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Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 11th July 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 10th July 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   NEED TO RELOOK NEET Syllabus Mains – GS 2 Context: Since its inception about a decade ago, the National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET) has been a politically contentious issue in Tamil Nadu. The recent turn of events has made it a national issue. Background:- NEET was originally conceptualised to ensure merit-based selection to medical schools and standardise the medical entrance process. It was seen as a solution to the problem of high capitation fees being charged by private medical institutions. Key takeaways:  This year, more than 24 lakh candidates sat for the NEET after paying application fees ranging between Rs 1,000 to Rs 1,700. The application charges alone give a revenue of about Rs 337 crore to the testing agency. The application charges alone give a revenue of about Rs 337 crore to the testing agency. Moreover an individual candidate spends a few lakhs at coaching centres to prepare for the test. The initial eligibility for qualification, 50 percentile, was diluted to 30 percentile in 2020 and further to zero percentile in 2023. The reason cited was that several seats are vacant in private medical colleges. However, after the 60,000 seats in government medical colleges are filled up, people’s paying capacity plays a big role in filling up the remaining 50,000 seats in private colleges. This makes the MBBS dream virtually unattainable for students of the economically weak strata, despite scoring high marks in NEET. Nearly half of the MBBS seats become a virtual preserve of the wealthy, making a mockery of the objective of rewarding merit. Exams like the UCAT in the UK and MCAT in the US allow only students with excellent grades in higher secondary education to take the exams. In contrast, a NEET applicant only requires to pass the higher secondary school. This low entry requirement can undermine the importance of excelling in high school. This, in turn, lowers the standard of school education. The state government and their education ministries do not have any say in the selection process of future doctors in their states. Tamil Nadu has conducted several experiments in the entrance system to professional courses, starting from an interview system in the 1970s to the entrance examinations in 1983 along with 2/3rd weightage to marks in concerned subjects in the higher secondary education exam. Following recommendations from the Anandakrishnan Committee, the state abolished entrance exams and conducted admissions to medical and engineering colleges solely on the basis of higher secondary marks. Even after the introduction of NEET, the government ensured social equality and inclusivity, to an extent, by providing reservation to government school students as per the recommendations of P Kalaiyarasan and AK Rajan committees. Tamil Nadu’s experiences over five decades demonstrate that factors such as infrastructure, faculty numbers, and the extent of patient care services determine the quality of young doctors. NEET needs to be reevaluated. Public health is a state subject and education is part of the concurrent list. All states need to be taken into confidence, before framing the admissions processes, especially in institutions controlled by the state government. The debate on NEET touches on broader issues such as educational equity and federalism. If NEET is riddled with problems, what are the alternatives? Instead of a single cross-sectional assessment, a summative assessment over two to three years of performance in school education along with a general aptitude test might improve the selection process. The primary objective of refining the medical entrance process is to ensure that students with high average marks gain admission not only to government-run medical colleges. The goal should be to ensure that people from disadvantaged sections are adequately represented in the medical field and they can contribute to making healthcare accessible to their communities. For Your Information: Tamil Nadu has always been opposed to the NEET exam as it was against their perfectly functioning state policy of linking medical college admissions to high school performance. In 2021, Tamil Nadu constituted an Expert Committee headed by Justice A K Rajan. The Rajan Committee brought out startling evidence, showing how rural students from Tamil medium schools lost out heavily in clearing the NEET — between 2017-21, from an average of 15 per cent admissions of Tamil-medium students, the number had fallen to 1.6-3.2 per cent. Clearly, NEET disadvantaged rural and poorer students. Tamil Nadu was particularly affected as its sound public health system rested on students from rural backgrounds willing to work in primary health centres without ambitions of migrating abroad. Source: Indian Express CLIMATE CHANGE FUELLED HURRICANE BERYL’S RECORD EARLY INTENSIFICATION Syllabus Prelims & Mains – ENVIRONMENT Context: Hurricane Beryl became the earliest storm on record during the Atlantic hurricane season to have reached the highest Category 5 classification. Background: The storm, which tore through the Caribbean islands earlier this month, killed at least 11 people after triggering intense floods and dangerous winds in Jamaica, Grenada, Saint Vincent and the Grenadines, and northern Venezuela. How are hurricanes formed? Hurricanes, or tropical storms, form over warm ocean waters near the equator. When the warm, moist air from the ocean surface rises upward, a lower air pressure area is formed below. Air from surrounding areas with higher air pressure rushes into this low pressure area, eventually rising, after it also becomes warm and moist. As warm, moist air rises, it cools down, and the water in the air forms clouds and thunderstorms. This whole system of clouds and winds gains strength and momentum using the ocean’s heat, and the water that evaporates from its surface. Storm systems with wind speeds of 119 kmph and above are classified as hurricanes. Hurricanes are classified using the Saffir-Simpson Hurricane Wind Scale into five categories (Category 1 to Category 5) based on their sustained wind speeds. While Category 1 hurricanes bring winds of 119 to 153 kmph, Category 5 hurricanes, which are the strongest, have winds of 252 kmph or higher. Storms that reach Category 3 and higher are considered major hurricanes due to their potential to inflict significant damage. How did Beryl become a Category storm? Within 24 hours of emerging as a tropical depression with winds of 56.3 kmph on June 28, Beryl transformed into a hurricane. Over the next 24 hours, it rapidly intensified to become a Category 4 hurricane. At that point, Beryl was the first Category 4 hurricane to form in June, according to National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA). On July 1, Beryl made landfall on Grenada’s Carriacou Island as a Category 4 hurricane with sustained winds of over 241 kmph. As it travelled through the Caribbean Sea, it continued to gain strength, and became a Category 5 hurricane on July 2. This made it the earliest Category 5 hurricane seen during the Atlantic hurricane season on record. Why did Beryl become a Category 5 hurricane so early? The hurricane season in the Atlantic begins in June and lasts until November. Generally, the first major hurricanes do not form until September. This is because till that time, the ocean is not warm enough either at the surface, or deeper down to fuel such strong hurricanes, according to NOAA. This is what makes Beryl so unprecedented. Although it is difficult to attribute a specific hurricane to global warming, scientists see unusually warmer oceans as the primary reason behind Beryl turning into a powerful storm this early in the season. Scientists are still debating over how exactly climate change impacts hurricanes. There is agreement, however, that at the very least, climate change makes hurricanes more prone to rapid intensification — where maximum wind speeds increase very quickly. Source: Indian Express CLASSICAL LANGUAGES IN INDIA Syllabus Prelims – ART & CULTURE Context: The Central government is set to revise the criteria for granting classical language status based on recommendations from the