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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 28th March 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Krishi Integrated Command and Control Centre (ICCC) Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Agriculture Context: Earlier this month, Agriculture Minister Arjun Munda inaugurated a Krishi Integrated Command and Control Centre (ICCC) set up at Krishi Bhavan in New Delhi, a big-screen dashboard of all digital innovations in the sector. Background:- ICCC is a “significant leap forward” in leveraging technology for the advancement of agricultural practices. About Krishi Integrated Command and Control Centre (ICCC): The ICCC is a tech-based solution involving multiple IT applications and platforms, which is designed to help in making informed decisions. The centre is housed in the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare, which is responsible for legislation, policy formation, and implementation of initiatives in the agriculture sector. The ICCC uses state of the art technologies such as artificial intelligence, remote sensing, and Geographic Information Systems (GIS) to collect and process large amounts of granular data — on temperatures, rainfall, wind speed, crop yields and production estimations — and presents it in graphical format. On eight large, 55-inch LED screens installed at the ICCC, you can see information on crop yields, production, drought situation, cropping patterns (geographic region-wise and year-wise) in map, timeline, and drill-down views. You can also see the relevant trends (periodic and non-periodic), outliers, and Key Performance Indicators (KPIs), and receive insights, alerts, and feedback on agriculture schemes, programmes, projects, and initiatives. The ICCC uses platforms including the Krishi Decision Support System (DSS) to collect micro-level data, process it, and present the macro picture. What is the objective of the ICCC? The ICCC will enable comprehensive monitoring of the farm sector by making available at one place geospatial information received from multiple sources, including remote sensing; plot-level data received through soil survey; weather data from the India Meteorological Department (IMD); sowing data from Digital Crop Survey; farmer- and farm-related data from Krishi MApper, an application for geo-fencing and geo-tagging of land; market intelligence information from the Unified Portal for Agricultural Statistics (UPAg); and yield estimation data from the General Crop Estimation Survey (GCES). Can the command and control centre generate individual farmer-specific advisories? Going forward, the ICCC can create an ecosystem based on which individual farmer-level advisories can be generated through apps like Kisan e-mitra, a chatbot developed for PM-Kisan beneficiaries. The AI-/ machine learning-based system will identify a farmer through his/ her mobile number or Aadhaar, and match it with the farmer’s field information obtain through land records, historical crop sowing information from the crop registry, weather data from IMD, etc. It will then generate a customised advisory in the local language of the farmer. For this, the system will use the Bhashini platform that allows translation into several Indian languages. PRACTICAL APPLICATIONS FARMER’S ADVISORY: The ICCC allows visualisation of GIS based soil carbon mapping as well as soil health card data for a particular district together at one place. This, when visualised with weather-related data from IMD for the selected district, will allow a customised and authentic advisory to be sent to the farmer about the type of crops that can be grown, and water and fertiliser requirements. DROUGHT ACTIONS: According to officials, increase or decrease in yield from a specific region (as per GCES data) can be correlated with weather, rainfall, and other information visualised through the Drought Portal, enabling the administration to understand the reason for increase/ decrease in yield and to take decisions proactively. CROP DIVERSIFICATION: An analysis of crop diversification maps, together with field variability for paddy, will enable decision-makers to identify regions with scope for diversified cropping. FARM DATA REPOSITORY: Krishi Decision Support System (K-DSS), a platform under development, will act as an agriculture data repository. Integrated spatial and non-spatial data will be superimposed as a layer on the GIS map, and various AI/ ML models would be run on the data. The K-DSS will help in evidence-based, efficient, and data-driven decision-making. VALIDATION OF YIELD: Yield as captured through Krishi MApper can be analysed with the yield generated through GCES application for a plot. Source: Indian Express H5N1 Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Since 2020, a highly pathogenic type of bird flu, H5N1, has been spreading across the globe, posing an existential threat to birds and wildlife. The virus has infected birds in more than 80 countries (as of December 2023) and resulted in culling of millions of chickens and turkeys at commercial poultry farms. It also struck numerous species of wild birds. Background: The worrying sign, however, is the rapid spread of the flu — once largely confined to birds — among mammals. The infection has also infiltrated mainland Antarctica for the time in history. About Bird flu: The Bird flu, also known as avian flu, refers to an infectious viral illness that mainly infects and spreads among poultry and some wild birds. There are different strains of bird flu virus, which have been circulating for a very long time among at least 100 bird species, including wild waterfowl, such as ducks and geese, without much harming them. From time to time, a form of the flu virus jumps from wild birds to poultry farms, and replicates in cramped warehouses of farmed birds. It then quickly evolves into a highly pathogenic flu virus that causes a larger wave of illness and death than usual among birds. The currently circulating type of H5N1 is one such highly pathogenic flu virus. It has descended from a virus that caused an outbreak on a goose farm in Guangdong, China, in 1996. The new version of H5N1 first emerged in Europe in 2020 and then rapidly reached Europe, Africa, and Asia. By late 2021, it had spread to North America and in the fall of 2022, it appeared in South America. In February 2024, the virus stormed through mainland Antarctica. How has H5N1 impacted animals across the world? Apart from the farm birds, the virus has severely impacted wild birds. Some wild birds, which are already on the verge of extinction, have also been hit. At least 21 of the endangered California condors have died from the virus in 2023 alone, which is nearly 6 per cent of the population of the roughly 330 birds that were believed to live in the wild as of the end of 2021. The biggest concern is the spread of the virus among mammals, though. Outbreaks among foxes, pumas, skunks, and both black and brown bears in North America have been reported. The worst affected are marine mammals. More than 20,000 sea lions and a handful of dolphins have died in Chile and Peru due to the infection. Humans are also at riskbut they rarely contract bird flu. Most of the cases of human infection involve people who have come in contact with a large number of sick birds at poultry farms. This means that humans are likely to get infected when there is a huge viral load. Source: Indian Express SPACE SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY AWARENESS TRAINING (START) Syllabus Prelims- Current Event Context: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) will conduct the Space science and Technology Awareness Training (START) 2024 programme during April and May. Background: The START programme is part of the ISRO’s efforts to enable Indian students to become professionals in Space Science and Technology, as the organisation’s Space Science exploration programme continues to expand into new domains. About SPACE SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY AWARENESS TRAINING (START) The Space Science and Technology Awareness Training (START) is an initiative by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO). It is an online introductory-level awareness program in space science and technology. The START program intends to equip students with foundational knowledge in space-related domains. It is specifically designed for undergraduate and postgraduate students of science and technology. START will cover various domains, such as space science, that includes Astronomy and Astrophysics, Heliophysics, Instrumentation, Aeronomy, and Sun-Earth interaction. The lectures are delivered by scientists from Indian academia and ISRO centres. This program is part of ISRO’s efforts to train Indian students to become professionals in the fields of space science and technology. Source: ISRO NATIONAL ASSESSMENT AND ACCREDITATION COUNCIL (NAAC) Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: The National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) has made significant reforms in its accreditation process for higher educational institutions (HEIs). Background: NAAC has introduced a binary accreditation system that categorizes HEIs into two classifications: “Accredited” or “Not accredited”. The primary goal is to encourage all institutions to participate in the accreditation process. About NATIONAL ASSESSMENT AND ACCREDITATION COUNCIL (NAAC): The National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) is an autonomous body established by the University Grants Commission (UGC) of India. Its primary purpose is to assess and accredit institutions of higher education in the country. The establishment of NAAC was advocated by the National Policy on Education (NPE, 1986) and the Programme of Action (PoA, 1992) to address concerns about the quality and relevance of higher education in India. NAAC’s mandate includes: Performance evaluation: Assessing the performance of universities and colleges. Accreditation: Granting accreditation to institutions based on their quality status. Quality Assurance: Making quality assurance an integral part of higher education functioning. Structure: NAAC operates through its General Council (GC) and Executive Committee (EC). The GC and EC include educational administrators, policy makers, and senior academicians. The Director serves as the academic and administrative head of NAAC. Source: Hindustan Times Previous Year Question Q1. What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’? Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and government’s education system and local communities. Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power. Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them. INTERNATIONAL SEABED AUTHORITY(ISA) Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context:  India has recently submitted an application to the International Seabed Authority (ISBA), seeking rights to explore two extensive regions in the Indian Ocean seabed that fall outside its jurisdiction. Background: This strategic move is motivated in part by Chinese activity in the area and aims to secure valuable resources. The regions India seeks to explore are the Afanasy Nikitin Seamount (AN Seamount) and Carlsberg Ridge. About INTERNATIONAL SEABED AUTHORITY(ISA) : The International Seabed Authority (ISA) is an autonomous international organization. The ISA was established in 1994 under the 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). Purpose: Its primary purpose is to regulate mining and related activities in the international seabed beyond national jurisdiction. This area encompasses most of the world’s oceans. The ISA is responsible for granting licenses and regulating activities related to the exploration and exploitation of mineral resources in the international seabed. The ISA aims to protect the marine environment from harmful effects arising from deep-seabed-related activities. The ISA is headquartered in Kingston, Jamaica. As of March 2024, the ISA has 169 Members, including 168 Member States and the European Union. Structure: The supreme authority within the ISA is the assembly, where all ISA members are represented. The assembly sets general policies, establishes budgets, and elects a 36-member council, which serves as the ISA’s executive authority. The secretary-general of the ISA is nominated by the council and elected by the assembly for a four-year term. Source: Hindu Critical Tech Sectors Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Context: The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) recently unveiled draft road maps for Critical Tech Sectors. Background: India needs to focus on research and development to build its technology independence. Critical Technologies Critical Technologies are those technologies identified by government as ‘Critical’ for a nation’s future economic growth, national security, and technological advancement. These often involve: cutting-edge research, innovation, and strategic importance. These sectors typically receive heightened oversight from the government and improving technology investment environment. They are important for the state’s critical infrastructure. Examples of Critical Technology Sectors include Artificial Intelligence (AI), Quantum computing, Internet of Things, and Blockchain. Significance of Critical Tech Sectors: They promote India’s technological leadership; and cooperation with partners to advance and maintain shared technological advantages, making India a trustworthy international technology partner. They help deter foreign hostile forces from economic espionage and strengthen the protection of key technologies. It avoids the damage to national and industrial interests caused by illegal technology outflows. It drives innovation and competitiveness across key industries creates job opportunities and boosts GDP growth. Enterprise-grade security systems are particularly crucial for businesses to safeguard their intellectual property, customer data, and operational continuity. Robust cryptographic techniques are essential for protecting sensitive data, securing online transactions, and maintaining trust in digital interactions. It is crucial to mitigate risks like disrupting critical services and ensure the resilience of IoT ecosystems. Issues/Challenges in Developing Critical Tech Sectors: Despite producing a large number of STEM graduates, there’s often a gap between the skills taught and those required by industries. India faces a brain drain in AI algorithms and hardware accelerators as many opt for post-graduate training in the USA and Europe. While India has made strides in R&D, there’s still a need for increased funding and investment in R&D to foster innovation and technological breakthroughs. India faces stiff competition from other countries like China, the USA, etc., particularly in emerging technology sectors such as AI and quantum computing. Technology sector growth requires addressing energy consumption, electronic waste management, and sustainable manufacturing practices. Source: Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The International Seabed Authority (ISA)is an autonomous international organization. Statement-II: ISA is responsible for granting licenses and regulating activities related to the exploration and exploitation of mineral resources in the international seabed. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Q2.) Consider the following statements about National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC): NAAC is an autonomous body established by the University Grants Commission (UGC) of India. The NAAC was set up to assess and accredit institutions of higher education in the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3.)With reference to Space Science and Technology Awareness Training (START), consider the following statements: Space Science and Technology Awareness Training (START) is an initiative by the Ministry of Science & Technology. START intends to equip students with foundational knowledge in space-related domains. It is specifically designed for undergraduate and postgraduate students of science and technology. How many of the statements given above are not correct? Only one Only two All three None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  28th March  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  27th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – c Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 28th March 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

[DAY 22] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – ECONOMY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question During the festival season, the people usually withdraw large amount of money from the banks, leading to an increase in the Currency Deposit Ratio (CDR). What is the impact of the Money Multiplier? a) Increase in the Money Multiplier. b) Decrease in the Money Multiplier. c) The Money Multiplier remains unaffected. d) None of the above. Correct Solution (b) The Currency Deposit Ratio (CDR) is the ratio of money held by the public in currency to that they hold in the bank deposits. It reflects the people’s preference for liquidity. For example, the Currency Deposit Ratio (CDR) increases during the festive season, as the people convert the deposits to cash balance for meeting extra expenditure during such periods. If the CDR increases, that means that the public is holding more of its money out of the banks, rather than depositing it. Hence, the Money Multiplier will go down. Incorrect Solution (b) The Currency Deposit Ratio (CDR) is the ratio of money held by the public in currency to that they hold in the bank deposits. It reflects the people’s preference for liquidity. For example, the Currency Deposit Ratio (CDR) increases during the festive season, as the people convert the deposits to cash balance for meeting extra expenditure during such periods. If the CDR increases, that means that the public is holding more of its money out of the banks, rather than depositing it. Hence, the Money Multiplier will go down. Question 2 of 35 2. Question Which of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of Fiduciary Money? a) Money deposited by the public with the banks. b) Money which is accepted for payment because of its backing by the government. c) Money which is accepted for payment because of the trust between the parties. d) Money whose value is not derived from any intrinsic value. Correct Solution (c) Fiduciary Money: Fiduciary Money is the money which is accepted on the basis of the trust it commands. Unlike Fiat Money, it is not declared as a legal tender by the government. It means that the people are not required by law to accept it as a means of payment. Examples of Fiduciary Money include cheques, bank notes or drafts.   Note: Bank Deposits: Bank deposits consist of money placed into banking institutions for safekeeping. These deposits are made to deposit accounts such as savings accounts, checking accounts, and money market accounts. The account holder has the right to withdraw deposited funds, as set forth in the terms and conditions governing the account agreement. Legal Tender: Legal Tender Money is anything recognised by law as a means to settle a public or private debt or meet a financial obligation, including tax payments, contracts, and legal fines or damages, is considered legal tender. In almost every country, the national currency is legal tender. A creditor is required by law to accept legal tender as payment for a debt. Fiat Money: Fiat Money doesn’t have intrinsic value—through an objective calculation—its value is set by the government that issues the currency. Fiat money is a government-issued currency that is not backed by a physical commodity, such as gold or silver, but rather by the government that issued it. The value of fiat money is derived from the relationship between supply and demand and the stability of the issuing government, rather than the worth of a commodity backing it. Most modern paper currencies are fiat currencies, including the U.S. dollar, the euro, and other major global currencies. Incorrect Solution (c) Fiduciary Money: Fiduciary Money is the money which is accepted on the basis of the trust it commands. Unlike Fiat Money, it is not declared as a legal tender by the government. It means that the people are not required by law to accept it as a means of payment. Examples of Fiduciary Money include cheques, bank notes or drafts.   Note: Bank Deposits: Bank deposits consist of money placed into banking institutions for safekeeping. These deposits are made to deposit accounts such as savings accounts, checking accounts, and money market accounts. The account holder has the right to withdraw deposited funds, as set forth in the terms and conditions governing the account agreement. Legal Tender: Legal Tender Money is anything recognised by law as a means to settle a public or private debt or meet a financial obligation, including tax payments, contracts, and legal fines or damages, is considered legal tender. In almost every country, the national currency is legal tender. A creditor is required by law to accept legal tender as payment for a debt. Fiat Money: Fiat Money doesn’t have intrinsic value—through an objective calculation—its value is set by the government that issues the currency. Fiat money is a government-issued currency that is not backed by a physical commodity, such as gold or silver, but rather by the government that issued it. The value of fiat money is derived from the relationship between supply and demand and the stability of the issuing government, rather than the worth of a commodity backing it. Most modern paper currencies are fiat currencies, including the U.S. dollar, the euro, and other major global currencies. Question 3 of 35 3. Question Which of the following steps have been taken to expedite and enable the resolution of the Non-Performing Assets of the Public Sector Banks? Promulgation of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC). Framing of Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest (SARFAESI) Act. Stressed Asset Management Verticals. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) had initiated an ‘Asset Quality Review’ (AQR) in 2015 to clean up the Balance Sheets of the banks. As a result of the AQR and subsequent transparent recognition by the banks, stressed accounts were reclassified as NPAs (Non-Performing Assets) and expected losses on stressed loans, not provided for earlier under the flexibility given to the restructured loans, were provided for. The steps taken to expedite and enable the resolution of the NPAs of the PSBs (Public Sector Banks) include: The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016 Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest (SARFAESI) Act, and Stressed Asset Management Verticals. The NPAs declined as a result of the government’s ‘4Rs’ strategy of- Recognition Resolution Recapitalization and Reforms Incorrect Solution (c) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) had initiated an ‘Asset Quality Review’ (AQR) in 2015 to clean up the Balance Sheets of the banks. As a result of the AQR and subsequent transparent recognition by the banks, stressed accounts were reclassified as NPAs (Non-Performing Assets) and expected losses on stressed loans, not provided for earlier under the flexibility given to the restructured loans, were provided for. The steps taken to expedite and enable the resolution of the NPAs of the PSBs (Public Sector Banks) include: The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016 Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest (SARFAESI) Act, and Stressed Asset Management Verticals. The NPAs declined as a result of the government’s ‘4Rs’ strategy of- Recognition Resolution Recapitalization and Reforms Question 4 of 35 4. Question Which of the following can lead to an increase in the Money Multiplier within the Indian economy? Decrease in the Cash Reserve Ratio Decrease in the Statutory liquidity Ratio Decrease in the rate of interest on loans How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Money Multiplier: The Money Multiplier refers to how an initial deposit can lead to a bigger final increase in the total money supply. For example, if the commercial banks gain deposits of Re. 1, this may lead to a final money supply of Rs. 6. The Money Multiplier is 6. It is calculated as (1/R), where R denotes the Reserve Ratio. The money multiplier indicates how quickly the money supply will grow as a result of bank lending. The higher the reserve ratio, the fewer deposits available for lending, resulting in a lower money multiplier. An increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratio prevents the banks from lending more money and reduces the money multiplier. As the CRR (Cash Reserve Ratio) and the SLR (Statutory Liquidity Ratio) reduce, the Money Multiplier increases. Similarly, an increase in the financial inclusion also leads to an increase in the Money Multiplier. An increase in the banking habit of the population will increase the lending, thereby will lead to more deposits in the banking system, hence increasing the money multiplier. Decrease in the rate of interest on loans can lead to more borrowings by the people. This more lending by the banks would further lead to an increase in the Money Multiplier within the Indian economy. Incorrect Solution (c) Money Multiplier: The Money Multiplier refers to how an initial deposit can lead to a bigger final increase in the total money supply. For example, if the commercial banks gain deposits of Re. 1, this may lead to a final money supply of Rs. 6. The Money Multiplier is 6. It is calculated as (1/R), where R denotes the Reserve Ratio. The money multiplier indicates how quickly the money supply will grow as a result of bank lending. The higher the reserve ratio, the fewer deposits available for lending, resulting in a lower money multiplier. An increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratio prevents the banks from lending more money and reduces the money multiplier. As the CRR (Cash Reserve Ratio) and the SLR (Statutory Liquidity Ratio) reduce, the Money Multiplier increases. Similarly, an increase in the financial inclusion also leads to an increase in the Money Multiplier. An increase in the banking habit of the population will increase the lending, thereby will lead to more deposits in the banking system, hence increasing the money multiplier. Decrease in the rate of interest on loans can lead to more borrowings by the people. This more lending by the banks would further lead to an increase in the Money Multiplier within the Indian economy. Question 5 of 35 5. Question Consider the following statements related to the Scheduled Banks in India: They are listed under the Second Schedule of the RBI Act, 1934. They need to have a minimum paid-up capital of Rs. 1,000 Crore. All the Cooperative Banks and the Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) are categorized under the Scheduled Banks. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect The Scheduled Banks in India constitute those banks which have been included in the Second Schedule of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934. These banks should fulfil two conditions: 1.         The paid-up capital and collected funds of the bank should not be less than Rs. 5 lakhs. 2.         Any activity of the bank will not adversely affect the interests of the depositors. All the categories of the Cooperative Banks are not categorized as the Scheduled Banks. For example, some of the Urban Cooperative Banks are categorized as the Non-Scheduled Banks. Note: Scheduled Banks: The list includes the State Bank of India and its subsidiaries (like State Bank of Travancore), all nationalized banks (Bank of Baroda, Bank of India etc.), Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), foreign banks (HSBC Holdings Plc, Citibank NA) and some co-operative banks. Regional Rural Banks: Regional Rural Banks were established in accordance with the provisions of an Ordinance promulgated on September 26, 1975, and the RRB Act, 1976, with the goal of ensuring adequate institutional credit for agriculture and other rural sectors. The Regional Rural Banks were created with the intention of combining the strengths of cooperative and commercial banks. It was hoped that these would provide cheap and adequate credit while also being operationally efficient and easy to access. The primary goal of Regional Rural Banks was to end the rural debt culture and close the credit gap that existed between geographical regions. RRBs are operationally sponsored by scheduled banks, which are typically public sector commercial banks. Instead of burdening commercial banks by extending their operations over large areas and spreading resources thin, RRBs were thought to be able to function intensively and confine their operations to a single region consisting of one or two contiguous districts. Thus, RRBs operate similarly to commercial banks, albeit with a smaller geographical reach for each of them. The Central Government, State Governments, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), and smaller banks all work together to establish new RRBs and assist them in their operations. Since 1978, the RBI has primarily carried out promotional functions, while state governments carry out statutory functions. RRBs are jointly owned by Gol, the relevant State Government, and Sponsor Banks; the issued capital of an RRB is divided among the owners in the proportions of 50%, 15%, and 35%, respectively. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect The Scheduled Banks in India constitute those banks which have been included in the Second Schedule of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934. These banks should fulfil two conditions: 1.         The paid-up capital and collected funds of the bank should not be less than Rs. 5 lakhs. 2.         Any activity of the bank will not adversely affect the interests of the depositors. All the categories of the Cooperative Banks are not categorized as the Scheduled Banks. For example, some of the Urban Cooperative Banks are categorized as the Non-Scheduled Banks. Note: Scheduled Banks: The list includes the State Bank of India and its subsidiaries (like State Bank of Travancore), all nationalized banks (Bank of Baroda, Bank of India etc.), Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), foreign banks (HSBC Holdings Plc, Citibank NA) and some co-operative banks. Regional Rural Banks: Regional Rural Banks were established in accordance with the provisions of an Ordinance promulgated on September 26, 1975, and the RRB Act, 1976, with the goal of ensuring adequate institutional credit for agriculture and other rural sectors. The Regional Rural Banks were created with the intention of combining the strengths of cooperative and commercial banks. It was hoped that these would provide cheap and adequate credit while also being operationally efficient and easy to access. The primary goal of Regional Rural Banks was to end the rural debt culture and close the credit gap that existed between geographical regions. RRBs are operationally sponsored by scheduled banks, which are typically public sector commercial banks. Instead of burdening commercial banks by extending their operations over large areas and spreading resources thin, RRBs were thought to be able to function intensively and confine their operations to a single region consisting of one or two contiguous districts. Thus, RRBs operate similarly to commercial banks, albeit with a smaller geographical reach for each of them. The Central Government, State Governments, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), and smaller banks all work together to establish new RRBs and assist them in their operations. Since 1978, the RBI has primarily carried out promotional functions, while state governments carry out statutory functions. RRBs are jointly owned by Gol, the relevant State Government, and Sponsor Banks; the issued capital of an RRB is divided among the owners in the proportions of 50%, 15%, and 35%, respectively. Question 6 of 35 6. Question With reference to the Payments Banks in India, consider the following statements: The Payments Banks cannot accept deposits of more than Rs. 1 lakh from a single customer. The Payments Banks can issue both debit and credit cards. The Payments Banks are required to invest minimum 75% of their deposits in the Government Securities (G-Secs). How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct The Payments Banks cannot accept deposits of more than Rs. 1 lakh from a single customer. These banks can issue debit cards, but not credit cards. The Payments Banks cannot undertake lending activities. They are required to invest minimum 75% of their ‘demand deposit balances’ in the Government Securities/Treasury Bills, with maturity up to one year, that are recognized by the RBI as eligible securities for the maintenance of the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) and hold maximum 25% in current and time/fixed deposits with other Scheduled Commercial Banks for operational purposes and liquidity management. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct The Payments Banks cannot accept deposits of more than Rs. 1 lakh from a single customer. These banks can issue debit cards, but not credit cards. The Payments Banks cannot undertake lending activities. They are required to invest minimum 75% of their ‘demand deposit balances’ in the Government Securities/Treasury Bills, with maturity up to one year, that are recognized by the RBI as eligible securities for the maintenance of the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) and hold maximum 25% in current and time/fixed deposits with other Scheduled Commercial Banks for operational purposes and liquidity management. Question 7 of 35 7. Question With reference to the printing of the currency notes by the RBI, consider the following statements: The RBI needs to maintain certain minimum reserves of foreign currency and gold to print the currency notes in India. The RBI Act, 1934 imposes statutory limit on the printing of the currency notes by the RBI. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect As per the RBI Act, 1934, the RBI needs to maintain minimum reserves of Rs. 200 crores (Rs. 115 Crore – Gold and Rs. 85 crore – Foreign Currency Assets) in order to print the currency notes. Based upon the maintenance of the minimum reserves, the RBI can print unlimited currency notes. As such, there is no statutory limit on the printing of the currency notes by the RBI. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect As per the RBI Act, 1934, the RBI needs to maintain minimum reserves of Rs. 200 crores (Rs. 115 Crore – Gold and Rs. 85 crore – Foreign Currency Assets) in order to print the currency notes. Based upon the maintenance of the minimum reserves, the RBI can print unlimited currency notes. As such, there is no statutory limit on the printing of the currency notes by the RBI. Question 8 of 35 8. Question Which of the following is/are considered as the legal tender in India? Currency notes Coins Cheques and demand drafts. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Legal tender in India. Legal tender in India. Not a legal tender in India. Note: Legal Tender: ‘Legal tender’ is the money that is recognised by the law of the land as valid for payment of the debt. It must be accepted for discharge of the debt. Both currency notes and coins are considered to be the legal tender. However, cheques and demand drafts are not considered to be the legal tender. Legal tender can be limited or unlimited in character. In India, coins function as limited legal tender. Therefore, 50 paise coins can be offered as the legal tender for dues up to Rs. 10. Coins of Re. 1 and above can be offered as the legal tender for dues up to Rs. 1,000. Currency notes are unlimited legal tender and can be offered as payment for dues of any size.   Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Legal tender in India. Legal tender in India. Not a legal tender in India. Note: Legal Tender: ‘Legal tender’ is the money that is recognised by the law of the land as valid for payment of the debt. It must be accepted for discharge of the debt. Both currency notes and coins are considered to be the legal tender. However, cheques and demand drafts are not considered to be the legal tender. Legal tender can be limited or unlimited in character. In India, coins function as limited legal tender. Therefore, 50 paise coins can be offered as the legal tender for dues up to Rs. 10. Coins of Re. 1 and above can be offered as the legal tender for dues up to Rs. 1,000. Currency notes are unlimited legal tender and can be offered as payment for dues of any size.   Question 9 of 35 9. Question Which of the following steps is/are not likely to be taken by the RBI to promote economic growth and development? Adopt Calibrated Tightening Monetary Policy stance Decrease Repo Rates and Marginal Standing Facility rates Decrease Reverse Repo Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect The Calibrated Tightening Monetary Policy stance is adopted to control higher rates of inflation. As it will take out the liquidity from the market, it is not likely to be taken by the RBI to promote economic growth and development. The RBI reduces various policy rates, such as Repo, Marginal standing facility (MSF) etc., to inject more liquidity into the economy, and promote economic growth and development. The RBI reduces various policy rates, such as Reverse Repo Rate, to inject more liquidity into the economy, and promote economic growth and development. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect The Calibrated Tightening Monetary Policy stance is adopted to control higher rates of inflation. As it will take out the liquidity from the market, it is not likely to be taken by the RBI to promote economic growth and development. The RBI reduces various policy rates, such as Repo, Marginal standing facility (MSF) etc., to inject more liquidity into the economy, and promote economic growth and development. The RBI reduces various policy rates, such as Reverse Repo Rate, to inject more liquidity into the economy, and promote economic growth and development. Question 10 of 35 10. Question Which of the following are the eligible instruments that can be maintained by the banks to fulfill their Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) requirements? Treasury Bills Dated Securities of the Government State Development Loans Recapitalization Bonds Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 only b) 1, 2 and 3 only c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution (b) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR): Under the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR), the banks are required to maintain certain percentage of Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) in the form of cash, gold and eligible G-Secs. These financial instruments include- Treasury Bills Dated Securities of the Government State Development Loans and Any other instrument as may be notified by the Reserve Bank of India. However, Recapitalization Bonds are not eligible instruments to fulfill the SLR requirements.   Recapitalisation Bonds: Recapitalisation bonds are dedicated bonds to be issued at the behest of the government for recapitalizing the trouble hit Public Sector Banks (PSBs). The government issues bonds which are subscribed by banks. The money collected by the government goes to banks in the form of equity capital as the government increases its share of equity holding, thereby shoring up banks’ capital reserves. The money invested by banks in recapitalisation bonds is classified as an investment which earns them an interest. This helps the government in maintaining its fiscal deficit target as no money directly goes out from its coffers. The term recapitalisation means giving equity money to cover debt of an entity. In the case of PSBs, their NPAs (debts) will be replaced by equity capital from recapitalisation by the government. Incorrect Solution (b) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR): Under the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR), the banks are required to maintain certain percentage of Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) in the form of cash, gold and eligible G-Secs. These financial instruments include- Treasury Bills Dated Securities of the Government State Development Loans and Any other instrument as may be notified by the Reserve Bank of India. However, Recapitalization Bonds are not eligible instruments to fulfill the SLR requirements.   Recapitalisation Bonds: Recapitalisation bonds are dedicated bonds to be issued at the behest of the government for recapitalizing the trouble hit Public Sector Banks (PSBs). The government issues bonds which are subscribed by banks. The money collected by the government goes to banks in the form of equity capital as the government increases its share of equity holding, thereby shoring up banks’ capital reserves. The money invested by banks in recapitalisation bonds is classified as an investment which earns them an interest. This helps the government in maintaining its fiscal deficit target as no money directly goes out from its coffers. The term recapitalisation means giving equity money to cover debt of an entity. In the case of PSBs, their NPAs (debts) will be replaced by equity capital from recapitalisation by the government. Question 11 of 35 11. Question With reference to the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), consider the following statements: The Cash Reserve Ratio refers to the percentage of the depositors’ money which the banks are required to maintain with the RBI in the form of cash. The banks are required to maintain 100% of the CRR requirement on all the days. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is the percentage of the depositors’ money which the banks are required to maintain with the RBI in the form of cash. However, it may be noted that the RBI does not pay any interest to the banks on the CRR deposits. All the banks are required to maintain 100% of the CRR requirement on an average basis during the fortnight. This means that it is not necessary for the banks to maintain 100% of the CRR requirement on all the days during the fortnight. However, the average CRR with the RBI for the entire fortnight has to be 100% of the CRR requirement. Note: Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): The Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is the percentage of the depositors’ money which the banks are required to maintain with the RBI in the form of cash. However, it may be noted that the RBI does not pay any interest to the banks on the CRR deposits. During Inflation: Increase in the CRR The banks are required to keep higher percentage of depositors’ money with the RBIàLess money available with the banks for giving loansàDecrease in the money supply. During Slowdown: Decrease in the CRR The banks are required to keep less percentage of depositors’ money with the RBIàMore money available for giving loansàIncrease in the money supply. All the banks are required to maintain 100% of the CRR requirement on an average basis during the fortnight. This means that it is not necessary for the banks to maintain 100% of the CRR requirement on all the days during the fortnight. However, the average CRR with the RBI for the entire fortnight has to be 100% of the CRR requirement. Further, the RBI stipulates the daily minimum CRR balances for the banks. Earlier, it was 90% of the CRR requirement on a daily basis. In 2019, the RBI decided to reduce the requirement of minimum daily CRR balance maintenance from 90% to 80%. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is the percentage of the depositors’ money which the banks are required to maintain with the RBI in the form of cash. However, it may be noted that the RBI does not pay any interest to the banks on the CRR deposits. All the banks are required to maintain 100% of the CRR requirement on an average basis during the fortnight. This means that it is not necessary for the banks to maintain 100% of the CRR requirement on all the days during the fortnight. However, the average CRR with the RBI for the entire fortnight has to be 100% of the CRR requirement. Note: Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): The Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is the percentage of the depositors’ money which the banks are required to maintain with the RBI in the form of cash. However, it may be noted that the RBI does not pay any interest to the banks on the CRR deposits. During Inflation: Increase in the CRR The banks are required to keep higher percentage of depositors’ money with the RBIàLess money available with the banks for giving loansàDecrease in the money supply. During Slowdown: Decrease in the CRR The banks are required to keep less percentage of depositors’ money with the RBIàMore money available for giving loansàIncrease in the money supply. All the banks are required to maintain 100% of the CRR requirement on an average basis during the fortnight. This means that it is not necessary for the banks to maintain 100% of the CRR requirement on all the days during the fortnight. However, the average CRR with the RBI for the entire fortnight has to be 100% of the CRR requirement. Further, the RBI stipulates the daily minimum CRR balances for the banks. Earlier, it was 90% of the CRR requirement on a daily basis. In 2019, the RBI decided to reduce the requirement of minimum daily CRR balance maintenance from 90% to 80%. Question 12 of 35 12. Question Consider the following statements related to the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF): The Standing Deposit Facility enables the RBI to inject liquidity into the economy, without accepting the G-Secs as collateral from the banks. This tool has been introduced through an amendment to the RBI Act, 1934. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Under the SDF route, the RBI would not be required to provide the G-Secs as collateral to the banks for parking its funds. Hence, it would enable the RBI to absorb huge amount of liquidity from the economy, without the G-Secs acting as collateral. The Finance Act (2018), introduced as a part of the Budget, amended the RBI Act, 1934, to enable the RBI to use the new tool of the SDF. Subsequently, the liquidity management framework adopted by the RBI in February, 2020, has decided to use the SDF in India. Note: Standing Deposit Facility (SDF): The Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) works similar to the Reverse Repo. However, the SDF is different from the Reverse Repo in the following ways: Under the SDF route, the RBI would not be required to provide the G-Secs as collateral to the banks. Hence, it would enable the RBI to absorb huge amount of liquidity from the economy, without the G-Secs acting as collateral. The SDF would be lower than the Reverse Repo. Reverse Repo exercise is carried out as per the discretion of the RBI, depending upon the market conditions. However, the SDF would enable the banks to keep their surplus funds with the RBI at their own discretion. The Finance Act (2018), introduced as a part of the Budget, amended the RBI Act, 1934, to enable the RBI to use the new tool of the SDF. Subsequently, the liquidity management framework adopted by the RBI in February, 2020, has decided to use the SDF in India. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Under the SDF route, the RBI would not be required to provide the G-Secs as collateral to the banks for parking its funds. Hence, it would enable the RBI to absorb huge amount of liquidity from the economy, without the G-Secs acting as collateral. The Finance Act (2018), introduced as a part of the Budget, amended the RBI Act, 1934, to enable the RBI to use the new tool of the SDF. Subsequently, the liquidity management framework adopted by the RBI in February, 2020, has decided to use the SDF in India. Note: Standing Deposit Facility (SDF): The Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) works similar to the Reverse Repo. However, the SDF is different from the Reverse Repo in the following ways: Under the SDF route, the RBI would not be required to provide the G-Secs as collateral to the banks. Hence, it would enable the RBI to absorb huge amount of liquidity from the economy, without the G-Secs acting as collateral. The SDF would be lower than the Reverse Repo. Reverse Repo exercise is carried out as per the discretion of the RBI, depending upon the market conditions. However, the SDF would enable the banks to keep their surplus funds with the RBI at their own discretion. The Finance Act (2018), introduced as a part of the Budget, amended the RBI Act, 1934, to enable the RBI to use the new tool of the SDF. Subsequently, the liquidity management framework adopted by the RBI in February, 2020, has decided to use the SDF in India. Question 13 of 35 13. Question Which of the following categories of banks can use the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) of the RBI to manage their liquidity? The Scheduled Commercial Banks The Scheduled Cooperative Banks The Regional Rural Banks Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution (d) Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF): It is a monetary policy tool used largely by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) that controls the liquidity or money supply in the economy. It does it by either allowing banks to borrow money via repurchase agreements (repos) or lend loans to the RBI via reverse repo agreements. Liquidity Adjustment Facility was recommended by the Narasimhan Committee on Banking Reforms and was introduced by the RBI in 1998. There are two main components of Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF): Repo Rate: It is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends to other banks. Reverse Repo Rate: It is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) borrows from commercial banks. Earlier, the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) was applicable only to the Scheduled Commercial Banks and the Scheduled Cooperative Banks. Recently, the RBI has decided to extend the LAF and the Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) to the Regional Rural Banks (RRBs). It has also been decided to permit the RRBs to participate in the Call/Notice money market, both as the borrowers and the lenders. Incorrect Solution (d) Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF): It is a monetary policy tool used largely by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) that controls the liquidity or money supply in the economy. It does it by either allowing banks to borrow money via repurchase agreements (repos) or lend loans to the RBI via reverse repo agreements. Liquidity Adjustment Facility was recommended by the Narasimhan Committee on Banking Reforms and was introduced by the RBI in 1998. There are two main components of Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF): Repo Rate: It is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends to other banks. Reverse Repo Rate: It is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) borrows from commercial banks. Earlier, the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) was applicable only to the Scheduled Commercial Banks and the Scheduled Cooperative Banks. Recently, the RBI has decided to extend the LAF and the Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) to the Regional Rural Banks (RRBs). It has also been decided to permit the RRBs to participate in the Call/Notice money market, both as the borrowers and the lenders. Question 14 of 35 14. Question With reference to the White Label ATMs in India, consider the following statements: These ATMs are set up, owned and operated by the non-banking entities. The customers are not charged at all for withdrawing money from such ATM machines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The ATMs which are set up, owned and operated by non-banks are called the White Label ATMs (WLAs). The customers can be charged for transactions at the ATMs over and above the mandated number of free transactions. Note: White Label ATMs (WLAs): The ATMs which are set up, owned and operated by non-banks are called the White Label ATMs (WLAs). The non-bank ATM operators are authorized under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act,2007, by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The rationale to allow the non-bank entities to set up the WLAs has been to increase the geographical spread of the ATMs for increased/enhanced customer service, especially in the semi-urban/rural areas. In addition to dispensing cash, the ATMs/WLAs may offer many other services/facilities to the customers. Some of such services include – Account Information; Cash Deposit; Regular Bill Payment; PIN Change; Request for Cheque Book etc. The customers can be charged for transactions at the ATMs over and above the mandated number of free transactions. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The ATMs which are set up, owned and operated by non-banks are called the White Label ATMs (WLAs). The customers can be charged for transactions at the ATMs over and above the mandated number of free transactions. Note: White Label ATMs (WLAs): The ATMs which are set up, owned and operated by non-banks are called the White Label ATMs (WLAs). The non-bank ATM operators are authorized under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act,2007, by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The rationale to allow the non-bank entities to set up the WLAs has been to increase the geographical spread of the ATMs for increased/enhanced customer service, especially in the semi-urban/rural areas. In addition to dispensing cash, the ATMs/WLAs may offer many other services/facilities to the customers. Some of such services include – Account Information; Cash Deposit; Regular Bill Payment; PIN Change; Request for Cheque Book etc. The customers can be charged for transactions at the ATMs over and above the mandated number of free transactions. Question 15 of 35 15. Question With reference to the ‘Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI)’, consider the following statements: It was established under the Company Act, 2013. It has regulatory oversight over the Insolvency Professionals, Insolvency Professional Agencies, Insolvency Professional Entities and Information Utilities. It has been designated as the ‘Authority’ under the Companies (Registered Valuers and Valuation Rules), 2017 for regulation and development of the profession of valuers in the country. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India was established on 1st October, 2016 under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (Code).   It is a unique regulator which regulates a profession as well as processes. It has regulatory oversight over the Insolvency Professionals, Insolvency Professional Agencies, Insolvency Professional Entities and Information Utilities.   It been designated as the ‘Authority’ under the Companies (Registered Valuers and Valuation Rules), 2017 for regulation and development of the profession of valuers in the country. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India was established on 1st October, 2016 under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (Code).   It is a unique regulator which regulates a profession as well as processes. It has regulatory oversight over the Insolvency Professionals, Insolvency Professional Agencies, Insolvency Professional Entities and Information Utilities.   It been designated as the ‘Authority’ under the Companies (Registered Valuers and Valuation Rules), 2017 for regulation and development of the profession of valuers in the country. Question 16 of 35 16. Question Which of the following parameters form the basis for the difference between Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) visa-vis Banks? NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits. NBFCs do not form part of the Payment and Settlement System. NBFCs are not under the purview of the deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Banks can do almost all financial services and products generally authorized to them. They can accept demand deposits, whereas, NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits. While the Banks are part of the payment and settlement system, NBFCs do not form part of the payment and settlement system and cannot issue cheque drawn on itself. The deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation is not available to depositors of NBFCs, unlike in case of banks. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Banks can do almost all financial services and products generally authorized to them. They can accept demand deposits, whereas, NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits. While the Banks are part of the payment and settlement system, NBFCs do not form part of the payment and settlement system and cannot issue cheque drawn on itself. The deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation is not available to depositors of NBFCs, unlike in case of banks. Question 17 of 35 17. Question In the context of the money supply in an economy, ‘High Powered Money’ includes: a) Interbank deposits, which a commercial bank holds in other commercial banks. b) Deposits held by the Government of India and commercial banks with RBI only. c) Only the currency circulation and the public and vault cash of commercial banks. d) Both (b) and (c). Correct Solution (d) The total liability of the monetary authority of the RBI is called the monetary base or high-powered It consists of currency (notes and coins in circulation with the public and vault cash of commercial banks) and deposits held by the Government of India and commercial banks with It is also called as reserve money ‘or monetary base’ as it acts as a basis for credit It is denoted by M0. Different measures of the money supply can be categorized as follows: M1 – It is also called narrow It includes currency with public, demand deposit in all banks (e.g., current account, savings account) and Other deposits with RBI M2 = M1 + Post office bank savings M3 = M1 + Time deposits with commercial banks (Fixed deposits, Recurring deposits). M4= M3 + total post office deposits Incorrect Solution (d) The total liability of the monetary authority of the RBI is called the monetary base or high-powered It consists of currency (notes and coins in circulation with the public and vault cash of commercial banks) and deposits held by the Government of India and commercial banks with It is also called as reserve money ‘or monetary base’ as it acts as a basis for credit It is denoted by M0. Different measures of the money supply can be categorized as follows: M1 – It is also called narrow It includes currency with public, demand deposit in all banks (e.g., current account, savings account) and Other deposits with RBI M2 = M1 + Post office bank savings M3 = M1 + Time deposits with commercial banks (Fixed deposits, Recurring deposits). M4= M3 + total post office deposits Question 18 of 35 18. Question Consider the following statements regarding the ‘External Benchmark Based Lending’ by the Reserve Bank of India: It refers to the linking of floating rate loans of financial institutions to an external benchmark like the policy repo rate of the Reserve Bank of India. It is applicable only to banks and not NBFCs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct According to External Benchmark based Lending Rate, the banks must link all new floating rate loans to an external benchmark like repo rate, 3-month or 6-month treasury bill yield, or any other benchmark published by the Financial Benchmarks India Pvt. Ltd. The new regime will only apply to banks and not NBFCs. Leading housing finance companies like HDFC will not be under the purview of the new regime. However, if repo-linked rates of other lenders come down, the competition will force NBFCs to match the rates. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct According to External Benchmark based Lending Rate, the banks must link all new floating rate loans to an external benchmark like repo rate, 3-month or 6-month treasury bill yield, or any other benchmark published by the Financial Benchmarks India Pvt. Ltd. The new regime will only apply to banks and not NBFCs. Leading housing finance companies like HDFC will not be under the purview of the new regime. However, if repo-linked rates of other lenders come down, the competition will force NBFCs to match the rates. Question 19 of 35 19. Question Consider the following statements regarding Priority Sector Lending Certificates (PSLCs): These are tradable certificates issued by the Reserve Bank of India for banks who have failed to meet their Priority Sector Lending targets. All Scheduled Commercial Banks, Small Finance Banks, and Payments Banks are eligible to participate in the trading of PSLC. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect The Priority Sector Lending Certificates (PSCLs) are certificates issued by banks that have overreached their priority sector lending targets. All Scheduled Commercial Banks (including Regional Rural Banks), Urban Co-operative Banks, Small Finance Banks (when they become operational) and Local Area Banks are eligible to participate in the trading. However, Payment banks are not allowed to give any form of a loan or issue a credit card, which is also a form of unsecured personal loan. Consequently, they are not within the purview of buying or selling PSLCs. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect The Priority Sector Lending Certificates (PSCLs) are certificates issued by banks that have overreached their priority sector lending targets. All Scheduled Commercial Banks (including Regional Rural Banks), Urban Co-operative Banks, Small Finance Banks (when they become operational) and Local Area Banks are eligible to participate in the trading. However, Payment banks are not allowed to give any form of a loan or issue a credit card, which is also a form of unsecured personal loan. Consequently, they are not within the purview of buying or selling PSLCs. Question 20 of 35 20. Question Which among the following best describes “Bank Run”? a) It refers to a situation when there is excess liquidity in the banks. b) It is a condition when Non-performing assets (NPAs) of banks increase above the threshold limit. c) It is the situation in which a bank decides to stop all its services to expand its presence by opening several new branches. d) It is a situation when a large number of customers of a bank withdraw their deposits simultaneously. Correct Solution (d) A ‘bank run’ occurs when a large number of customers of a bank or another financial institution withdraw their deposits simultaneously due to concerns about the bank’s As more people withdraw their funds, the probability of default increases, thereby prompting more people to withdraw their In extreme cases, the bank’s reserves may not be sufficient to cover the withdrawals. When a bank cannot satisfy customer demands for withdrawals—or if there’s a rumor that the bank will be unable to do so—the situation Customers fear being the “last one to the exit,” and they attempt to withdraw as much as possible. In a worst-case scenario, a bank may be unable to meet obligations, leading to complete Incorrect Solution (d) A ‘bank run’ occurs when a large number of customers of a bank or another financial institution withdraw their deposits simultaneously due to concerns about the bank’s As more people withdraw their funds, the probability of default increases, thereby prompting more people to withdraw their In extreme cases, the bank’s reserves may not be sufficient to cover the withdrawals. When a bank cannot satisfy customer demands for withdrawals—or if there’s a rumor that the bank will be unable to do so—the situation Customers fear being the “last one to the exit,” and they attempt to withdraw as much as possible. In a worst-case scenario, a bank may be unable to meet obligations, leading to complete Question 21 of 35 21. Question Consider the following statements about the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) It was formerly known as the Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC). Its members include Australia, Bangladesh, Comoros, French Republic, and India. The Council of Foreign Ministers (COM) is the highest decision-making body of IORA. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) The Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA)  was formerly known as the Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC). Hence statement 1 is correct. Its objective is to ensure the sustainable development of the Indian Ocean region. Its Secretariat is located in Cyber City, Ebène, Mauritius. It comprises 23 member states and 11 dialogue partners hailing from regions surrounding the Indian Ocean. Its members include Australia, Bangladesh, Comoros, French Republic, India, Indonesia, Iran, Kenya, Madagascar, Malaysia, Mauritius, Mozambique, Oman, Seychelles, Singapore, Somalia, South Africa, Sri Lanka, Tanzania, Thailand, the United Arab Emirates, the Maldives, and Yemen. Hence statement 2 is correct. In 2014, India hosted the first Indian Ocean Dialogue in Kochi, Kerala. The Council of Foreign Ministers (COM) is the highest decision-making body of IORA. Hence statement 3 is correct. A committee of Senior Officials (CSO) meets twice a year to progress IORA’s agenda and consider recommendations by Working Groups and forums of officials, business and academics. Incorrect Solution (c) The Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA)  was formerly known as the Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC). Hence statement 1 is correct. Its objective is to ensure the sustainable development of the Indian Ocean region. Its Secretariat is located in Cyber City, Ebène, Mauritius. It comprises 23 member states and 11 dialogue partners hailing from regions surrounding the Indian Ocean. Its members include Australia, Bangladesh, Comoros, French Republic, India, Indonesia, Iran, Kenya, Madagascar, Malaysia, Mauritius, Mozambique, Oman, Seychelles, Singapore, Somalia, South Africa, Sri Lanka, Tanzania, Thailand, the United Arab Emirates, the Maldives, and Yemen. Hence statement 2 is correct. In 2014, India hosted the first Indian Ocean Dialogue in Kochi, Kerala. The Council of Foreign Ministers (COM) is the highest decision-making body of IORA. Hence statement 3 is correct. A committee of Senior Officials (CSO) meets twice a year to progress IORA’s agenda and consider recommendations by Working Groups and forums of officials, business and academics. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Recently in the news, the Chungthang Dam is located on which of the following river? a) Sutlej River b) Beas River c) Subansiri River d) Teesta River Correct Solution (d) The Chungthang Dam is located on Teesta River in Sikkim. The dam serves as a hydroelectric power generation facility, contributing to Sikkim’s renewable energy portfolio. It is an integral part of the 1200 MW mega Teesta Stage III Hydro Electric Project which is a major source of electricity for Sikkim and West Bengal. Hence option d is correct. Incorrect Solution (d) The Chungthang Dam is located on Teesta River in Sikkim. The dam serves as a hydroelectric power generation facility, contributing to Sikkim’s renewable energy portfolio. It is an integral part of the 1200 MW mega Teesta Stage III Hydro Electric Project which is a major source of electricity for Sikkim and West Bengal. Hence option d is correct. Question 23 of 35 23. Question Consider the following statements with reference to India’s Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS) India’s CCTS is a program designed to allow companies to trade carbon credits. The carbon credit market’s regulation in CCTS falls under the regulation of Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) India introduced the CCTS under the Energy Conservation Act, 2001, to manage greenhouse gas emissions. The CCTS encourages a market-driven approach, helping India achieve its environmental commitments. It is administered by the Ministry of Power (MoP) and Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEF&CC). India’s CCTS is a program designed to allow companies to trade carbon credits. Hence statement 1 is correct. The carbon credit market’s regulation in CCTS falls under the regulation of the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC). Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (a) India introduced the CCTS under the Energy Conservation Act, 2001, to manage greenhouse gas emissions. The CCTS encourages a market-driven approach, helping India achieve its environmental commitments. It is administered by the Ministry of Power (MoP) and Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEF&CC). India’s CCTS is a program designed to allow companies to trade carbon credits. Hence statement 1 is correct. The carbon credit market’s regulation in CCTS falls under the regulation of the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC). Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements about the National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) It was established by an Act of Parliament in 1963 as a statutory corporation. Sahakar Pragya is one of the initiative of the National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC). Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) The National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) was established by an Act of Parliament in 1963 as a statutory corporation. Hence statement 1 is correct. It works under the Ministry of Cooperation. It helps in planning, promoting and financing programmes for production, processing, marketing, storage, export and import of agricultural produce, food stuffs, certain other notified commodities e.g., fertilisers, insecticides, agricultural machinery, lac, soap, kerosene oil, textile, rubber etc. Sahakar Pragya is one of the initiative of the National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC). It is a capacity development initiative  through Laxman Rao Inamdar National Academy for Cooperative Research Development (LINAC). Hence statement 2 is correct.   Incorrect Solution (c) The National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) was established by an Act of Parliament in 1963 as a statutory corporation. Hence statement 1 is correct. It works under the Ministry of Cooperation. It helps in planning, promoting and financing programmes for production, processing, marketing, storage, export and import of agricultural produce, food stuffs, certain other notified commodities e.g., fertilisers, insecticides, agricultural machinery, lac, soap, kerosene oil, textile, rubber etc. Sahakar Pragya is one of the initiative of the National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC). It is a capacity development initiative  through Laxman Rao Inamdar National Academy for Cooperative Research Development (LINAC). Hence statement 2 is correct.   Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements: The baltic-connector gas pipeline is a natural gas pipeline between Finland and Denmark. The Baltic Sea is a part of the Pacific Ocean which is surrounded by Denmark, Estonia, Finland, Germany, and Latvia. Baltic states is a geopolitical term typically used to refer to three countries – Estonia, Latvia, and Lithuania. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Baltic-connector gas pipeline is a natural gas pipeline between Finland and Estonia. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The gas pipeline was opened in 2020. It is used to send gas between Estonia and Finland, depending on which country is most in need at any point. The pipeline has been Finland’s only natural gas import channel since Russian imports were stopped in 2022. The Baltic Sea is a part of the Atlantic Ocean which is surrounded by Denmark, Estonia, Finland, Germany, Latvia, Lithuania, Poland, Russia, Sweden, and the North and Central European Plain. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Image: World Atlas Baltic states is a geopolitical term typically used to refer to three countries – Estonia, Latvia, and Lithuania. Hence statement 3 is correct. All three countries are members of NATO, the European Union, the Eurozone, and the OECD. Incorrect Solution (a) Baltic-connector gas pipeline is a natural gas pipeline between Finland and Estonia. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The gas pipeline was opened in 2020. It is used to send gas between Estonia and Finland, depending on which country is most in need at any point. The pipeline has been Finland’s only natural gas import channel since Russian imports were stopped in 2022. The Baltic Sea is a part of the Atlantic Ocean which is surrounded by Denmark, Estonia, Finland, Germany, Latvia, Lithuania, Poland, Russia, Sweden, and the North and Central European Plain. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Image: World Atlas Baltic states is a geopolitical term typically used to refer to three countries – Estonia, Latvia, and Lithuania. Hence statement 3 is correct. All three countries are members of NATO, the European Union, the Eurozone, and the OECD. Question 26 of 35 26. Question Consider the following statements: P20 is a congregation of Parliamentary Speakers from the Parliaments of G20 nations. The theme of the P20 Summit 2023 was “Parliaments for One Earth, One Family, One Future.” Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) P20 is a congregation of Parliamentary Speakers from the Parliaments of G20 nations. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is a meeting that pertains to Speakers and presiding officers of the Parliament from the G20 countries and invitee nations. The P20 Group was set up during the G20 Presidency of Canada in 2010. The P20 Group provides an opportunity to deepen the recognition of G20 member nations’ efforts and methods of international collaboration in related policies by deliberating upon emerging issues faced by the global community. The theme of the P20 Summit 2023 was “Parliaments for One Earth, One Family, One Future.” Hence statement 2 is correct. It also highlighted the “LiFE is Beautiful” initiative, promoting eco-friendly practices for a sustainable ecosystem. Incorrect Solution (c) P20 is a congregation of Parliamentary Speakers from the Parliaments of G20 nations. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is a meeting that pertains to Speakers and presiding officers of the Parliament from the G20 countries and invitee nations. The P20 Group was set up during the G20 Presidency of Canada in 2010. The P20 Group provides an opportunity to deepen the recognition of G20 member nations’ efforts and methods of international collaboration in related policies by deliberating upon emerging issues faced by the global community. The theme of the P20 Summit 2023 was “Parliaments for One Earth, One Family, One Future.” Hence statement 2 is correct. It also highlighted the “LiFE is Beautiful” initiative, promoting eco-friendly practices for a sustainable ecosystem. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements: Avian influenza is a highly contagious bacterial infection that primarily affects wild birds and domestic poultry. The Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza Virus (HPAIV) causes serious illness in birds resulting in high death rates in different species of birds. India’s approach to controlling Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza (HPAI) follows a “detect and cull” policy. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Avian influenza is a highly contagious viral infection that primarily affects wild birds and domestic poultry. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza Virus (HPAIV) causes serious illness in birds resulting in high death rates in different species of birds. Hence statement 2 is correct. HPAI was first detected in India in the state of Maharashtra in 2006. Since then, India has experienced annual outbreaks of HPAI in different regions, leading to substantial economic losses. India’s approach to controlling Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza (HPAI) follows a “detect and cull” policy as outlined in the National Action Plan for Prevention, Control, and Containment of Avian Influenza (revised – 2021). The policy approach includes: The humane destruction of infected and exposed animals, eggs, feed, litter, and other contaminated materials. Restricting the movement of poultry and poultry products, disinfection, and clean-up of infected premises. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) Avian influenza is a highly contagious viral infection that primarily affects wild birds and domestic poultry. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza Virus (HPAIV) causes serious illness in birds resulting in high death rates in different species of birds. Hence statement 2 is correct. HPAI was first detected in India in the state of Maharashtra in 2006. Since then, India has experienced annual outbreaks of HPAI in different regions, leading to substantial economic losses. India’s approach to controlling Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza (HPAI) follows a “detect and cull” policy as outlined in the National Action Plan for Prevention, Control, and Containment of Avian Influenza (revised – 2021). The policy approach includes: The humane destruction of infected and exposed animals, eggs, feed, litter, and other contaminated materials. Restricting the movement of poultry and poultry products, disinfection, and clean-up of infected premises. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 28 of 35 28. Question Consider the following: Port Name Country Hanshin Brazil Hambantota Sri Lanka Santos Japan Duqum Port Oman Which of the given pairs are correctly matched? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (b) Port Name Country 1.     Hanshin Japan 2.     Hambantota Sri Lanka 3.     Santos Brazil 4.     Duqum Port Oman Hence option b is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) Port Name Country 1.     Hanshin Japan 2.     Hambantota Sri Lanka 3.     Santos Brazil 4.     Duqum Port Oman Hence option b is correct. Question 29 of 35 29. Question Consider the following statements about the Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy (HELP): It is a paradigm shift from the Production Sharing Contract regime to the Revenue Sharing Contract regime based on ease of doing business. It provides a single license for exploration and production of conventional as well as non-conventional hydrocarbon resources. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) The Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy (HELP) is a policy framework. It provides guidelines for the exploration and production of hydrocarbons in India. It aims to make India a global hub for hydrocarbon exploration and production. It simplifies the licensing process. It provides fiscal incentives and promotes investment in the sector. The Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy (HELP) is a paradigm shift from the Production Sharing Contract regime to the Revenue Sharing Contract regime based on ease of doing business. Hence statement 1 is correct. It provides for a revenue-sharing model, the government will receive a share of the gross revenue from the sale of oil and gas, etc., and will not be concerned with the cost incurred. It provides for a uniform licensing system that will cover all hydrocarbons such as oil, gas, and coal bed methane. It provides a single license for exploration and production of conventional as well as non-conventional hydrocarbon resources. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) The Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy (HELP) is a policy framework. It provides guidelines for the exploration and production of hydrocarbons in India. It aims to make India a global hub for hydrocarbon exploration and production. It simplifies the licensing process. It provides fiscal incentives and promotes investment in the sector. The Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy (HELP) is a paradigm shift from the Production Sharing Contract regime to the Revenue Sharing Contract regime based on ease of doing business. Hence statement 1 is correct. It provides for a revenue-sharing model, the government will receive a share of the gross revenue from the sale of oil and gas, etc., and will not be concerned with the cost incurred. It provides for a uniform licensing system that will cover all hydrocarbons such as oil, gas, and coal bed methane. It provides a single license for exploration and production of conventional as well as non-conventional hydrocarbon resources. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 30 of 35 30. Question Consider the following statements about the World Health Assembly: It was founded on the occasion of the 300th anniversary of Berlin’s Charité Hospital. It is held annually in Berlin, Germany under the patronage of Germany, France, the European Commission, and the World Health Organization (WHO). The theme for the World Health Assembly 2023 was “A Defining Year for Global Health Action.” How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) The World Health Assembly was founded in 2009 on the occasion of the 300th anniversary of Berlin’s Charité Hospital. Hence statement 1 is correct. The Berlin Charité was founded as a military hospital in 1710 under the Prussian King Friedrich-Wilhelm I. It is held annually in Berlin, Germany under the patronage of Germany, France, the European Commission, and the World Health Organization (WHO). Hence statement 2 is correct. It aims to set the agenda for a healthier future by inspiring innovative solutions for better health and well-being for all. The theme for the World Health Assembly 2023 was “A Defining Year for Global Health Action.” Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) The World Health Assembly was founded in 2009 on the occasion of the 300th anniversary of Berlin’s Charité Hospital. Hence statement 1 is correct. The Berlin Charité was founded as a military hospital in 1710 under the Prussian King Friedrich-Wilhelm I. It is held annually in Berlin, Germany under the patronage of Germany, France, the European Commission, and the World Health Organization (WHO). Hence statement 2 is correct. It aims to set the agenda for a healthier future by inspiring innovative solutions for better health and well-being for all. The theme for the World Health Assembly 2023 was “A Defining Year for Global Health Action.” Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 31 of 35 31. Question A cube of side 16 cm was painted on all faces and divided into 64 smaller equal cubes. How many cubes are painted from 3 sides? a) 24 b) 8 c) 12 d) 16 Correct Solution (b) Only the corner cubes i.e. the 8 cubes at the corners of the original cube will have three faces painted. Hence the answer will be 8 only. Further, i) In a cube of size nxn (where n>=2) the number of cubes painted with 3 adjacent faces will always be 8 irrespective of the number of cubes ii) Number of cubes painted with 2 adjacent faces = (n-2)x12 [here 12 represents 12 edges of the cube] iii) Number of cubes painted on 1 face = [(n-2)^2 x6] [here 6 represents 6 faces of the cube] iv) Number of cubes having no faces painted = (n-2)^3 In the above question, the cube is of 4×4 size (64/16), hence 3 face painted cubes are 8, 2 face painted cubes are (4-2) x 12 = 24, 1 face painted cubes are (4-2)2 x 6 = 24 and no face painted cubes are (4-2)^3 = 8. Incorrect Solution (b) Only the corner cubes i.e. the 8 cubes at the corners of the original cube will have three faces painted. Hence the answer will be 8 only. Further, i) In a cube of size nxn (where n>=2) the number of cubes painted with 3 adjacent faces will always be 8 irrespective of the number of cubes ii) Number of cubes painted with 2 adjacent faces = (n-2)x12 [here 12 represents 12 edges of the cube] iii) Number of cubes painted on 1 face = [(n-2)^2 x6] [here 6 represents 6 faces of the cube] iv) Number of cubes having no faces painted = (n-2)^3 In the above question, the cube is of 4×4 size (64/16), hence 3 face painted cubes are 8, 2 face painted cubes are (4-2) x 12 = 24, 1 face painted cubes are (4-2)2 x 6 = 24 and no face painted cubes are (4-2)^3 = 8. Question 32 of 35 32. Question From a group of 7 men and 6 women, five persons are to be selected to form a committee so that at least 3 men are there on the committee. In how many ways can it be done? a) 564 b) 645 c) 735 d) 756 Correct Solution (d) We may have (3 men and 2 women) or (4 men and 1 woman) or (5 men only). ∴ Required number of ways = (7C3 × 6C2 ) + ( 7C4 × 6C1 ) + ( 7C5 ) = (7×6×5/3×2×1)×(6×5/2×1) + ( 7C3 × 6C1 ) + ( 7C2 ) = 525 + (7×6×5/3×2×1 ×6) + (  7×6/2×1) = ( 525 + 210 + 21 ) = 756   Incorrect Solution (d) We may have (3 men and 2 women) or (4 men and 1 woman) or (5 men only). ∴ Required number of ways = (7C3 × 6C2 ) + ( 7C4 × 6C1 ) + ( 7C5 ) = (7×6×5/3×2×1)×(6×5/2×1) + ( 7C3 × 6C1 ) + ( 7C2 ) = 525 + (7×6×5/3×2×1 ×6) + (  7×6/2×1) = ( 525 + 210 + 21 ) = 756   Question 33 of 35 33. Question The monthly incomes of A and B are in the ratio of 3:2 and their monthly expenses are in the ratio of 2:1. If each saves Rs. 3000 at the end of the month, what is their combined monthly income? a) Rs. 11000 b) Rs. 20000 c) Rs. 15000 d) Rs. 25000 Correct Solution (c) Let incomes of A and B are 3x and 2x, and expenditures are 2y and y 3x-2y=3000 ..(i) 2x-y=3000 …(ii) After solving equation (i) and (ii) we get x=3000 Thus their combined monthly income is 3x+2x = 5x = 5×3000 = 15000 Incorrect Solution (c) Let incomes of A and B are 3x and 2x, and expenditures are 2y and y 3x-2y=3000 ..(i) 2x-y=3000 …(ii) After solving equation (i) and (ii) we get x=3000 Thus their combined monthly income is 3x+2x = 5x = 5×3000 = 15000 Question 34 of 35 34. Question In a two-digit, if it is known that its unit’s digit exceeds its ten’s digit by 2 and that the product of the given number and the sum of its digits is equal to 144, then the number is a) 40 b) 42 c) 24 d) 50 Correct Solution (c) Let the ten’s digit be x. Then, unit’s digit = x + 2. Number = 10x + (x + 2) = 11x + 2. Sum of digits = x + (x + 2) = 2x + 2. ∴ (11x + 2)(2x + 2) = 144 ⇒ 22×2 + 26x – 140 = 0 ⇒ 11×2 + 13x – 70 = 0 ⇒ (x – 2)(11x + 35) = 0 ⇒ x = 2. Hence, required number = 11x + 2 = 24. Incorrect Solution (c) Let the ten’s digit be x. Then, unit’s digit = x + 2. Number = 10x + (x + 2) = 11x + 2. Sum of digits = x + (x + 2) = 2x + 2. ∴ (11x + 2)(2x + 2) = 144 ⇒ 22×2 + 26x – 140 = 0 ⇒ 11×2 + 13x – 70 = 0 ⇒ (x – 2)(11x + 35) = 0 ⇒ x = 2. Hence, required number = 11x + 2 = 24. Question 35 of 35 35. Question The sum of the present ages of a mother and her daughter is 60 years. Six years ago, mother’s age was five times the age of the daughter. After 6 years, daughter‘s age will be a) 14 years b) 18 years c) 20 years d) 12 years Correct Solution (c) Method 1: Let the present ages of daughter and mother be x and (60 -x) years respectively. Six years ago, mother’s age was five times the age of the daughter then (60 – x) – 6 = 5(x – 6) 54 – x = 5x – 30 6x = 84 x = 14. Daughter‘s age after 6 years = (x+ 6) = (14+6) = 20 years.   Method 2: Go by answer options: The sum of present age of mother and daughter = 60 Sum of age of mother and daughter six years ago = 60 – 6 – 6 = 48 In the answer options age of daughter is given which is six years ahead of present age hence the age of daughter six years ago from the present age was (answer option – 12) = let say d Sum of age of mother and daughter six years ago = 5d + d = 48 Six years ago, mother’s age was five times the age of the daughter Option (d) gives value of d zero i.e. 12 – 12 hence ruled out. From option (c), we get value of d = 20- 12 =8 which satisfy the equation 5d + d = 48. Hence the answer is option (c). Incorrect Solution (c) Method 1: Let the present ages of daughter and mother be x and (60 -x) years respectively. Six years ago, mother’s age was five times the age of the daughter then (60 – x) – 6 = 5(x – 6) 54 – x = 5x – 30 6x = 84 x = 14. Daughter‘s age after 6 years = (x+ 6) = (14+6) = 20 years.   Method 2: Go by answer options: The sum of present age of mother and daughter = 60 Sum of age of mother and daughter six years ago = 60 – 6 – 6 = 48 In the answer options age of daughter is given which is six years ahead of present age hence the age of daughter six years ago from the present age was (answer option – 12) = let say d Sum of age of mother and daughter six years ago = 5d + d = 48 Six years ago, mother’s age was five times the age of the daughter Option (d) gives value of d zero i.e. 12 – 12 hence ruled out. From option (c), we get value of d = 20- 12 =8 which satisfy the equation 5d + d = 48. 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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 27th March 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Black Carbon Syllabus Prelims and Mains – Environment Context: At the COP26 climate talks in Glasgow in November 2021, India pledged to achieve net-zero emissions by 2070, positioning itself as a frontrunner in the race to carbon neutrality.While carbon dioxide mitigation strategies will yield benefits in the long term, they need to go hand-in-hand with efforts that provide short-term relief. Background:- Prioritising black carbon reduction through initiatives such as the PMUY scheme can help India become a global leader in addressing regional health concerns and help meet its Sustainability Development Goal of providing affordable clean energy to everyone and contributing to global climate mitigation. About Black Carbon Black carbon is the dark, sooty material emitted alongside other pollutants when biomass and fossil fuels are not fully combusted. It contributes to global warming and poses severe risks. Studies have found a direct link between exposure to black carbon and a higher risk of heart disease, birth complications, and premature death. Most black carbon emissions in India arise from burning biomass, such as cow dung or straw, in traditional cookstoves. According to a 2016 study, the residential sector contributes 47% of India’s total black carbon emissions. Industries contribute a further 22%, diesel vehicles 17%, open burning 12%, and other sources 2%. Decarbonisation efforts in the industry and transport sectors in the past decade have yielded reductions in black carbon emissions, but the residential sector remains a challenge. Role of Govt: In May 2016, the Government of India said the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) would provide free liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) connections to households below the poverty line. The primary objective was to make clean cooking fuel available to rural and poor households and reduce their dependence on traditional cooking fuels. The PMUY has established infrastructure to go with LPG connections, including free gas stoves, deposits for LPG cylinders, and a distribution network. The programme has thus, been able to play a vital role in reducing black carbon emissions, as it offers a cleaner alternative to traditional fuel consumption. However, in 2022-2023, 25% of all PMUY beneficiaries — 2.69 crore people — availed either zero LPG refill or only one LPG refill, according to RTI data, meaning they still relied entirely on traditional biomass for cooking. Source:Hindu Sickle Cell Disease (SCD) Syllabus Prelims – Science Context: The U.S. Food and Drug Administration recently approved two gene therapies, Casgevy and Lyfgenia, to treat SCD in people ages 12 and older. Casgevy, developed by Vertex Pharmaceuticals and CRISPR Therapeutics and also approved in the U.K., is the first CRISPR-based therapy to have received regulatory approval in the U.S. Lyfgenia, manufactured by Bluebird Bio, doesn’t use CRISPR but depends on a viral vector to change blood stem-cells. Background: Genetic therapies have created a lot of hope for treating SCD, yet they require the same amenities still out of reach of those most affected by the disease. About Sickle Cell Disease (SCD) SCD is an inherited haemoglobin disorder in which red blood cells (RBCs) become crescent- or sickle-shaped due to a genetic mutation. These RBCs are rigid and impair circulation, often leading to anaemia, organ damage, severe and episodic pain, and premature death. India has the third highest number of SCD births, after Nigeria and the Democratic Republic of the Congo. Access to treatment as a major issue In 2023, the Government of India launched the National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission, to eliminate SCD by 2047. At present, however, treatment and care for SCD remains grossly inadequate and inaccessible. Example is the unavailability of the drug hydroxyurea. It lessens the severity of pain, reduces hospitalisations, and improves survival rates by increasing the size and flexibility of RBCs and lowering their likelihood of becoming sickle-shaped. Blood transfusion is another important therapy for SCD, but its availability is limited to district-level facilities. Most block-level community health centres don’t offer them. Bone marrow transplantation (BMT), is out of reach for most SCD patients due to the difficulty in finding matched donors, the high cost of the treatment at private facilities, and long waiting times in public hospitals. In light of this, the application of the gene-editing technology called CRISPR (short for ‘Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats’) to treat SCD is important – for its novelty and promise but also for the health disparities it makes apparent. India has approved a five-year project to develop CRISPR for sickle cell anaemia. Under its Sickle Cell Anaemia Mission, the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research is developing gene-editing therapies for SCD. Around Rs 34 crore has been allocated for this mission over 2020-2023. Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats (CRISPR) It is originally a feature of the bacterial immune system.It forms the basis for this technology. In a nutshell, the system in bacteria serves as a warehouse for past infections by storing a part of the viral genetic material and incorporating it into its own, so the next time it is attacked, the bacteria is capable of recognising the virus and destroying it.The bacteria, in short, is immunised when it employs the CRISPR system. Researchers have adapted it as a tool to cut, delete, or add DNA sequences at precise locations, opening different windows to treat genetic disorders, develop drought-resistant plants, modify food crops, or experiment with de-extinction projects involving the woolly mammoth and the dodo. Source: Hindu COFFEE VARIETIES IN INDIA Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Robusta coffee price touches all-time high amid global shortage. Background: The Price of Robusta coffee has spiked due to drastic fall in traditional growing regions – Vietnam and Indonesia. India primarily cultivates two main varieties of coffee: Arabica Coffee (Coffea arabica): Grown in the higher altitudes of the Western Ghats. Arabica coffee is known for its smooth, mild flavour with hints of sweetness, acidity, and floral notes. Robusta Coffee (Coffea canephora): Robusta is grown in the lowlands of Kerala, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu. It tends to have a stronger, more bitter taste compared to Arabica and contains higher caffeine levels. Regions of Coffee Production: Coffee production in India is dominated in the hill tracts of South Indian states: Karnataka: Accounts for 71% of India’s coffee production. Kodagu district alone produces 33% of the country’s coffee. Kerala: Contributes 21% to the overall production. Tamil Nadu: Produces around 5% (approximately 8,200 tons). Additionally, new coffee-growing areas have developed in non-traditional regions like Andhra Pradesh and Odisha on the eastern coast. Climatic conditions required for successful coffee production: Temperature Range: Coffee plants thrive in temperatures between 15°C and 28°C. Rainfall: The ideal annual rainfall for coffee is between 150 to 250 centimeters. Soil Requirements: Coffee plants prefer well-drained, loamy soil enriched with organic matter (humus). Dry Period During Ripening: Dry weather during the ripening stage of coffee berries is essential. Elevation: It is commonly grown on hill slopes. Elevations ranging from 600 to 1,600 meters above sea level are ideal for coffee cultivation. India’s Position in the Global Market: India was the 5th largest exporter of coffee in the world in 2021-22, contributing about 6% of the global output. Nearly 80% of Indian coffee is exported, with major destinations including Germany, Russia, Spain, Belgium, Slovenia, the United States, the United Kingdom, Japan, Greece, the Netherlands, and France. Italy accounts for a significant portion (29%) of India’s coffee exports. Source: Hindu Previous Year Question Q1. Though coffee and tea both are cultivated on hill slopes, there is some difference between them regarding their cultivation. In this context, consider the following statements: Coffee plant requires a hot and humid climate of tropical areas whereas tea can be cultivated in both tropical and subtropical areas. Coffee is propagated by seeds but tea is propagated by stem cuttings only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 PARIS CLUB Syllabus Prelims : Economy Context: Sri Lanka is close to finalising a debt treatment plan with India and the Paris Club. Background: This collaborative effort aims to provide Sri Lanka with a sustainable path forward. The proposed plan is expected to include a moratorium of up to six years and a reduced interest rate during the repayment period. About PARIS CLUB: The Paris Club is an informal group of creditor nations that aims to find sustainable debt-relief solutions for countries facing payment difficulties. The Paris Club was established in 1956 and has 22 permanent members. The 22 permanent members of the Paris Club include countries such as Australia, Austria, Belgium, Canada, Denmark, Finland, France, Germany, Ireland, Israel, Japan, Netherlands, Norway, Russia, South Korea, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, the United Kingdom, and the United States. All these members are part of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD). India is not a permanent member of the Paris Club. The Paris Club meets monthly in Paris, where officials from member countries negotiate debt relief terms. Any country can appeal to the group for debt relief, provided they demonstrate the need for such relief and commit to implementing economic reforms. Once an appeal is received, the members hold a closed meeting to decide the appropriate debt treatment for the country. They take into account many factors, including economic and financial aspects, and consult with the IMF and the World Bank regarding the necessary reforms. Source: Hindu Businessline FOREIGN EXCHANGE TRADED FUNDS Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has instructed mutual fund companies to cease accepting additional inflows into schemes that invest in Foreign Exchange-traded Funds (ETFs). Background: This directive will be effective from April 1, 2024. This move comes as the total investment in these ETFs approaches the cap set by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The surge in US markets, particularly technology stocks, has driven investor interest in these foreign assets, leading to the limit being reached. About EXCHANGE TRADED FUNDS: Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs) are mutual funds that are listed and traded on stock exchanges, just like individual stocks. They can track various underlying assets, including stock indices, commodities, bonds, or even a basket of assets. Unlike traditional mutual funds, ETFs are passive funds. The fund manager doesn’t actively select stocks; instead, the ETF aims to replicate the performance of a specific index. Foreign Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs): Foreign ETFs are a subset of ETFs that focus on overseas markets. They invest in foreign securities, such as stocks, bonds, or commodities, listed on international exchanges. Foreign ETFs allow investors to gain exposure to global markets without directly purchasing foreign stocks or bonds. These funds can track indices from specific countries, regions, or sectors. Like other ETFs, foreign ETFs can be bought and sold on stock exchanges during trading hours. Source: Indian Express Media Trial and Ethics Syllabus Mains – GS 4 Context: In the present times, the media has clothed itself with the power of investigation and trial and ultimately branding him/her as a criminal, even before our courts of law have delivered a judgement. Background: The trial by media also gravely interferes with the Fair Trail in the Courts of Law. Media Trial: It is generally considered as the process in which media publishes their versions of facts in newspapers, news websites, and news channels to sensationalize the case. This function of media is seen as an invasion of the domain of the judiciary by conducting indirect trials parallel with the courts. Ethical Issues with the Media Trial: It undermines the principle of innocence until proven guilty which advocates that every accused is presumed innocent until proven guilty by the law. E.g. Aarushi–Hemraj murder case. It also leads to contempt of court (disrespect or disobedience toward a court by entering into their domain). When sub-judice cases (cases under trial) are being discussed by experts in the media, their opinions can affect the perception of judges toward the accused/victim. E.g. Jasleen Kaur harassment case. Article 21 of the Constitution of India guarantees everyone the right to a fair trial (part of the right to life and liberty). The identity/personal information of the accused and victim is revealed which can negatively affect the public image of an individual. E.g. in Sushant Singh Rajput case. It violates key principles of Media Ethics such as truth and accountability. It goes against the idea of responsible journalism. Concerns/Challenges in Controlling Media Trials: In India, organizations like the News Broadcasting and Digital Standards Authority (NBSA) and Broadcasting Content Complaints Council have been set up as internal self-regulatory mechanisms for television news and entertainment, respectively. This mechanism has not been very effective as these bodies lack statutory backing. Under Article 19 of the Constitution, media enjoys the freedom of expression, but it is at times misused when engaging in Media Trials. Also, for regulating agencies it becomes difficult to decide what constitutes a Media Trial as there is no clear definition or guidelines. E.g., in cases of investigative journalism. With the rise in internet penetration, social media has emerged as the new platform for media trials. E.g., sharing of sensationalized or fake posts to alter public opinion. Source: Legal Service India Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements about the Foreign Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs): Foreign Exchange-Traded Funds invest in securities listed on international exchanges. Foreign ETFs allow investors to gain exposure to global markets without directly purchasing foreign stocks or bonds. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2.) With reference to Paris Club, consider the following statements: The Paris Club is an informal group of creditor nations that aims to find sustainable debt-relief solutions for countries facing payment difficulties. All members of Paris Club are part of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD). India is not a permanent member of the Paris Club. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q3.)With reference to coffee production in India, consider the following statements: Coffee production in India is dominated in the hill tracts of South Indian states. The ideal annual rainfall for coffee is between 150 to 250 centimeters. Assam is the major producer of coffee in India. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  27th March  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  26th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 27th March 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

