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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 18th March 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Democratic Republic of the Congo Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Over the past few weeks, many have died and hundreds of thousands displaced after the fighting between the Congolese army and Rwandan-backed M23 rebel group escalated. Background:- The growing tensions between Congo and Rwanda, which has been accused of supporting the rebels, have not only increased the risk of an all-out conflict but also pose a threat to food security for millions. About Democratic Republic of the Congo The Democratic Republic of the Congo is a country in Central Africa. By land area, the DRC is the second-largest country in Africa.The country has a 25-mile (40-km) coastline on the Atlantic Ocean but is otherwise landlocked. It is named after the Congo River, which flows through the country.The national capital and largest city is Kinshasa. The country is often referred to by its acronym, the DRC, or called Congo (Kinshasa), with the capital added parenthetically, to distinguish it from the other Congo republic, which is officially called the Republic of the Congo and is often referred to as Congo (Brazzaville). The country is bordered by the Republic of the Congo, Central African Republic, South Sudan, Uganda, Rwanda, Burundi, Tanzania (across Lake Tanganyika), Zambia, Angola and the South Atlantic Ocean. The Democratic Republic of the Congo is extremely rich in natural resources (It boasts vast deposits of industrial diamonds, cobalt, and copper) but has suffered from political instability, lack of infrastructure, corruption, and centuries of both commercial and colonial extraction and exploitation. Congo River The Congo River , formerly also known as the Zaire River, is the second-longest river in Africa, shorter only than the Nile, as well as the third-largest river in the world by discharge volume, following the Amazon and Ganges rivers. It is the world’s deepest recorded river, with measured depths of around 220 m. It is the only major river to cross the Equator twice. The river and its tributaries flow through the Congo rainforest, the second largest rainforest area in the world.It drains into the Atlantic Ocean. Source: The Hindu Ethanol 100 or E100 Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Shri Hardeep Singh Puri, Union Minister for Petroleum & Natural Gas and Housing and Urban Affairs, launched ‘ETHANOL 100. Background: ETHANOL 100 fuel has the potential to transform our transportation sector and reduce our dependence on fossil fuels. About Ethanol 100 OR E100: Contrary to popular belief, E100 fuel is not 100 percent ethanol. In accordance with specifications, E100 fuel includes 93-93.5 percent ethanol blended with 5 percent petrol and 1.5 percent co-solvent, which is a binder. Currently, E100 is priced the same as petrol — Rs 94.72/litre in Delhi, Rs 104.21/litre in Maharashtra and Rs 100.75/litre in Chennai. However, with wider adoption of the fuel, E100 will definitely be cheaper than petrol or diesel since ethanol is cheaper. In addition, the government’s keenness to provide a fillip to biofuels which help in crude oil import substitution is also likely to make it competitive in comparison to the conventional fuels. Ethanol is made from agricultural feedstock, which also provides income to farmers, making them a stakeholder in decarbonisation of the economy. E100 can be used as fuel in any flex fuel engine car. A flex fuel engine car is designed to run on a variety of fuels. It comes equipped with an internal combustion engine (ICE) which can run on petrol or ethanol or methanol, giving consumers choice at the point of sale of the fuel. ETHANOL 100 stands as a cleaner, greener alternative, boasting lower emissions of greenhouse gases and pollutants, thus aiding in combating climate change and enhancing air quality. With its high-octane rating, typically between 100-105, ETHANOL100 proves ideal for high-performance engines, ensuring improved efficiency and power output all while minimizing environmental impact. Source: PSU WATCH FLUORIDE CONTAMINATION Syllabus Prelims- Environment Context: Recently, Fluoride contamination was detected in three districts of Kerala. Background: According to the State Environment department, the source of contamination is likely geogenic, meaning these constituents are naturally present in the rock or soil matrix and enter groundwater through various chemical processes. About FLUORIDE CONTAMINATION Fluoride contamination in water is a critical issue worldwide. While fluoride is essential for dental health at low concentrations, excessive exposure can lead to health problems. Key Points: Essential Element: Fluoride is naturally present in water and certain foods. It plays a crucial role in preventing tooth decay. Threshold: However, when fluoride levels exceed 1.5 mg/L, it becomes toxic to humans. According to the Bureau of Indian Standards, the maximum permissible limit of arsenic in groundwater meant for drinking is 0.01 mg/l, while the corresponding limit of fluoride is 1.0 mg/l, which can be extended to 1.5 mg/l in case no alternative source of water is available. Health Impacts: Dental Fluorosis: Excessive fluoride causes dental fluorosis, characterized by staining, pitting, and weakening of tooth enamel. Skeletal Fluorosis: Chronic exposure leads to skeletal fluorosis, affecting bones and joints. Neurological Effects: High fluoride levels may impact the nervous system. Sources of Contamination: Geochemical Reactions: Fluoride leaches from rocks and soil into groundwater. Geological Factors: High fluoride content in specific geological formations. Anthropogenic Factors: Industrial processes, fertilizers, and mining contribute to contamination. Preventive Measures: Water Treatment: Implementing effective water treatment methods to reduce fluoride levels. Monitoring: Regular monitoring of fluoride content in drinking water. Awareness: Educating communities about safe water practices. Alternative Sources: Providing alternative water sources in affected areas. Endemic Areas: Certain regions are endemic for fluorosis due to natural geological factors. Balancing Act: Balancing the benefits of fluoride for dental health with the risks of toxicity is crucial. Other Pollutants that Affect Water Quality: Arsenic reaches groundwater through industrial and mining discharges, as well as fly ash ponds from thermal power plants. Chronic exposure to arsenic-contaminated water may lead to diseases such as black foot disease, diarrhea, lung cancer, and skin cancer. Certain regions in India have localized occurrences of elevated uranium concentrations in groundwater. Other elements that act as water pollutants include mercury (causing Minamata disease), cadmium (associated with Itai-Itai disease and nephritis), chromium (linked to lung cancer and reduced photosynthetic activities in plants), copper (causing various health issues), zinc, and lead (associated with anaemia, mental retardation, and other health problems). Source: The Hindu Previous Year Question Q1. Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India? Arsenic Sorbitol Fluoride Formaldehyde Uranium Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 1 and 3 only 2, 4 and 5 only 1, 3 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 DARIEN GAP Syllabus Prelims :Geography Context: The Darien Gap, a dense jungle spanning northern Colombia and southern Panama, has become a perilous route for migrants seeking asylum in the US. Background The The challenging topography of humid, swampy rainforest as well as criminal gangs who control the area, make the route an extremely challenging and deadly one. About Darien Gap The Darién Gap, also known as the “Tapón del Darién” in Spanish, is a geographic region in the Isthmus of Darién connecting the American continents within Central America. It consists of a large watershed, dense forest, and mountains in Panama’s Darién Province and the northern part of Colombia’s Chocó Department. The Darién Gap is the only overland path connecting Central and South America. Migrants, primarily Haitians and Venezuelans, hike through the dense jungle to reach the US border. Key features of the Darién Gap include: Population: The Darién Gap is home to the Embera-Wounaan and Guna people and was also home to the Cueva people who became extinct by 1535, following the Spanish invasion of Panama. Geography: The geography of the Darién Gap on the Colombian side is dominated primarily by the river delta of the Atrato River, which creates a flat marshland at least 80 km (50 mi) wide. The Panamanian side, in stark contrast, is a mountainous rainforest. Roads: There is no road, not even a primitive one, across the Darién. The “Gap” interrupts the Pan-American Highway. Source: Down To Earth T+0 SETTLEMENT Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Recently, SEBI approve launch of beta version of T+0 settlement from March 28. Background: At present, the Indian securities markets operate on a T+1 settlement cycle. The move aimed at increasing liquidity in the market. About T+0 SETTLEMENT The T+0 settlement refers to the process of settling trades on the very day they are executed, eliminating the traditional waiting period associated with T+1, T+2, or T+3 settlements. It’s akin to receiving an item immediately after purchasing it online. In this new settlement cycle, investors selling their stocks will receive money on the same day of the sale, rather than the current T+1 process where trades are settled on the next trading day. SEBI had shortened the settlement cycle to T+3 from T+5 in 2002 and subsequently to T+2 in 2003. It introduced T+1 in 2021 and implemented in phases, with the final phase completed in January 2023. ThE move to introduce T+0 aims to increase liquidity in the market and provide an alternative alongside the existing T+1 settlement cycle. The Board will review progress after three and six months from the implementation date and consider shareholder feedback. Source: Money Control Konark Sun Temple Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Art & Culture Context: The Union government led by Prime Minister Narendra Modi has approved a new 32 kilometre railway line connecting the temple towns of Puri and Konark that are famous for the Shree Jagannath Temple and Sun Temple, respectively. Background: Union Railway Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw said the new railway stretch will be developed into a spiritual and heritage tourism corridor. About Konark Sun Temple: It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also known as Black Pagoda, Arka Kshetra, and Padma Kshetra. The Sun Temple and Konark Wheel were built during the 13th century under the reign of Eastern Ganga King Narasimhadeva-I. It represents the most evolved period in Kalinga Architecture. Sun temples are temples dedicated to the worship of the Sun God and these are designed to highlight the celestial movement of the Sun. Materials used for building the temple include Chlorite, Laterite, and Khondalite rocks. Konark Sun Temple was once described by Nobel Laureate Rabindranath Tagore as the place where the language of stone surpasses the language of man. Structure of the Konark Sun Temple: The main entrance of the Sun Temple, the Gajasimha – gaja meaning elephant and Simha referring to lions. According to mythology, lions resemble pride, elephants resemble wealth and both of them kill the human. Gajasimha leads to the Sun Temple’s finely carved Natya Mandapa, the hall for dance and theatre. The sculptures here depict different types of dance styles. It is the assembly hall of the temple and the steps that rise to Jagamohan are flanked by stone horses. The Jagamohan is followed by the deul which is the sanctum where the idol is placed. Bhoga-mandira (kitchen) to make bhoga for the deity and devotees. Architectural features of the Konark Sun Temple: It was designed in such a way that the rising sun’s first rays would illuminate the sanctum and the presiding deity. It has been designed like the chariot of Surya, the Sun God. The temple stands on a base of a total of 24 intricately carved wheels, 12 on each side. The chariot seems to be drawn eastwards towards the dawn by a team of seven spirited horses. The thicker wheels are all carved with circular medallions at their centers on the widest part of the face. The rims are carved with designs of foliage with various birds and animals, whereas the medallions in the spokes are carved with the figures of women in various luxurious poses, mostly of a sensual nature. These seven horses have been named in Bhagawat Gita, as ‘Gyatri’, ‘Usnika’, ‘Anustuv’, ‘Vrihati’, ‘Pangti’, ‘Tristup’, and ‘Jagati’ which possibly stand for the rhythmic representation of the sacred verses of the Vedas. The seven horses are also named after the seven colours of the rainbow – Sahasrara (Violet), Indra-nila (Indigo), Nila (Blue), Haritaha (Green), Pita (Yellow), Kausumbhaha (Orange), and Rakta (Red). There are two carved war horses in front of the southern side of the Konark Temple. The sculpture depicts each of them with its massive strength and energy crushing down the warrior. This figure of the war horse of Konark has been accepted as the symbol of the state Government of Odisha. It has three impressive carvings of the Sun God at three strategic locations, to catch the sun at dawn, at noon, and sunset. The carvings at the base of the temple and on its walls chronicle everyday activities. Some carvings depict sensuous details while others exhibit mythical creatures and animals like elephants and birds. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) With reference to the T+0 settlement cycle, consider the following statements: It is introduced by the Reserve Bank of India. In this settlement cycle, investors selling their stocks will receive money on the same day of the sale. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2.) The Darién Gap, recently found in news is a geographic region in the Isthmus of Darién connecting the Africa and West Asia Europe and Asia Central and South America South Korea and Japan Q3.)With reference to fluoride contamination, consider the following statements: Fluoride leaches from rocks and soil into groundwater. when fluoride levels exceed 1.5 mg/L, it becomes toxic to humans. Excessive fluoride leads to skeletal fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are not correct? Only one Only two All three None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  18th March  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  16th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 18th March 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

[DAY 13] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 Maheesha 2024/03/18 11:33 AM 22 55 % 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question Consider the following regarding amendments to the Constitution: All amendments to the Constitution are initiated only in the Parliament. All the provisions relating to amendment of the constitution are contained only in Article 368. In some cases, after the passage of the constitutional amendment, there is a need for referendum for ratification of the amendment. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect It is important to remember that all amendments to the Constitution are initiated only in the Parliament. Besides the special majority in the Parliament no outside agency, like a constitution commission or a separate body, is required for amending the Constitution. There are many articles in the Constitution, which mention that these articles can be amended by a simple law of the Parliament. For example, article 2 and 3. For amending the remaining parts of the Constitution, provision has been made in Article 368 of the Constitution. Thus, all provisions related to amendment are not contained in article 368. Under article 368, there are two methods of amending the Constitution and they apply to two different sets of articles of the Constitution. One method is that amendment can be made by special majority of the two houses of the Parliament. The other method is more difficult: it requires special majority of the Parliament and consent of half of the State legislatures. After the passage in the Parliament and in some cases, in State legislatures, no referendum is required for ratification of the amendment. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect It is important to remember that all amendments to the Constitution are initiated only in the Parliament. Besides the special majority in the Parliament no outside agency, like a constitution commission or a separate body, is required for amending the Constitution. There are many articles in the Constitution, which mention that these articles can be amended by a simple law of the Parliament. For example, article 2 and 3. For amending the remaining parts of the Constitution, provision has been made in Article 368 of the Constitution. Thus, all provisions related to amendment are not contained in article 368. Under article 368, there are two methods of amending the Constitution and they apply to two different sets of articles of the Constitution. One method is that amendment can be made by special majority of the two houses of the Parliament. The other method is more difficult: it requires special majority of the Parliament and consent of half of the State legislatures. After the passage in the Parliament and in some cases, in State legislatures, no referendum is required for ratification of the amendment. Question 2 of 35 2. Question Consider the following statements and identify the correct one/s: Till date, there have been 105 amendments of the Constitution of India since it was first enacted in 1950. The period from 1990 to 2010 saw the highest number of constitutional amendments. Select the answer: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Till date, there have been 106 amendments of the Constitution of India since it was first enacted in 1950. Given the relatively difficult method of amending the Constitution, the number of amendments appears quite high.   Years 1970-1990 saw the highest number of constitutional amendment as given above. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Till date, there have been 106 amendments of the Constitution of India since it was first enacted in 1950. Given the relatively difficult method of amending the Constitution, the number of amendments appears quite high.   Years 1970-1990 saw the highest number of constitutional amendment as given above. Question 3 of 35 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act: This Act is also known as the ‘Mini Constitution’. This amendment made changes to the Preamble, to the seventh schedule and to other articles of the Constitution. It expanded upon the review powers of the Judiciary. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect One of the most significant amendments to the Indian Constitution is the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 enacted by the Indian National Congress, led by Indira Gandhi.   This Act is also known as the ‘Mini Constitution’ because of the large number of revisions it made to the Constitution of India. The 42nd amendment was particularly seen as a wide-ranging amendment affecting large parts of the Constitution. This amendment made changes to the Preamble, to the seventh schedule of the Constitution and to 53 articles of the Constitution. The amendment was also an attempt to override the ruling of the Supreme Court given in the Kesavananda case. Even the duration of the Lok Sabha was extended from five to six years. Fundamental duties were included in the Constitution by this amendment act. The 42nd amendment also put restrictions on the review powers of the Judiciary. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect One of the most significant amendments to the Indian Constitution is the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 enacted by the Indian National Congress, led by Indira Gandhi.   This Act is also known as the ‘Mini Constitution’ because of the large number of revisions it made to the Constitution of India. The 42nd amendment was particularly seen as a wide-ranging amendment affecting large parts of the Constitution. This amendment made changes to the Preamble, to the seventh schedule of the Constitution and to 53 articles of the Constitution. The amendment was also an attempt to override the ruling of the Supreme Court given in the Kesavananda case. Even the duration of the Lok Sabha was extended from five to six years. Fundamental duties were included in the Constitution by this amendment act. The 42nd amendment also put restrictions on the review powers of the Judiciary. Question 4 of 35 4. Question One thing that has had a long lasting effect on the evolution of the Indian Constitution is the theory of the basic structure of the Constitution. The Judiciary advanced this theory in the famous case of: a) Golaknath v. State of Punjab b) Minerva Mills v. Union of India c) IR Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu d) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Correct Golaknath v. State Of Punjab or simply the Golaknath case, was a 1967 Indian Supreme Court case, in which the Court ruled that Parliament could not curtail any of the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution. The Supreme Court, by thin majority of 6:5, held that a constitutional amendment under Article 368 of the Constitution was an ordinary ‘law’ within the meaning of Article 13(3) of the Constitution. Minerva Mills Ltd. and Ors. v. Union Of India is a landmark decision of the Supreme Court of India that applied and evolved the basic structure doctrine of the Constitution of India. In the Minerva Mills case, the Supreme Court provided key clarifications on the interpretation of the basic structure doctrine. The court ruled that the power of the parliament to amend the constitution is limited by the constitution. India became a contracting party to the Ramsar Convention in 1981 and has been implementing conservation programmes for wetlands, mangroves, and coral reefs. Kesavananda Bharati Sripadagalvaru v. State of Kerala, also known as the Kesavananda Bharati judgement, is a landmark decision of the Supreme Court of India that outlined the basic structure doctrine of the Indian Constitution. The case is also known as the Fundamental Rights Case. The court asserted its right to strike down amendments to the constitution that were in violation of the fundamental architecture of the constitution. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Correct Golaknath v. State Of Punjab or simply the Golaknath case, was a 1967 Indian Supreme Court case, in which the Court ruled that Parliament could not curtail any of the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution. The Supreme Court, by thin majority of 6:5, held that a constitutional amendment under Article 368 of the Constitution was an ordinary ‘law’ within the meaning of Article 13(3) of the Constitution. Minerva Mills Ltd. and Ors. v. Union Of India is a landmark decision of the Supreme Court of India that applied and evolved the basic structure doctrine of the Constitution of India. In the Minerva Mills case, the Supreme Court provided key clarifications on the interpretation of the basic structure doctrine. The court ruled that the power of the parliament to amend the constitution is limited by the constitution. India became a contracting party to the Ramsar Convention in 1981 and has been implementing conservation programmes for wetlands, mangroves, and coral reefs. Kesavananda Bharati Sripadagalvaru v. State of Kerala, also known as the Kesavananda Bharati judgement, is a landmark decision of the Supreme Court of India that outlined the basic structure doctrine of the Indian Constitution. The case is also known as the Fundamental Rights Case. The court asserted its right to strike down amendments to the constitution that were in violation of the fundamental architecture of the constitution. Question 5 of 35 5. Question Consider the following statements with reference to Basic Structure Doctrine: It places the Judiciary as the final authority in deciding if an amendment violates basic structure. The judiciary has clearly defined what constitutes Basic Structure doctrine. Select the answer: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Kesavananda Bharati ruling has contributed to the evolution of the Constitution in the following ways – It has set specific limits to the Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution. It says that no amendment can violate the basic structure of the Constitution. It places the Judiciary as the final authority in deciding if an amendment violates basic structure and what constitutes the basic structure. The doctrine of basic structure though is not exactly defined but all interpretations of the Constitution and all institutions in the country have accepted the theory of basic structure. The theory of basic structure is itself an example of a living constitution. There is no mention of this theory in the Constitution. It has emerged from judicial interpretation. Thus, Judiciary and its interpretation have practically amended Constitution without a formal amendment. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Kesavananda Bharati ruling has contributed to the evolution of the Constitution in the following ways – It has set specific limits to the Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution. It says that no amendment can violate the basic structure of the Constitution. It places the Judiciary as the final authority in deciding if an amendment violates basic structure and what constitutes the basic structure. The doctrine of basic structure though is not exactly defined but all interpretations of the Constitution and all institutions in the country have accepted the theory of basic structure. The theory of basic structure is itself an example of a living constitution. There is no mention of this theory in the Constitution. It has emerged from judicial interpretation. Thus, Judiciary and its interpretation have practically amended Constitution without a formal amendment. Question 6 of 35 6. Question Consider the following statements regarding electoral college of Vice-President: It consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament. It includes the members of the state legislative assemblies but not the legislative council. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Electoral college of Vice-President consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament (in the case of President, only elected members). Electoral college of Vice-President does not include the members of the state legislative assemblies or Council (in the case of President, the elected members of the state legislative assemblies are included). Note: The Vice-President, like the president, is elected not directly by the people but by the method of indirect election. He is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament. Thus, this electoral college is different from the electoral college for the election of the President in the following two respects: It consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament (in the case of President, only elected members). It does not include the members of the state legislative assemblies (in the case of President, the elected members of the state legislative assemblies are included).   Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Electoral college of Vice-President consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament (in the case of President, only elected members). Electoral college of Vice-President does not include the members of the state legislative assemblies or Council (in the case of President, the elected members of the state legislative assemblies are included). Note: The Vice-President, like the president, is elected not directly by the people but by the method of indirect election. He is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament. Thus, this electoral college is different from the electoral college for the election of the President in the following two respects: It consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament (in the case of President, only elected members). It does not include the members of the state legislative assemblies (in the case of President, the elected members of the state legislative assemblies are included).   Question 7 of 35 7. Question Which of the following are discretionary Powers of the President? The President can send back the advice given by the Council of Ministers and ask the Council to reconsider the decision. The President has veto power by which he can withhold or refuse to give assent to Bills passed by the Parliament. Appointment of Prime Minister when no leader has a clear majority in the Lok Sabha. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Discretionary Powers of the President: Constitutionally, the President has a right to be informed of all-important matters and deliberations of the Council of Ministers. The Prime Minister is obliged to furnish all the information that the President may call for. The President often writes to the Prime Minister and expresses his views on matters confronting the country. Besides this, there are at least three situations where the President can exercise the powers using his or her own discretion. The President can send back the advice given by the Council of Ministers and ask the Council to reconsider the decision. In doing this, the President acts on his (or her) own discretion. When the President thinks that the advice has certain flaws or legal lacunae, or that it is not in the best interests of the country, the President can ask the Council to reconsider the decision. The President also has veto power by which he can withhold or refuse to give assent to Bills (other than Money Bill) passed by the Parliament. The third kind of discretion arises when after an election, no leader has a clear majority in the Lok Sabha. In this situation the President has to decide whom to appoint as the Prime Minister. In such a situation, the President has to use his own discretion in judging who really may have the support of the majority or who can actually form and run the government. Incorrect Solution (c) Discretionary Powers of the President: Constitutionally, the President has a right to be informed of all-important matters and deliberations of the Council of Ministers. The Prime Minister is obliged to furnish all the information that the President may call for. The President often writes to the Prime Minister and expresses his views on matters confronting the country. Besides this, there are at least three situations where the President can exercise the powers using his or her own discretion. The President can send back the advice given by the Council of Ministers and ask the Council to reconsider the decision. In doing this, the President acts on his (or her) own discretion. When the President thinks that the advice has certain flaws or legal lacunae, or that it is not in the best interests of the country, the President can ask the Council to reconsider the decision. The President also has veto power by which he can withhold or refuse to give assent to Bills (other than Money Bill) passed by the Parliament. The third kind of discretion arises when after an election, no leader has a clear majority in the Lok Sabha. In this situation the President has to decide whom to appoint as the Prime Minister. In such a situation, the President has to use his own discretion in judging who really may have the support of the majority or who can actually form and run the government. Question 8 of 35 8. Question Consider the following statements and identify the correct statement/s: Article 74 mentions that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall act in accordance with such advice. Here, the word ‘shall’ indicates that the advice is binding on the President. Select the answer: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Article 74 (1): There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice. Provided that the President may require the Council of Ministers to reconsider such advice, and the President shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration. The word shall indicates that the advice is binding on the President. In view of the controversy about the scope of the President’s powers, a specific mention was made in the Constitution by an amendment that the advice of the Council of Ministers will be binding on the President. By another amendment made later, it was decided that the President can ask the Council of Ministers to reconsider its advice but, has to accept the reconsidered advice of the Council of Ministers. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Article 74 (1): There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice. Provided that the President may require the Council of Ministers to reconsider such advice, and the President shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration. The word shall indicates that the advice is binding on the President. In view of the controversy about the scope of the President’s powers, a specific mention was made in the Constitution by an amendment that the advice of the Council of Ministers will be binding on the President. By another amendment made later, it was decided that the President can ask the Council of Ministers to reconsider its advice but, has to accept the reconsidered advice of the Council of Ministers. Question 9 of 35 9. Question Jawaharlal Nehru described which post as ‘the Linchpin of Government’? a) President b) Vice President c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha d) Prime Minister Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Correct The president of India is the head of state of the Republic of India. The president is the nominal head of the executive, as well as the commander-in-chief of the Indian Armed Forces. The office of president was created when India became a republic on 26 January 1950, when its constitution came into force. The president is indirectly elected by an electoral college comprising both houses of the Parliament of India and the legislative assemblies of each of India’s states and territories. The Vice-President of India is the second highest constitutional office in the country. He serves for a five-year term. The only provision in the Constitution is with regard to the Vice-President’s function as the Chairperson of the Council of States, which is performed, during the period of such vacancy, by the Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha, or any other member of the Rajya Sabha authorised by the President of India. The VP may resign his office by submitting his resignation to the President of India. The speaker of the Lok Sabha is the presiding officer and the highest authority of the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament of India. The speaker is elected generally in the first meeting of the Lok Sabha following general elections. Serving for a term of five years, the speaker chosen from sitting members of the Lok Sabha. The Prime Minister acts as a link between the Council of Ministers on the one hand and the President as well as the Parliament on the other. It is this role of the Prime Minister which led Pt. Nehru to describe him as ‘the linchpin of Government’. It is also the constitutional obligation of the Prime Minister to communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Correct The president of India is the head of state of the Republic of India. The president is the nominal head of the executive, as well as the commander-in-chief of the Indian Armed Forces. The office of president was created when India became a republic on 26 January 1950, when its constitution came into force. The president is indirectly elected by an electoral college comprising both houses of the Parliament of India and the legislative assemblies of each of India’s states and territories. The Vice-President of India is the second highest constitutional office in the country. He serves for a five-year term. The only provision in the Constitution is with regard to the Vice-President’s function as the Chairperson of the Council of States, which is performed, during the period of such vacancy, by the Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha, or any other member of the Rajya Sabha authorised by the President of India. The VP may resign his office by submitting his resignation to the President of India. The speaker of the Lok Sabha is the presiding officer and the highest authority of the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament of India. The speaker is elected generally in the first meeting of the Lok Sabha following general elections. Serving for a term of five years, the speaker chosen from sitting members of the Lok Sabha. The Prime Minister acts as a link between the Council of Ministers on the one hand and the President as well as the Parliament on the other. It is this role of the Prime Minister which led Pt. Nehru to describe him as ‘the linchpin of Government’. It is also the constitutional obligation of the Prime Minister to communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation. Question 10 of 35 10. Question Which of the following are part of the ‘Basic Structure’ of the Indian Constitution? Articles 32 and 226. Effective access to justice The Parliamentary system of government. Freedom and dignity of the individual. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1, 3 and 4 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct Articles 32 and 226. Effective access to justice. The Parliamentary system of government. Freedom and dignity of the individual. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct Articles 32 and 226. Effective access to justice. The Parliamentary system of government. Freedom and dignity of the individual. Question 11 of 35 11. Question With reference to the Constitutional Amendment Bill, consider the following statements: It must be passed in each House by a special majority. It requires prior permission of the President of India. It is dealt under Article 368 of the Constitution. It must be introduced only by a minister. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Incorrect The constitutional amendment bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting. The Constitutional Amendment bill does not require prior permission of the President of India. Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure. It states that the Parliament may, in exercise of its constituent power, amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of the Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down for the purpose. The Constitutional Amendment bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Incorrect The constitutional amendment bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting. The Constitutional Amendment bill does not require prior permission of the President of India. Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure. It states that the Parliament may, in exercise of its constituent power, amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of the Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down for the purpose. The Constitutional Amendment bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member. Question 12 of 35 12. Question Which of the following form the part of basic structure of the Constitution? Welfare state (socio-economic justice) Secular character of the Constitution Judicial review Effective access to justice Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct Welfare state (socio-economic justice) Secular character of the Constitution Judicial review Effective access to justice Some of the features of the Constitution termed as “basic” are listed below: Supremacy of the Constitution Rule of law The principle of separation of powers The objectives specified in the preamble to the Constitution of India Judicial review Articles 32 and 226 Federalism (including financial liberty of states under Articles 282 and 293) Secularism The sovereign, democratic, republican structure Freedom and dignity of the individual Unity and integrity of the nation The principle of equality, not every feature of equality, but the quintessence of equal justice; The “essence” of other fundamental rights in Part III The concept of social and economic justice — to build a welfare state: Part IV of the Constitution The balance between fundamental rights and directive principles The parliamentary system of government The principle of free and fair elections Limitations upon the amending power conferred by Article 368 Independence of the judiciary Effective access to justice Powers of the Supreme Court of India under Articles 32, 136, 141, 142 Legislation seeking to nullify the awards made in exercise of the judicial power of the state by arbitration tribunals constituted under an act Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct Welfare state (socio-economic justice) Secular character of the Constitution Judicial review Effective access to justice Some of the features of the Constitution termed as “basic” are listed below: Supremacy of the Constitution Rule of law The principle of separation of powers The objectives specified in the preamble to the Constitution of India Judicial review Articles 32 and 226 Federalism (including financial liberty of states under Articles 282 and 293) Secularism The sovereign, democratic, republican structure Freedom and dignity of the individual Unity and integrity of the nation The principle of equality, not every feature of equality, but the quintessence of equal justice; The “essence” of other fundamental rights in Part III The concept of social and economic justice — to build a welfare state: Part IV of the Constitution The balance between fundamental rights and directive principles The parliamentary system of government The principle of free and fair elections Limitations upon the amending power conferred by Article 368 Independence of the judiciary Effective access to justice Powers of the Supreme Court of India under Articles 32, 136, 141, 142 Legislation seeking to nullify the awards made in exercise of the judicial power of the state by arbitration tribunals constituted under an act Question 13 of 35 13. Question Which of the following statements is/are correct about the First Amendment Act, 1951? It added the Ninth Schedule to protect the land reform and other laws included in it from the judicial review. It reduced the grounds of restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression. It empowered the state to make special provisions for the advancement of the socially and economically backward classes. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct It added the Ninth Schedule to protect the land reform and other laws included in it from the judicial review. Added three more grounds of restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression, viz., public order, friendly relations with foreign states and incitement to an offence. Also, made the restrictions ‘reasonable’ and thus, justiciable in nature. It empowered the state to make special provisions for the advancement of the socially and economically backward classes. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct It added the Ninth Schedule to protect the land reform and other laws included in it from the judicial review. Added three more grounds of restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression, viz., public order, friendly relations with foreign states and incitement to an offence. Also, made the restrictions ‘reasonable’ and thus, justiciable in nature. It empowered the state to make special provisions for the advancement of the socially and economically backward classes. Question 14 of 35 14. Question In which of the following case, the Supreme Court adhered to the doctrine of the ‘basic structure’ and also further clarified that it would apply to constitutional amendments enacted after April 24, 1973? a) Golak Nath vs State of Punjab b) Indira Nehru Gandhi vs Raj Narain c) Waman Rao vs Union of India d) Shankari Prasad vs Union of India Correct Solution (c) In Waman Rao vs Union of India case, 1981, the Supreme Court adhered to the doctrine of the ‘basic structure’ and also further clarified that it would apply to constitutional amendments enacted after April 24, 1973.   Incorrect Solution (c) In Waman Rao vs Union of India case, 1981, the Supreme Court adhered to the doctrine of the ‘basic structure’ and also further clarified that it would apply to constitutional amendments enacted after April 24, 1973.   Question 15 of 35 15. Question Consider the following statements: Change in the name of a state does not require a Constitutional Amendment. Inclusion of a language in the 8th Schedule requires a Constitutional Amendment. Change in the name of a language included in the 8th Schedule does not require a Constitutional Amendment. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Change in the name of a state does not require a Constitutional Amendment. Inclusion of a language in the 8th Schedule requires a Constitutional Amendment. Change in the name of a language included in the 8th Schedule requires a Constitutional Amendment. When the name of Oriya language, included in the 8th Schedule, was changed to Odia, the 96th Constitutional Amendment act, 2011 was passed by the Parliament. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Change in the name of a state does not require a Constitutional Amendment. Inclusion of a language in the 8th Schedule requires a Constitutional Amendment. Change in the name of a language included in the 8th Schedule requires a Constitutional Amendment. When the name of Oriya language, included in the 8th Schedule, was changed to Odia, the 96th Constitutional Amendment act, 2011 was passed by the Parliament. Question 16 of 35 16. Question Consider the following statements and identify the correct statement/s: The procedure of amendment of the constitution is borrowed from the South African constitution A time frame has been prescribed in the constitution for states to ratify the constitutional amendment bill. Select the answer: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Amending the Constitution of India is the process of making changes to the nation’s fundamental law or supreme law. The procedure of amendment in the constitution is laid down in Part XX (Article 368) of the Constitution of India. This procedure ensures the sanctity of the Constitution of India and keeps a check on arbitrary power of the Parliament of India. It was borrowed from the South African constitution. Procedure for amendment of constitution: Amendment can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either house of the Parliament. The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require the permission of the President. The bill must be passed in each house by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the house and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the house present and voting Each house must pass the bill separately. If there is any disagreement, there is no provision for joint sitting of the houses If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the constitution, it must be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority. But no time frame has been prescribed for this. After passage of the bill by both the houses, it is presented to the President for his assent The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament After the President’s assent, the bill becomes an act. Incorrect Solution (a) Amending the Constitution of India is the process of making changes to the nation’s fundamental law or supreme law. The procedure of amendment in the constitution is laid down in Part XX (Article 368) of the Constitution of India. This procedure ensures the sanctity of the Constitution of India and keeps a check on arbitrary power of the Parliament of India. It was borrowed from the South African constitution. Procedure for amendment of constitution: Amendment can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either house of the Parliament. The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require the permission of the President. The bill must be passed in each house by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the house and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the house present and voting Each house must pass the bill separately. If there is any disagreement, there is no provision for joint sitting of the houses If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the constitution, it must be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority. But no time frame has been prescribed for this. After passage of the bill by both the houses, it is presented to the President for his assent The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament After the President’s assent, the bill becomes an act. Question 17 of 35 17. Question Consider the following statements regarding President election: The members who are nominated to either House of Parliament are not eligible to be included in the Electoral College. The Secretary General of Lok Sabha acts as the returning officer for every presidential election. Select the answer: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) The members who are nominated to either House of Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of State including NCT of Delhi and UT of Puducherry are not eligible to be included in the Electoral College. The Election Commission, in consultation with the Central Government, appoints the Secretary General of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, by rotation, as the Returning Officer. Accordingly, the Secretary General, Rajya Sabha was appointed as the Returning Officer for the recent election to the Office of the President. Incorrect Solution (a) The members who are nominated to either House of Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of State including NCT of Delhi and UT of Puducherry are not eligible to be included in the Electoral College. The Election Commission, in consultation with the Central Government, appoints the Secretary General of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, by rotation, as the Returning Officer. Accordingly, the Secretary General, Rajya Sabha was appointed as the Returning Officer for the recent election to the Office of the President. Question 18 of 35 18. Question Which of the following provisions is related to 69th Constitution amendment act? a) The voting age was reduced from 21 to 18 years in the year 1991. b) It provided for a legislative assembly and a responsible government for Delhi. c) The anti-defection statute was adopted to bring stability to the administrations. d) It split the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Tribes into two independent bodies. Correct Solution (b) The 69th amendment to the Constitution of India inserted Article 239AA, which declared the Union Territory of Delhi to be administered by a L-G who works on aid and advice of the elected legislative assembly. Incorrect Solution (b) The 69th amendment to the Constitution of India inserted Article 239AA, which declared the Union Territory of Delhi to be administered by a L-G who works on aid and advice of the elected legislative assembly. Question 19 of 35 19. Question Which of the following constitutional amendment was made for the reservation of seats for the admission of citizens belonging to schedule caste and schedule tribes and other backward classes in the educational institution? a) 91st amendment. b) 93rd amendment. c) 97th amendment. d) 95th amendment. Correct Solution (b) In 93rd constitution amendment 2006, the arrangements were made for the reservation of seats for the admission of citizens belonging to schedule caste and schedule tribes and other backward classes in the educational institution. And under the provisions of section 4 of the article 15 of the constitution. Hence option B is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) In 93rd constitution amendment 2006, the arrangements were made for the reservation of seats for the admission of citizens belonging to schedule caste and schedule tribes and other backward classes in the educational institution. And under the provisions of section 4 of the article 15 of the constitution. Hence option B is correct. Question 20 of 35 20. Question Consider the following statements about the Ordinance-making power of the President: The President’s satisfaction that the circumstances exist for him to promulgate an ordinance is not questionable in a court of law. An ordinance cannot amend the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Cooper’s case judgment states that satisfaction of the president for promulgation of the ordinance on whether the situation is unforeseen, urgent and clause of recess time period, wherein the whole of the president’s satisfaction and situation present is questionable in the court of law. Ordinances cannot be issued for amending Constitution of India. But it can be issued for Amending bills pending in the Parliament. Note: PRESIDENT ORDINANCE MAKING POWER: He can promulgate the ordinance when the houses or either any house is not in session. Circumstances occur where the president thinks it necessary to act without waiting for houses to assemble. An ordinance can be retrospective in nature. An ordinance rolled out when both the houses are in session is void in nature. The parliament has to approve the ordinance within six weeks for its assembly. It acts, done and completed under the ordinance before it lapses, remains fully active. Unlike the Indian constitution, most of the democratic constitution of the world doesn’t give such ordinance making power to their president. It has no connection with the president’s power to proclaim a national emergency. The power of the ordinance making is not to be taken as a substitute for the legislative Only under special circumstances, ordinance can be rolled out. President’s power to roll out ordinance is justiciable on the ground of malafide. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Cooper’s case judgment states that satisfaction of the president for promulgation of the ordinance on whether the situation is unforeseen, urgent and clause of recess time period, wherein the whole of the president’s satisfaction and situation present is questionable in the court of law. Ordinances cannot be issued for amending Constitution of India. But it can be issued for Amending bills pending in the Parliament. Note: PRESIDENT ORDINANCE MAKING POWER: He can promulgate the ordinance when the houses or either any house is not in session. Circumstances occur where the president thinks it necessary to act without waiting for houses to assemble. An ordinance can be retrospective in nature. An ordinance rolled out when both the houses are in session is void in nature. The parliament has to approve the ordinance within six weeks for its assembly. It acts, done and completed under the ordinance before it lapses, remains fully active. Unlike the Indian constitution, most of the democratic constitution of the world doesn’t give such ordinance making power to their president. It has no connection with the president’s power to proclaim a national emergency. The power of the ordinance making is not to be taken as a substitute for the legislative Only under special circumstances, ordinance can be rolled out. President’s power to roll out ordinance is justiciable on the ground of malafide. Question 21 of 35 21. Question Consider the following statements about Red Sand Boa: It is an ovoviviparous venomous snake. It is found in arid and semi-arid regions. It has applications in medicine and cosmetics. It is listed as vulnerable in the IUCN List. How many of the given statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (b) Red Sand Boa is an ovoviviparous non-venomous snake. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Ovoviviparous means they produce young ones by means of eggs which are hatched within the body of the parent. It is predominantly Nocturnal means most active during the night. It is found in arid and semi-arid regions. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is found in India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, and parts of Bangladesh. It has applications in medicine and cosmetics. Hence statement 3 is correct. It plays a significant role in the ecosystem by maintaining a healthy population between prey and predator. It is listed as near threatened in the IUCN List. Hence statement 4 is incorrect. It is protected under the Appendix II of CITES and Schedule IV of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Incorrect Solution (b) Red Sand Boa is an ovoviviparous non-venomous snake. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Ovoviviparous means they produce young ones by means of eggs which are hatched within the body of the parent. It is predominantly Nocturnal means most active during the night. It is found in arid and semi-arid regions. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is found in India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, and parts of Bangladesh. It has applications in medicine and cosmetics. Hence statement 3 is correct. It plays a significant role in the ecosystem by maintaining a healthy population between prey and predator. It is listed as near threatened in the IUCN List. Hence statement 4 is incorrect. It is protected under the Appendix II of CITES and Schedule IV of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements about the Bharat Stage (BS) norms: They are emission standards instituted by the Government of India to regulate the output of air pollutants from motor vehicles. They are based on the European emission standards and are implemented by the Central Pollution Control Board in India. Every newly sold and registered vehicle in India is required to adhere to the BS-IV version of emission regulations. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Bharat Stage (BS) norms are emission standards instituted by the Government of India to regulate the output of air pollutants from motor vehicles. Hence statement 1 is correct. They are based on the European emission standardsand are implemented by the Central Pollution Control Board in India. Hence statement 2 is correct. The fuel standard in the country is decided by the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change. Every newly sold and registered vehicle in India is required to adhere to theBS-VI version of emission regulations. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. In BS-VI fuel, the volume of PM 2.5 ranges from 20 to 40 micrograms per cubic metre whereas in BS-IV fuel it is up to 120 micrograms per cubic metre. BS-VI fuel will bring down sulphur content by 5 times from the current BS-IV levels. It has 10 ppm of sulphur as against 50 ppm in BS-IV.  Note: Flex-fuel vehicles (FFV) have engines that can run on flexible fuel – a combination of Petrol/Diesel/Electric and ethanol, which can include up to 100% ethanol. Electrified Flex Fuel Vehicle integrates both a Flex Fuel engine and an electric powertrain, offering the dual benefit of higher ethanol use and improved fuel efficiency. Incorrect Solution (b) Bharat Stage (BS) norms are emission standards instituted by the Government of India to regulate the output of air pollutants from motor vehicles. Hence statement 1 is correct. They are based on the European emission standardsand are implemented by the Central Pollution Control Board in India. Hence statement 2 is correct. The fuel standard in the country is decided by the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change. Every newly sold and registered vehicle in India is required to adhere to theBS-VI version of emission regulations. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. In BS-VI fuel, the volume of PM 2.5 ranges from 20 to 40 micrograms per cubic metre whereas in BS-IV fuel it is up to 120 micrograms per cubic metre. BS-VI fuel will bring down sulphur content by 5 times from the current BS-IV levels. It has 10 ppm of sulphur as against 50 ppm in BS-IV.  Note: Flex-fuel vehicles (FFV) have engines that can run on flexible fuel – a combination of Petrol/Diesel/Electric and ethanol, which can include up to 100% ethanol. Electrified Flex Fuel Vehicle integrates both a Flex Fuel engine and an electric powertrain, offering the dual benefit of higher ethanol use and improved fuel efficiency. Question 23 of 35 23. Question Consider the following statements: In the Mitakshara school of inheritance, the property is inherited by the successors only if they were born in the family of the property owners. In the Dayabhaga school of inheritance, the property goes to the successors only when the property owner is dead. The Mitakshara school of inheritance is mainly practiced in Assam and West Bengal. The Dayabhaga school of inheritance is practiced in all of India except in West Bengal and Assam. How many of the given statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (b) There are mainly two schools in Hindu law concerning the law of inheritance – the Mitakshara and the Dayabhaga. In the Mitakshara school of inheritance, the property is inherited by the successors only if they were born in the family of the property owners. Hence statement 1 is correct. In the Dayabhaga school of inheritance, the property goes to the successors only when the property owner is dead. Hence statement 2 is correct. The Mitakshara school of inheritance is practiced in all of India except in West Bengal and Assam. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. The Dayabhaga school of inheritance is mainly practiced in Assam and West Bengal. Hence statement 4 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (b) There are mainly two schools in Hindu law concerning the law of inheritance – the Mitakshara and the Dayabhaga. In the Mitakshara school of inheritance, the property is inherited by the successors only if they were born in the family of the property owners. Hence statement 1 is correct. In the Dayabhaga school of inheritance, the property goes to the successors only when the property owner is dead. Hence statement 2 is correct. The Mitakshara school of inheritance is practiced in all of India except in West Bengal and Assam. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. The Dayabhaga school of inheritance is mainly practiced in Assam and West Bengal. Hence statement 4 is incorrect. Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements about the National Pension System (NPS): Under this system, a unique Permanent Retirement Account Number (PRAN) is generated and maintained by the Central Recordkeeping Agency (CRA) for individual subscribers. It is being administered and regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA). Under this system, a Tier-I account is a pension account having restricted withdrawals. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Under the National Pension System(NPS), a unique Permanent Retirement Account Number (PRAN) is generated and maintained by the Central Recordkeeping Agency (CRA) for individual subscribers. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is being administered and regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) set up under the PFRDA Act, 2013. Hence statement 2 is correct. Under this system, a Tier-I account is a pension account having restricted withdrawals while Tier-II is a voluntary account that offers liquidity of investments and withdrawals. Hence statement 3 is correct. Tier-II account is allowed only when there is an active Tier-I account in the name of the subscriber. The contributions accumulate over a period of time till retirement grows with market-linked returns. Incorrect Solution (c) Under the National Pension System(NPS), a unique Permanent Retirement Account Number (PRAN) is generated and maintained by the Central Recordkeeping Agency (CRA) for individual subscribers. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is being administered and regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) set up under the PFRDA Act, 2013. Hence statement 2 is correct. Under this system, a Tier-I account is a pension account having restricted withdrawals while Tier-II is a voluntary account that offers liquidity of investments and withdrawals. Hence statement 3 is correct. Tier-II account is allowed only when there is an active Tier-I account in the name of the subscriber. The contributions accumulate over a period of time till retirement grows with market-linked returns. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements regarding the deemed to be university: It is declared by the central government on the advice of the University Grants Commission (UGC). It enjoys the academic status and privileges of a university but cannot design its syllabus and courses. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) The deemed-to-be university is declared by the central government on the advice of the University Grants Commission (UGC). Hence statement 1 is correct. It enjoys the academic status and privileges of a university. It can design its own syllabus and courses to prepare the students to foray into diverse fields after the completion of their studies. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Deemed to be universities like other universities have the autonomy of offering various courses and therefore, preparing students for various examinations and awards.   Incorrect Solution (a) The deemed-to-be university is declared by the central government on the advice of the University Grants Commission (UGC). Hence statement 1 is correct. It enjoys the academic status and privileges of a university. It can design its own syllabus and courses to prepare the students to foray into diverse fields after the completion of their studies. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Deemed to be universities like other universities have the autonomy of offering various courses and therefore, preparing students for various examinations and awards.   Question 26 of 35 26. Question In the context of Indian polity, consider the following statements: The Constitution specifies that six months should not elapse between two parliamentary sessions. India’s Parliament has a fixed calendar of sittings and the President determines the date and duration of parliamentary sessions. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) The Constitution specifies that six months should not elapse between two parliamentary sessions. This provision was borrowed from the Government of India Act of 1935. Hence statement 1 is correct. India’s Parliament has no fixed calendar of sittings and the central government determines the date and duration of parliamentary sessions. The Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs takes this decision. It currently has ten Ministers, including those for Defence, Home, Finance, Agriculture, Tribal Affairs, Parliamentary Affairs, and Information and Broadcasting. The Law Minister and the Minister of State for External Affairs are special invitees to the Committee. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Note: The Constitution does not use the term “special session”.The term sometimes refers to sessions the government has convened for specific occasions like commemorating parliamentary or national milestones. However, Article 352 (Proclamation of Emergency) of the Constitution does refer to a “special sitting of the House”. Incorrect Solution (a) The Constitution specifies that six months should not elapse between two parliamentary sessions. This provision was borrowed from the Government of India Act of 1935. Hence statement 1 is correct. India’s Parliament has no fixed calendar of sittings and the central government determines the date and duration of parliamentary sessions. The Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs takes this decision. It currently has ten Ministers, including those for Defence, Home, Finance, Agriculture, Tribal Affairs, Parliamentary Affairs, and Information and Broadcasting. The Law Minister and the Minister of State for External Affairs are special invitees to the Committee. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Note: The Constitution does not use the term “special session”.The term sometimes refers to sessions the government has convened for specific occasions like commemorating parliamentary or national milestones. However, Article 352 (Proclamation of Emergency) of the Constitution does refer to a “special sitting of the House”. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements regarding Walking leaves: They are known for their unusual appearance as they look similar to parts of plants. They feed on plants and typically inhabit densely vegetated areas. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Walking leaves are known for their unusual appearance as they look similar to parts of plants such as twigs, bark, or in the case of leaf insects as leaves. Hence statement 1 is correct. They are part of the Phasmatodea order and are also referred to as “phasmids” or “stick and leaf insects”. They feed on plants and typically inhabit densely vegetated areas. Hence statement 2 is correct. Their natural range extends from islands in the Indian Ocean, across parts of mainland South Asia and Southeast Asia, to Papua New Guinea and Australia in the western Pacific. They are also largely nocturnal, resulting in a relative lack of movement during the day that makes locating them quite difficult in the wild. Incorrect Solution (c) Walking leaves are known for their unusual appearance as they look similar to parts of plants such as twigs, bark, or in the case of leaf insects as leaves. Hence statement 1 is correct. They are part of the Phasmatodea order and are also referred to as “phasmids” or “stick and leaf insects”. They feed on plants and typically inhabit densely vegetated areas. Hence statement 2 is correct. Their natural range extends from islands in the Indian Ocean, across parts of mainland South Asia and Southeast Asia, to Papua New Guinea and Australia in the western Pacific. They are also largely nocturnal, resulting in a relative lack of movement during the day that makes locating them quite difficult in the wild. Question 28 of 35 28. Question Which of the following are the reasons for the declining population of penguins? Global warming causing early sea ice melting in Antarctica. Unstable sea ice causes problems in breeding and raising their offspring. The increasing krill production because of climate change. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The reasons for the declining population of penguins: Global warming causing early sea ice melting in Antarctica. Hence statement 1 is correct. Unstable sea ice causes problems in breeding and raising their offspring as Emperor penguins need stable sea ice to breed and raise their chicks. Hence statement 2 is correct. Melting ice leads to premature exposure of chicks to water resulting in their drowning. The decreasing krill production because of climate change as krill provide food for fish, seals, whales, and penguins. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (b) The reasons for the declining population of penguins: Global warming causing early sea ice melting in Antarctica. Hence statement 1 is correct. Unstable sea ice causes problems in breeding and raising their offspring as Emperor penguins need stable sea ice to breed and raise their chicks. Hence statement 2 is correct. Melting ice leads to premature exposure of chicks to water resulting in their drowning. The decreasing krill production because of climate change as krill provide food for fish, seals, whales, and penguins. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Question 29 of 35 29. Question Consider the following statements regarding the DIKSHA Platform: It provides quality e-content for school education in States/UTs. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Education for digital online education. It has embedded assistive technologies for learners with visual or hearing impairments. It has integrated personalized adaptive learning (PAL) software to cater to the specific learning needs of students. How many of the given statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing (DIKSHA) Platform provides quality e-content for school education in States/UTs. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Education for digital online education. Hence statement 2 is correct. It has embedded assistive technologies for learners with visual or hearing impairments. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is yet to integrate personalized adaptive learning (PAL) software to cater to the specific learning needs of students. Hence statement 4 is incorrect. Personalized Adaptive Learning(PAL) is a software-based approach that will allow each student to have an individualized learning experience over the course of the curriculum based on their unique needs and abilities. Incorrect Solution (c) Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing (DIKSHA) Platform provides quality e-content for school education in States/UTs. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Education for digital online education. Hence statement 2 is correct. It has embedded assistive technologies for learners with visual or hearing impairments. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is yet to integrate personalized adaptive learning (PAL) software to cater to the specific learning needs of students. Hence statement 4 is incorrect. Personalized Adaptive Learning(PAL) is a software-based approach that will allow each student to have an individualized learning experience over the course of the curriculum based on their unique needs and abilities. Question 30 of 35 30. Question Consider the following statements regarding Aarogya Maitri Cube: It is the world’s first disaster hospital that can be airlifted. It has been developed indigenously as part of India’s Aarogya Maitri initiative. It contains essential equipment and supplies, such as an operation theatre, etc. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Aarogya Maitri Cube is the world’s first disaster hospital that can be airlifted. Hence statement 1 is correct. It has been developed indigenously as part of India’s Aarogya Maitri initiative to provide essential medical supplies to friendly countries. Hence statement 2 is correct. It has been developed indigenously under the Project Bharat Health Initiative for Sahyog Hita and Maitri (BHISM). It is packed in 72 cubes that contain essential equipment and supplies, such as an operation theatre, a mini-ICU, ventilators, blood test equipment, an X-ray machine, a cooking station, food, water, shelter, a power generator, and more. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) Aarogya Maitri Cube is the world’s first disaster hospital that can be airlifted. Hence statement 1 is correct. It has been developed indigenously as part of India’s Aarogya Maitri initiative to provide essential medical supplies to friendly countries. Hence statement 2 is correct. It has been developed indigenously under the Project Bharat Health Initiative for Sahyog Hita and Maitri (BHISM). It is packed in 72 cubes that contain essential equipment and supplies, such as an operation theatre, a mini-ICU, ventilators, blood test equipment, an X-ray machine, a cooking station, food, water, shelter, a power generator, and more. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 31 of 35 31. Question A worker reaches his factory 5 minutes late if his speed from his house to the factory is 5 km/hr. If he walks at a speed of 6 km/hr, he reaches the factory 5 minutes early. What is the distance of the factory from his house? a) 4 kms b) 6 kms c) 5 kms d) 3 kms Correct Solution (c) Explanation: Let the distance between his house and factory be ‘x’ km. x/5 – x/6 = 10/60 ( The time difference between the two different speeds) X = 5 km Incorrect Solution (c) Explanation: Let the distance between his house and factory be ‘x’ km. x/5 – x/6 = 10/60 ( The time difference between the two different speeds) X = 5 km Question 32 of 35 32. Question A car starts running at the speed of 50 km per hour. The speed of car increases by 2 km at the end of every one hour. What will be the distance covered at the end of ten hours from the start of the journey? a) 600 km b) 580 km c) 590 km d) 620 km Correct Solution (c) Total distance covered by the car in 10 hours = 50 + 52 + 54 + 56 + 58 + 60 + 62 + 64 + 66 + 68 The sum of ten terms in arithmetic progression whose first number is 50 and last number is 68 is = 10/2 * (50 + 68) =590 km Therefore, the required result will be 590 km. Incorrect Solution (c) Total distance covered by the car in 10 hours = 50 + 52 + 54 + 56 + 58 + 60 + 62 + 64 + 66 + 68 The sum of ten terms in arithmetic progression whose first number is 50 and last number is 68 is = 10/2 * (50 + 68) =590 km Therefore, the required result will be 590 km. Question 33 of 35 33. Question 9 boys and 12 girls perform a task in 15 days. The same task is performed by 39 boys and 72 girls in 3 days. Then what will be the time taken by 20 boys and 5 girls in performing the same task? a) 12 days b) 8 days c) 9 days d) 10 days Correct Solution (d) Let 1 boy’s 1 day’s work = x (i.e. efficiency of 1 boy = ‘x’ units/day) and 1 girl’s 1 day’s work = y (i.e. efficiency of 1 girl = ‘y’ units/day). Then, 9x + 12y = 1/15 ………………І (9 boys’ & 12 girls’ 1 day’s work) 39x + 72y = 1/3 ………….…ІІ (39 boys’ & 72 girls’ 1 day’s work). Multiplying equation І by 6 and then subtracting equation ІІ from it, we get, x = 1/225. Putting the value of x in either equation І or equation ІІ will yield y = 1/450. So, 20 boys’ and 5 girls’ 1 day’s work = 20/225 + 5/450 = 1/10. Since 1/10 part is performed in 1 day. So, 1 part is performed in 1/(1/10) day,i.e. 10 days. Incorrect Solution (d) Let 1 boy’s 1 day’s work = x (i.e. efficiency of 1 boy = ‘x’ units/day) and 1 girl’s 1 day’s work = y (i.e. efficiency of 1 girl = ‘y’ units/day). Then, 9x + 12y = 1/15 ………………І (9 boys’ & 12 girls’ 1 day’s work) 39x + 72y = 1/3 ………….…ІІ (39 boys’ & 72 girls’ 1 day’s work). Multiplying equation І by 6 and then subtracting equation ІІ from it, we get, x = 1/225. Putting the value of x in either equation І or equation ІІ will yield y = 1/450. So, 20 boys’ and 5 girls’ 1 day’s work = 20/225 + 5/450 = 1/10. Since 1/10 part is performed in 1 day. So, 1 part is performed in 1/(1/10) day,i.e. 10 days. Question 34 of 35 34. Question In an examination 70% of the candidate passed in English, 80% passed in Mathematics, 10% failed in both subjects. If 144 candidates passed in both, the total number of candidates was: a) 125 b) 200 c) 240 d) 375 Correct Solution (c) Failed candidates in English = (100 – 70) = 30% Failed candidates in Mathematics = (100 – 80) = 20% Candidates who fail in both subject = 10% Candidates who only fail in English = 30 – 10 = 20% Candidates who only fail in Mathematics = 20 – 10 = 10% Percentage of passed students in both subject = 100 – (Candidates who only fail in English + Candidates who only fail in Mathematics + Candidates who fail in both subject) = 100 – (20 + 10 + 10) = 60% According to the question, 60% of students = 144 Total students: = (144/60) × 100 = 240 Incorrect Solution (c) Failed candidates in English = (100 – 70) = 30% Failed candidates in Mathematics = (100 – 80) = 20% Candidates who fail in both subject = 10% Candidates who only fail in English = 30 – 10 = 20% Candidates who only fail in Mathematics = 20 – 10 = 10% Percentage of passed students in both subject = 100 – (Candidates who only fail in English + Candidates who only fail in Mathematics + Candidates who fail in both subject) = 100 – (20 + 10 + 10) = 60% According to the question, 60% of students = 144 Total students: = (144/60) × 100 = 240 Question 35 of 35 35. Question One Amoeba splits into ten Amoeba to form the next generation, but due to the prevailing ecological conditions, only 50% survive. If the number of surviving amoebas in the 6th generation is 3125, what must have been their number in the first generation? a) 3 b) 1 c) 2 d) 5 Correct Solution (b) Let there be ‘x’ Amoeba in the first generation, i.e. n1 = x. So, n2 = 10x, but only 50% survive, So, n2, survived = 10x/2 = 5x. n3 = 10(5x), but only 50% survive, So, n3, survived = 10(5x)/2 = 25x = 52x. Similarly, n6,survived = 56-1 x = 55x Now, it’s given that: 55x = 3125 ⇒ 3125x = 3125 ∴ x = 1.   Incorrect Solution (b) Let there be ‘x’ Amoeba in the first generation, i.e. n1 = x. So, n2 = 10x, but only 50% survive, So, n2, survived = 10x/2 = 5x. n3 = 10(5x), but only 50% survive, So, n3, survived = 10(5x)/2 = 25x = 52x. Similarly, n6,survived = 56-1 x = 55x Now, it’s given that: 55x = 3125 ⇒ 3125x = 3125 ∴ x = 1.   window.wpProQuizInitList = window.wpProQuizInitList || []; window.wpProQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpProQuiz_3542', init: { quizId: 3542, mode: 1, globalPoints: 70, timelimit: 1800, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 704, qpp: 0, catPoints: [70], formPos: 0, lbn: "Test-summary", json: {"30332":{"type":"single","id":30332,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30334":{"type":"single","id":30334,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30337":{"type":"single","id":30337,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30339":{"type":"single","id":30339,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30341":{"type":"single","id":30341,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30342":{"type":"single","id":30342,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30343":{"type":"single","id":30343,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30346":{"type":"single","id":30346,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30348":{"type":"single","id":30348,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30351":{"type":"single","id":30351,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30352":{"type":"single","id":30352,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30354":{"type":"single","id":30354,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30357":{"type":"single","id":30357,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30360":{"type":"single","id":30360,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30363":{"type":"single","id":30363,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30365":{"type":"single","id":30365,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30366":{"type":"single","id":30366,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30369":{"type":"single","id":30369,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30370":{"type":"single","id":30370,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30371":{"type":"single","id":30371,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30372":{"type":"single","id":30372,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30374":{"type":"single","id":30374,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30376":{"type":"single","id":30376,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30378":{"type":"single","id":30378,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30381":{"type":"single","id":30381,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30384":{"type":"single","id":30384,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"30385":{"type":"single","id":30385,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30386":{"type":"single","id":30386,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"30388":{"type":"single","id":30388,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30389":{"type":"single","id":30389,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30392":{"type":"single","id":30392,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30394":{"type":"single","id":30394,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30396":{"type":"single","id":30396,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"30399":{"type":"single","id":30399,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"30400":{"type":"single","id":30400,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]}} } }); All the Best IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 11th March 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Lok Adalat Syllabus Prelims and Mains – Polity Context: National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) successfully organised the first National Lok Adalat of 2024 in the taluks, districts and high courts of 34 states and Union territories on Saturday. Background:- Over 11.3 million cases settled in first National Lok Adalat of 2024.Figures show the effectiveness of alternative mechanisms for dispute resolution. About Lok Adalat Lok Adalat is one of the alternative dispute redressal mechanisms, it is a forum where disputes/cases pending in the court of law or at pre-litigation stage are settled/ compromised amicably. Lok Adalats have been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 Under the said Act, the award (decision) made by the Lok Adalats is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and is final and binding on all parties and no appeal against such an award lies before any court of law. If the parties are not satisfied with the award of the Lok Adalat though there is no provision for an appeal against such an award, but they are free to initiate litigation by approaching the court of appropriate jurisdiction by filing a case by following the required procedure, in exercise of their right to litigate. There is no court fee payable when a matter is filed in a Lok Adalat. If a matter pending in the court of law is referred to the Lok Adalat and is settled subsequently, the court fee originally paid in the court on the complaints/petition is also refunded back to the parties. The persons deciding the cases in the Lok Adalats are called the Members of the Lok Adalats, they have the role of statutory conciliators only and do not have any judicial role; therefore they can only persuade the parties to come to a conclusion for settling the dispute outside the court in the Lok Adalat and shall not pressurize or coerce any of the parties to compromise or settle cases or matters either directly or indirectly. Disputes before Lok Adalat would be decided on the basis of the compromise or settlement between the parties. The members shall assist the parties in an independent and impartial manner in their attempt to reach amicable settlement of their dispute. National Lok Adalat National Level Lok Adalats are held for at regular intervals where on a single day Lok Adalats are held throughout the country, in all the courts right from the Supreme Court till the Taluk Levels wherein cases are disposed off in huge numbers. Permanent Lok Adalat The other type of Lok Adalat is the Permanent Lok Adalat, organized under Section 22-B of The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. Permanent Lok Adalats have been set up as permanent bodies for providing compulsory pre-litigative mechanism for conciliation and settlement of cases relating to Public Utility Services like transport, postal, telegraph etc. Here, even if the parties fail to reach to a settlement, the Permanent Lok Adalat gets jurisdiction to decide the dispute, provided, the dispute does not relate to any offence. Source: Nalsa Haiti Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: With Haiti’s capital spiraling deeper into gang violence, the U.S. said on Sunday that it has airlifted non-essential American staff from its embassy. Background: Armed groups who had been calling for Prime Minister Ariel Henry’s resignation have already attacked airports, police stations, sea ports, the Central Bank and the country’s national soccer stadium. The situation reached critical mass earlier this month when the country’s two main prisons were raided, leading to the escape of about 4,000 prisoners. About Haiti: Haiti is a country on the island of Hispaniola in the Caribbean Sea.The capital is Port-au-Prince. It occupies the western three-eighths of the Hispaniola island which it shares with the Dominican Republic. Cuba lies some 50 miles (80 km) west of Haiti’s northern peninsula, across the Windward Passage, a strait connecting the Atlantic to the Caribbean.Jamaica lies on the west of Haiti and Great Inagua Island (of The Bahamas) lies roughly 70 miles (110 km) to the north of Haiti. It is the third largest country in the Caribbean (after Cuba and Dominican Republic) Haiti has the lowest Human Development Index in the Americas, as well as widespread slavery. The country endured a coup in 2004, which prompted U.N. intervention, as well as a catastrophic earthquake in 2010 that killed over 250,000 people and a cholera outbreak. Haiti has experienced a socioeconomic and political crisis marked by riots and protests, widespread hunger, and increased gang activity Source: Wikipedia INDIA ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE (AI) MISSION Syllabus Prelims- Current Event Context: Recently, the Union Cabinet has approved Rs 10,371.92 crore investment for the India Artificial Intelligence (AI) mission. Background: The India Artificial Intelligence (AI) Mission is a significant initiative by the Indian government to harness the transformative potential of AI for the benefit of the nation. About India Artificial Intelligence (AI) Mission The India Artificial Intelligence (AI) Mission is a significant initiative by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). India’s approach to AI is holistic, focusing on enhancing economic growth, social development, and leveraging AI for the public good. The mission aims to position India as a global leader in AI research and innovation. The India Artificial Intelligence (AI) Mission aligns with the vision of “Making AI in India” and “Making AI Work for India”. It aims to establish a comprehensive ecosystem that catalyzes AI innovation through strategic programs and partnerships across both the public and private sectors. AI is expected to play a pivotal role in sectors such as healthcare, agriculture, education, smart cities, infrastructure, and smart mobility. By integrating AI into these domains, India aims to drive innovation and address societal challenges. IndiaAI Innovation Centre will focus on developing and deploying indigenous Large Multimodal Models (LMMs) and domain-specific foundational models in critical sectors. The IndiaAI Mission will be implemented by the ‘IndiaAI’ Independent Business Division (IBD) under the Digital India Corporation (DIC). The approved budget for the mission is Rs. 10,371.92 crore. Startups, academia, researchers, and industry will have access to the AI supercomputing infrastructure established under this mission Source: Times Of India Previous Year Question Q1. With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following? Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units Create meaningful short stories and songs Disease diagnosis Text-to-Speech Conversion Wireless transmission of electrical energy Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 3 and 5 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2, 4 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 UTTAR POORA TRANSFORMATIVE INDUSTRIALISATION SCHEME (UNNATI) 2024 Syllabus Prelims : Economy Context: Union Cabinet has approved Uttar Poorva Transformative Industrialization Scheme, 2024. Background: The Uttar Poorva Transformative Industrialization Scheme, is a transformative initiative by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) to foster economic growth and industrialization in the North Eastern Region of India. About Uttar Poorva Transformative Industrialization Scheme: Government of India has formulated The Uttar Poorva Transformative Industrialization Scheme, also known as UNNATI 2024, as a Central Sector Scheme. It aims for the development of Industries and generation of employment in the states of North East Region. It will be implemented by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) in cooperation with the states. The implementation will be overseen by committees at the national and state levels. The Steering Committee, headed by the Secretary of DPIIT, will decide upon any interpretation of the scheme within its overall financial outlay and issue detailed guidelines for execution. The scheme’s main objective is to generate gainful employment, which will lead to the area’s overall socio-economic development. It will create productive economic activity in the manufacturing and service sectors. Source: PIB ANNUAL INTERNATIONAL BIOCURATION CONFERENCE(AIBC-2024) Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Recently India hosted the 17th Annual International Biocuration Conference (AIBC-2024). Background: It is the first time the Annual International Biocuration Conference is being held in India. The 16th Annual Biocuration Conference was held in Italy. About Biocuration Biocuration is a critical process in managing and organizing biological data. It involves curating, annotating, and structuring information related to genes, proteins, pathways, and other biological entities. Biocurators play a vital role in ensuring the accuracy, consistency, and accessibility of biological databases. The International Biocuration Conference is a unique event that provides a forum for curators, developers, and users of clinical and life sciences data, knowledge, and models to discuss their work, promote collaboration, and foster the community around this active and growing area of research. 17th Annual International Biocuration Conference (AIBC-2024) held in New Delhi, India. This event is jointly organized by the Indian Biological Data Centre (IBDC), the Regional Centre for Biotechnology (RCB) in Faridabad, and the Department of Plant Molecular Biology at the University of Delhi South Campus. Indian Biological Data Center (IBDC) The IBDC serves as India’s first national repository for life science data. It stores diverse biological data generated from publicly funded research within the country. The IBDC operates with assistance from the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), operates under the Ministry of Science and Technology in India. Source: PIB Nitrogen Pollution Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Context: In 2050, one-third of global river sub-basins are projected to face severe scarcity of clean water due to nitrogen pollution, new research has found. Background: Analysing more than 10,000 global river sub-basins, an international team of researchers found that nitrogen pollution dramatically increased the number of river basin systems considered scarce with regards to its water quality. The supply of clean water for all is one of the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) for 2030. About Nitrogen Pollution: It refers to the excessive presence of nitrogen compounds in the environment, primarily in water bodies like rivers and lakes. According to the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), each year, 200 million tonnes of reactive nitrogen, 80% of the total, is lost to the environment. Sources of Nitrogen Pollution: Agricultural activity is one of the main drivers of nitrogen pollution has been the rising consumption of nitrogen-based fertilizer, which can leach into groundwater or runoff into surface water bodies. Industrial processes like manufacturing processes, particularly those involved in the production of nitrogen-based chemicals and fertilisers, release nitrogen compounds into the environment. Combustion of fossil fuels in industries also emits nitrogen oxides (NOx) into the atmosphere. Livestock waste, primarily from manure and urine, contains nitrogen compounds such as ammonia. Improper storage and management of livestock waste can lead to nitrogen runoff, contaminating water bodies and contributing to eutrophication. Wildfires and burning of cow dung cake as a fuel release nitrogen oxide (NOx) and nitrous oxide (N2O) into the atmosphere. These emissions contribute to air pollution and can have regional and global impacts on atmospheric chemistry and climate. Consequences/Impacts of Nitrogen Pollution: Excess nitrogen acts as a nutrient fertiliser for aquatic plants, leading to excessive growth of algae and other aquatic vegetation. This phenomenon is known as eutrophication and leads to algal blooming. This creates oxygen-depleted zones (dead zones), where aquatic life suffocates and dies. Nitrogen pollution can have direct and indirect effects on human health. High levels of nitrogen dioxide (NO2) in the air can exacerbate respiratory conditions such as asthma and increase the risk of respiratory infections. Nitrate contamination of drinking water can also pose health risks, particularly to infants, by causing methemoglobinemia or blue baby syndrome. Nitrous oxide (N2O) released into the atmosphere can lead to the depletion of the stratospheric ozone layer, which protects the Earth from harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation. It can increase the risk of skin cancer, cataracts, and other health problems in humans, as well as harm marine ecosystems and agricultural crops. Government measures to reduce Nitrogen Pollution: Bharat Stage (BS VI) Emission Standards have made stricter emission standards for vehicles and industries aimed to curb the release of nitrogen oxides and particulate matter, which are precursors to air and water pollution. Nutrient-Based Subsidy (NBS) incentivizes the use of controlled-release fertilisers, encouraging more efficient nutrient management. Soil Health Cards issued to farmers, these cards provide soil nutrient status and customised fertiliser recommendations, promoting balanced nutrient application. Nano Urea is a fertiliser patented and sold by the Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited (IFFCO), which reduces the unbalanced and indiscriminate use of conventional urea and increases crop productivity. Source: Economic Times Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) With reference to Indian Biological Data Center (IBDC), consider the following statements: It serves as India’s first national repository for life science data. It stores diverse biological data generated from publicly funded research within the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2.) With reference to the Uttar Poorva Transformative Industrialization Scheme – 2024 , consider the following statements: Uttar Poorva Transformative Industrialization Scheme is a Central Sector Scheme. It aims for the development of Industries and generation of employment in the states of North East Region. It will be implemented by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade. How many of the statements given above are not correct? Only one Only two All three None Q3.)With reference to India Artificial Intelligence (AI) mission, consider the following statements: It is an initiative by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). It aims to position India as a global leader in AI research and innovation. It will be implemented by the ‘IndiaAI’ Independent Business Division (IBD). How many statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 16th March 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Rhodamine B Syllabus Prelims – Current event Context: On February 17, Tamil Nadu banned the sale of cotton candy or candy floss after analysis confirmed the presence of Rhodamine-B.Since then, the Karnataka Government has banned the use of harmful colouring agents in cotton candy and Gobi Manchurian. Background:- When taken even in small quantities for many years, Rhodamine B can cause a lot of health problems including cancers. About Rhodamine B:-   Rhodamine-B is a fluorescent dye used in cosmetics, textile and leather industries. It gives you brilliant pinks, greens and blues. Unfortunately, it is used as a food colouring agent not only in cotton candy but also in the preparation of sweets, various manchurian items and pakodas and in the preparation of sauces for Chinese food. Rhodamine-B has been routinely used in many coloured foods such as cotton candy to make it look appealing and attractive to young persons and children. Studies have shown that Rhodamine-B can cause cell death. In long-term use, it can damage the cerebellum tissue and brainstem. There is recent evidence that it damages the kidney, liver and increases the risk of stomach tumour. It is toxic to the human body and is a carcinogen. FSSAI has approved certain food colours and flavors as safe for consumption. These include: Caramel, Riboflavin (Lactoflavin), Saffron, Annatto, Curcumin (Turmeric), Carotene and carotenoids, including Beta-carotene, red colour from Ponceau 4R, Carmoisine, and Erythrosine, yellow colour (Tartrazine and Sunset Yellow FCF), blue colour (Indigo Carmine and Brilliant Blue FCF) and green colour (Fast Green FCF). Source: The Hindu One Nation, One Election Syllabus Prelims and Mains – Polity Context: The High-level Committee (HLC) on One Nation, One Election submitted its report to President Droupadi Murmu on Thursday (March 14) morning. Background: HLC was chaired by former president Ram Nath Kovind. What is meant by simultaneous elections? Simultaneous elections, popularly referred to as “One Nation, One Election”, means holding elections to Lok Sabha, all state Legislative Assemblies, and urban and rural local bodies (municipalities and panchayats) at the same time. Currently, all these elections are held independently of one another, following timelines dictated by the terms of every individual elected body. Simultaneous elections for Lok Sabha and state assemblies used to happen in India until the fourth general elections of 1967. However, as successive central governments used constitutional provisions to dismiss state governments before the end of their term, and as coalition governments in the states and the Centre kept collapsing, country came to see elections at different times through the year. According to the HLC report, the country now sees five to six elections in a year — if municipalities and panchayat elections are also included, the number of elections will increase manifold. What is the need for holding simultaneous elections? Frequent elections burden the government exchequer with additional expenditure. If the expenditure incurred by political parties is also added, these figures will be even higher. Asynchronous elections cause uncertainty and instability, thwarting supply chains, business investments and economic growth. Disruption of government machinery due to asynchronous elections causes hardship to citizens. Frequent use of government officials and security forces adversely affect discharge of their duties. Frequent imposition of the Model Code of Conduct (MCC) causes policy paralysis and slows down the pace of the developmental programmes. Staggered elections induce ‘voters’ fatigue’ and present a significant challenge in ensuring their participation. Important  recommendations of HLC AMENDING THE CONSTITUTION: The Constitution should be amended to enable simultaneous elections in two steps.In the first step, simultaneous elections will be held to Lok Sabha and State Assemblies. For this, no ratification by the states will be required for the constitutional amendment.In the second step, elections to municipalities and the panchayats will be synchronised with elections to Lok Sabha and state Assemblies in such a way that local body elections are held within 100 days of the elections to Lok Sabha and state Assemblies. This will require ratification by not less than one-half of the states. SINGLE