Culture Ministry’s Linguistics Expert Committee. Background: The revised criteria will be officially notified through a gazette notification after approval by the Union Cabinet. Languages like Marathi, which have been under consideration, may need to wait until the new criteria are in place. Key takeaways The term “classical language” refers to a language that has had a significant influence on the development of literature, culture, and society, and is considered a language of high cultural or literary importance. Currently, six languages enjoy the ‘Classical’ status in India. These languages are recognized for their rich heritage, ancient texts, and cultural significance. Here are the six classical languages: Tamil: Declared as a classical language in 2004. Sanskrit: Attained classical status in 2005. Kannada: Recognized as a classical language in 2008. Telugu: Achieved classical status in 2008. Malayalam: Granted classical status in 2013. Odia: Received classical recognition in 2014. All these classical languages are listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution. The Ministry of Culture provides the guidelines regarding Classical languages. Guidelines for declaring a language as ‘Classical’ are: High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots. Benefits: Once a language is notified as a Classical language, the Human Resource and Development Ministry provides certain benefits to promote it: Two major annual international awards for scholars of eminence in classical Indian languages. A Centre of Excellence for studies in Classical Languages is set up. The University Grants Commission is requested to create, to start with at least in the Central Universities, a certain number of Professional Chairs for the Classical Languages so declared. Source: Hindu BIOSPHERE RESERVES Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT Context: UNESCO recently added 11 new biosphere reserves worldwide, spanning countries like Colombia, Italy, Mongolia, and the Republic of Korea. Background: These reserves, including two transboundary sites, aim to conserve biodiversity and cultural heritage amid global biodiversity and climate challenges. Key Takeaways Biosphere Reserves are internationally designated areas recognized by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO). These reserves aim to balance economic development, cultural preservation, and nature conservation. Criteria for Designation of Biosphere Reserve A site must contain a protected and minimally disturbed core area of value of nature conservation. The core area must be a bio-geographical unit and should be large enough to sustain a viable population representing all trophic levels. The involvement of local communities and use of their knowledge in biodiversity preservation. Area’s potential for preservation of traditional tribal or rural modes of living for harmonious use of the environment. Three Main Zones: Core Areas: These are the most protected regions within a biosphere reserve. They conserve endemic plants, animals, and important genetic reservoirs. Human interference is minimal here. Buffer Zone: Surrounding the core zone, this area allows limited activities like tourism, fishing, and grazing. Research and education are encouraged. Transition Zone: The outermost part where human activities and conservation coexist harmoniously. Settlements, croplands, and managed forests characterize this zone. Source: UNESCO APHELION Syllabus Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: Recently, on 5th July 2024, Earth reached aphelion. Background: Our planet whirls around the sun in an ellipse, rather than a circle. On Friday (5th July) the planet reached its farthest point from its star, known as aphelion. What causes aphelion and when does it happen? Earth reaches aphelion every July, and this year it occurred on Friday 5th of July. That Earth has an aphelion is a result of its orbit being elliptical, rather than circular. All planets in the solar system travel in elongated circles around the sun, rather than perfect ones. And it’s most likely true for worlds around other stars, too. The culprit for all of these elliptical orbits is gravity. All the planets tend to jostle each other around pulling their orbits from perfect circles. How much an orbit deviates from a perfect circle is measured by its eccentricity. The higher the eccentricity, the more elliptical the orbit. How far are we from the sun at aphelion? At aphelion, Earth’s distance from the sun is about 94.5 million miles. Six months later, at the start of January in the winter, Earth is at its closest point to the sun at 91.5 million miles. This location is known as perihelion. Does aphelion affect temperatures on Earth? A common misconception is that Earth’s varying distance from the sun is what gives rise to the seasons. It does have a small impact: We get 7 percent less sunlight at aphelion compared with the amount we are exposed to at perihelion, leading to slightly milder summers and winters in the Northern Hemisphere. But that effect is offset by Earth’s tilt on its axis, meaning that at different points along its orbit the hemispheres slant either toward or away from the sun. At aphelion, which occurs just weeks after a solstice, the northern half of the planet is leaning toward the sun, resulting in the longer, hotter days of summer even though Earth is farther away. And at perihelion in January, the Northern Hemisphere tilts away from the sun, making the days shorter and the temperatures colder. In the Southern Hemisphere, this impact is reversed. Because the hemisphere leans away from the sun when Earth is at aphelion, southern winters are a little cooler than they would be if our orbit were perfectly circular. Then as the planet approaches perihelion in January, the hemisphere’s lean toward the sun, making southern summers slightly warmer. For planets with more exaggerated eccentricities, the changing distance can have a bigger impact. Sunlight on Mars, for example, can vary as much as 31 percent along its orbit. It is a coincidence that Earth reaches aphelion close to when its tilt toward the sun is greatest. And this will eventually change, as other planets in the solar system gravitationally yank and squeeze Earth’s orbit in the future. Its eccentricity is currently decreasing, meaning its path around the sun is becoming more circular. Source: Newyork Times BEHIND RUSSIA’S HIGH INCOME Syllabus Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: Earlier this month, the World Bank upgraded Russia from an “upper-middle income” country to a “high-income” one, a status it last had in 2014. Background: The ranking was boosted by growth in trade (+6.8%), the financial sector (+8.7%), and construction (+6.6%), which led to increases in both the real (3.6%) and nominal (10.9%) GDP. About Russias growth: The improvement is on account of the war economy, and is unlikely to endure, according to experts. The World Bank classifies economies into four groups based on per-capita gross national income (GNI) in US dollars: low, lower-middle, upper-middle, and high. The Bank’s 2024-25 classification for high-income countries raised the threshold to $14,005 or more. Last year, Russians earned $14,250 per person on a gross national income basis, the Bank estimated. Bulgaria and Palau joined Russia in becoming “high-income economies” with $14,460 and $14,250 per-capita GNI respectively, the Bank said. In nominal terms, Russia ranks 72nd globally in per-capita GNI and 53rd in purchasing power parity. The resilience of Russia, which is now under more individual sanctions than Iran, Cuba, and North Korea combined, has come as a surprise. After the initial recessionary impact of sanctions in 2022, the (Russian) economy has returned to growth in 2023, supported by fiscal stimulus including military spending and credit expansion, and by successfully mitigating the impact of the sanctions. Why sanctions against Russia is not working ?: OIL: The sanctions on Russia’s energy sector are not as tight as the ones that were imposed on Venezuela or Iran. INVESTMENTS: Investment is flowing to Russia’s defence and manufacturing sectors. The IMF has highlighted that some imports are being substituted by domestic goods, resulting in investments in new production facilities. CONSUMPTION: Private consumption has recovered strongly, adding 2.9 percentage points to GDP growth. This is being driven by buoyant credit and a strong labour market, with record low unemployment of just 3%, and a general rise in wages. The largely voluntary military recruitment model, using monetary incentives, has allowed sections of consumers to continue spending. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following countries Poland Norway Finland China Mongolia How many of the above countries shares border with Russia Only two Only three Only four All five Q2.) Panna biosphere reserve is located in which among the following states in India? Tamil Nadu Gujarat Madhya Pradesh Uttarakhand Q3.) With reference to the classical language in India, consider the following statements: All the Classical Languages are listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution. The Ministry of Culture provides the guidelines regarding Classical languages. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  10th July 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  9th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) –  a Q.2) – d Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 10th July 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 9th July 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   RESPONSIBLE QUANTUM TECHNOLOGIES’ MOVEMENT Syllabus Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: The UN recently said 2025 will be observed as the International Year of Quantum Science and Technology (IYQ). Background:- Given the possibility of dual use, like many other emerging technologies, researchers are calling for responsible development and use of quantum technologies. What is responsible quantum S&T? Quantum S&T are part of the ‘S&T plans’ of many governments and the subject of significant private sector investment. Among investments by countries, China leads with $10 billion in 2022, followed by the European Union and the U.S. India’s contribution is currently $730 million (Rs 6,100 crore). The value of quantum S&T is in transforming our abilities to transmit and make use of information across sectors. But they also carry the risk of misuse thanks to the technologies’ potential for dual use, like weakening digital security. Researchers and some governments have thus been calling for practising responsible quantum technologies to harness the value of quantum S&T while engendering public trust. For example, the U.K.’s ‘National Quantum Strategy’ states, “We will ensure that regulatory frameworks drive responsible innovation and the delivery of benefits for the UK, as well as protecting and growing the economy and the UK’s quantum capabilities.” What is quantum governance? The World Economic Forum (WEF) was one of the first organisations to discuss quantum computing governance. Its ‘Quantum Governance’ framework for this is based on the principles of transparency, inclusiveness, accessibility, non-maleficence, equitability, accountability, and the common good. Members of the framework include those from national government agencies, academic institutions, and private sector leaders (including in India). The WEF’s objective here is to accelerate the development of responsible quantum computing by building trust in the technology during its development to preempt and mitigate potential risks. The framework’s virtue is that it addresses responsible development up front rather than as an afterthought. A white paper published by the University of Oxford cautioned against inflated expectations and overestimating our understanding of ethical issues. In particular, it called out the gaps between countries in terms of quantum S&T capacities and reasoned that lack of access to talent and technologies could widen the gaps further. From another perspective, a group of academics from the U.S., Canada and Europe recently proposed another framework for responsible quantum technologies. Here, the group has suggested 10 principles to guide the applications of quantum S&T aim together with their RRI values. ‘RRI’ stands for ‘responsible research and information’, a concept and practice endorsed by the European Commission. Many institutions worldwide, including funding agencies, have adopted it; it emphasises ‘anticipation’, ‘reflection’, ‘diversity’, and ‘inclusion’ while foregrounding public engagement and ethical considerations. These frameworks and initiatives have emerged largely from among researchers and are united in their focus on and intention to maintain openness. National policies on the other hand have preferred frameworks that confer greater and stronger protections of intellectual property rights vis-à-vis quantum technologies. Similarly, it may be naïve to expect the private sector — with its large investments and desire for patents and profits — will favour sharing and openness in the name of responsible quantum technologies. There may be exceptional circumstances but they won’t be the norm. What we need is responsible national or international efforts driven by governments but with active support and collaboration from private sector. Source: Hindu TAXING THE ULTRA RICH Syllabus Mains – GS 2 & GS 3 Context: French economist Gabriel Zucman has in a recent report commissioned by Brazil’s G-20 presidency recommended an annual 2% tax on individuals holding wealth exceeding $1 billion, a suggestion intended to serve as the starting point for a global discussion on ensuring under-taxed billionaires are made to contribute more to reduce inequality worldwide. Background: Finance Ministers of the G-20 group are set to meet in Rio de Janeiro on July 25-26, and the proposal is expected to be discussed at the meeting. What exactly is the proposal? Zucman, an economist who has extensively researched the accumulation, distribution and taxation of global income and wealth, has proposed the adoption of an internationally coordinated minimum tax standard for ensuring effective taxation of ultra-high-net-worth individuals. At the minimum, he recommends that individuals possessing more than $1 billion in total wealth (assets, equity shares in both listed and unlisted companies, other ownership structures that enable participating in companies’ ownership, etc.) would be required to pay a minimum amount of tax annually that would be equal to 2% of their wealth. Such a minimum tax on billionaires could potentially raise $200-$250 billion a year globally from about 3,000 individuals, and were it to be extended to cover those with a net worth exceeding $100 million, would add $100-$140 billion annually in global tax revenue. What is the rationale for such a tax? As per a key finding of theGlobal Tax Evasion Report 2024, prepared by the EU Tax Observatory, global billionaires benefit from very low effective tax rates, which range between 0% and 0.5% of their wealth. When expressed as a fraction of income and considering all taxes paid at all levels of government (including corporate taxes, consumption taxes, payroll taxes, etc.), the effective tax rates of billionaires appear significantly lower than those of all other groups of the population. Zucman in his report posits that the wealth of the top 0.0001% households, expressed as a fraction of world GDP, has surged more than fourfold since the mid-1980s. In 1987, the top 0.0001% owned the equivalent of 3% of world GDP in wealth. This wealth gradually rose to 8% of world GDP on the eve of the global financial crisis of 2008-2009. It briefly fell during the crisis, and then rose fast to exceed 13% of world GDP in 2024.The average annual growth rate of this population group’s wealth is 7.1% net of inflation. In contrast, over the same almost four-decade period, the average income of an adult grew annually by 1.3% net of inflation, and average wealth increased by 3.2% a year. As long as ultra-high-net-worth individuals keep having higher net-of-tax returns than the rest of the population, their share of global wealth will keep rising — an unsustainable path. Emphasising that “progressive taxation is a key pillar of democratic societies” that helps strengthen social cohesion and trust in governments to work for the common good, the French economist stresses that it is needed to help fund public goods and services. Better tax revenues are also crucial to meet the investments required to address the climate crisis. Why moot such a tax now? Research shows that contemporary tax systems worldwide are not effectively taxing the