[DAY 21] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – ECONOMY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question Consider the following passage: It refers to a situation when the inflation rate is high, the growth rate slows down, and unemployment stays high. It raises a dilemma for economic policy since actions designed to lower inflation may exacerbate unemployment and vice versa. Which of the following type of inflation is being defined in the above passage? a) Skewflation b) Disinflation c) Hyperinflation d) Stagflation Correct Solution (d) Stagflation is a blend of two words i.e., stagnation and inflation. It is used in economics when the inflation rate is high, the growth rate slows down, and unemployment stays high. It raises a dilemma for economic policy since actions designed to lower inflation may exacerbate unemployment and vice Hyperinflation (> 1000%) – This is reserved for extreme forms of inflation – usually over 1,000% though there is no specific Skewflation means the skewness of inflation among different sectors of the economy – some goods and services are facing huge inflation, some none and some Disinflation is a decrease in the rate of inflation – a slowdown in the rate of increase of the general price level of goods and services in a nation’s gross domestic product over It is the opposite of reflation. Incorrect Solution (d) Stagflation is a blend of two words i.e., stagnation and inflation. It is used in economics when the inflation rate is high, the growth rate slows down, and unemployment stays high. It raises a dilemma for economic policy since actions designed to lower inflation may exacerbate unemployment and vice Hyperinflation (> 1000%) – This is reserved for extreme forms of inflation – usually over 1,000% though there is no specific Skewflation means the skewness of inflation among different sectors of the economy – some goods and services are facing huge inflation, some none and some Disinflation is a decrease in the rate of inflation – a slowdown in the rate of increase of the general price level of goods and services in a nation’s gross domestic product over It is the opposite of reflation. Question 2 of 35 2. Question Consider the following statements with respect to ‘inflation’: It decreases the purchasing power capacity of a currency. It benefits both the bondholders and debtors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Inflation reduces the value of a currency’s purchasing power, having the effect of increase in prices. If inflation is higher than the nominal interest rate, the bondholder will take a loss. As many investors rely on bonds as a predictable source of income, they can take significant losses during periods of high inflation. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Inflation reduces the value of a currency’s purchasing power, having the effect of increase in prices. If inflation is higher than the nominal interest rate, the bondholder will take a loss. As many investors rely on bonds as a predictable source of income, they can take significant losses during periods of high inflation. Question 3 of 35 3. Question Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Consumer Price Index’: It computes price changes in both goods and services. It is computed by the Office of Economic Advisor (OEA), Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion. It is taken as measure of inflation while formulating monetary policy by RBI. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct CPI is a price index that measures the average price of a basket of items over a given period of time. The Consumer Price Index (CPI) determines the average price paid by customers to merchants. The CPI includes necessities such as food, clothing, housing and includes services like medical care, transportation, and education. With effect from January 2011, the Central Statistics Office (CSO), Ministry of Statistics, and Program Implementation began issuing Consumer Price Indices (CPI) on a monthly basis for all of India and States/UTs, separately for rural, urban and combined. Since 2016, CPI is taken as measure of inflation while formulating monetary policy by RBI. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct CPI is a price index that measures the average price of a basket of items over a given period of time. The Consumer Price Index (CPI) determines the average price paid by customers to merchants. The CPI includes necessities such as food, clothing, housing and includes services like medical care, transportation, and education. With effect from January 2011, the Central Statistics Office (CSO), Ministry of Statistics, and Program Implementation began issuing Consumer Price Indices (CPI) on a monthly basis for all of India and States/UTs, separately for rural, urban and combined. Since 2016, CPI is taken as measure of inflation while formulating monetary policy by RBI. Question 4 of 35 4. Question Consider the following statements regarding Base Year: It gives an idea about changes in purchasing power and allows calculation of inflation-adjusted growth estimates. The base year is a representative year which must not experience any abnormal incidents such as droughts, floods, earthquakes etc. The National Statistical Commission suggested the change of base year after every three years. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect The base year of the national accounts is chosen to enable inter-year comparisons. It gives an idea about changes in purchasing power and allows calculation of inflation-adjusted growth estimates. The base year is a representative year which must not experience any abnormal incidents such as droughts, floods, earthquakes etc. The national statistical commission wants the base year should be changed after every five years to capture the changing economy. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect The base year of the national accounts is chosen to enable inter-year comparisons. It gives an idea about changes in purchasing power and allows calculation of inflation-adjusted growth estimates. The base year is a representative year which must not experience any abnormal incidents such as droughts, floods, earthquakes etc. The national statistical commission wants the base year should be changed after every five years to capture the changing economy. Question 5 of 35 5. Question An increase in the public debt through domestic borrowings may lead to which of the following in an economy? Inflation Private borrowers crowded out of the financial markets Increase in aggregate demand How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Government deficits are inflationary. This is because when government increases spending or cuts taxes, aggregate demand increases. Firms may not be able to produce higher quantities that are being demanded at the ongoing prices. Prices will, therefore, have to rise. However, if there are unutilized resources, output is held back by lack of demand. If some private savers decide to buy bonds, the funds remaining to be invested in private hands will be smaller. Thus, some private borrowers will get crowded out of the financial markets as the government claims an increasing share of the economy’s total savings. Government deficits are inflationary. This is because when government increases spending or cuts taxes, aggregate demand increases. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Government deficits are inflationary. This is because when government increases spending or cuts taxes, aggregate demand increases. Firms may not be able to produce higher quantities that are being demanded at the ongoing prices. Prices will, therefore, have to rise. However, if there are unutilized resources, output is held back by lack of demand. If some private savers decide to buy bonds, the funds remaining to be invested in private hands will be smaller. Thus, some private borrowers will get crowded out of the financial markets as the government claims an increasing share of the economy’s total savings. Government deficits are inflationary. This is because when government increases spending or cuts taxes, aggregate demand increases. Question 6 of 35 6. Question With reference to Wholesale Price Index (WPI), consider the following statements: It covers both services as well as goods. It includes indirect taxes to account for the impact of fiscal policy. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect Wholesale Price Index (WPI) measures the average change in the prices of commodities for bulk sale at the level of early stage of transactions. The index basket of the WPI covers commodities falling under the three major groups namely Primary Articles, Fuel and Power and Manufactured products. Wholesale Price Index calculated with 2011-12 base year does not include taxes in order to remove the impact of fiscal policy. This also brings the present WPI series closer to Producer Price Index, as is practiced globally. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect Wholesale Price Index (WPI) measures the average change in the prices of commodities for bulk sale at the level of early stage of transactions. The index basket of the WPI covers commodities falling under the three major groups namely Primary Articles, Fuel and Power and Manufactured products. Wholesale Price Index calculated with 2011-12 base year does not include taxes in order to remove the impact of fiscal policy. This also brings the present WPI series closer to Producer Price Index, as is practiced globally. Question 7 of 35 7. Question With reference to GDP deflator, consider the following statements: It is the ratio of GDP measured at current prices to GDP measured at constant prices. It automatically reflects the changes in consumption pattern and structural transformations in the economy. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) deflator is a measure of general price inflation. It is calculated by dividing nominal GDP by real GDP and then multiplying by 100. Nominal GDP is the market value of goods and services produced in an economy, unadjusted for inflation (It is the GDP measured at current prices). Real GDP is nominal GDP, adjusted for inflation to reflect changes in real output (It is the GDP measured at constant prices). The weights of goods and services in GDP deflator are not constant and differ according to the production level of each good and services in the country. Due to these changes in consumption patterns or the introduction of new goods and services or structural transformation are automatically reflected in the deflator which is not the case with other inflation measures. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) deflator is a measure of general price inflation. It is calculated by dividing nominal GDP by real GDP and then multiplying by 100. Nominal GDP is the market value of goods and services produced in an economy, unadjusted for inflation (It is the GDP measured at current prices). Real GDP is nominal GDP, adjusted for inflation to reflect changes in real output (It is the GDP measured at constant prices). The weights of goods and services in GDP deflator are not constant and differ according to the production level of each good and services in the country. Due to these changes in consumption patterns or the introduction of new goods and services or structural transformation are automatically reflected in the deflator which is not the case with other inflation measures. Question 8 of 35 8. Question “The decrease in money supply in the economy could not control the food inflation as increase in price was caused by skewed MSP policy, distortion caused by APMC acts and inadequate cold storage facilities.” Which type of inflation best describes the situation given above? a) Stagflation b) Demand pull inflation c) Structural inflation d) None Correct Solution (c) Structural inflation is the one prevailing in most developing The situation is due to the operation of the structural weakness (supply bottleneck, lack of infrastructure, etc.) existing in a developing economy. Lack of adequate supply responses or production to increase in demand is the cause of structural inflation. A complete change in economic policy would be needed to address it. For example; To keep farmers happy, Government keeps increasing Minimum Support Price for wheat and rice but MSP for pulses remain stagnant. It disincentivizes farmers to grow pulses thus decrease its supply and increases pulse Due to APMC acts of states, cartelization and hoarding is rampant in the agricultural market. It leads to supply and demand mismatch and increases inflation. Incorrect Solution (c) Structural inflation is the one prevailing in most developing The situation is due to the operation of the structural weakness (supply bottleneck, lack of infrastructure, etc.) existing in a developing economy. Lack of adequate supply responses or production to increase in demand is the cause of structural inflation. A complete change in economic policy would be needed to address it. For example; To keep farmers happy, Government keeps increasing Minimum Support Price for wheat and rice but MSP for pulses remain stagnant. It disincentivizes farmers to grow pulses thus decrease its supply and increases pulse Due to APMC acts of states, cartelization and hoarding is rampant in the agricultural market. It leads to supply and demand mismatch and increases inflation. Question 9 of 35 9. Question Consider the following differences between core and headline inflation: While core inflation excludes food and fuel prices, headline inflation includes them. Core inflation is relatively more volatile and fluctuating than headline inflation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Core Inflation, also known as underlying inflation, is a measure of inflation which excludes items that face volatile price movement, notably food and energy. It is nothing but Headline Inflation minus inflation that is contributed by food and energy commodities. Unlike core inflation, headline inflation also takes into account changes in the price of food and energy. Since food and energy prices are highly volatile, headline inflation fluctuates more and may not give an accurate picture of how an economy is behaving. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Core Inflation, also known as underlying inflation, is a measure of inflation which excludes items that face volatile price movement, notably food and energy. It is nothing but Headline Inflation minus inflation that is contributed by food and energy commodities. Unlike core inflation, headline inflation also takes into account changes in the price of food and energy. Since food and energy prices are highly volatile, headline inflation fluctuates more and may not give an accurate picture of how an economy is behaving. Question 10 of 35 10. Question Which of the following actions can be taken to combat inflationary pressures in an economy? Curtailing government expenditure Providing cheaper loans Giving tax benefits Select the correct answer using the code given below. a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1 and 2 only Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Curtailing government expenditure would lead to decrease in fiscal deficit and thus combating inflation. When interest rates are low, individuals and businesses tend to demand more loans. Each bank loan increases the money supply in a fractional reserve banking system. A growing money supply increases inflation. Thus, a low interest rate tends to result in more inflation. Decreasing taxation rates and giving tax exemptions will increase the money supply in markets and will lead to demand-pull inflation. Hence the increase in tax rates is necessary to fight inflation. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Curtailing government expenditure would lead to decrease in fiscal deficit and thus combating inflation. When interest rates are low, individuals and businesses tend to demand more loans. Each bank loan increases the money supply in a fractional reserve banking system. A growing money supply increases inflation. Thus, a low interest rate tends to result in more inflation. Decreasing taxation rates and giving tax exemptions will increase the money supply in markets and will lead to demand-pull inflation. Hence the increase in tax rates is necessary to fight inflation. Question 11 of 35 11. Question With reference to the economic critique of British rule, consider the following pairs: Personality                  Work Dadabhai Naoroji::    Poverty and Un-British Rule in India C. Dutt::                        India Today P. Dutt::                        Economic History of India Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Dadabhai Naoroji wrote the book ‘Poverty and Un-British Rule in India’. It discussed how the government was destructive and despotic to the Indians and un-British and suicidal to Britain.   Rajani Palme Dutt, generally known as R. P. Dutt, was a leading journalist and theoretician in the Communist Party of Great Britain. His classic book “India Today” heralded Marxist approach in Indian historiography. Romesh Chunder Dutt CIE was an Indian civil servant, economic historian, writer and translator of Ramayana and Mahabharata. Dutt is considered a national leader of the pre-Gandhian era, and was a contemporary of Dadabhai Naoroji and Justice Ranade. He was one of the prominent proponents of Indian economic nationalism. He wrote the book, “Economic History of India.” Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Dadabhai Naoroji wrote the book ‘Poverty and Un-British Rule in India’. It discussed how the government was destructive and despotic to the Indians and un-British and suicidal to Britain.   Rajani Palme Dutt, generally known as R. P. Dutt, was a leading journalist and theoretician in the Communist Party of Great Britain. His classic book “India Today” heralded Marxist approach in Indian historiography. Romesh Chunder Dutt CIE was an Indian civil servant, economic historian, writer and translator of Ramayana and Mahabharata. Dutt is considered a national leader of the pre-Gandhian era, and was a contemporary of Dadabhai Naoroji and Justice Ranade. He was one of the prominent proponents of Indian economic nationalism. He wrote the book, “Economic History of India.” Question 12 of 35 12. Question Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?     Types of Inflation                Meaning Creeping Inflation – A kind of mild inflation that boosts demand. Galloping Inflation – When inflation rise at a slow pace and is benign to the economy. Core Inflation – It measures rising prices in food and energy. Disinflation – It is the opposite of inflation in which prices fall. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement Correct Correct Incorrect Incorrect  Creeping or mild inflation is when prices rise 3 per cent a year or less. Galloping inflation is one that develops at a rapid pace, perhaps only for a brief period. Such form of inflation is dangerous for the economy as it mostly affects the middle and low-income classes of population. Importantly, the galloping inflation can precipitate an economic depression. Core inflation is a measure of inflation that excludes certain items that face volatile price movements (like food and energy) because in finding out the legitimate long run inflation, short-term price volatility and transitory changes in price must be removed. Core inflation reflects the long-term trend in a particular price level. Disinflation is a decrease in the rate of inflation – a slowdown in the rate of increase of the general price level of goods and services in a nation’s gross domestic product over time. It is the opposite of reflation. Disinflation occurs when the increase in the “consumer price level” slows down from the previous period when the prices were rising. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement Correct Correct Incorrect Incorrect  Creeping or mild inflation is when prices rise 3 per cent a year or less. Galloping inflation is one that develops at a rapid pace, perhaps only for a brief period. Such form of inflation is dangerous for the economy as it mostly affects the middle and low-income classes of population. Importantly, the galloping inflation can precipitate an economic depression. Core inflation is a measure of inflation that excludes certain items that face volatile price movements (like food and energy) because in finding out the legitimate long run inflation, short-term price volatility and transitory changes in price must be removed. Core inflation reflects the long-term trend in a particular price level. Disinflation is a decrease in the rate of inflation – a slowdown in the rate of increase of the general price level of goods and services in a nation’s gross domestic product over time. It is the opposite of reflation. Disinflation occurs when the increase in the “consumer price level” slows down from the previous period when the prices were rising. Question 13 of 35 13. Question Consider the following statements with reference to the ‘Cost-Push Inflation’ It is inflation caused by an increase in prices of inputs like labour and raw material. This inflation is always a strong indicator of an expanding economy. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Cost-push inflation is inflation caused by an increase in prices of inputs like labor, raw material, etc. The increased price of the factors of production leads to a decreased supply of these goods. While the demand remains constant, the prices of commodities increase causing a rise in the overall price level. This is in essence cost-push inflation. In this case, the overall price level increases due to higher costs of production which reflects in terms of increased prices of goods and commodities which majorly use these inputs. This is inflation triggered from the supply-side i.e. because of less supply. The opposite effect of this is called demand-pull inflation where higher demand triggers inflation. Apart from the rise in prices of inputs, there could be other factors leading to supply-side inflation such as natural disasters, global pandemics such as COVID-19 or depletion of natural resources, monopoly, government regulation or taxation, change in exchange rates, etc. Generally, cost-push inflation may occur in the case of an inelastic demand curve where the demand cannot be easily adjusted according to rising prices. • Recently the global pandemic of COVID-19 acted as a double-sided sword wherein India witnessed a cost-push as well as Demand-Pull inflation. The mass exodus of migrant laborers from industrial belts led to a decreased supply of manpower and thus leading to reduced production. • Demand-pull inflation is an indicator of a growing economy as when consumers feel confident, they spend more and take on more debt. This leads to a steady increase in demand, which means higher prices. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Cost-push inflation is inflation caused by an increase in prices of inputs like labor, raw material, etc. The increased price of the factors of production leads to a decreased supply of these goods. While the demand remains constant, the prices of commodities increase causing a rise in the overall price level. This is in essence cost-push inflation. In this case, the overall price level increases due to higher costs of production which reflects in terms of increased prices of goods and commodities which majorly use these inputs. This is inflation triggered from the supply-side i.e. because of less supply. The opposite effect of this is called demand-pull inflation where higher demand triggers inflation. Apart from the rise in prices of inputs, there could be other factors leading to supply-side inflation such as natural disasters, global pandemics such as COVID-19 or depletion of natural resources, monopoly, government regulation or taxation, change in exchange rates, etc. Generally, cost-push inflation may occur in the case of an inelastic demand curve where the demand cannot be easily adjusted according to rising prices. • Recently the global pandemic of COVID-19 acted as a double-sided sword wherein India witnessed a cost-push as well as Demand-Pull inflation. The mass exodus of migrant laborers from industrial belts led to a decreased supply of manpower and thus leading to reduced production. • Demand-pull inflation is an indicator of a growing economy as when consumers feel confident, they spend more and take on more debt. This leads to a steady increase in demand, which means higher prices. Question 14 of 35 14. Question Which of the following statements is/are correct about ‘GDP Deflator’? GDP Deflator is a broad and comprehensive measure of inflation. It is based on a fixed basket of goods and services. Select the correct answer using the code given below a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect  The GDP deflator is a broad and comprehensive measure of Inflation. WPI and CPI are available on a monthly basis whereas the deflator comes with a lag (yearly or quarterly, after quarterly GDP data is released). Hence, the monthly change in inflation cannot be tracked using the GDP deflator limiting its usefulness. Unlike other price indexes, the GDP deflator is not based on a fixed basket of goods and services. It covers the whole economy. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect  The GDP deflator is a broad and comprehensive measure of Inflation. WPI and CPI are available on a monthly basis whereas the deflator comes with a lag (yearly or quarterly, after quarterly GDP data is released). Hence, the monthly change in inflation cannot be tracked using the GDP deflator limiting its usefulness. Unlike other price indexes, the GDP deflator is not based on a fixed basket of goods and services. It covers the whole economy. Question 15 of 35 15. Question Which of the following can be grouped under Economic Activities? Tutor teaching a student free of cost. Government providing scholarships. Philanthropists giving out charity to NGOs. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (d) For economic activities, a financial transaction needs to be done for work done by a person. Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect For economic activities, a financial transaction needed to be done for work done by a person. Money is not paid for the work done by students. It is a charity. Philanthropists giving out charity to NGOs. Money is not earned, it’s a charity. It cannot be grouped under economic activity.   Incorrect Solution (d) For economic activities, a financial transaction needs to be done for work done by a person. Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect For economic activities, a financial transaction needed to be done for work done by a person. Money is not paid for the work done by students. It is a charity. Philanthropists giving out charity to NGOs. Money is not earned, it’s a charity. It cannot be grouped under economic activity.   Question 16 of 35 16. Question Consider the following pairs      List I                                    List II Core Inflation – The higher returns brought by inflation to borrowers Inflation Premium – Change in the costs of goods and services excluding the food and energy sectors Inflation spiral – Upward pull of price and wages by each other How many of the above pairs is/are incorrectly matched? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Core inflation is the change in prices of goods and services except those from the food and energy sectors in the long run. Inflation premium (IP) is the chunk of interest rate which investors demand in addition to real risk-free rate due to risk of decrease in purchasing power of money due to increase in inflation. Inflationary Spiral is a situation in which prices increase, then people are paid more in their jobs, which then causes the price of goods and services to increase again, and so on. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Core inflation is the change in prices of goods and services except those from the food and energy sectors in the long run. Inflation premium (IP) is the chunk of interest rate which investors demand in addition to real risk-free rate due to risk of decrease in purchasing power of money due to increase in inflation. Inflationary Spiral is a situation in which prices increase, then people are paid more in their jobs, which then causes the price of goods and services to increase again, and so on. Question 17 of 35 17. Question With reference to the Hindu Growth rate, consider the following statements: It refers to the low annual growth rate of the planned economy of India before the liberalization of 1991. The term was coined by Indian economist Raj Krishna. Which of the above statement is/are incorrect? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The Hindu rate of growth is a term referring to the low annual growth rate of the planned economy of India before the liberalizations of 1991, which stagnated around 3.5% from the 1950s to 1980s, while per capita income growth averaged 1.3%. The term was coined by Indian economist Raj Krishna. It suggests that the low growth rate of India, a country with a mostly Hindu population was in sharp contrast to high growth rates in other Asian countries, especially the East Asian Tigers, which were also newly independent. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The Hindu rate of growth is a term referring to the low annual growth rate of the planned economy of India before the liberalizations of 1991, which stagnated around 3.5% from the 1950s to 1980s, while per capita income growth averaged 1.3%. The term was coined by Indian economist Raj Krishna. It suggests that the low growth rate of India, a country with a mostly Hindu population was in sharp contrast to high growth rates in other Asian countries, especially the East Asian Tigers, which were also newly independent. Question 18 of 35 18. Question Consider the following statements: Consumer Price Index does not represent all the goods that are produced in a country, while the GDP deflator takes into account all such goods and services. GDP Deflator includes prices of imported goods which is not included in the Consumer Price Index. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Consumer Price Index (CPI) does not represent all the goods that are produced in a country. GDP deflator takes into account all such goods and services. The consumer Price Index includes prices of goods consumed by the representative consumer hence it includes prices of imported goods. GDP deflator does not include prices of imported goods. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Consumer Price Index (CPI) does not represent all the goods that are produced in a country. GDP deflator takes into account all such goods and services. The consumer Price Index includes prices of goods consumed by the representative consumer hence it includes prices of imported goods. GDP deflator does not include prices of imported goods. Question 19 of 35 19. Question With reference to inflation in India, which of the following statements is correct? a) Controlling the inflation in India is the responsibility of the Government of India only a) Controlling the inflation in India is the responsibility of the Government of India only b) The Reserve Bank of India has no role in controlling the inflation c) Decreased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation d) Increased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation Correct Solution (c) Mainly the Reserve Bank of India controls inflation through monetary policies. The monetary policies are controlled by increasing and decreasing bank rates, repo rates, cash reserve ratio, regulating the money supply. During the high inflation period, the government can reduce the spending to decrease the money circulation in the country. Therefore, decreased money circulation helps in controlling inflation. Incorrect Solution (c) Mainly the Reserve Bank of India controls inflation through monetary policies. The monetary policies are controlled by increasing and decreasing bank rates, repo rates, cash reserve ratio, regulating the money supply. During the high inflation period, the government can reduce the spending to decrease the money circulation in the country. Therefore, decreased money circulation helps in controlling inflation. Question 20 of 35 20. Question Which of the following brings out the ‘Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers’? a) The Reserve Bank of India b) The Department of Economic Affairs c) The Labour Bureau d) The Department of Personnel and Training Correct Solution (c) The Labour Bureau brings out the ‘Consumer Price Index Number for Industrial Workers’. Consumer Price Index Numbers for Industrial Workers is designed to measure a change over time in prices of a given basket of goods and services consumed by a defined population (i.e. Industrial Workers). Incorrect Solution (c) The Labour Bureau brings out the ‘Consumer Price Index Number for Industrial Workers’. Consumer Price Index Numbers for Industrial Workers is designed to measure a change over time in prices of a given basket of goods and services consumed by a defined population (i.e. Industrial Workers). Question 21 of 35 21. Question Consider the following statements: Medaram Jatara is the second-largest fair of India, after the Kumbh Mela. Sammakka Saralamma Jatara is a tribal festival honouring the fight of a mother and daughter with the reigning rulers against an unjust law. Sammakka Saralamma Jatara is the state festival of Karnataka. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Medaram Jatara is the second-largest fair of India, after the Kumbh Mela. Hence statement 1 is correct. Medaram is a remote place in the Eturnagaram Wildlife Sanctuary, a part of Dandakaranya, the largest surviving forest belt in the region. Medaram Jatara is also known as Sammakka Saralamma Jatara. It is celebrated by the second-largest Tribal Community of Telangana, the Koya tribe for four days. Sammakka Saralamma Jatara is a tribal festival honouring the fight of a mother and daughter with the reigning rulers against an unjust law. Hence statement 2 is correct. Sammakka Saralamma Jatara is the state festival of Telangana. It was declared a State Festival in 1996. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. It is celebrated once in two years in the month of “Magha” (February) on the full moon day. People offer bangaram/gold (jaggery) of a quantity equal to their weight to the goddesses and take holy bath in Jampanna Vagu, a tributary to River Godavari. Incorrect Solution (b) Medaram Jatara is the second-largest fair of India, after the Kumbh Mela. Hence statement 1 is correct. Medaram is a remote place in the Eturnagaram Wildlife Sanctuary, a part of Dandakaranya, the largest surviving forest belt in the region. Medaram Jatara is also known as Sammakka Saralamma Jatara. It is celebrated by the second-largest Tribal Community of Telangana, the Koya tribe for four days. Sammakka Saralamma Jatara is a tribal festival honouring the fight of a mother and daughter with the reigning rulers against an unjust law. Hence statement 2 is correct. Sammakka Saralamma Jatara is the state festival of Telangana. It was declared a State Festival in 1996. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. It is celebrated once in two years in the month of “Magha” (February) on the full moon day. People offer bangaram/gold (jaggery) of a quantity equal to their weight to the goddesses and take holy bath in Jampanna Vagu, a tributary to River Godavari. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements about the Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of (Hybrid &) Electric Vehicles in India (FAME) It is being implemented by the Ministry of Heavy Industries. It aims to transit from internal combustion engine (ICE) to cleaner technology. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) The Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of (Hybrid &) Electric Vehicles in India (FAME) is being implemented by the Ministry of Heavy Industries. Hence statement 1 is correct. The main objective of the scheme is to encourage faster adoption of electric and hybrid vehicles by way of offering upfront incentive on purchase of electric vehicles and also by way of establishing a necessary charging infrastructure for electric vehicles. The government provides subsidies under the FAME scheme for battery electric vehicles(BEVs) and strong hybrids. It aims to transit from internal combustion engine (ICE) to cleaner technology. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) The Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of (Hybrid &) Electric Vehicles in India (FAME) is being implemented by the Ministry of Heavy Industries. Hence statement 1 is correct. The main objective of the scheme is to encourage faster adoption of electric and hybrid vehicles by way of offering upfront incentive on purchase of electric vehicles and also by way of establishing a necessary charging infrastructure for electric vehicles. The government provides subsidies under the FAME scheme for battery electric vehicles(BEVs) and strong hybrids. It aims to transit from internal combustion engine (ICE) to cleaner technology. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 23 of 35 23. Question Consider the following statements about the Asia-Pacific Institute for Broadcasting Development (AIBD) It was established under the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization(UNESCO). India is one of the founding members of AIBD and its Secretariat is located in Dhaka, Bangladesh. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) The Asia-Pacific Institute for Broadcasting Development(AIBD) was established under the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization(UNESCO). Hence statement 1 is correct. It is a unique regional intergovernmental organization servicing countries of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific(UN-ESCAP) in the field of electronic media development. Its mandate is to achieve a vibrant and cohesive electronic media environment in the Asia-Pacific region through policy and resource development. It currently has 92 member organizations from across 44 countries. This includes 26 Government Members (countries) represented by 48 broadcasting authorities and broadcasters and 44 Affiliates (organizations) represented by 28 countries. India is one of the founding members of AIBD and its Secretariat is located in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Prasar Bharati, India’s public service broadcaster is the representative body of the Ministry of Information & Broadcasting at AIBD. Incorrect Solution (a) The Asia-Pacific Institute for Broadcasting Development(AIBD) was established under the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization(UNESCO). Hence statement 1 is correct. It is a unique regional intergovernmental organization servicing countries of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific(UN-ESCAP) in the field of electronic media development. Its mandate is to achieve a vibrant and cohesive electronic media environment in the Asia-Pacific region through policy and resource development. It currently has 92 member organizations from across 44 countries. This includes 26 Government Members (countries) represented by 48 broadcasting authorities and broadcasters and 44 Affiliates (organizations) represented by 28 countries. India is one of the founding members of AIBD and its Secretariat is located in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Prasar Bharati, India’s public service broadcaster is the representative body of the Ministry of Information & Broadcasting at AIBD. Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements about the Digital India Act of 2023 It does not mandate Know Your Customer (KYC) requirements for wearable devices used in retail sales. It replaces the two-decade-old Information Technology Act of 2000. It reviews the safe harbour principle, which shields online platforms like Twitter and Facebook. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Digital India Act of 2023 mandates stringent Know Your Customer (KYC) requirements for wearable devices used in retail sales. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It replaces the two-decade-oldInformation Technology Act of 2000. Hence statement 2 is correct. It reviews thesafe harbour principle, which shields online platforms like Twitter and Facebook. Hence statement 3 is correct. It aligns withDigital India Goals for 2026, which aim to establish a USD 1 trillion digital economy and shape the future of global technologies. It will work in conjunction with other related laws and policies, including the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, Digital India Act Rules, National Data Governance Policy, and amendments to theIndian Penal Code for Cyber Crimes. It focuses on key elements such as online safety, trust, and accountability, ensuring an open internet, and regulating new-age technologies like artificial intelligence and blockchain. Incorrect Solution (b) The Digital India Act of 2023 mandates stringent Know Your Customer (KYC) requirements for wearable devices used in retail sales. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It replaces the two-decade-oldInformation Technology Act of 2000. Hence statement 2 is correct. It reviews thesafe harbour principle, which shields online platforms like Twitter and Facebook. Hence statement 3 is correct. It aligns withDigital India Goals for 2026, which aim to establish a USD 1 trillion digital economy and shape the future of global technologies. It will work in conjunction with other related laws and policies, including the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, Digital India Act Rules, National Data Governance Policy, and amendments to theIndian Penal Code for Cyber Crimes. It focuses on key elements such as online safety, trust, and accountability, ensuring an open internet, and regulating new-age technologies like artificial intelligence and blockchain. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements about Asian Wild Dogs It is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. It is listed as critically endangered on the IUCN Red List. In India, they are found in the Western and Eastern Ghats, central Indian landscape and North East India. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Dhole is a wild carnivorous animal and is a member of the family Canidae and the class They are also known as Asian wild dogs. Asian Wild Dogs is protected under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is listed as endangered on the IUCN Red List and Appendix II of the CITES. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Historically, dholes purportedly occurred throughout southern Russia, all across central Asia, south Asia and southeast Asia. According to recent research and current distribution maps, they are restricted to south and southeast Asia,with the northernmost populations in China. In India, they are found in the Western and Eastern Ghats, central Indian landscape and North East India. Hence statement 3 is correct. Karnataka, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh rank high in the conservation of the endangered dhole in India. Incorrect Solution (a) Dhole is a wild carnivorous animal and is a member of the family Canidae and the class They are also known as Asian wild dogs. Asian Wild Dogs is protected under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is listed as endangered on the IUCN Red List and Appendix II of the CITES. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Historically, dholes purportedly occurred throughout southern Russia, all across central Asia, south Asia and southeast Asia. According to recent research and current distribution maps, they are restricted to south and southeast Asia,with the northernmost populations in China. In India, they are found in the Western and Eastern Ghats, central Indian landscape and North East India. Hence statement 3 is correct. Karnataka, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh rank high in the conservation of the endangered dhole in India. Question 26 of 35 26. Question Consider the following statements about Dengue It is transmitted to humans through the bites of infected female mosquitoes, primarily the Aedes aegypti mosquito. DEN-1, DEN-2, DEN-3, and DEN-4 are four serotypes of the bacteria that cause dengue. It is a vector-borne disease that can be spread directly from person to person. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Dengue is transmitted to humans through the bites of infected female mosquitoes, primarily the Aedes aegypti mosquito. Hence statement 1 is correct. Its symptoms – High fever (40°C/104°F), severe headache, pain behind the eyes, muscle and joint pains, nausea, vomiting, swollen glands, and rash. There is no specific treatment for dengue. Early detection of disease progression associated with severe dengue, and access to proper medical care lowers fatality rates of severe dengue to below 1%. The dengue vaccine CYD-TDV or Dengvaxia was approved by the US Food & Drug Administration in 2019, the first dengue vaccine to get the regulatory nod in the US. DEN-1, DEN-2, DEN-3, and DEN-4 are four serotypes of the bacteria that cause dengue. Hence statement 2 is correct. The severe form of dengue fever, also called dengue haemorrhagic fever, can cause serious bleeding, a sudden drop in blood pressure (shock) and death. It is a vector-borne disease that cannot be spread directly from person to person. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Most cases occur in tropical areas of the world, including the Indian subcontinent, Southeast Asia, Southern China, Taiwan, the Pacific Islands, the Caribbean, Mexico, Africa, and Central, and South America. As per WHO, about half of the world’s population is now at risk of dengue with an estimated 100–400 million infections occurring each year. Incorrect Solution (b) Dengue is transmitted to humans through the bites of infected female mosquitoes, primarily the Aedes aegypti mosquito. Hence statement 1 is correct. Its symptoms – High fever (40°C/104°F), severe headache, pain behind the eyes, muscle and joint pains, nausea, vomiting, swollen glands, and rash. There is no specific treatment for dengue. Early detection of disease progression associated with severe dengue, and access to proper medical care lowers fatality rates of severe dengue to below 1%. The dengue vaccine CYD-TDV or Dengvaxia was approved by the US Food & Drug Administration in 2019, the first dengue vaccine to get the regulatory nod in the US. DEN-1, DEN-2, DEN-3, and DEN-4 are four serotypes of the bacteria that cause dengue. Hence statement 2 is correct. The severe form of dengue fever, also called dengue haemorrhagic fever, can cause serious bleeding, a sudden drop in blood pressure (shock) and death. It is a vector-borne disease that cannot be spread directly from person to person. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Most cases occur in tropical areas of the world, including the Indian subcontinent, Southeast Asia, Southern China, Taiwan, the Pacific Islands, the Caribbean, Mexico, Africa, and Central, and South America. As per WHO, about half of the world’s population is now at risk of dengue with an estimated 100–400 million infections occurring each year. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements about the Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) It is implemented by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD). It provides low-cost fund support to state governments for quick completion of ongoing projects relating to medium and minor irrigation. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) The Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF)  is implemented by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development(NABARD). Hence statement 1 is correct. It was instituted in NABARD with an announcement in the Union Budget 1995-96. It is maintained by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development(NABARD). Its objective is to provide low-cost fund support to State Governments and State Owned Corporations for quick completion of ongoing projects relating to medium and minor irrigation, soil conservation, watershed management and other forms of rural infrastructure. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) The Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF)  is implemented by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development(NABARD). Hence statement 1 is correct. It was instituted in NABARD with an announcement in the Union Budget 1995-96. It is maintained by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development(NABARD). Its objective is to provide low-cost fund support to State Governments and State Owned Corporations for quick completion of ongoing projects relating to medium and minor irrigation, soil conservation, watershed management and other forms of rural infrastructure. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 28 of 35 28. Question ‘White Torture: Interviews with Iranian Women Prisoners’ is a book which has won an award for reportage at the International Film Festival and Human Rights’ Forum is written by a) Nadia Murad b) Ales Bialiatski c) Narges Mohammadi d) Maria Ressa Correct Solution (c) ‘White Torture: Interviews with Iranian Women Prisoners’ is a book which has won an award for reportage at the International Film Festival and Human Rights’ Forum is written by Narges Mohammadi. Hence option c is correct. The Norwegian Nobel Committee has awarded Iranian activist Narges Mohammadi the 2023 Nobel Prize for Peace. She has been awarded for her fight against the oppression of women in Iran and her fight to promote human rights and freedom for all. Narges Mohammadi is an Iranian human rights activist and scientist. She is the vice president of the Defenders of Human Rights Center (DHRC), headed by fellow Nobel Peace Prize laureate Shirin Ebadi. She is the 19th woman to ever win the Nobel Peace Prize and the second Iranian woman to win the award – after human rights activist Shirin Ebadi in 2003. It is also the fifth time in the 122-year history of the awards that the peace prize has been given to someone who is in prison or under house arrest. In 2011, she was arrested for the first time and sentenced to many years of imprisonment for her efforts to assist incarcerated activists and their families. After securing a bail in 2013, she campaigned against the use of the death penalty.She was again arrested in 2015 and was sentenced to additional years. Over the years she has written many articles arguing for social reforms in Iran and published an essay collection, ‘The Reforms, the Strategy, and the Tactics’. Incorrect Solution (c) ‘White Torture: Interviews with Iranian Women Prisoners’ is a book which has won an award for reportage at the International Film Festival and Human Rights’ Forum is written by Narges Mohammadi. Hence option c is correct. The Norwegian Nobel Committee has awarded Iranian activist Narges Mohammadi the 2023 Nobel Prize for Peace. She has been awarded for her fight against the oppression of women in Iran and her fight to promote human rights and freedom for all. Narges Mohammadi is an Iranian human rights activist and scientist. She is the vice president of the Defenders of Human Rights Center (DHRC), headed by fellow Nobel Peace Prize laureate Shirin Ebadi. She is the 19th woman to ever win the Nobel Peace Prize and the second Iranian woman to win the award – after human rights activist Shirin Ebadi in 2003. It is also the fifth time in the 122-year history of the awards that the peace prize has been given to someone who is in prison or under house arrest. In 2011, she was arrested for the first time and sentenced to many years of imprisonment for her efforts to assist incarcerated activists and their families. After securing a bail in 2013, she campaigned against the use of the death penalty.She was again arrested in 2015 and was sentenced to additional years. Over the years she has written many articles arguing for social reforms in Iran and published an essay collection, ‘The Reforms, the Strategy, and the Tactics’. Question 29 of 35 29. Question With references to India, Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol, and Khatu are the names of a) Glaciers b) Mangrove areas c) Ramsar sites d) Saline lakes Correct Solution (d) Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol, and Khatu are saline lakes of Rajasthan. Didwana is a town in the Nagaur district of Rajasthan. It has a famous Didwana salt-water lake of Rajasthan. Kuchaman lake is located in Nagaur district of Rajasthan. Hence option d is correct. Incorrect Solution (d) Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol, and Khatu are saline lakes of Rajasthan. Didwana is a town in the Nagaur district of Rajasthan. It has a famous Didwana salt-water lake of Rajasthan. Kuchaman lake is located in Nagaur district of Rajasthan. Hence option d is correct. Question 30 of 35 30. Question Consider the following statements about the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) It was negotiated at the Conference on Disarmament in Geneva and adopted by the United Nations General Assembly. China and Israel have not yet signed the treaty. Pakistan is the latest country to sign and ratify this treaty. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) The Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) was negotiated at the Conference on Disarmament in Geneva and adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 1996. Hence statement 1 is correct. It intends to ban all nuclear explosions everywhere, by everyone. China, North Korea, Egypt, India, Iran, Israel, Pakistan and the United States have not ratified the treaty. China, Israel, Iran, Egypt and United States has signed the treaty but yet to ratify it. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. India, North Korea and Pakistan have not yet signed the treaty. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. The treaty was opened for signature in 1996 and since then 182 countries have signed the Treaty, most recently Ghana has ratified the treaty in 2011. Incorrect Solution (a) The Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) was negotiated at the Conference on Disarmament in Geneva and adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 1996. Hence statement 1 is correct. It intends to ban all nuclear explosions everywhere, by everyone. China, North Korea, Egypt, India, Iran, Israel, Pakistan and the United States have not ratified the treaty. China, Israel, Iran, Egypt and United States has signed the treaty but yet to ratify it. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. India, North Korea and Pakistan have not yet signed the treaty. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. The treaty was opened for signature in 1996 and since then 182 countries have signed the Treaty, most recently Ghana has ratified the treaty in 2011. Question 31 of 35 31. Question A bag contains coins of Rs. 2 and Rs. 1 in the ratio of 5:7. If the total amount of money in the bag is Rs. 85, find the number of Rs. 2 coins in the bag? a) 30 b) 35 c) 25 d) 20 Correct Solution (c) Let the nos. of Rs. 2 coins & Rs. 1 coins be 5a and 7a respectively. Its monetary value = 5a x 2 + 7a x 1 = 10a + 7a = 17a 17a = 85 a = 5 Therefore, No. of Rs. 2 coins = 5a = 5×5=25 Incorrect Solution (c) Let the nos. of Rs. 2 coins & Rs. 1 coins be 5a and 7a respectively. Its monetary value = 5a x 2 + 7a x 1 = 10a + 7a = 17a 17a = 85 a = 5 Therefore, No. of Rs. 2 coins = 5a = 5×5=25 Question 32 of 35 32. Question Two students appeared at an examination. One of them secured 9 marks more than the other and his marks was 56% of the sum of their marks. The marks obtained by them are a) 39, 30 b) 41, 32 c) 42, 33 d) 43, 34 Correct Solution (c) Let their marks be (x + 9) and x. Then, x + 9 =   56/100(x + 9 + x) 25(x + 9) = 14(2x + 9) 3x = 99 x = 33 So, their marks are 42 and 33. Incorrect Solution (c) Let their marks be (x + 9) and x. Then, x + 9 =   56/100(x + 9 + x) 25(x + 9) = 14(2x + 9) 3x = 99 x = 33 So, their marks are 42 and 33. Question 33 of 35 33. Question Mr. Kanthesh distributes the money he has among his 2 sons, 1 daughter and wife in such a way that each son gets double the amount of the daughter and the wife gets double the amount of each son. If each son gets Rs. 8,500, what was the total amount distributed? a) Rs. 38,250 b) Rs. 34,250 c) Rs. 38,500 d) Rs. 34,500 Correct Solution (a) 2 sons get = 8500 x 2 = 17000 1 daughter gets = 8500 /2 = 4250 Wife gets = 8500 x 2 = 17000 Thus, total = 17000 + 4250 + 17000 = 38250 Incorrect Solution (a) 2 sons get = 8500 x 2 = 17000 1 daughter gets = 8500 /2 = 4250 Wife gets = 8500 x 2 = 17000 Thus, total = 17000 + 4250 + 17000 = 38250 Question 34 of 35 34. Question In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘DETAIL’ be arranged in such a way that the vowels occupy only the odd positions? a) 32 b) 48 c) 36 d) 60 Correct Solution (c) There are 6 letters in the given word, out of which there are 3 vowels and 3 consonants. Let us mark these positions as under: (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) Now, 3 vowels can be placed at any of the three places out 4, marked 1, 3, 5. Number of ways of arranging the vowels = 3P3 = 3! = 6. Also, the 3 consonants can be arranged at the remaining 3 positions. Number of ways of these arrangements = 3P3 = 3! = 6. Total number of ways = (6 x 6) = 36. Incorrect Solution (c) There are 6 letters in the given word, out of which there are 3 vowels and 3 consonants. Let us mark these positions as under: (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) Now, 3 vowels can be placed at any of the three places out 4, marked 1, 3, 5. Number of ways of arranging the vowels = 3P3 = 3! = 6. Also, the 3 consonants can be arranged at the remaining 3 positions. Number of ways of these arrangements = 3P3 = 3! = 6. Total number of ways = (6 x 6) = 36. Question 35 of 35 35. Question A two-digit number is reversed and added to the original number. What will be the remainder if the resulting number is divided by 11? a) 0 b) 1 c) 9 d) Data is inadequate Correct Solution (a) Let the digits of the number are x and y. It can be written as 10x + y (e.g. 23 can be written as 2×10 + 3) On reversing the number we get 10y + x Sum of two number = 10x + y + 10y + x = 11x + 11y = 11(x+y) 11(x+y) is always divisible by 11. Hence it will leave remainder 0. Conclusion – if reverse of any two digit number is added into the original number, the resultant number will always be divisible by 11.   Incorrect Solution (a) Let the digits of the number are x and y. It can be written as 10x + y (e.g. 23 can be written as 2×10 + 3) On reversing the number we get 10y + x Sum of two number = 10x + y + 10y + x = 11x + 11y = 11(x+y) 11(x+y) is always divisible by 11. Hence it will leave remainder 0. Conclusion – if reverse of any two digit number is added into the original number, the resultant number will always be divisible by 11.   