ELECTORAL ROLL AND ELECTION ID: For the purpose of preparation of single electoral roll and electoral photo identity cards for use in elections to all the three tiers of government, the Constitution should be amended, so that the Election Commission of India can prepare a single electoral roll and election ID in consultation with the State Election Commissions. These amendments will require ratification by not less than one-half of the states. SINGLE ELECTORAL ROLL AND ELECTION ID: For the purpose of preparation of single electoral roll and electoral photo identity cards for use in elections to all the three tiers of government, the Constitution should be amended, so that the Election Commission of India can prepare a single electoral roll and election ID in consultation with the State Election Commissions. These amendments will require ratification by not less than one-half of the states. Source: The Indian Express GLOBAL METHANE TRACKER 2024 Syllabus Prelims & Mains -Environment Context: Recently, International Energy Agency (IEA) has released Global Methane Tracker 2024. Background: The Global Methane Pledge, led by the US and EU, aims to slash methane emissions by 30% by 2030 About Global Methane Tracker The Global Methane Tracker is an annual report released by the International Energy Agency (IEA). It provides the most recent data on methane emissions from the energy sector, incorporating new scientific studies, measurement campaigns, and satellite-collected information. Key Highlights of the 2024 Report: Methane emissions from fuel use in 2023 were nearly the highest ever, at 120 million tonnes (Mt). This is a slight increase compared to 2022. Bioenergy, a renewable energy form generated by plant and animal waste, contributed an additional 10 million tons of emissions. Of the 120 Mt of methane released into the atmosphere, around 80 million tons came from just 10 countries. The United States led in methane emissions from oil and gas operations, closely followed by Russia. China led in emissions from coal operations. To achieve the Paris Agreement goal of limiting warming to 1.5°C, the world needs to reduce methane emissions from fossil fuels by 75% by 2030. The IEA estimated that this goal would require about $170 billion in spending, less than 5% of the income generated by the fossil fuel industry in 2023. About the International Energy Agency (IEA): The IEA is an autonomous inter-governmental organization within the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) framework. It was created in response to the 1973-1974 oil crisis when an oil embargo by major producers pushed prices to historic levels and exposed the vulnerability of industrialized countries to dependency on oil imports. Source: IEA INDIAN NETWORK FOR FISHERY AND ANIMAL ANTIMICROBIAL RESISTANCE (INFAAR) Syllabus Prelims – Science Context: Recently, The FAO published an analytical report on the Indian Network for Fishery and Animal Antimicrobial Resistance (INFAAR) for 2019-22 report has released recently. Background: The report showed low levels of resistance in both the fisheries and animal sectors to certain less commonly used antibiotics (such as chloramphenicol). About INDIAN NETWORK FOR FISHERY AND ANIMAL ANTIMICROBIAL RESISTANCE (INFAAR): The Indian Network for Fishery and Animal Antimicrobial Resistance (INFAAR) is a network of laboratories established under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), with technical support from the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and the United States Agency for International Development (USAID). It is dedicated to Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) surveillance in the fisheries and livestock sectors. The network aims to document AMR in different production systems, describe the spread of resistant bacterial strains and resistance genes, identify trends in resistance, and generate hypotheses about sources and reservoirs of resistant bacteria through a structured national surveillance program. INFAAR also collates surveillance data to evaluate baseline data and get indications about the AMR trends in livestock, poultry, and fisheries. This helps to understand the impact of interventions required for the mitigation of antimicrobial resistance. The rise of AMR is exacerbated by the irrational use of antimicrobial agents in human and animal health and their presence in the environment. Over half of the antimicrobials used in animals/fish are excreted as waste, contributing to the emergence and spread of AMR. Source: Down To Earth EURASIAN ECONOMIC UNION (EAEU) Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: India and the five-member Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU), led by Russia, are poised to commence negotiations on a free trade agreement (FTA). Background: This proposed agreement aims to boost India’s exports to the EAEU countries, particularly in sectors such as engineering goods, electronics, and agriculture. About Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU or EEU) The Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU or EEU) is an economic union of five post-Soviet states located in Eurasia. The member states are Armenia, Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, and Russia. The EAEU was established to promote the free movement of goods, persons, services, and capital. Key facts about the EAEU: The EAEU was officially established on January 1, 2015. The union operates through supranational and intergovernmental institutions. The EAEU has an integrated single market. As of 2023, it consists of 183 million people and a gross domestic product of over $2.4 trillion. The EAEU encourages the free movement of goods and services, and provides for common policies in the macroeconomic sphere, transport, industry and agriculture, energy, foreign trade and investment, customs, technical regulation, competition, and antitrust regulation. Provisions for a single currency and greater integration are envisioned for the future. The EAEU’s formal objectives are to create a common market much like the European Union (EU). However, unlike the EU, the EAEU does not share a common currency. Source: Business Standard Vanadium Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Science Context: Researchers at the Geological Survey of India (GSI) discovered vanadium, a critical mineral from the Gulf of Khambhat in Gujarat. Background: Rarely found in its pure form naturally, vanadium is present in over 55 different minerals, which makes its production costly.At Gulf of Khambhat, it has been found in a mineral called titanomagnetite, which is formed when molten lava cools rapidly. About Vanadium: It is a chemical element with the symbol “V” and the atomic number 23 and is classified as a transition metal. It is an abundant element in the earth’s crust, ranking 22nd in position in the upper continental crust. It is listed as one of the 30 critical minerals identified by the Government of India. It rarely exists as a free element in nature but can be found in about 65 different minerals, including magnetite, vanadinite, carnotite, and patronite. It can be detected spectroscopically in the Sun’s rays and occasionally in the light of other stars. Applications of Vanadium: It is used in vanadium redox flow batteries, a type of rechargeable battery used for large-scale energy storage in renewable energy systems. It is used as an alloying element in steel production, where it imparts increased strength, toughness, and heat resistance to the steel. The addition of 0.15% vanadium strengthens cast iron by 10-25%. Its compounds are used as catalysts in the production of chemicals, plastics, and other materials. Its alloys are also used to make nuclear reactors because of their low-neutron-absorbing properties. It is used for the treatment of prediabetes and diabetes. It is used in the manufacture of aerospace and aviation components due to its high strength, lightweight, and heat resistance properties. It is used in the production of pigments, and ceramics, and as a reducing agent in metallurgy. Source: Times Of India Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.)Consider the following countries: Armenia Belarus Kazakhstan Kyrgyzstan Afghanistan Russia How many of the above-mentioned countries are the members of the Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU)? Only two Only three Only four Only five Q2.) With reference to Indian Network for Fishery and Animal Antimicrobial Resistance (INFAAR), consider the following statements: It is a network of laboratories established under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR). INFAAR collates surveillance data to evaluate baseline data and identify AMR trends in livestock, poultry, and fisheries. It seeks to understand the impact of interventions required for the mitigation of antimicrobial resistance. How many of the statements given above are not correct? Only one Only two All three None Q3.) Consider the following statements: The Global Methane Tracker is an annual report released by the International Energy Agency (IEA). It provides the most recent data on methane emissions from the energy sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  16th March  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  1st March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 16th March 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

[DAY 12] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 –ENVIRONMENT, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question Consider the following: Allopatric Speciation: When a species separates into two separate groups which are isolated from one another. Peripatric Speciation: When small groups of individuals break off from the larger group and form a new species. Parapatric Speciation: A species is spread out over a large geographic area. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Allopatric Speciation  Occurs when a species separates into two separate groups which are isolated from one another. A physical barrier, such as a mountain range or a waterway, makes it impossible for them to breed with one another. Each species develops differently based on the demands of their unique habitat or the genetic characteristics of the group that are passed on to offspring. Peripatric Speciation When small groups of individuals break off from the larger group and form a new species, this is called peripatric speciation. As in allopatric speciation, physical barriers make it impossible for members of the groups to interbreed with one another. The main difference between allopatric speciation and peripatric speciation is that in peripatric speciation, one group is much smaller than the other. Unique characteristics of the smaller groups are passed on to future generations of the group, making those traits more common among that group and distinguishing it from the others. Parapatric Speciation In parapatric speciation, a species is spread out over a large geographic area. Although it is possible for any member of the species to mate with another member, individuals only mate with those in their own geographic region. Like allopatric and peripatric speciation, different habitats influence the development of different species in parapatric speciation. Instead of being separated by a physical barrier, the species are separated by differences in the same environment. Incorrect Solution (c) Allopatric Speciation  Occurs when a species separates into two separate groups which are isolated from one another. A physical barrier, such as a mountain range or a waterway, makes it impossible for them to breed with one another. Each species develops differently based on the demands of their unique habitat or the genetic characteristics of the group that are passed on to offspring. Peripatric Speciation When small groups of individuals break off from the larger group and form a new species, this is called peripatric speciation. As in allopatric speciation, physical barriers make it impossible for members of the groups to interbreed with one another. The main difference between allopatric speciation and peripatric speciation is that in peripatric speciation, one group is much smaller than the other. Unique characteristics of the smaller groups are passed on to future generations of the group, making those traits more common among that group and distinguishing it from the others. Parapatric Speciation In parapatric speciation, a species is spread out over a large geographic area. Although it is possible for any member of the species to mate with another member, individuals only mate with those in their own geographic region. Like allopatric and peripatric speciation, different habitats influence the development of different species in parapatric speciation. Instead of being separated by a physical barrier, the species are separated by differences in the same environment. Question 2 of 35 2. Question Consider the following Events of a Hydrological Cycle: Condensation Evaporation Percolation Storage Precipitation Choose the Correct order of arrangement in the Earth-Atmosphere system: a) 2-5-1-3-4 b) 2-5-1-4-3 c) 2-1-5-3-4 d) 2-1-5-4-3 Correct Solution (c) Evaporation, one of the major processes in the cycle, is the transfer of water from the surface of the Earth to the atmosphere. By evaporation, water in the liquid state is transferred to the gaseous or vapour The main factors affecting evaporation are temperature, humidity, wind speed and solar radiation Condensation is the transition process from the vapour state to the liquid state. When the air moves up and reaches sufficient height, the air becomes so cool that the water vapour present in it condenses to form tiny droplets of water, which appear as clouds. Precipitation: Many tiny water droplets come together (as clouds) and fall down as rain, snow or hail. It may form streams and rivers finally reaching ocean or can also get collected in ponds & lakes. Percolation also known as infiltration is the movement of water though the soil, and it’s layers by gravity. Most of this water becomes available to us as ground water stored in aquifer. All of the above given water sources acts as a Storage which again evaporates to form water vapour completing the Water Cycle or Hydrological cycle. Incorrect Solution (c) Evaporation, one of the major processes in the cycle, is the transfer of water from the surface of the Earth to the atmosphere. By evaporation, water in the liquid state is transferred to the gaseous or vapour The main factors affecting evaporation are temperature, humidity, wind speed and solar radiation Condensation is the transition process from the vapour state to the liquid state. When the air moves up and reaches sufficient height, the air becomes so cool that the water vapour present in it condenses to form tiny droplets of water, which appear as clouds. Precipitation: Many tiny water droplets come together (as clouds) and fall down as rain, snow or hail. It may form streams and rivers finally reaching ocean or can also get collected in ponds & lakes. Percolation also known as infiltration is the movement of water though the soil, and it’s layers by gravity. Most of this water becomes available to us as ground water stored in aquifer. All of the above given water sources acts as a Storage which again evaporates to form water vapour completing the Water Cycle or Hydrological cycle. Question 3 of 35 3. Question Consider the following: Euryphagic: The species that have a wide range of tolerance for food. Homeotherms:: Animals that have a constant body temperature. Xerocoles:: Terrestrial animals that can tolerate extremely dry conditions. Stenothermal:: The species that have a narrow range of tolerance for temperature. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) Euryphagic The species that have a wide range of tolerance for food. Eurythermal The species that have a wide range of tolerance for temperature. Euryhydric The species that have a wide range of tolerance for water. Euryhaline The species that have a wide range of tolerance for salinity. Stenothermal The species that have a narrow range of tolerance for temperature. Endotherms Animals that primarily produces its own heat. Homeotherms Animals that have a constant body temperature. Hydrocoles Aquatic animals that need water like fish. Mesocoles Terrestrial animals that need moderate amounts of water. Xerocoles Terrestrial animals that can tolerate extremely dry conditions. Ectotherms Animals that primarily gains heat through the environment. Incorrect Solution (d) Euryphagic The species that have a wide range of tolerance for food. Eurythermal The species that have a wide range of tolerance for temperature. Euryhydric The species that have a wide range of tolerance for water. Euryhaline The species that have a wide range of tolerance for salinity. Stenothermal The species that have a narrow range of tolerance for temperature. Endotherms Animals that primarily produces its own heat. Homeotherms Animals that have a constant body temperature. Hydrocoles Aquatic animals that need water like fish. Mesocoles Terrestrial animals that need moderate amounts of water. Xerocoles Terrestrial animals that can tolerate extremely dry conditions. Ectotherms Animals that primarily gains heat through the environment. Question 4 of 35 4. Question With reference to the Ramsar Convention, consider the following statements: It provides the framework for national action and international cooperation for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources. It is affiliated with the United Nations system of Multilateral Environmental Agreements. India became a member of the convention in 1971. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect The Ramsar Convention or the Convention on Wetlands is an intergovernmental treaty that provides the framework for national action and international cooperation for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources. It was adopted in the Iranian city of Ramsar in 1971 and came into force in 1975, and it is the only global environmental treaty that deals with a particular ecosystem. The Ramsar is not affiliated with the United Nations system of Multilateral Environmental Agreements, but it works very closely with the other MEAs and is a full partner among the “biodiversity-related cluster” of treaties and agreements. India became a contracting party to the Ramsar Convention in 1981 and has been implementing conservation programmes for wetlands, mangroves, and coral reefs. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect The Ramsar Convention or the Convention on Wetlands is an intergovernmental treaty that provides the framework for national action and international cooperation for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources. It was adopted in the Iranian city of Ramsar in 1971 and came into force in 1975, and it is the only global environmental treaty that deals with a particular ecosystem. The Ramsar is not affiliated with the United Nations system of Multilateral Environmental Agreements, but it works very closely with the other MEAs and is a full partner among the “biodiversity-related cluster” of treaties and agreements. India became a contracting party to the Ramsar Convention in 1981 and has been implementing conservation programmes for wetlands, mangroves, and coral reefs. Question 5 of 35 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding ecological succession: In the successive seral stages, there is a change in the diversity of species of organisms as well as their biomass. At any time during primary or secondary succession, a particular seral stage of succession cannot return to an earlier stage. Both hydrarch and xerarch successions lead to mesic community. Climax is reached more quickly in secondary succession than in the primary succession. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Correct In the successive seral stages, there is a change in the diversity of species of organisms as well as their biomass. Natural or human induced disturbances can convert a particular seral stage of succession to an earlier stage. Both hydrarch and xerarch successions lead to mesic community. Climax is reached more quickly in secondary succession than in the primary succession.   Notes: Ecological Succession- The gradual and fairly predictable change in the species composition of a given area is called ecological succession. During succession some species colonise an area and their population become more numerous whereas populations of other species decline and even disappear. The entire sequence of communities that successively change in a given area are called sere(s). The individual transitional communities are termed seral stages or seral communities. In the successive seral stages, there is a change in the diversity of species of organisms, increase in the number of species and organisms as well as an increase in the total biomass. The present-day communities in the world have come to be because of succession that has occurred over millions of years since life started on earth. Actually, succession and evolution would have been parallel processes at that time. Succession is hence a process that starts in an area where no living organisms are there – these could be areas where no living organisms ever existed, say bare rock; or in areas that somehow, lost all the living organisms that existed there. The former is called primary succession, while the latter is termed secondary succession. Examples of areas where primary succession occurs are newly cooled lava, bare rock, newly created pond or reservoir. The establishment of a new biotic community is generally slow. Before a biotic community of diverse organisms can become established, there must be soil. Depending mostly on the climate, it takes natural processes several hundred to several thousand years to produce fertile soil on bare rock. Secondary succession begins in areas where natural biotic communities have been destroyed such as in abandoned farm lands, burned or cut forests, lands that have been flooded. Since some soil or sediment is present, succession is faster than primary succession. At any time during primary or secondary succession, natural or human induced disturbances (fi re, deforestation, etc.), can convert a particular seral stage of succession to an earlier stage. Also, such disturbances create new conditions that encourage some species and discourage or eliminate other species. Based on the nature of the habitat – whether it is water (or very wet areas) or it is on very dry areas – succession of plants is called hydrarch or xerarch, respectively. Hydrarch succession takes place in wet areas and the successional series progress from hydric to the mesic conditions. As against this, xerarch succession takes place in dry areas and the series progress from xeric to mesic conditions. Hence, both hydrarch and xerarch successions lead to medium water conditions (mesic) – neither too dry (xeric) nor too wet (hydric). The species that invade a bare area are called pioneer species. In primary succession on rocks these are usually lichens which are able to secrete acids to dissolve rock, helping in weathering and soil formation. In primary succession in water, the pioneers are the small phytoplanktons, which are replaced with time by rooted-submerged plants, rooted-floating angiosperms followed by free-floating plants, then reed swamp, marsh-meadow, scrub and finally the trees. The climax again would be a forest. In secondary succession the species that invade depend on the condition of the soil, availability of water, the environment as also the seeds or other propagules present. Since soil is already there, the rate of succession is much faster and hence, climax is also reached more quickly. All succession whether taking place in water or on land, proceeds to a similar climax community – the mesic. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Correct In the successive seral stages, there is a change in the diversity of species of organisms as well as their biomass. Natural or human induced disturbances can convert a particular seral stage of succession to an earlier stage. Both hydrarch and xerarch successions lead to mesic community. Climax is reached more quickly in secondary succession than in the primary succession.   Notes: Ecological Succession- The gradual and fairly predictable change in the species composition of a given area is called ecological succession. During succession some species colonise an area and their population become more numerous whereas populations of other species decline and even disappear. The entire sequence of communities that successively change in a given area are called sere(s). The individual transitional communities are termed seral stages or seral communities. In the successive seral stages, there is a change in the diversity of species of organisms, increase in the number of species and organisms as well as an increase in the total biomass. The present-day communities in the world have come to be because of succession that has occurred over millions of years since life started on earth. Actually, succession and evolution would have been parallel processes at that time. Succession is hence a process that starts in an area where no living organisms are there – these could be areas where no living organisms ever existed, say bare rock; or in areas that somehow, lost all the living organisms that existed there. The former is called primary succession, while the latter is termed secondary succession. Examples of areas where primary succession occurs are newly cooled lava, bare rock, newly created pond or reservoir. The establishment of a new biotic community is generally slow. Before a biotic community of diverse organisms can become established, there must be soil. Depending mostly on the climate, it takes natural processes several hundred to several thousand years to produce fertile soil on bare rock. Secondary succession begins in areas where natural biotic communities have been destroyed such as in abandoned farm lands, burned or cut forests, lands that have been flooded. Since some soil or sediment is present, succession is faster than primary succession. At any time during primary or secondary succession, natural or human induced disturbances (fi re, deforestation, etc.), can convert a particular seral stage of succession to an earlier stage. Also, such disturbances create new conditions that encourage some species and discourage or eliminate other species. Based on the nature of the habitat – whether it is water (or very wet areas) or it is on very dry areas – succession of plants is called hydrarch or xerarch, respectively. Hydrarch succession takes place in wet areas and the successional series progress from hydric to the mesic conditions. As against this, xerarch succession takes place in dry areas and the series progress from xeric to mesic conditions. Hence, both hydrarch and xerarch successions lead to medium water conditions (mesic) – neither too dry (xeric) nor too wet (hydric). The species that invade a bare area are called pioneer species. In primary succession on rocks these are usually lichens which are able to secrete acids to dissolve rock, helping in weathering and soil formation. In primary succession in water, the pioneers are the small phytoplanktons, which are replaced with time by rooted-submerged plants, rooted-floating angiosperms followed by free-floating plants, then reed swamp, marsh-meadow, scrub and finally the trees. The climax again would be a forest. In secondary succession the species that invade depend on the condition of the soil, availability of water, the environment as also the seeds or other propagules present. Since soil is already there, the rate of succession is much faster and hence, climax is also reached more quickly. All succession whether taking place in water or on land, proceeds to a similar climax community – the mesic. Question 6 of 35 6. Question Which of the following type of forest occupies the largest area in India? a) Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest b) Sub-tropical Dry Evergreen Forest c) Montane Wet Temperate Forest d) Tropical Wet Evergreen Forest Correct Solution (a) Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest: These are the most widespread forests in India. They are also called the monsoon forests. They spread over regions that receive rainfall between 70-200 cm. On the basis of the availability of water, these forests are further divided into moist and dry deciduous. The moist deciduous forests are more pronounced in the regions which record rainfall between 100-200 cm. Dry deciduous forest covers vast areas of the country, where rainfall ranges between 70 -100 cm. As the dry season begins, the trees shed their leaves completely and the forest appears like a vast grassland with naked trees all around. Tendu, palas, amaltas, bel, khair, axlewood, etc. are the common trees of these forests. Incorrect Solution (a) Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest: These are the most widespread forests in India. They are also called the monsoon forests. They spread over regions that receive rainfall between 70-200 cm. On the basis of the availability of water, these forests are further divided into moist and dry deciduous. The moist deciduous forests are more pronounced in the regions which record rainfall between 100-200 cm. Dry deciduous forest covers vast areas of the country, where rainfall ranges between 70 -100 cm. As the dry season begins, the trees shed their leaves completely and the forest appears like a vast grassland with naked trees all around. Tendu, palas, amaltas, bel, khair, axlewood, etc. are the common trees of these forests. Question 7 of 35 7. Question Consider the following statements: Benthos is unattached organisms that live at the air-water interface. Nektons are those animals that are able to swim and move independently of water currents. Neustons are organisms that live at the bottom of the water mass. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Benthic organisms are those found living at the bottom of the water mass. Benthic organisms are often deposit feeders, obtaining nutrition from ingesting biota, organic and inorganic particles from the sediment surface or within the sediments. Many species, particularly polychaete worms, ingest subsurface sediments and convey them to the sediment–water interface as fecal pellets     Nekton (or swimmers) are living organisms that are able to swim and move independently of currents. Nekton are heterotrophic and have a large size range, with familiar examples such as fish, squid, octopus, sharks, and marine mammals. Neuston, also known as pleuston, are organisms that live at the surface of the ocean or an estuary, or at the surface of a lake, river or pond. Neuston can live on top of the water surface or may be attached to the underside of the water surface.e.g floating plants. Notes: Periphyton: These are organisms which remain attached to stems and leaves of rooted plants or substances emerging above the bottom mud such as sessile algae. Plankton: Microscopic floating organisms such as algae, diatoms, protozoans and larval forms are called plankton. This group includes both microscopic plants like algae (phytoplankton) and animals like crustaceans and protozoans (zooplankton). Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Benthic organisms are those found living at the bottom of the water mass. Benthic organisms are often deposit feeders, obtaining nutrition from ingesting biota, organic and inorganic particles from the sediment surface or within the sediments. Many species, particularly polychaete worms, ingest subsurface sediments and convey them to the sediment–water interface as fecal pellets     Nekton (or swimmers) are living organisms that are able to swim and move independently of currents. Nekton are heterotrophic and have a large size range, with familiar examples such as fish, squid, octopus, sharks, and marine mammals. Neuston, also known as pleuston, are organisms that live at the surface of the ocean or an estuary, or at the surface of a lake, river or pond. Neuston can live on top of the water surface or may be attached to the underside of the water surface.e.g floating plants. Notes: Periphyton: These are organisms which remain attached to stems and leaves of rooted plants or substances emerging above the bottom mud such as sessile algae. Plankton: Microscopic floating organisms such as algae, diatoms, protozoans and larval forms are called plankton. This group includes both microscopic plants like algae (phytoplankton) and animals like crustaceans and protozoans (zooplankton). Question 8 of 35 8. Question Consider the following statements regarding Ramsar sites in India: There are 75 Ramsar sites in India. Kabartal in Jharkhand has been recognised as a wetland of international importance, the first such wetland in the state. Bangadesh’s part of Sunderban is also a Ramsar site like Indian part of Sundarban. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct There are 80 Ramsar sites in India as of January, 2024 Kabartal in Bihar has been recognised as a wetland of international importance, the first such wetland in the state. Bangadesh’s part of Sunderban is also a Ramsar site like Indian part of Sundarban. Notes: A Ramsar site is a wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention, which is also known as the ‘Convention on Wetlands’ — an intergovernmental environmental treaty established by UNESCO in 1971, and named after the city of Ramsar in Iran, where the convention was signed that year. Ramsar recognition is the identification of wetlands around the world, which are of international importance, especially if they provide habitat to waterfowl (about 180 species of birds). There is international interest and cooperation in the conservation of such wetlands and a judicious use of their resources.   Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct There are 80 Ramsar sites in India as of January, 2024 Kabartal in Bihar has been recognised as a wetland of international importance, the first such wetland in the state. Bangadesh’s part of Sunderban is also a Ramsar site like Indian part of Sundarban. Notes: A Ramsar site is a wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention, which is also known as the ‘Convention on Wetlands’ — an intergovernmental environmental treaty established by UNESCO in 1971, and named after the city of Ramsar in Iran, where the convention was signed that year. Ramsar recognition is the identification of wetlands around the world, which are of international importance, especially if they provide habitat to waterfowl (about 180 species of birds). There is international interest and cooperation in the conservation of such wetlands and a judicious use of their resources.   