new energy” into their bilateral ties. Background: India’s contacts with Greece began over 2500 years ago. Trading between the Mauryan Kings and Greece is evidenced by coinage and writings. In 326 BC, Alexander the Great invaded the North-Western part of the Indian subcontinent as far as the Hyphasis (Beas River), and fought with Raja Puru, King of Pauravaa – between the Jhelum and Chenab), and Ambhi who ruled at Taxila.He did not cross the Indus into India; and turned South and apparently went back to Babylon. India and Greece Relations: Greece has historical linkages with India as Chanakya, in Chandragupta’s Court records in Arthashastra mentioned the Yavan Ambassador in the Kings’ court, named Megasthenes. Trading between Mauryan Kings and Greece is evidenced by coinage and writings. Gandhara art is believed to be a fusion of Indian and Greek influences. Diplomatic relations were established between the two countries in 1950. Greece opened its Embassy in Delhi in 1950 and India in Athens in 1978. Agreement on Science and Technology was ratified by both sides to encourage and support cooperation in the science and technology field based on equality and mutual benefit. Greece supported India’s membership at NSG (National Supplier Group) and bid for a permanent seat on the United Nations Security Council. India’s relations with Greece and Armenia are crucial in the context of an emerging Turkey-Pakistan-Azerbaijan military axis (often referred to as the Three Brothers) and can counter increased Chinese presence in the region. Greece borders the Mediterranean Sea, which covers three continents, i.e., Asia, Africa, and Europe, and thus can help enhance India’s outreach to the Mediterranean region. The Mediterranean region is vital for India’s Indo-Pacific policy. India is exploring a multi-modal link between Mumbai and the European mainland via the Greek transhipment port of Piraeus. This will allow much faster shipment of Indian goods to markets in the entire Eurasian region. The Mediterranean region can be a potential source to meet India’s increasing energy demand and enhance energy security given its vast resources of oil (1.7 billion barrels) and gas (112 trillion cubic feet). Greece’s abundant sunshine and its robust wind energy capacity present substantial untapped opportunities for electricity generation. With Greece expanding its defence expenditure from US$5 billion to 8.4 billion (2019- 2022), it can act as a potential market for India’s defence exports. India and Greece have engaged in joint naval exercises in the Mediterranean Sea and multinational air force exercise INIOCHOS-23. Issues/Concerns associated with India- Greece Relations: The absence of high-level interaction in four decades has resulted in a lack of strong strategic connections. Chinese state-owned shipping company COSCO has approx. 60% stake in the Piraeus port and thus can hamper India’s connectivity plans and trade opportunities through the port. India’s trade relations with Greece face challenges characterised by limited business opportunities, insufficient investment and capital inflow, a shortage of enterprises capable of bolstering exports, etc. Way Forward: Greece and Cyprus are two EU member states that can act as a bridge between the European Union and India, and thus, urgent steps are required to strengthen bilateral ties. India can extend its Line of Credit, utilise its soft power and diaspora to counter China’s presence and provide an alternative to China’s Debt Trap Policy. Collaborate on tourism promotion efforts, including joint marketing campaigns and improved air connectivity. Greece is emerging as a popular tourist destination among Indians. Enhance cooperation on maritime security, including information sharing and joint naval exercises. Source: MEA Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following countries: Japan Russia North Korea South Korea China Philippines How many of the statements given above are correct? Only two Only three Only four Only five    Q2.) With reference to Tornados, consider the following statements: A tornado is a violently rotating column of air that extends from a cumulonimbus cloud to the Earth’s surface. Tornadoes are more likely to occur in regions where warm, moist air near the surface interacts with cooler, drier air aloft. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3.) With reference to the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, consider the following statements: The Act distinguishes between civil and criminal contempt. The Act provides protection for the innocent publication and distribution of matter not considered contempt. High Courts have the power to punish contempts of subordinate courts. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  4th May 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  3rd May – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – b

[DAY 54] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – ENVIRONMENT, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 Tuna Das 2024/05/04 1:15 PM 8 36.36 % 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question With reference to the Ecologists and their research’, consider the following pairs: Antonie van Leeuwenhoek : First introduced the concept of food chains Herbert Spencer : Coined the term ‘survival of the fittest’ Tansley : Coined the term ‘ecology’ How many of the above given pairs is/are correctly matched? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Ecology Ecology can be defined as the scientific exploration of living organisms and their interactions with each other and their environment. The term “ecology” was coined by Ernst Haeckel, a German biologist, in 1869. It originates from the Greek words “Oikos,” meaning home or estate, and “logos,” meaning study. The main focus of ecology is to understand the relationships between organisms and the abiotic (non-living) and biotic (living) components of their environment. It investigates how organisms are influenced by their surroundings and how they utilize environmental resources, including energy flow and mineral cycling. Timeline of Ecologists: Antonie van Leeuwenhoek (1632–1723): First introduced the concept of food chains. (Hence pair 1 is correctly matched) Carl Linnaeus (1707–1778): Renowned naturalist and founder of scientific study on natural economics. Alexander Humboldt (1769–1859): First described the latitudinal biodiversity gradient toward the tropics. Charles Darwin (1809–1882): Proposed the idea of natural selection and conducted ecological studies on soils. Herbert Spencer (1820–1903): Coined the term “survival of the fittest.” (Hence pair 2 is correctly matched) Karl Möbius (1825–1908): Developed the concept of ecological community or living community. Ernst Haeckel (1834–1919): Coined the term “ecology” and popularized the study of ecology in relation to evolution. (Hence pair 3 is incorrectly matched) Vladimir Vernadsky (1869–1939): Introduced the concept of the biosphere. Henry C. Cowles (1869–1939): Pioneered studies on ecological succession. Tansley (1871–1955): Coined the term “ecosystem” and was a prominent researcher. Henry Gleason (1882–1975): Founder of the individualistic concept of ecology and a quantitative theorist. Charles S. Elton (1900–1991): Known as the Father of Animal Ecology, he developed the concepts of food chains and niches. Evelyn Hutchinson (1903–1991): Elaborated on the niche concept in ecology. Incorrect Solution (b) Ecology Ecology can be defined as the scientific exploration of living organisms and their interactions with each other and their environment. The term “ecology” was coined by Ernst Haeckel, a German biologist, in 1869. It originates from the Greek words “Oikos,” meaning home or estate, and “logos,” meaning study. The main focus of ecology is to understand the relationships between organisms and the abiotic (non-living) and biotic (living) components of their environment. It investigates how organisms are influenced by their surroundings and how they utilize environmental resources, including energy flow and mineral cycling. Timeline of Ecologists: Antonie van Leeuwenhoek (1632–1723): First introduced the concept of food chains. (Hence pair 1 is correctly matched) Carl Linnaeus (1707–1778): Renowned naturalist and founder of scientific study on natural economics. Alexander Humboldt (1769–1859): First described the latitudinal biodiversity gradient toward the tropics. Charles Darwin (1809–1882): Proposed the idea of natural selection and conducted ecological studies on soils. Herbert Spencer (1820–1903): Coined the term “survival of the fittest.” (Hence pair 2 is correctly matched) Karl Möbius (1825–1908): Developed the concept of ecological community or living community. Ernst Haeckel (1834–1919): Coined the term “ecology” and popularized the study of ecology in relation to evolution. (Hence pair 3 is incorrectly matched) Vladimir Vernadsky (1869–1939): Introduced the concept of the biosphere. Henry C. Cowles (1869–1939): Pioneered studies on ecological succession. Tansley (1871–1955): Coined the term “ecosystem” and was a prominent researcher. Henry Gleason (1882–1975): Founder of the individualistic concept of ecology and a quantitative theorist. Charles S. Elton (1900–1991): Known as the Father of Animal Ecology, he developed the concepts of food chains and niches. Evelyn Hutchinson (1903–1991): Elaborated on the niche concept in ecology. Question 2 of 35 2. Question Which of the following sequence correctly orders the levels of organizations in ecology from the smallest to the greatest? a) Organism → Population → Community → Ecosystem → Biome → Biosphere b) Population →Organism → Community → Biome → Biosphere → Ecosystem c) Population → Community → Organism → Biome → Biosphere → Ecosystem d) Organism → Population → Community → Biome → Ecosystem → Biosphere Correct Solution (a) Levels of Organisations in Ecology Levels of the organization are natural systems that are frequently described by part-whole relationships, with higher ones being made up of lower levels. The individual, population, community, ecosystem, biome, and biosphere are the levels of organization in ecology. Ecosystems can be researched on a local or large scale. From the smallest to the greatest, the levels of organisation are detailed below: Organism → Population → Community → Ecosystem → Biome → Biosphere (Hence option (a) is correct) Incorrect Solution (a) Levels of Organisations in Ecology Levels of the organization are natural systems that are frequently described by part-whole relationships, with higher ones being made up of lower levels. The individual, population, community, ecosystem, biome, and biosphere are the levels of organization in ecology. Ecosystems can be researched on a local or large scale. From the smallest to the greatest, the levels of organisation are detailed below: Organism → Population → Community → Ecosystem → Biome → Biosphere (Hence option (a) is correct) Question 3 of 35 3. Question With reference to the difference between Environment and Ecology, consider the following statements: Ecology specifically focuses on the interactions between organisms and their surroundings while Environment examines the interaction of physical, chemical, and biological components. The ecology encompasses all aspects of a living thing’s existence, while environment has a narrower scope centered on the study of organisms and their environment Environmental elements encompass temperature, water, light, air, soil, and nutrients, whereas ecology focuses on the study of different ecosystems and how animals depend on each other for survival How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Environment: Refers to the interaction of physical, chemical, and biological components. Encompasses the circumstances in which living things exist, ranging from small-scale settings to larger ecosystems. Examines both internal and external factors that influence the environment, such as pollution, global warming, and deforestation. Includes environmental elements like temperature, water, light, air, soil, and nutrients. Ecology: The study of how organisms interact with their surroundings. Focuses on understanding life processes, adaptability, distribution, and biodiversity. Explores the intricate relationships and interactions among organisms and their environment. Considers factors like population size, organism dispersion, species diversity, and competition. Involves studying various ecosystems and how animals depend on one another to survive. Differences between Environment and Ecology: Environment examines the interaction of physical, chemical, and biological components, while ecology specifically focuses on the interactions between organisms and their surroundings. (Hence statement 1 is correct) The environment encompasses all aspects of a living thing’s existence, while ecology has a narrower scope centered on the study of organisms and their environment. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) Environmental concerns include issues like pollution, global warming, and deforestation, while ecological considerations involve population size, organism dispersion, diversity, and competition. Environmental elements encompass temperature, water, light, air, soil, and nutrients, whereas ecology focuses on the study of different ecosystems and how animals depend on each other for survival. (Hence statement 3 is correct) The term “eco” is often associated with environmentally friendly practices that do not harm specific species or substances. Incorrect Solution (b) Environment: Refers to the interaction of physical, chemical, and biological components. Encompasses the circumstances in which living things exist, ranging from small-scale settings to larger ecosystems. Examines both internal and external factors that influence the environment, such as pollution, global warming, and deforestation. Includes environmental elements like temperature, water, light, air, soil, and nutrients. Ecology: The study of how organisms interact with their surroundings. Focuses on understanding life processes, adaptability, distribution, and biodiversity. Explores the intricate relationships and interactions among organisms and their environment. Considers factors like population size, organism dispersion, species diversity, and competition. Involves studying various ecosystems and how animals depend on one another to survive. Differences between Environment and Ecology: Environment examines the interaction of physical, chemical, and biological components, while ecology specifically focuses on the interactions between organisms and their surroundings. (Hence statement 1 is correct) The environment encompasses all aspects of a living thing’s existence, while ecology has a narrower scope centered on the study of organisms and their environment. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) Environmental concerns include issues like pollution, global warming, and deforestation, while ecological considerations involve population size, organism dispersion, diversity, and competition. Environmental elements encompass temperature, water, light, air, soil, and nutrients, whereas ecology focuses on the study of different ecosystems and how animals depend on each other for survival. (Hence statement 3 is correct) The term “eco” is often associated with environmentally friendly practices that do not harm specific species or substances. Question 4 of 35 4. Question What is the significance of understanding the niche of a species in conservation efforts? a) It helps determine the evolutionary history of a species. b) It provides information about the species' geographic distribution. c) It enables the identification of key habitat areas for conservation. d) It assists in understanding the species' social behavior. Correct Solution (c) Niche: Understanding the niche of a species provides valuable insights into its habitat requirements, population dynamics, and ecological interactions. This knowledge is vital for identifying key habitat areas, managing populations, and developing effective conservation strategies to safeguard species and preserve biodiversity. (Hence option (c) is correct answer) A niche refers to the unique functional role or place of a species in an ecosystem. It encompasses all the biological, physical, and chemical factors that a species requires to survive, stay healthy, and reproduce. No two species have identical niches; each species has its own unique niche. Understanding the niche of a species is crucial for conservation efforts. Conservation of a species in its native habitat requires knowledge about its niche requirements and ensuring that all those requirements are fulfilled. There are different types of niches: Habitat niche: Refers to the specific location where a species lives. Food niche: Involves the species’ diet, including what it eats or decomposes, and its interactions with other species for food resources. Reproductive niche: Describes the species’ reproductive strategies, including how and when it reproduces. Physical niche: Encompasses physical and environmental factors such as temperature, land slope, humidity, and other specific requirements for the species. Incorrect Solution (c) Niche: Understanding the niche of a species provides valuable insights into its habitat requirements, population dynamics, and ecological interactions. This knowledge is vital for identifying key habitat areas, managing populations, and developing effective conservation strategies to safeguard species and preserve biodiversity. (Hence option (c) is correct answer) A niche refers to the unique functional role or place of a species in an ecosystem. It encompasses all the biological, physical, and chemical factors that a species requires to survive, stay healthy, and reproduce. No two species have identical niches; each species has its own unique niche. Understanding the niche of a species is crucial for conservation efforts. Conservation of a species in its native habitat requires knowledge about its niche requirements and ensuring that all those requirements are fulfilled. There are different types of niches: Habitat niche: Refers to the specific location where a species lives. Food niche: Involves the species’ diet, including what it eats or decomposes, and its interactions with other species for food resources. Reproductive niche: Describes the species’ reproductive strategies, including how and when it reproduces. Physical niche: Encompasses physical and environmental factors such as temperature, land slope, humidity, and other specific requirements for the species. Question 5 of 35 5. Question Which process in the Phosphorus Cycle involves the breakdown of organic materials into inorganic forms of phosphorus by bacteria? a) Weathering b) Decomposition c) Absorption d) Mineralization Correct Solution (d) Phosphorus Cycle: Phosphorus undergoes a cycle, moving through rocks, water, soil, sediments, and organisms. Rain and weathering gradually release phosphate ions and other minerals from rocks. Inorganic phosphate is then distributed throughout the soil and water. Plants absorb inorganic phosphate from the soil, while animals consume plants for their phosphorus needs. Once inside plants or animals, phosphate is incorporated into organic molecules like DNA. Upon the death and decomposition of plants or animals, organic phosphate is released back into the soil. Bacteria play a role in the process of mineralization, breaking down organic materials into inorganic forms of phosphorus and making them available to plants in the soil. (Hence option (d) is correct) Phosphorus from the soil can find its way into streams and eventually reach the oceans. Over time, it can become absorbed into sediments in these locations. Incorrect Solution (d) Phosphorus Cycle: Phosphorus undergoes a cycle, moving through rocks, water, soil, sediments, and organisms. Rain and weathering gradually release phosphate ions and other minerals from rocks. Inorganic phosphate is then distributed throughout the soil and water. Plants absorb inorganic phosphate from the soil, while animals consume plants for their phosphorus needs. Once inside plants or animals, phosphate is incorporated into organic molecules like DNA. Upon the death and decomposition of plants or animals, organic phosphate is released back into the soil. Bacteria play a role in the process of mineralization, breaking down organic materials into inorganic forms of phosphorus and making them available to plants in the soil. (Hence option (d) is correct) Phosphorus from the soil can find its way into streams and eventually reach the oceans. Over time, it can become absorbed into sediments in these locations. Question 6 of 35 6. Question Consider the following Cycles: Water (Hydrologic) Cycle The Carbon Cycle The Nitrogen Cycle Sulphur Cycle Which of the above given cycles are considered as Gaseous Cycles? a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 2, 3 and 4 only Correct Solution (a) Gaseous Cycles: Water (Hydrologic) Cycle: The water (hydrologic) cycle refers to the continuous circulation of water in the Earth-atmosphere system, driven by solar energy. Various reservoirs such as the atmosphere, oceans, lakes, rivers, soils, glaciers, snowfields, and groundwater store water in our world. Processes like evaporation, transpiration, condensation, precipitation, deposition, runoff, infiltration, and groundwater flow facilitate the movement of water between reservoirs. The hydrologic cycle also involves the continuous exchange of water between the land surface, oceans, subsoil, and organisms. It begins with the evaporation of water from the ocean’s surface. The Carbon Cycle: Carbon, mainly in the form of carbon dioxide (CO2), exists in the atmosphere. The carbon cycle involves the continual exchange of carbon between the atmosphere and organisms. Through processes like photosynthesis, carbon is transferred from the atmosphere to green plants and subsequently to other organisms. It returns to the atmosphere through respiration and the decomposition of dead organic matter. It is considered a relatively short-term cycle. The Nitrogen Cycle: Nitrogen is a fundamental component of living tissues and plays a crucial role in proteins, accounting for approximately 16 percent of protein weight. The nitrogen cycle consists of three main phases: nitrogen fixation, nitrification, and denitrification. It involves the atmosphere, hydrosphere, and lithosphere. Nitrogen fixation is the anaerobic process in which atmospheric nitrogen (N2) is converted into NH3 (ammonia) by nitrogen-fixing bacteria. Nitrification is a two-step process where ammonium ions (NH4+) are first reduced to NO2 and then further oxidized to produce NO3. Soil bacteria are involved in both steps. Denitrification is the conversion of nitrates (NO3) back into nitrogen gas. Denitrifying bacteria perform a similar function as nitrogen-fixing bacteria. Incorrect Solution (a) Gaseous Cycles: Water (Hydrologic) Cycle: The water (hydrologic) cycle refers to the continuous circulation of water in the Earth-atmosphere system, driven by solar energy. Various reservoirs such as the atmosphere, oceans, lakes, rivers, soils, glaciers, snowfields, and groundwater store water in our world. Processes like evaporation, transpiration, condensation, precipitation, deposition, runoff, infiltration, and groundwater flow facilitate the movement of water between reservoirs. The hydrologic cycle also involves the continuous exchange of water between the land surface, oceans, subsoil, and organisms. It begins with the evaporation of water from the ocean’s surface. The Carbon Cycle: Carbon, mainly in the form of carbon dioxide (CO2), exists in the atmosphere. The carbon cycle involves the continual exchange of carbon between the atmosphere and organisms. Through processes like photosynthesis, carbon is transferred from the atmosphere to green plants and subsequently to other organisms. It returns to the atmosphere through respiration and the decomposition of dead organic matter. It is considered a relatively short-term cycle. The Nitrogen Cycle: Nitrogen is a fundamental component of living tissues and plays a crucial role in proteins, accounting for approximately 16 percent of protein weight. The nitrogen cycle consists of three main phases: nitrogen fixation, nitrification, and denitrification. It involves the atmosphere, hydrosphere, and lithosphere. Nitrogen fixation is the anaerobic process in which atmospheric nitrogen (N2) is converted into NH3 (ammonia) by nitrogen-fixing bacteria. Nitrification is a two-step process where ammonium ions (NH4+) are first reduced to NO2 and then further oxidized to produce NO3. Soil bacteria are involved in both steps. Denitrification is the conversion of nitrates (NO3) back into nitrogen gas. Denitrifying bacteria perform a similar function as nitrogen-fixing bacteria. Question 7 of 35 7. Question With reference to the Ecological succession, consider the following statements: Ecological succession is a common phenomenon observed in all communities, and it is closely connected to the process of evolution Secondary succession progresses at a slower pace in comparison to primary succession Pioneer species are the first organisms to colonize an area during secondary succession, playing a crucial role in the establishment of subsequent communities. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Ecological Succession: Ecological succession refers to the gradual and progressive growth of species in a specific area in response to changing environmental conditions. It aims to establish equilibrium in the ecological system through the development of a climax community, which represents a stable and diverse community of organisms. The process involves constant changes in the number and types of species within a given area, leading to the formation of different communities known as seral communities. Ecological succession is a common phenomenon observed in all communities, and it is closely connected to the process of evolution. (Hence statement 1 is correct) There are two main types of ecological succession: primary succession and secondary succession. Primary succession occurs in lifeless areas where there is no soil or in barren lands that cannot support life. The process starts from scratch, with rocks being broken down and soil formation being a crucial step. Secondary succession occurs when an existing ecosystem is disrupted or destroyed, allowing new species to colonize the area. This type of succession is faster because there is already a foundation of soil and life present. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) Pioneer species are the first organisms to colonize an area during primary succession, playing a crucial role in the establishment of subsequent communities. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) The stages of ecological succession involve a series of changes in species composition, vegetation structure, and ecological dynamics, leading to the development of a climax community. Ecological succession is essential for the initiation and persistence of life on Earth, and it plays a vital role in shaping ecosystems and their biodiversity. Incorrect Solution (a) Ecological Succession: Ecological succession refers to the gradual and progressive growth of species in a specific area in response to changing environmental conditions. It aims to establish equilibrium in the ecological system through the development of a climax community, which represents a stable and diverse community of organisms. The process involves constant changes in the number and types of species within a given area, leading to the formation of different communities known as seral communities. Ecological succession is a common phenomenon observed in all communities, and it is closely connected to the process of evolution. (Hence statement 1 is correct) There are two main types of ecological succession: primary succession and secondary succession. Primary succession occurs in lifeless areas where there is no soil or in barren lands that cannot support life. The process starts from scratch, with rocks being broken down and soil formation being a crucial step. Secondary succession occurs when an existing ecosystem is disrupted or destroyed, allowing new species to colonize the area. This type of succession is faster because there is already a foundation of soil and life present. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) Pioneer species are the first organisms to colonize an area during primary succession, playing a crucial role in the establishment of subsequent communities. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) The stages of ecological succession involve a series of changes in species composition, vegetation structure, and ecological dynamics, leading to the development of a climax community. Ecological succession is essential for the initiation and persistence of life on Earth, and it plays a vital role in shaping ecosystems and their biodiversity. Question 8 of 35 8. Question With reference to the ‘Ecological Adaptation’, consider the following statements: Phenotypic plasticity is the capacity of organisms to alter their physical characteristics in accordance with the surrounding environment Sciophytes are plants that exhibit a preference for shade and conditions with low light levels Reproduction in humans serves as an instance of an ecological adaptation How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Ecological Adaptations The topic of organisms and their environment explores how living beings develop special characteristics to thrive in specific environmental conditions. These adaptations can be morphological, physiological, or behavioral in nature, and they arise through the process of natural selection, either from existing variations or through gradual selection of small adaptive traits. The main purpose of these adaptations is to enhance an individual’s ability to obtain food and space for survival, find opportunities for reproduction, and successfully raise offspring. Reproduction in humans is a biological process that ensures the continuation of the species. While reproduction is a fundamental aspect of an organism’s life cycle, it is not specifically considered an ecological adaptation. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) Ecological adaptations typically refer to traits or behaviors that directly aid an organism in its interaction with the environment, such as camouflage in animals to blend with their surroundings, drought tolerance in plants to survive arid conditions, or migration in birds to find more favorable habitats during different seasons Phenotypic Plasticity and Ecotypes Phenotype refers to the observable traits resulting from the interaction between an organism’s genetic makeup (genotype) and its surrounding environment. Within a local habitat, variations in environmental conditions lead to diverse phenotypes, a phenomenon known as phenotypic plasticity. (Hence statement 1 is correct) These variations give rise to ecotypes, which are genetically adapted local populations of species that exhibit morphological and physiological differences. Despite these genetic variations, ecotypes can interbreed. Ecotypes are commonly observed in plants and sessile animals. Strategies of Adaptations in Plants Plants possess unique characteristics that enable them to tolerate a wide range of environmental conditions, such as light regimes, dryness, high temperatures, water-saturation, and saline environments. They have evolved specialized structures in their flowers to ensure pollination by insects or other animals. Additionally, plants have developed various mechanisms to cope with stressful environmental conditions. Adaptation to Light Regime Based on their adaptation to different light intensities, plant communities can be categorized into two groups: Sciophytes: These are shade-loving plants that exhibit lower levels of photosynthetic, respiratory, and metabolic activities. They typically grow under the dense canopy of forests and include ferns and herbaceous plants. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Heliophytes: These plants are adapted to high-intensity light and have higher temperature thresholds for photosynthesis. They also exhibit higher rates of respiration. Examples of heliophytes include shrubs and trees. Incorrect Solution (b) Ecological Adaptations The topic of organisms and their environment explores how living beings develop special characteristics to thrive in specific environmental conditions. These adaptations can be morphological, physiological, or behavioral in nature, and they arise through the process of natural selection, either from existing variations or through gradual selection of small adaptive traits. The main purpose of these adaptations is to enhance an individual’s ability to obtain food and space for survival, find opportunities for reproduction, and successfully raise offspring. Reproduction in humans is a biological process that ensures the continuation of the species. While reproduction is a fundamental aspect of an organism’s life cycle, it is not specifically considered an ecological adaptation. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) Ecological adaptations typically refer to traits or behaviors that directly aid an organism in its interaction with the environment, such as camouflage in animals to blend with their surroundings, drought tolerance in plants to survive arid conditions, or migration in birds to find more favorable habitats during different seasons Phenotypic Plasticity and Ecotypes Phenotype refers to the observable traits resulting from the interaction between an organism’s genetic makeup (genotype) and its surrounding environment. Within a local habitat, variations in environmental conditions lead to diverse phenotypes, a phenomenon known as phenotypic plasticity. (Hence statement 1 is correct) These variations give rise to ecotypes, which are genetically adapted local populations of species that exhibit morphological and physiological differences. Despite these genetic variations, ecotypes can interbreed. Ecotypes are commonly observed in plants and sessile animals. Strategies of Adaptations in Plants Plants possess unique characteristics that enable them to tolerate a wide range of environmental conditions, such as light regimes, dryness, high temperatures, water-saturation, and saline environments. They have evolved specialized structures in their flowers to ensure pollination by insects or other animals. Additionally, plants have developed various mechanisms to cope with stressful environmental conditions. Adaptation to Light Regime Based on their adaptation to different light intensities, plant communities can be categorized into two groups: Sciophytes: These are shade-loving plants that exhibit lower levels of photosynthetic, respiratory, and metabolic activities. They typically grow under the dense canopy of forests and include ferns and herbaceous plants. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Heliophytes: These plants are adapted to high-intensity light and have higher temperature thresholds for photosynthesis. They also exhibit higher rates of respiration. Examples of heliophytes include shrubs and trees. Question 9 of 35 9. Question Consider the following statements with reference to the Productivity of biomass: Primary productivity refers to the rate of biomass production per unit area by the primary producers Gross primary productivity (GPP) is the total amount of energy fixed by the primary producer through photosynthesis Net primary productivity (NPP) is the energy remaining after subtracting the energy lost through respiration The open ocean contributes the largest percentage of the world’s annual NPP due to its extensive coverage How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) Productivity of biomass Productivity is the measure of biomass production per unit area. Primary productivity refers to the rate of biomass production per unit area by the primary producers. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Primary producers are organisms that produce food through photosynthesis. Primary producers occupy the first trophic level in an ecosystem and provide energy to all the consumers. Gross primary productivity (GPP) is the total amount of energy fixed by the primary producer through photosynthesis. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Net primary productivity (NPP) is the energy remaining after subtracting the energy lost through respiration. (Hence statement 3 is correct) NPP represents the actual biomass available for consumption by primary consumers. Secondary productivity refers to the rate of new biomass production by primary consumers. Ecosystem Productivity: Tropical rainforests, swamps and marshes, and algae beds and reefs have the highest NPP. Open Ocean and desert ecosystems have the lowest NPP. The graph illustrates the average NPP (in g/m2/yr) of different ecosystems. The third graph shows the world’s annual NPP for each ecosystem type. The open ocean contributes the largest percentage of the world’s annual NPP (24.4%) due to its extensive coverage (70% of Earth’s surface). (Hence statement 4 is correct) The tropical rainforest has the second highest annual NPP (22%), followed by swamps and marshes (2.3%), and algae beds and reefs (0.9%). Therefore, the correct order of ecosystems in increasing NPP is: algae beds and reefs (0.9%), swamps and marshes (2.3%), tropical rainforests (22%), and open oceans (24.4%). Incorrect Solution (d) Productivity of biomass Productivity is the measure of biomass production per unit area. Primary productivity refers to the rate of biomass production per unit area by the primary producers. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Primary producers are organisms that produce food through photosynthesis. Primary producers occupy the first trophic level in an ecosystem and provide energy to all the consumers. Gross primary productivity (GPP) is the total amount of energy fixed by the primary producer through photosynthesis. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Net primary productivity (NPP) is the energy remaining after subtracting the energy lost through respiration. (Hence statement 3 is correct) NPP represents the actual biomass available for consumption by primary consumers. Secondary productivity refers to the rate of new biomass production by primary consumers. Ecosystem Productivity: Tropical rainforests, swamps and marshes, and algae beds and reefs have the highest NPP. Open Ocean and desert ecosystems have the lowest NPP. The graph illustrates the average NPP (in g/m2/yr) of different ecosystems. The third graph shows the world’s annual NPP for each ecosystem type. The open ocean contributes the largest percentage of the world’s annual NPP (24.4%) due to its extensive coverage (70% of Earth’s surface). (Hence statement 4 is correct) The tropical rainforest has the second highest annual NPP (22%), followed by swamps and marshes (2.3%), and algae beds and reefs (0.9%). Therefore, the correct order of ecosystems in increasing NPP is: algae beds and reefs (0.9%), swamps and marshes (2.3%), tropical rainforests (22%), and open oceans (24.4%). Question 10 of 35 10. Question Which of the following components is/are considered as biotic components of Environment: Topography Symbionts Geologic substratum Non-green plants Green plants Select the correct answer by using the code below: a) 1, 3 and 5 only b) 1, 4 and 5 only c) 2, 3, and 5 only d) 2, 4 and 5 only Correct Solution (d) Components of Environment The environment consists of two fundamental components, which are as follows: Biotic Components (Biological Component): The biotic component encompasses all living organisms within the environment. It is also referred to as the biological component of the ecosystem. Ecosystems are formed through the interactions between animals, plants, and microorganisms, along with abiotic components. The biotic community is categorized into various groups, such as autotrophs, heterotrophs, and saprotrophs. These groups occupy different trophic levels in the food chain. Autotrophs, also known as producers, form the base of the food chain. Abiotic Components (Physical Components): The physical component refers to the non-living aspects of the environment. These components, also known as abiotic variables, include elements such as air, water, soil, and climate. They are further classified into the atmosphere, hydrosphere, and lithosphere. Scientists also use the term “biosphere” to describe the zone of life, which encompasses the global collection of ecosystems. Components of Environment Abiotic Biotic ·       Energy ·       Radiation ·       Temperature & heat flow ·       Atmospheric gases and wind ·       Water ·       Fire ·       Gravity ·       Topography ·       Soil ·       Geologic substratum ·       Green plants ·       Non-green plants ·       Decomposers ·       Parasites ·       Symbionts ·       Animals ·       Man Incorrect Solution (d) Components of Environment The environment consists of two fundamental components, which are as follows: Biotic Components (Biological Component): The biotic component encompasses all living organisms within the environment. It is also referred to as the biological component of the ecosystem. Ecosystems are formed through the interactions between animals, plants, and microorganisms, along with abiotic components. The biotic community is categorized into various groups, such as autotrophs, heterotrophs, and saprotrophs. These groups occupy different trophic levels in the food chain. Autotrophs, also known as producers, form the base of the food chain. Abiotic Components (Physical Components): The physical component refers to the non-living aspects of the environment. These components, also known as abiotic variables, include elements such as air, water, soil, and climate. They are further classified into the atmosphere, hydrosphere, and lithosphere. Scientists also use the term “biosphere” to describe the zone of life, which encompasses the global collection of ecosystems. Components of Environment Abiotic Biotic ·       Energy ·       Radiation ·       Temperature & heat flow ·       Atmospheric gases and wind ·       Water ·       Fire ·       Gravity ·       Topography ·       Soil ·       Geologic substratum ·       Green plants ·       Non-green plants ·       Decomposers ·       Parasites ·       Symbionts ·       Animals ·       Man Question 11 of 35 11. Question With reference to the differences between a biome and a biosphere, consider the following statements: Biome refers to the living organisms in an ecosystem, while the biosphere refers to the physical environment. Biome encompasses a smaller area than the biosphere. Biome represents a specific ecological region, while the biosphere encompasses the entire planet. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Biome: Biomes are large divisions within the terrestrial portion of the biosphere. (Hence statement 2 is correct) They are characterized by specific climate patterns, types of vegetation, animal life, and soil characteristics. (not only living organisms) (Hence statement 1 is incorrect) Each biome is unique and differs from one another. Climate plays a crucial role in determining the boundaries of biomes and the abundance of plant and animal species. Temperature and precipitation are the key climatic factors that influence biome characteristics. Examples of biomes include tundra, boreal forests, grasslands, deserts, temperate forests, tropical rainforests, tropical deciduous forests, and savannahs. Biosphere: The biosphere refers to the part of the Earth that supports life. It encompasses the surface of the Earth, including land, water bodies, and a portion of the atmosphere. The biosphere includes all living organisms and their habitats. It also encompasses the interaction between organisms and their physical surroundings. The biosphere consists of the atmosphere (gaseous envelope surrounding the Earth), lithosphere (solid Earth materials), and hydrosphere (water bodies). It represents the interconnected web of life on Earth. The main difference between a biome and a biosphere is that a biome represents a specific ecological region with distinct characteristics, while the biosphere encompasses the entire planet and encompasses all ecosystems and their interactions. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Incorrect Solution (b) Biome: Biomes are large divisions within the terrestrial portion of the biosphere. (Hence statement 2 is correct) They are characterized by specific climate patterns, types of vegetation, animal life, and soil characteristics. (not only living organisms) (Hence statement 1 is incorrect) Each biome is unique and differs from one another. Climate plays a crucial role in determining the boundaries of biomes and the abundance of plant and animal species. Temperature and precipitation are the key climatic factors that influence biome characteristics. Examples of biomes include tundra, boreal forests, grasslands, deserts, temperate forests, tropical rainforests, tropical deciduous forests, and savannahs. Biosphere: The biosphere refers to the part of the Earth that supports life. It encompasses the surface of the Earth, including land, water bodies, and a portion of the atmosphere. The biosphere includes all living organisms and their habitats. It also encompasses the interaction between organisms and their physical surroundings. The biosphere consists of the atmosphere (gaseous envelope surrounding the Earth), lithosphere (solid Earth materials), and hydrosphere (water bodies). It represents the interconnected web of life on Earth. The main difference between a biome and a biosphere is that a biome represents a specific ecological region with distinct characteristics, while the biosphere encompasses the entire planet and encompasses all ecosystems and their interactions. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Question 12 of 35 12. Question With reference to the Ecotone, consider the following statements: A geographical zone where different ecosystems come together and engage with one another The presence of edge effect leads to an increase in both species’ diversity and population density within the ecotone The species found in the ecotone are identical to those in the adjacent ecosystems. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Ecotone is a zone of junction between two or more diverse ecosystems. Examples of ecotones include mangrove forests (between marine and terrestrial ecosystems), grasslands, estuaries, and river banks. (Hence statement 1 is correct) It can vary in width, ranging from very narrow to quite wide. Ecotone exhibits conditions that are intermediate to the adjacent ecosystems, making it a zone of tension. It is linear and shows a progressive increase in species composition of one community while simultaneously decreasing species of the adjoining community. Well-developed ecotones may contain organisms that are entirely different from those found in the adjacent communities. The edge effect can be observed in ecotones, where the number of species and population density may be greater than in either adjacent community. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Organisms primarily or most abundantly found in this zone are known as edge species. In terrestrial ecosystems, the edge effect is applicable to birds, with higher bird density observed in the mixed habitat of forest and desert ecotones. Ecotones typically have a mixture of species from the adjacent ecosystems rather than an identical species composition. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) Incorrect Solution (b) Ecotone is a zone of junction between two or more diverse ecosystems. Examples of ecotones include mangrove forests (between marine and terrestrial ecosystems), grasslands, estuaries, and river banks. (Hence statement 1 is correct) It can vary in width, ranging from very narrow to quite wide. Ecotone exhibits conditions that are intermediate to the adjacent ecosystems, making it a zone of tension. It is linear and shows a progressive increase in species composition of one community while simultaneously decreasing species of the adjoining community. Well-developed ecotones may contain organisms that are entirely different from those found in the adjacent communities. The edge effect can be observed in ecotones, where the number of species and population density may be greater than in either adjacent community. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Organisms primarily or most abundantly found in this zone are known as edge species. In terrestrial ecosystems, the edge effect is applicable to birds, with higher bird density observed in the mixed habitat of forest and desert ecotones. Ecotones typically have a mixture of species from the adjacent ecosystems rather than an identical species composition. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) Question 13 of 35 13. Question Consider the following statements with respect to food chain in ecosystem: The trophic level at the bottom of the food chain consists of consumers, while higher trophic levels include producers Producers within the food chain are capable of generating their own nutrients through the process of photosynthesis The food chain depicts the complete exchange of energy and nutrients among organisms within an ecosystem A food chain provides alternative food sources to organisms, increasing their chances of survival by offering multiple options for obtaining energy and nutrients Which of the above given statements is/are incorrect? a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 3 and 4 only d) 1, 3 and 4 only Correct Solution (d) Food Chain: A food chain represents a series of events in an ecosystem where one living organism consumes another organism, which is then consumed by a larger organism. The movement of nutrients and energy from one creature to another at different trophic levels is known as a food chain. The food chain explains the feeding patterns and relationships between living species. Trophic levels refer to the specific order in which producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, and tertiary consumers appear in a food chain. The trophic level at the bottom of the food chain consists of producers, while higher trophic levels include consumers. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect) Food Chain – Example: Grass, using sunlight, produces its own food through photosynthesis. The grass is consumed by a grasshopper, which in turn becomes prey for a frog. The frog is a food source for a snake, and the snake is hunted by a hawk. When a hawk dies, microbes decompose its body, returning nutrients to the soil and benefiting grass-growing plants. Major Components of Food Chain: The Sun: The primary source of energy for all living things and a crucial component of the food chain. Producers: Organisms, such as green plants, phytoplankton, and algae that produce their own nutrients through photosynthesis. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Consumers: Living species that rely on plants or other organisms for nourishment, including herbivores, carnivores, parasites, and scavengers. Decomposers: Organisms that obtain energy from dead organic matter and play a vital role in nutrient recycling. Types of Food Chains: Grazing Food Chain: Begins with green plants, followed by herbivores and carnivores. Detritus Food Chain: Starts with decomposing organic matter and involves various organisms such as algae, bacteria, fungi, protozoa, and insects. Significance of Food Chain: Food chains illustrate the complex relationships that exist in an ecosystem. They highlight the interdependence of organisms for survival. Food chains depict the flow of energy within an ecosystem, showcasing the path of energy movement from producers to consumers. Food Web A food web represents a complex network of interconnected food chains within an ecosystem. Unlike a food chain, which depicts a linear pathway of energy flow, a food web shows all possible transfers of energy and nutrients among organisms in an ecosystem. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) In a food web, multiple organisms are involved in consuming and being consumed by others, forming a more realistic representation of energy flow in ecosystems. Removing any intermediate component from the food web can have significant impacts on the succeeding links of the chain. A food web provides alternative food sources to organisms, increasing their chances of survival by offering multiple options for obtaining energy and nutrients. (Hence statement 4 is incorrect) Organisms in a food web can have shifting food preferences and availability, influenced by seasonal changes and other factors. The interconnected networks of feeding relationships in a food web ensure the stability and resilience of an ecosystem by providing redundancy and flexibility in energy flow pathways. Incorrect Solution (d) Food Chain: A food chain represents a series of events in an ecosystem where one living organism consumes another organism, which is then consumed by a larger organism. The movement of nutrients and energy from one creature to another at different trophic levels is known as a food chain. The food chain explains the feeding patterns and relationships between living species. Trophic levels refer to the specific order in which producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, and tertiary consumers appear in a food chain. The trophic level at the bottom of the food chain consists of producers, while higher trophic levels include consumers. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect) Food Chain – Example: Grass, using sunlight, produces its own food through photosynthesis. The grass is consumed by a grasshopper, which in turn becomes prey for a frog. The frog is a food source for a snake, and the snake is hunted by a hawk. When a hawk dies, microbes decompose its body, returning nutrients to the soil and benefiting grass-growing plants. Major Components of Food Chain: The Sun: The primary source of energy for all living things and a crucial component of the food chain. Producers: Organisms, such as green plants, phytoplankton, and algae that produce their own nutrients through photosynthesis. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Consumers: Living species that rely on plants or other organisms for nourishment, including herbivores, carnivores, parasites, and scavengers. Decomposers: Organisms that obtain energy from dead organic matter and play a vital role in nutrient recycling. Types of Food Chains: Grazing Food Chain: Begins with green plants, followed by herbivores and carnivores. Detritus Food Chain: Starts with decomposing organic matter and involves various organisms such as algae, bacteria, fungi, protozoa, and insects. Significance of Food Chain: Food chains illustrate the complex relationships that exist in an ecosystem. They highlight the interdependence of organisms for survival. Food chains depict the flow of energy within an ecosystem, showcasing the path of energy movement from producers to consumers. Food Web A food web represents a complex network of interconnected food chains within an ecosystem. Unlike a food chain, which depicts a linear pathway of energy flow, a food web shows all possible transfers of energy and nutrients among organisms in an ecosystem. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) In a food web, multiple organisms are involved in consuming and being consumed by others, forming a more realistic representation of energy flow in ecosystems. Removing any intermediate component from the food web can have significant impacts on the succeeding links of the chain. A food web provides alternative food sources to organisms, increasing their chances of survival by offering multiple options for obtaining energy and nutrients. (Hence statement 4 is incorrect) Organisms in a food web can have shifting food preferences and availability, influenced by seasonal changes and other factors. The interconnected networks of feeding relationships in a food web ensure the stability and resilience of an ecosystem by providing redundancy and flexibility in energy flow pathways. Question 14 of 35 14. Question How do keystone species differ from foundation species in terms of their impact on community structure? a) Keystone species have a larger biomass than foundation species. b) Keystone species belong to lower trophic levels, while foundation species are top predators. c) Keystone species have a disproportionate impact on community structure, while foundation species have a proportional impact. d) Keystone species primarily affect the physical environment, while foundation species primarily affect species interactions. Correct Solution (c) Structure of Community: The structure of a community refers to the composition of organisms present in an ecosystem, their abundance, and how they interact with each other. Species richness, which is the number of species present, and species diversity, which considers the relative numbers of each species, are used to define the structure of a community. Community structure is influenced by various factors, including abiotic influences (such as climate and physical environment), species interactions, disturbance levels, and random events. Foundation species and keystone species play crucial roles in shaping the structure of their ecosystems. Keystone species are those that have a disproportionately large impact on community structure relative to their biomass or abundance. (Hence option (c) is correct) Keystone species are often top predators and exhibit a wider range of behaviors compared to foundation species. An example of a keystone species is the intertidal sea star Pisasterochraceus, which regulates the population of mussels in its ecosystem. In an experiment where sea stars were removed, the mussel population increased significantly, leading to a decrease in species diversity and the dominance of mussels over other species. The loss of a keystone species can result in a decline in diversity or the collapse of community structure, as the interactions that the keystone species maintained are disrupted. In the example, the absence of sea stars allowed mussels to outcompete and suppress other species, leading to a loss of diversity in the intertidal zone. Incorrect Solution (c) Structure of Community: The structure of a community refers to the composition of organisms present in an ecosystem, their abundance, and how they interact with each other. Species richness, which is the number of species present, and species diversity, which considers the relative numbers of each species, are used to define the structure of a community. Community structure is influenced by various factors, including abiotic influences (such as climate and physical environment), species interactions, disturbance levels, and random events. Foundation species and keystone species play crucial roles in shaping the structure of their ecosystems. Keystone species are those that have a disproportionately large impact on community structure relative to their biomass or abundance. (Hence option (c) is correct) Keystone species are often top predators and exhibit a wider range of behaviors compared to foundation species. An example of a keystone species is the intertidal sea star Pisasterochraceus, which regulates the population of mussels in its ecosystem. In an experiment where sea stars were removed, the mussel population increased significantly, leading to a decrease in species diversity and the dominance of mussels over other species. The loss of a keystone species can result in a decline in diversity or the collapse of community structure, as the interactions that the keystone species maintained are disrupted. In the example, the absence of sea stars allowed mussels to outcompete and suppress other species, leading to a loss of diversity in the intertidal zone. Question 15 of 35 15. Question With reference to the Pyramid of Biomass, consider the following statements: The determination of the pyramid of biomass involves the collection of organisms from individual trophic levels and the subsequent measurement of their dry weight The upward pyramid demonstrates that the highest trophic level possesses the greatest amount of biomass The base of the Inverted pyramid pyramid consists of primary producers (autotrophs) with the highest biomass How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Pyramid of Biomass: The pyramid of biomass is used to address the limitations of the pyramid of numbers by considering the weight of individuals in each trophic level rather than just counting them. The pyramid of biomass is determined by collecting organisms from each trophic level separately and measuring their dry weight. This approach accounts for the size differences among organisms and provides a more accurate representation. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Biomass is measured in grams per square meter (g/m²) to quantify the total dry weight of all organisms at each trophic level at a specific time. (a) Upward pyramid: Most land ecosystems exhibit an upward pyramid of biomass. The base of the pyramid consists of primary producers (autotrophs) with the highest biomass. The trophic levels above the producers show a decreasing biomass, with primary consumers having less biomass than producers, and secondary consumers having less biomass than primary consumers. The highest trophic level has the lowest amount of biomass. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) (b) Inverted pyramid: Many aquatic ecosystems may have an inverted pyramid of biomass. In this case, tiny phytoplanktons serve as producers, and they grow and reproduce rapidly. The pyramid of biomass in aquatic ecosystems has a small base, with the biomass of consumers at any given moment exceeding the biomass of producers. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) As a result, the pyramid assumes an inverted shape, with higher trophic levels having more biomass than the base. Incorrect Solution (a) Pyramid of Biomass: The pyramid of biomass is used to address the limitations of the pyramid of numbers by considering the weight of individuals in each trophic level rather than just counting them. The pyramid of biomass is determined by collecting organisms from each trophic level separately and measuring their dry weight. This approach accounts for the size differences among organisms and provides a more accurate representation. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Biomass is measured in grams per square meter (g/m²) to quantify the total dry weight of all organisms at each trophic level at a specific time. (a) Upward pyramid: Most land ecosystems exhibit an upward pyramid of biomass. The base of the pyramid consists of primary producers (autotrophs) with the highest biomass. The trophic levels above the producers show a decreasing biomass, with primary consumers having less biomass than producers, and secondary consumers having less biomass than primary consumers. The highest trophic level has the lowest amount of biomass. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) (b) Inverted pyramid: Many aquatic ecosystems may have an inverted pyramid of biomass. In this case, tiny phytoplanktons serve as producers, and they grow and reproduce rapidly. The pyramid of biomass in aquatic ecosystems has a small base, with the biomass of consumers at any given moment exceeding the biomass of producers. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) As a result, the pyramid assumes an inverted shape, with higher trophic levels having more biomass than the base. Question 16 of 35 16. Question Consider the following statements with respect to Pyramid of Energy: The energy pyramid is always upward, with a large energy base at the bottom, indicating the availability of more energy at lower trophic levels As energy moves from one trophic level to another, there is a decrease in usable energy As herbivores consume plants and carnivores consume herbivores, the energy absorption decreases at each step due to utilization for metabolism How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Pyramid of Energy: Purpose: The energy pyramid is used to compare the functional roles of trophic levels in an ecosystem. Reflects thermodynamics: The energy pyramid reflects the laws of thermodynamics, showing the conversion of solar energy to chemical energy and heat energy at each trophic level, along with energy loss during transfers. Upward orientation: The energy pyramid is always upward, with a large energy base at the bottom, indicating the availability of more energy at lower trophic levels. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Energy loss: As energy moves from one trophic level to another, there is a decrease in usable energy. This is due to energy being used for metabolism and lost as heat. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Example: Suppose an ecosystem receives 1000 calories of light energy. Only a small portion is absorbed and utilized by green plants, resulting in 100 calories stored as energy-rich materials. Energy transfer: When a herbivore (e.g., a deer) consumes the plant, it absorbs a smaller amount of energy (e.g., 10 calories) after using some for its own metabolism. Similarly, a carnivore (e.g., a lion) that consumes the herbivore receives an even smaller amount of energy. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Biological magnification: The energy pyramid concept helps explain biological magnification, which is the progressive increase in the concentration of toxic substances at higher levels of the food chain. Incorrect Solution (c) Pyramid of Energy: Purpose: The energy pyramid is used to compare the functional roles of trophic levels in an ecosystem. Reflects thermodynamics: The energy pyramid reflects the laws of thermodynamics, showing the conversion of solar energy to chemical energy and heat energy at each trophic level, along with energy loss during transfers. Upward orientation: The energy pyramid is always upward, with a large energy base at the bottom, indicating the availability of more energy at lower trophic levels. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Energy loss: As energy moves from one trophic level to another, there is a decrease in usable energy. This is due to energy being used for metabolism and lost as heat. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Example: Suppose an ecosystem receives 1000 calories of light energy. Only a small portion is absorbed and utilized by green plants, resulting in 100 calories stored as energy-rich materials. Energy transfer: When a herbivore (e.g., a deer) consumes the plant, it absorbs a smaller amount of energy (e.g., 10 calories) after using some for its own metabolism. Similarly, a carnivore (e.g., a lion) that consumes the herbivore receives an even smaller amount of energy. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Biological magnification: The energy pyramid concept helps explain biological magnification, which is the progressive increase in the concentration of toxic substances at higher levels of the food chain. Question 17 of 35 17. Question Which of the following examples best illustrates the concept of survival of the fittest? a) A bird with strong wings being able to fly longer distances. b) A plant producing a large number of seeds for reproduction. c) A predator capturing and consuming its prey. d) A lizard changing its color to match its surroundings and avoid detection Correct Solution (d) Concept of Survival of the Fittest: The concept of survival of the fittest stems from Charles Darwin’s theory of natural selection. Organisms tend to produce more offspring than can be supported by available resources, leading to competition for survival. Genetic variation exists within species, and some variations provide advantages in terms of survival and reproduction. Beneficial variations increase an organism’s chances of survival and successful reproduction, leading to the passing on of these advantageous traits to future generations. Over time, populations undergo changes as the beneficial traits become more prevalent. Survival of the fittest implies that organisms that can adapt to their environment have a higher likelihood of surviving and passing on their advantageous genes. Examples of survival of the fittest include the case of moth wing color adaptation during the Industrial Revolution in London and the variation in beak size among Galapagos finches based on environmental conditions. The moth population adapted to the changing environment by developing darker wing colors to blend with the soot-covered trees, enhancing their chances of survival. Galapagos finches showcase how different beak sizes are favored in different climatic conditions, enabling specific variants to have better survival rates. This example demonstrates an adaptation that enhances the lizard’s survival by increasing its chances of avoiding predation. By changing its color to blend with its surroundings, the lizard becomes less visible to potential predators. This adaptation allows the lizard to better survive and pass on its genes to the next generation. (Hence option d) is correct) The other examples, while important for the respective organisms, do not directly represent the concept of survival of the fittest in the same way. The bird with strong wings, although beneficial for flying longer distances, does not necessarily imply a higher chance of survival in its environment. The plant producing a large number of seeds is an example of reproductive strategy but does not directly relate to adaptation or survival in a specific environment. The predator capturing and consuming its prey is an illustration of predator-prey interactions but does not solely represent the concept of fitness and adaptation. Incorrect Solution (d) Concept of Survival of the Fittest: The concept of survival of the fittest stems from Charles Darwin’s theory of natural selection. Organisms tend to produce more offspring than can be supported by available resources, leading to competition for survival. Genetic variation exists within species, and some variations provide advantages in terms of survival and reproduction. Beneficial variations increase an organism’s chances of survival and successful reproduction, leading to the passing on of these advantageous traits to future generations. Over time, populations undergo changes as the beneficial traits become more prevalent. Survival of the fittest implies that organisms that can adapt to their environment have a higher likelihood of surviving and passing on their advantageous genes. Examples of survival of the fittest include the case of moth wing color adaptation during the Industrial Revolution in London and the variation in beak size among Galapagos finches based on environmental conditions. The moth population adapted to the changing environment by developing darker wing colors to blend with the soot-covered trees, enhancing their chances of survival. Galapagos finches showcase how different beak sizes are favored in different climatic conditions, enabling specific variants to have better survival rates. This example demonstrates an adaptation that enhances the lizard’s survival by increasing its chances of avoiding predation. By changing its color to blend with its surroundings, the lizard becomes less visible to potential predators. This adaptation allows the lizard to better survive and pass on its genes to the next generation. (Hence option d) is correct) The other examples, while important for the respective organisms, do not directly represent the concept of survival of the fittest in the same way. The bird with strong wings, although beneficial for flying longer distances, does not necessarily imply a higher chance of survival in its environment. The plant producing a large number of seeds is an example of reproductive strategy but does not directly relate to adaptation or survival in a specific environment. The predator capturing and consuming its prey is an illustration of predator-prey interactions but does not solely represent the concept of fitness and adaptation. Question 18 of 35 18. Question With reference to the Comparison of Bioaccumulation and Biomagnification, consider the following statements: Bioaccumulation is driven by the concentration increase inside an organism, while biomagnification occurs as contaminants travel up the food chain Bioaccumulation occurs within a specific trophic level, while biomagnification involves the transfer of pollutants between trophic levels. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Bioaccumulation: Definition: Bioaccumulation refers to the progressive buildup of contaminants or other compounds in an organism. Absorption: Chemicals can enter an organism through breathing, skin absorption, or ingestion. Rate of accumulation: Bioaccumulation occurs when the rate of substance accumulation exceeds the rate of removal through catabolism or excretion. Persistence: Persistent pollutants like DDT pose a significant risk of bioaccumulation due to their long lifespan, even at low environmental levels. Biomagnification: Definition: Biomagnification is the increasing concentration of a pollutant at each trophic level over time. Biological half-life: Biomagnification occurs when the pollutant has a long biological half-life and is soluble in fats rather than water (e.g., DDT). Excretion: Water-soluble pollutants are excreted by organisms, while lipid-soluble pollutants remain in the body for longer periods. Measurement: Contaminant levels in fatty tissues, such as fish, are commonly measured to assess biomagnification. Milk analysis: Milk produced by female mammals, rich in fat, is examined for contaminants due to their potential for biomagnification. Comparison: Scope: Bioaccumulation focuses on the accumulation of substances within an organism, while biomagnification emphasizes the increasing concentration of pollutants across trophic levels. Cause: Bioaccumulation is driven by the concentration increase inside an organism, while biomagnification occurs as contaminants travel up the food chain. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Level of concentration: Bioaccumulation results in increased concentration within the organism, while biomagnification shows increasing concentration at higher trophic levels. Food Chain Interaction: Bioaccumulation occurs within a specific trophic level, while biomagnification involves the transfer of pollutants between trophic levels. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Examples: Bioaccumulation is exemplified by mercury accumulation in fish, while biomagnification is illustrated by the transfer of pollutants from microscopic organisms to larger fish and aquatic species. Incorrect Solution (c) Bioaccumulation: Definition: Bioaccumulation refers to the progressive buildup of contaminants or other compounds in an organism. Absorption: Chemicals can enter an organism through breathing, skin absorption, or ingestion. Rate of accumulation: Bioaccumulation occurs when the rate of substance accumulation exceeds the rate of removal through catabolism or excretion. Persistence: Persistent pollutants like DDT pose a significant risk of bioaccumulation due to their long lifespan, even at low environmental levels. Biomagnification: Definition: Biomagnification is the increasing concentration of a pollutant at each trophic level over time. Biological half-life: Biomagnification occurs when the pollutant has a long biological half-life and is soluble in fats rather than water (e.g., DDT). Excretion: Water-soluble pollutants are excreted by organisms, while lipid-soluble pollutants remain in the body for longer periods. Measurement: Contaminant levels in fatty tissues, such as fish, are commonly measured to assess biomagnification. Milk analysis: Milk produced by female mammals, rich in fat, is examined for contaminants due to their potential for biomagnification. Comparison: Scope: Bioaccumulation focuses on the accumulation of substances within an organism, while biomagnification emphasizes the increasing concentration of pollutants across trophic levels. Cause: Bioaccumulation is driven by the concentration increase inside an organism, while biomagnification occurs as contaminants travel up the food chain. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Level of concentration: Bioaccumulation results in increased concentration within the organism, while biomagnification shows increasing concentration at higher trophic levels. Food Chain Interaction: Bioaccumulation occurs within a specific trophic level, while biomagnification involves the transfer of pollutants between trophic levels. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Examples: Bioaccumulation is exemplified by mercury accumulation in fish, while biomagnification is illustrated by the transfer of pollutants from microscopic organisms to larger fish and aquatic species. Question 19 of 35 19. Question With reference Biotic Interactions, consider the following pairs: Parasitism : One species benefits, while the other is harmed Commensalism : One species is harmed, while the other is unaffected Amensalism : One species is harmed, while the other is unaffected Competition : Both species are harmed by the interaction How many of the above given pairs is/are correctly matched? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) Types of Biotic Interactions: Mutualism: Both species benefit from the interaction. Example: Pollination mutualisms, where pollinators receive food (pollen, nectar) while plants achieve cross-fertilization. Commensalism: One species benefit, while the other is unaffected. Example: Dung beetles benefit from cow dung, which provides them with food and shelter, while the cows are not affected. (Hence pair 2 is correctly matched) Competition: Both species are harmed by the interaction. (Hence pair 4 is correctly matched) Example: When two species compete for the same food and there is insufficient supply, both species suffer from a shortage of food. Predation and Parasitism: One species benefit, while the other is harmed. (Hence pair 1 is correctly matched) Example: Predation occurs when one fish kills and eats another, while parasitism is seen in ticks gaining benefits by sucking blood, which harms the host. Amensalism: One species is harmed, while the other is unaffected. Example: A large tree casting shade on a small plant, inhibiting its growth, while the small plant has no effect on the tree. (Hence pair 3 is correctly matched) Neutralism: No net benefit or harm to either species. Example: In some interactions, the costs and benefits experienced by each partner are exactly the same, resulting in a neutral relationship. It can also refer to species inhabiting the same space and utilizing the same resources without influencing each other significantly. Incorrect Solution (d) Types of Biotic Interactions: Mutualism: Both species benefit from the interaction. Example: Pollination mutualisms, where pollinators receive food (pollen, nectar) while plants achieve cross-fertilization. Commensalism: One species benefit, while the other is unaffected. Example: Dung beetles benefit from cow dung, which provides them with food and shelter, while the cows are not affected. (Hence pair 2 is correctly matched) Competition: Both species are harmed by the interaction. (Hence pair 4 is correctly matched) Example: When two species compete for the same food and there is insufficient supply, both species suffer from a shortage of food. Predation and Parasitism: One species benefit, while the other is harmed. (Hence pair 1 is correctly matched) Example: Predation occurs when one fish kills and eats another, while parasitism is seen in ticks gaining benefits by sucking blood, which harms the host. Amensalism: One species is harmed, while the other is unaffected. Example: A large tree casting shade on a small plant, inhibiting its growth, while the small plant has no effect on the tree. (Hence pair 3 is correctly matched) Neutralism: No net benefit or harm to either species. Example: In some interactions, the costs and benefits experienced by each partner are exactly the same, resulting in a neutral relationship. It can also refer to species inhabiting the same space and utilizing the same resources without influencing each other significantly. Question 20 of 35 20. Question With reference to the nitrogen cycle, consider the following statements: The nitrogen cycle starts with nitrogen fixation, converting atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia through symbiotic bacteria like Azotobacter and Rhizobium Ammonification converts organic nitrogen from dead plants or animals into ammonium through the action of decomposers like bacteria and fungi Denitrification is the final stage of the nitrogen cycle, where bacteria convert nitrates into gaseous nitrogen in oxygen-depleted environments, releasing nitrogen compounds into the atmosphere How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Nitrogen Cycle The nitrogen cycle is a biogeochemical process that converts inert nitrogen in the atmosphere into a form that can be used by living organisms. It is a vital component of the ecosystem. The nitrogen cycle involves several processes, including nitrogen fixation, nitrification, assimilation, ammonification, and denitrification. Nitrogen exists in both organic and inorganic forms. Organic nitrogen is found in living organisms and is transferred through the food chain. Inorganic nitrogen is abundant in the atmosphere. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria play a crucial role in converting atmospheric nitrogen into nitrogen compounds, such as nitrates and nitrites, which can be utilized by plants. The nitrogen cycle begins with nitrogen fixation, where atmospheric nitrogen is transformed into ammonia by symbiotic bacteria. This process is facilitated by diazotrophs like Azotobacter and Rhizobium. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Nitrification is the process in which ammonia is converted into nitrate by microorganisms in the soil. This involves the oxidation of ammonia to nitrite, followed by the conversion of nitrite to nitrate. Assimilation occurs when plants absorb nitrogen compounds from the soil through their roots. These compounds are used in the production of plant and animal proteins, entering the food web. Ammonification is the process of converting organic nitrogen from dead plants or animals into ammonium. Decomposers, such as bacteria and fungi, break down organic matter and release ammonia. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Denitrification is the final stage of the nitrogen cycle, where bacteria convert nitrates back into gaseous nitrogen, releasing nitrogen compounds into the atmosphere. This process occurs in oxygen-depleted environments. (Hence statement 3 is correct) In the marine ecosystem, the nitrogen cycle is similar to the terrestrial ecosystem. Marine microorganisms, including cyanobacteria and phytoplankton, play a crucial role in nitrogen fixation, nitrification, and other nitrogen cycle processes. The nitrogen cycle helps maintain ecosystem balance and nutrient availability for plants and animals. It is essential for the growth and survival of organisms in both terrestrial and marine environments. Incorrect Solution (c) Nitrogen Cycle The nitrogen cycle is a biogeochemical process that converts inert nitrogen in the atmosphere into a form that can be used by living organisms. It is a vital component of the ecosystem. The nitrogen cycle involves several processes, including nitrogen fixation, nitrification, assimilation, ammonification, and denitrification. Nitrogen exists in both organic and inorganic forms. Organic nitrogen is found in living organisms and is transferred through the food chain. Inorganic nitrogen is abundant in the atmosphere. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria play a crucial role in converting atmospheric nitrogen into nitrogen compounds, such as nitrates and nitrites, which can be utilized by plants. The nitrogen cycle begins with nitrogen fixation, where atmospheric nitrogen is transformed into ammonia by symbiotic bacteria. This process is facilitated by diazotrophs like Azotobacter and Rhizobium. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Nitrification is the process in which ammonia is converted into nitrate by microorganisms in the soil. This involves the oxidation of ammonia to nitrite, followed by the conversion of nitrite to nitrate. Assimilation occurs when plants absorb nitrogen compounds from the soil through their roots. These compounds are used in the production of plant and animal proteins, entering the food web. Ammonification is the process of converting organic nitrogen from dead plants or animals into ammonium. Decomposers, such as bacteria and fungi, break down organic matter and release ammonia. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Denitrification is the final stage of the nitrogen cycle, where bacteria convert nitrates back into gaseous nitrogen, releasing nitrogen compounds into the atmosphere. This process occurs in oxygen-depleted environments. (Hence statement 3 is correct) In the marine ecosystem, the nitrogen cycle is similar to the terrestrial ecosystem. Marine microorganisms, including cyanobacteria and phytoplankton, play a crucial role in nitrogen fixation, nitrification, and other nitrogen cycle processes. The nitrogen cycle helps maintain ecosystem balance and nutrient availability for plants and animals. It is essential for the growth and survival of organisms in both terrestrial and marine environments. Question 21 of 35 21. Question Consider the following statements: World Hepatitis Day is observed each year on the birthday of Dr. Baruch Blumberg. The theme for World Hepatitis Day 2023 is “We’re not waiting”. Hepatitis is the inflammation of the liver, characterised by irritation or swelling of the liver cells due to various causes. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) World Hepatitis Day is observed each year on the birthday of Dr. Baruch Blumberg. Hence statement 1 is correct. Blumberg discovered the hepatitis B virus in 1967,and 2 years later, he developed the first hepatitis B vaccine.  