wealthiest individuals. As a result ultra-high-net-worth individuals tend to pay less in tax relative to their income than other social groups, regardless of the specific tax design choices and enforcement practices of countries. Income taxes, which in principle constitute the main instrument of progressive taxation, fail to effectively tax ultra-high-net-worth individuals. This in turn deprives governments of substantial tax revenues and contributes to concentrating the gains of globalisation into relatively few hands, undermining the social sustainability of economic globalisation. Also, the global social and political environment, and in some ways the regulatory climate too, are more conducive now to successfully implement such a proposal. Mr. Zucman cites the progress made in curtailing bank secrecy over the last 15 years through increased information exchange between countries, which has led to a decline in offshore tax evasion. The other major enabling factor is the ‘historic decision’ in 2021, when more than 130 countries and territoriesagreed to a common minimum corporate tax of 15% for large multinational companies (MNCs). The willingness on the part of countries worldwide to tax MNCs in a manner so as to prevent them from seeking to operate out of low or zero tax jurisdictions is, a template that can be built upon now for taxing billionaires. Source: Hindu Digital Bharat Nidhi (DBN) Syllabus Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: The Department of Telecommunications (DoT) on July 4 released draft rules to operationalise the Digital Bharat Nidhi, in a fresh attempt by the central government at increasing telecom connectivity in rural areas. Background: With the Centre notifying parts of the Telecom Act last month, it has also proposed additional rules for the final makeover of the Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF) as the Digital Bharat Nidhi (DBN) – which would have a relatively wider scope than the USOF. About Digital Bharat Nidhi Digital Bharat Nidhi would replace the erstwhile Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF), which is a pool of funds generated by a 5 per cent Universal Service Levy charged upon all the telecom fund operators on their Adjusted Gross Revenue (AGR). Since its establishment in 2003, a common criticism of the USOF has been its relative underutilisation. The idea is that this money would be used to fund the expansion of telecom networks in remote and rural areas, where private companies may otherwise resist offering their services due to them not being revenue-generating markets. How the Digital Bharat Nidhi will work As per the Telecom Act, contributions made by telecom companies towards the Digital Bharat Nidhi will first be credited to the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI). The Centre will deposit the collected funds to the DBN from time to time. Funds collected under the DBN will be used to support universal service through promoting access to and delivery of telecommunication services in underserved rural, remote and urban areas; fund research and development of telecommunication services, technologies, and products; support pilot projects, consultancy assistance and advisory support for improving connectivity; and for the introduction of telecommunication services, technologies, and products. For Your Information:  On June 26, multiple sections of the Telecommunications Act, 2023 came into effect, giving way to the first piece of the larger technology legislative puzzle to fall into place. This is among the three key laws the Centre wants to put together as a comprehensive legal framework for the country’s burgeoning tech sector. Source: Indian Express WHY RISING ARCTIC WILDFIRES ARE A BAD NEWS FOR THE WORLD Syllabus Prelims & Mains – ENVIRONMENT Context: Smoke from raging wildfires has once again darkened the skies over the Arctic. It is the third time in the past five years that high intensity fires have erupted in the region, Europe’s Copernicus Climate Change Service (C3S) said. Background: A majority of fires are in Sakha, Russia, where more than 160 wildfires charred nearly 460,000 hectares of land up until June 24, according to Russia state news agency Tass. Key Takeaways Wildfires have been a natural part of the Arctic’s boreal forest or snow forest and tundra (treeless regions) ecosystems. However, in recent years, their frequency and scale in the regions have increased, primarily due to global warming. More worryingly, these blazing wildfires are fueling the climate crisis. Why have Arctic wildfires become worse? The Arctic has been warming roughly four times as fast as the world. While the global average temperature has increased by at least 1.1 degree Celsius above the pre-industrial levels, the Arctic has become on average around 3 degree warmer than it was in 1980. This fast paced warming has led to more frequent lightning in the Arctic, which has further increased the likelihood of wildfires — lightning-sparked fires have more than doubled in Alaska and the Northwest Territories since 1975. Soaring temperatures have also slowed down the polar jet stream — responsible for circulating air between the mid- and northern latitudes — due to less of a temperature difference between the Arctic and lower latitudes. As a result, the polar jet stream often gets “stuck” in one place, bringing unseasonably warm weather to the region. It also blocks out low-pressure systems, which bring clouds and rainfall, possibly leading to intense heatwaves, which can cause more wildfires. All three factors — rising temperatures, more frequent lightning and heatwaves — will most likely worsen in the coming years, thereby causing more wildfires in the Arctic. How Arctic wildfires can exacerbate global warming? When wildfires ignite, they burn vegetation and organic matter, releasing the heat trapping greenhouse gases (GHGs) such as carbon dioxide (CO2) into the atmosphere. That is why the rising frequency of wildfires around the globe is a matter of concern as they contribute to climate change. However, in the case of Arctic wildfires, such GHG emissions are not the biggest worry. It is rather the carbon stored underneath the region’s permafrost — any ground that stays frozen for at least two years straight. Scientists estimate that Arctic permafrost holds around 1,700 billion metric tons of carbon, including methane and CO2. That’s roughly 51 times the amount of carbon the world released as fossil fuel emissions in 2019. Wildfires make permafrost more vulnerable to thawing as they destroy upper insulating layers of vegetation and soil. This can cause ancient organic materials such as dead animals and plants to decompose and release carbon into the atmosphere. In case a large-scale thawing of Arctic permafrost is triggered, it would be impossible to stop the release of carbon. This would mean that the world will not be able to limit global warming within the 1.5 degree Celsius threshold. Breaching the limit will result in catastrophic and irreversible consequences for the planet. What happens in the Arctic doesn’t stay there — Arctic change amplifies risks globally for all of us. These fires are a warning cry for urgent action. Source: Indian Express AXIOM-4 Syllabus Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has selected two out of its four trained Gaganyaan astronauts to participate in the Axiom-4 mission. Background: Only one of the shortlisted astronauts will go on the mission which is supposed to take place “no earlier than October 2024,” according to the information available on NASA website. About AXIOM-4 : The Axiom-4 mission is a private spaceflight to the International Space Station (ISS) conducted by Axiom Space in collaboration with NASA. It will be the fourth private astronaut mission to the ISS. The mission will last for fourteen days. Spacecraft: The spacecraft used for the Axiom-4 mission is a SpaceX Crew Dragon. Indian Involvement: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has shortlisted two of its four trained Gaganyaan astronauts to participate in the mission. These Indian astronauts will receive training from NASA, international partners, and SpaceX. Objectives: The mission aims to facilitate commercial activities in space, including scientific research, technological development, and space tourism. It will demonstrate the viability of commercial space