Question 9 of 35 9. Question Consider the following statements regarding Photic and Aphotic Zone of aquatic ecosystem: Photic Zone is the upper layer of the aquatic ecosystems Photosynthesis takes place in the photic zone. Aphotic zone is a region of oxygen generation How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Photic Zone is the upper layer of the aquatic ecosystems. Both photosynthesis and respiration activity takes place in Photic Zone.   Aphotic zone is a region of oxygen consumption.   Notes: Photic zone: It is the upper layer of the aquatic ecosystems, up to which light penetrates and within which photosynthetic activity is confined. The depth of this zone depends on the transparency of water. Both photosynthesis and respiration activity takes place. Photic (or ‘euphotic’) zone is the lighted and usually well-mixed portion that extends from the lake surface down to where the light level is 1% of that at the surface. Aphotic zone: The lower layers of the aquatic ecosystems, where light penetration and plant growth are restricted form the aphotic zone. Only respiration activity takes place. Aphotic zone is positioned below the littoral and photic zones to bottom of the lake where light levels are too low for photosynthesis. Respiration occurs at all depths so the aphotic zone is a region of oxygen consumption. This deep, unlit region is also known as the profundal zone. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Photic Zone is the upper layer of the aquatic ecosystems. Both photosynthesis and respiration activity takes place in Photic Zone.   Aphotic zone is a region of oxygen consumption.   Notes: Photic zone: It is the upper layer of the aquatic ecosystems, up to which light penetrates and within which photosynthetic activity is confined. The depth of this zone depends on the transparency of water. Both photosynthesis and respiration activity takes place. Photic (or ‘euphotic’) zone is the lighted and usually well-mixed portion that extends from the lake surface down to where the light level is 1% of that at the surface. Aphotic zone: The lower layers of the aquatic ecosystems, where light penetration and plant growth are restricted form the aphotic zone. Only respiration activity takes place. Aphotic zone is positioned below the littoral and photic zones to bottom of the lake where light levels are too low for photosynthesis. Respiration occurs at all depths so the aphotic zone is a region of oxygen consumption. This deep, unlit region is also known as the profundal zone. Question 10 of 35 10. Question Which of the following are examples of a lotic water ecosystem? Rivers Creeks Springs Marshes Select the correct answer using the code given below a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 4 only d) 2, 3 and 4 only Correct Solution (a) 1.     Rivers 2.     Creeks 3.     Springs 4.     Marshes Correct Correct Correct Incorrect Lotic Lotic Lotic Lentic   Notes: Freshwater ecosystems can be divided into two categories: Lentic ecosystem: It entails a body of standing water, ranging from ditches, seeps, ponds, seasonal pools, basin marshes, swamp and lakes. These are also known as Pond ecosystem. Lotic ecosystem: It can be any kind of moving water, such as a run, creek, brook, river, spring, channel or stream. The water in a lotic ecosystem, from source to mouth, must have atmospheric gases, turbidity, longitudinal temperature gradation and material dissolved in it. Incorrect Solution (a) 1.     Rivers 2.     Creeks 3.     Springs 4.     Marshes Correct Correct Correct Incorrect Lotic Lotic Lotic Lentic   Notes: Freshwater ecosystems can be divided into two categories: Lentic ecosystem: It entails a body of standing water, ranging from ditches, seeps, ponds, seasonal pools, basin marshes, swamp and lakes. These are also known as Pond ecosystem. Lotic ecosystem: It can be any kind of moving water, such as a run, creek, brook, river, spring, channel or stream. The water in a lotic ecosystem, from source to mouth, must have atmospheric gases, turbidity, longitudinal temperature gradation and material dissolved in it. Question 11 of 35 11. Question Consider the following statements about Subtidal Zone: It is the upper most part of neritic zone and below the ocean’s intertidal zone. This zone is never exposed to the atmosphere. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Subtidal zone is the Lower most part of neritic zone and below the ocean’s intertidal zone.   This zone is never exposed to the atmosphere. Note: Zones of the ocean: The Earth is approximately covered with ocean by 71% and ocean contains around 97% of Earth’s water. Oceans are the largest habitat region on the Earth and also regulate the global climate. The Oceanographers divided the ocean into different layers or zone to study the ocean, such as- Intertidal Zone- The Intertidal zone is the shallow water near the shore. In the ocean, the Intertidal zone is also called the Littoral zone. Neritic Zone- The main body of open water farther out from shore, over the Continental Shelf is called the Neritic zone. Oceanic Zone- The remaining portion of the ocean water beyond the Neritic Zone is called the Oceanic zone. Types of Neritic Zones: Infralittoral zone– This zone is dominated by the algae and has depth of about 16.40 feet below the low water mark. Circalittoral zone– This zone is dominated by the sessile animals like Oysters. Subtidal zone– It is the lower most part of neritic zone and below the ocean’s intertidal zone. This zone is never exposed to the atmosphere. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Subtidal zone is the Lower most part of neritic zone and below the ocean’s intertidal zone.   This zone is never exposed to the atmosphere. Note: Zones of the ocean: The Earth is approximately covered with ocean by 71% and ocean contains around 97% of Earth’s water. Oceans are the largest habitat region on the Earth and also regulate the global climate. The Oceanographers divided the ocean into different layers or zone to study the ocean, such as- Intertidal Zone- The Intertidal zone is the shallow water near the shore. In the ocean, the Intertidal zone is also called the Littoral zone. Neritic Zone- The main body of open water farther out from shore, over the Continental Shelf is called the Neritic zone. Oceanic Zone- The remaining portion of the ocean water beyond the Neritic Zone is called the Oceanic zone. Types of Neritic Zones: Infralittoral zone– This zone is dominated by the algae and has depth of about 16.40 feet below the low water mark. Circalittoral zone– This zone is dominated by the sessile animals like Oysters. Subtidal zone– It is the lower most part of neritic zone and below the ocean’s intertidal zone. This zone is never exposed to the atmosphere. Question 12 of 35 12. Question If a wetland of international importance is brought under the ‘Montreux Record’, what does it imply? a) Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference. b) The country in which the wetland is located should enact a law to prohibit any human activity within 5 kilometers from the wetland. c) It is given the status of ‘world heritage site’. d) None of the above. Correct Solution (a) Montreux record: The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution or other human interference. It is the principle tool under the Ramsar convention for highlighting wetlands sites in need of priority conservation status. It is maintained as part of the Ramsar Database and is subject to continuous review. It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List. At present 2 Indian sites are listed under it. (Loktak Lake, Manipur and Keoladeo National Park, Rajasthan) In 1993 Chilka lake was also listed in Montreux record due to problem of Siltation. But later in 2002, it was removed from the list as problem tackled by government actions. Incorrect Solution (a) Montreux record: The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution or other human interference. It is the principle tool under the Ramsar convention for highlighting wetlands sites in need of priority conservation status. It is maintained as part of the Ramsar Database and is subject to continuous review. It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List. At present 2 Indian sites are listed under it. (Loktak Lake, Manipur and Keoladeo National Park, Rajasthan) In 1993 Chilka lake was also listed in Montreux record due to problem of Siltation. But later in 2002, it was removed from the list as problem tackled by government actions. Question 13 of 35 13. Question Arrange the following organisms chronologically in terms of their evolutionary periods: Fishes Birds Corals Flowering plants Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 3-1-2-4 b) 3-1-4-2 c) 1-3-2-4 d) 1-3-4-2 Correct Solution (a) Chronologically, the following organisms evolved in the sequence given below – Corals Fishes Birds Flowering plants The basic timeline of a 4.6 billion-year-old Earth includes the following: About 3.5 – 3.8 billion years of simple cells (prokaryotes). 3 billion years of photosynthesis. 2 billion years of complex cells (eukaryotes). 1 billion years of multicellular life. 600 million years of simple animals. 570 million years of arthropods (ancestors of insects, arachnids and crustaceans). 550 million years of complex animals. 500 million years of fish and proto-amphibians. 475 million years of land plants. 400 million years of insects and seeds. 360 million years of amphibians. 300 million years of reptiles. 200 million years of mammals. 150 million years of birds. 130 million years of flowers. 65 million years since the non-avian dinosaurs died out. 5 million years since the appearance of Homo. 200,000 years since the appearance of modern humans. 25,000 years since Neanderthals died out. Incorrect Solution (a) Chronologically, the following organisms evolved in the sequence given below – Corals Fishes Birds Flowering plants The basic timeline of a 4.6 billion-year-old Earth includes the following: About 3.5 – 3.8 billion years of simple cells (prokaryotes). 3 billion years of photosynthesis. 2 billion years of complex cells (eukaryotes). 1 billion years of multicellular life. 600 million years of simple animals. 570 million years of arthropods (ancestors of insects, arachnids and crustaceans). 550 million years of complex animals. 500 million years of fish and proto-amphibians. 475 million years of land plants. 400 million years of insects and seeds. 360 million years of amphibians. 300 million years of reptiles. 200 million years of mammals. 150 million years of birds. 130 million years of flowers. 65 million years since the non-avian dinosaurs died out. 5 million years since the appearance of Homo. 200,000 years since the appearance of modern humans. 25,000 years since Neanderthals died out. Question 14 of 35 14. Question Which of the following are the adaptations by plants in desert areas? Thick cuticle on their leaf surfaces Stomata are arranged in deep pits Stomata to remain open during day time Flattened stems Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution (c) Adaptation is any attribute of the organism (morphological, physiological, behavioural) that enables the organism to survive and reproduce in its habitat. Many adaptations have evolved over a long evolutionary time and are genetically fixed. Adaptations by plants in desert areas: Thick cuticle on their leaf surfaces- In order to tackle the high rate of transpiration, the leaves have a thick waxy coating known as the cuticle. The cuticle is a waxy layer and impervious to water and thus prevent loss of water from the surface. Stomata are arranged in deep pits- Due to high temperature, the water is lost from the stomata of the plant as a result of the high rate of transpiration. Therefore, the stomata are arranged in deep pits to prevent excessive loss of water. Stomata to remain closed during day time- Desert plants photosynthesize by a modified process of photosynthesis called CAM photosynthesis. There are less stomata in desert plants as the leaves are modified to form spines and photosynthesis occurs in the green stem. The stomata do not open during the day to avoid water loss and only opens during the night for carbon dioxide to enter the plant. ​The carbon dioxide is present as an intermediate inside the plant to perform photosynthesis during the day. Flattened stems- Desert plants stems are flattened, that is they have absence of leaves or has leaves that have been reduced to thorns or spines to perform photosynthesis in the absence of leaves. Fat leaves, fat stems, and fewer leaves are all ways for plants to reduce their water loss in the desert. Incorrect Solution (c) Adaptation is any attribute of the organism (morphological, physiological, behavioural) that enables the organism to survive and reproduce in its habitat. Many adaptations have evolved over a long evolutionary time and are genetically fixed. Adaptations by plants in desert areas: Thick cuticle on their leaf surfaces- In order to tackle the high rate of transpiration, the leaves have a thick waxy coating known as the cuticle. The cuticle is a waxy layer and impervious to water and thus prevent loss of water from the surface. Stomata are arranged in deep pits- Due to high temperature, the water is lost from the stomata of the plant as a result of the high rate of transpiration. Therefore, the stomata are arranged in deep pits to prevent excessive loss of water. Stomata to remain closed during day time- Desert plants photosynthesize by a modified process of photosynthesis called CAM photosynthesis. There are less stomata in desert plants as the leaves are modified to form spines and photosynthesis occurs in the green stem. The stomata do not open during the day to avoid water loss and only opens during the night for carbon dioxide to enter the plant. ​The carbon dioxide is present as an intermediate inside the plant to perform photosynthesis during the day. Flattened stems- Desert plants stems are flattened, that is they have absence of leaves or has leaves that have been reduced to thorns or spines to perform photosynthesis in the absence of leaves. Fat leaves, fat stems, and fewer leaves are all ways for plants to reduce their water loss in the desert. Question 15 of 35 15. Question Consider the following statements regarding coral reefs: Corals generally flourish in clear temperate oceans. Warmer water temperatures can result in coral bleaching. Not all bleaching events are due to warm water. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Corals generally flourish in clear tropical oceans usually between 30°N and 30°S of the equator.   Warmer water temperatures can result in coral bleaching. When water is too warm, corals will expel the algae (zooxanthellae) living in their tissues causing the coral to turn completely white. Not all bleaching events are due to warm water. Other reasons could be ocean acidification, infectious diseases etc. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Corals generally flourish in clear tropical oceans usually between 30°N and 30°S of the equator.   Warmer water temperatures can result in coral bleaching. When water is too warm, corals will expel the algae (zooxanthellae) living in their tissues causing the coral to turn completely white. Not all bleaching events are due to warm water. Other reasons could be ocean acidification, infectious diseases etc. Question 16 of 35 16. Question Consider the following statements with respect to the ‘Estuaries’: An estuary is a coastal body of water where flow of freshwater from river mixes with saltwater of ocean. Estuaries are homes to plants & animals which have low salt tolerance. Estuaries create a natural barrier that absorbs the energy of the waves and prevents them from flooding cities. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct An estuary is a coastal body of water where flow of freshwater from river mixes with saltwater of ocean. Estuaries are homes to plants & animals which have high salt tolerance.   Estuaries create a natural barrier that absorbs the energy of the waves and prevents them from flooding cities.   Note: Estuary: An estuary is a place where a river or a stream opens into the sea (mouth of the river). It is a partially enclosed coastal area of brackish water (salinity varies between 0-35 ppt) with one or more rivers or streams flowing into it, and with a free connection to the open sea. At the estuaries, freshwater carrying fertile silt and runoff from the land mixes with the salty sea water. Estuaries form a transition zone (ecotone) between river environments and maritime environments. Examples of estuaries are river mouths, coastal bays, tidal marshes, lagoons and deltas. Estuaries are formed due to rise in sea level, movement of sand and sandbars, glacial processes and tectonic processes. All the plants and animals in the estuaries are subjected to variations in salinity to which they are adapted (osmoregulation). Estuaries are greatly influenced by tidal action. They are periodically washed by sea water once or twice a day based on the number of tides. In some narrow estuaries, tidal bores are significant. Tidal bores cause great damage to the estuarine ecology. Estuaries create a natural barrier that absorbs the energy of the waves and prevents them from flooding cities. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct An estuary is a coastal body of water where flow of freshwater from river mixes with saltwater of ocean. Estuaries are homes to plants & animals which have high salt tolerance.   Estuaries create a natural barrier that absorbs the energy of the waves and prevents them from flooding cities.   Note: Estuary: An estuary is a place where a river or a stream opens into the sea (mouth of the river). It is a partially enclosed coastal area of brackish water (salinity varies between 0-35 ppt) with one or more rivers or streams flowing into it, and with a free connection to the open sea. At the estuaries, freshwater carrying fertile silt and runoff from the land mixes with the salty sea water. Estuaries form a transition zone (ecotone) between river environments and maritime environments. Examples of estuaries are river mouths, coastal bays, tidal marshes, lagoons and deltas. Estuaries are formed due to rise in sea level, movement of sand and sandbars, glacial processes and tectonic processes. All the plants and animals in the estuaries are subjected to variations in salinity to which they are adapted (osmoregulation). Estuaries are greatly influenced by tidal action. They are periodically washed by sea water once or twice a day based on the number of tides. In some narrow estuaries, tidal bores are significant. Tidal bores cause great damage to the estuarine ecology. Estuaries create a natural barrier that absorbs the energy of the waves and prevents them from flooding cities. Question 17 of 35 17. Question Consider the following statements regarding Mangroves Mangrove plants have Pneumatophores roots which help to enhance deposition of sediment in area. Mangroves grow in areas with low oxygen soil. They occur in shallow Tropical areas where the sea water is clean, clear and warm. How many of the above statements are correct? a) One only b) Two only c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Mangrove plants have (additional) special roots such as prop roots, pneumatophores which help to impede water flow and thereby enhance the deposition of sediment in areas (where it is already occurring), stabilise the coastal shores, provide a breeding ground for fishes. These are also called as breathing roots which is defined as a root which, for part of the day, is exposed to the air. These roots help these trees to respire in anaerobic soils. The mangrove root system absorbs oxygen from the atmosphere. These roots have numerous pores through which oxygen enters the underground tissues. Mangroves grow in areas with low oxygen soil. They also occur in shallow Tropical areas where the sea water is clean, clear and warm. Mangroves are found along sheltered coastlines within the tropical or subtropical latitudes because they cannot withstand freezing temperatures. They share the unique capability of growing within reach of the tides in salty soil.   Note: Mangroves: Mangroves are a variety of species of broad-leaved trees (10–40 feet high) lying in muddy creeks and tidal estuaries. They are located on the intermediate zone between the land and the sea and represent one of the best examples of ecotone. They require warm saline water and so they are situated along tropical coastlines. Mangrove plants survive in the saltwater zones between water and land. Importance of Mangroves: They protect coastal areas from Tsunamis storm surges and soil erosions; due to their complex root systems which dissipate sea wave energy Sediment deposition is a visible feature which arrests coastal erosion and seawater pollution Many fish species and other fauna breeds here They are an important source of livelihood for communities found in and around mangrove forests: Collection of Honey Tanning Wax Fishing They are carbon sinks Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Mangrove plants have (additional) special roots such as prop roots, pneumatophores which help to impede water flow and thereby enhance the deposition of sediment in areas (where it is already occurring), stabilise the coastal shores, provide a breeding ground for fishes. These are also called as breathing roots which is defined as a root which, for part of the day, is exposed to the air. These roots help these trees to respire in anaerobic soils. The mangrove root system absorbs oxygen from the atmosphere. These roots have numerous pores through which oxygen enters the underground tissues. Mangroves grow in areas with low oxygen soil. They also occur in shallow Tropical areas where the sea water is clean, clear and warm. Mangroves are found along sheltered coastlines within the tropical or subtropical latitudes because they cannot withstand freezing temperatures. They share the unique capability of growing within reach of the tides in salty soil.   Note: Mangroves: Mangroves are a variety of species of broad-leaved trees (10–40 feet high) lying in muddy creeks and tidal estuaries. They are located on the intermediate zone between the land and the sea and represent one of the best examples of ecotone. They require warm saline water and so they are situated along tropical coastlines. Mangrove plants survive in the saltwater zones between water and land. Importance of Mangroves: They protect coastal areas from Tsunamis storm surges and soil erosions; due to their complex root systems which dissipate sea wave energy Sediment deposition is a visible feature which arrests coastal erosion and seawater pollution Many fish species and other fauna breeds here They are an important source of livelihood for communities found in and around mangrove forests: Collection of Honey Tanning Wax Fishing They are carbon sinks Question 18 of 35 18. Question With reference to ecological pyramids, consider the following statements: In an aquatic ecosystem, the pyramid of biomass is always upright. In all ecosystems of the world, the pyramid of numbers is always upright. In a terrestrial ecosystem, the pyramid of energy is always inverted. How many of the above statements are correct? a) One only b) Two only c) All three d) None Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect The pyramid of biomass in the sea is generally inverted because the biomass of fishes far exceeds that of phytoplankton An inverted pyramid of numbers can be found in an ecosystem where the community contains a few producers with very large biomass that support a larger number of smaller consumers. Pyramid of energy is always upright, can never be inverted, because when energy flows from a particular trophic level to the next trophic level, some energy is always lost as heat at each step. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect The pyramid of biomass in the sea is generally inverted because the biomass of fishes far exceeds that of phytoplankton An inverted pyramid of numbers can be found in an ecosystem where the community contains a few producers with very large biomass that support a larger number of smaller consumers. Pyramid of energy is always upright, can never be inverted, because when energy flows from a particular trophic level to the next trophic level, some energy is always lost as heat at each step. Question 19 of 35 19. Question Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the Phytoplanktons? a) It refers to the group of organisms which float in the surface waters of rivers and oceans. b) Phytoplanktons can be bacteria, protists or single-celled plants. c) They are limited to the uppermost layers of the oceans where light intensity is sufficient for photosynthesis to occur. d) They do not require any inorganic nutrients for growth and reproduction. Correct Solution (d) a)       b)       c)       d)       Corrrect Correct Correct Incorrect Phytoplanktons refer to the group of organisms which float in the surface waters of rivers and oceans. Phytoplanktons can be bacteria, protists or single-celled plants. They are limited to the uppermost layers of the oceans where light intensity is sufficient for photosynthesis to occur. Phytoplanktons require inorganic nutrients for growth and reproduction. These inorganic nutrients include- ·       Nitrates ·       Phosphates ·       Silica ·       Calcium ·       Iron and ·       Sulfur etc., They convert these inorganic nutrients into proteins, fats, and carbohydrates. Incorrect Solution (d) a)       b)       c)       d)       Corrrect Correct Correct Incorrect Phytoplanktons refer to the group of organisms which float in the surface waters of rivers and oceans. Phytoplanktons can be bacteria, protists or single-celled plants. They are limited to the uppermost layers of the oceans where light intensity is sufficient for photosynthesis to occur. Phytoplanktons require inorganic nutrients for growth and reproduction. These inorganic nutrients include- ·       Nitrates ·       Phosphates ·       Silica ·       Calcium ·       Iron and ·       Sulfur etc., They convert these inorganic nutrients into proteins, fats, and carbohydrates. Question 20 of 35 20. Question Consider the following statements: Wular Lake is one of the biggest freshwater lakes in Asia. Chilika Lake is the largest saline water lake in India. Vembanad Lake is a notified National Geo-heritage Monument. How many of the above statements are correct? a) One only b) Two only c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Wular Lake is one of the biggest freshwater lakes in Asia. Chilika Lake is the largest saline water lake in India. Lonar Lake is a notified National Geo-heritage Monument, saline, soda lake, located at Lonar in Buldhana district, Maharashtra.   Notes: Geo-heritage Sites: Geo-heritage refers to the geological features which are inherently or culturally significant offering insight to earth’s evolution or history to earth science or that can be utilized for education. Geological Survey of India (GSI) is the parent body which is making efforts towards identification and declaration of geo-heritage sites/national geological monuments in the country. GSI declares geo-heritage sites/ national geological monuments for protection and maintenance. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Wular Lake is one of the biggest freshwater lakes in Asia. Chilika Lake is the largest saline water lake in India. Lonar Lake is a notified National Geo-heritage Monument, saline, soda lake, located at Lonar in Buldhana district, Maharashtra.   Notes: Geo-heritage Sites: Geo-heritage refers to the geological features which are inherently or culturally significant offering insight to earth’s evolution or history to earth science or that can be utilized for education. Geological Survey of India (GSI) is the parent body which is making efforts towards identification and declaration of geo-heritage sites/national geological monuments in the country. GSI declares geo-heritage sites/ national geological monuments for protection and maintenance. Question 21 of 35 21. Question Consider the following statements: Multidrug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB) is TB that does not respond to the two most powerful anti-TB drugs – isoniazid and bedaquiline. Rifampicin is used to treat multi-drug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB) by targeting the adenosine triphosphate (ATP) synthase enzyme of the TB mycobacteria. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (d) Multidrug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB) is TB that does not respond to the two most powerful anti-TB drugs – isoniazid and rifampicin. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is caused by inappropriate or incorrect use of antimicrobial drugs, or use of ineffective formulations of drugs (such as the use of single drugs, poor quality medicines, or bad storage conditions), and premature treatment interruption. Bedaquiline is used to treat multi-drug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB) by targeting the adenosine triphosphate (ATP) synthase enzyme of the TB mycobacteria. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (d) Multidrug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB) is TB that does not respond to the two most powerful anti-TB drugs – isoniazid and rifampicin. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is caused by inappropriate or incorrect use of antimicrobial drugs, or use of ineffective formulations of drugs (such as the use of single drugs, poor quality medicines, or bad storage conditions), and premature treatment interruption. Bedaquiline is used to treat multi-drug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB) by targeting the adenosine triphosphate (ATP) synthase enzyme of the TB mycobacteria. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements: Statement I: Madhya Pradesh has the highest tiger population in India accounting for a fifth of the national count with a 50% rise in its population compared to the previous census. Statement II: It is due to its strategy of relocation of both tigers and their prey within the state to establish a balance between the numbers of predators and their prey. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation' for Statement-I c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect d) Statement I is incorrect Statement II is correct Correct Solution (a) Madhya Pradesh has the highest tiger population in India accounting for a fifth of the national count with a 50% rise in its population compared to the previous census. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is due to its strategy of relocation of both tigers and their prey within the state to establish a balance between the numbers of predators and their prey. Hence statement 2 is correct. Madhya Pradesh has effectively reintroduced species like barasingha into habitats like Satpura and Bandhavgarh, and gaur into the Bandhavgarh and Sanjay-Dubri tiger reserves. Note: The national tiger census is done every four years by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) in partnership with state forest departments, conservation NGOs, and the Wildlife Institute of India (WII). Incorrect Solution (a) Madhya Pradesh has the highest tiger population in India accounting for a fifth of the national count with a 50% rise in its population compared to the previous census. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is due to its strategy of relocation of both tigers and their prey within the state to establish a balance between the numbers of predators and their prey. Hence statement 2 is correct. Madhya Pradesh has effectively reintroduced species like barasingha into habitats like Satpura and Bandhavgarh, and gaur into the Bandhavgarh and Sanjay-Dubri tiger reserves. Note: The national tiger census is done every four years by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) in partnership with state forest departments, conservation NGOs, and the Wildlife Institute of India (WII). Question 23 of 35 23. Question Consider the following statements: Flood management including erosion control falls within the purview of the Union. The Central Water Commission (CWC) is responsible for predicting and giving early warnings about floods in India. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Flood management including erosion control falls within the purview of the States. Flood management and anti-erosion projects are formulated and implemented by concerned State Governments from their own resources as per their priority. The Union Government supplements the efforts of the States by providing technical guidance and also promotional financial assistance for the management of floods in critical areas. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The Central Water Commission (CWC) is responsible for predicting and giving early warnings about floods in India. They use a system of 338 forecasting stations across 20 major river basins in 23 States and 2 Union Territories. This helps local authorities prepare for evacuations and take necessary actions. CWC has created flood forecasting models for each basin that use rainfall and runoff data to predict floods up to 5 days in advance and provide advice to the forecasting stations. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) Flood management including erosion control falls within the purview of the States. Flood management and anti-erosion projects are formulated and implemented by concerned State Governments from their own resources as per their priority. The Union Government supplements the efforts of the States by providing technical guidance and also promotional financial assistance for the management of floods in critical areas. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The Central Water Commission (CWC) is responsible for predicting and giving early warnings about floods in India. They use a system of 338 forecasting stations across 20 major river basins in 23 States and 2 Union Territories. This helps local authorities prepare for evacuations and take necessary actions. CWC has created flood forecasting models for each basin that use rainfall and runoff data to predict floods up to 5 days in advance and provide advice to the forecasting stations. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 24 of 35 24. Question Recently in the news, Balem Declaration is related to a) conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources b) international trade of wild animals and plants c) various issues involving poverty and violence against women d) inclusion of indigenous people in biodiversity conservation Correct Solution (d) Ramsar Convention – conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources. CITES – international trade of wild animals and plants does not threaten the survival of the species in the wild. Beijing Declaration – various issues involving poverty and violence against women. Balem/Belem Declaration – inclusion of indigenous people in biodiversity conservation. It created an alliance for combatting forest destruction, with countries left to pursue their individual deforestation goals. It was adopted at the Amazon Summit organized by the Amazon Cooperation Treaty Organization (ACTO). Hence option d is correct. Incorrect Solution (d) Ramsar Convention – conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources. CITES – international trade of wild animals and plants does not threaten the survival of the species in the wild. Beijing Declaration – various issues involving poverty and violence against women. Balem/Belem Declaration – inclusion of indigenous people in biodiversity conservation. It created an alliance for combatting forest destruction, with countries left to pursue their individual deforestation goals. It was adopted at the Amazon Summit organized by the Amazon Cooperation Treaty Organization (ACTO). Hence option d is correct. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements: The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is the nodal body for all matters related to Interpol. INTERPOL Global Academy Network boosts skill development for law enforcement globally by providing specialized training to Interpol. The CBI Academy is a statutory premier training institution in the fields of crime investigation, prosecution, and vigilance. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is the nodal body for all matters related to Interpol. Hence statement 1 is correct. The CBI assists the Central Vigilance Commission and Lokpal. It functions under the superintendence of the Department of Personnel, Ministry of Personnel, Pension and Public Grievances, Government of India – which falls under the prime minister’s office. INTERPOL Global Academy Network was launched in 2019 by INTERPOL. INTERPOL Global Academy Network boosts skill development for law enforcement globally by providing specialized training to Interpol. Hence statement 2 is correct. The CBI Academy is a non-statutory premier training institution in the fields of crime investigation, prosecution, and vigilance. It was established by CBI in 1996. The statutory body is a body that is established by an act of parliament. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (b) The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is the nodal body for all matters related to Interpol. Hence statement 1 is correct. The CBI assists the Central Vigilance Commission and Lokpal. It functions under the superintendence of the Department of Personnel, Ministry of Personnel, Pension and Public Grievances, Government of India – which falls under the prime minister’s office. INTERPOL Global Academy Network was launched in 2019 by INTERPOL. INTERPOL Global Academy Network boosts skill development for law enforcement globally by providing specialized training to Interpol. Hence statement 2 is correct. The CBI Academy is a non-statutory premier training institution in the fields of crime investigation, prosecution, and vigilance. It was established by CBI in 1996. The statutory body is a body that is established by an act of parliament. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Question 26 of 35 26. Question Consider the following statements: Statement I: Ubuntu is a popular Linux operating system that can be inspected and modified by anyone. Statement II: Because it is distributed as free and open-source software. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation' for Statement-I c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect d) Statement I is incorrect Statement II is correct Correct Solution (a) Context: The Defence Ministry has decided to replace the Microsoft Operating System (OS) in all computers connected to the Internet with the Maya Operating System(OS). Maya OS is a new operating system that is based on Ubuntu, a popular Linux distribution that uses free and open-source software. Ubuntu is a popular Linux operating system that can be inspected and modified by anyone. Hence statement 1 is correct. Because it is distributed as free and open-source software. It allows Ubuntu to benefit from the collective efforts of thousands of developers and users who contribute to its development and security. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (a) Context: The Defence Ministry has decided to replace the Microsoft Operating System (OS) in all computers connected to the Internet with the Maya Operating System(OS). Maya OS is a new operating system that is based on Ubuntu, a popular Linux distribution that uses free and open-source software. Ubuntu is a popular Linux operating system that can be inspected and modified by anyone. Hence statement 1 is correct. Because it is distributed as free and open-source software. It allows Ubuntu to benefit from the collective efforts of thousands of developers and users who contribute to its development and security. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements regarding Assam Rifles It is one of the six central armed police forces (CAPFs) under the administrative control of the Ministry of Defence. It is tasked with maintaining law and order in the Northeast along with the Indian Army and guards the Indo-Myanmar border. It was formed in 1835 as a militia to primarily protect British Tea estates and their settlements against tribal raids. Since its formation in 1835, it has gone on to fight in two World Wars, the Sino-Indian War of 1962. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) Assam Rifles are one of the six central armed police forces(CAPFs) under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The other five forces are the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), Border Security Force (BSF), Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP), Central Industrial Security Force (CISF), and Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB). It is the only paramilitary force with a dual control structure. While the administrative control of the force is with the Ministry of Home Affairs(MHA). But its operational control is with the Indian Army, which is under the Ministry of Defence (MoD). It is tasked with maintaining law and order in the Northeast along with the Indian Army and guards the Indo-Myanmar border. Hence statement 2 is correct. It was formed in 1835 as a militia called the ‘Cachar Levy’ to primarily protect British Tea estates and their settlements against tribal raids. Hence statement 3 is correct. Since its formation in 1835, it has gone on to fight in two World Wars, the Sino-Indian War of 1962. It has operated in foreign land as part of the Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF) to Sri Lanka in 1987 (Op Pawan) to a peacekeeping role in the North-Eastern areas of India. Hence statement 4 is correct.   Incorrect Solution (c) Assam Rifles are one of the six central armed police forces(CAPFs) under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The other five forces are the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), Border Security Force (BSF), Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP), Central Industrial Security Force (CISF), and Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB). It is the only paramilitary force with a dual control structure. While the administrative control of the force is with the Ministry of Home Affairs(MHA). But its operational control is with the Indian Army, which is under the Ministry of Defence (MoD). It is tasked with maintaining law and order in the Northeast along with the Indian Army and guards the Indo-Myanmar border. Hence statement 2 is correct. It was formed in 1835 as a militia called the ‘Cachar Levy’ to primarily protect British Tea estates and their settlements against tribal raids. Hence statement 3 is correct. Since its formation in 1835, it has gone on to fight in two World Wars, the Sino-Indian War of 1962. It has operated in foreign land as part of the Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF) to Sri Lanka in 1987 (Op Pawan) to a peacekeeping role in the North-Eastern areas of India. Hence statement 4 is correct.   Question 28 of 35 28. Question Consider the following statements regarding Spintronics  It is one of the emerging fields for the next-generation nanoelectronic devices to reduce their power consumption. In these devices, the spin polarisation is controlled either by magnetic layers used as spin-polarisers or analysers. Spin transistors, spin diodes, and spin filters are some examples of spintronic devices. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Spintronics is one of the emerging fields for the next-generation nanoelectronic devices to reduce their power consumption and increase their memory and processing capabilities. Hence statement 1 is correct. In these devices, the spin polarisation is controlled either by magnetic layers used as spin-polarisers or analysers. Spin waves can also be used to carry spin currents. Hence statement 2 is correct. Spin transistors, spin diodes, and spin filters are some examples of spintronic devices. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) Spintronics is one of the emerging fields for the next-generation nanoelectronic devices to reduce their power consumption and increase their memory and processing capabilities. Hence statement 1 is correct. In these devices, the spin polarisation is controlled either by magnetic layers used as spin-polarisers or analysers. Spin waves can also be used to carry spin currents. Hence statement 2 is correct. Spin transistors, spin diodes, and spin filters are some examples of spintronic devices. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 29 of 35 29. Question Consider the following statements regarding Convention on Cluster Munitions It is an international treaty that prohibits all use, transfer, production, and stockpiling of cluster bombs. India, the United States, Russia, Ukraine, Pakistan, and Israel have not signed it. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Convention on Cluster Munitions is an international treaty that prohibits all use, transfer, production, and stockpiling of cluster bombs due to their indiscriminate and long-lasting effects on civilian populations. Hence statement 1 is correct. It was adopted in Dublin by 107 States on 30 May 2008 and signed in Oslo on 3 December 2008. It became binding international law when it entered into force on 1 August 2010. India, the United States, Russia, Ukraine, Pakistan, and Israel have not signed it. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) Convention on Cluster Munitions is an international treaty that prohibits all use, transfer, production, and stockpiling of cluster bombs due to their indiscriminate and long-lasting effects on civilian populations. Hence statement 1 is correct. It was adopted in Dublin by 107 States on 30 May 2008 and signed in Oslo on 3 December 2008. It became binding international law when it entered into force on 1 August 2010. India, the United States, Russia, Ukraine, Pakistan, and Israel have not signed it. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 30 of 35 30. Question It is a tiger reserve spread over two districts of Uttar Pradesh. It forms the part of Terai Arc Landscape in the upper Gangetic Plain. The northern edge of the reserve lies along the Indo-Nepal border while the southern boundary is marked by the river Sharada and Khakra. It bagged the international award TX2 for doubling the number of tigers in the past four years. The above paragraph refers to which of the following reserve? a) Amangarh Tiger Reserve b) Panna Tiger Reserve c) Dudhwa Tiger Reserve d) Pilibhit Tiger Reserve Correct Solution (d) Pilibhit Tiger Reserve is spread over two districts of Uttar Pradesh. It forms the part of Terai Arc Landscape in the upper Gangetic Plain. The northern edge of the reserve lies along the Indo-Nepal border while the southern boundary is marked by the river Sharada and Khakra. It bagged the international award TX2 for doubling the number of tigers in the past four years. It has high sal forests, plantations, and grasslands with several water bodies. Wild animals include tiger, swamp deer, Bengal florican, leopard, etc. Hence option d is correct. Panna Tiger Reserve is located in Madhya Pradesh. Incorrect Solution (d) Pilibhit Tiger Reserve is spread over two districts of Uttar Pradesh. It forms the part of Terai Arc Landscape in the upper Gangetic Plain. The northern edge of the reserve lies along the Indo-Nepal border while the southern boundary is marked by the river Sharada and Khakra. It bagged the international award TX2 for doubling the number of tigers in the past four years. It has high sal forests, plantations, and grasslands with several water bodies. Wild animals include tiger, swamp deer, Bengal florican, leopard, etc. Hence option d is correct. Panna Tiger Reserve is located in Madhya Pradesh. Question 31 of 35 31. Question In an objective type question paper there are 5 questions. The first two questions have three possible answers; the next two questions have four possible answers and the last question has five possible answers. What is the total number of ways in which all the five questions could be answered? a) 1000 b) 1280 c) 720 d) 405 Correct Solution (c) Total number of possibilities for the first two questions = 3 × 3 = 9. Total number of possibilities for the next two questions = 4 × 4 = 16. Total number of possibilities for the last question = 5 Total number of ways in which all the five questions could be attempted = 9 × 16 × 5 = 720 Incorrect Solution (c) Total number of possibilities for the first two questions = 3 × 3 = 9. Total number of possibilities for the next two questions = 4 × 4 = 16. Total number of possibilities for the last question = 5 Total number of ways in which all the five questions could be attempted = 9 × 16 × 5 = 720 Question 32 of 35 32. Question If the digits of a two-digit number are interchanged, the number so formed is 18 more than the original number. The sum of digits is 8. What is the thrice value of original number? a) 159 b) 78 c) 105 d) None Correct Solution (c) Let, the unit’s and ten’s digit be ‘a’ and ‘b’ respectively. Therefore, a + b = 8 and a – b = 18 ÷ 9 = 2 Since, a = (8 + 2) ÷ 2 = 5 and b = 5 – 2= 3 Therefore, the required value is 3 × 35 = 105 Incorrect Solution (c) Let, the unit’s and ten’s digit be ‘a’ and ‘b’ respectively. Therefore, a + b = 8 and a – b = 18 ÷ 9 = 2 Since, a = (8 + 2) ÷ 2 = 5 and b = 5 – 2= 3 Therefore, the required value is 3 × 35 = 105 Question 33 of 35 33. Question The tax on a commodity is diminished by 20% but its consumption is increased by 10%. Find the decrease percent in the revenue derived from it? a) 20% b) 18% c) 15% d) 12% Correct Solution (d) Let the usual tax on the commodity be 100₹ and its usual consumption be 100 units After changes in various conditions, tax on a commodity is diminished by 20% ie tax is now only 80% consumption increased by 10% ie now consumption is 110 units previous revenue = 100₹ x 100 units = 10000₹ new revenue = 80₹ x 110 = 8800₹ decrease percent in revenue = change in revenue/original revenue x 100 = (10000 – 8800)/10000 x 100 = 1200/10000 x 100 = 12% Incorrect Solution (d) Let the usual tax on the commodity be 100₹ and its usual consumption be 100 units After changes in various conditions, tax on a commodity is diminished by 20% ie tax is now only 80% consumption increased by 10% ie now consumption is 110 units previous revenue = 100₹ x 100 units = 10000₹ new revenue = 80₹ x 110 = 8800₹ decrease percent in revenue = change in revenue/original revenue x 100 = (10000 – 8800)/10000 x 100 = 1200/10000 x 100 = 12% Question 34 of 35 34. Question How many numbers are there between 100 and 1000 such that atleast one of their digits is 6? a) 152 b) 172 c) 252 d) 282 Correct Solution (c) Numbers between 100 and 1000 = 900 Numbers between 100 and 1000 which do not have digit 6 in any place = 8 x 9 x 9 = 648 Unit digit could take any value of the 9 values (0 to 9, except 6) Tens Digit could take any value of the 9 values (0 to 9, except 6) Hundreds digit could take any value of the 8 values (1 to 9, except 6) So numbers between 100 and 1000 which have atleast one digit as 6 = 900 – 648 = 252 Incorrect Solution (c) Numbers between 100 and 1000 = 900 Numbers between 100 and 1000 which do not have digit 6 in any place = 8 x 9 x 9 = 648 Unit digit could take any value of the 9 values (0 to 9, except 6) Tens Digit could take any value of the 9 values (0 to 9, except 6) Hundreds digit could take any value of the 8 values (1 to 9, except 6) So numbers between 100 and 1000 which have atleast one digit as 6 = 900 – 648 = 252 Question 35 of 35 35. Question Patriotism is a very complex feeling, built up out of primitive instincts and highly intellectual convictions. There is love of home, family and friends, making us peculiarly anxious to preserve our own country from invasion. There is the mild instinctive liking for compatriots against foreigners. There is pride, which is bound up with the success of the community to which we feel that we belong. There is a belief, suggested by pride, but reinforced by history, that one’s own nation represents a great tradition and stands for ideals that are important to the human race. But besides all these, there is another element, at once nobler and more open to attack, an element of worship, of willing sacrifice, of joyful merging of the individual life in the life of the nation. This religious element in patriotism is essential to the strength of the state, since it enlists the best that is most men on the side of national sacrifice. Which of the following is the central theme of the given passage? a) Component elements of patriotism b) Historical development of patriotism c) The role of religion and history in patriotism d) Need for patriotism in nation building Correct Solution (a) The passage describes the different elements associated with patriotism and also of the importance of religion. It does not talk about the need for patriotism or history of patriotism, so option (b) and option (d) are ruled out. Although the passage talks about the role of religion, history is not mentioned or implied, So option (c) is also ruled out. We are left with Option (a) which is the correct answer.   Incorrect Solution (a) The passage describes the different elements associated with patriotism and also of the importance of religion. It does not talk about the need for patriotism or history of patriotism, so option (b) and option (d) are ruled out. Although the passage talks about the role of religion, history is not mentioned or implied, So option (c) is also ruled out. 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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 15th March 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   TRAFFIC (Trade Records Analysis of Flora and Fauna in Commerce) Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: An analysis by TRAFFIC and WWF-India between January 2010 and December 2022 has revealed that Tamilnadu accounted for almost 65% of illegal trade in shark body parts. Background:- Illegal trade in wildlife species is a serious conservation threat. About TRAFFIC:-   TRAFFIC (Trade Records Analysis of Flora and Fauna in Commerce), the Wildlife Trade Monitoring Network, is a global non-governmental organization monitoring the trade in wild plants and animals. TRAFFIC focuses on preserving biodiversity and sustainable legal wildlife trade while working against unsustainable illegal wildlife trade TRAFFIC’s mission is built on the long-term vision of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework: a world living in harmony with nature where by 2050, biodiversity is valued, conserved, restored, and wisely used, maintaining ecosystem services, sustaining a healthy planet and delivering benefits essential for all people. It was originally created in 1976 as a specialist group of the Species Survival Commission of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), and evolved into a strategic alliance of the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) and the IUCN TRAFFIC IS part of the Cambridge Conservation Initiative – based in the David Attenborough Building – a hub which brings together Cambridge University and several international NGOs striving for sustainability and to conserve nature. TRAFFIC came to India in 1991, operating as a division of WWF-India. Source: Hindu Gulbadan Begum Syllabus Prelims – History Context: Historian Ruby Lal has written a book on Gulbadan Begum titled ‘Vagabond Princess: The Great Adventures of Gulbadan’. Background: She is one of the most prominent women of Mughal era. About Gulbadan Begum: Gulbadan Begum (1523 – 1603) was a Mughal princess and the daughter of Emperor Babur, the founder of the Mughal Empire. She is best known as the author of Humayun-Nama, the account of the life of her half-brother, Emperor Humayun, which she wrote on the request of her nephew, Emperor Akbar. Akbar asked his aunt to write the book as she had known and interacted with three Mughal emperors. Her book is not political unlike the other accounts of the time. It provides details of everyday life in the royal palace and is also an account of the empire as it was taking shape. Gulbadan wrote in simple Persian, without the erudite language used by better-known writers. Her father Babur had written Babur-nama in the same style. Gulbadan is the first and only woman historian of the Mughal era. Gulbadan Begum is mentioned throughout the Akbarnama of Abu’l Fazl. Source: Hindu OCEANSAT-3 Syllabus Prelims- Science Context: ISRO’s Oceansat-3 reveals phytoplankton bloom that maintains marine ecosystem. Background: The satellite revealed the seasonal greening and browning of continents, alongside the dynamic movements of chlorophyll blooms in the oceans, from April to December 2023. Phytoplankton are microscopic, photosynthetic organisms that form the foundation of the marine food web. They play a crucial role in the Earth’s ecosystems as primary producers, converting sunlight into chemical energy through photosynthesis. About OCEANSAT-3 Oceansat-3, also known as Earth Observing Satellite 6 (EOS-6), is a remarkable oceanographical Earth observation mission launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). Oceansat-3 was launched on 26th November 2022. It is part of India’s ocean observation program and is the third satellite in the Oceansat series. The satellite is designed to operate until 2027. Oceansat-3 is equipped with multiple sensors to observe various parameters: Ocean Colour Monitor (OCM-3): Measures Ocean colour data, providing insights into phytoplankton distribution and other biological processes. Ku-band Scatterometer (SCAT-3): Provides high-resolution global ocean surface wind speed and direction information. Sea Surface Temperature Monitor (SSTM): Measures Sea surface temperature (SST) variations. Oceansat-3’s data is crucial for: Oceanography: Studying ocean currents, upwelling zones, and marine ecosystems. Climatology: Monitoring climate patterns and changes. Meteorology: Enhancing cyclone prediction. Fisheries: Identifying potential fishing zones. Continuity and Enhancement: Oceansat-3, in conjunction with Oceansat-2, improves the frequency of measurements:Ocean colour measurements are now available every 24 hours, Wind vector measurements are available every 12 hours. Source: India Today JUNO SPACECRAFT Syllabus Prelims : Science Context: Recently, NASA posted an image of Great Red Spot on Jupiter captured by Juno spacecraft. Background: The Great Red Spot is a giant anticyclonic storm that is larger than Earth itself. It has been observed since the 17th century and continues to be a fascinating subject of study for scientists. Juno’s mission to Jupiter has provided us with unprecedented views of this iconic feature, allowing us to delve deeper into its mysteries. About JUNO SPACECRAFT: NASA’s Juno spacecraft is a space probe orbiting Jupiter. It was built by Lockheed Martin and is operated by NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory. The spacecraft was launched from Cape Canaveral Air Force Station on August 5, 2011, as part of the New Frontiers program. Juno entered a polar orbit of Jupiter on July 5, 2016, after a five-year, 1,740-million-mile journey. The spacecraft’s mission is to measure Jupiter’s composition, gravitational field, magnetic field, and polar magnetosphere. It also aims to search for clues about how the planet formed, including whether it has a rocky core, the amount of water present within the deep atmosphere, mass distribution, and its deep winds. Juno is the first explorer to peer below Jupiter’s dense clouds to answer questions about the gas giant itself and the origins of our solar system. Now in an extended mission phase, the agency’s most distant planetary orbiter continues its investigation. This extension tasks Juno with becoming an explorer of the full Jovian system – Jupiter and its rings and moons – with additional rendezvous planned for two of Jupiter’s most intriguing moons: Europa and Io. Source: Business Today REAL ESTATE INVESTMENT TRUSTS (REITS) Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: SEBI Chairperson Madhabi Puri Buch recently highlighted the remarkable growth of Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs), Infrastructure Investment Trusts (INVITs), and Municipal bonds in India. Background: The Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs), Infrastructure Investment Trusts (INVITs), and Municipal bonds are all investment vehicles that allow investors to earn income from specific sectors. About REAL ESTATE INVESTMENT TRUSTS (REITS) Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) are financial instruments that allow investors to participate in income-generating real estate assets. REITs are similar to mutual funds but specifically focus on real estate. They pool money from investors and invest it in commercial real estate projects, including properties like office buildings, shopping malls, apartments, hotels, and warehouses. REITs are structured as trusts and are listed on stock exchanges, allowing investors to buy units in the trust. Types of REITs: Equity REITs: These purchase, own, and manage income-generating properties. Mortgage REITs: They lend money directly or indirectly to real estate owners. Hybrid REITs: A combination of equity and mortgage REITs. Significance of REITs: REITs can help cash-strapped developers monetize their existing properties. They reduce risk by diversifying portfolios across different types of properties. 80% of the value of an REIT should be in completed and rent-generating assets. Source: Hindu Previous Year Question Q1. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable. Statement-II: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the ‘Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002’. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Digitization of Agriculture Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Context: Digitization of agriculture holds significant potential to solve many underlying problems of agriculture. Background: The G20 Delhi declaration has committed to promoting responsible, sustainable, and inclusive use of digital technology by farmers and an ecosystem of Agri-Tech start-ups and MSMEs. About Digitization of Agriculture : It is the integration of cutting-edge digital technologies into the farm production system, including Artificial Intelligence (AI), robotics, unmanned aviation systems, sensors, and communication networks is referred to as Digitization of Agriculture. Significance of Digitization of Agriculture: It helps to optimize the input resources like fertilizers, pesticides, water, etc. at the right time. Ex: Use of AI with agricultural data. It increases operational efficiency and decreases the production cost of farming due to reduced manpower requirements and labour hours. Ex: Sub Mission on Agricultural Mechanization (SMAM). The right price for the produce is obtained by the elimination of middlemen thereby increasing the profitability. Ex: e-NAM. It aids scientific decision making in farming activities, which will reduce burdens of crop loss or failure, low yield, pest attack, etc. It provides better agriculture governance, by using agriculture data gathered across the country for the welfare of farmers and citizens. Ex: National e-Governance Plan in Agriculture (NeGP-A). It bridges the gender gap, through the promotion of women-centric innovations enabling them to be involved in agricultural activities at par with males. Ex: PM-KISAN Mobile App. Issues/Challenges in the Digitization of Agriculture in India: Digital illiteracy makes the farmers shy away from trying new-generation technologies in agriculture. The recent increase in digital fraud cases using mobile devices has affected the trust in digital mode. Lack of awareness about the schemes and subsidies provided by the government to make use of digital technologies. Capital requirement is high at the initial stages which makes it difficult for a small and marginal farmer to acquire them. Fragmented landholdings are a major concern for digitization as it makes the scalability of technology difficult. As per the latest Agriculture Census, the average size of operational holdings has decreased from 2.28 hectares in 1970-71 to 1.08 hectares in 2015-16. Fear of unemployment as the automation would reduce the number of manpower required for the process. Lack of infrastructure in rural areas like access to electricity, internet, service centers for machinery, etc. Limitations of available products like lack of content in regional languages, user-friendly interface, inadequate farm and farmer-level datasets, etc. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) are financial instruments that allow investors to participate in income-generating real estate assets. Statement-II: They reduce risk by diversifying portfolios across different types of properties. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Q2.) With reference to Juno Space craft, consider the following statements: Juno Space craft is launched by ISRO. Juno aims to study Jupiter’s composition, magnetic and gravity fields, and polar magnetosphere. It seeks to investigate the planet’s formation, origin, and the presence of water in its atmosphere. How many of above given statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q3.) Consider the following: Studying ocean currents Monitoring climate patterns and changes Enhancing cyclone prediction Identifying potential fishing zones. Data from Oceansat -3 is applicable to how many of the above given purposes? Only one Only two Only three All four Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  15th March  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  14th March – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 15th March 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