These achievements culminated in Dr. Blumberg winning the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1976. World Hepatitis Day is observed each year on July 28 to raise awareness of viral hepatitis, which causes inflammation of the liverthat leads to severe disease and liver cancer. It is recognized by the World Health Organization (WHO). The theme for World Hepatitis Day 2023 is “We’re not waiting”.  Hence statement 2 is correct. This theme highlights the need for urgent action to eliminate viral hepatitis by 2030. Hepatitis is the inflammation of the liver, characterised by irritation or swelling of the liver cells due to various causes. Hence statement 3 is correct. Hepatitis can be an acute (short-term) infection or a chronic (long-term) infection.  There aredifferent types of hepatitis, with different causes: Viral hepatitis is the most common type. It is caused by one of several viruses — hepatitis viruses A, B, C, D, and E. Alcoholic hepatitisis caused by heavy alcohol use. Toxic hepatitis can be caused by certain poisons, chemicals, medicines, or supplements. Autoimmune hepatitis is a chronic type in which your body’s immune system attacks your liver.The cause is not known, but genetics and your environment may play a role. Some people with hepatitis do not have symptoms and do not know they are infected. Common symptoms include: Fever Fatigue Loss of appetite Nausea and/or vomiting Abdominal pain Dark urine Clay-colored bowel movements Joint pain Jaundice, yellowing of your skin and eyes Treatment for hepatitis depends on which type you have and whether it is acute or chronic. Acute viral hepatitis often goes away on its own. There are different medicinesto treat the different chronic types of hepatitis. Incorrect Solution (c) World Hepatitis Day is observed each year on the birthday of Dr. Baruch Blumberg. Hence statement 1 is correct. Blumberg discovered the hepatitis B virus in 1967,and 2 years later, he developed the first hepatitis B vaccine.  These achievements culminated in Dr. Blumberg winning the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1976. World Hepatitis Day is observed each year on July 28 to raise awareness of viral hepatitis, which causes inflammation of the liverthat leads to severe disease and liver cancer. It is recognized by the World Health Organization (WHO). The theme for World Hepatitis Day 2023 is “We’re not waiting”.  Hence statement 2 is correct. This theme highlights the need for urgent action to eliminate viral hepatitis by 2030. Hepatitis is the inflammation of the liver, characterised by irritation or swelling of the liver cells due to various causes. Hence statement 3 is correct. Hepatitis can be an acute (short-term) infection or a chronic (long-term) infection.  There aredifferent types of hepatitis, with different causes: Viral hepatitis is the most common type. It is caused by one of several viruses — hepatitis viruses A, B, C, D, and E. Alcoholic hepatitisis caused by heavy alcohol use. Toxic hepatitis can be caused by certain poisons, chemicals, medicines, or supplements. Autoimmune hepatitis is a chronic type in which your body’s immune system attacks your liver.The cause is not known, but genetics and your environment may play a role. Some people with hepatitis do not have symptoms and do not know they are infected. Common symptoms include: Fever Fatigue Loss of appetite Nausea and/or vomiting Abdominal pain Dark urine Clay-colored bowel movements Joint pain Jaundice, yellowing of your skin and eyes Treatment for hepatitis depends on which type you have and whether it is acute or chronic. Acute viral hepatitis often goes away on its own. There are different medicinesto treat the different chronic types of hepatitis. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements regarding the climatic conditions required for Cocoa: It requires an annual rainfall of 300-500 cm. It grows in the temperature range of 15°-39°C with an optimum of 25°C considered ideal. The majority of the area under Cocoa cultivation is on clay loam and sandy loam soil. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Cocoa is an important plantation crop grown for chocolates around the world. It is known as a crop of humid tropics and is native to the Amazon basin of South America. It is mainly grown in an area of land around the equator between 20 degrees latitude north and south. About 70 percent of the world’s cocoa beans come from four West African countries – Ivory Coast, Ghana, Nigeria, and Cameroon. The climatic conditions required for Cocoa: It requires an annual rainfall of 150-200 cm. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It grows in the temperature range of 15°-39°C with an optimum of 25°C considered ideal. Hence statement 2 is correct. The majority of the area under Cocoa cultivation is on clay loam and sandy loam soil. It grows well in the pH range of 6.5 to 7.0. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) Cocoa is an important plantation crop grown for chocolates around the world. It is known as a crop of humid tropics and is native to the Amazon basin of South America. It is mainly grown in an area of land around the equator between 20 degrees latitude north and south. About 70 percent of the world’s cocoa beans come from four West African countries – Ivory Coast, Ghana, Nigeria, and Cameroon. The climatic conditions required for Cocoa: It requires an annual rainfall of 150-200 cm. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It grows in the temperature range of 15°-39°C with an optimum of 25°C considered ideal. Hence statement 2 is correct. The majority of the area under Cocoa cultivation is on clay loam and sandy loam soil. It grows well in the pH range of 6.5 to 7.0. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 23 of 35 23. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Bugun Tribe: They mainly reside adjacent to Dibru-Saikhowa National Park in Assam. They celebrate the annual festival called the “Pham-Kho”. They have their own socio-political administrative decision-making body called the Nimiang. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Bugun Tribe mainly resides adjacent to Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary in Arunachal Pradesh. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. They migrated from Tibet via East Kameng, Arunachal Pradesh. They have their own geographical boundaries with neighbouring tribes and have a distinct language called Khowa. In ancient times the Bugun/Khowa tribe was known as “Shisung-Rubai.” They celebrate the annual festival called the “Pham-Kho”. Hence statement 2 is correct. Like other Indo-Mongoloid tribes of Arunachal Pradesh, Buguns (Khowas) too build their houses with bamboo. They are skilled at extracting oil from a local wood species found in the forests called Chiblem. They are generally endogamous as they marry within their community. They have their own socio-political administrative decision-making body called the Nimiang. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) The Bugun Tribe mainly resides adjacent to Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary in Arunachal Pradesh. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. They migrated from Tibet via East Kameng, Arunachal Pradesh. They have their own geographical boundaries with neighbouring tribes and have a distinct language called Khowa. In ancient times the Bugun/Khowa tribe was known as “Shisung-Rubai.” They celebrate the annual festival called the “Pham-Kho”. Hence statement 2 is correct. Like other Indo-Mongoloid tribes of Arunachal Pradesh, Buguns (Khowas) too build their houses with bamboo. They are skilled at extracting oil from a local wood species found in the forests called Chiblem. They are generally endogamous as they marry within their community. They have their own socio-political administrative decision-making body called the Nimiang. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements regarding Asbestos: They are a group of six silicate minerals with similar but distinct properties. They are non-flammable even at very high temperatures, and resistant to heat and corrosion. India’s asbestos requirement is met through imports from Russia, Kazakhstan, Brazil, and China. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Asbestos is a group of six silicate minerals with similar but distinct properties. Hence statement 1 is correct. These are generally divided into two sub-groups – serpentine and amphiboles. Serpentine asbestos (chrysotile or white asbestos) was the most commonly used type of asbestos. They are non-flammable even at very high temperatures, and resistant to heat and corrosion. Hence statement 2 is correct. They are extremely flexible and durable. They have good tensile strength and have low heat conductivity and high resistance to electricity. India’s asbestos requirement is met through imports from Russia, Kazakhstan, Brazil, and China. Hence statement 3 is correct. According to the World Health Organization, all varieties of asbestos are associated with conditions such as lung cancer, mesothelioma, laryngeal cancer, ovarian cancer, and asbestosis, lung fibrosis. If products containing asbestos are disturbed, tiny asbestos fibers are released into the air. When asbestos fibers are breathed in, they may get trapped in the lungs and remain there for a long time.   Incorrect Solution (c) Asbestos is a group of six silicate minerals with similar but distinct properties. Hence statement 1 is correct. These are generally divided into two sub-groups – serpentine and amphiboles. Serpentine asbestos (chrysotile or white asbestos) was the most commonly used type of asbestos. They are non-flammable even at very high temperatures, and resistant to heat and corrosion. Hence statement 2 is correct. They are extremely flexible and durable. They have good tensile strength and have low heat conductivity and high resistance to electricity. India’s asbestos requirement is met through imports from Russia, Kazakhstan, Brazil, and China. Hence statement 3 is correct. According to the World Health Organization, all varieties of asbestos are associated with conditions such as lung cancer, mesothelioma, laryngeal cancer, ovarian cancer, and asbestosis, lung fibrosis. If products containing asbestos are disturbed, tiny asbestos fibers are released into the air. When asbestos fibers are breathed in, they may get trapped in the lungs and remain there for a long time.   Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements regarding the International Seabed Authority (ISA): It is an autonomous international organization established to regulate mining and related activities in the international seabed beyond national jurisdiction. It came into existence upon the entry into force of the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). It is headquartered in Lyon, France. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The International Seabed Authority (ISA) is an autonomous international organization established to regulate mining and related activities in the international seabed beyond national jurisdiction. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is the organization through which state parties to UNCLOS organize and control all mineral-resources-related activities in the Area (the seabed and ocean floor and the subsoil thereof, beyond the limits of national jurisdiction) for the benefit of humankind as a whole. In so doing, ISA has the mandate to ensure the effective protection of the marine environment from harmful effects that may arise from deep-seabed-related activities. It came into existence upon the entry into force of the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). Hence statement 2 is correct. UNCLOS codified international law regarding territorial waters, sea lanes, and ocean resources. ISA has 169 Members, including 168 Member States and the European Union. It is headquartered in Kingston, Jamaica. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (b) The International Seabed Authority (ISA) is an autonomous international organization established to regulate mining and related activities in the international seabed beyond national jurisdiction. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is the organization through which state parties to UNCLOS organize and control all mineral-resources-related activities in the Area (the seabed and ocean floor and the subsoil thereof, beyond the limits of national jurisdiction) for the benefit of humankind as a whole. In so doing, ISA has the mandate to ensure the effective protection of the marine environment from harmful effects that may arise from deep-seabed-related activities. It came into existence upon the entry into force of the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). Hence statement 2 is correct. UNCLOS codified international law regarding territorial waters, sea lanes, and ocean resources. ISA has 169 Members, including 168 Member States and the European Union. It is headquartered in Kingston, Jamaica. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Question 26 of 35 26. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Netravati River: It rises between Kudrermukh and Ballalaryan Durga in the Dakshina Kannada district of Karnataka. The Kumaradhara and Hemavati are its tributaries. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) The Netravati River rises between Kudrermukh and Ballalaryan Durga in the Dakshina Kannada district of Karnataka. Hence statement 1 is correct. The river drains an area of 3,657 sq km. During the monsoon season, the Netravati River overflows, which has an adverse effect on the nearby areas. Under the world’s biodiversity conservation project, the catchment area of the Netravati River is selected as one of the 30 hotspots for biodiversity conservation. It flows generally in a North-South direction for 40 km up to Gohattu, where it takes a turn towards the West and thereafter flows in an East-West direction up to its outfall into the Arabian Sea near Mangalore. The Kumaradhara and Hemavati are its tributaries. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) The Netravati River rises between Kudrermukh and Ballalaryan Durga in the Dakshina Kannada district of Karnataka. Hence statement 1 is correct. The river drains an area of 3,657 sq km. During the monsoon season, the Netravati River overflows, which has an adverse effect on the nearby areas. Under the world’s biodiversity conservation project, the catchment area of the Netravati River is selected as one of the 30 hotspots for biodiversity conservation. It flows generally in a North-South direction for 40 km up to Gohattu, where it takes a turn towards the West and thereafter flows in an East-West direction up to its outfall into the Arabian Sea near Mangalore. The Kumaradhara and Hemavati are its tributaries. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements about the Earth Hour: It is a global grassroots movement uniting people to take action on environmental issues and protect the planet. It is organized by the International Energy Agency (IEA). It takes place towards the end of March every year. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Earth Hour is a global grassroots movement uniting people to take action on environmental issues and protect the planet. Hence statement 1 is correct. It started in Sydney, Australia, in 2007 as a symbolic lights-out event and has since grown into a global movement involving millions of people in over 190 countries and territories. It is organized by the World Wildlife Fund (WWF). Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It encourages people to switch off all lights for an hour, from 8:30 p.m. to 9:30 p.m. local time, to promote awareness of climate change challenges and energy conservation. Governments and companies also participate by turning off non-essential lights in their buildings, monuments, and landmarks to raise awareness about the impact of energy consumption on our planet. It takes place towards the end of March every year. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is known as the ‘lights off’ moment, unites people worldwide in a show of support for the planet and serves as a reminder of the environmental issues facing us.   Incorrect Solution (b) The Earth Hour is a global grassroots movement uniting people to take action on environmental issues and protect the planet. Hence statement 1 is correct. It started in Sydney, Australia, in 2007 as a symbolic lights-out event and has since grown into a global movement involving millions of people in over 190 countries and territories. It is organized by the World Wildlife Fund (WWF). Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It encourages people to switch off all lights for an hour, from 8:30 p.m. to 9:30 p.m. local time, to promote awareness of climate change challenges and energy conservation. Governments and companies also participate by turning off non-essential lights in their buildings, monuments, and landmarks to raise awareness about the impact of energy consumption on our planet. It takes place towards the end of March every year. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is known as the ‘lights off’ moment, unites people worldwide in a show of support for the planet and serves as a reminder of the environmental issues facing us.   Question 28 of 35 28. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Battle of Okinawa: It was the last major battle of World War I. It was fought between the U.S. and Germany. Okinawa is the largest of the Ryukyu Islands. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) The Battle of Okinawa was the last major battle of World War II. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The Americans wanted control of Okinawa because it had four airfields and could support tactical and strategic air operations. Capturing Okinawa was regarded as a vital precursor to a ground invasion of the Japanese home islands. Code named Operation Iceberg, the invasion of Okinawa and other islands in the Ryukyus began on April 1, 1945. It was fought between the U.S. and Japan. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The immense size of the invasion forces made it the largest amphibious assault in the Pacific War. Okinawa is the largest of the Ryukyu Islands. Hence statement 3 is correct. It lies 350 miles from mainland Japan. Ryukyus Islands is an archipelago, extending some 700 miles (1,100 km) south-westward from the southern Japanese island of Kyushu to north-eastern Taiwan. Incorrect Solution (a) The Battle of Okinawa was the last major battle of World War II. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The Americans wanted control of Okinawa because it had four airfields and could support tactical and strategic air operations. Capturing Okinawa was regarded as a vital precursor to a ground invasion of the Japanese home islands. Code named Operation Iceberg, the invasion of Okinawa and other islands in the Ryukyus began on April 1, 1945. It was fought between the U.S. and Japan. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The immense size of the invasion forces made it the largest amphibious assault in the Pacific War. Okinawa is the largest of the Ryukyu Islands. Hence statement 3 is correct. It lies 350 miles from mainland Japan. Ryukyus Islands is an archipelago, extending some 700 miles (1,100 km) south-westward from the southern Japanese island of Kyushu to north-eastern Taiwan. Question 29 of 35 29. Question Consider the following statements regarding Biomining: It is a method of extracting metals from ores and solid materials using prokaryotes, fungi, or plants. It targets various metals, including copper, gold, uranium, and rare earth elements. It reduces energy consumption, water usage, and carbon emissions compared to traditional mining methods. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Biomining is a method of extracting metals from ores and solid materials using prokaryotes, fungi, or plants. Hence statement 1 is correct. Microorganisms such as bacteria and archaea secrete organic compounds that chelate metals from the environment, making them accessible for extraction. It may also be used to clean up sites that have been polluted with metals. It targets various metals, including copper, gold, uranium, and rare earth elements. Hence statement 2 is correct. It primarily involves bio-oxidation and bioleaching processes. Large-scale biomining operations utilize chemostats of microbes to leach metals from ores, offering a sustainable and eco-friendly alternative to traditional mining methods. It reduces energy consumption, water usage, and carbon emissions compared to traditional mining methods. Hence statement 3 is correct. It permits extraction from low-grade ores, contributing to resource recovery and waste remediation. Incorrect Solution (c) Biomining is a method of extracting metals from ores and solid materials using prokaryotes, fungi, or plants. Hence statement 1 is correct. Microorganisms such as bacteria and archaea secrete organic compounds that chelate metals from the environment, making them accessible for extraction. It may also be used to clean up sites that have been polluted with metals. It targets various metals, including copper, gold, uranium, and rare earth elements. Hence statement 2 is correct. It primarily involves bio-oxidation and bioleaching processes. Large-scale biomining operations utilize chemostats of microbes to leach metals from ores, offering a sustainable and eco-friendly alternative to traditional mining methods. It reduces energy consumption, water usage, and carbon emissions compared to traditional mining methods. Hence statement 3 is correct. It permits extraction from low-grade ores, contributing to resource recovery and waste remediation. Question 30 of 35 30. Question Consider the following statements regarding Reverse Flipping: It is used to describe the trend of overseas start-ups shifting their domicile to India and listing on Indian stock exchanges. The process such as simplifying the processes for tax vacations, capital movements, and decreasing tax layers can accelerate it. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Reverse Flipping is used to describe the trend of overseas start-ups shifting their domicile to India and listing on Indian stock exchanges. Hence statement 1 is correct. The general motivation for a reverse flip is the increased certainty of an exit at a higher valuation in India. This trend has been gaining traction in recent years, as start-ups look to capitalise on India’s large and growing economy, access to deeper pools of venture capital, favourable tax regimes, better intellectual property protection, a young and educated population, and favourable government policies. The process such as simplifying the processes for tax vacations, capital movements, and decreasing tax layers can accelerate it. These are proposed in the Economic Survey 2022-23. Hence statement 2 is correct.   Incorrect Solution (c) Reverse Flipping is used to describe the trend of overseas start-ups shifting their domicile to India and listing on Indian stock exchanges. Hence statement 1 is correct. The general motivation for a reverse flip is the increased certainty of an exit at a higher valuation in India. This trend has been gaining traction in recent years, as start-ups look to capitalise on India’s large and growing economy, access to deeper pools of venture capital, favourable tax regimes, better intellectual property protection, a young and educated population, and favourable government policies. The process such as simplifying the processes for tax vacations, capital movements, and decreasing tax layers can accelerate it. These are proposed in the Economic Survey 2022-23. Hence statement 2 is correct.   Question 31 of 35 31. Question From a point P on a level ground, the angle of elevation of the top tower is 300. If the tower is 100 m high, the distance of point P from the foot of the tower is: a) 149 m b) 156 m c) 173 m d) 200 m Correct Solution (c) Let AB be the tower. Then, ∠APB = 30° and AB = 100m   AB/AP = tan 30° = 1/√3 ⇒ AP = AB × √3 = 100 × √3 ⇒ AP = 100 × 1.73 = 173m Incorrect Solution (c) Let AB be the tower. Then, ∠APB = 30° and AB = 100m   AB/AP = tan 30° = 1/√3 ⇒ AP = AB × √3 = 100 × √3 ⇒ AP = 100 × 1.73 = 173m Question 32 of 35 32. Question Let a, b, c and d be natural numbers such that a – 502 = b + 503 = c – 504 = d + 506 Which one of the following is the largest natural number? a) d b) c c) b d) a Correct Solution (c) In questions like this, we need to keep in mind that we are just supposed to compare the numbers and so we should avoid wasting our time in finding their real values. a – 502 = b + 503 or a = b + 503 + 502 (it means a > b) b + 503 = c – 504 or c = b + 503 + 504 (it means c > b) c – 504 = d + 505 or c = d + 505 + 504 (it means c > d) a – 502 = c – 504 or c = a – 502 + 504 = a + 2 (it means c > a) We already know that c > b, d On arranging all letters according to above findings, we get: c > a > b & c > d Hence, c is the largest number. Incorrect Solution (c) In questions like this, we need to keep in mind that we are just supposed to compare the numbers and so we should avoid wasting our time in finding their real values. a – 502 = b + 503 or a = b + 503 + 502 (it means a > b) b + 503 = c – 504 or c = b + 503 + 504 (it means c > b) c – 504 = d + 505 or c = d + 505 + 504 (it means c > d) a – 502 = c – 504 or c = a – 502 + 504 = a + 2 (it means c > a) We already know that c > b, d On arranging all letters according to above findings, we get: c > a > b & c > d Hence, c is the largest number. Question 33 of 35 33. Question x is a prime number. It is squared, and added to a different prime number. Statements: The resultant is a positive number. The resultant is an odd number. The resultant is an even number. The resultant is a negative number. Based on the above statements chose the correct option a) i and iii only b) ii or iii only c) ii and iv only d) Either ii or iii and i only Correct Solution (d) Case 1: Let x = 2 Required sum = 22+ 3 = 4 + 3 = 7 So, the resultant is odd. So, statement ii is correct. Case 2: Let x = 3 Required sum = 32 + 5 = 9 + 5 = 14 So, the resultant is even. So, statement iii is correct. Both the results are positive numbers. So statement i is also true. So, option (d) is the correct answer.   Incorrect Solution (d) Case 1: Let x = 2 Required sum = 22+ 3 = 4 + 3 = 7 So, the resultant is odd. So, statement ii is correct. Case 2: Let x = 3 Required sum = 32 + 5 = 9 + 5 = 14 So, the resultant is even. So, statement iii is correct. Both the results are positive numbers. So statement i is also true. So, option (d) is the correct answer.   Question 34 of 35 34. Question In the repeating decimal below, the digits 9639757 repeat. What digit is in the 768th place to the right of the decimal point? 0.96397579639757… a) 5 b) 3 c) 9 d) 7 Correct Solution (d) There is 7 digits in the given number, so it will repeat after every 7 digit and 7th digit of the number is 7. It will look like: 1st 2nd 3rd 4th 5th 6th 7th 8th 9th 10th 11th 12th 13th 14th 9    6   3    9   7    5   7   9    6    3      9     7       5     7 763rd  764th  765th  766th  767th  768th 7         9         6         3        9         7 763 is the closest number that is a multiple of 7. Hence, 768th place will be 7. So, option (d) is the correct option. Incorrect Solution (d) There is 7 digits in the given number, so it will repeat after every 7 digit and 7th digit of the number is 7. It will look like: 1st 2nd 3rd 4th 5th 6th 7th 8th 9th 10th 11th 12th 13th 14th 9    6   3    9   7    5   7   9    6    3      9     7       5     7 763rd  764th  765th  766th  767th  768th 7         9         6         3        9         7 763 is the closest number that is a multiple of 7. Hence, 768th place will be 7. So, option (d) is the correct option. Question 35 of 35 35. Question A monkey tries to pick a coconut from a coconut tree which is at the height of 61 feet. Every time the monkey jumps 3 feet and slides down 1 feet. What is the number of jumps required for the monkey to reach to the coconut? a) 28 b) 29 c) 30 d) 31 Correct Solution (c) Height of coconut = 61 feet Total height covered by monkey in one jump = 3 – 1 = 2 feet Number of jumps required by monkey to cover 58 feet = 58/2 = 29 jumps In the 30th jump the monkey will reach the coconut. Hence, total number of jumps required = 30 Hence, the correct answer is option (c). Incorrect Solution (c) Height of coconut = 61 feet Total height covered by monkey in one jump = 3 – 1 = 2 feet Number of jumps required by monkey to cover 58 feet = 58/2 = 29 jumps In the 30th jump the monkey will reach the coconut. 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