stations as platforms for business and innovation. Diverse Crew: The Axiom-4 mission will carry a diverse crew of astronauts from different countries. Scientific Experiments: During the mission, various scientific experiments and technological tests will be conducted in the unique microgravity environment of space. Gaganyaan Mission The Gaganyaan Mission is India’s ongoing project to send a 3-day manned mission to the Low Earth Orbit (LEO) of 400 km with a crew of 3 members and bring them safely back to Earth. The objective of the program is to demonstrate India’s human spaceflight capabilities. As part of this program, two unmanned missions and one manned mission are approved by the Government of India. Upon its completion, India will become the fourth nation, after the US, Russia, and China, to undertake a manned spaceflight mission. Source: Indian Express KAZIRANGA NATIONAL PARK (KNP) Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT Context: The recent floods in Assam’s Kaziranga National Park have been tragic for the wildlife. Background: The park is experiencing its worst-ever deluge in recent years, surpassing the large-scale devastation seen in 2017 when over 350 animals died due to floods and vehicle hits while migrating through animal corridors to the highlands. About  Kaziranga National Park : Kaziranga National Park is located in the Golaghat, Karbi Anglong, and Nagaon districts of the state of Assam, India. It sits on the southern banks of the Brahmaputra River. This park hosts two-thirds of the world’s Indian rhinoceroses and is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The park’s rich biodiversity includes large breeding populations of elephants, wild water buffalo, and swamp deer. Source: Business Standard Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Digital Bharath Nidhi, recently heard in news, will replace the erstwhile Universal Service Obligation Fund Universal Service Updation Fund Universal Service Extension Fund None of the above Q2.) With reference to the Kaziranga National Park, consider the following statements: Kaziranga National Park sits on the southern banks of the Brahmaputra River. This park hosts two-thirds of the world’s Indian rhinoceroses. It is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q3.) Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Axiom-4 mission is a private spaceflight to the International Space Station conducted by Axiom Space in collaboration with ISRO. Statement-II: The Axiom-4 mission aims to facilitate commercial activities in space, including scientific research, technological development, and space tourism. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  9th July 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  8th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) –  a Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 8th July 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   RIGHT TO REPAIR PORTAL Syllabus Prelims & Mains – CURRENT EVENT Context: The Centre asked the automobile companies to join the unified Right to Repair Portal India which has been launched by the Department of Consumer Affairs to provide consumers with an easy access to information for repairing their products and enabling them to reuse it. Background:- The portal will serve as a single platform to provide easy access to necessary information on repair and maintenance of products to consumers. What is right to repair ? The right to repair for consumer goods refers to the concept of allowing end users, consumers as well as businesses, to repair devices they own or service without any manufacturer or technical restrictions. The Ministry of Consumer Affairs (MCA) has set up a committee to come up with a Right to Repair framework. The framework is significant as it will give consumers a chance to repair their products at an optimal cost instead of buying new products altogether. Under this framework, it would be mandatory for manufacturers to share their product details with customers so that they can either repair them by self or by third parties, rather than only depending on original manufacturers. The framework also aims to help harmonize the trade between the Original Equipment Manufacturers (OEMs), third-party buyers and sellers – thus also creating new jobs. It will help reduce the vast mountain of electrical waste (e-waste) that piles up each year on the continent and boost business for small repair shops, which are an important part of local economies. It will save consumers’ money and contribute to circular economy objectives by improving the life span, maintenance, re-use, upgrade, recyclability, and waste handling of appliances. What is there in the right to repair portal? Customer care details across brands The portal has consolidated list of consumer care contact details of all major consumer products manufacturers for your quick viewing. Find warranty and post-sales service information Use website to search companies by name or consumer product name. All the public information related to their products service, warranty, terms and conditions, etc. are aggregated on this portal. Links to the service network of the brands Visit links to the authorized service network of the brands and third-party service providers. Also view the warranty and prices of genuine spares and consumables of respective brands. Source: Right to repare India VAQUITA Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT Context: The world’s most endangered marine mammal, the vaquita, is teetering on the edge of extinction. A recent survey revealed a devastating decline, with only 6-8 individuals spotted compared to 8-13 just a year ago. Background: Despite their elusive nature making precise population estimates difficult, absence of calves in recent surveys highlights their critical situation. About Vaquita The vaquita is a shy member of the porpoise family. Vaquitas are the most endangered of the world’s marine mammals. Vaquitas have the smallest range of any whale, dolphin, or porpoise.It only lives in the northern part of the Gulf of California in Mexico. It is currently listed asCritically Endangered by the IUCN Red List; the steep decline in abundance is primarily due to bycatch in gillnets from the illegal totoaba Totoaba, is a large fish that also only lives in the Gulf of California. Because totoaba and vaquita are similar in size, gillnets illegally set for totoaba are the deadliest for vaquitas. Fishermen illegally catch totoaba for its swim bladder (an air-filled sac in the totoaba’s body that helps it float), which they sell to China at high prices. In China, the swim bladders are used in soup with purported medicinal value. Scientists agree that for vaquitas to survive in the wild, gillnet fishing must end within vaquita habitat. Source: Hindu TRANSPOSONS Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Context: A recent paper by researchers at the University of California highlights the role of transposons in gene editing. Background: Transposons have been called “junk” DNA and “selfish” DNA. They are “selfish” because their only function seems to make more copies of themselves and “junk” because there is no obvious benefit to their host. About Transposons Transposable elements (TEs) or simply Transposons, also known as “jumping genes,” are DNA sequences that move from one location on the genome to another. These elements were first identified more than 50 years ago by geneticist Barbara McClintock of Cold Spring Harbor Laboratory in New York. Biologists were initially skeptical of McClintock’s discovery. Barbara McClintock’s discovery of them earned her a Nobel Prize in 1983 Over the next several decades, however, it became apparent that not only do TEs “jump,” but they are also found in almost all organisms (both prokaryotes and eukaryotes) and typically in large numbers. For example, TEs make up approximately 50% of the human genome and up to 90% of the maize genome. Due to their mobility (or transposition), transposons facilitate horizontal gene transfer and foster the evolution of new molecular functions in prokaryotes and eukaryotes. As transposition can lead to detrimental genomic rearrangements, organisms have evolved a multitude of molecular strategies to control transposons. Apart from their biological impacts on genomes, DNA transposons have been leveraged as efficient gene insertion vectors in basic