window.wpProQuizInitList = window.wpProQuizInitList || []; window.wpProQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpProQuiz_3573', init: { quizId: 3573, mode: 1, globalPoints: 70, timelimit: 1800, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 704, qpp: 0, catPoints: [70], formPos: 0, lbn: "Test-summary", json: {"30964":{"type":"single","id":30964,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30965":{"type":"single","id":30965,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30966":{"type":"single","id":30966,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30968":{"type":"single","id":30968,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30971":{"type":"single","id":30971,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30974":{"type":"single","id":30974,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30975":{"type":"single","id":30975,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30976":{"type":"single","id":30976,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30979":{"type":"single","id":30979,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30982":{"type":"single","id":30982,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30984":{"type":"single","id":30984,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30987":{"type":"single","id":30987,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30989":{"type":"single","id":30989,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30992":{"type":"single","id":30992,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30994":{"type":"single","id":30994,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30996":{"type":"single","id":30996,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30997":{"type":"single","id":30997,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"31000":{"type":"single","id":31000,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"31001":{"type":"single","id":31001,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"31003":{"type":"single","id":31003,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"31004":{"type":"single","id":31004,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"31007":{"type":"single","id":31007,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"31009":{"type":"single","id":31009,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"31011":{"type":"single","id":31011,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"31014":{"type":"single","id":31014,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"31017":{"type":"single","id":31017,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"31020":{"type":"single","id":31020,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"31023":{"type":"single","id":31023,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"31025":{"type":"single","id":31025,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"31026":{"type":"single","id":31026,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"31029":{"type":"single","id":31029,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"31031":{"type":"single","id":31031,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"31034":{"type":"single","id":31034,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"31036":{"type":"single","id":31036,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"31039":{"type":"single","id":31039,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]}} } }); All the Best IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 26th March 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Mumps Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Mumps, an acute viral infection which historically affects children, has been spreading like wildfire in Kerala, for the past few months. Background:- Not just Kerala, a resurgence in cases was being reported from several States, including Maharashtra, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh as well. Cases which began appearing sporadically around November 2023 in the Malappuram and Kozhikode districts of Kerala, have since then spread to Palakkad and Thrissur too, resulting in major community outbreaks. About Mumps Mumps is a self-limiting, airborne viral disease and presents as fever and headache in mostly children and adolescents, with painful swelling of the salivary glands (parotid glands) on both sides of the face. There is no specific treatment and the patient recovers with rest and symptomatic management in about two weeks. With only half of the infected children developing the classical disease and close to 30% remaining asymptomatic, cases mostly go unreported, indicating that the reported cases are a gross underestimation of the actual cases in the community. From the view point of public health, measles, which can cause significant morbidity and mortality, has always been considered a priority, rather than mumps. Despite being a vaccine-preventable disease, mumps has never been a part of the Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP) because of the disease’s no-mortality profile and the perception that it has low public health significance. Health officials maintain that creating public awareness about the disease and the importance of isolation is the most important tool in bringing down the transmission of the disease. Transmission of the disease begins before the symptoms actually manifest and isolation of the patient for a full three weeks is necessary to limit the spread of the disease. Source: The Hindu Campaigning in the name of religion Syllabus Mains – GS 2 Context: Recently the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) lodged a complaint with the Election Commission of India (ECI) against Rahul Gandhi for hurting the sentiments of Hindus through his remark on ‘shakti’. The Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK), in turn, filed a counter complaint against the Prime Minister for appealing to religious sentiments during his campaign on the same issue. Background: There have been innumerable instances in the past where various parties and its leaders have blatantly appealed for votes in the name of religion. There are leaders across political parties against whom cases have been registered under the RP Act and the Indian Penal Code in this regard. However, the only notable leader who was convicted by the Supreme Court for this corrupt electoral practice was Bal Thackeray of Shiv Sena in the year 1995. The ECI on such occasions at best bars leaders from campaigning, for violation of the MCC, for a short period of two to three days. How is Campaigning in the name of religion dealt with?: What does the law say? Section 123(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 (RP Act) provides that appeals by a candidate, or any other person with the consent of a candidate, to vote or refrain from voting on the ground of his religion, race, caste, community or language is a corrupt electoral practice. Section 123(3A) denounces any attempt by a candidate to promote feelings of enmity or hatred among citizens on these grounds during elections. The RP Act further provides that anyone found guilty of corrupt electoral practice can be debarred from contesting elections for a maximum period of up to six years. What does the MCC provide? The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) for the guidance of political parties and candidates is a set of norms which has evolved with the consensus of political parties. It binds them to respect and observe it in its letter and spirit. This code, which began to be implemented strictly in the 1990s, provides that no party or candidate shall indulge in any activity which may aggravate existing differences or create mutual hatred or cause tension between different castes, religious or linguistic communities. It also provides that there shall be no appeal to caste or communal feelings for securing votes. Mosques, churches, temples or other places of worship shall not be used as a forum for election propaganda. Though the MCC does not have any statutory backing, it has come to acquire strength in the past three decades because of its strict enforcement by the ECI. History It is pertinent to note that before 1961, Section 123(3) of the RP Act provided that ‘systemic’ appeal by a candidate on the grounds of religion, race, caste or community will amount to a corrupt electoral practice. However, in order to curb communal, fissiparous and separatist tendencies, the word ‘systemic’ was omitted through an amendment in 1961. This meant that even a stray appeal for success in the elections on the ground of one’s religion or narrow communal affiliation would be viewed with disfavour by the law. Ruling of the Supreme Court In Abhiram Singh versus C. D. Commachen (2017) a seven-judge Bench by a majority of 4:3 held that candidates shall not appeal for votes on the basis of not just his/her religion but also that of the voters. The majority view provided a ‘purposive interpretation’ to Section 123(3) rather than just a literal one thereby rendering any appeal in the name of religion of even the voters as a corrupt electoral practice. The elections to Parliament or State legislatures are a secular exercise; constitutional ethos forbids the mixing of religious considerations with the secular functions of the State. Religion should remain a matter of personal faith. Source:The Hindu INTERNATIONAL ASTRONOMICAL UNION (IAU) Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: The International Astronomical Union (IAU) has approved the Chandrayaan-3 landing site name ‘Shiva Shakti’. Background: The announcement defined the origin of the name as, a “compound word from Indian mythology that depicts masculine (Shiva) and feminine (Shakti) duality of nature; Landing site of Chandrayaan-3’s Vikram Lander. About International Astronomical Union (IAU) International Astronomical Union (IAU) is a significant body that governs international professional astronomical activities worldwide. It was established in 1919 as the first of a series of international unions for the advancement of specific branches of science. The headquarters of the IAU is in Paris, France. Its mission is to promote and safeguard the science of astronomy in all its aspects, including research, communication, education, and development, through international cooperation. The IAU is made up of various divisions, commissions, and working groups representing the various areas of astronomical research, teaching, and other endeavours. It is the only organization recognized professionally for the naming of astronomical bodies, which it does solely on the basis of merit, history, or discoverer’s privilege. The IAU holds a general assembly every three years in varying parts of the world at which professional astronomers meet to discuss research, new cooperative ventures, and similar matters of professional interest. The IAU also works to promote research, education, and public outreach activities in astronomy for the public. Source: Business Today MARITIME ANTI-PIRACY ACT Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: According to Navy Chief Admiral R. Hari Kumar the Maritime Anti-Piracy Act has played a pivotal role in enhancing the Indian Navy’s effectiveness during its 100-day operation known as ‘Operation Sankalp’. Background: ‘Operation Sankalp’ spanned from the Gulf of Aden to the North Arabian Sea and along the East Coast of Somalia. About MARITIME ANTI-PIRACY ACT The Maritime Anti-Piracy Act, 2022 is a significant legislation enacted by India to address the menace of piracy on the high seas. This Act was enacted on January 31, 2023, and came into enforcement on February 22, 2023. It aims to give effect to the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea concerning the repression of piracy on the high seas and related matters. The act provides for punishment for anyone involved in acts of piracy, including those who commit, attempt, abet, or conspire to commit piracy. Maritime Anti Piracy Act empowers the Indian Navy and Coast Guard to board, seize and arrest pirates operating in the high seas, in the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) and beyond. Indian courts can prosecute the perpetrators with life imprisonment, fine, or both. However, the Act also considers the offence as extraditable, where India has signed such treaties with those countries. India has an agreement with Somalia where Somalian pirates have been extradited since 2017 Source: The Hindu ELECTORAL TRUST Syllabus Prelims – Polity Context: Two electoral trusts have distributed corporate donations to political parties through the electoral bonds route. Background: These details were disclosed by the Election Commission. While the electoral bonds scheme offered full secrecy to donors until the Supreme Court intervened and directed full details to be made public, electoral trusts need to disclose their donors and their donations. About ELECTORAL TRUST: An Electoral Trust is a non-profit organization established to systematically collect voluntary contributions from individuals or companies. These funds are then distributed to registered political parties in India. The concept of Electoral Trusts aims to enhance transparency in political funding by ensuring that donations are channelled through a regulated mechanism. Purpose and Establishment: Electoral Trusts serve as intermediaries between donors (individuals or companies) and political parties. They were introduced in 2013 to streamline the process of political funding and promote transparency. Eligibility and Registration: An Electoral Trust must be a non-profit company registered under Section 29A of the Representation of People Act, 1951. It acts as a conduit for collecting contributions and distributing them to political parties. Donation Distribution: 95% of the contributions received by an Electoral Trust in a financial year must be donated to registered political parties. Unlike the Electoral Bonds (EB) Scheme, which allowed anonymous donations, Electoral Trusts prioritize disclosure by reporting contributors and beneficiaries to the Election Commission of India. Reporting and Transparency: Electoral Trusts are required to submit contribution reports to the Election Commission, detailing their donors and the parties they supported. These reports are available for public scrutiny. Source: Times of India Menstrual Leave Syllabus Mains – GS 2 Context: There have been several debates regarding providing a paid Menstrual Leave policy in India. Background: In the Lok Sabha, at least three attempts were made in recent years to bring in private member Bills to propose menstrual leave.The first such attempt was made in 2017, when the then Congress MP from Arunachal Pradesh, Ninong Ering, introduced the Menstruation Benefits Bill 2017, which advocated for four-day leave during menstruation. About Menstrual Leave: It is a type of leave where women and trans women may have the option of taking paid leave from their workplace during the period of menstruation. Significance of providing menstrual leave policy in India: Menstrual leave could be in line with Article 21 (Right to Life) and Article 14 (Right to Equality) of the Constitution. Additionally, the Constitution empowers the State to make special provisions for women and children under Article 15(3). Menstruation is accompanied by a variety of moderate to severe symptoms such as cramps fatigue, etc., impacting women’s daily lives. Further, the lack of proper sanitation facilities at the workplace can impact women’s hygiene and reproductive health. It would provide an opportunity for society and employers to reevaluate attitudes surrounding absenteeism and work ethic. It will help create a positive work environment and culture, enhancing overall productivity, and fostering healthier workplace dynamics. Discussion about menstruation among all employees may foster support for women’s reproductive health and reproductive rights. Issues/Challenges related to menstrual leave: Offering specific leave for menstruation may inadvertently lead to biases or stereotypes against women, impacting hiring decisions, promotions, and overall career advancement. Menstrual leave may perpetuate gender stereotypes and notions of biological determinism, like assumptions that women are unfit for the workplace and, thus, justify gender discrimination in society. Accommodating menstrual leaves may disrupt workflow, increase workload for other team members, or create resentment among employees who do not receive similar benefits. Providing additional leave benefits may result in increased operational costs, affecting budgets and profitability, particularly for small businesses and startups. Informal workers, Freelancers, and gig workers often lack traditional employee benefits, making it difficult to extend benefits. Even if provided, Female employees may feel hesitant to seek benefits due to societal stigma around discussing menstrual issues in public. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements: Statement-I: An Electoral Trust is a non-profit organization established to systematically collect voluntary contributions from individuals or companies. Statement-II: 95% of the contributions received by an Electoral Trust in a financial year must be donated to registered political parties. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Q2.) With reference to Maritime Anti-Piracy Act, 2022, consider the following statements: The Act enacted by India to address the menace of piracy on the high seas. It aims to give effect to the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea concerning the repression of piracy on the high seas and related matters. It empowers authorities to arrest individuals and seize pirate ships and property on board. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q3.) Which one of the following organisations is the nodal agency for naming the landing site  on celestial objects? International Astronomical Union International Union for Quaternary Research The Planetary Society International Union for Geological Sciences Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  26th March  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  25th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 26th March 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

[DAY 20] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question Consider the following statements El Nino is a climate pattern that describes the unusual warming of surface waters in the tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean. La Nina is a climate pattern that describes the unusual cooling of surface waters in the tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct El Nino is a climate pattern that describes the unusual warming of surface waters in the tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean. It impacts ocean temperatures, the speed and strength of ocean currents, the health of coastal fisheries, and local weather from Australia to South America and beyond. La Nina is a climate pattern that describes the unusual cooling of surface waters in the tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean. It represent periods of below-average sea surface temperatures across the east-central Equatorial Pacific. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct El Nino is a climate pattern that describes the unusual warming of surface waters in the tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean. It impacts ocean temperatures, the speed and strength of ocean currents, the health of coastal fisheries, and local weather from Australia to South America and beyond. La Nina is a climate pattern that describes the unusual cooling of surface waters in the tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean. It represent periods of below-average sea surface temperatures across the east-central Equatorial Pacific. Question 2 of 35 2. Question Consider the following statements about the Brahmaputra river Its basin is restricted the four states of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, West Bengal and Meghalaya. Some of its tributaries include Kopili, Manas, Buridehing and Kameng. The biggest inhabited riverine island in the world, Majuli is located on this river. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct The Brahmaputra basin in India includes the states of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, West Bengal, Meghalaya, Nagaland, and Sikkim.   It is shared by the countries – China (50.5%), India (33.6%), Bangladesh (8.1%), and Bhutan (7.8 percent ). The source of the Brahmaputra River is in South-West Tibet, known as the Yarlung Tsangpo River as it flows from the crest/ summit. The river flows through South Tibet, through huge canyons in the Himalayan mountain ranges and enter India through Arunachal Pradesh as Dihang.   Tributaries – Subansiri, Ronganadi, Dikrong, Buroi, Borgong, Jiabharali, Puthimari, Manas, Beki, Aie, Sonkosh, Noadehing, Buridehing, Desang, Dikhow, Bhogdoi, Dhansiri (South), Kopilli, Kulsi, Krishnai, Dhdhnoi and Jinjiran. The biggest inhabited riverine island in the world, Majuli is located on this river. It is India’s first island district. It is the nerve centre of Neo-Vaishnavite culture. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct The Brahmaputra basin in India includes the states of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, West Bengal, Meghalaya, Nagaland, and Sikkim.   It is shared by the countries – China (50.5%), India (33.6%), Bangladesh (8.1%), and Bhutan (7.8 percent ). The source of the Brahmaputra River is in South-West Tibet, known as the Yarlung Tsangpo River as it flows from the crest/ summit. The river flows through South Tibet, through huge canyons in the Himalayan mountain ranges and enter India through Arunachal Pradesh as Dihang.   Tributaries – Subansiri, Ronganadi, Dikrong, Buroi, Borgong, Jiabharali, Puthimari, Manas, Beki, Aie, Sonkosh, Noadehing, Buridehing, Desang, Dikhow, Bhogdoi, Dhansiri (South), Kopilli, Kulsi, Krishnai, Dhdhnoi and Jinjiran. The biggest inhabited riverine island in the world, Majuli is located on this river. It is India’s first island district. It is the nerve centre of Neo-Vaishnavite culture. Question 3 of 35 3. Question Consider the following statements about Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) It occurs because of temperature difference in the equatorial region of Indian Ocean from April to May. The negative phase of IOD is found to be beneficial for the Indian monsoon. The positive phase of IOD is found to be an obstruction for the Indian monsoon. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) occurs because of temperature difference in the equatorial region of Indian Ocean from April to May. The positive phase of IOD is found to be beneficial for the Indian monsoon. During this phase the Westerly winds weaken along the equator, allowing warm water to move to Africa. Changes in the winds also allow a rise of cool water from the deep ocean in the east. This creates a temperature difference across the tropical Indian Ocean with cooler than normal water in the east and warmer than normal water in the west. The negative phase of IOD is found to be an obstruction for the Indian monsoon. During this phase westerly winds intensify along the equator, allowing the concentration of warmer waters near Australia. This creates a temperature difference across the tropical Indian Ocean, with warmer than normal water in the east and cooler than normal water in the west. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) occurs because of temperature difference in the equatorial region of Indian Ocean from April to May. The positive phase of IOD is found to be beneficial for the Indian monsoon. During this phase the Westerly winds weaken along the equator, allowing warm water to move to Africa. Changes in the winds also allow a rise of cool water from the deep ocean in the east. This creates a temperature difference across the tropical Indian Ocean with cooler than normal water in the east and warmer than normal water in the west. The negative phase of IOD is found to be an obstruction for the Indian monsoon. During this phase westerly winds intensify along the equator, allowing the concentration of warmer waters near Australia. This creates a temperature difference across the tropical Indian Ocean, with warmer than normal water in the east and cooler than normal water in the west. Question 4 of 35 4. Question Consider the following statements It resembles the branching pattern of tree roots. The Himalayan rivers are examples for this drainage pattern. It is developed in areas where the rock beneath the stream has no particular structure so it can be eroded equally easily in all directions. The above statements are correct for which type of drainage pattern? a) Trellis Drainage Pattern b) Radial Drainage Pattern c) Dendritic Drainage Pattern d) Rectangular Drainage Pattern Correct Solution (c) Dendritic Drainage Pattern: It resembles the branching pattern of tree roots. The Himalayan rivers are examples for this drainage pattern. It is developed in areas where the rock beneath the stream has no particular structure so it can be eroded equally easily in all directions. The tributaries join larger streams at acute angles. Incorrect Solution (c) Dendritic Drainage Pattern: It resembles the branching pattern of tree roots. The Himalayan rivers are examples for this drainage pattern. It is developed in areas where the rock beneath the stream has no particular structure so it can be eroded equally easily in all directions. The tributaries join larger streams at acute angles. Question 5 of 35 5. Question Match the following Dam River 1. Thein a. Mahanadi 2. Hirakud b. Periyar 3. Salal c. Tapi 4. Kakrapara d. Chenab 5. Idukki e. Ravi Choose the correct code: a) 1-e;2-a;3-d;4-c;5-b; b) 1-e;2-c;3-d;4-a;5-b; c) 1-d;2-a;3-e;4-c;5-b; d) 1-d;2-e;3-a;4-c;5-b; Correct Solution (a) Dam River 1. Thein a. Ravi 2. Hirakud b. Mahanadi 3. Salal c. Chenab 4. Kakrapara d. Tapi 5. Idukki e. Periyar Incorrect Solution (a) Dam River 1. Thein a. Ravi 2. Hirakud b. Mahanadi 3. Salal c. Chenab 4. Kakrapara d. Tapi 5. Idukki e. Periyar Question 6 of 35 6. Question Consider the following statements about the Narmada River System It flows from east to west and drains into the Arabian Sea. It flows through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, and Maharashtra. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The Narmada River System flows from east to west and drains into the Arabian Sea. The Tapti and the Mahi rivers also run from east to west. It flows through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Maharashtra. It rises to the summit of the Amarkantak Hill in Madhya Pradesh and outlines the traditional frontier between North India and South India. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The Narmada River System flows from east to west and drains into the Arabian Sea. The Tapti and the Mahi rivers also run from east to west. It flows through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Maharashtra. It rises to the summit of the Amarkantak Hill in Madhya Pradesh and outlines the traditional frontier between North India and South India. Question 7 of 35 7. Question Jet Streams are high speed winds located in the upper troposphere. Consider the following statements Jet Streams are found in both the Northern and Southern Hemispheres. Polar front jet streams are closely related to tropical weather disturbances. Sub-Tropical Jet Streams are formed as warm air from the equator moves towards the poles. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct The Jet streams located in the upper troposphere (9 – 14 km) are bands of high-speed winds (95-190 km/hr). The two most important types of jet streams are the Polar Jet Streams and the Subtropical Jet Streams. They are found in both the Northern and Southern Hemispheres. Polar Jet Streams are created when cold air from the Polar Regions meets warmer air from the equator. It is a fact that the so-called polar front jet streams are closely related to the middle latitude weather disturbances. It has no relation with the tropical areas and it is confined to the Frigid Zone. Sub-Tropical Jet Streams are formed as warm air from the equator moves towards the poles that form a steep temperature incline along a subtropical front. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct The Jet streams located in the upper troposphere (9 – 14 km) are bands of high-speed winds (95-190 km/hr). The two most important types of jet streams are the Polar Jet Streams and the Subtropical Jet Streams. They are found in both the Northern and Southern Hemispheres. Polar Jet Streams are created when cold air from the Polar Regions meets warmer air from the equator. It is a fact that the so-called polar front jet streams are closely related to the middle latitude weather disturbances. It has no relation with the tropical areas and it is confined to the Frigid Zone. Sub-Tropical Jet Streams are formed as warm air from the equator moves towards the poles that form a steep temperature incline along a subtropical front. Question 8 of 35 8. Question Consider the Following statements regarding Equatorial Climate: Temperature is uniform throughout the year therefore Diurnal range of temperature is large. Cloudiness and heavy precipitation make the equatorial climate very humid and sticky. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The most outstanding feature of the equatorial climate is its great uniformity of temperature throughout the year therefore, the diurnal range of temperature is small. Precipitation is heavy between 60 inches and 100 inches and well distributed throughout the year. There is no month without rain. A distinct dry season like those of the Savanna or the Tropical Monsoon Climates is absent. The Cloudiness and heavy precipitation make relative humidity very high and thus, the climate becomes sticky and uncomfortable. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The most outstanding feature of the equatorial climate is its great uniformity of temperature throughout the year therefore, the diurnal range of temperature is small. Precipitation is heavy between 60 inches and 100 inches and well distributed throughout the year. There is no month without rain. A distinct dry season like those of the Savanna or the Tropical Monsoon Climates is absent. The Cloudiness and heavy precipitation make relative humidity very high and thus, the climate becomes sticky and uncomfortable. Question 9 of 35 9. Question Consider the following statements about mountain climate and coastal climate? Unlike coastal climate, mountain climate does not witness much seasonal variation in a single year. Temperature inversion is more frequent in coastal climates than in mountain climates. Both types of climates are suitable for the growth of coniferous forests. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Unlike mountain climate, coastal climate does not witness much seasonal variation in a single year. This is because of the moderation of heat due to the presence of Oceans/seas. On the other hand, Mountain experiences several climatic phenomena like temperature inversion, Katabatic winds in the valleys, etc, and will witness different weather patterns. Temperature inversion is more frequent in the mountainous region because of katabatic winds. Temperature inversion is a reversal of the normal behavior of temperature in the troposphere (the region of the atmosphere nearest the Earth’s surface), in which a layer of cool air at the surface is overlain by a layer of warmer air. (Under normal conditions air temperature usually decreases with height). Coastal climates rarely favor the growth of coniferous forests. A coniferous forest is a terrestrial biome found in temperate regions of the world with warm summers and cool winters and adequate rainfall to sustain a forest. In most temperate coniferous forests, evergreen conifers predominate, while some are a mix of conifers and broad-leaf evergreen trees and/or broad-leaf deciduous trees. Temperate evergreen forests are common in the United States of America, areas of regions that have mild winters and warm summers. They have needle-pointed leaves that avoid the deposition of snow and help in the process of photosynthesis. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Unlike mountain climate, coastal climate does not witness much seasonal variation in a single year. This is because of the moderation of heat due to the presence of Oceans/seas. On the other hand, Mountain experiences several climatic phenomena like temperature inversion, Katabatic winds in the valleys, etc, and will witness different weather patterns. Temperature inversion is more frequent in the mountainous region because of katabatic winds. Temperature inversion is a reversal of the normal behavior of temperature in the troposphere (the region of the atmosphere nearest the Earth’s surface), in which a layer of cool air at the surface is overlain by a layer of warmer air. (Under normal conditions air temperature usually decreases with height). Coastal climates rarely favor the growth of coniferous forests. A coniferous forest is a terrestrial biome found in temperate regions of the world with warm summers and cool winters and adequate rainfall to sustain a forest. In most temperate coniferous forests, evergreen conifers predominate, while some are a mix of conifers and broad-leaf evergreen trees and/or broad-leaf deciduous trees. Temperate evergreen forests are common in the United States of America, areas of regions that have mild winters and warm summers. They have needle-pointed leaves that avoid the deposition of snow and help in the process of photosynthesis. Question 10 of 35 10. Question Consider the following pairs:         Type of climate               Region China Type – South Eastern United States Gulf Type – Eastern Australia and Northern Argentina Natal Type – Southern Japan How many of the above given pairs is/are correctly matched? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) None Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect The China Type Central and North China (including southern Japan (temperate monsoonal). The Gulf Type South-Eastern United States, (slight-monsoonal). The Natal Type The entire warm temperate eastern margin (non-monsoonal areas) of the southern hemisphere includes Natal, eastern Australia, and southern Brazil-Paraguay- Uruguay and northern Argentina. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect The China Type Central and North China (including southern Japan (temperate monsoonal). The Gulf Type South-Eastern United States, (slight-monsoonal). The Natal Type The entire warm temperate eastern margin (non-monsoonal areas) of the southern hemisphere includes Natal, eastern Australia, and southern Brazil-Paraguay- Uruguay and northern Argentina. Question 11 of 35 11. Question Consider the following statements about different Climatic regions of the world Savannah Climate is a transitional type of climate found between equatorial forests and trade wind hot deserts. Major Hot deserts of the world are located on the west coasts of continents between latitudes 30° and 45°. Mediterranean climate is characterized by a dry warm summer with onshore winds. Temperate grasslands are found in Sudan-type of climates. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Savannah Climate is a transitional type of climate found between equatorial forests and trade wind hot deserts. Grasses and trees – The savanna is a rolling grassland with scattered trees and shrubs. Rainy and dry seasons – Savannas have two distinct seasons in regard to precipitation. There is a rainy season in the summer with around 15 to 25 inches of rain and a dry season in the winter when only a couple of inches of rain may fall. Large herds of animals – There are often large herds of grazing animals on the savanna that thrive on the abundance of grass and trees. Warm – The savanna stays pretty warm all year. It cools down some during the dry season but stays warm and humid during the rainy season. Major Hot deserts of the world are located on the west coasts of continents between latitudes 15° and 30°. It includes the Sahara Desert and the Great Australian Desert. The climate of these deserts is scorching hot and parched dry. It has a short rainy season. Since the sky is cloudless and clear, the rate of water evaporation is greater than the rate of water accumulation. Hence, there is water scarcity. However, the nights may be freezing cold with temperatures nearing zero degrees Celsius. Thus, there is a high diurnal range of temperature. Mediterranean climate is characterized by a dry warm summer with offshore winds. Almost no rain falls during the summer, so most of the rain falls during the cooler winter. The summer experiences cold ocean currents that bring dry air and no precipitation. During the winter the currents shift and warmer, moist air brings rain to these areas. Snow can fall in higher elevation areas or places that are farther north. Mediterranean climates receive around 20 inches of annual(yearly) rainfall. Temperate grasslands are found in the Temperate zone and not in the tropical zone. Sudan has tropical grasslands and not temperate grasslands. In Eurasia they are called the Steppes, in North America, they are called Prairies, in South America, they are called Pampas, in South Africa, they are called Velds Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Savannah Climate is a transitional type of climate found between equatorial forests and trade wind hot deserts. Grasses and trees – The savanna is a rolling grassland with scattered trees and shrubs. Rainy and dry seasons – Savannas have two distinct seasons in regard to precipitation. There is a rainy season in the summer with around 15 to 25 inches of rain and a dry season in the winter when only a couple of inches of rain may fall. Large herds of animals – There are often large herds of grazing animals on the savanna that thrive on the abundance of grass and trees. Warm – The savanna stays pretty warm all year. It cools down some during the dry season but stays warm and humid during the rainy season. Major Hot deserts of the world are located on the west coasts of continents between latitudes 15° and 30°. It includes the Sahara Desert and the Great Australian Desert. The climate of these deserts is scorching hot and parched dry. It has a short rainy season. Since the sky is cloudless and clear, the rate of water evaporation is greater than the rate of water accumulation. Hence, there is water scarcity. However, the nights may be freezing cold with temperatures nearing zero degrees Celsius. Thus, there is a high diurnal range of temperature. Mediterranean climate is characterized by a dry warm summer with offshore winds. Almost no rain falls during the summer, so most of the rain falls during the cooler winter. The summer experiences cold ocean currents that bring dry air and no precipitation. During the winter the currents shift and warmer, moist air brings rain to these areas. Snow can fall in higher elevation areas or places that are farther north. Mediterranean climates receive around 20 inches of annual(yearly) rainfall. Temperate grasslands are found in the Temperate zone and not in the tropical zone. Sudan has tropical grasslands and not temperate grasslands. In Eurasia they are called the Steppes, in North America, they are called Prairies, in South America, they are called Pampas, in South Africa, they are called Velds Question 12 of 35 12. Question Jet streams play an important role in: Monsoons Cyclones Anti-cyclones Heat balance Which of the below option is/are correct? a) 1 and 3 b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) 1,2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution (d) Jets streams play a key role in determining the weather because they usually separate colder air and warmer air. Jet streams generally push air masses around, moving weather systems to new areas and even causing them to stall if they have moved too far away As jet streams impact changes in upper atmospheric circulations, they affect all the above phenomenon. Incorrect Solution (d) Jets streams play a key role in determining the weather because they usually separate colder air and warmer air. Jet streams generally push air masses around, moving weather systems to new areas and even causing them to stall if they have moved too far away As jet streams impact changes in upper atmospheric circulations, they affect all the above phenomenon. Question 13 of 35 13. Question Consider the following pairs concerning types of drainage patterns Trellis Pattern – It develops where hard and soft rocks exist parallel to each other. Rectangular Pattern – It develops when a stream flows in different directions from a central peak. Dendritic Pattern – The streams and tributaries’ development resemble the branches of a tree. Radial Pattern – It develops when there is an accumulation of streams to a central point from where the river flows downstream. How many of the pair(s) given above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Incorrect Trellis Drainage Pattern: When a river is joined by its tributaries at almost right angles, it develops a trellis pattern. Trellis pattern develops where hard and soft rocks exist parallel to each other. Rectangular Drainage Pattern: When rocks are strongly joined, then a rectangular pattern develops. The rectangular drainage pattern is prevalent in faulted areas. It grows on a rocky surface that is closely bound. Streams take the path of least resistance; therefore, they congregate in areas with the weakest exposed rock. The tributary streams bend sharply and enter the mainstream at a steep angle. E.g.  Chambal, Betwa, and Ken are three streams found in the Vindhya mountain range. Dendritic Drainage Pattern: When the river channel follows the slope of the terrain, it develops a dendritic pattern. The stream and its tributaries resemble the branches of a tree. Hence, it is called a dendritic pattern Radial Drainage Pattern: When the streams flow in different directions from a central peak or dome-like structure, a radial pattern is developed. The description given in the question matches the Centripetal system of drainage.   Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Incorrect Trellis Drainage Pattern: When a river is joined by its tributaries at almost right angles, it develops a trellis pattern. Trellis pattern develops where hard and soft rocks exist parallel to each other. Rectangular Drainage Pattern: When rocks are strongly joined, then a rectangular pattern develops. The rectangular drainage pattern is prevalent in faulted areas. It grows on a rocky surface that is closely bound. Streams take the path of least resistance; therefore, they congregate in areas with the weakest exposed rock. The tributary streams bend sharply and enter the mainstream at a steep angle. E.g.  Chambal, Betwa, and Ken are three streams found in the Vindhya mountain range. Dendritic Drainage Pattern: When the river channel follows the slope of the terrain, it develops a dendritic pattern. The stream and its tributaries resemble the branches of a tree. Hence, it is called a dendritic pattern Radial Drainage Pattern: When the streams flow in different directions from a central peak or dome-like structure, a radial pattern is developed. The description given in the question matches the Centripetal system of drainage.   Question 14 of 35 14. Question Which of the following rivers has its source of origin at/near the Manasarovar lake? Brahmaputra Indus Gandak Satluj Select the correct answer using the codes given below a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1, 2 and 4 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4. Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Incorrect Correct The Brahmaputra rises in Tibet East of Mansarovar lake very close to the sources of the Indus and the Satluj. Originating from Chemyandung glacier It is slightly longer than the Indus, and most of its course lies outside India. It flows Eastwards parallel to the Himalayas. On reaching the Namcha Barwa (7757 m), it takes a ‘U-turn and enters India in Arunachal Pradesh through a gorge. Here, it is called the Dihang and it is joined by the Dibang, the Lohit, and many other tributaries to form the Brahmaputra in Assam. The river Indus rises in Tibet, near Lake Mansarovar originating from the single kanban glacier, it enters India in the Ladakh district of Jammu and Kashmir. Several tributaries, Zaskar, Nubra, Shyok, and Hunza, join it in the Kashmir region. The Gandak comprises two streams, namely Kali Gandaki and Trishul Ganga. It rises in Nepal The Himalayas between the Dhaulagiri and Mount Everest (not near the Mansarovar lake in Tibet) drain the central part of Nepal. It enters the Ganga plain in the Champaran district of Bihar and joins the Ganga at Sonpur near Patna The Satluj originates in the Rakas lake near Mansarovar at an altitude of 4,555 m in Tibet where it is known as Langchen Khambab. It flows almost parallel to the Indus for about 400 km before entering India and comes out of a gorge at Rupar. It passes through the Shipki La on the Himalayan ranges and enters the Punjab plains Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Incorrect Correct The Brahmaputra rises in Tibet East of Mansarovar lake very close to the sources of the Indus and the Satluj. Originating from Chemyandung glacier It is slightly longer than the Indus, and most of its course lies outside India. It flows Eastwards parallel to the Himalayas. On reaching the Namcha Barwa (7757 m), it takes a ‘U-turn and enters India in Arunachal Pradesh through a gorge. Here, it is called the Dihang and it is joined by the Dibang, the Lohit, and many other tributaries to form the Brahmaputra in Assam. The river Indus rises in Tibet, near Lake Mansarovar originating from the single kanban glacier, it enters India in the Ladakh district of Jammu and Kashmir. Several tributaries, Zaskar, Nubra, Shyok, and Hunza, join it in the Kashmir region. The Gandak comprises two streams, namely Kali Gandaki and Trishul Ganga. It rises in Nepal The Himalayas between the Dhaulagiri and Mount Everest (not near the Mansarovar lake in Tibet) drain the central part of Nepal. It enters the Ganga plain in the Champaran district of Bihar and joins the Ganga at Sonpur near Patna The Satluj originates in the Rakas lake near Mansarovar at an altitude of 4,555 m in Tibet where it is known as Langchen Khambab. It flows almost parallel to the Indus for about 400 km before entering India and comes out of a gorge at Rupar. It passes through the Shipki La on the Himalayan ranges and enters the Punjab plains Question 15 of 35 15. Question Consider the following statements concerning the Ganga River system The headwaters of the Ganga, called the ‘Alakananda’ is fed by the Gangotri Glacier At Haridwar, the Ganga emerges from the mountains and flows onto the plains River Yamuna, as a left bank tributary meets the Ganga at Allahabad (Prayagraj) How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect The headwaters of the Ganga called the ‘Bhagirathi’ (not Alaknanda) is fed by the Gangotri Glacier and joined by the Alaknanda at Devaprayag in Uttarakhand. At Haridwar, the Ganga emerges from the mountains onto the plains. The Ganga is joined by many tributaries from the Himalayas, a few of them being major rivers, such as the Yamuna, the Ghaghara, the Gandak, and the Kosi. The river Yamuna rises from the Yamunotri Glacier in the Himalayas. It flows parallel to the Ganga and as a right-bank tributary (not a left-bank tributary) meets the Ganga at Allahabad. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect The headwaters of the Ganga called the ‘Bhagirathi’ (not Alaknanda) is fed by the Gangotri Glacier and joined by the Alaknanda at Devaprayag in Uttarakhand. At Haridwar, the Ganga emerges from the mountains onto the plains. The Ganga is joined by many tributaries from the Himalayas, a few of them being major rivers, such as the Yamuna, the Ghaghara, the Gandak, and the Kosi. The river Yamuna rises from the Yamunotri Glacier in the Himalayas. It flows parallel to the Ganga and as a right-bank tributary (not a left-bank tributary) meets the Ganga at Allahabad. Question 16 of 35 16. Question Consider the following pairs concerning rivers and the places where they originate Rivers            Source of origin The Krishna – Mahabaleshwar The Narmada – Chota Nagpur Plateau The Kaveri – Brahmagiri range The Mahanadi – Amarkantak hills How many of the above pairs is/are incorrectly matched? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Incorrect The Krishna River: Rising from a spring near Mahabaleshwar, the Krishna flows for about 1400 km and Reaches the Bay of Bengal. The Tungabhadra, the Koyana, the Ghatprabha, the Musi, and the Bhima are some of its tributaries. The Narmada River: The Narmada rises in the Amarkantak hills (not in the Chota Nagpur plateau) in Madhya Pradesh. It flows towards the West in a rift valley formed due to faulting. On its way to the sea, the Narmada creates many picturesque locations. The ‘Marble rocks’, near Jabalpur, where the Narmada flows through a deep gorge, and the Dhuandhar falls, where the river plunges over steep rocks, are some of the notable ones The Kaveri River: It rises in the Brahmagiri range of the Western Ghats and it reaches the Bay of Bengal in the South of Cuddalore in Tamil Nadu. The total length of the river is about 760 km. Its main tributaries are Amravati, Bhavani, Hemavati, and Kabini. The Mahanadi River: The Mahanadi rises near Sihawa in the Raipur district of Chhattisgarh and runs through Odisha to discharge its water into the Bay of Bengal. It is 851 km long and its catchment area spreads over 1.42 lakh sq. km   Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Incorrect The Krishna River: Rising from a spring near Mahabaleshwar, the Krishna flows for about 1400 km and Reaches the Bay of Bengal. The Tungabhadra, the Koyana, the Ghatprabha, the Musi, and the Bhima are some of its tributaries. The Narmada River: The Narmada rises in the Amarkantak hills (not in the Chota Nagpur plateau) in Madhya Pradesh. It flows towards the West in a rift valley formed due to faulting. On its way to the sea, the Narmada creates many picturesque locations. The ‘Marble rocks’, near Jabalpur, where the Narmada flows through a deep gorge, and the Dhuandhar falls, where the river plunges over steep rocks, are some of the notable ones The Kaveri River: It rises in the Brahmagiri range of the Western Ghats and it reaches the Bay of Bengal in the South of Cuddalore in Tamil Nadu. The total length of the river is about 760 km. Its main tributaries are Amravati, Bhavani, Hemavati, and Kabini. The Mahanadi River: The Mahanadi rises near Sihawa in the Raipur district of Chhattisgarh and runs through Odisha to discharge its water into the Bay of Bengal. It is 851 km long and its catchment area spreads over 1.42 lakh sq. km   Question 17 of 35 17. Question Which of the following is/are the tributaries of river Godavari? Koyana Manjra Penganga Pranhita Bhima Select the correct answer using the codes given below a) 2, 3 and 5 only b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1, 3 and 5 only d) 2, 3 and 4 only Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Statement 5 Incorrect Correct Correct Correct Incorrect The Koyana is are the tributary of the river Krishna. Unlike most of the other rivers in Maharashtra which flow East-West direction, the Koyna river flows in a North-South direction. The Koyna River is famous for the Koyna Dam and the Koyna Hydroelectric Project. The Manjari, also spelled Manjara or Manjeera, is a tributary of the river Godavari. It passes through the states of Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Telangana. It originates in the Balaghat range of hills near Ahmednagar district at an altitude of 823 meters and empties into the Godavari River. It is one of the tributaries of Godavari. The Painganga River (also known as the Penganga River) is the chief river of the Buldhana district, Hingoli district, Nanded district, Yavatmal district, Chandrapur district, and Washim district in the Maharashtra state in India. The Piranha River is the largest tributary of the Godavari River covering about 34% of its drainage basin conveying the combined waters of the Penganga River, the Wardha River, and the Wainganga River Bhima is the tributary of the river Krishna. It originates near Bhimashankar Temple in the Bhimashankar hills in the Taluka on the western side of the Western Ghats. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Statement 5 Incorrect Correct Correct Correct Incorrect The Koyana is are the tributary of the river Krishna. Unlike most of the other rivers in Maharashtra which flow East-West direction, the Koyna river flows in a North-South direction. The Koyna River is famous for the Koyna Dam and the Koyna Hydroelectric Project. The Manjari, also spelled Manjara or Manjeera, is a tributary of the river Godavari. It passes through the states of Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Telangana. It originates in the Balaghat range of hills near Ahmednagar district at an altitude of 823 meters and empties into the Godavari River. It is one of the tributaries of Godavari. The Painganga River (also known as the Penganga River) is the chief river of the Buldhana district, Hingoli district, Nanded district, Yavatmal district, Chandrapur district, and Washim district in the Maharashtra state in India. The Piranha River is the largest tributary of the Godavari River covering about 34% of its drainage basin conveying the combined waters of the Penganga River, the Wardha River, and the Wainganga River Bhima is the tributary of the river Krishna. It originates near Bhimashankar Temple in the Bhimashankar hills in the Taluka on the western side of the Western Ghats. Question 18 of 35 18. Question Consider the following pairs on Dams and associated Rivers Multipurpose river valley projects     Rivers associated Hirakud project –                         Mahanadi Bhakra-Nangal project –                   Beas Gandhi Sagar project –                  Chambal Nagarjuna Sagar project –            Godavari Which of the codes is/are correctly matched? a) 2 and 3 b) 1 and 3 c) 3 and 4 d) 1 and 4 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Incorrect Hirakud Dam is built across the Mahanadi River, about 15 kilometers from Sambalpur in the state of Odisha in India. It is one of the first major multipurpose river valley projects that started after India’s independence. It is India’s largest dam. The dam helps control floods in the Mahanadi delta and irrigates 75,000 km2 of land. The Bhakra-Nangal multipurpose dams are located in the state of Himachal Pradesh and are named after the two dams built at Bhakra and Nangal on the Satluj River (not beas river). The project comprises (i) two dams at Bhakra and Nangal (ii) powerhouses with a combined installed capacity of 1,204 megawatts (M.W.) and (iii) a Bhakra canal system for irrigation The Gandhi Sagar Dam is one of the four major dams built on India’s Chambal River. The dam is located in the state of Madhya Pradesh. It is a masonry gravity dam standing 62.17 meters high ⮚ The dam sports a total energy generation of about 564 GWh. The water released after power generation is used for the irrigation of 427,000 hectares by the Kota Barrage Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is a masonry dam across the Krishna River (not the Godavari River). The dam created a water reservoir with a gross storage capacity of 11.472 billion cubic meters. The dam is 590 feet tall from its deepest foundation and 0.99 miles long with 26 floodgates Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Incorrect Hirakud Dam is built across the Mahanadi River, about 15 kilometers from Sambalpur in the state of Odisha in India. It is one of the first major multipurpose river valley projects that started after India’s independence. It is India’s largest dam. The dam helps control floods in the Mahanadi delta and irrigates 75,000 km2 of land. The Bhakra-Nangal multipurpose dams are located in the state of Himachal Pradesh and are named after the two dams built at Bhakra and Nangal on the Satluj River (not beas river). The project comprises (i) two dams at Bhakra and Nangal (ii) powerhouses with a combined installed capacity of 1,204 megawatts (M.W.) and (iii) a Bhakra canal system for irrigation The Gandhi Sagar Dam is one of the four major dams built on India’s Chambal River. The dam is located in the state of Madhya Pradesh. It is a masonry gravity dam standing 62.17 meters high ⮚ The dam sports a total energy generation of about 564 GWh. The water released after power generation is used for the irrigation of 427,000 hectares by the Kota Barrage Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is a masonry dam across the Krishna River (not the Godavari River). The dam created a water reservoir with a gross storage capacity of 11.472 billion cubic meters. The dam is 590 feet tall from its deepest foundation and 0.99 miles long with 26 floodgates Question 19 of 35 19. Question Identify the river having the following characteristics: It is the largest west flowing river of Peninsular India. It drains in the Gulf of Khambhat into the Arabian Sea. Its valley is a depressed block of the Earth’s crust bordered by parallel faults. Which of the following rivers best describes the above characteristics? a) Narmada b) Son c) Johilla d) Tapi Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect The Narmada originates on the western flank of the Amarkantak plateau at a height of about 1,057 m.  It is the largest west-flowing river in Peninsular India.  Flowing in a rift valley between the Satpura in the south and the Vindhyan range in the north, it forms a picturesque gorge in marble rocks and the Dhuandhar waterfall near Jabalpur.  Its valley is a depressed block of the Earth’s crust bordered by parallel faults. After flowing a distance of about 1,312 km, it meets the Arabian sea south of Bharuch, forming a broad 27 km long estuary. Its catchment area is about 98,796 sq. km. The Sardar Sarovar Project has been constructed on this river The Son is a Larges south bank tributary of the Ganga, originating in the Amarkantak plateau. After forming a series of waterfalls at the edge of the plateau, it reaches Arrah, west of Patna, to join the Ganga. Johilla River  It is a tributary of River Son. Its source is near Amarkantak. Tapi River The Tapi is the other important westward-flowing river. It originates from Multai in the Betul district of Madhya Pradesh.  Nearly 79 percent of its basin lies in Maharashtra, 15 percent in Madhya Pradesh, and the remaining 6 percent in Gujarat.   Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect The Narmada originates on the western flank of the Amarkantak plateau at a height of about 1,057 m.  It is the largest west-flowing river in Peninsular India.  Flowing in a rift valley between the Satpura in the south and the Vindhyan range in the north, it forms a picturesque gorge in marble rocks and the Dhuandhar waterfall near Jabalpur.  Its valley is a depressed block of the Earth’s crust bordered by parallel faults. After flowing a distance of about 1,312 km, it meets the Arabian sea south of Bharuch, forming a broad 27 km long estuary. Its catchment area is about 98,796 sq. km. The Sardar Sarovar Project has been constructed on this river The Son is a Larges south bank tributary of the Ganga, originating in the Amarkantak plateau. After forming a series of waterfalls at the edge of the plateau, it reaches Arrah, west of Patna, to join the Ganga. Johilla River  It is a tributary of River Son. Its source is near Amarkantak. Tapi River The Tapi is the other important westward-flowing river. It originates from Multai in the Betul district of Madhya Pradesh.  Nearly 79 percent of its basin lies in Maharashtra, 15 percent in Madhya Pradesh, and the remaining 6 percent in Gujarat.   Question 20 of 35 20. Question Which of the following are west flowing rivers? Mahi Narmada Periyar Subarnarekha Select the correct answer using the code given below. a) 1 and 2 b) 1, 2 and 3 c) 2, 3 and 4 d) 1, 3 and 4 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Incorrect The Mahi is a river in western India. It rises in Madhya Pradesh and, after flowing through the Vagad region of Rajasthan, enters Gujarat and flows into the Arabian Sea. It is thus a west-flowing river. The Narmada River rises from the Amarkantak Plateau in Anuppur district Madhya Pradesh. It forms the traditional boundary between North India and South India and flows westwards over a length of before draining through the Gulf of Khambhat into the Arabian Sea Peryar origiantes from western ghats and flows into the Arabian Sea. Periyar is named the “Lifeline of Kerala” and is a west flowing river Subarnarekha is an east flowing river which drains into the Bay of Bengal.   Major Rivers of the Peninsular Region – Most of the major Peninsular rivers except Narmada and Tapi flow from west to east. The other major river systems of the Peninsular drainage are – the Mahanadi the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri; they all flow towards the east and fall into the Bay of Bengal. Small Rivers of the Peninsular Region – Flowing towards the west – Sabarmati, Mahi, Dhandhar, Kalindi, Sharavati, Bharathapuzha and Periyar. Flowing towards the east – The Subarnrekha, the Baitarni, the Brahmani, the Vamsadhara, the Penner, the Palar and the Vaigai are important east flowing small rivers Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Incorrect The Mahi is a river in western India. It rises in Madhya Pradesh and, after flowing through the Vagad region of Rajasthan, enters Gujarat and flows into the Arabian Sea. It is thus a west-flowing river. The Narmada River rises from the Amarkantak Plateau in Anuppur district Madhya Pradesh. It forms the traditional boundary between North India and South India and flows westwards over a length of before draining through the Gulf of Khambhat into the Arabian Sea Peryar origiantes from western ghats and flows into the Arabian Sea. Periyar is named the “Lifeline of Kerala” and is a west flowing river Subarnarekha is an east flowing river which drains into the Bay of Bengal.   Major Rivers of the Peninsular Region – Most of the major Peninsular rivers except Narmada and Tapi flow from west to east. The other major river systems of the Peninsular drainage are – the Mahanadi the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri; they all flow towards the east and fall into the Bay of Bengal. Small Rivers of the Peninsular Region – Flowing towards the west – Sabarmati, Mahi, Dhandhar, Kalindi, Sharavati, Bharathapuzha and Periyar. Flowing towards the east – The Subarnrekha, the Baitarni, the Brahmani, the Vamsadhara, the Penner, the Palar and the Vaigai are important east flowing small rivers Question 21 of 35 21. Question It is a sacred river of southern India. It rises on Brahmagiri Hill of the Western Ghats and descends the Eastern Ghats in a series of great falls and drains into the Bay of Bengal. Its tributaries are Arkavathi, Hemavathi, Lakshmana Theertha, Shimsa, Kabini, and Harangi. It is known as Ponni,  the Ganga of the south, and it is the fourth largest river in southern India. The above paragraph refers to which of the following rivers? a) River Krishna b) River Kaveri c) River Godavari d) River Mahanadi Correct Solution (b) River Kaveri is a sacred river of southern India. It rises on Brahmagiri Hill of the Western Ghats and descends the Eastern Ghats in a series of great falls and drains into the Bay of Bengal. Its tributaries are Arkavathi, Hemavathi, Lakshmana Theertha, Shimsa, Kabini, and Harangi. It is known as Ponni,  the Ganga of the south, and it is the fourth largest river in southern India. Hence option b is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) River Kaveri is a sacred river of southern India. It rises on Brahmagiri Hill of the Western Ghats and descends the Eastern Ghats in a series of great falls and drains into the Bay of Bengal. Its tributaries are Arkavathi, Hemavathi, Lakshmana Theertha, Shimsa, Kabini, and Harangi. It is known as Ponni,  the Ganga of the south, and it is the fourth largest river in southern India. Hence option b is correct. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Which of the following are part of the Climate Polycrisis? Rising temperatures Escalating sea-levels Increased extreme weather events How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) The Climate Polycrisis, a term highlighted by Adam Tooze, represents multiple, interconnected crises stemming from climate change, affecting numerous sectors globally and in India. This involves rising temperatures, escalating sea levels, and increased extreme weather events, which individually and collectively pose challenges across various domains. Various sectors like energy, infrastructure, health, migration, and food production in India are intricately linked and impacted by climate change, necessitating comprehensive and interconnected solutions. Addressing the polycrisis requires a holistic strategy that considers all physical impacts and the resulting socio-economic challenges, ensuring solutions are resilient, equitable, and just across all sectors. Hence option c is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) The Climate Polycrisis, a term highlighted by Adam Tooze, represents multiple, interconnected crises stemming from climate change, affecting numerous sectors globally and in India. This involves rising temperatures, escalating sea levels, and increased extreme weather events, which individually and collectively pose challenges across various domains. Various sectors like energy, infrastructure, health, migration, and food production in India are intricately linked and impacted by climate change, necessitating comprehensive and interconnected solutions. Addressing the polycrisis requires a holistic strategy that considers all physical impacts and the resulting socio-economic challenges, ensuring solutions are resilient, equitable, and just across all sectors. Hence option c is correct. Question 23 of 35 23. Question Consider the following statements about the International Coral Reef Initiative (ICRI) It was founded by Australia, France, Japan, Jamaica, the Philippines, Sweden, the United Kingdom, and the United States of America. It is a global partnership between nations and organizations that strives to preserve coral reefs and related ecosystems around the world. It was announced at the First Conference of the Parties of the Convention on Biological Diversity in December 1994. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) The International Coral Reef Initiative (ICRI) was founded by Australia, France, Japan, Jamaica, the Philippines, Sweden, the United Kingdom, and the United States of America. Hence statement 1 is correct. Now, it has 45 countries as its members including India. It is a global partnership between nations and organizations that strives to preserve coral reefs and related ecosystems around the world. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is an informal group whose decisions are not binding on its members. However, its actions have been pivotal in continuing to highlight globally the importance of coral reefs and related ecosystems to environmental sustainability, food security, and social and cultural well-being. It was announced at the First Conference of the Parties of the Convention on Biological Diversity in December 1994 and at the high-level segment of the Intersessional Meeting of the U.N. Commission on Sustainable Development in April 1995. Hence statement 3 is correct.  Note: The Coral Reef Breakthrough Initiative was launched by the International Coral Reef Initiative (ICRI) in partnership with the Global Fund for Coral Reefs(GFCR) and the High-Level Climate Champions(HLCC). It aims to secure the future of at least 125,000 km2 of shallow-water tropical coral reefs with investments of at least US$12 billion to support the resilience of more than half a billion people globally by 2030. Incorrect Solution (c) The International Coral Reef Initiative (ICRI) was founded by Australia, France, Japan, Jamaica, the Philippines, Sweden, the United Kingdom, and the United States of America. Hence statement 1 is correct. Now, it has 45 countries as its members including India. It is a global partnership between nations and organizations that strives to preserve coral reefs and related ecosystems around the world. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is an informal group whose decisions are not binding on its members. However, its actions have been pivotal in continuing to highlight globally the importance of coral reefs and related ecosystems to environmental sustainability, food security, and social and cultural well-being. It was announced at the First Conference of the Parties of the Convention on Biological Diversity in December 1994 and at the high-level segment of the Intersessional Meeting of the U.N. Commission on Sustainable Development in April 1995. Hence statement 3 is correct.  Note: The Coral Reef Breakthrough Initiative was launched by the International Coral Reef Initiative (ICRI) in partnership with the Global Fund for Coral Reefs(GFCR) and the High-Level Climate Champions(HLCC). It aims to secure the future of at least 125,000 km2 of shallow-water tropical coral reefs with investments of at least US$12 billion to support the resilience of more than half a billion people globally by 2030. Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements: The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) was established by the Coast Guard Act of 1978 as an independent armed force of India. The blueprint for a multidimensional Coast Guard was conceived by the visionary Rustamji Committee. The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) is the largest in the world and operates under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping, and Waterway. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) was established by the Coast Guard Act of 1978 as an independent armed force of India. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is headquartered in New Delhi. The blueprint for a multidimensional Coast Guard was conceived by the visionary Rustamji Committee. Hence statement 2 is correct. The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) is the fourth largest Coast Guard in the world and operates under the Department of Defence of the Union Ministry of Defence. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. For effective command and control, the Maritime Zones of India are divided into five Coast Guard Regions, namely, North-West, West, East, North-East and Andaman & Nicobar, with the respective Regional Headquarters located at Gandhinagar, Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata and Port Blair. Incorrect Solution (b) The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) was established by the Coast Guard Act of 1978 as an independent armed force of India. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is headquartered in New Delhi. The blueprint for a multidimensional Coast Guard was conceived by the visionary Rustamji Committee. Hence statement 2 is correct. The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) is the fourth largest Coast Guard in the world and operates under the Department of Defence of the Union Ministry of Defence. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. For effective command and control, the Maritime Zones of India are divided into five Coast Guard Regions, namely, North-West, West, East, North-East and Andaman & Nicobar, with the respective Regional Headquarters located at Gandhinagar, Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata and Port Blair. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements: The National Turmeric Board shall have a Chairperson to be appointed by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. India is the largest producer, consumer, and exporter of turmeric in the world. The leading export markets for Indian Turmeric are Bangladesh, UAE, USA, and Malaysia. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The National Turmeric Board shall have a Chairperson to be appointed by the Central Government. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It aims to focus on the development and growth of turmeric and turmeric products in the country. It will have members from the Ministry of AYUSH, Departments of Pharmaceuticals, Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, Commerce & Industry of the Union Government, senior State Government representatives from three states (on a rotation basis), select national/state institutions involved in research, representatives of turmeric farmers and exporters. India is the largest producer, consumer, and exporter of turmeric in the world. Hence statement 2 is correct. More than 30 varieties of Turmeric are grown in India and it is grown in over 20 states in the country. The largest producing states of Turmeric are Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu. The leading export markets for Indian Turmeric are Bangladesh, UAE, USA, and Malaysia. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) The National Turmeric Board shall have a Chairperson to be appointed by the Central Government. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It aims to focus on the development and growth of turmeric and turmeric products in the country. It will have members from the Ministry of AYUSH, Departments of Pharmaceuticals, Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, Commerce & Industry of the Union Government, senior State Government representatives from three states (on a rotation basis), select national/state institutions involved in research, representatives of turmeric farmers and exporters. India is the largest producer, consumer, and exporter of turmeric in the world. Hence statement 2 is correct. More than 30 varieties of Turmeric are grown in India and it is grown in over 20 states in the country. The largest producing states of Turmeric are Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu. The leading export markets for Indian Turmeric are Bangladesh, UAE, USA, and Malaysia. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 26 of 35 26. Question Consider the following statements about the India-Japan Fund (IJF) It is the first bi-lateral fund of the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF). It will focus on investing in environmental sustainability and low-carbon emission strategies. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) The India-Japan Fund (IJF) is the first bilateral fund of the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF). Hence statement 1 is correct. It was launched by the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) in collaboration with the Japan Bank for International Cooperation(JBIC). It is managed by  NIIF Limited (NIIFL) and JBIC IG (a subsidiary of JBIC). The Government of India (GoI) will contribute 49% of the target corpus and the remaining 51% will be contributed by JBIC. It will focus on investing in environmental sustainability and low-carbon emission strategies. Hence statement 2 is correct. It aims to play the role of being a ‘partner of choice’ to further enhance Japanese investments in India. Incorrect Solution (c) The India-Japan Fund (IJF) is the first bilateral fund of the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF). Hence statement 1 is correct. It was launched by the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) in collaboration with the Japan Bank for International Cooperation(JBIC). It is managed by  NIIF Limited (NIIFL) and JBIC IG (a subsidiary of JBIC). The Government of India (GoI) will contribute 49% of the target corpus and the remaining 51% will be contributed by JBIC. It will focus on investing in environmental sustainability and low-carbon emission strategies. Hence statement 2 is correct. It aims to play the role of being a ‘partner of choice’ to further enhance Japanese investments in India. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Which of the following are the applications of Quantum Dots? It can be used as a security marker on currency and documents to prevent counterfeiting. It helps in targeted drug delivery for certain cancer treatments and nanomedicine. It serve as bright fluorescent markers for tagging and tracking various objects. It helps to improve the efficiency of solar panels by helping them absorb and convert sunlight into electricity. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) Quantum dots are particles that are a few nanometres wide. They exhibit unique optical properties due to their small physical size. The applications of Quantum Dots: It can be used as a security marker on currency and documents to prevent counterfeiting. Hence statement 1 is correct. It helps in targeted drug delivery for certain cancer treatments and nanomedicine. Hence statement 2 is correct. It serve as bright fluorescent markers for tagging and tracking various objects. Hence statement 3 is correct. It helps to improve the efficiency of solar panels by helping them absorb and convert sunlight into electricity. Hence statement 4 is correct. It can be explored as potential qubits or quantum bits for use in quantum computing due to their quantum mechanical properties. It makes computer monitors and TV screens more colourful and brighter. Note: The 2023 Nobel Prize in chemistry was awarded to Moungi G. Bawendi, Louis E. Brus, and Alexei I. Ekimov for the discovery and synthesis of quantum dots. Incorrect Solution (d) Quantum dots are particles that are a few nanometres wide. They exhibit unique optical properties due to their small physical size. The applications of Quantum Dots: It can be used as a security marker on currency and documents to prevent counterfeiting. Hence statement 1 is correct. It helps in targeted drug delivery for certain cancer treatments and nanomedicine. Hence statement 2 is correct. It serve as bright fluorescent markers for tagging and tracking various objects. Hence statement 3 is correct. It helps to improve the efficiency of solar panels by helping them absorb and convert sunlight into electricity. Hence statement 4 is correct. It can be explored as potential qubits or quantum bits for use in quantum computing due to their quantum mechanical properties. It makes computer monitors and TV screens more colourful and brighter. Note: The 2023 Nobel Prize in chemistry was awarded to Moungi G. Bawendi, Louis E. Brus, and Alexei I. Ekimov for the discovery and synthesis of quantum dots. Question 28 of 35 28. Question In which of the following country Mission Operation Cactus was led by the Indian Armed Forces in 1988? a) Bangladesh b) Maldives c) Sri Lanka d) Nepal Correct Solution (b) Mission Operation Cactus was led by the Indian Armed Forces in 1988 in Maldives. It was a successful mission to prevent a coup attempt which was against the Maldivian Government headed by President Abdul Gayoom. Hence option b is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) Mission Operation Cactus was led by the Indian Armed Forces in 1988 in Maldives. It was a successful mission to prevent a coup attempt which was against the Maldivian Government headed by President Abdul Gayoom. Hence option b is correct. Question 29 of 35 29. Question Which of the following has got geographical indication from Jammu and Kashmir? Basohli Pashmina Kinnaur Shawl Kalari Choose the correct code: a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The GI tags in the Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir: Geographical Indications Category Gucchi mushroom Agriculture Kani shawl Handicraft Kashmiri hand-knotted carpet Handicraft Kashmir paper mache Handicraft Kashmir Pashmina Handicraft Kashmir sozani craft Handicraft Kashmir walnut wood carving Handicraft Kashmir saffron Agriculture Khatamband Handicraft Note: Recently, ​​Basohli Pashmina and Kalari were given the GI tag from Jammu and Kashmir. Basohli Pashmina is a more than 100-year-old traditional craft from Jammu and Kashmir’s Kathua district. It is a hand-spun product known for extreme softness, fineness, and lightweightness. Kalari is a Dogra cuisine. The dish finds its origin in Udhampur district, J&K. It is made from milk and is a dense cheese. It’s cooked in its fat, salted, and served hot with bun slices. Kinnaur Shawl belongs to the State of Himachal Pradesh Hence option b is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) The GI tags in the Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir: Geographical Indications Category Gucchi mushroom Agriculture Kani shawl Handicraft Kashmiri hand-knotted carpet Handicraft Kashmir paper mache Handicraft Kashmir Pashmina Handicraft Kashmir sozani craft Handicraft Kashmir walnut wood carving Handicraft Kashmir saffron Agriculture Khatamband Handicraft Note: Recently, ​​Basohli Pashmina and Kalari were given the GI tag from Jammu and Kashmir. Basohli Pashmina is a more than 100-year-old traditional craft from Jammu and Kashmir’s Kathua district. It is a hand-spun product known for extreme softness, fineness, and lightweightness. Kalari is a Dogra cuisine. The dish finds its origin in Udhampur district, J&K. It is made from milk and is a dense cheese. It’s cooked in its fat, salted, and served hot with bun slices. Kinnaur Shawl belongs to the State of Himachal Pradesh Hence option b is correct. Question 30 of 35 30. Question Consider the following statements about Bekal Fort It appears to emerge from the sea and is the largest fort in Karnataka. It was built in the 17th century by Shivappa Nayaka of the Keladi dynasty. In the fort, the water tank and steps leading to an observation tower built by Tipu Sultan. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Bekal Fort appears to emerge from the sea and is the largest fort in Kerala. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The fort’s solid construction resembles the Thalassery Fort and the St. Angelo Fort at Kannur built by the Dutch. It was built in the 17th century by Shivappa Nayaka of the Keladi dynasty. Hence statement 2 is correct. The fort has seen the rise and fall of several dynasties and later came under the control of the Kingdom of Mysore. In the fort, the water tank and steps leading to an observation tower built by Tipu Sultan. Hence statement 3 is correct. The fort’s zigzag entrance and surrounding trenches reveal its defensive strategy. Holes on the outer walls are designed to defend the fort effectively from naval attacks. The upper holes are meant for aiming at the farthest targets; the lower holes below are for striking as enemy nearer and the lowest holes to attacking the enemy closest to the fort. Incorrect Solution (b) Bekal Fort appears to emerge from the sea and is the largest fort in Kerala. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The fort’s solid construction resembles the Thalassery Fort and the St. Angelo Fort at Kannur built by the Dutch. It was built in the 17th century by Shivappa Nayaka of the Keladi dynasty. Hence statement 2 is correct. The fort has seen the rise and fall of several dynasties and later came under the control of the Kingdom of Mysore. In the fort, the water tank and steps leading to an observation tower built by Tipu Sultan. Hence statement 3 is correct. The fort’s zigzag entrance and surrounding trenches reveal its defensive strategy. Holes on the outer walls are designed to defend the fort effectively from naval attacks. The upper holes are meant for aiming at the farthest targets; the lower holes below are for striking as enemy nearer and the lowest holes to attacking the enemy closest to the fort. Question 31 of 35 31. Question A person walks a certain distance and rides back in 61⁄2 hours. If he walks both ways, the time taken is 7(3⁄4) hours. How long would it take if he rides both ways? a) 5 hrs 20 minutes b) 5 hrs 15 minutes c) 6 hours d) 4 hours 20 minutes Correct Solution (b) = W + R = 13/2 ……. (i) = W + W = 31/4 ……. (ii) = 2W = 31/4 or W = 31/8 Putting W = 31/8 in equation (i) above 31/8 + R = 13/2 R = 13/2 – 31/8 = (52 – 31)/8 = 21/8 Therefore, 2 R = 2 ×21/8 = 21/4 = 51⁄4 hours = 5 hours 15 minutes Incorrect Solution (b) = W + R = 13/2 ……. (i) = W + W = 31/4 ……. (ii) = 2W = 31/4 or W = 31/8 Putting W = 31/8 in equation (i) above 31/8 + R = 13/2 R = 13/2 – 31/8 = (52 – 31)/8 = 21/8 Therefore, 2 R = 2 ×21/8 = 21/4 = 51⁄4 hours = 5 hours 15 minutes Question 32 of 35 32. Question In a test, 3 marks are given for each correct answer and 2 marks are cut for each wrong answer. In that test of 50 questions, a student got 60 marks. How many questions did he solve correctly? a) 26 b) 18 c) 32 d) 39 Correct Solution (c) Let the number of correct questions be ‘x’ Then, wrong questions is “(50-x)” Therefore, 3x – 2 (50-x) = 60 3x – 100 + 2x = 60 => 5x = 160 => x = 32 Incorrect Solution (c) Let the number of correct questions be ‘x’ Then, wrong questions is “(50-x)” Therefore, 3x – 2 (50-x) = 60 3x – 100 + 2x = 60 => 5x = 160 => x = 32 Question 33 of 35 33. Question In a group of persons, 60% of the persons are male and 40% of the persons are married. If two-fifth of the males are married, what fraction of the females is single? a) 2/5 b) 3/5 c) 4/5 d) 3/8 Correct Solution (b) Let the no. of total persons = 100 Number of male = 60 ∴ No. of female = 100 – 60 = 40 ∴ Total married male = (2/5) * 60 = 24 ∴ Married female = 40 – 24 = 16 Now, unmarried female = 40 – 16 = 24 ∴ Required fraction = 24/40 = 3/5   Incorrect Solution (b) Let the no. of total persons = 100 Number of male = 60 ∴ No. of female = 100 – 60 = 40 ∴ Total married male = (2/5) * 60 = 24 ∴ Married female = 40 – 24 = 16 Now, unmarried female = 40 – 16 = 24 ∴ Required fraction = 24/40 = 3/5   Question 34 of 35 34. Question The least number which must be added to the greatest number of 4 digits in order that the sum may be exactly divisible by 307 is a) 32 b) 43 c) 175 d) 132 Correct Solution (d) On dividing 9999 by 307, we get remainder 175. Therefore, least number which must be added to 9999 to get a number perfectly divisible by 307 = 307 – 175 = 132.   Incorrect Solution (d) On dividing 9999 by 307, we get remainder 175. Therefore, least number which must be added to 9999 to get a number perfectly divisible by 307 = 307 – 175 = 132.   Question 35 of 35 35. Question The average height of 40 students is 163 cm. On a particular day three students A, B, C were absent and the average of the remaining 37 students was found to be 162 cm. If A, B have equal heights and the height of C be 2 cm less than that of A, find the height of A? a) 175 cm b) 172 cm c) 176 cm d) 174 cm Correct Solution (c) Total height of 40 students = 40 x 163 = 6520 Total height of 37 students = 37 x 162 = 5994 Therefore, Height of three students A, B and C =6520 – 5994 = 526 Let the height of A & B individually be = x Therefore, Height of C = x – 2 x+x+x-2 = 526 3x = 528 x = 528/3 = 176 cm   Incorrect Solution (c) Total height of 40 students = 40 x 163 = 6520 Total height of 37 students = 37 x 162 = 5994 Therefore, Height of three students A, B and C =6520 – 5994 = 526 Let the height of A & B individually be = x Therefore, Height of C = x – 2 x+x+x-2 = 526 3x = 528 x = 528/3 = 176 cm   window.wpProQuizInitList = window.wpProQuizInitList || []; window.wpProQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpProQuiz_3567', init: { quizId: 3567, mode: 1, globalPoints: 70, timelimit: 1800, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 704, qpp: 0, catPoints: [70], formPos: 0, lbn: "Test-summary", json: {"30886":{"type":"single","id":30886,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30888":{"type":"single","id":30888,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30891":{"type":"single","id":30891,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30892":{"type":"single","id":30892,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30893":{"type":"single","id":30893,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30896":{"type":"single","id":30896,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30898":{"type":"single","id":30898,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30900":{"type":"single","id":30900,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30902":{"type":"single","id":30902,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30903":{"type":"single","id":30903,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30906":{"type":"single","id":30906,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30907":{"type":"single","id":30907,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30908":{"type":"single","id":30908,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30909":{"type":"single","id":30909,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30910":{"type":"single","id":30910,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30911":{"type":"single","id":30911,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30912":{"type":"single","id":30912,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30913":{"type":"single","id":30913,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30916":{"type":"single","id":30916,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30917":{"type":"single","id":30917,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30919":{"type":"single","id":30919,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30922":{"type":"single","id":30922,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30924":{"type":"single","id":30924,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30927":{"type":"single","id":30927,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30929":{"type":"single","id":30929,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30931":{"type":"single","id":30931,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30933":{"type":"single","id":30933,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30936":{"type":"single","id":30936,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30939":{"type":"single","id":30939,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30941":{"type":"single","id":30941,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30944":{"type":"single","id":30944,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30947":{"type":"single","id":30947,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30949":{"type":"single","id":30949,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30950":{"type":"single","id":30950,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30951":{"type":"single","id":30951,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]}} } }); All the Best IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 25th March 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   E V Ramaswamy Naicker or Periyar Syllabus Prelims & Mains – History Context: Tamil Nadu Chief Minister M K Stalin has voiced his backing for Carnatic vocalist T M Krishna in the midst of a debate surrounding the conferral of the Sangita Kalanidhi title by the Music Academy, Madras. The matter has attracted political and societal interest, particularly regarding critiques of the social reformer Periyar. Background:- Over the years, Periyar has transcended the political divide as well as the faultlines of religion and caste, and come to be revered as Thanthai Periyar, the father figure of modern Tamil Nadu. About Periyar Born in 1879, Periyar is remembered for the Self Respect Movement aimed at achieving social equality for those oppressed by the caste system. Periyar started his political career as a Congress worker. He quarrelled with Gandhi over the question of separate dining for Brahmin and non-Brahmin students at Gurukkulam, a Congress-sponsored school owned by nationalist leader V V S Iyer in Cheranmahadevi near Tirunelveli. At the request of parents, Iyer had provided separate dining for Brahmin students, which Periyar opposed. Gandhi proposed a compromise, arguing that while it may not be a sin for a person not to dine with another, he would rather respect their scruples. After failing to bend the Congress to his view, Periyar resigned from the party in 1925, and associated himself with the Justice Party and the Self Respect Movement, which opposed the dominance of Brahmins in social life, especially the bureaucracy. The Justice Party had a decade earlier advocated reservation for non-Brahmins in the bureaucracy and, after coming to power in the Madras Presidency, issued an order to implement it. The Self Respect Movement he led promoted weddings without rituals, and sanctioned property as well as divorce rights for women. He appealed to people to give up the caste suffix in their names, and to not mention caste. He instituted inter-dining with food cooked by Dalits in public conferences in the 1930s. Periyar’s fame spread beyond the Tamil region during the Vaikom Satyagraha of 1924, a mass movement to demand that lower caste persons be given the right to use a public path in front of the famous Vaikom temple. Periyar took part in the agitation with his wife, and was arrested twice. He would later be referred to as Vaikom Veerar (Hero of Vaikom). He reconstructed the Tamil identity as an egalitarian ideal that was originally unpolluted by the caste system.He argued that caste was imported to the Tamil region. Under him, the Dravidian Movement became a struggle against caste and an assertion of Tamil national identity. In the 1940s, Periyar launched Dravidar Kazhagam, which espoused an independent Dravida Nadu comprising Tamil, Malayalam, Telugu, and Kannada speakers. For the average Tamil, Periyar today is an ideology. He stands for a politics that foregrounded social equality, self-respect, and linguistic pride. As a social reformer, he focused on social, cultural and gender inequalities, and his reform agenda questioned matters of faith, gender and tradition. He asked people to be rational in their life choices. Source: Indian Express GIBRALTAR ARC Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: A modelling study suggests that a dormant subduction zone beneath the Gibraltar Strait (Gibraltar Arc) could become active and migrate into the Atlantic Ocean, potentially forming an Atlantic “Ring of Fire” in about 20 million years. Background: The Gibraltar arc’s potential awakening could significantly impact the configuration of the Atlantic Ocean over millions of years. About GIBRALTAR ARC: The Gibraltar Arc, also known as the Gibraltar Subduction Zone, is a geological formation located beneath the Gibraltar Strait. The Strait of Gibraltar is a narrow passage connecting the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea. It serves as a natural boundary between Europe and Africa. This region marks the meeting point of two tectonic plates: the Eurasian Plate and the African Plate. The African Plate is currently subducting beneath the Eurasian Plate in this area. Subduction occurs when one tectonic plate slides beneath another, leading to seismic activity, volcanic eruptions, and the formation of mountain ranges. The Gibraltar Arc represents a dynamic boundary where these immense forces shape the Earth’s crust. Other Subduction Zones in Atlantic region is Lesser Antilles Arc in the Caribbean and Scotia Arc near Antarctica. Source: Live Science Income and Wealth Inequality Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Context: In 2022, the top 0.1 per cent in India earned nearly 10 per cent of the national income, while the top 0.01 per cent earned 4.3 per cent share of the national income and top 0.001 per cent earned 2.1 per cent of the national income, according to a paper released by World Inequality Lab Background: Co-authored by economists Nitin Kumar Bharti, Lucas Chancel, Thomas Piketty, and Anmol Somanchi, the paper stated that the “Billionaire Raj” headed by “India’s modern bourgeoisie” is now more unequal than the British Raj headed by the colonialist forces. Key findings of the report: Inequality declined post-independence till the early 1980s, after which it began rising and has skyrocketed since the early 2000s. Between 2014-15 and 2022-23, the rise of top-end inequality has been particularly pronounced in terms of wealth concentration. By 2022-23, top 1 per cent income and wealth shares (22.6 per cent and 40.1 per cent) are at their highest historical levels and India’s top 1 per cent income share is among the very highest in the world, higher than even South Africa, Brazil and US. Wealth is highly concentrated even within the top 1 per cent. In 2022-23, the top 1 per cent wealth share was 39.5 per cent, 29 percentage points went just to the top 0.1 per cent, 22 percentage points to just the top 0.01 per cent and 16 percentage points to just the top 0.001 per cent. The sharp rise in top 10 per cent shares from 1991 onwards came at the loss of both bottom 50 per cent and middle 40 per cent shares. From stagnating at 11 per cent during 1961-1981, bottom 50 per cent shares first fell to 8.8 per cent in 1991 and further to 6.9 per cent by 2002. After which, they have hovered between 6-7 per cent over the next two decades with no signs of recovery. In 1961, bottom 50 per cent and top 1 per cent shares were identical; by 2022-23, the top 1 per cent share was more than 5 times larger. The paper finds suggestive evidence that the Indian income tax system might be regressive when viewed from the lens of net wealth. A restructuring of the tax code to account for both income and wealth, and broad-based public investments in health, education and nutrition are needed to enable the average Indian, and not just the elites, to meaningfully benefit from the ongoing wave of globalisation. A “super tax” of 2 per cent on the net wealth of the 167 wealthiest families in 2022-23 would yield 0.5 per cent of national income in revenues and create valuable fiscal space to facilitate such investments. The quality of economic data in India is notably poor and has seen a decline recently. It is therefore likely that these new estimates represent a lower bound to actual inequality levels. Source: Indian Express GLOBAL E-WASTE MONITOR (GEM) 2024 REPORT Syllabus Prelims & Mains -Environment Context: The Fourth Global E-waste Monitor (GEM) 2024 was recently released. Background: The report providing crucial insights into the global electronic waste crisis. About E- Waste: E-waste, short for Electronic Waste, refers to old, end-of-life, or discarded electronic appliances. It encompasses a wide range of electrical and electronic devices, including their components, consumables, parts, and spares. E-waste poses environmental and health risks if not appropriately treated, disposed of, and recycled. The 2024 Global E-waste Monitor (GEM) was prepared by the UN’s International Telecommunication Union (ITU) and the UN Institute for Training and Research (UNITAR). Key Highlights of the Global E-waste Monitor 2024 E-waste Generation Trends: Between 2010 and 2022, global e-waste generation surged from 34 billion kilograms to 62 billion kilograms. This upward trend is expected to continue, reaching an estimated 82 billion kilograms by 2030. Unfortunately, only 13.8 billion kilograms of this e-waste were formally collected and recycled in an environmentally sound manner. Factors contribute to the increase in e-waste Technological Progress: Rapid advancements lead to shorter product lifecycles. Higher Consumption Rates: Our reliance on electronic devices continues to grow. Limited Repair Options: Many devices are designed for obsolescence. Growing Electronification: More aspects of our lives become digital. Inadequate E-waste Management Infrastructure: Insufficient systems for proper disposal and recycling. Informal Recycling Sector: The informal sector handles a significant portion of e-waste globally. This holds true for both high- and upper-middle-income countries as well as low- and lower-middle-income countries. The lack of formal e-waste management infrastructure drives reliance on informal channels. Regional Disparities: Europe leads in documented formal collection and recycling of e-waste, with a rate of 42.8%. In contrast, Africa faces challenges, with a recycling rate of less than 1%, despite generating lower amounts of e-waste. Asia, including India, generates a significant portion of global e-waste but has made limited advances in e-waste management. Countries in Asia generate almost half of the world’s e-waste (30 bn kg) but relatively few of them have enacted legislation or established clear e-waste collection targets. Policy Adoption: 81 countries have adopted e-waste policy, legislation or regulation. Sixty-seven countries have legal provisions on Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) for e-waste. Another 46 have provisions on e-waste collection rate targets. Finally, 36 countries have provisions on e-waste recycling rate targets. Source: Business Standard Previous Year Question Q1. Due to improper/indiscriminate disposal of old and used computers or their parts, which of the following are released into the environment as e-waste? Beryllium Cadmium Chromium Heptachlor Mercury Lead Plutonium Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only 2, 4, 5 and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 OPERATION INDRAVATI Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: India has recently launched ‘Operation Indravati’. Background: India’s Operation Indravati is a commendable effort to ensure the safety and well-being of its citizens in the midst of the crisis in Haiti. About OPERATION INDRAVATI: Operation Indravati is an initiative launched by India to evacuate its citizens from Haiti amidst the country’s turmoil. The operation is named after the Indravati River in India. The aim of this operation is to transfer Indians to the neighbouring Dominican Republic due to escalating violence and chaos in Haiti. Haiti Haiti, a Caribbean country sharing the island of Hispaniola with the Dominican Republic, has been grappling with widespread gang violence and political instability. This crisis in Haiti has been ongoing since the assassination of President Jovenel Moise in July 2021. The power vacuum that followed led to the assumption of power by Prime Minister Ariel Henry, who has been supported by several nations. However, attempts to establish a political transition have failed, and various armed groups have launched coordinated attacks on key installations in an effort to force Henry’s resignation. Source: The Hindu Bilateral Investment Treaties (BITs) Syllabus Mains – GS 2 Context: India is negotiating BITs with trade partners to boost the inflow of foreign direct investments (FDI). Background: Before 2015, India had BITs with 83 countries or regions but India suspended BITs with 68 countries/regions with a request to re-negotiate based on the model 2016 BIT. Six BITs are still in force. The suspension was triggered by several high profile defeats in investor-state disputes. About Bilateral Investment Treaties (BITs): They are reciprocal agreements between two countries to promote and protect foreign private investments in each other’s territories. India had signed BITs with 83 countries of which 74 were in force till 2015. India revised its Model BIT in 2016. Since 2015, India has signed new BITs only with four countries is negotiating with 37 countries, and terminated its older BITs with 77 countries. Key features of Model BIT 2016: “Enterprise” based definition of investment means an enterprise that has been constituted, organised, and operated in good faith by an investor in accordance with the domestic laws of the country. Non-discriminatory treatment through due process as each party shall accord full protection and security to the investments and investors. National treatment and protections against expropriation as neither party may nationalize or expropriate an investment of an investor directly or through measures having an effect equivalent to expropriation. A foreign investor should first exhaust local remedies at least for a period of five years before going for the Investor-State Dispute Settlement (ISDS) mechanism. Existing issues/concerns with Model BIT: Experts suggest that India brought in Model BIT 2016 in reaction to a series of notices that India received. It has too many exceptions which limit the liability of the host state and raise the bar required to bring a claim under the BIT. The Arbitration Mechanism is considered to be the most contentious issue which insists on the investor exhausting the domestic remedies for at least five years before commencing arbitration under the BIT. Enterprise-based definition of investment narrows down the definition of investment. Moreover, it is considered to have vague qualifications such as “certain duration” and “significance for the development of the party in whose territory the investment is made.” Omission of “fair and equitable treatment” standard. It has been replaced with protections that require steep thresholds to be triggered and/or invoked. Moreover, the doctrines of Most-Favoured Nation and “legitimate expectation” are also absent. Exemption of taxation measures from the protections offered under BIT seems to be a restatement of sovereignty rather than a treaty meant to protect cross-border commercial transactions. Lack of professionals as India does not have a sufficient number of lawyers/judges with the requisite expertise and experience. Thus, huge fees are paid to foreign law firms that represent India in investment arbitration. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) India launched Operation Indravati to evacuate its citizens stranded in Ukraine Israel Haiti Sudan Q2.) With reference to E- waste generation, consider the following: Technological progress Higher consumption rates Limited repair options Growing electronification Inadequate e-waste management infrastructure How many of the above are the factors contribute to the increase in E-waste? Only two Only three Only four All five Q3.) Consider the following Subduction Zones: Gibraltar Arc Lesser Antilles Arc Scotia Arc How many of the above are located in Atlantic region? Only one Only two All three None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  25th March  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  22nd March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – c