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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 21st November 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) RURAL-URBAN MIGRATION AND URBAN POVERTY Syllabus: Mains – GS 1 & GS 2 Context: The Indian Government recently announced a door-to-door survey to identify the various vulnerabilities of urban poverty, especially among low-income households. The survey aims to target six specific groups, including domestic workers and gig workers. Background: – NITI Aayog’s discussion paper on multidimensional poverty in India has underlined that rural poverty has reduced faster than urban poverty. Key takeaways In India, the understanding of poverty has a rural bias, and urban poverty is often considered a consequence of rural distress.  Following liberalisation in the 1990s, rapid growth increased the demand for skilled labour in urban areas. However, uneven growth and concentration of economic benefits in certain states and regions accentuated disparities. This led to the migration of people from less developed regions to more prosperous regions, contributing to the rise of urban poverty.  As of 2020-21, about one-third of India’s total population is migrants, with migrants forming 34.6% of the total population in urban areas.  As people move from rural areas to cities, the urban population grows along with the physical expansion of cities. This process is called urbanisation. Rapid urbanisation exerts pressure on housing, resulting in overcrowding and the proliferation of informal settlements, which contribute to the “urbanisation of poverty” Hence, urban poverty refers not only to the state of poverty or income deprivation but also to a lack of access to essential services such as housing, water, sanitation, health, education, livelihoods, and social security.  Urban poverty and slums Another important aspect of urban poverty in India is its relation to slums. There is a tendency to equate slum populations with large and metropolitan cities. Notably, around 62 per cent of the slum population in India is concentrated outside of big cities.  Experts have argued that clusters with fewer than 60 households, excluded from the definition of slums, often house some of the most vulnerable residents. This exclusion results in a significant undercounting. Moreover, these excluded clusters also tend to be located in environmentally hazardous areas. Consequently, the urban poor are more likely to be exposed to environmental disasters as well as to the impact of climate change.  Urban poverty and informality Urban poverty is also closely related to the kind of jobs the urban poor do. According to a 1972 ILO report, which popularised the concept of “informal sector”, migrant and urban dwellers are often absorbed in small-scale activities when the modern sector cannot create enough jobs. The informal sector is characteristised by easy entry, small-scale operations, labour-intensive tasks, use of local and adapted technology, skills acquired outside the formal education system, and unregulated, competitive markets. An estimated 80 per cent of all workers in urban areas are employed in the informal sector. These jobs are mostly low-paying, insecure, and without benefits like insurance or pensions. These activities are not regulated by the government. In addition, these jobs also have many caste, religion, and gender dimensions.  Policy suggestions  There are schemes like Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban, Jal Jeevan Mission – Urban, Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Urban Livelihoods Mission, etc designed for the urban poor.  These initiatives aim to address issues like housing, drinking water, sanitation as well as gainful self-employment. The difficulty of estimating the informal sector as well as slums becomes an in capturing urban poverty. Therefore, the expansion of social protection and safety nets may need to be prioritised.  Further, studies have often found that households registered under the schemes often do not get the benefits or are not aware. Hence, adopting a broader perspective in policy execution might help ensure that urban poverty alleviation efforts are inclusive and effective. Source: Indian Express   CLOUD SEEDING Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: The Delhi government’s appeal to the Centre to permit cloud-seeding and induce artificial rain as a means to tackle the capital’s ongoing air pollution crisis is misplaced, scientists at the Indian Institute of Tropical Management, Pune, said. Background: – Delhi’s Environment Minister suggested that artificial rain could help settle airborne pollutants and improve visibility. What is Cloud Seeding? Cloud seeding is a weather modification technique aimed at inducing or enhancing precipitation by dispersing substances into the atmosphere. Substances used: Silver iodide, potassium iodide, dry ice (solid CO₂), or liquid propane. How it Works Process: Tiny particles act as cloud condensation nuclei or ice nuclei. They encourage water droplets to condense and form larger droplets, eventually falling as rain or snow. Methods: Aerial Spraying: Using aircraft to disperse seeding agents. Ground-Based Release: Releasing agents through generators on the ground. Why cloud seeding may not work in Delhi? During winter, Delhi often experiences temperature inversions, trapping pollutants near the surface. These stable atmospheric conditions do not favor the development of clouds that could be seeded.  Cloud seeding requires the presence of moisture-laden clouds. The scale of Delhi’s pollution problem is vast, requiring massive, continuous rain over a large area to have a measurable impact. Source: Indian Express SABARMATI RIVER Syllabus: Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: The Sabarmati Riverfront development project, which aims to transform around 38 kilometres of riverbanks from Ahmedabad to Gandhinagar across seven phases, has begun monetising its first phase, covering around 11 kilometres on either side of the river. Background: The riverfront was one of the pet projects of Prime Minister Narendra Modi when he was the chief minister of Gujarat. Key takeaways The Sabarmati River is one of the major west-flowing rivers in India, originating in the Aravalli Range of Rajasthan and flowing through Gujarat before emptying into the Gulf of Khambhat in the Arabian Sea. Tributaries: Wakal, Harnav, Hathmati, Watrak (left bank); Sei (right bank) Course: Rajasthan: The river travels 48 kilometers (30 miles) in Rajasthan before entering Gujarat. Gujarat: It flows through the states of Gujarat, passing through cities like Ahmedabad and Gandhinagar, and finally reaches the Gulf of Khambhat. Agriculture: The Sabarmati basin is primarily agricultural, with 74.68% of the basin area dedicated to farming. Monsoon-Dependent: The river is monsoon-fed, with flows dominated by the monsoon season. Source: Hindustan Times INTERPOL NOTICES Syllabus: Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: Bangladesh’s interim government on November 10 said it will seek Interpol’s assistance in repatriating deposed prime minister Sheikh Hasina from India, and other “fugitives”, to face trial for alleged crimes against humanity. Background: – Interpol notices are international requests made by memeber countries for cooperation or alerts allowing police in member countries to share critical crime-related information.Interestingly, such notices can also be used by the United Nations, International Criminal Tribunals and the International Criminal Court to seek persons wanted for committing crimes within their jurisdiction. What is Interpol? Full Form: International Criminal Police Organization. Headquarters: Lyon, France. Function: Facilitates international police cooperation against global crimes like terrorism, human trafficking, cybercrime, and organized crime. India’s Representation: Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) acts as India’s nodal agency for Interpol. Types of Interpol Notices Red Notice: To seek the location and arrest of a person wanted by judicial authorities for prosecution or to serve a sentence. Example: Extradition cases. Blue Notice: To collect additional information about a person’s identity, location, or activities related to a crime. Green Notice: To warn about a person’s criminal activities, particularly if they pose a threat to public safety. Yellow Notice: To locate missing persons, especially minors, or to identify persons who cannot identify themselves. Black Notice: To seek information about unidentified bodies. Orange Notice : To warn about an imminent threat from objects like explosives, weapons, or criminal tactics. Purple Notice: To seek or provide information on modus operandi, objects, devices, and concealment methods used by criminals. Interpol-UNSC Special Notice: Issued for individuals and entities subject to UN Security Council sanctions, like freezing of assets, travel bans, or arms embargoes. Source: Indian Express CLUSTER MUNITIONS Syllabus: Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: A Russian ballistic missile with cluster munitions struck a residential area in northern Ukraine, killing 11 people and injuring 84 others. Background: – Also, U.S. President Joe Biden authorized for the first time the use of U.S.