research, transgenesis and gene therapy. Source: Nature PANGONG LAKE Syllabus Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: According to recent satellite images, China’s military presence near Pangong Lake in eastern Ladakh is escalating. Background: These images reveal extensive underground bunkers and hardened shelters at a crucial base. The base, located at Sirjap on the northern shore of Pangong Lake, serves as the headquarters for Chinese troops stationed around the lake. Key Takeaways Pangong Tso, also known as Pangong Lake, is a high-altitude lake situated in the Changthang region of eastern Ladakh. Pangong Tso spans both India and China. Approximately 50% of the lake lies within Tibet (administered by China), while 40% is in Indian-administered Ladakh. The remaining 10% is a disputed buffer zone between India and China. Disputed Territory: The Line of Actual Control (LAC), which separates boundary between India and China, passes through the lake. This geopolitical demarcation has been a point of contention between the two countries. India controls about 45 kilometers of the lake’s stretch, while China claims the rest. The lake’s strategic significance lies in its proximity to the Chusul Valley, a historical battlefront during the 1962 India-China war. Source: Firstpost NATIONAL REGISTER OF CITIZENS (NRC) Syllabus Prelims – Polity Context: An apex body of the Kuki-Zo community on July 6 said it would not oppose the implementation of the National Register of Citizens (NRC) in Manipur if it was carried out under the supervision of the Supreme Court. Background: Meitei and Naga organisations have been demanding the implementation of the National Register of Citizens to check infiltration from Myanmar. About National Register of Citizens (NRC) : The National Register of Citizens (NRC) is a register of all Indian citizens. Its creation was mandated by the 2003 amendment of the Citizenship Act, 1955. The purpose of the NRC is to document legal citizens of India, allowing authorities to identify and deport illegal immigrants. The National Register of Citizens (NRC) was first implemented in the northeastern state of Assam. The nodal office for the implementation of the National Register of Citizens (NRC) is the Office of the Registrar General & Census Commissioner, India, which is responsible for preparing and updating the NRC. The main objective of the National Register of Citizens (NRC): Detect illegal immigrants living in different states of India Identify and separate legal and illegal immigrants in India Prevent voter fraud Enhance internal security Source: Hindu CREDIT - DEPOSIT RATIO Syllabus Prelims – ECONOMY Context: The Reserve Bank of India has told banks to find ways to bridge the gap between credit and deposit growth and reduce credit – deposit ratio, raising concerns over the persistent higher credit growth than deposit mobilisation which could pose a risk in business sustainability. Background: The central bank Governor Shaktikanta Das held a meeting with the heads of public sector banks and select private sector lenders where he spoke about high credit-deposit ratio and the resultant liquidity risk management challenges. About  Credit – Deposit Ratio: The credit to deposit ratio is a crucial metric that provides insights into the relationship between a bank’s loans (credit) and its deposits. In simple terms, it measures how much of a bank’s deposits are being lent out as loans. Importance of credit to deposit ratio Liquidity management: A balanced credit to deposit ratio ensures that a bank maintains sufficient liquidity. When the ratio is too high, it indicates that most deposits are tied up in loans, leaving little room for emergencies or unexpected withdrawals. Conversely, an excessively low ratio may imply that the bank is not utilising its funds efficiently. Risk assessment: Regulators and investors closely monitor this ratio. A high ratio could signal potential risk, as the bank may struggle to meet depositors’ demands during economic downturns. A low ratio might indicate conservative lending practices, but it could also mean missed revenue opportunities. Profitability and growth: A well-managed credit to deposit ratio allows banks to strike a balance between profitability and growth. It ensures that loans generate interest income while maintaining a stable deposit base. Banks with an optimal ratio can expand their lending portfolio without compromising stability. Economic indicator: The credit to deposit ratio reflects the overall economic health. A rising ratio during economic booms suggests increased lending activity, while a declining ratio during recessions indicates cautious lending. Regulatory compliance: Many central banks set guidelines for this ratio to maintain financial stability. Banks failing to comply may face penalties or restrictions. Source: Economic Times Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Vaquita, a marine mammal, recently seen in news lives in which of the following areas? Gulf of California Persian Gulf Gulf of Aden Gulf of Aqaba Q2.) With reference to the National Register of Citizens (NRC), consider the following statements: The National Register of Citizens is a register of all Indian citizens. The purpose of the NRC is to document legal citizens of India, allowing authorities to identify and deport illegal immigrants. The National Register of Citizens was first implemented in the northeastern state of Manipur. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3only 1,2 and 3 Q3.) Pangong Lake, recently seen in news, is located in Sikkim Himachal Pradesh Ladakh Jammu and Kashmir Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  8th July 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  6th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) –  d Q.2) – c Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 9th July 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 8th July 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

[CURRENT AFFAIRS] IAS UPSC REVAMPED Current Affairs Magazine May 2024

    Archives Hello Friends, This is May 2024 of IASbaba’s REVAMPED Current Affairs Monthly Magazine. Current Affairs for UPSC Civil Services Examination is an important factor in this preparation. An effort towards making your Current Affairs for IAS UPSC Preparation qualitative. We hope you make the best use of it! This edition covers all Important current affairs issues that were in the news for the month of May 2024. Kindly leave your feedback in the comment section below on the new design and presentation of the magazine. We would love to hear from you! Download The Magazine - May 2024 Important Topics Covered In The Magazine Includes:   "Muslim Quota" Question Article 31 Group of 7 (G7) Zig Gold Water Trading Baltic Sea Oxytocin Antartica Parliament And Much More..... Download The Magazine - May 2024 To get Regular Updates from IASbaba, follow- TELEGRAM Channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccount YOUTUBE – https://www.youtube.com/channel/UChvbVdio9Wgj7Z3nQz1Q0ZQ FACEBOOK – https://www.facebook.com/iasbaba/ Also, SUBSCRIBE to the WEBSITE Below, so that you don’t miss out on important posts! Thank You IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 6th July 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   HOUSE RULES GOVERNING THE EXPUNCTION POWERS OF RAJYA SABHA CHAIRMAN, LOK SABHA SPEAKER Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Polity Context: The first special session of the 18th Lok Sabha witnessed heated discussions, with the Opposition clashing with the government. Rajya Sabha Chairman removed significant portions of Mallikarjun Kharge’s speech, Meanwhile, in the Lower House, parts of Rahul Gandhi’s remarks on the PM and the BJP were expunged from the records on the orders of Speaker. Background:- The practice of expunging remarks is a standard parliamentary procedure, but the ‘selective expunction’ by the presiding officers has become a flashpoint between the Opposition and the Centre. When are remarks expunged from parliamentary records? Parliament maintains a verbatim record of everything that is spoken and takes place during proceedings. While Article 105 of the Constitution confers certain privileges and freedom of speech in Parliament on MPs, it is subject to other provisions of the Constitution and the rules of the House. On the orders of the presiding officer, that is, the Chairman in the Upper House and the Speaker in the Lower House, words, phrases and expressions which are deemed “defamatory, indecent, unparliamentary or undignified” are deleted or expunged from records. There have been recorded instances where the scope of expunction has been broadened. The Speaker, at their discretion, has ordered the expunction of words deemed prejudicial to national interest or detrimental to maintaining friendly relations with a foreign State, derogatory to dignitaries, likely to offend national sentiments or affect the religious susceptibilities of a section of the community, likely to discredit the Army, and not in good taste or otherwise objectionable or likely to bring the House into ridicule or lower the dignity of the Chair, the House or the members. Members must withdraw objectionable remarks deemed irrelevant to the debate upon the Chair’s request and failure to comply may lead to expunction. Similarly, quoting from an unreferenced document or speaking after being asked to desist can result in an expunction. Continuous interruptions during speeches may also be expunged at the Speaker’s discretion. How do presiding officers expunge remarks? What do the rules say? The Chairman and Speaker are vested with the power to order the expunction of remarks under Rule 261, and Rule 380 and 381 of the Rules of Procedure of the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha, respectively. Rule 261 states, “If the Chairman is of opinion that a word or words have or have been used in debate which is or are defamatory or indecent or unparliamentary or undignified, he may in his discretion, order that such word or words be expunged from the proceedings of the Council. The Lower House has a similar provision. Rule 380 says, “If the Speaker is of the opinion that words have been used in debate which are defamatory or indecent or unparliamentary or undignified, the Speaker may, while exercising discretion, order that such words be expunged from the proceedings of the House.” The expunged portions are marked by asterisks with an explanatory footnote stating ‘expunged as ordered by the Chair.’ If the Chair directs that nothing will go on record during a member’s speech or interruption, footnote ‘not recorded’ is inserted. A comprehensive list of words and phrases is circulated to media outlets at the end of the day’s proceedings. Once expunged, these words or phrases cease to exist on the official record. Anyone who publishes them thereafter is liable to face charges for breach of privilege of the House. However, the relevance of the practice of expunging remarks has lately come into question, in a digital age where expunged content remains accessible due to the live telecast of proceedings and wider circulation of screenshots and videos on social media. Source: Hindu INTERNATIONAL MONETARY FUND : A CRITICAL VIEW Syllabus Mains – GS 2 Context: Mass protests in Kenya, in which at least 30 people were shot and killed by police, against an IMF-backed finance Bill that sought to raise taxes on essentials bring into focus, once again, the conditions the multinational lender imposes on poor countries in return for loan assistance. Background: The IMF describes itself as being governed by and accountable to its member countries. But its history and management structure tell a different story — of an organisation that has served as a tool of western elitist policy. About the Kenyan crisis In 2021, Kenya signed a four-year loan agreement with the IMF for $2.34 billion, and with another deal signed in May 2023, its loan volume rose to $3.6 billion. But IMF money for developing countries comes in tranches, and with conditions. IMF periodically reviews the country’s progress in implementing its conditions, and only if it is convinced the country is on track, does it release the next tranche of funds. As part of the 2021 loan deal, the IMF forced a COVID-battered Kenya to agree to austerity measures that would raise its revenue collection to 25% of GDP. The lender’s demands included a combination of tax hikes and budget cuts, including elimination of subsidies on fuel and electricity and cuts in spending on education and health. Government cut subsidies on maize and fuel, with the latter sparking a surge in inflation. Massive protests ensued. Nonetheless, government stayed the course on other fiscal consolidation measures, and earlier this month, government reached a staff level agreement with the IMF. It was expected to open the tap on another $976 million, provided the finance Bill — projected to raise revenues of $2.68 billion — went through. But protest has forced Kenyan president to abandon it, and now the future flow of IMF funds is in doubt. None of this, however, is new. Kenya has been through this before, as have much of Africa, whose governments often find themselves caught between the interests of their people and that of private investors and Western commercial banks, fronted by the IMF. In 1944, when the IMF was created at a conference of 44 nations in Bretton Woods, U.S., the global supremacy of American economic might was already a reality, with the rest of the world either devastated by the World War II or by colonial plunder, or both. This power dynamic got encoded into both the Bretton Woods twins — the IMF and the World Bank. For instance, the World Bank president is always an American citizen, while the IMF head is always from a European ally of the U.S. Unwritten mandate In theory, their function is to aid economic development and promote monetary cooperation and stability. But in practice, they have followed an unwritten mandate to foster the integration of former colonies into a global economic order on terms designed to serve American capital. Voting rights at the IMF don’t follow the democratic logic of one-member country-one vote but are quota-driven, based on dollar contributions. The U.S. alone has a voting share of 16.5%, while the wealthy G-7 countries together command more than 40% of the voting power. The UN Secretary-General Antonio Guterres flagged bias in the IMF framework when he said that the Bretton Woods system reflected the power relations of 1945. He also underscored how the IMF favoured the rich in the context of its distribution of Special Drawing Rights (a reserve asset), observing, “The IMF allocated $650 billion in SDRs during the pandemic. The G7 countries, with a population of 772 million people, received $280 billion. The African continent, with $1.3 billion people, received only $34 billion.” This unfairness, and the unequal relationship with the IMF, is partly why so many developing countries, from Kenya to Ghana, Zambia and Pakistan, have witnessed protests against the IMF and IMF-imposed economic policies — the infamous ‘Structural Adjustment Programs’ (SAPs). SAPs, adopted by the IMF from 1986 onwards, typically require governments to cut public spending (including on food subsidies, health and education), privatise state enterprises, reduce import duties and tariffs, and implement other measures so that the country pursues export-led growth. Impact of SAPs A 2002 World Bank-funded study by the Structural Adjustment Participatory Review International Network (SAPRIN) tracked the impact of the IMF’s SAPs. Its report highlighted four ways in which they furthered “impoverishment and marginalisation of local populations”: one, by causing the demise of domestic manufacturing sectors and loss of employment for small producers; two, agricultural, trade and mining reforms decimated small farms and poor rural communities; three, they triggered job losses, lower wages and degraded terms of employment due to privatisation, budget cuts and labour market flexibilisation measures; four, the reduced role of state in providing guaranteed access to essential services led to increase in poverty. Yet, the IMF, as the international lender of last resort, continues to impose SAP-like requirements.The erstwhile ‘SAP’ conditionalities have now morphed into generic austerity measures. Faced with a backlash , the IMF did introduce ‘social spending floors’ to protect public spending on education, health and social protection from being cut as part of its loan conditionalities. But an Oxfam analysis of 27 loan programmes negotiated with low- and middle-income countries found that “for every $1 the IMF encouraged governments to spend on public services, it has told them to cut six times more than that through austerity measures.” Source: Hindu NATIONAL MEDICAL COMMISSION Syllabus Prelims – CURRENT EVENT Context: Dr. B.N. Gangadhar appointed as Chairperson of the National Medical Commission. Background: The Appointment Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) has appointed various individuals to posts of the NMC and the autonomous boards. The appointments are for a period of four years until the appointee attains the age of 70 years or until further orders, whichever is earliest, the health ministry said. About National Medical Commission The National Medical Commission Act of 2019 establishes the National Medical Commission (NMC), which is responsible for the creation and regulation of all elements of medical education, practice, and institutions. There are four boards in the National Medical Commission Under-Graduate Medical Education Board (UGMEB)- sets norms for undergraduate courses Post-Graduate Medical Education Board (PGMEB)- sets norms for post-graduate courses Medical Assessment and Rating Board– inspects and rates the medical education institutes Ethics and Medical Registration Board– regulates professional conduct of the doctors and registers them FUNCTIONS OF NATIONAL MEDICAL COMMISSION lay down policies for maintaining a high quality and high standards in medical education and make necessary regulations in this behalf; lay down policies for regulating medical institutions, medical researches and medical professionals and make necessary regulations in this behalf; assess the requirements in healthcare, including human resources for health and healthcare infrastructure and develop a road map for meeting such requirements; promote, co-ordinate and frame guidelines and lay down policies by making necessary regulations for the proper functioning of the Commission, the Autonomous Boards and the State Medical Councils; ensure co-ordination among the Autonomous Boards; take such measures, as may be necessary, to ensure compliance by the State Medical Councils of the guidelines framed and regulations made under this Act for their effective functioning under this Act; exercise appellate jurisdiction with respect to the decisions of the Autonomous Boards; lay down policies and codes to ensure observance of professional ethics in medical profession and to promote ethical conduct during the provision of care by medical practitioners; frame guidelines for determination of fees and all other charges in respect of fifty per cent. of seats in private medical institutions and deemed to be universities which are governed under the provisions of this Act; exercise such other powers and perform such other functions as may be prescribed. Source:Money Control MUDUMALAI TIGER RESERVE (MTR) Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT Context: For the first time, a large-scale migration of Common Grass Yellow was observed during the three-day butterfly survey which concluded at the Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (MTR) recently. Background: Other highlights of the survey include the Malabar Raven, Paris Peacock, Malabar Banded Peacock, Plain Puffin, Chocolate Albatross, Tamil Yeoman (the state butterfly) and Tamil Lacewing. About Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (MTR) Mudumalai Tiger Reserve (MTR) is located in the Nilgiris District of Tamil Nadu, spread over 321 sq. km. at the tri-junction of three states, viz, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu. It lies on the Northeastern and Northwestern slopes of Nilgiri hills which is a part of the Western Ghats. It is part of the Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve, the first Biosphere Reserve in India. It has a common boundary with Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (Kerala) on the West, Bandipur Tiger Reserve (Karnataka) on the North, the Nilgiris North Division on the South and East, and Gudalur Forest Division on the South West. Ecological Significance: The reserve encompasses diverse ecosystems, including montane forests, grasslands, wetlands, and Shola forests unique to the Western Ghats. It is home to a rich variety of flora and fauna, including the Indian rock python and the mugger crocodile. Source: PIB KAVERI RIVER Syllabus Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: The Karnataka state government has established a nine-member committee to address the contamination of the Kaveri River. Background: This decision came after MLC Dinesh Gooligowda raised concerns about sewage, solid waste, industrial pollutants, and other contaminants negatively impacting marine life and public health in the river. The committee of experts will examine methods to halt environmental degradation caused by various pollutants, including industrial waste and sewage. About KAVERI RIVER : The Kaveri River, also known as Cauvery, is a significant river in India, flowing through the states of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. Origin: The Kaveri River rises at Talakaveri in the Brahmagiri range of the Western Ghats, located in Kodagu district, Karnataka. The Shivanasamudra Falls Hogenakkal Falls, Chunchanakatte Falls are some of the waterfalls situated along the Kaveri River. Course: The river flows for approximately 800 kilometers before reaching its outfall into the Bay of Bengal. It reaches the sea near Poompuhar, in Mayiladuthurai district, Tamil Nadu. Tributaries: Left Bank: Harangi, Hemavati, Shimsha, Arkavati, Sarabanga, Thirumanimutharu. Right Bank: Lakshmana Tirtha, Kabini, Bhavani, Noyyal, Amaravati, Moyar. Catchment Area: The Kaveri basin covers three states and a Union Territory: Tamil Nadu: 43,868 square kilometers. Karnataka: 34,273 square kilometers. Kerala: 2,866 square kilometers. Puducherry: 148 square kilometers Dams and Reservoirs: Several dams and reservoirs manage Kaveri’s flow, including the Krishna Raja Sagara Dam, Mettur Dam, and Kabini Dam. These structures play a crucial role in water allocation and storage. Source: Business Standard HOLOGRAM TECHNOLOGY Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Japan has introduced redesigned yen banknotes incorporating advanced 3D hologram technology to enhance security measures against counterfeiting. Background: These advancements demonstrate Japan’s commitment to staying ahead in the fight against counterfeit currency. About HOLOGRAM TECHNOLOGY : Holograms are three-dimensional (3D) images created by recording light patterns that mimic how our eyes perceive objects in space. Unlike traditional photographs or flat images, holograms capture depth and parallax, making them appear lifelike and immersive. Their intricate design makes them a robust defence against counterfeiting. Applications: Visual Displays: Holographic displays for advertising, art, and entertainment. Data Storage: Holographic data storage for high-capacity storage. Microscopy: Holographic microscopy for biological imaging. Interferometry: Precise measurements in fields like metrology and engineering. Medical Imaging: Holographic techniques in medical diagnostics. Source: Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) With reference to the hologram technology, consider the following: Advertising and entertainment Data storage for high-capacity storage Microscopy for biological imaging Defence against counterfeiting How many of the above are the application of the hologram technology? Only one Only two Only thee All four Q2.) Consider the following statements about National Medical Commission It is a statuary body established under the National Medical Commission Act of 2019 It is responsible for the creation and regulation of all elements of medical education, practice, and institutions. Which of the statement (s) given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 & 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3.) Consider the following rivers in India: Lakshmana Tirtha Kabini Bhavani Arkavati How many of the above-mentioned rivers are the left bank tributaries of the Kaveri River? Only one Only two Only three All four Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  6th July 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  5th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) –  c Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 6th July 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here