[DAY 11] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question Consider the following: Radioactive waste is any pollution that emits radiation which is naturally released by the environment. Radioactive waste can persist in environment for not more than a hundred years. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect Radioactive waste is any pollution that emits radiation beyond what is naturally released by the environment. It’s generated by uranium mining, nuclear power plants, and the production and testing of military weapons, as well as by universities and hospitals that use radioactive materials for research and medicine. Hence, statement 1 is false. Radioactive waste can persist in the environment for thousands of years, making disposal a major challenge.  Accidentally released or improperly disposed of contaminants threaten groundwater, surface water, and marine resources. Hence, statement 2 is false. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect Radioactive waste is any pollution that emits radiation beyond what is naturally released by the environment. It’s generated by uranium mining, nuclear power plants, and the production and testing of military weapons, as well as by universities and hospitals that use radioactive materials for research and medicine. Hence, statement 1 is false. Radioactive waste can persist in the environment for thousands of years, making disposal a major challenge.  Accidentally released or improperly disposed of contaminants threaten groundwater, surface water, and marine resources. Hence, statement 2 is false. Question 2 of 35 2. Question Consider the following with regard to ‘Butterfly Mines’, recently in the news: They are anti-tank mines. They can be deployed in the field only through air-dropping via helicopters. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect The PFM-1 and PFM-1S are two kinds of anti-personnel landmines that are commonly referred to as ‘Butterfly mines’ or ‘Green Parrots’. In Donetsk and Kramatorsk, Russia has highly likely attempted employment of PFM-1 and PFM-1S scatterable anti-personnel mines. Commonly called the ‘butterfly mine’, the PFM-1 series are deeply controversial, indiscriminate weapons. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. These mines can be deployed in the field of action through several means, which include being dropped from helicopters or through ballistic dispersion using artillery and mortar shells. These mines glide to the ground without exploding and later explode on coming in contact. Since these mines were green in color when they were first put to use them also earned the name ‘Green Parrots’. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect The PFM-1 and PFM-1S are two kinds of anti-personnel landmines that are commonly referred to as ‘Butterfly mines’ or ‘Green Parrots’. In Donetsk and Kramatorsk, Russia has highly likely attempted employment of PFM-1 and PFM-1S scatterable anti-personnel mines. Commonly called the ‘butterfly mine’, the PFM-1 series are deeply controversial, indiscriminate weapons. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. These mines can be deployed in the field of action through several means, which include being dropped from helicopters or through ballistic dispersion using artillery and mortar shells. These mines glide to the ground without exploding and later explode on coming in contact. Since these mines were green in color when they were first put to use them also earned the name ‘Green Parrots’. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. Question 3 of 35 3. Question Consider the following in the context of the Advanced Towed Artillery Gun System (ATAGS): ATAGS is an indigenously developed howitzer gun. The ATAGS is developed by the Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd (BHEL). Which of the above statements is/are true? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect In a first, an indigenously developed howitzer gun, ATAG, became part of the 21-gun salute during the Independence Day ceremony at the Red Fort. Developed by the DRDO, the Advanced Towed Artillery Gun System (ATAGS) was used alongside the traditional British-origin ’25 Pounders’ artillery guns. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The ATAGS is an indigenous 155 mm x 52 calibre howitzer gun developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) with its Pune-based facility Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE) being the nodal agency. Howitzers is an umbrella term for a category of long-range artillery guns. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect In a first, an indigenously developed howitzer gun, ATAG, became part of the 21-gun salute during the Independence Day ceremony at the Red Fort. Developed by the DRDO, the Advanced Towed Artillery Gun System (ATAGS) was used alongside the traditional British-origin ’25 Pounders’ artillery guns. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The ATAGS is an indigenous 155 mm x 52 calibre howitzer gun developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) with its Pune-based facility Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE) being the nodal agency. Howitzers is an umbrella term for a category of long-range artillery guns. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Question 4 of 35 4. Question Consider the following with regard to the Dornier 228 aircraft It has been manufactured by the National Aerospace Laboratories. It is a versatile multi-purpose light transport aircraft. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Built by Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd or HAL, the aircraft is a highly versatile multi-purpose light transport aircraft. It has been developed specifically to meet the manifold requirements of utility and commuter transport, third level services and air-taxi operations, coast guard duties and maritime surveillance. Roles: ·       Maritime Surveillance ·       Pollution Prevention ·       Troop Transport ·       Aerial Survey ·       Search and Rescue ·       Commuter Transport ·       Calibration of airport NAV-COM Aids ·       Remote Sensing Applications ·       Causality Evacuation ·       Executive Transport ·       Cargo & Logistics Support Hence statement 1 is not true. The 19 seater HAL – DO – 228 aircraft is a highly versatile multi-purpose light transport aircraft. It has been developed specifically to meet the manifold requirements of utility and commuter transport, third level services and air-taxi operations, coast guard duties and maritime surveillance. Hence, statement 2 is true. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Built by Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd or HAL, the aircraft is a highly versatile multi-purpose light transport aircraft. It has been developed specifically to meet the manifold requirements of utility and commuter transport, third level services and air-taxi operations, coast guard duties and maritime surveillance. Roles: ·       Maritime Surveillance ·       Pollution Prevention ·       Troop Transport ·       Aerial Survey ·       Search and Rescue ·       Commuter Transport ·       Calibration of airport NAV-COM Aids ·       Remote Sensing Applications ·       Causality Evacuation ·       Executive Transport ·       Cargo & Logistics Support Hence statement 1 is not true. The 19 seater HAL – DO – 228 aircraft is a highly versatile multi-purpose light transport aircraft. It has been developed specifically to meet the manifold requirements of utility and commuter transport, third level services and air-taxi operations, coast guard duties and maritime surveillance. Hence, statement 2 is true. Question 5 of 35 5. Question Consider the following statements about S-400 missile: It is indigenously developed by DRDO. It can hit the target up to an altitude of 400km. It is a surface-to-surface missile. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect It is developed in Russia. It is one of the world’s most Advanced air defence system. S-400 missile system carries separate radar systems which can detect aerial targets to a range of 400 km. It can hit target up to altitude of 30 km. It is a mobile long-range surface-to-air missile system Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect It is developed in Russia. It is one of the world’s most Advanced air defence system. S-400 missile system carries separate radar systems which can detect aerial targets to a range of 400 km. It can hit target up to altitude of 30 km. It is a mobile long-range surface-to-air missile system Question 6 of 35 6. Question Consider the following statements about Pralay missile: It is developed by DRDO. It is a surface-to-surface missile. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Pralay missile is developed by DRDO. It has a range of 150-500 km. It is a Short Range Ballistic Missile. Pralay missle is a surface-to-surface missile. Its payload capacity is 500-1000kg. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Pralay missile is developed by DRDO. It has a range of 150-500 km. It is a Short Range Ballistic Missile. Pralay missle is a surface-to-surface missile. Its payload capacity is 500-1000kg. Question 7 of 35 7. Question Consider the following: ASTRA is a missile system designed to be mounted on fighter aircraft. ASTRA missile system is being integrated with Rafael aircraft of the Indian Air Force. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect ASTRA is a Beyond Visual Range (BVR) class of Air-to-Air Missile (AAM) system designed to be mounted on fighter aircraft. The missile is designed to engage and destroy highly maneuvering supersonic aircraft. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The missile has all weather day and night capability. The missile is being developed in multiple variants to meet specific requirements. The ASTRA Mk-I Weapon System integrated with SU-30 Mk-I aircraft is being inducted into the Indian Air Force (IAF). Hence, statement 2 is not correct. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect ASTRA is a Beyond Visual Range (BVR) class of Air-to-Air Missile (AAM) system designed to be mounted on fighter aircraft. The missile is designed to engage and destroy highly maneuvering supersonic aircraft. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The missile has all weather day and night capability. The missile is being developed in multiple variants to meet specific requirements. The ASTRA Mk-I Weapon System integrated with SU-30 Mk-I aircraft is being inducted into the Indian Air Force (IAF). Hence, statement 2 is not correct. Question 8 of 35 8. Question With reference to cruise missiles, consider the following statements: Cruise missiles have ranges of 300 to 5000 km. They are easy to intercept. They have low precision. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Cruise missiles have short ranges of 300 to 1000 km. Hence, statement 1 is false. They are easy to intercept because of high terminal speeds. Hence, statement 2 is true. They have high precision due to the navigation system. Hence, statement 3 is false. Incorrect Solution (a) Cruise missiles have short ranges of 300 to 1000 km. Hence, statement 1 is false. They are easy to intercept because of high terminal speeds. Hence, statement 2 is true. They have high precision due to the navigation system. Hence, statement 3 is false. Question 9 of 35 9. Question With reference to Drones, consider the following statements: In India, the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) governs the use of all (manned or automated) aerial vehicles. Rustom-2 is a medium altitude long endurance indigenous prototype drone. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) A drone or UAV (Unmanned Aerial Vehicle) is a remotely controlled flying device. Drones do not require much technical expertise to use. In India, the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) governs the use of all (manned or automated) aerial vehicles. Hence, statement 1 is true. In 2020, the Defense Research and Development Organization (DRDO) flight tested the Rustom-2 medium altitude long endurance indigenous prototype drone. It is a surveillance drone. Hence, statement 2 is true. Incorrect Solution (c) A drone or UAV (Unmanned Aerial Vehicle) is a remotely controlled flying device. Drones do not require much technical expertise to use. In India, the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) governs the use of all (manned or automated) aerial vehicles. Hence, statement 1 is true. In 2020, the Defense Research and Development Organization (DRDO) flight tested the Rustom-2 medium altitude long endurance indigenous prototype drone. It is a surveillance drone. Hence, statement 2 is true. Question 10 of 35 10. Question Consider the following statements Statement-I : A ballistic missile is difficult to intercept. Statement-II : Prithvi-I is a long-range surface-to-surface tactical ballistic missile. Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Correct Solution (c) A ballistic missile is generally a projectile shot up in the atmosphere. They are difficult to intercept due to high terminal speeds of 5000 m/s. Hence, statement 1 is true. Prithvi-I is a short-range surface-to-surface tactical ballistic missile. Hence, statement 2 is false. Incorrect Solution (c) A ballistic missile is generally a projectile shot up in the atmosphere. They are difficult to intercept due to high terminal speeds of 5000 m/s. Hence, statement 1 is true. Prithvi-I is a short-range surface-to-surface tactical ballistic missile. Hence, statement 2 is false. Question 11 of 35 11. Question Consider the following statements Statement-I : Supersonic combustion ramjet or Scramjet operate at supersonic speeds. Statement-II : Air from the atmosphere is rammed into the scramjet engine’s combustion chamber at a supersonic speed. Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c) Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Correct Solution (d) Ramjets operate at supersonic speeds, and Scramjets operate at hypersonic speeds. Hence, statement 1 is false. In the chamber, the air mixes with the fuel to ignite a supersonic combustion but the cruiser’s flight will be at a hypersonic speed of Mach six to seven. Air from the atmosphere was then rammed into the scramjet engine’s combustion chamber at a supersonic speed. The air mixed with the atomized fuel, the fuel was ignited and the scramjet engine revved into action. Hence, statement 2 is true. Incorrect Solution (d) Ramjets operate at supersonic speeds, and Scramjets operate at hypersonic speeds. Hence, statement 1 is false. In the chamber, the air mixes with the fuel to ignite a supersonic combustion but the cruiser’s flight will be at a hypersonic speed of Mach six to seven. Air from the atmosphere was then rammed into the scramjet engine’s combustion chamber at a supersonic speed. The air mixed with the atomized fuel, the fuel was ignited and the scramjet engine revved into action. Hence, statement 2 is true. Question 12 of 35 12. Question Consider the following statements regarding Harpoon Missiles: It is a U.S.-designed subsonic antiship cruise missile. It has a range of more than 2000 km. It is an all-weather, over-the-horizon, anti-ship missile system. Which of the statements given above are correct? a) One only b) Two only c) Three only d) None Correct Solution (b) Taiwan recently decided to buy 400 U.S. land-launched Harpoon missiles in the face of rising threat from China. It is a S.-designed subsonic antiship cruise missile that has been in service since 1977. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Numerous variants have been produced since its inception, including air-, ship-, and sub-launched versions. It is currently in service with the armed forces of more than 30 countries including India. Features: It is an all-weather, over-the-horizon, anti-ship missile system. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Propulsion: Turbojet, solid propellent. It has a low-level, sea-skimming cruise trajectory with active radar guidance. It is capable of executing both land-strike and anti-ship missions. This missile is fitted with a heavy 221-kilogram penetration blast warhead. It uses GPS-aided inertial navigation to hit a designated target aimpoint. Range: 90-240 km. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) Incorrect Solution (b) Taiwan recently decided to buy 400 U.S. land-launched Harpoon missiles in the face of rising threat from China. It is a S.-designed subsonic antiship cruise missile that has been in service since 1977. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Numerous variants have been produced since its inception, including air-, ship-, and sub-launched versions. It is currently in service with the armed forces of more than 30 countries including India. Features: It is an all-weather, over-the-horizon, anti-ship missile system. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Propulsion: Turbojet, solid propellent. It has a low-level, sea-skimming cruise trajectory with active radar guidance. It is capable of executing both land-strike and anti-ship missions. This missile is fitted with a heavy 221-kilogram penetration blast warhead. It uses GPS-aided inertial navigation to hit a designated target aimpoint. Range: 90-240 km. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) Question 13 of 35 13. Question Consider the following pairs regarding India’s Missile System: Helina : Anti-Tank Guided missile Trishul : Surface to air missile Astra : New Generation Anti-Radiation Missile Rudram: Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 c) 1 and 3 d) 2 and 3 Correct Solution (b) Anti-tank guided missile: HELINA (Helicopter based NAG) is a third-generation fire and forget class anti-tank guided missile (ATGM) system mounted on the Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH). The system has all weather day and night capability and can defeat battle tanks with conventional armor as well as explosive reactive armor. The HELINA missile can engage targets both in direct hit mode as well as top attack mode. (Hence 1st pair is correct) Surface to air missile: THRISHUL is a short-range (500m to 9 km) quick reaction all-weather surface-to-air missile designed to counter a low-level attack developed by India. It was developed by DRDO as a part of the Integrated Guided Missile Development Program. (Hence 2nd pair is correct) Air to air missile: ASTRA, India’s Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM), has been completely tested and is under induction. It has a range of around 100 km. (Hence 3rd pair is incorrect) Air to ground missile: RUDRAM, a New Generation Anti-Radiation Missile (NGRAM). With a maximum range of around 200 km, the missile mainly targets communication, radar and surveillance systems of the adversary. (Hence 4th pair is incorrect). Incorrect Solution (b) Anti-tank guided missile: HELINA (Helicopter based NAG) is a third-generation fire and forget class anti-tank guided missile (ATGM) system mounted on the Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH). The system has all weather day and night capability and can defeat battle tanks with conventional armor as well as explosive reactive armor. The HELINA missile can engage targets both in direct hit mode as well as top attack mode. (Hence 1st pair is correct) Surface to air missile: THRISHUL is a short-range (500m to 9 km) quick reaction all-weather surface-to-air missile designed to counter a low-level attack developed by India. It was developed by DRDO as a part of the Integrated Guided Missile Development Program. (Hence 2nd pair is correct) Air to air missile: ASTRA, India’s Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM), has been completely tested and is under induction. It has a range of around 100 km. (Hence 3rd pair is incorrect) Air to ground missile: RUDRAM, a New Generation Anti-Radiation Missile (NGRAM). With a maximum range of around 200 km, the missile mainly targets communication, radar and surveillance systems of the adversary. (Hence 4th pair is incorrect). Question 14 of 35 14. Question With reference to Indian defense system, consider the following statements: INS Trishul is a Long-Range surface to air missile. Agni-V is an Indian nuclear capable intercontinental ballistic missile. The BrahMos is a medium-range stealth ramjet supersonic cruise missile. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) INS Trishul is the second frigate of the Talwar class of the Indian Navy. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect) These have been built in Russia under an Indo-Russian joint production. These missile frigates are modified Krivak III class frigates from Russia. It has a displacement capacity of 4,000 tons and a speed of 30 knots and is capable of accomplishing a wide variety of naval missions, primarily, finding and eliminating enemy submarines and large surface ships. Due to the use of stealth technologies and a special hull design, the resulting frigate features reduced radar cross section (RCS) as well as electromagnetic, acoustic and infrared signatures. Agni V: Agni-5 is an ingeniously built advanced surface-to-surface ballistic missile developed under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP). (Hence statement 2 is correct) It is a fire-and-forget missile, which cannot be stopped without an interceptor missile. The missile has the capability of hitting targets beyond the range of 5000 km and is crucial for India’s self-defense systems. The Agni missile class is the backbone of India’s nuclear launch capability, as are Prithvi short-range ballistic missiles, submarine-launched ballistic missiles, and fighter aircraft. Agni-1 to 5 missiles are designed & developed by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). The BrahMos missile: The BrahMos missile, an Indo-Russian joint venture, has a range of 290 km and is the fastest cruise missile in the world with a top speed of Mach 2.8 (nearly three times the speed of sound). (Hence statement 3 is correct) BrahMos is named for the rivers Brahmaputra and Moskva. It is a two-stage (solid propellant engine in the first stage and liquid ramjet in second) missile. It is a multiplatform missile i.e., it can be launched from land, air, and sea and multi capability missile with pinpoint accuracy that works in both day and night irrespective of the weather conditions. It operates on the “Fire and Forgets” principle i.e it does not require further guidance after launch. Incorrect Solution (b) INS Trishul is the second frigate of the Talwar class of the Indian Navy. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect) These have been built in Russia under an Indo-Russian joint production. These missile frigates are modified Krivak III class frigates from Russia. It has a displacement capacity of 4,000 tons and a speed of 30 knots and is capable of accomplishing a wide variety of naval missions, primarily, finding and eliminating enemy submarines and large surface ships. Due to the use of stealth technologies and a special hull design, the resulting frigate features reduced radar cross section (RCS) as well as electromagnetic, acoustic and infrared signatures. Agni V: Agni-5 is an ingeniously built advanced surface-to-surface ballistic missile developed under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP). (Hence statement 2 is correct) It is a fire-and-forget missile, which cannot be stopped without an interceptor missile. The missile has the capability of hitting targets beyond the range of 5000 km and is crucial for India’s self-defense systems. The Agni missile class is the backbone of India’s nuclear launch capability, as are Prithvi short-range ballistic missiles, submarine-launched ballistic missiles, and fighter aircraft. Agni-1 to 5 missiles are designed & developed by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). The BrahMos missile: The BrahMos missile, an Indo-Russian joint venture, has a range of 290 km and is the fastest cruise missile in the world with a top speed of Mach 2.8 (nearly three times the speed of sound). (Hence statement 3 is correct) BrahMos is named for the rivers Brahmaputra and Moskva. It is a two-stage (solid propellant engine in the first stage and liquid ramjet in second) missile. It is a multiplatform missile i.e., it can be launched from land, air, and sea and multi capability missile with pinpoint accuracy that works in both day and night irrespective of the weather conditions. It operates on the “Fire and Forgets” principle i.e it does not require further guidance after launch. Question 15 of 35 15. Question Consider the following pairs: Satellite Navigation system                     Country GPS                                                                      USA GLONASS                                                        Russia Galileo                                                      United Kingdom BeiDou                                                              China How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched? a) One pair only b) Two pairs only c) Three pairs only d) All four pairs Correct Solution (c) Global Positioning System (GPS) Initiated in 1978 and achieved global coverage in 1995 and is owned by the United States government and operated by the United States Air Force. It consists of 24 to 32 medium Earth orbit satellites in six different orbital planes. (Hence first pair is correct) Global Navigation Satellite System (GLONASS) Operated by Roscosmos, a state corporation responsible for the space flight and cosmonautics program for the Russian Federation. It became operational in 1982 and achieved global coverage in 1996, and again in 2011 (after the system had fallen into disrepair). It has full global coverage with 24 satellites. (Hence second pair is correct) GALILEO It was initiated in 2005 by the European Space Agency and projected to provide global coverage by 2020 with 30 satellites. (Hence third pair is incorrect) BeiDou It is a satellite navigation system of China. Like any other navigation satellite system, BeiDou is made up of 35 satellites that orbit the Earth and transmit precise data all the time. The signal from the satellite travels from the satellite to the Earth’s ground stations and then to the receiver and vice versa. (Hence fourth pair is correct) Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS) It is operated by the Japanese government. It is a four-satellite regional time transfer system and enhancement for GPS covering Japan and the Asia-Oceania regions. Its services have been available on a trial basis since January 2018. Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC) Technology An autonomous regional satellite navigation system, also known as Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), is developed by ISRO. It has been designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary. It will provide two types of services: Standard Positioning Service (SPS): provided to all the users. Restricted Service (RS): It is an encrypted service provided only to the authorized users. The IRNSS System is expected to provide a position accuracy of better than 20 m in the primary service area. Presently, it consists of 7 active satellites located at a distance of approximately 36,000 Km. 3 satellites are in Geostationary Orbit (GEO). 4 satellites are in inclined Geosynchronous Orbit (GSO). Incorrect Solution (c) Global Positioning System (GPS) Initiated in 1978 and achieved global coverage in 1995 and is owned by the United States government and operated by the United States Air Force. It consists of 24 to 32 medium Earth orbit satellites in six different orbital planes. (Hence first pair is correct) Global Navigation Satellite System (GLONASS) Operated by Roscosmos, a state corporation responsible for the space flight and cosmonautics program for the Russian Federation. It became operational in 1982 and achieved global coverage in 1996, and again in 2011 (after the system had fallen into disrepair). It has full global coverage with 24 satellites. (Hence second pair is correct) GALILEO It was initiated in 2005 by the European Space Agency and projected to provide global coverage by 2020 with 30 satellites. (Hence third pair is incorrect) BeiDou It is a satellite navigation system of China. Like any other navigation satellite system, BeiDou is made up of 35 satellites that orbit the Earth and transmit precise data all the time. The signal from the satellite travels from the satellite to the Earth’s ground stations and then to the receiver and vice versa. (Hence fourth pair is correct) Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS) It is operated by the Japanese government. It is a four-satellite regional time transfer system and enhancement for GPS covering Japan and the Asia-Oceania regions. Its services have been available on a trial basis since January 2018. Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC) Technology An autonomous regional satellite navigation system, also known as Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), is developed by ISRO. It has been designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary. It will provide two types of services: Standard Positioning Service (SPS): provided to all the users. Restricted Service (RS): It is an encrypted service provided only to the authorized users. The IRNSS System is expected to provide a position accuracy of better than 20 m in the primary service area. Presently, it consists of 7 active satellites located at a distance of approximately 36,000 Km. 3 satellites are in Geostationary Orbit (GEO). 4 satellites are in inclined Geosynchronous Orbit (GSO). Question 16 of 35 16. Question Which of the following functions can be performed by the unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs)? Attacking enemy targets Transportation of extracted body organs Delivery of E-commerce goods Surveillance and reconnaissance activities Choose the correct answer using the codes given below a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) All of the above Correct Solution (d) Leveraging drone’s potential for commercial operations: It will foster various new forms of air freight capabilities, allowing transport of temperature and time sensitive commodities like bodily organs, lifesaving medicines etc. They can also be used to discharge materials for supplementing agricultural irrigation, survey landscapes, actively monitor rail/road traffic, or survey/inspect agricultural land. Recent aerial attacks such as, on Saudi Arabian refineries and killing of Iran’s top military commander are few such instances where drones were used. Incorrect Solution (d) Leveraging drone’s potential for commercial operations: It will foster various new forms of air freight capabilities, allowing transport of temperature and time sensitive commodities like bodily organs, lifesaving medicines etc. They can also be used to discharge materials for supplementing agricultural irrigation, survey landscapes, actively monitor rail/road traffic, or survey/inspect agricultural land. Recent aerial attacks such as, on Saudi Arabian refineries and killing of Iran’s top military commander are few such instances where drones were used. Question 17 of 35 17. Question Consider the following statements regarding Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM3): LVM3 is India’s heaviest rocket. It does not have a fixed orbit and can go anywhere—GEO (Geosynchronous Earth Orbit), MEO (Medium Earth Orbit), LEO (Low Earth Orbit). It is a three-stage launch vehicle with cryogenic upper stage. How many of the above statements are correct? a) One only b) Two only c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) had renamed the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) Mark -III as Launch Vehicle Mark-III, mainly to identify its task of placing satellites into a variety of orbits. The LVM3 will go everywhere —GEO (Geosynchronous Earth Orbit), MEO (Medium Earth Orbit), LEO (Low Earth Orbit), missions to the moon, sun. LVM3 is India’s heaviest rocket. The launch vehicle can carry up to 8 tonnes of payload to the lower earth orbits (LEO), which is about 200 km from the Earth’s surface. But when it comes to the geostationary transfer orbits (GTO), which lie much further ahead, up to about 35,000 km from the Earth, it can carry much less, only about four tonnes. LVM3 is essentially a three-stage launch vehicle, including two solid boosters (S200), the core liquid fuel-based stage (L110), and the cryogenic upper stage (C25). Hence, statement 1, 2, 3 are correct.   Incorrect Solution (c) The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) had renamed the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) Mark -III as Launch Vehicle Mark-III, mainly to identify its task of placing satellites into a variety of orbits. The LVM3 will go everywhere —GEO (Geosynchronous Earth Orbit), MEO (Medium Earth Orbit), LEO (Low Earth Orbit), missions to the moon, sun. LVM3 is India’s heaviest rocket. The launch vehicle can carry up to 8 tonnes of payload to the lower earth orbits (LEO), which is about 200 km from the Earth’s surface. But when it comes to the geostationary transfer orbits (GTO), which lie much further ahead, up to about 35,000 km from the Earth, it can carry much less, only about four tonnes. LVM3 is essentially a three-stage launch vehicle, including two solid boosters (S200), the core liquid fuel-based stage (L110), and the cryogenic upper stage (C25). Hence, statement 1, 2, 3 are correct.   Question 18 of 35 18. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC): It is the highest decision-making body of the Defence Ministry on procurement. The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) acts as the chairman of DAC. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) recently approved the capital acquisition of indigenously-developed military hardware worth Rs 70,584 crore. The DAC is the highest decision-making body of the defence Ministry on procurement. Its objective is to ensure expeditious procurement of the approved requirements of the armed forces. It was formed after the Group of Minister’s recommendations on ‘Reforming the National Security System’, in 2001, post-Kargil War (1999). Composition: The defence minister is the chairman of DAC. Its members include the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) and chiefs of the Army, Navy, and Air Force. Functions: Give in-principal approval of a 15 years Long Term Integrated Perspective Plan (LTIPP) for defence forces. Accord of acceptance of necessity to acquisition proposals. Categorization of the acquisition proposals relating to ‘Buy’, ‘Buy & Make’, and ‘Make’. Look into issues relating to single vendor clearance. Take decisions regarding ‘offset’ provisions in respect of acquisition proposals above Rs 300 crore. Take decisions regarding the Transfer of Technology under the ‘Buy and Make’ category of acquisition proposals. Field trial evaluation. Hence statement 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (a) The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) recently approved the capital acquisition of indigenously-developed military hardware worth Rs 70,584 crore. The DAC is the highest decision-making body of the defence Ministry on procurement. Its objective is to ensure expeditious procurement of the approved requirements of the armed forces. It was formed after the Group of Minister’s recommendations on ‘Reforming the National Security System’, in 2001, post-Kargil War (1999). Composition: The defence minister is the chairman of DAC. Its members include the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) and chiefs of the Army, Navy, and Air Force. Functions: Give in-principal approval of a 15 years Long Term Integrated Perspective Plan (LTIPP) for defence forces. Accord of acceptance of necessity to acquisition proposals. Categorization of the acquisition proposals relating to ‘Buy’, ‘Buy & Make’, and ‘Make’. Look into issues relating to single vendor clearance. Take decisions regarding ‘offset’ provisions in respect of acquisition proposals above Rs 300 crore. Take decisions regarding the Transfer of Technology under the ‘Buy and Make’ category of acquisition proposals. Field trial evaluation. Hence statement 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect. Question 19 of 35 19. Question Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Vayulink’ Platform: It is a data link communication system that provides secure and uninterrupted communication with the base station. It is developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Indian Air Force (IAF) recently developed an indigenous ‘Vayulink’ platform to enable jammer-proof communication with the base station. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Vayulink is an ad-hoc data link communication system that would help pilots deal with bad weather and provide jammer-proof uninterrupted communication with the base station. It is developed by the Indian Air Force (IAF). (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) It uses the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) to send radio communication to the base station when the signals are low. Vayulink, when installed in an aircraft, gives the position of other aircraft close by and encrypted traffic data over a secure channel. Uses: The platform helps to prevent fratricide or friendly fire, i.e., it helps us to know where the friendly forces are present. It provides better combat teaming. Helps plan real-time basis where multiple teams can get together and go towards the target coming from different areas. It can also give the pilots data on the weather. Incorrect Solution (a) Indian Air Force (IAF) recently developed an indigenous ‘Vayulink’ platform to enable jammer-proof communication with the base station. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Vayulink is an ad-hoc data link communication system that would help pilots deal with bad weather and provide jammer-proof uninterrupted communication with the base station. It is developed by the Indian Air Force (IAF). (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) It uses the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) to send radio communication to the base station when the signals are low. Vayulink, when installed in an aircraft, gives the position of other aircraft close by and encrypted traffic data over a secure channel. Uses: The platform helps to prevent fratricide or friendly fire, i.e., it helps us to know where the friendly forces are present. It provides better combat teaming. Helps plan real-time basis where multiple teams can get together and go towards the target coming from different areas. It can also give the pilots data on the weather. Question 20 of 35 20. Question With reference to India’s defence, the INS Marmagao is a? a) Aircraft carrier b) Submarine c) Missile destroyer d) Guided missile frigate Correct Solution (c) Defense Minister Rajnath Singh RECENTLY commissioned INS Marmagao into the Indian Navy. It is a P15B stealth-guided missile destroyer. (Hence option c is correct) It is the second of the four ‘Visakhapatnam’ class destroyers that has been designed by the Indian Navy’s Warship Design Bureau. It has over 75% indigenous content and was built by the Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited. It is equipped with surface-to-surface and surface-to-air missiles besides modern surveillance radar that provides target data to the weapon systems. The warship, measuring 163 meters by 17 meters, displacement of 7300 tonnes It is named after the historic port city of Mormugao in Goa. Propelled by four powerful gas turbines, the warship can achieve speeds of over 30 knots. It is said to feature state-of-the-art weapons, stealth features and sensors. It has a total atmospheric control system (TACS) that protects crew from nuclear, biological, and chemical threats. It undertook its first sea sortie in 2021, marking 60 years of Goa’s liberation from Portuguese rule. Incorrect Solution (c) Defense Minister Rajnath Singh RECENTLY commissioned INS Marmagao into the Indian Navy. It is a P15B stealth-guided missile destroyer. (Hence option c is correct) It is the second of the four ‘Visakhapatnam’ class destroyers that has been designed by the Indian Navy’s Warship Design Bureau. It has over 75% indigenous content and was built by the Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited. It is equipped with surface-to-surface and surface-to-air missiles besides modern surveillance radar that provides target data to the weapon systems. The warship, measuring 163 meters by 17 meters, displacement of 7300 tonnes It is named after the historic port city of Mormugao in Goa. Propelled by four powerful gas turbines, the warship can achieve speeds of over 30 knots. It is said to feature state-of-the-art weapons, stealth features and sensors. It has a total atmospheric control system (TACS) that protects crew from nuclear, biological, and chemical threats. It undertook its first sea sortie in 2021, marking 60 years of Goa’s liberation from Portuguese rule. Question 21 of 35 21. Question Consider the following statements: Both SACRED Portal and SAGE Portal work under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. SACRED Portal helps to select, support, and create a “one-stop access” to elderly care products and services. SAGE Portal brings together both job providers and job seekers on a transparent online portal. How many of the above statements are correct?  a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Senior Able Citizens for Re-Employment in Dignity (SACRED) Portal was launched in 2021. It is a unique and innovative technology-driven employment marketplace that aims to devise ways to ensure senior citizens live healthy, happy, empowered, dignified, and self-reliant life. Senior Care Aging Growth Engine (SAGE) Portal was launched in 2021. It identifies, evaluates, verifies, aggregates, and delivers products, Solutions, and servicesdirectly to the stakeholders. Both SACRED Portal and SAGE Portal work under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. Hence statement 1 is correct. SAGE Portal helps to select, support, and create a “one-stop access” to elderly careproducts and services. It encourages the selected “startups” based on innovative products and services to address the services from health, housing, care centers, and technology access linked to needs ranging from finances, food, and wealth management to legal guidance. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. SACRED Portal brings together both job providers and job seekers on a transparent online portal. It will help private and public sector enterprises across sectors to share their demand for human resources and help senior experienced citizens get themselves registered for visibility of the emerging workplace demands, and apply for relevant job opportunities. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (a) Senior Able Citizens for Re-Employment in Dignity (SACRED) Portal was launched in 2021. It is a unique and innovative technology-driven employment marketplace that aims to devise ways to ensure senior citizens live healthy, happy, empowered, dignified, and self-reliant life. Senior Care Aging Growth Engine (SAGE) Portal was launched in 2021. It identifies, evaluates, verifies, aggregates, and delivers products, Solutions, and servicesdirectly to the stakeholders. Both SACRED Portal and SAGE Portal work under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. Hence statement 1 is correct. SAGE Portal helps to select, support, and create a “one-stop access” to elderly careproducts and services. It encourages the selected “startups” based on innovative products and services to address the services from health, housing, care centers, and technology access linked to needs ranging from finances, food, and wealth management to legal guidance. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. SACRED Portal brings together both job providers and job seekers on a transparent online portal. It will help private and public sector enterprises across sectors to share their demand for human resources and help senior experienced citizens get themselves registered for visibility of the emerging workplace demands, and apply for relevant job opportunities. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements: Acute Hepatitis is the inflammation of the liver that presents with sicknesses like jaundice, fever, and vomiting. Chronic Hepatitis is the inflammation of the liver that lasts more than six months but essentially shows no symptoms. The theme for World Hepatitis Day 2023 was “One life, one liver”, focusing on creating awareness about viral hepatitis. Vaccination is available for all the five kinds of viral hepatitis. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) Hepatitis is an inflammation of the liver. Acute Hepatitis is the inflammation of the liver that presents with sicknesses like jaundice, fever, and vomiting. Hence statement 1 is correct. Chronic Hepatitis is the inflammation of the liver that lasts more than six months but essentially shows no symptoms. Hence statement 2 is correct. The World Hepatitis Alliance, established in 2007, organized the first community-driven World Hepatitis Day in 2008 on July 28. This date was chosen to honour Dr. Baruch Samuel Blumberg. Dr. Baruch Samuel Blumberg was the American physician who discovered Hepatitis B in the 1960s. World Hepatitis Day serves as an occasion to strengthen national and international efforts against hepatitis, urging individuals, partners, and the public to take action. The theme for World Hepatitis Day 2023 was “One life, one liver”, focusing on creating awareness about viral hepatitis. Hence statement 3 is correct. Vaccination is not available for all the five kinds of viral hepatitis. Vaccines are available for Hepatitis A (HAV) and Hepatitis B (HBV) whereas there are no vaccines for Hepatitis C (HCV) and Hepatitis E (HEV). Hepatitis D (HDV) can be prevented by preventing HBV infection through vaccination. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.   Incorrect Solution (c) Hepatitis is an inflammation of the liver. Acute Hepatitis is the inflammation of the liver that presents with sicknesses like jaundice, fever, and vomiting. Hence statement 1 is correct. Chronic Hepatitis is the inflammation of the liver that lasts more than six months but essentially shows no symptoms. Hence statement 2 is correct. The World Hepatitis Alliance, established in 2007, organized the first community-driven World Hepatitis Day in 2008 on July 28. This date was chosen to honour Dr. Baruch Samuel Blumberg. Dr. Baruch Samuel Blumberg was the American physician who discovered Hepatitis B in the 1960s. World Hepatitis Day serves as an occasion to strengthen national and international efforts against hepatitis, urging individuals, partners, and the public to take action. The theme for World Hepatitis Day 2023 was “One life, one liver”, focusing on creating awareness about viral hepatitis. Hence statement 3 is correct. Vaccination is not available for all the five kinds of viral hepatitis. Vaccines are available for Hepatitis A (HAV) and Hepatitis B (HBV) whereas there are no vaccines for Hepatitis C (HCV) and Hepatitis E (HEV). Hepatitis D (HDV) can be prevented by preventing HBV infection through vaccination. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.   Question 23 of 35 23. Question Consider the following statements about Scrub Typhus It is a viral disease caused by orientia tsutsugamushi. It is spread to people through bites of infected mosquitoes. No vaccine is available to prevent scrub typhus. It can be treated with the antibiotic Doxycycline. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (b) Scrub Typhus is a bacterial disease caused by orientia tsutsugamushi. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is also known as bush typhus. Its common symptoms include fever, headache, body aches, rash, dry cough, skin rashes, red eyes, and mental changes ranging from confusion to coma. It is spread to people through bites of infected larval mites. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. No vaccine is available to prevent scrub typhus. Hence statement 3 is correct. It can be treated with the antibiotic  Hence statement 4 is correct. Doxycycline is a broad-spectrum antibiotic used in the treatment of some bacterial and parasitic infections such as bacterial pneumonia, acne, chlamydia infections, Lyme disease, cholera, typhus, and syphilis. Incorrect Solution (b) Scrub Typhus is a bacterial disease caused by orientia tsutsugamushi. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is also known as bush typhus. Its common symptoms include fever, headache, body aches, rash, dry cough, skin rashes, red eyes, and mental changes ranging from confusion to coma. It is spread to people through bites of infected larval mites. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. No vaccine is available to prevent scrub typhus. Hence statement 3 is correct. It can be treated with the antibiotic  Hence statement 4 is correct. Doxycycline is a broad-spectrum antibiotic used in the treatment of some bacterial and parasitic infections such as bacterial pneumonia, acne, chlamydia infections, Lyme disease, cholera, typhus, and syphilis. Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements about Cell-free DNAs (cfDNA) They are short fragments of DNA released into the bloodstream through a natural process of cell death. They can help in the early detection, diagnosis, and treatment of cancers. They can help in understanding why a body is rejecting a transplanted organ. They can be used as a biomarker for neurological disorders like Alzheimer’s disease. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) Cell-free DNAs are short fragments of DNA released into the bloodstream through a natural process of cell death. Hence statement 1 is correct. During pregnancy, the mother’s blood contains cell-free DNA (cfDNA), both from her own tissue and from the fetus via the placenta. The cell degradation is influenced by multiple processes causing variations in the amount, size, and origin of cfDNA. The release of cfDNA could occur together with a variety of processes, including those required for normal development, those related to the development of certain cancers, and those associated with several other diseases. They help in screening foetuses for specific chromosomal abnormalities, an application known as non-invasive prenatal testing. They can help in the early detection, diagnosis, and treatment of cancers. Hence statement 2 is correct. They can help in understanding why a body is rejecting a transplanted organ. Hence statement 3 is correct. They can be used as a biomarker for neurological disorders like Alzheimer’s disease, neuronal tumours, stroke, and traumatic brain injury. Hence statement 4 is correct. Incorrect Solution (d) Cell-free DNAs are short fragments of DNA released into the bloodstream through a natural process of cell death. Hence statement 1 is correct. During pregnancy, the mother’s blood contains cell-free DNA (cfDNA), both from her own tissue and from the fetus via the placenta. The cell degradation is influenced by multiple processes causing variations in the amount, size, and origin of cfDNA. The release of cfDNA could occur together with a variety of processes, including those required for normal development, those related to the development of certain cancers, and those associated with several other diseases. They help in screening foetuses for specific chromosomal abnormalities, an application known as non-invasive prenatal testing. They can help in the early detection, diagnosis, and treatment of cancers. Hence statement 2 is correct. They can help in understanding why a body is rejecting a transplanted organ. Hence statement 3 is correct. They can be used as a biomarker for neurological disorders like Alzheimer’s disease, neuronal tumours, stroke, and traumatic brain injury. Hence statement 4 is correct. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements about Akira It is a type of ransomware that targets only Windows that spreads through spear phishing emails. It deletes Windows Shadow Volume copies and leaves a note with attack details and a link to the negotiation site. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Akira is a type of ransomware that targets both Windows and Linux devices that spreads through spear phishing emails that contain malicious attachments in the form of archived content (zip/rar) files. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It gets its name due to its ability to modify the filenames of all encrypted files by appending them with the “.akira” extension. Windows Shadow Volume copies are instrumental in ensuring that organizations can back up data used in their applications for day-to-day functioning. It deletes Windows Shadow Volume copies and leaves a note with attack details and a link to the negotiation site. Hence statement 2 is correct. The attackers then demand a ransom, threatening to publish the data on their dark web blog if the demands are not met.   Incorrect Solution (b) Akira is a type of ransomware that targets both Windows and Linux devices that spreads through spear phishing emails that contain malicious attachments in the form of archived content (zip/rar) files. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It gets its name due to its ability to modify the filenames of all encrypted files by appending them with the “.akira” extension. Windows Shadow Volume copies are instrumental in ensuring that organizations can back up data used in their applications for day-to-day functioning. It deletes Windows Shadow Volume copies and leaves a note with attack details and a link to the negotiation site. Hence statement 2 is correct. The attackers then demand a ransom, threatening to publish the data on their dark web blog if the demands are not met.   Question 26 of 35 26. Question Which of the following products have got the Geographical Indication Tag? Jaderi namakatti Kashmir’s Mushqbudji rice Agra leather footwear Jammu Kashmir’s Rajouri Chikri Wood Craft Choose the correct code: a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) The following products have got the Geographical Indication Tag: Jaderi namakatti of Tamil Nadu Kashmir’s Mushqbudji rice Agra leather footwear Jammu Kashmir’s Rajouri Chikri Wood Craft Chedibutta saree of Tamil Nadu Kanniyakumari Matti banana Rajasthan’s Nathdwara Pichhwai Painting Bihar’s Marcha Rice Agsechi Vayingim (Agassaim Brinjal) of Goa Sat Shiro Bheno (Sat Shirancho Bhendo) of Goa Hence option d is correct.   Incorrect Solution (d) The following products have got the Geographical Indication Tag: Jaderi namakatti of Tamil Nadu Kashmir’s Mushqbudji rice Agra leather footwear Jammu Kashmir’s Rajouri Chikri Wood Craft Chedibutta saree of Tamil Nadu Kanniyakumari Matti banana Rajasthan’s Nathdwara Pichhwai Painting Bihar’s Marcha Rice Agsechi Vayingim (Agassaim Brinjal) of Goa Sat Shiro Bheno (Sat Shirancho Bhendo) of Goa Hence option d is correct.   Question 27 of 35 27. Question Which of the following are the key features of Pradhan Mantri Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (PM- USHA)? It targets remote areas, Left-Wing Extremism (LWE) affected regions, aspirational districts, and areas with low Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER). It has provisions for establishing new model degree colleges and allocates grants for the effective functioning of universities. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA) was a Centrally Sponsored Scheme to fund States/UTs institutions, with the vision to attain higher levels of access, equity, and excellence in the State higher education system with greater efficiency, transparency, accountability, and responsiveness. The first phase of the scheme was launched in 2013 and the second phase was launched in 2018. Now, in the light of the National Education Policy, the RUSA scheme has been launched as Pradhan Mantri Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (PM-USHA). It covers government and government-aided institutions of the States and UTs. As the demand for higher education is increasing continuously over the years, there has been an unprecedented expansion in the number of institutions, universities, and volume of students in the country. The features/objectives of PM-USHA are: To improve the overall quality of existing state higher educational institutions by ensuring their conformity to prescribed norms and standards and adoption of accreditation as a quality assurance framework; Usher transformative reforms in the State higher education system by creating a facilitating institutional structure for planning and monitoring at the state level, promoting autonomy in State Universities, and improving governance in institutions; Implementation of recommendations of the NEP 2020 through funding support provided to State HEIs; Ensure governance, academic, and examination (and evaluation) reforms in the State higher educational institutions and establish backward and forward linkages with school education on one hand and employment market, on the other hand, to facilitate self-reliance and thus create an Atma-Nirbhar Bharat; Create an enabling atmosphere in the higher educational institutions to devote themselves to research and innovations; Correct regional imbalances in access to higher education by facilitating access to high-quality institutions in urban & semi‐urban areas, creating opportunities for students from rural areas to get access to better quality institutions, and setting up institutions in unserved & underserved areas; Developing infrastructure for ODL/Online/Digital mode of education in such States/UTs; Improve equity in higher education by providing adequate opportunities for higher education to socially deprived communities; promote inclusion of women, minorities, SC/ST/OBCs, and special-abled persons; To identify and fill up the existing gaps in higher education, by augmenting and supporting the State Governments’ efforts; Enhancing employability through skilling and vocationalization; Improving the accreditation status of accredited institutions and getting accreditation of non-accredited institutions; Providing better hostel facilities in remote areas; Focusing on low GER, Left Wing Extremism (LWE), border area districts, aspirational districts, and districts with higher SC/ ST population; Hence statement 1 is correct. Establishing New Model Degree Colleges in the districts where there are no Government and Government-aided institutions; Hence statement 2 is correct. Focus on multidisciplinary education, including STEM, commerce, and humanities fields of education. Incorrect Solution (c) Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA) was a Centrally Sponsored Scheme to fund States/UTs institutions, with the vision to attain higher levels of access, equity, and excellence in the State higher education system with greater efficiency, transparency, accountability, and responsiveness. The first phase of the scheme was launched in 2013 and the second phase was launched in 2018. Now, in the light of the National Education Policy, the RUSA scheme has been launched as Pradhan Mantri Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (PM-USHA). It covers government and government-aided institutions of the States and UTs. As the demand for higher education is increasing continuously over the years, there has been an unprecedented expansion in the number of institutions, universities, and volume of students in the country. The features/objectives of PM-USHA are: To improve the overall quality of existing state higher educational institutions by ensuring their conformity to prescribed norms and standards and adoption of accreditation as a quality assurance framework; Usher transformative reforms in the State higher education system by creating a facilitating institutional structure for planning and monitoring at the state level, promoting autonomy in State Universities, and improving governance in institutions; Implementation of recommendations of the NEP 2020 through funding support provided to State HEIs; Ensure governance, academic, and examination (and evaluation) reforms in the State higher educational institutions and establish backward and forward linkages with school education on one hand and employment market, on the other hand, to facilitate self-reliance and thus create an Atma-Nirbhar Bharat; Create an enabling atmosphere in the higher educational institutions to devote themselves to research and innovations; Correct regional imbalances in access to higher education by facilitating access to high-quality institutions in urban & semi‐urban areas, creating opportunities for students from rural areas to get access to better quality institutions, and setting up institutions in unserved & underserved areas; Developing infrastructure for ODL/Online/Digital mode of education in such States/UTs; Improve equity in higher education by providing adequate opportunities for higher education to socially deprived communities; promote inclusion of women, minorities, SC/ST/OBCs, and special-abled persons; To identify and fill up the existing gaps in higher education, by augmenting and supporting the State Governments’ efforts; Enhancing employability through skilling and vocationalization; Improving the accreditation status of accredited institutions and getting accreditation of non-accredited institutions; Providing better hostel facilities in remote areas; Focusing on low GER, Left Wing Extremism (LWE), border area districts, aspirational districts, and districts with higher SC/ ST population; Hence statement 1 is correct. Establishing New Model Degree Colleges in the districts where there are no Government and Government-aided institutions; Hence statement 2 is correct. Focus on multidisciplinary education, including STEM, commerce, and humanities fields of education. Question 28 of 35 28. Question Recently in the news, HE 1005-1439 is a a) group of asteroids found in Whirlpool galaxy b) a black hole in Cigar galaxy c) carbon-enhanced metal-poor (CEMP) star d) none Correct Solution (c) HE 1005-1439 is a carbon-enhanced metal-poor (CEMP) star. They are primarily characterized by diverse heavy elements and abundance patterns. They are formed from the ejected material of the first stars that formed after the Big Bang. HE 1005-1439 defies previous classifications and challenges previous understanding of star formation processes and shows signs of having been formed through the combination of two different neutron-capture processes — the slow (s-) and intermediate (i-). Hence option c is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) HE 1005-1439 is a carbon-enhanced metal-poor (CEMP) star. They are primarily characterized by diverse heavy elements and abundance patterns. They are formed from the ejected material of the first stars that formed after the Big Bang. HE 1005-1439 defies previous classifications and challenges previous understanding of star formation processes and shows signs of having been formed through the combination of two different neutron-capture processes — the slow (s-) and intermediate (i-). Hence option c is correct. Question 29 of 35 29. Question Consider the following statements about the Malayali tribe They are a tribal group from the Eastern Ghats in North Kerala. They constructed huts with red clay on teak wood frames. The roof of their huts was made of dry bamboo leaves and cow dung. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Malayali tribes mean Malai meaning “hill” and yali meaning “people”. Malayali tribes are a tribal group from the Eastern Ghats in North Tamil Nadu. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. They constructed huts with red clay on teak wood frames. It signifies the tribe’s connection to nature. Hence statement 2 is correct. It was initially used for living and later used for seed storage. The roof of their huts was made of dry bamboo leaves and cow dung. It prevented leaks during monsoons. Hence statement 3 is correct. Currently, only one such hut remains on Yelagiri Hill in Tamil Nadu as a symbol of their transition from foraging to a more modern lifestyle. Incorrect Solution (b) Malayali tribes mean Malai meaning “hill” and yali meaning “people”. Malayali tribes are a tribal group from the Eastern Ghats in North Tamil Nadu. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. They constructed huts with red clay on teak wood frames. It signifies the tribe’s connection to nature. Hence statement 2 is correct. It was initially used for living and later used for seed storage. The roof of their huts was made of dry bamboo leaves and cow dung. It prevented leaks during monsoons. Hence statement 3 is correct. Currently, only one such hut remains on Yelagiri Hill in Tamil Nadu as a symbol of their transition from foraging to a more modern lifestyle. Question 30 of 35 30. Question Consider the following statements: Both male and female African elephants have tusks, while only male Asian elephants have tusks. The elephant is a national heritage animal in India that is protected under Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Gaj Soochna is a centralized database that includes physical and genetic information of every captive elephant individual in the country. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) India alone hosts over 60% of the worldwide wild elephant population. The elephant population within India is spread across the southern, northeastern, east-central, and northern parts of the country. Both male and female African elephants have tusks, while only male Asian elephants have tusks. Hence statement 1 is correct. The elephant is a national heritage animal in India that is protected under Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Hence statement 2 is correct. Indian elephants are listed as endangered in the IUCN List and Appendix I of the CITES. Gaj Soochna is a centralized database that includes physical and genetic information of every captive elephant individual in the country. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is being carried out in collaboration with the Wildlife Institute of India and will act as the ‘Adhaar card of captive elephants’. Incorrect Solution (c) India alone hosts over 60% of the worldwide wild elephant population. The elephant population within India is spread across the southern, northeastern, east-central, and northern parts of the country. Both male and female African elephants have tusks, while only male Asian elephants have tusks. Hence statement 1 is correct. The elephant is a national heritage animal in India that is protected under Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Hence statement 2 is correct. Indian elephants are listed as endangered in the IUCN List and Appendix I of the CITES. Gaj Soochna is a centralized database that includes physical and genetic information of every captive elephant individual in the country. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is being carried out in collaboration with the Wildlife Institute of India and will act as the ‘Adhaar card of captive elephants’. Question 31 of 35 31. Question If the height of Ramesh is less by 20% than Suresh, the height of Suresh will be greater than that of Ramesh by how many percent? a) 25% b) 30% c) 32% d) 28% Correct Solution (a) Let the height of Suresh is x and height of Ramesh is y. Then, height of Ramesh = x – 20% of x y = x – (20/100)x y = x – (1/5)x = (4/5)x x = (5/4)y Now, height of Suresh – height of Ramesh = (5/4)y – y = y/4 ∴ Height of Suresh will be greater than that of Ramesh by ((y/4)/y)*100% = y/(4*y)*100 = 100/4 = 25% Incorrect Solution (a) Let the height of Suresh is x and height of Ramesh is y. Then, height of Ramesh = x – 20% of x y = x – (20/100)x y = x – (1/5)x = (4/5)x x = (5/4)y Now, height of Suresh – height of Ramesh = (5/4)y – y = y/4 ∴ Height of Suresh will be greater than that of Ramesh by ((y/4)/y)*100% = y/(4*y)*100 = 100/4 = 25% Question 32 of 35 32. Question Three wheels can complete 40, 45 and 50 revolutions per minute. There is a green spot on each wheel that touches the ground at time zero. After how much time will all these spots simultaneously touch the ground again? a) 15 sec b) 18 sec c) 12 sec d) 8 sec Correct Solution (c) The time taken by the green spot on all the three wheels to simultaneously touch the ground again will be equal to the LCM of the times taken by the three wheels to complete one revolution. Since the time taken by the first wheel to complete 40 revolutions = 60 seconds (1 minute) So, the time taken by the first wheel to complete 1 revolution = 60/40 s = 3/2 s. Also, time taken by the second wheel to complete 45 revolutions = 60 seconds So, the time taken by the second wheel to complete 1 revolution = 60/45s = 4/3 s. Again, time taken by the third wheel to complete 50 revolutions = 60 seconds So, the time taken by the third wheel to complete 1 revolution = 60/50 s = 6/5 s. The LCM of 3/2, 4/3 and 6/5 = LCM (3, 4, 6)/HC F (2, 3, 5) = 12/1 = 12 sec. So, after every 12 s, the green spots of the three wheels will touch the ground simultaneously. Incorrect Solution (c) The time taken by the green spot on all the three wheels to simultaneously touch the ground again will be equal to the LCM of the times taken by the three wheels to complete one revolution. Since the time taken by the first wheel to complete 40 revolutions = 60 seconds (1 minute) So, the time taken by the first wheel to complete 1 revolution = 60/40 s = 3/2 s. Also, time taken by the second wheel to complete 45 revolutions = 60 seconds So, the time taken by the second wheel to complete 1 revolution = 60/45s = 4/3 s. Again, time taken by the third wheel to complete 50 revolutions = 60 seconds So, the time taken by the third wheel to complete 1 revolution = 60/50 s = 6/5 s. The LCM of 3/2, 4/3 and 6/5 = LCM (3, 4, 6)/HC F (2, 3, 5) = 12/1 = 12 sec. So, after every 12 s, the green spots of the three wheels will touch the ground simultaneously. Question 33 of 35 33. Question All the students of a class are sitting in a row. Raman is 7th from the left and Rohan is 14th from the right. The number of students sitting in between them is 1/4th of the total of students in the row. How many students are sitting in the row? a) 18 b) 26 c) 30 d) 28 Correct Solution (d) Let the total number of students = n. Number of students to the left of Raman = 6. Number of students to the right of Rohan = 13. Number of students between Raman and Rohan = n/4. Total number of students in the row = 6 + 13 + 2 + n/4 = n So, 3n/4 = 21 Or n = 28. Incorrect Solution (d) Let the total number of students = n. Number of students to the left of Raman = 6. Number of students to the right of Rohan = 13. Number of students between Raman and Rohan = n/4. Total number of students in the row = 6 + 13 + 2 + n/4 = n So, 3n/4 = 21 Or n = 28. Question 34 of 35 34. Question Suppose there is a number ‘n’. When ‘n’ is divided by 5, the remainder will be 2. What will be the remainder when n2 is divided by 5? a) 6 b) 4 c) 1 d) 8 Correct Solution (b) According to the question when ‘n’ is divided by 5, we will get the remainder 2 n/5 = remainder 2 On putting n =7, and on dividing it with 5 we will get remainder 2 So, n = 7, and n2 = 49 n2/5 = 49/5 = remainder 4 Incorrect Solution (b) According to the question when ‘n’ is divided by 5, we will get the remainder 2 n/5 = remainder 2 On putting n =7, and on dividing it with 5 we will get remainder 2 So, n = 7, and n2 = 49 n2/5 = 49/5 = remainder 4 Question 35 of 35 35. Question All the page numbers in a book are added, beginning from page 1. However, a page number was added twice by mistake. If the sum obtained was 850, which page number must have been added twice? a) 25 b) 30 c) 35 d) 40 Correct Solution (b) Let the total number of pages in the book be ‘n’. Let page number ‘x’ be repeated. Then, x + ⇒ x + n(n+1) /2 = 850 So, n(n+1)/2 ≤ 850 ⇒ n2 + n ≤ 1700 The greatest possible value of n = 40. Now, for n = 40, n(n+1)/2 = 40×41/2 = 820 So, x = 30. Incorrect Solution (b) Let the total number of pages in the book be ‘n’. Let page number ‘x’ be repeated. Then, x + ⇒ x + n(n+1) /2 = 850 So, n(n+1)/2 ≤ 850 ⇒ n2 + n ≤ 1700 The greatest possible value of n = 40. 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