-supplied longer-range missiles by Ukraine to strike inside Russia, after extensive lobbying by Ukrainian officials. What are Cluster Munitions? Definition: Cluster munitions are explosive weapons designed to release multiple smaller submunitions or bomblets over a wide area. Types: Delivered via rockets, artillery, or aircraft. Purpose: Used to target personnel, vehicles, or infrastructure in a concentrated region. Mechanism Cluster munitions open mid-air, scattering submunitions across a wide area. Many bomblets may remain unexploded, creating long-term risks similar to landmines. International Concerns Humanitarian Issues: Unexploded bomblets pose a threat to civilians for years after conflicts end. High civilian casualties due to their indiscriminate nature. Environmental Damage: Land contamination and restricted use of agricultural areas. Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM) Adopted: 2008; entered into force in 2010. Objective: To prohibit the use, development, production, acquisition, stockpiling, and transfer of cluster munitions. Ratifications: Over 110 countries have ratified or acceded to the convention. Provisions: Assistance for victims and clearance of contaminated areas. States that have not joined: Major military powers like the USA, Russia, China, and India. India’s Position India has not signed the CCM, citing: Security considerations and legitimate defensive needs. Lack of universal adherence to the convention. Concern over the efficacy of existing alternatives. Source: New Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements regarding Cluster Munitions: They are explosive weapons that release smaller submunitions over a wide area. The Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM) has been ratified by India. Unexploded submunitions from cluster bombs pose long-term risks similar to landmines. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3   Q2.) With reference to INTERPOL Notices, consider the following pairs:   Notice Color                    Purpose   Red Notice                     Request to locate and provisionally arrest a person for extradition. Blue Notice                    Request to collect information about a person’s location or identity. Green Notice                Alerts of threats posed by a person’s criminal activities internationally. Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3   Q3.) Consider the following statements regarding the Sabarmati River: It originates in the Aravalli Hills in Rajasthan. The river flows entirely within the state of Gujarat. The Sabarmati Riverfront Project is an example of urban river rejuvenation. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  20th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 21st November 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 20th November 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 20th November 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) 4B MOVEMENT Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: In the aftermath of Donald Trump’s victory, the 4B movement, which originated in South Korea, became one of the most searched topics online. Many American women took to social media to announce that they are adopting it in their lives. Background: – The movement started in South Korea around 2016, when a woman was murdered in a Seoul subway station. Her killer said he had “felt ignored by women”. This was also the time when multiple women in South Korea reported having been filmed by spycams. This movement belongs to the strain of radical feminism that believes that heterosexual relationships at their heart remain structures of oppression, and women need to break free of them to be truly independent and happy so they adopt  “Four Nos” — no dating, no sex, no marriage, and no childbearing. Key takeaways 4B stands for four bis, or no in the Korean language: bihon, bichulsan, biyeonae, and bisekseu, meaning the refusal of (heterosexual) marriage, childbirth, romance, and sexual relationships, respectively. In the Indian context, consider this — marriage often involves dowry, the burden of running the married home and raising the child is disproportionately on women, many women are penalised at their workplaces for motherhood duties, and intimate partner violence is common. While women are supposed to endure all this for the sake of love and duties, there are very little expectations from men. The proponents of the 4B movement believe that unless men work more actively for a gender-just society, women should not reward them with children, love, and emotional and other forms of labour. Essentially, the movement wants women to imagine more roles for themselves than just wives and mothers.  Women not bogged down by domestic duties and not being controlled by a man can focus on their own aims, hobbies, comfort, and happiness, the movement believes. It also advocate women building strong solidarities with other women. Why is it gaining popularity in America now? The US Supreme Court overturned Roe v Wade in 2022, taking away the constitutional right to abortion. As of November this year, 21 states have banned abortion or restricted the procedure earlier in pregnancy than what was granted in Roe v Wade. After the election, pro-Trump social media influencers trended a misogynist campaign called “Your body, My choice” which normalises rape and forced pregnancy. Undoubtedly, the slogan was an antithesis of the feminist slogan “My body, My Choice”. The 4B is a response to the happenings. Why do some non-sexist people also oppose 4B? Some point out that just cutting off contact with men is not a solution — this puts the onus of staying away from men on the woman, instead of demanding change and accountability from men.  Believing men as incapable of reform can play into the ‘boys will be boys’ school of thought, it is argued. Meaningful change can come by raising awareness and a sense of responsibility among men, and this can happen by pushing back from within relationships. Others point out that such totalising movements can be exclusionary of transgender rights. Another criticism is that these movements rob women of choice: one can be frustrated with inequality but still want children, or in the case of heterosexual women, sexual pleasure. Source: Indian Express   COP MUST NOTE NEGATIVE IMPACTS OF UNILATERAL TRADE MEASURES: INDIA Syllabus: Mains – GS 2 & GS 3 Context: Reacting strongly to suggestions that principles of ‘Just Transition’ be used to draw up climate action plans in the future, India said “prescriptive top-down approaches” were violative of provisions of the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change and the Paris Agreement. Background: – Insisting that development was the “overriding priority” of countries in the Global South, India said if the developed countries indeed wanted to discuss ‘just transition’, they should be willing to discuss it in the broader sense including the inequities in the global climate discourse, and not just in the NDCs and the National Adaptation Plans (NAPs). Key takeaways In the climate change context, ‘just transition’ refers to a shift to low-carbon economies in a fair, equitable and inclusive manner which does not put any segment of people at any particular disadvantage.  India was not objecting to the principles of just transition, but the fact that countries were being asked to prepare their climate action plans in a certain way. Under the Paris Agreement, the climate action plans, called Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs), are supposed to be “nationally-determined” and not forced upon by others. India said provision of climate finance was one of the most critical enablers for just transition, and developed countries had failed in their responsibility of putting adequate money on the table. Intellectual property rights on green technologies are hindering free and scalable access for developing countries, India stated. India raised the issue of unilateral coercive measures restricting trade flows and denying countries access to equitable development opportunities. Though it did not single it out, India was referring to the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) introduced by the European Union.  CBAM seeks to impose a tax on a certain class of goods imported in the EU, if the production of those goods had an emission footprint higher than the emission standards in EU.  Ostensibly a step to control emissions, CBAM has the effect of making the goods from developing countries like China or India non-competitive in the European markets. The developing countries complain that the costs of emissions reductions are in a way getting shifted to them. Source: Indian Express ONE DAY ONE GENOME INITIATIVE Syllabus: Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Syllabus: Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: The Department of Biotechnology (DBT) and Biotechnology Research and Innovation Council (BRIC) have launched the ‘One Day One Genome’ initiative. Background: The initiative is led by BRIC in collaboration with the National Institute of Biomedical Genomics (NIBMG), an institute under the DBT. Key takeaways The One Day One Genome Initiative is a transformative project launched by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) and the Biotechnology Research and Innovation Council (BRIC) to unlock India’s vast microbial potential. Objectives: Microbial Exploration: To explore and showcase India’s unique microbial species and their roles in agriculture, the environment, and human health. Genomic Data: To make genomic data freely available to the public, fostering scientific collaboration and community engagement. Innovation: To stimulate discussions, inspire research, and drive innovations with real-world applications. Key Features: Genome Sequencing: The initiative involves genome sequencing of bacterial species isolated in India, revealing their genetic blueprint and potential applications. Public Accessibility: Fully annotated bacterial genomes, along with graphical summaries, infographics, and genome assembly details, will be made publicly available. Significance: Environmental Protection: Research in this field can lead to better protection and management of the environment. Agricultural Development: It can contribute to the development of agriculture by enhancing nutrient cycling, soil fertility, and pest control. Human Health: The initiative can improve human health outcomes by supporting digestion, immunity, and mental health. Source: Krishi Jagran GURU GHASIDAS - TAMOR PINGLA TIGER RESERVE Syllabus: Prelims – ENVIRONMENT Context: The Chhattisgarh government has officially designated the Guru Ghasidas National Park and Tamor Pingla Wildlife Sanctuary as a new tiger reserve, bringing the total number of tiger reserves in the state to four. The new reserve will be known as the Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve. Background: – The National Tiger Conservation Authority had accorded final approval for notifying the Guru Ghasidas- Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve in 2021. Key takeaways It is the 56th Tiger Reserve of the country. It is nestled in the Chota Nagpur plateau and partly in Baghelkhand plateau. The tiger reserve, encompassing a total area of 2829.38 sq.kms, includes a core/critical tiger habitat of 2049.2 sq.kms, comprising the Guru Ghasidas National Park and Tamor Pingla Wildlife Sanctuary, and has a buffer of 780.15 sq.kms.  This makes it the third largest tiger reserve in the country after Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve in Andhra Pradesh and Manas Tiger Reserve in Assam. Keeping in view the landscape approach to conservation as envisaged in India’s National Wildlife Plan, the newly notified tiger reserve is contiguous with the Sanjay Dubri Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh forming a landscape complex of nearly 4500 sq.kms.  Further, the tiger reserve is connected to the Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh to the West and Palamau Tiger Reserve in Jharkhand to the East. Source: PIB SUDAN Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – ENVIRONMENT Syllabus: Prelims – GEOGRPAHY Context: Russia vetoed a UN resolution on Monday calling for an immediate ceasefire in the war between Sudan’s military and paramilitary forces and delivery of humanitarian aid to millions in desperate need. Background: – Sudan plunged into conflict in April 2023, when long-simmering tensions between its military and paramilitary leaders erupted in the capital, Khartoum, and spread to other regions, including western Darfur, which was wracked by bloodshed and atrocities in 2003. Key takeaways Sudan is a country located in northeastern Africa, bordered by Egypt to the north, the Red Sea to the northeast, Eritrea and Ethiopia to the east, South Sudan to the south, the Central African Republic to the southwest, Chad to the west, and Libya to the northwest. Capital: Khartoum Major Rivers: The Blue Nile and the White Nile, which converge in Khartoum Colonial Era: Sudan was jointly administered by Egypt and Britain from 1899 until its independence in 1956 Independence: Sudan gained independence from Anglo-Egyptian rule in 1956 Civil Wars: Sudan experienced two prolonged civil wars, the first from 1955-1972 and the second from 1983-2005 South Sudan Independence: South Sudan seceded from Sudan in 2011, becoming an independent country Economy: Main Industries: Agriculture, livestock, oil, and minerals. Challenges: Sudan faces economic challenges, including inflation, unemployment, and ongoing conflicts Culture: Languages: Arabic is the official language, but many local languages are also spoken Religion: Islam is the dominant religion, with Christianity and indigenous beliefs also present. Additional Information : Conflict in Darfur The War in Darfur, also nicknamed the Land Cruiser War, was a major armed conflict in the Darfur region of Sudan that began in 2003 when rebel groups began fighting against the government of Sudan, which they accused of oppressing Darfur’s non-Arab population. The government responded to attacks by carrying out a campaign of ethnic cleansing against Darfur’s non-Arabs. This resulted in the death of hundreds of thousands of civilians and the indictment of Sudan’s president, Omar al-Bashir, for genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity by the International Criminal Court. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements regarding the ‘One Day One Genome Initiative’: It is launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change. The initiative aims to sequence the genome of bacterial species found in India and make genomic data freely accessible to the public. It primarily focuses on human genome sequencing for personalized healthcare. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only   Q2.) With reference to the Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve, consider the following statements: It is located entirely within the Chota Nagpur plateau. It is the largest tiger reserve in India. It forms a contiguous wildlife landscape with the Sanjay Dubri Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3   Q3.) Which of the following statements about Sudan is/are correct? Sudan is bordered by Libya, Chad, and Ethiopia. The Blue Nile and the White Nile converge in the capital city, Khartoum. South Sudan gained independence from Sudan in 2005 after the conclusion of the second civil war. Select the correct answer using the code below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  19th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – a Q.3) – a

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 19th November 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) INDIA’S ROAD TO NET-ZERO Syllabus: Mains – GS 3 Context: Climate action and plans of action by various countries is drawing significant attention as United Nations’ annual meeting of the Conference of the Parties (COPs) progresses in Baku. Background: – A few COPs ago, India committed to achieving net-zero carbon emissions by 2070. Since then, it has implemented several policies while others are in the works to support this transition. It is widely acknowledged that this journey will not be without challenges. Why net-zero at all? The scientific consensus is that to avoid devastating and irreversible consequences, the world must keep the global average annual surface temperature rise to within 1.5 °C above pre-industrial levels. The current increase is at least 1.1 °C over that in 1880. The Sixth Assessment Report of the U.N. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change estimated that from 2020, the remaining (cumulative) global carbon budget for limiting temperature rise to 1.5 °C is 400-500 billion tonnes (Gt) of CO2. Currently, annual global emissions are around 40 GtCO₂. This means net global emissions must drop drastically to stay within the carbon budget. Is net-zero equitable? The developed world, having caused the problem of climate change in the first place, is expected to reach net-zero emissions well before 2050, allowing more time for developing countries to balance their development goals with climate action. These expectations aren’t being met, however. Developed countries are also expected to help finance climate action, but this hasn’t materialised at the required scale. Developing countries, especially those that are small islands, are bearing more than their fair share of the brunt of climate change. So overall, neither climate change nor climate action is currently equitable. A new consumption corridor India’s lifestyle aspirations could easily become unsustainable in the long run, jeopardising our access to basic needs. In a scenario where consumption rises unchecked and India electrifies all end-use applications, the power demand could increase nine- to tenfold by 2070. Meeting it entirely via renewable energy will require more than 5,500 GW of solar and 1,500 GW of wind. This target is achievable if India’s only priority is to expand renewable energy generation capacity. But if India is to maintain food and nutritional security, increase forest cover, and preserve biodiversity as well, these energy targets will become challenging. Going beyond 3,500 GW solar and 900 GW wind will demand considerable land trade-offs. India has a tough balancing act to pull off: availing good quality of life to a large share of its population (which has significant material and energy implications) while working towards its climate adaptation and mitigation goals. To this end, it is important to recognise the pitfalls of economic models. For example, the environmental Kuznets curve hypothesises that beyond a threshold, economic growth can be decoupled from carbon emissions. In reality, even the richest countries haven’t achieved this decoupling. India need to envisage a long-term strategy incorporating ‘sufficiency consumption corridors’, with a floor well suited to meeting our developmental goals and a ceiling of excess that will help avoid unsustainable growth. Equally important are demand-side measures to help maintain this corridor of consumption that will keep us on a sustainable pathway. Demand and supply measures Some of the demand-side measures include the use of better construction materials and passive design elements to provide thermal comfort that doesn’t require air-conditioning, energy-efficient appliances, public and/or non-motorised transport, local products to reduce the demand for long-haul freight, mindful dietary choices, and alternative fuels in industries. On the supply side as well, India needs to further decentralise energy production (including by the use of rooftop solar cells and of solar pumps for agriculture). Finally, it should continue to expand its nuclear power generation capacity. Source: The Hindu   MEDIA LITERACY Syllabus: Mains – GS 2 & GS 4 Context: National Press Day is celebrated annually on 16 November. The expansion of Information and Communication Technologies (ICT) and the rapid spread of information highlights the growing significance of media literacy in ensuring responsible journalism and countering misinformation.  Background: – It is time to pause and understand our information needs, digital rights, and the algorithms shaping how information is presented and disseminated, and finally explore how to navigate the turbulent sea of information. Building resilience against misinformation  Information is increasingly weaponised to breed mistrust, division and intolerance, and its unhindered proliferation jeopardises the larger goal of the well-being of an open and plural society.  In today’s media-saturated culture, truth has become the first casualty. It sets the seal on what Jonathan Swift, the outstanding Anglo-Irish satirist, asserted centuries ago, “Falsehood flies, and the truth comes limping after it”. Develop a way with media literacy In an era where truth often takes a backseat, facts get smothered by emotional responses, primarily fuelled by social media. Information seekers ought to understand who creates the message, what purposes it serves, and what creative techniques are used to make lies indistinguishable from the truth.  Developing a distinct ability to analyse how political, religious, commercial, and ethnic allegiances affect human sensitivity is essential. This urgently needed skill can only be acquired if one understands and develops a way with media literacy – a widely used but least understood term.  Media literacy equips individuals to critically evaluate what is presented by the media as objective truth. It empowers us to find meaning between the lines, not on them.  Media literacy emphasises cultivating critical thinking, enabling individuals to resist being swayed by rhetorical flourishes or polemics (biased arguments). It exposes how both print media and digital platforms have the potential for manipulative persuasion and are often used to further vested interests.  To make us sensitive to religious, social, cultural and racial prejudices, media literacy harps on critical thinking so that one can realise that all beliefs and ideologies – whether rooted in religion, nationalism or other belief systems – often carry inherent biases.   Four dimensions of media literacy  Renowned media scholar W. James Potter aptly asserted that all media messages include four dimensions: 1. Cognitive: What sort of information is being transmitted? 2. Emotional: The underlying feelings that are being conjured. 3. Aesthetic: The artistic beauty and creativity of the design of the message. 4. Moral: The values being conveyed through the message. These dimensions highlight that the intent of the message goes well beyond what meets the eye. For instance, the sale of adulterated sweets and savoury snack food was made the topic of talk shows on several channels during the recent festive season. However, few can comprehend the subtle nuances of discussions disguised in the idiom of public good.  At first sight, these discussions appear to show concerns for public health, informing viewers of the harmful effects of consuming adulterated sweets and snacks. However, during commercial breaks, a leading actor endorses a chocolate product, and a prominent actress promotes a snack brand.  It implies that people should shift from traditional festive treats like laddoos and samosa to products manufactured by multinationals.  Media literacy is of critical significance here as it empowers viewers to look beyond the surface. By understanding these nuances, viewers can make informed choices and resist being swayed by celebrity endorsements.  Reshaping education with media literacy  The biggest threats to our collective well-being – misinformation, hate speech, conspiracy theories and othering of the marginalised sections – can only be countered through media literacy. Media literacy initiatives help us recognise how media frame issues, emphasising the significance of sourcing, authenticity, credibility and biases in mediated messages.  By fostering critical thinking, online and digital rights and social and emotional sensitivity, media literacy helps create an inclusive, participatory and open society that empowers people.  Media literacy enables one to uncover the obscured truths, question racial, religious and ethnic stereotypes and foster connectedness across diverse communities.  Source: Indian Express MITIGATION WORK PROGRAMME (MWP) Syllabus: Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: At the Mitigation Work Programme (MWP), India said that developed countries have historically contributed the most to greenhouse gas emissions. Background: India said developed countries had “continuously shifted goals, delayed climate action, and consumed a highly disproportionate share of the global carbon budget.” Key takeaways The Mitigation Work Programme (MWP) is an initiative established by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) to help countries scale up their mitigation ambition and implementation to achieve the goals of the Paris Agreement. The MWP was created two years ago at COP27 in Sharm el-Sheikh, Egypt. Objectives: Scale Up Mitigation: The primary goal is to scale up mitigation efforts to limit global warming to well below 2 degrees Celsius, with an aspirational target of 1.5 degrees Celsius. Support National Contributions: Assist countries in implementing and enhancing their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs). Foster Innovation: Generate discussions that are facilitative, constructive, innovative, and catalytic. Inclusive Participation: Ensure diverse participation from policymakers, stakeholders, and non-Party stakeholders. Key Features: Global Dialogues: Conduct annual global dialogues and investment-focused events from 2023-2026 to discuss mitigation opportunities and challenges. Thematic Workshops: Host thematic workshops to share best practices, lessons learned, and overcome barriers to scaling up mitigation action. Sectoral Approaches: Consider sectoral approaches to identify cost-effective and scalable mitigation opportunities. Regional Focus: Address regional approaches to equity, sustainable development, and synergies with adaptation. Source: Economic Times DEAD SEA Syllabus: Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: Researchers have discovered meter-high chimneys on the floor of the Dead Sea. These are formed by the spontaneous crystallization of minerals from groundwater with an extremely high salt content flowing up out of the lake floor, the report in journal Science of the Total Environment. Background: – Discovered for the first time, these vents are an important early warning indicator for sinkholes. These subsidence craters form in the area surrounding the Dead Sea and pose a significant hazard to the population. Key takeaways The Dead Sea is a landlocked salt lake bordered by Jordan to the east and Israel and Palestine to the west. It is located in the Jordan Rift Valley, part of the Great Rift System. Salinity: The Dead Sea is one of the saltiest water bodies on Earth, with a salinity of about 34%. The high salinity prevents most aquatic life, hence the name “Dead Sea.” Lowest Point: It is the lowest point on Earth’s surface on land, sitting at approximately 430 meters below sea level and still dropping. Unique Properties: The lake is rich in minerals, especially magnesium, bromide, and potassium, making it a hub for therapeutic and cosmetic products. The high density of water allows people to float effortlessly. Formation: Formed due to tectonic activity in the Jordan Rift Valley. Fed mainly by the Jordan River, but with no outlets, leading to high evaporation rates. Environmental Concerns: The Dead Sea is shrinking rapidly, with water levels dropping by over 1 meter annually due to diversion of the Jordan River and mineral extraction. Sinkholes are increasingly forming in the region as a result of the declining water levels. Cultural and Historical Significance: Mentioned in several historical and religious texts, including the Bible. Nearby are significant archaeological sites, such as the Masada Fortress and Qumran Caves (where the Dead Sea Scrolls were discovered). Source: Science Daily WHY CO2 HAS CONTRIBUTED THE MOST TO GLOBAL WARMING Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – ENVIRONMENT Context: India’s carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions from burning fossil fuels are expected to increase by 4.6% in 2024, the highest among major economies, according to a new report by Global Carbon Project. Background: – CO2 is one of the most important GHGs in the atmosphere and is the primary driver of anthropogenic climate change. Key takeaways GHGs are those gases in the Earth’s atmosphere that trap heat. The Sun emits shortwave radiation or sunlight that passes through the atmosphere and is absorbed by the planet’s surface. Some of this sunlight is reflected back by the surface as infrared radiation (heat) which has a longer wavelength. GHGs such as CO2 and methane (CH4), which cannot absorb shortwave radiation, trap infrared radiation.  Studies have shown that CO2 has contributed more than any driver to climate change. In fact, CO2 is responsible for about 70% of global warming. In 2013, the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) compared the “radiative forcing” (RF) or heating effect of three different climate drivers: GHGs, aerosols, and land use change. It was found that between 1750 and 2011, CO2 had the highest positive RF, meaning it had the greatest warming effect on the planet. The analysis also showed that other GHGs such as CH4 or Hydrofluorocarbons (an entirely human-made GHG) which are much more potent — while CH4 is around 80 times more powerful than CO2, HFCs can be thousands of times more powerful — had less heating effect than CO2. There are two reasons for this. One, CO2 is much more abundant in the atmosphere compared to CH4 and HFCs. Since the onset of industrial times in the 18th century, human activities have raised atmospheric CO2 by 50%, which means the amount of CO2 is now 150% of its value in 1750. Two, CO2 remains in the atmosphere longer than the other major GHGs emitted due to human activities. It takes about a decade for CH4 emissions to leave the atmosphere (it converts into CO2) and about a century for nitrous oxide (N2O). Notably, water vapour is the most abundant GHG in the atmosphere. However, it has a short cycle (10 days on average) and does not build up in the atmosphere in the same way as CO2 does. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) National Press Day is celebrated annually on (a) November 16th (b) November 1st (c) November 21st (d) November 18th   Q2.) With reference to the Mitigation Work Programme (MWP), consider the following statements: The MWP was established under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) during COP27. The primary objective of the MWP is to address the loss and damage caused by climate change in vulnerable regions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2   Q3.) Consider the following statements about the Dead Sea: It is the lowest point on Earth’s surface on land. The Dead Sea is primarily fed by the Euphrates River. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  18th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – d Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 19th November 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 18th November 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. .To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 18th November 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) SAFE HARBOUR CLAUSE Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: The government recently reiterated its stance to revisit the safe harbour clause for social media intermediaries such as X, Telegram, Facebook, Instagram, etc, amid an increase in instances of misinformation and fake news over these platforms. Background: – Currently under Section 79 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, the platforms have the immunity against legal prosecution for content posted by users. In case of removal of safe harbour clause or changes in its contours, such platforms will themselves become directly accountable for the user content and won’t be able to enjoy legal immunity. Key takeaways Section 79 of the IT Act says any intermediary shall not be held legally or otherwise liable for any third party information, data, or communication link made available or hosted on its platform.  This protection, the Act says, shall be applicable if the said intermediary does not in any way, initiate the transmission of the message in question, select the receiver of the transmitted message and does not modify any information contained in the transmission. The protection accorded under Section 79, however, is not granted if the intermediary, despite being informed or notified by the government or its agencies, does not immediately disable access to the material under question.  The intermediary must not tamper with any evidence of these messages or content present on its platform, failing which it lose its protection under the Act. The government talked about reconsidering the safe harbour clause last year during consultations on the Digital India Act, which once implemented will replace the decades old IT Act, 2000. However, the government is yet to issue a draft of the Digital India Bill for public consultation. Source: Indian Express   3ZERO CLUB Syllabus: Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: Recently, Bangladesh Chief Adviser Muhammad Yunus and Pope Francis jointly launched a ‘Pope Francis Yunus 3Zero Club’ in Rome in an effort to “usher in a transformative and inclusive future for humanity”. Background: – Yunus, a Nobel laureate had in 2017 penned a book ‘A World of Three Zeroes: the new economics of zero poverty, zero unemployment, and zero net carbon emissions’. Key takeaways The Pope Francis Yunus 3Zero Club is an initiative launched by Professor Muhammad Yunus and Pope Francis in Rome on November 16, 2024.  According to the latest counts, there are at least 4,600 Three Zero clubs across the globe, all inspired by Prof Yunus’s vision. Many of the clubs are set up in universities. The club aims to create a transformative and inclusive future for humanity by focusing on three main goals: zero poverty, zero unemployment, and zero net carbon emissions. Objectives: Zero Poverty: Eradicating poverty and ensuring that everyone has access to basic needs and opportunities. Zero Unemployment: Creating sustainable job opportunities and promoting economic growth. Zero Net Carbon Emissions: Reducing carbon emissions to combat climate change and promote environmental sustainability. Key Features: Youth Empowerment: The 3Zero Club provides a platform for young people, especially those from marginalized communities, to develop innovative ideas and create concrete and sustainable solutions. Collaborative Efforts: The initiative encourages collaboration across countries, generations, and sectors to achieve its goals. Source: PTI INEFFECTIVENESS OF CARBON CREDITS Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: Carbon trade, being relied upon to accelerate emission cuts around the world, has been largely ineffective till now, and only a very small number of projects have resulted in real emissions reductions, a new study published in Nature journal has found.  Background: The study looked at thousands of projects that together generated carbon credits worth one billion tonnes of carbon dioxide equivalent, and found that only 16 per cent of these credits represented actual reductions in emissions.  These credits were generated mostly by a mechanism created under the Kyoto Protocol, the 1997 climate agreement that was replaced by the Paris Agreement in 2015. Key takeaways Carbon markets allow for trade in carbon credits by incentivising emissions reductions.  An industrial unit which outperforms its emission standards, meaning that it produces less emissions than it is mandated to, can earn carbon credits. Another unit, which is struggling to meet its emissions standards, can buy these credits.  Credits can be generated by any activity that can show an additional reduction or avoidance of emissions beyond what is prescribed or would have happened in business-as-usual scenario. The Nature study found that the most effective emissions reductions happened in projects that involved the abatement of HFC-23 chemicals. Credits generated from projects that facilitated the elimination of HFCs, and their replacement with substitutes, used to dominate carbon trade about a decade ago. Carbon credits generated under the Kyoto Protocol mechanisms were often criticised for not being robust enough. The carbon market mechanism being created under the Paris Agreement seeks to address those weaknesses. The creation of a carbon market is the last remaining part of the 2015 Paris Agreement yet to be operationalised. This time, rules and procedures are being prepared meticulously to ensure that the integrity of credits is maintained. Source: Indian Express HOW THE SUPREME COURT CLAMPED DOWN ON ‘BULLDOZER’ DEMOLITIONS Syllabus: Mains – GS 2 Context: The Supreme Court recently underscored that it is unconstitutional to demolish a person’s property without adhering to the due process of law, simply on the grounds of their alleged involvement in a crime.  Background: – The court issued a slew of guidelines to prevent illegal and retributive bulldozing of homes and private properties of accused persons by States. Earlier, the top court had extended its interim order halting demolitions across the country without express permission except for encroachments on public land or unauthorised structures. Key takeaways Over the last few years, there has been an advent of communal and retributive bulldozing of homes and private properties of accused persons by States. Demolitions have been justified on account of action against encroachment or under the pretext of unauthorised construction. What began with the bulldozer demolitions in Delhi’s Jahangirpuri following communal violence rapidly escalated and spread to other parts. The violence that ensued in Nuh, Haryana, due to a clash between two religious groups in 2023, ended with the local administration demolishing homes. Similarly, communal riots in Khargone, Madhya Pradesh, led to the demolition of houses and businesses owned by Muslims, who were deemed to be “alleged rioters.” According to a 2024 estimate by the Housing and Land Rights Network (HLRN), authorities at the local, State, and central levels demolished 153,820 homes in 2022 and 2023, displacing over 738,438 individuals across rural and urban areas of the country.  Rule of law Court underscored that exercise of arbitrariness by government officials strikes at the very heart of the “rule of law” and undermines public trust.  Court cautioned against the executive usurping the judiciary’s role by preemptively punishing the accused. Notably, the judges acknowledged that demolition drives not only target the alleged perpetrators of an offence but also impose a form of “collective punishment” on their families by destroying their place of dwelling. Justice Gavai pointed out that this offends the constitutional guarantee of the right to shelter under Article 21. Directives issued The top court issued guidelines aimed at fostering greater institutional accountability. However, it clarified that these directives would not apply to unauthorised constructions on public lands—such as roads, water bodies, or forested areas—or to demolitions mandated by a court.  To curb potential impunity, the judges specified that officials responsible for carrying out illegal demolitions would face disciplinary action, contempt charges, and monetary penalties. The court mandated that no demolition drive should proceed without a 15-day prior notice. Such notice must provide details of the nature of the unauthorised construction, details of specific violations and grounds warranting such a coercive action. Further, the designated authority has to extend an opportunity of hearing to the owner. The minutes of such a meeting are directed to be recorded with the final order detailing the contentions of the parties including whether the unauthorised construction is compoundable, or whether there is a need to undertake demolition of the entire structure.  Additionally, the concerned authority must prepare a detailed inspection report, signed by at least two witnesses, before proceeding with the demolition drive. The authorities should ensure that the entire demolition process is videographed. Following this, a detailed demolition report must be prepared, specifying the names of officials and personnel involved. The report is to be placed before the Municipal Commissioner and uploaded on a digital portal to ensure public accessibility. Source: The Hindu LAKE KARIBA Syllabus: Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: Lake Kariba is at near-record low, causing daily power cuts and devastating two African economies. Background: – A punishing drought has drained Lake Kariba, raising the prospect that the Kariba Dam, which powers the economies of Zambia and Zimbabwe, may have to shut down for the first time in its 65-year history. Key takeaways Lake Kariba is the world’s largest man-made lake and reservoir by volume.  It is located on the border between Zambia and Zimbabwe in central Africa. Formation: Kariba Dam: The lake was created by damming the Zambezi River at the Kariba Gorge between 1958 and 1963. Purpose: The dam was built to provide hydroelectric power to Zambia and Zimbabwe. Biodiversity: The lake supports a vibrant ecosystem, including fish species like the kapenta, Nile crocodiles, and hippopotamuses. Tourism: The area around Lake Kariba is a popular destination for tourists, offering activities like fishing, boating, and wildlife viewing. Source: Guardian Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Lake Kariba, often seen in the news, is located on which of the following rivers? (a) Limpopo River (b) Nile River (c) Congo River (d) Zambezi River Q2.) Consider the following statements regarding the 3Zero Club: The 3Zero Club focuses on achieving zero gender violence, zero unemployment, and zero hunger globally. It was launched as part of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) by the United Nations. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q3.) Consider the following statements regarding the Safe Harbour Clause under the IT Act, 2000: Section 79 of the IT Act provides legal immunity to intermediaries for content hosted by users. The safe harbour clause remains applicable even if intermediaries fail to act upon notifications from government authorities to remove harmful content. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  16th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) – a

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 16th November 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   GENDER MAINSTREAMING AND GLOBAL EFFORTS Syllabus: Mains – GS 3 Context: Recently, a two-day National Consultation on Revisiting and Re-envisioning the Beijing Declaration was organised by National Alliance for Women’s Organization. Background: – Thirty years after the historic Fourth World Conference on Women in Beijing (September 4–15, 1995), where the Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action was adopted and women’s rights were unanimously recognised as human rights, the global community continues to reflect on the progress. Historical roots of women’s movements  Women’s movements have built on events like the Seneca Falls Convention and the Suffragette movement. The 1848 Seneca Falls Convention was a historic meeting in New York where the “Declaration of Sentiments” was adopted. The document declared “that all men and women are created equal”.  The Suffragette movement of the 19th and 20th century was a long-drawn fight by women globally to gain their right to vote.  Afterwards, women’s movements expanded their demands. Simone de Beauvoir’s The Second Sex (1949) challenged the traditional notion of gender by asserting that “one is not born, but rather becomes, a woman”, postulating that gender identities are not biologically determined but socially constructed.  By 1970, women’s movements had gathered momentum. Betty Friedan’s The Feminine Mystique (1963) became a bestseller as it brought the private “problem that has no name” till then into the public domain. Friedan initiated discussion around devalued domestic work and critiqued the way it was romanticised. Women’s movement received further impetus from events like ‘The Women’s Strike for Equality’ in 1970. The strike was part of the second wave of feminism in the 1960s and 1970s. The “Wages for Housework” campaign, organised by the International Feminist Collective in 1972, mobilised women internationally to urge governments to recognise household and care work. However, the fight for women’s rights was not always on equal grounds. The exclusion of black women and women of colour from a predominantly white, middle-class dominated women’s movement meant that issues of race and class were not seen as women’s issues.  Women of colour, immigrants, and other marginalised women face intersection of multiple issues of gender, race and class and this theory of intersectionality expanded the scope of  feminist movement.  Unified global framework on women’s rights  The First World Conference on Women (1975), emerged from various women’s movements underlining the growing need for a unified global framework for addressing women’s rights. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948), affirmed equality in principle but lacked specific measures to address gender disparities. The Declaration on the Elimination of Discrimination Against Women (1967) lacked legal enforcement mechanisms. The 1975 conference laid the groundwork for the declaration of 1976–1985 as the ‘International Decade of Women’. The conference recognised gender equality as fundamental for development, sustainable peace and stability. The Second World Conference on Women The Second Conference on Women in 1980 shifted focus to more specific areas of women’s development, especially in education, employment and healthcare. It led to the ratification of the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW). CEDAW, referred to as the International Bill of Rights for Women, is a core international human rights treaty. It redefined ‘discrimination’ to include not only legal inequalities but also social and cultural barriers. The Nairobi Forward-looking Strategies for the Advancement of Women, adopted at the United Nations World Conference on Women in 1985, outlined a visionary framework that integrated women’s perspectives into all aspects of development and governance, and made women essential stakeholders in all aspects of societal progress. The Nairobi Strategies set specific goals for advancing women’s rights globally. The four World Conferences on Women between 1975 and 1995 provided global platforms to advance women’s rights issues, culminating in the landmark Beijing Declaration, which remains a testament to the sustained fight for gender equality. Source: Indian Express   BIRSA MUNDA Syllabus: Prelims – HISTORY  Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi marked the commencement of 150th Birth Anniversary Year celebration of Birsa Munda. Background: – The Centre had in 2021 decided to celebrate November 15, the birth anniversary of Birsa Munda, as Janjatiya Gaurav Diwas. Key takeaways Born: November 15, 1875, in Ulihatu, present-day Jharkhand. Belonged to the Munda tribal community, which practiced their distinct socio-cultural traditions. Role as a Tribal Leader: Birsa Munda was a prominent freedom fighter, religious leader, and tribal reformer. He led the Munda Rebellion (also known as the Ulgulan or “The Great Rebellion”) against the oppressive British colonial system and zamindari system. Ulgulan Movement (1899–1900): The movement sought to protect tribal lands and rights from the Dikus (outsiders) like landlords, moneylenders, and the British. Focused on restoring tribal autonomy, ending forced labor (beth begari), and ensuring land ownership for tribal people. Religious and Social Reforms: Advocated for monotheism and rejected superstitions, idol worship, and the influence of Christian missionaries. Encouraged the Munda community to reclaim their cultural and spiritual identity. Declared himself as “Dharti Aba” (Father of the Earth) and urged people to worship a single god and follow tribal traditions. Arrest and Death: Arrested by British forces in 1900 during the rebellion. Died on June 9, 1900, in Ranchi Jail, under mysterious circumstances, at the young age of 25. Jharkhand State was established on his birth anniversary in 2000 as a tribute. Source: The Hindu BASIC COUNTRIES Syllabus: Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: BASIC countries have been complaining against the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) introduced by the EU. Background: On the opening day of the COP29 meeting, China, on behalf of the BASIC countries, had moved a proposal to include a discussion on “unilateral restrictive trade measures” — without mentioning CBAM — in the formal agenda of the COP meeting Key takeaways The BASIC countries (Brazil, South Africa, India, and China) are a group of four large, newly industrialized nations that formed an agreement on November 28, 2009. Purpose: The BASIC countries were formed to act jointly at international climate change negotiations, particularly at the Copenhagen Summit (COP15). They aimed to present a united front on climate change issues and advocate for the interests of developing nations. Key Features: Common Stance: The BASIC countries share a common stance on reducing greenhouse gas emissions and raising funds to combat climate change. Copenhagen Accord: The group played a crucial role in brokering the Copenhagen Accord with the United States. UNFCCC: The BASIC countries represent a collective voice at the Conference of Parties (COP) of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). Significance: Geographical and Population Coverage: Together, the BASIC countries cover about one-third of the world’s geographical area and nearly 40% of the world’s population. Economic Influence: These countries are emerging economic powerhouses and wield significant influence in international forums. Climate Change Advocacy: The BASIC countries advocate for the principle of Common but Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities (CBDR-RC), which emphasizes that developed nations should take greater responsibility for climate change mitigation due to their historical emissions. Source: Indian Express WAYANAD LANDSLIDES NOT NATIONAL CALAMITY: CENTRE Syllabus: Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: The Union government informed Kerala that the Wayanad landslides cannot be declared a national calamity, and expressed the view that sufficient funds are available with the state for relief operations. Background: – The state government had sought assistance of Rs 900 crore from the Centre towards the relief and rehabilitation of the people affected by the tragedy. Key takeaways The Wayanad landslides occurred on July 30, 2024, in the Wayanad district of Kerala, India. Location: Punjirimattom, Mundakkai, Chooralmala, and Vellarimala villages in Meppadi Panchayat, Vythiri taluk. Cause: Heavy rains triggered landslides, causing hillsides to collapse and resulting in torrents of mud and water sweeping through the villages. Casualties: Over 420 fatalities and 397 injuries. Around 47 people are still missing Centers response Under the existing provisions of SDRF/NDRF, there is no provision to declare any calamity as national disaster,” Union Minister of State for Home Affairs Nityanand Rai said in a letter to Kerala government’s special representative in Delhi. The Union minister said primary responsibility for disaster management rests with the state. Source: Indian Express EXERCISE POORVI PRAHAR Syllabus: Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: The Indian Army is conducting exercise Poorvi Prahar from the 10th to the 18th of this month in the forward areas of Arunachal Pradesh. Background: – According to the Indian Army, the exercise brings together a wide spectrum of cutting-edge military platforms and systems, showcasing the country’s advancements in modern warfare technology.  Key takeaways Exercise Poorvi Prahar is a high-intensity tri-service military exercise conducted by the Indian Armed Forces.  The exercise aims to enhance the joint combat effectiveness of the Army, Navy, and Air Force in executing integrated joint operations in challenging terrains. Dates: November 10 to November 18, 2024. Participants: Army, Navy, and Air Force. Objectives: Inter-Service Coordination: Improve coordination and synergy between the three services. Operational Readiness: Enhance the operational readiness of the forces. Technological Integration: Integrate advanced military technology and joint command structures. Common Operating Picture (COP): Develop a refined COP through joint control structures for better coordination. Significance: Strategic Deterrence: Bolster India’s strategic deterrence capabilities. Modern Warfare: Showcase India’s advancements in modern warfare technology. Theaterisation: Pave the way for the theaterisation of command, enhancing the ability to execute seamless multi-domain operations. Source: News On Air Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Which of the following statements about Birsa Munda is/are correct? He was associated with the Ulgulan movement to fight against British colonial rule and protect tribal rights. He was born in present-day Chhattisgarh. His efforts led to the establishment of the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act, 1908, which restricted the transfer of tribal land to non-tribals. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Q2.) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the BASIC countries? The BASIC group was formed to coordinate the climate change negotiation strategy of developing countries. All BASIC countries are members of the G20. The principle of “Common but Differentiated Responsibilities” is a key stance of the BASIC group in climate negotiations. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Q3.) Which of the following statements regarding Exercise Poorvi Prahar is/are correct? It is a tri-service military exercise. The exercise aims to enhance the joint combat effectiveness of the Army, Navy, and Air Force in executing integrated joint operations in challenging terrains. It is conducted annually by the Indian Armed Forces with participation of US armed forces. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  15th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – a Q.3) – b

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 15th November 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   INDIA’S TEA, SUGAR EXPORTS RAISE SUSTAINABILITY CONCERNS Syllabus: Mains – GS 3 Context: The Indian agricultural export is valued at $53.1 billion in 2022-2023, up from $8.7 billion in 2004-2005, a six-fold increase in less than two decades. But the rapid surge in exports poses multiple challenges related to sustainability. Tea and sugar, two prominent commodities, offer good examples to illustrate the problems herein. Background: – For an economically developing economy like India, exports play a significant role in strengthening the economy by increasing revenue, foreign exchange, and transactional options Key takeaways Tea India is the world’s fourth-largest tea exporter and second largest producer and makes up 10% of global exports. The total value of Indian tea exports for 2022-2023 was $793.78 million. There is growing evidence of stresses being imposed on production systems across the tea value chain. Three major challenges in the tea industry are the management of human-wildlife interactions, burgeoning chemical use, and labour concerns.  More than half of tea plantation workers are women and they are often underpaid.  There is a critical need for better management practices in and around tea estates in India, stricter monitoring of the maximum residue limits for pesticides, and better enforcement of existing labour regulations. Sugar India is the world’s second-largest sugar producer, with 34 million metric tonnes of production, about a fifth of the global production. India’s sugar exports grew by 291% from $1,177 million in FY 2013-2014 to $4,600 million in FY 2021-22 and 64.90% in 2021-2022.  About 50 million farmers depend on sugarcane cultivation in India. An additional half million depend on sugar and allied factories. Sugarcane is well-known for requiring a lot of water to cultivate. On average, 1 kg of sugar requires between 1,500 and 2,000 kg of water. Natural ecosystems like grasslands and savannahs in these states have also been converted to plant sugarcane. Along with the ensuing biodiversity loss, this change has increased the pressure on water resources and increased the need for alternate cropping patterns. The social dynamics of sugar industries narrate another story. Media reports have unearthed poor working conditions, including long working hours. Rising temperatures in peninsular India acts as a threat multiplier. Workers trapped in vicious debt cycles incur even more stress. Millets Even as the sustainability challenges of these commodities persist, there are some others that promote long-term ecological and socio-economic sustainability. One prime example is millets, a sustainable option with which to increase domestic consumption as well as exports. Millets are resilient to harsh conditions and don’t require more inputs to weather resource constraints. They preserve soil health and ensure nutritional security. In FY 2022-2023, the country shipped 169,049.11 metric tonnes of millets and millet-related products worth $75.45 million. The rising demand highlights their potential as a sustainable agricultural commodity contributing to growth and environmental resilience. Agricultural production in India lives in a unique context: a large domestic consumption base and now a rapidly growing export base. These dynamics may benefit producers but they could also yield a paradox: whereby increasing dependencies between different actors in the supply chain compromise ecological and social sustainability concerns. Source: The Hindu   MAKERS OF ‘MAGIC’ WEIGHT-LOSS DRUG SEMAGLUTIDE WANTS COPIES BANNED Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: Novo Nordisk, the Danish pharmaceutical company that manufactures the popular weight-loss drug Wegovy and diabetes medication Ozempic, has asked authorities in the United States to stop the compounding of these products saying that this could pose safety risks. Background: – Wegovy and Ozempic, both of which contain semaglutide, have been in heavy demand for months, and many compounding pharmacies in the US have created their own versions to cope with this. Key takeaways US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) regulations allow human drug compounding — in which licensed pharmacists or physicians can combine, mix, or adjust the ingredients of a medication — to meet patient needs when popular branded formulations are in short supply. Concerns over semaglutide Over the past year, Novo Nordisk has filed at least 50 lawsuits against clinics and pharmacies that have produced compounded versions of its drugs. On October 22, Novo Nordisk asked USFDA to put semaglutide on the Demonstrable Difficulties for Compounding (DDC) list, which restricts pharmacies from compounding a drug. The FDA considers a drug for the DDC list if factors such as its stability, dosage requirements, bioavailability, or necessary sterile handling make it difficult to create a safe and effective compounded version. Source: Indian Express STATE FINANCE COMMISSIONS (SFCs) Syllabus: Prelims & Mains – POLITY Context: After being nudged by the Fifteenth Finance Commission, all states, except Arunachal Pradesh, have State Finance Commissions (SFCs) in place, the latest being Gujarat. Background: The 15th Finance Commission, formed in 2017, took serious note of the delay over constituting state finance commissions in its report in 2020, and recommended that those states which did not comply with the Constitutional provisions in respect of the SFCs — constitutional bodies at the state-level — would not be released grants after March 2024. Key takeaways Under Article 243 I of the Constitution, “the Governor shall, as soon as may be within one year from the commencement of the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992, and thereafter at the expiration of every 5th year, constitute a Finance Commission to review the financial position of the panchayats, and to make recommendations to the Governor as to the principles which should govern the distribution between the State and the panchayats of the net proceeds of the taxes, duties, tolls and fees leviable by the State.” Key Functions: Recommend principles for: Distribution of the net proceeds of taxes, duties, tolls, and fees between the State and local bodies. Allocation of funds to Panchayats and Municipalities from the State’s Consolidated Fund. Suggest measures to improve the financial position of Panchayats and Municipalities. Consider the taxes, duties, tolls, and fees assigned to or appropriated by local bodies. Significance: Strengthens fiscal federalism at the state level. Ensures adequate funding for local self-governance institutions. Promotes accountability and transparency in financial management. Challenges: Implementation delays: Recommendations often not implemented fully or on time. Limited autonomy: Dependence on State Governments for fund allocation. Inadequate data: Lack of accurate data on local finances hampers effective planning. Overlapping responsibilities: Ambiguity in roles of SFCs and State Planning Boards. Source: Indian Express AFSPA BACK IN SIX VIOLENCE-HIT AREAS OF MANIPUR Syllabus: Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: The Union Home Ministry on Thursday reimposed the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA) in Manipur, declaring six police station limits in five districts “disturbed areas”, in the wake of the ethnic violence in the State. Background: – The AFSPA was withdrawn from these areas in April 2022 by the Manipur government as the security situation improved; this time, Home Ministry has issued notification. Key takeaways The Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA) is a law that grants special powers to the Indian armed forces in regions classified as “disturbed areas.” It was enacted to maintain public order in areas experiencing insurgencies, militancy, or internal disturbances. First enacted: In 1958, the AFSPA was originally introduced to address insurgencies in the Northeast region, particularly in Nagaland. Extension to other areas: Over time, the AFSPA was extended to other parts of the country, including Jammu & Kashmir (1990) and various Northeastern states. Power to Declare Areas as Disturbed: The Act allows the central or state government to declare an area “disturbed” if it is experiencing insurgency or conflict. Special Powers to the Armed Forces: Search and Arrest: Armed forces personnel can arrest without a warrant, enter and search premises to make arrests or recover weapons. Shoot to Kill: Armed forces can open fire if they believe someone is acting against law and order, provided that due warning has been given. Protection to persons acting under Act – No prosecution, suit or other legal proceeding shall be instituted, except with the previous sanction of the Central Government, against any person in respect of anything done or purported to be done in exercise of the powers conferred by this Act. Source: The Hindu WORLD DIABETES DAY Syllabus: Prelims – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: Sir Fredrick Banting’s birth anniversary is observed as World Diabetes Day on November 14 every year, as a tribute to the history behind the discovery of insulin, one of medicine’s greatest breakthroughs. Background: – In 1989, Queen Elizabeth kindled the Flame of Hope in Sir Frederick G. Banting Square, Ontario, Canada, to honour Dr. Banting’s discovery of insulin. This eternal flame stands as a hope for millions affected by diabetes worldwide, representing the commitment to continue research until a definitive cure is found.  Key takeaways Pancreas The pancreas is a dual-function organ: Exocrine function: Produces digestive enzymes to aid in breaking down carbohydrates, proteins, and fats. Endocrine function: Produces hormones, including insulin which regulate blood sugar levels. Insulin and its discovery Insulin : A hormone produced by the beta cells in the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. Role: Helps glucose enter cells, providing them with energy. Stores excess glucose as glycogen in the liver and muscles for future use. Maintains blood sugar within a narrow range (70–140 mg/dL in most individuals). Insulin was discovered in 1921 by Frederick Banting and Charles Best, working under the guidance of John Macleod. James Collip, a biochemist, played another important role. While Banting and Best had successfully extracted insulin, their preparations were impure and caused adverse reactions in patients. Collip developed a method for purifying insulin, removing impurities, and ensuring its safety and efficacy, as the insulin was prepared mostly from dogs and cows. In 1923, the Nobel Prize was awarded to Frederick Banting and John Macleod for discovering insulin. The award sparked controversy as Banting felt that Best deserved recognition instead of Macleod. Conversely, Macleod believed Collip, who refined the insulin extraction process, deserved credit. In response, Banting shared half of his Nobel Prize money with Best, and Macleod did the same with Collip. In a remarkable gesture, Banting sold the patent rights to the University of Toronto for just $1, ensuring that insulin could be produced widely and remain affordable. Collip’s extraction techniques to purify insulin were viable for human use but not scalable for mass production.  With recombinant DNA technology in the 1980s: scientists developed a method to insert the human insulin gene into Escherichia coli bacteria. This approach enabled bacteria to produce large quantities of insulin identical to that made by human bodies. The recombinant process allowed for mass production. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Under the Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA), which of the following powers is/are granted to the armed forces? Arrest without warrant. Open fire after giving due warning if it is necessary for maintaining public order. Declare an area as a “disturbed area.” Select the correct answer using the codes given below: a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3 Q2.) Consider the following statements regarding the State Finance Commission in India: It is constituted by the Governor of a state every five years. Its primary role is to recommend the distribution of taxes between the state and the Union Government. Its recommendations are binding on the state government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 and 3 only Q3.) When is World Diabetes Day observed annually? a) 1st October b) 14th November c) 7th April d) 20th December Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  Today’s – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs ANSWERS FOR  14th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – a