Jun 30, 2016 AIR

All India Radio - NSG meeting and China’s Role

ARCHIVES NSG meeting and China’s Role   Search 25th June http://www.newsonair.com/Main_Audio_Bulletins_Search.aspx India for a few weeks before the meeting was expecting that its membership would be considered and it would find admission into the Nuclear Suppliers’ Group (NSG). But, despite USA support, there were objections from China and it seemed that China was the only country which was objecting to the Indian membership even when Indian government was confident of persuading Chinese. At plenary meeting, things turned out differently as some other countries also expressed reservations. But officially, according to statement issued at end of NSG plenary, it said that discussions are on with political and legal aspects with regard to non-NPT signatory states. It can be interpreted in two ways: Either India has failed to get place in NSG Or, NSG has not closed the subject and it is considering further course of action Too much hyped? What was widely observed that Indian media created much hype of the issue which led to strong belief of getting the membership. The intellects who understood such international issues had been of the clear opinion that this was not the time that India would get into NSG. As per reports, out of 48 members, 38 members were in support of India being in NSG as an exception country. There were 10 other members and had gradation of their views on subject. According to few, there was a need to simultaneously consider India’s entry and also develop a procedure, a criterion on how to deal with non-NPT signatory. Others were of view that a criterion should be built first and then look at India’s membership as a possibility or otherwise. Yet, focus had been on China for various reasons Biggest neighbor of India Complex relation with India Of the countries that were not fully supporting India’s case, China was most influential, most powerful member of NSG However, it needs to be focused that a rational process has to follow. 38 countries are already in support, other countries will over time also perhaps understand India’s view that each case need to be looked at on merit basis and cannot apply same criteria for all applicants. US factor As US openly supported Indian membership, there was a tacit belief that if US supports, it is going to be a smooth ride. There can be a temptation to create hype which itself puts pressure on countries that are not confident to support India. It can be intentional or might get leaked into media. However, diplomacy is done in back channels and pragmatically, it takes time. 2008 and 2016 are not comparable. India-China and China-US relations were less complicated in 2008. China had benefit of continuously supporting nuclear technology to Pakistan. In 2016, China has nothing to gain. Also, China-US relations are more complex. Thus, it can be also inferred that US support is alone not sufficient to clinch any deal in international fora. However, another point of view says that US did not give its 100% which made India’s case not strong enough.   Has India lost the chance to be NSG member? It will be wrong to say so. The NSG works on consensus and there was no agenda as of now due to lack of consensus. No statement has been issued about rejection of the membership application, hence, there are chances of future deliberations.   Pakistan gains? Along with china, there is a Pakistan angle. Pakistan has been very explicit in its view on India’s NSG entry and it also expressed satisfaction that India’s bid to NSG had been sort of foiled for the time. It views that India getting NSG membership will create imbalance in the geo-politics of South-Asia. In a concurrent meeting held at Tashkent, both India and Pakistan have got Shanghai Cooperation Council membership. For many years, India had toiled hard to de-hyphen India-Pakistan where Pakistan comes in groups of countries like North Korea and Afghanistan, India has to be looked at par with likes of China. The simultaneous SCO membership and fail to get NSG membership weighs more gains for Pakistan. However, it is a sigh of relief for India when at ending statement of NSG’s plenary session mentioned outreach to India’s application but no mention of Pakistan. Validity of Indian application India’s claim to be a part of NSG has a certain validity. India has diversified nuclear programme, capable of buying nuclear reactors, capable of sharing nuclear technology in various format. But Pakistan’s nuclear programme is not diversified as that of India. So, for Pakistan to be member of NSG should create more reservation that of India. And what is interesting is that this argument has not been made by either government or media. In history of NSG, a lot of politics has to be understood about how guidelines are made, how membership is decided etc. The last members brought in were countries like Estonia, Lithuania, Croatia and China. China became member in 2004. France wasn’t NPT signatory but was original member of first 7 countries who started it and so was Japan. So, there were first 7 countries who were not signatories to NPT and they developed understanding which means that there is always a flexibility to maneuver and accommodate other countries. In terms of technology, India is far more credible for supplying nuclear technology as it is a suppliers group. Pakistan is more like North Korea and China also is proliferating country. Thus, India’s credentials are far more important. The case of India’s membership started in Holland in 2011, and hence it is going on for five years. Pakistan has just arrived on block. Thus it is China’s mistake to compare Pakistan to India. India has been recognized around world and thus, China has to understand not to push Pakistan’s validity beyond a point. Another reason of India’s legitimacy of NSG leadership is the Paris Climate Change commitment, where it has committed 40% of power generation from non- fossil fuels sources, of which 1/3rd will be from nuclear power. Thus, access to nuclear technology is a necessity to meet that requirement. India has to work simultaneously at various factors like signing contracts, ordering for power plants to be built, technology to brought in etc. but they are likely to meet reluctance of some countries and companies as India is not a member. In actual reality, some of technology will come in when it will become member of NSG in coming years. In 2011, NSG adopted a new guideline particularly for enrichment of uranium and reprocessing of plutonium which will be restricted to only NPT-signatory countries, which was an addition after 2008 waiver to India. So greatest game for India to join NSG will be to make sure that no such adverse guidelines in future are made which will adversely affect India’s national interests. This will be biggest gain. Access to uranium is not technical issue but political issue because 2011 guidelines talk about NPT members, so it will become politically sensitive area.  It fundamentally says enrichment and re-processing technology within NPT only. India has that capability except that we want to use that capability for military purpose. In international programme, re-processing is for civil nuclear reactor. That puts pressure on our military programme in that sense. Due to 2011 guidelines, countries such as Kazakhstan, Australia which supply us uranium, become politically sensitive due to contracts signed with us. In future, other countries will also apply. Thus, India has to enhance its stature and convince other countries including China of our point of view. China should be explained mutual advantage of India joining NSG. China is very influential country in international relation and NSG too. Its acceptance may reduce reservations from certain countries. However, this is a formidable challenge. Key words: NSG-nuclear Founded in 1974 Originally 7 founding members. Canada, West Germany, France, Japan, the Soviet Union, the United Kingdom, and the United States. Currently, 48 To prevent nuclear proliferation by controlling the export of materials, equipment and technology that can be used to manufacture nuclear weapons. Australia Group- chemicals Established in 1985 (after use of chemical weapons by Iraq in 1984) Originally 15 members, now 42 To identify those exports which need to be controlled so as not to contribute to the spread of chemical and biological weapons. Wassenaar Arrangement- conventional weapons and dual-use technologies Established in 1996 Currently, 41 members To facilitate multilateral export control in transfers of conventional arms and dual-use goods (used for peaceful and military purposes) and technologies Take care à Different from Wassenaar Agreement. (agreement between employers’ and labour unions in Netherlands) MTCR- airspace Established in 1987 by G7 countries (Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, Great Britain, and the United States of America.) Originally 7 countries, now 35. India is latest entry To prevent the proliferation of missile and unmanned aerial vehicle technology capable of carrying above 500 kg payload for more than 300 km. SCO- Founded in 2001 Originally 6-member organization for mutual security, political and economic focus Members- China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan as full members Recently added- India and Pakistan  

Jun 30, 2016 60 Days Plan 2019 - Daily Prelims Test

IASbaba '60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 40]

Click here to get all the Tests– Archives   Hello Friends Hope you are enjoying Daily questions. The link for Day 39 solution is active now.  Why we asked you to comment? Now go back to check your answers that you posted with honest effort. Edit your answers with marks. Everyday like this you can self monitor your progress for all 60 days. Accountability to self is the only way for success   IASbaba '60 Day Plan' - Prelims Test 2016 [Day 40]   Q.1) Consider the following: Desert                                                             Country Atacama                                                                Chile Gobi                                                                       Mongolia Namib                                                                   Namibia Great Victoria                                                      USA Which of the above deserts are correctly matched with the countries? a) 1 and 3 b) 1,2 and 3 c) 2,3 and 4 d) All of the above Q.2) Which of the following reasons can be attributed for the difference between Jovian and terrestrial planets? The terrestrial planets were formed in the close vicinity of the parent star where it was too warm for gases to condense to solid particles. The solar wind was most intense nearer the sun; so, it blew off lots of gas and dust from the terrestrial planets. The solar winds were not all that intense to cause similar removal of gases from the Jovian planets. The terrestrial planets are smaller and their lower gravity could not hold the escaping gases. Select the code from the following: a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) All of the above  Q.3) Which of the following evidences support the Continental Drift theory propounded by Wegener? Formation of Continental Glaciers at Poles. The matching of continental boundary (jig saw fit) Rocks of the same age across the ocean Similar marine fossils across the ocean Select the code from the following: a) 1,2 and 3 b) 2 and 3 c) 2,3 and 4 d) All of the above Q.4) Consider the following statements about Sea-Floor Spreading: The theory says that sea floor constantly renews itself. Rocks from oceanic crust are much older than the continental rocks. The age of continental crust increases from oceanic trench towards oceanic ridge. Which of the above statements are incorrect? a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) All of the above Q.5) Plate tectonic theory is the most accepted theory, which explains the location and movement of continents as well as formation of different landmasses. Consider the following statements regarding plates and plate tectonics: Lithosphere consists only of upper crust which is floating over mantle. Lithosphere is fragmented into different pieces. These pieces are called plates. Pacific plate is the only major plate which is completely oceanic. Theory of Plate tectonics propounded that there was a supercontinent called Pangaea and a super ocean called Panthalasa. Which of the above statements are incorrect: a) 4 only b) 1 and 4 c) 2 and 3 d) 1,3 and 4 Q.6) Consider the following statements: Diverging plate boundaries do not lead to folding. Converging plate boundaries cannot cause faulting. Which of the above statements are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2  Q.7) Which of the following conditions leads to the formation of volcanoes? Convergence between oceanic and continental plate Convergence between two oceanic plates Convergence between two continental plates Divergence between two oceanic plates Divergence between two continental plates Select the code from the following: a) 1,2 and 4 b) 1,2 and 3 c) 2,3 and 5 d) 1,3,4 and 5 Q.8) One of the forces suggested by Wegener to explain Continental drift was Polar-Fleeing force. Which of the following forces does polar fleeing force relates to: a) Gravitational pull of moon b) Gravitational pull of sun c) Rotation of earth d) Revolution of earth Q.9) Which one of the following facts was not considered by those while discussing the concept of sea floor spreading? a) Volcanic activity along the mid-oceanic ridges. b) Stripes of normal and reverse magnetic field observed in rocks of ocean floor. c) Distribution of fossils in different continents. d) Age of rocks from the ocean floor Q.10) The branch of science concerned with the origin, structure, and composition of rocks is called: a) Lithology b) Petrology c) Pedology d) Edaphology Q.11) Which of the following are the examples of Volcanic island arcs? Kuril islands Aleutian islands Mariana islands Philippines Select the code from below: a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 2,3 and 4 d) All of the above Q.12) What do you understand by River Regime? a) The pattern of flow of water in a river channel over a year is known as its regime. b) It refers to the sinusoidal nature of river channel in its mature stage. c) The catchment area of a river and its tributaries is called its regime. d) The length traversed by a river from its origin to its mouth is called its Regime. Q.13) Deltas are the depositional features of rivers. They are classified on the basis of their shapes. What type of Deltas are formed by Indian rivers ? a) Cuspate b) Birdfoot c) Arcuate d) None of these Q.14) The transfer of the mass of rock and debris down the slope is termed as ‘Mass movement’. Which of the following statements regarding mass movement are correct? Mass movements are aided by gravity and no geomorphic agent like running water, glaciers, wind, waves and currents participate in the process of mass movements. Weathering is a prerequisite for mass-movements. Select the code from below: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q.15) Consider the following statements regarding ‘River capturing’: It usually occurs in the youth stage of river. The slope of the stream capturing the other stream should be steeper. River capturing involves head ward erosion. It usually occurs on the windward side. Which of the above statements are correct? a) 1 and 3 b) 2 and 4 c) 1,3 and 4 d) All of the above Q.16) The below given places are frequently in news. Select the incorrect pair/s from the following: Tel Aviv : : Egypt Tiananmen Square : : China Tahrir Square : : Israel Red Square : : Russia Select the appropriate code a) 3 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 2 and 4 only Q.17) The recently commenced maiden coastal feeder service between India and Bangladesh connected a) Visakhapatnam and Pangaon ICT b) Visakhapatnam and Chittagong c) Krishnapatnam and Chittagong d) Haldia and Mongla Q.18) Consider the recent statement in news – “Stage is set for what will be the biggest fight yet against the Sunni militancy, the battle to retake Mosul. Retaking Mosul would be a “massive hit” to the IS.” Mosul is in which country? a) Syria b) Turkey c) Iraq d) Lebanon Q.19) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I                       (Ocean Current) a) Guinea current b) Oyashio current c) Canaries current d) Kuroshio current List II (Location in Map) Code:      A          B          C          D a) 4            3          1          2 b) 2            3          1          4 c) 2             4          1          3 d) 4             1          3          2 Q.20) Which among the following sentences is/are false? A stream is a body of flowing water that stays within its banks, or the land on either side. A creek is a stream of small or medium size. Creeks are often shallow and flow into larger bodies of water. India and Pakistan has disputes over Koteshwar Creek area of Kutch district Choose appropriate option: a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 only c) 2 only d) 3 only Q.21) For quite some time, ‘Nutrifarms’ are given a lot of boost by the Government of India. Consider the following statements regarding the objective of Nutri farms: Promoting the use of organic fertilizers Introducing new crop varieties that is rich in Micro nutrients Select the correct option a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both d) None Q.22) Consider the following Solid waste management Digital literacy E – Gram connectivity Which of the following services are included under Shyama Prasad Mukerji Rurban mission? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) All Q.23) Recently PRINCE 40, major utility equipment was making rounds in print media. PRINCE 40 refers to a) Solar Pump b) Solar cooker c) Solar Light d) None of the above Q.24) Which of the following is/are NOT correct about NMSA, one of the missions under the NAPCC? NMSA was aimed at transforming Indian agriculture into a climate resilient production system through suitable adaptation and mitigation measures in the domain of crops and animal husbandry. National Mission on Food Security and the National Horticulture Mission are part of NMSA Select the appropriate code: a) Only 1 b) Only 2 c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2   Q.25) Global energy architecture performance index report (GEAPI) is released by which of the following international institutions. a) World economic forum b) United Nations development programme c) United Nations environment programme d) International renewable energy agency   Download the Solution- Click here P.S- Attempt these questions within 20 minutes with full honesty and write your results in the comment box. Next day, come back and check your result. You can also discuss the important concepts and issues, in case of doubts (among peers) All the best IASbaba  

Jun 30, 2016 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs – 30th June, 2016

Archives   IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs – 30th June, 2016   NATIONAL   TOPIC:  General studies 2 Governance, Polity, Rural Development, Local Self Government and related issues   Parched Panchayati Raj Ministry on verge of closure The future of the Panchayati Raj Ministry under the NDA regime continues to look bleak. (Reasons) Panchayati Raj Ministry faced a massive budget cut last year: These cuts left such an impact on the Ministry that it lost confidence in empowering panchayats nationwide. Reduced mandate: In view of the budget cuts, the Ministry recently “realigned” its mandate from financing panchayats to capacity-building and training. Two of its key programmes — the Backward Regions Grants Fund (BRGF) and the Rajiv Gandhi Panchayat Sashaktikaran Abhiyan (RGPSA) — were shuttered. The Ministry’s role has been reduced to a mere advisory or advocacy group. Several officials at the Ministry feel that the Panchayati Raj Ministry would soon be closed down and turned into a department under the Ministry of Rural Development. Background: It was during the Congress regime (over a decade ago), under the then Panchayati Raj Minister Mani Shankar Aiyar, the new Panchayati Raj Ministry was formed. In the UPA-I and UPA-II regimes, since the Ministry was well-funded with BRGF and Rajiv Gandhi Panchayat Sashaktikaran Abhiyan schemes, it was able to address district-wise inequality, pumping money into the panchayats of the backward ones, helping them build panchayat ghars (offices) and training the functionaries in drafting annual plans to increase their upward mobility. There were plans to hire junior-level engineers and data entry operators in panchayats to turn all the panchayats e-governance friendly. But with the budget cuts, everything has come to a standstill. The Ministry has recently “realigned” its mandate from financing panchayats to capacity-building and training. The centre also rolled back the BRGF scheme because it asked state government to “increase their own funding resources” to empower Panchayats. Congress leaders criticized the BJP’s intention to turn the ministry into a department, and alleged that by recent cuts and government unable to utilize huge funds for the promotion of Panchayats, the NDA is killing the Panchayati Raj institution. A de-democratising move Panchayati Raj Ministry took various initiatives for strengthening panchayat empowerment. One among them was the ‘Index of Devolution’ – This index was prepared by independent experts and was geared towards rewarding States that over the previous year had made the most incremental progress towards more effective devolution in terms of the Constitution and their own State legislation. Many States that had been slow starters, including Bihar, Tripura, Chhattisgarh, Haryana, and Rajasthan, found their scores rising and were appropriately recognised. However, recently there are several de-democratizing moves: Gujarat ran a system under which democracy at the village level was discouraged by financially incentivising panchayats elected without contest. Rajasthan, and now Haryana, have followed suit by placing regressive restrictions on less educated and poorer candidates, particularly Dalit women, from even contesting panchayat elections. This de-democratisation of local self-government will be aggravated if a Cabinet Minister for Panchayati Raj is not available to advocate and promote the cause with Chief Ministers and his counterparts in the States. In addition, the 73rd amendment, incorporated as part IX of the Constitution, is the joint responsibility of the Union and the States, calls for high-level coordination to promote and protect the provisions of the longest and most detailed amendment ever carried out to the Constitution. Importance of the 73rd Amendment It was passed virtually unanimously in December 1992 as representing the consensus among Central and State stakeholders. This consensual method must be persisted with by bringing State ministers together; convening academic experts and field-level NGOs; promoting feedback from and best practices among elected panchayat representatives; monitoring the special interests of women representatives, Dalits and tribals; maintaining and updating data-banks on all aspects of panchayat raj; commissioning expert studies and preparing periodic reports such as the biannual State of the Panchayats reports These are among the key activities undertaken by the Ministry. Providing such an all-India perspective will be seriously diluted or even entirely lost without an independent Ministry for the subject. Moreover, merging or subordinating panchayat raj under rural development amounts to a grossly inadequate reading of the Constitution, in particular the Eleventh Schedule that lists the proposed jurisdiction (“powers, authority and responsibilities”) of national-level panchayati raj. The constitutional mandate The Eleventh Schedule contains a wide range of entries, covers virtually the entire gamut of development and welfare in rural India ranging from schemes such as – MGNREGA, rural housing, NRLM, Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana to agriculture, including agricultural extension and also animal husbandry, dairying and poultry and fisheries - that are the responsibility of the Agriculture Ministry Minor irrigation, water management and watershed development - that falls under the Ministry of Water Resources Social forestry and farm forestry, minor forest produce - that jointly concern the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change and the Ministry of Tribal Affairs Drinking water, sanitation including the much-hyped Swachh Bharat Abhiyan, are the responsibility of the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation The Eleventh Schedule goes on to detail small scale industries, including food processing industries and khadi, village and cottage industries that fall respectively under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, the Ministry of Food Processing Industries and the Ministry of Textiles Likewise, the 11th schedule also covers wide entries that belong to Ministries such as - Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Human Resource Development Ministry, Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, Ministry of Culture, Ministry of Social Welfare and the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Ministry of Food and Public Distribution etc   Conclusion: With such a wide constitutional remit, confining panchayati raj to just the Ministry of Rural Development will be a conceptual infringement, an emasculation of the constitutional role envisaged for panchayati raj institutions. What the 73rd amendment sought to do was a radical reorganisation of last-mile delivery of public goods and services to the panchayats by devolving “such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as institutions of self-government” (Article 243G). Note, “self-government” not “self-governance”: the fundamental mandate was to establish the panchayati raj system as the third tier of government, not to make these institutions implementing agencies for State departments or Union Ministries. This was to be achieved by endowing these “institutions of self-government” with the required functions, finances and functionaries (the three Fs). Quietly, considerable progress has been made in the last 25 years. Panchayati raj has been made ineluctable, irremovable and irreversible, but much remains to be accomplished. To disrupt the process by downgrading the Ministry of Panchayati Raj and making it an adjunct of some other Ministry would be the most retrograde step in democratic decentralisation in over a quarter century. Connecting the dots: There have been recent efforts to close down the Panchayati Raj Ministry and turn it into a department under the Ministry of Rural Development. Can this approach to grass-roots democracy result in grass-roots development? Critically comment. Off recently, there are allegations that Panchayati Raj Ministry is on verge of closure. Discuss the reasons which have made it a bleak and weak Ministry. What efforts can be taken to rescue the Ministry from dissolution?   ECONOMICS   TOPIC:  General Studies 3 Indian Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilization of resources, growth, development and employment.   7th Pay Commission—Hit’s & Misses Recommendation: A 23.55 per cent increase in overall emoluments for employees The hike — at around 14 per cent — is the lowest in 70 years Estimated to put an additional burden of Rs. 1.02 lakh crore on the exchequer annually or nearly 0.7 per cent of GDP Is this trend welcome— Yes; Would limit the inflationary impact of the pay revisions— The 6th Pay Commission had recommended a hike of 20 per cent which was doubled by the time it was implemented and eventually amounted to about 54 per cent. It was immediately followed by a period of higher expenditure and higher inflation   Other recommendations: Minimum Pay: Based on the Aykroyd formula, the minimum pay in government is recommended to be set at Rs 18,000 per month The Commission recommends abolishing 52 allowances; another 36 allowances subsumed in existing allowances or in newly proposed allowances One Rank One Pension proposed for civilian government employees on line of OROP for armed forces Ceiling of gratuity enhanced from Rs 10 lakh to Rs 20 lakh; ceiling on gratuity to be raised by 25 percent whenever DA rises by 50 percent Military Service Pay (MSP), which is a compensation for the various aspects of military service, will be admissible to the defence forces personnel only Short service commissioned officers will be allowed to exit the armed forces at any point in time between 7 to 10 years of service New Pay Structure: With a view to bring in greater transparency, the present system of pay bands and grade pay has been dispensed with and a new pay matrix has been designed. Grade Pay has been subsumed in the pay matrix. The status of the employee, hitherto determined by grade pay, will now be determined by the level in the pay matrix.   More money in the hands of people— Lead to more money in the hands of the consumers— huge consumption boost to the economy (around Rs 45,000 crore or 0.3 per cent of GDP) There will also be an increase in the growth rate of household savings— welcome in a year when bank deposits have touched a 53-year low and the impending FCNR (B) redemptions could also lead to outflows from banks in September (an increase of around Rs 30,000 crore or 0.2 per cent of GDP) Growth in— Will have a positive impact on stock markets Consumption growth: urban demand will spur after implementation and this will increase demand for discretionary products (consumer products)   Inflation— Will have a relatively mild impact on the overall inflation Retail inflation & global oil prices— may start inching up Consumer price inflation may inch up due to higher prices of services, but impact on wholesale price index is likely to be muted due to the counter balance provided by the deflation in commodity prices and the availability of excess capacity in several manufacturing sectors. (new consumer price index being different than its predecessors) Demand push inflation could definitely occur when there is too much money chasing not much supply because factories are not producing more. But the over-capacity because of lack of demand and the capacity utilisation being around 70 per cent provide a major cushioning effect. A rise in demand is likely to not only increase capacity utilisation but may also help revive the investment cycle earlier than expected   Fiscal Deficit— Will have an impact on the fiscal deficit for the current financial year— the hike in emoluments will be effective from January 2016 and all arrears will be paid out in the current year itself. To meet the fiscal deficit targets: Compromise on the capital expenditure (which is important to promote growth) There will be an increase in tax revenue from more income tax collection (due to higher salaries) and excise duty collections – or GST– from increased consumption   Find out: Constituents of Capital Expenditure What do you mean by fiscal deficit & read up on types of fiscal deficit, if any. What is the time-period of pay commission revisions? Do all state governments follow the Central Pay Commission recommendations? What do you mean by Inflation and Deflation? Differences between CPI & WPI? MUST READ   Mutual funds in India need a Jan Dhan moment Livemint   Supreme Court cannot exercise power of pardon vested with President, Governor Hindu   Explosive trail mail Hindu   Why we need to talk about a basic income Hindu Related Articles: Waging a minimum wage battle in the labour market   Crime and economics Indian Express   The right remedy Business Line   Time has come for ‘Move India’ Business Line Related Articles: Goods and Service Tax (GST) Logjam: GST by another name GST legislation & Issues The Big Picture – GST Bill: Why is it Still Not Passed?  

Jun 30, 2016 Motivational Articles

Creative Guidance: Book Review – The Last Days of Socrates – Plato

The Last Days of Socrates - Plato ‘The Last days of Socrates’ is undoubtedly one of the best works of Plato. Plato was one of the favorite students and admirers of Socrates. Plato, himself a profound philosopher and thinker learnt under Socrates the mysteries of life and the philosophies of it. The last days of Socrates is a dialogue in four parts, during what was meant to be the last year of Socrates life. Socrates was one of the greatest philosophers that ever lived. He was admired and loved by his followers and hated by the authorities of Athens. During his last year, the government of Athens had had enough of his derogatory remarks on the state. Athens gave Socrates an option to go away and live long, or die soon in Athens. Socrates chooses to die in Athens. Athens was the city he loved and he did not want to leave. Plato covers the tragedy that struck Socrates and the firmness and philosophical resoluteness of Socrates during his last moments. Read ‘The Last Days of Socrates’ to be illuminated by the life and teachings of one of the greatest philosophers that ever lived. “This Book Review is a copyright of The Ahamo Movement and IASBABA.”

Jun 30, 2016 Topper's From IASbaba

PSYCHOLOGY OPTIONAL STRATEGY : Annapurna Garg (Rank 68), CSE- 2015

Annapurna Garg (Rank 68), CSE- 2015 Psychology is that discipline which has been with me since last 8 years. But my ultimate objective to take up psychology in first place was civil services. And that objective has been met. I owe a lot to this discipline not only in my academic success but also in making me evolve as a person. Coming to the part of psychology as an optional for civil services exam. I would grab this opportunity in debunking the myth that psychology is not a scoring subject. I have got 262 ( though I had expected more) which clarifies the potential of this subject as an optional. No optional is more or less scoring. It's your dedication and commitment towards it that matters. This is important for the future aspirants to understand because it's very demotivating when someone comes upto you and leaves you disturbed by talking about less potential of psychology candidates. That's a myth. Only you can decide what you like, no one else can.   About sources: I seriously feel that the notes available in the market for psychology should be avoided ( except for some minor topics which books don't cover). They confuse a lot and do not make concepts clear (especially if one is not a graduate in psychology). It's better to read from books. I referred following books: Baron Feldman Atkinson   All these are graduate level books which would cover 95% of the syllabus of paper 1. For paper 2, Smarak Swain book on Applied Psychology is sufficient. He is a real messiah for psychology candidates; otherwise preparing for paper 2 would have been a Herculean task.   While reading the books, there are four aspects which should be covered to make answers comprehensive. These are: Basic concept ( the definitions, and understanding part) Experimental studies (preferably with names of researchers and it's okay even if you don't remember all names) Examples from day to day life (This covers the application part of the basic concept). Psychology is a subject which has examples from all walks of life. So it's always good to include diverse examples in answers. Flow charts (gives a sees a good presentation and also saves a lot of time)   During preparation: I maintained one straight strategy for psychology. I firstly read the chapter, and then wrote previous years answers for few days. This way the chapter gets covered comprehensively. Solving previous years papers give a very clear idea about UPSC questioning style and way how to move ahead. Also, practicing writing answers leads to revision of the read material and enables a better memory of the experiments and examples as well. Moreover, what I have observed is that in optional, due to limited nature of the subject, questions keep on repeating in one form or other. So previous years papers are the key to good marks in optional.   One should complete optional study atleast 3 months before prelims exam and then take it up with full swing after prelims ( This is no hard and fast rule and one may set one’s own timings of doing things).   During the exam: For paper 1, answer writing is very straight forward and simple if one is clear about the basics of the topic. It just needs incorporation of all what is asked in the question in a clear manner. However, it's not advisable to completely compartmentalise paper 1 and paper 2. There can be some questions in paper 1 which are application based and requires things to be written from there. For example, a question in paper 1 in 2015- “Keeping in view the strife in current social situation, discuss how a psychologist can contribute towards providing interventions for such problems”. Thus, it's always good to have an open perspective while writing the exam. Any mental restrictions would compromise with the quality of answer.   Similarly, a question in paper 2 in 2015 was such that it required points from different chapters to be picked and written – “How can psychological knowledge be put to use in changing the behaviour of children inclined to consume ‘junk food’? This answer should have points from behavioural perspective, advertisements (consumer psychology), communication (persuasion), social perspective. Thus, having a 360 degree perspective helps in writing such answers which one might not have come across before.   Keep as many examples ready with you as possible (which happens during answer writing practice itself). Some questions can be mostly example based. For example, “Children are not born with stereotypes; they learn them from their family, peers, media and society.” Now this answer requires examples from four different domains along with the basic understanding.   Sequence of writing the exam – I preferred doing the compulsory questions after the optional ones in each section. This is because of my experience of 2014 where I spent much time in doing the compulsory questions and lost time for the other ones which have a greater weightage individually. So loosing out on them can be a greater cost. Moreover, it gives a peace of mind if one writes the greater weightage answers first and enables one to sail through smoothly. Otherwise, built up of (di)stress leads to poor performance later (as psychology has taught. :) ).   I would like to suggest to the aspirants having psychology optional to make full use of psychological principles to remain free from the evil called stress (though eustress is important to keep you running) and remain motivated. This is an edge which I consider we have in this exam. After all, every competition is also a psychological battle which a psychology student can win easily.   I would like to wish you all a very happy learning and winning experience. All the best..!!!              

Jun 29, 2016 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs – 29th June, 2016

Archives   IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs – 29th June, 2016   INTERNATIONAL   TOPIC:  General studies 2 India and its neighborhood relations – India and Sri Lanka Concerns. Bilateral, regional and global groupings and agreements involving India and/or affecting India’s interests. Effect of policies and politics of developed and developing countries on India’s interests, Indian diaspora.   India – Sri Lanka: Fishing in troubled waters India – Sri Lanka Concerns: The issue of poaching by Indian trawlers in Sri Lankan waters has over the years become an increasingly contentious one, seriously threatening the livelihood of Sri Lanka’s fishing community. Other problems such as frequent arrests of fishermen of both countries and seizures of their fishing vessels by the Sri Lankan and Indian authorities in the common sea area between the two countries are not new. The problem has been festering with political ramifications, particularly in Tamil Nadu for a number of years. The Background: The situation with regard to fishing has gradually turned out to be adverse for Tamil fishermen from Sri Lanka’s northern province after the end of the Fourth Eelam War in 2009. During the Eelam War, active patrolling by the Sri Lankan Navy and by the Indian Navy and Coast Guard to interdict the movement of LTTE cadres also prevented Indian fishermen from Tamilnadu, and also to an extent from Andhra Pradesh and Puducherry, from undertaking fishing across the median line international boundary in the Palk Bay which had been firmed up by mutual agreement between India and Sri Lanka in 1974. But the fact of the matter is that post that conflict, Indian fishermen have extended their fishing activities to Sri Lankan territorial waters. This is owing to the gradual depletion of fishing resources in the Indian continental shelf, the relatively greater availability of fish on the Sri Lankan side, and the Sri Lankan fishermen from the northern province not being in a position to exploit the marine resources. Moreover, Sri Lankan fishermen did not have the means, for example, advanced fishing implements like gill nets, modern trawlers, etc. Indian fishermen have also been resorting to bottom trawling (banned as per international fishing regime), which is destructive of the layout of the sea-floor, and the natural habitat for fish breeding. In other words, opportunities induced Indian fishermen to venture into the sea domain of their Sri Lankan counterparts. Courtesy (image)- http://www.onlanka.com/wp-content/uploads/2014/06/india-sri-lanka-sea-borders-map.jpg   The big contentious issue: Use of trawlers by Indians in Sri Lankan waters Impacts: Seriously threatening the livelihood of Sri Lanka’s fishing community Sri Lankan fishermen are often forced to stay ashore for fear that these trawlers will damage their nets, their primary asset for livelihood There have even been incidents of fishermen suffering physical injuries while attempting to save their nets from being damaged by Indian trawlers adversely impacts marine ecosystem At least 200,000 people in the Northern Province are dependent on the fisheries sector. Most of them are still struggling to rebuild their lives after a brutal civil war. Many of them were displaced, lost members of their family, and lost their homes during the bitter conflict. It is only now that they have a chance to get back to the sea. But their small boats cannot take on the massive, mechanised Indian trawlers. Courtesy (image)- http://www.nation.lk/edition/images/2015/03/22/insight/fish2.jpg Why the issue of fishermen between India and Sri Lanka has not been resolved yet? Sri Lanka has the sovereign right to take action against any act of trespass into territory that comes under its jurisdiction. The problem with this approach, however, is that it is at best a short-term one. The vessels are only detained temporarily. And despite the risk of arrest, fishermen are willing to take the risk of returning in these vessels, particularly because they are desperate for a reasonable catch which they do not find in Indian waters anymore consequent to relentless bottom trawling. Also, fishermen who are apprehended are in several cases released following political negotiations. What steps should be taken to overcome the problems? A more effective step would be to confiscate the vessels in which fishermen trespass into Sri Lankan waters. (Authorities are in fact empowered to do so, and lately they have resorted to this action. This provision must be regularly enforced) Indian Navy or Coast Guard should join the Sri Lankan Navy in jointly patrolling the international boundary to prevent trespassing. According to the current law in terms of the Fisheries and Aquatic Resources Act 2 of 1996, bottom trawling can be carried out by both Sri Lankan nationals as well as non-nationals who obtain a licence from the Department of Fisheries. Instead, bottom trawling should be made an offence through an effective law. Therefore, as far as poaching is concerned, banning the practice of bottom trawling will greatly reduce the incentive to trespass into Sri Lankan waters. Both Sri Lanka and India must also take effective steps for the conversion of fishing with trawlers to deep sea fishing. In order for a ban on bottom trawling to succeed, alternatives must be available to protect the livelihoods of fishermen presently engaged in bottom trawling. Additionally, interim steps must also be taken to minimise the serious damage being caused by trawling. Such a ban will act as a confidence building measure and will encourage speedy resolution of this issue. It is time the governments of both India and Sri Lanka moved beyond political rhetoric and tough talk and took effective and sustainable steps to resolve this issue. Connecting the dots: Why the issue of fishermen between India and Sri Lanka has not been resolved yet? What steps should the Indian Government take to overcome the problems faced by the Indian fishermen?   NATIONAL   TOPIC: General studies 1: Effects of Globalization on Indian Society; Urbanization and related issues General studies 2: Important aspects of governance and e-governance Issues regarding services relating to Health, Education, Human Resource   Smart Cities & Local Governance According to Census 2011, 31 per cent of India’s total population lives in urban areas — a marginal increase of a little over three percentage points from the previous Census of 2001. In absolute numbers, however, India added about nine million people to the urban areas, bringing the number of urban residents in India to a total of 377 million. Additionally, for the first time since Independence, the growth in total urban population is higher than the absolute rural population growth   Smart cities: A ‘smart city’ concept is defined as the ability to integrate multiple technological solutions in a secure fashion to manage the city’s assets – for example, the city’s assets like local departments information systems, schools, libraries, transportation systems, hospitals, power plants, law enforcement, and other community services. Smart and efficient usage of information and communication technologies (ICT) to enhance quality, performance and interactivity of urban services, to reduce costs and resource consumption and to improve contact between citizens and government. Basic infrastructure: Assured water and electricity supply, sanitation and solid waste management, efficient urban mobility and public transport, robust IT connectivity, e-governance and citizen participation, safety and security of citizens Smart solutions: Public information, grievance redressal, electronic service delivery, citizens’ engagement, waste to energy & fuel, waste to compost, 100% treatment of waste water, smart meters & management, monitoring water quality, renewable source of energy, efficient energy and green building, smart parking, intelligent traffic management system. ‘the first in the country and even in the world [where] investments in urban sector are being made based on competition-based selection of cities’ Selection: The 20 cities were selected on the basis of a “Smart City Proposal” which was submitted by the city. Idea behind the proposal— Development of an area Development of the entire city Proposals from a majority of cities have financially prioritized developing a small area rather than the entire city. An analysis states that 71 per cent of the funding from the mission will be spent on area-based development, the beneficiaries of which are about 4 per cent of the city’s population on average. Area-based Development: Cities have proposed redevelopment of old and creation of new central business districts, retrofitting infrastructure such as water supply, sewerage, and creation of public spaces apart from reinventing landscape. Proposal for the entire city: Limited to IT-based services like CCTV-monitored central command system, “smart” education portals and “intelligent” water and traffic management systems. The key driver of the smart city concept—Integrating Local Governance with Smart Services For success of urban development schemes, state governments & local bodies will have to take the lead, all geared up and armed with the latest technology— Key Elements constituting the Governance of the Smart City: Operations and maintenance: City services such as water, energy, transportation are delivered by different entities and there is minimal collaboration during planning and maintenance which leads to duplication of efforts. Providers are not held accountable for low-service performance and since different departments have different set of staff there is little synergy and high cost Need for an Integrated command and operation centers that will not only enable better management of services but will also lead to integration of operations across various departments leading to optimization of cost and efficiency Helps monitor city services on a real-time basis and therefore improve on synchronizing maintenance activities. Use of business process re-engineering and automation will help improve efficiency and reduce turnaround time Use of predictive analytics will help understand equipment performance and maintenance requirements. City performance dashboard that helps monitor— the performance of city subsystems through the use of digital technologies and big data analytics to manage city governance, efficient performance and proactive crisis management. Workforce and resource management solutions should also be used as they can help improve workforce engagement and task management. To optimize the workforce— development of workforce management solutions like planning, forecasting & scheduling, shift management etc. Public infrastructure asset management: While municipalities across the country have limited asset inventory, most of the time it is not up-to-date. Need for a comprehensive asset management strategy in place. Integrated asset management solutions lower operation cost by improving asset management practices. They provide visibility of asset, asset usage, maintenance schedules, parts etc. Integrated operations – (most of the integration explained above) Citizen services: Small cities still rely on manual interface and limited channels that are used by the ULBs to communicate key information to citizens Lack of single interface for citizen services or registering complaints Cities must have multi-channel citizen interface such as — mobile, web, online, phone etc. for services such as bill payment, tax payment, issuance of online certificates, grievance registration etc. City authorities should use social media for two way communication with people. There should be a single helpline number for a single point of contact for citizens to reach authorities.   IASbaba’s Views— Need to do away with the Land Monetization Outlook: Land has not yet been properly utilized and coloring it with the colour of mere finances over city-based project will be inappropriate. The government should rather opt for project-based development to shift from this worrying trend. Turn-around failed articulation of an institutional framework for urban development: Convergence: Of various programs with various developmental plans For example, there is still not a laid-out framework as to how will the water reservoir and storage-related development be integrated with ‘Housing for all’ Government should take each step forward with simple yet detailed planning for a stronger foundation. Governance: The decision to make the city smart should be taken by the city, its citizens and its municipalities but in practice, the role of the local governments and its missions has been cut short with no alternative arrangement in place. 1992, the 74th constitutional amendment: Envisioned an elected local government with neighborhood committees and mohalla sabhas as an institutional architecture vis-à-vis the functional, financial and legislative domain of city governments Present: Responsibilities were limited just to delegating the decision-making powers to a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV), a body to be set up and which would implement the mission Connecting the Dots The best model of financing smart cities in India is self-financing wherein cities generate their own capital to create assets and public infrastructure. Discuss the viability of this model for Indian cities. State the achievements of the smart-city project. Discuss if the local governance has been integrated with the ‘Smart City Project’.   Refer: Urbanization: Cities at crossroads- Why cities matter? City infrastructure: With a multifaceted approach we can afford the ‘Housing for All’ dream MUST READ   For the rich, India is as good as a tax haven Livemint   Another chance for India’s textile industry Livemint Related Articles: A stitch in time for a rise in India’s Employment numbers   Inflation targeting: A long way to go Livemint Related Articles: Diverging CPI, WPI: The inflation conundrum India’s Inflation Outlook   Parched Panchayati Raj Ministry on verge of closure Hindu   How to read the popular will Hindu Related Articles: EU referendum: the big questions for Britain BREXIT – Britain’s Exit from EU Brexit—Mind-map UK-EU Deal-Brexit— Mind-map   The great delusion Indian Express Related Articles: Quest for another Holy Grail – Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) The Big Picture – How important is it for India to be part of NSG? NSG—Mind-map   Protect govt servants from political attacks Business Line   Indian banks must share digital dividend Business Line Related Articles: The path named Financial Inclusion   Getting real with the Model GST Law Business Line Related Articles: Goods and Service Tax (GST) Logjam: GST by another name GST legislation & Issues The Big Picture – GST Bill: Why is it Still Not Passed?  

Jun 29, 2016 60 Days Plan 2019 - Daily Prelims Test

IASbaba '60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 GEOGRAPHY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 39]

Click here to get all the Tests– Archives Hello Friends Hope you are enjoying Daily questions. The link for Day 38 solution is active now.  Why we asked you to comment? Now go back to check your answers that you posted with honest effort. Edit your answers with marks. Everyday like this you can self monitor your progress for all 60 days. Accountability to self is the only way for success IASbaba '60 Day Plan' - Prelims Test 2016 [Day 39] Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding ‘Halley’s Comet’: It is visible on earth after every 76 years. It revolves around the sun in elliptical orbit. As it gets closer to the sun, it starts glowing due to burning of its particles. Which of the above statements are correct? a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) All of the above Q.2) The Gravitational force between the two bodies is : a) Directly proportional to their masses and inversely proportional to the distance between them b) Directly proportional to the distance between them and inversely proportional to their masses c) Directly proportional to the masses and distance between them d) Inversely proportional to the masses and distance between them Q.3) Communication satellites are usually launched in: a) Polar orbit b) Lunar orbit c) Geostationary Orbit d) No fixed orbit. They are moved as desired. Q.4) As seen from the Earth, a solar eclipse is a type of eclipse that occurs when the Moon passes between the Sun and Earth, and the Moon fully or partially blocks ("occults") the Sun. which of the following statements are correct about Solar Eclipse? It can occur only at full moon when sun and moon are at conjunction. The alignment of sun, moon and earth respectively in a straight line is called During total solar eclipse, the complete moon’s shadow is called Penumbra. Select the code from the following: a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) All of the above Q.5) The Sun is still extremely hot, whereas the planets are much cooler. Which of the answers gives the correct explanation? a) The Sun burns hydrogen in its interior, whereas the planets supply of hydrogen has run out. b) The Sun fuses hydrogen to helium, releasing energy, whereas the planets supply of hydrogen is less. c) The Sun produces energy by fission reactions, whereas the planets were never hot enough to produce energy this way. d) It is too cold deep inside the planets to have fusion reactions necessary to produce energy from hydrogen. Q.6) Two moons of the same mass orbit a planet. The orbit of the Earth's Moon is almost circular, but the orbits of the moons are much more complicated. What is the most likely reason for this? a) The gravitational pull of the planet varies, changing their otherwise normal orbits. b) The moons attract each other when they are close together, changing their normal orbits. c) The inner moon has a circular orbit, affecting the other moon's orbit. d) The outer moon has a circular orbit, affecting the other moon's orbit. Q.7) Consider the following statements regarding satellite that has been placed in a low polar orbit: The satellite is ideal to take weather and spying photographs. The satellite takes 24 hours to complete one orbit, which means that it stays above the same point over the Earth. The satellite orbit's over both poles, whilst the Earth rotates at 90° to this direction beneath the satellite. Each orbit only takes a few hours, which allows the whole surface of the Earth to be monitored in one day. Which of the above statements are NOT correct? a) 2 only b) 1,3 and 4 c) 1 and 2 d) 2,3 and 4 Q.8) Which of the following phases of the Moon occur during a spring tide? a) Crescent Moon and Gibbous Moon. b) New Moon and Full Moon. c) Half Moon. d) New Moon, Half Moon and Full Moon. Q.9) Consider the following: The inner core of the earth is liquid while the outer core is solid. The inner core mainly consists of an alloy of Iron, Aluminum and Manganese. The inner and outer core is separated by Lehman Discontinuity. Which of the above statements are correct? a) 1 and 3 b) 1 and 2 c) 3 only d) All of the above Q.10) The Earth's crust is an extremely thin layer of rock that makes up the outermost solid shell of our planet. It amounts to less than half of 1 percent of the planet's total mass but plays a vital role in most of Earth's natural cycles. Which of the statements are correct about Earth’s crust? Continental crust is thicker than the oceanic crust. Continental Crust, made up of granitic rock, is denser than the oceanic crust which is made up of Basaltic rock. During Subduction, the continental crust, being denser, plunges under the oceanic crust. Select the code from below: a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) All of the above Q.11) Consider the following statement: Endogenetic forces are responsible for the formation of secondary landforms. The energy emanating from within the earth is the main force behind endogenic geomorphic processes. The energy in the interior of earth is due to radioactive decay and primordial heat from the origin of the earth. Which of the above statements are correct? a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) All of the above Q.12) Consider the following statements: Orogeny is a mountain building process whereas epeirogeny is continental building process. Endogenetic forces act in horizontal direction in orogeny while they act in vertical direction in epeirogeny. Which of the above statements are incorrect? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q.13) Which statement best describes motion on a normal fault? a) The hanging wall block moved downward relative to the footwall block. b) The hanging wall block moved upward relative to the footwall block. c) The hanging wall block moved horizontally relative to the footwall block. d) Faults are simple breaks in the crust along which no movement has occurred. Q.14) Which of the following structures are the example of Aeolian landforms? Mushroom rocks Barchans Cascades Gorge Gully Select the code from below: a) 1 and 2 b) 3,4 and 5 c) 1,2 and 5 d) 2,3 and 4 Q.15) Consider the following statements: Intrusive igneous rocks have larger crystal grains than extrusive igneous rocks. Igneous rocks are always crystalline. Igneous rocks are main source of fossils. Which of the above statements are incorrect? a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 c) All of the above d) None of the above Q.16) Which among the following is the first ever inter-State river linking project since India’s independence? a) Chambal-Yamuna project b) Mahanadi-Godavari project c) Par-Tapi- Narmada project d) Ken-Betwa project Q.17) Which among the following is/are true about Djibouti? Djibouti islands is located between Gulf of Suez and Red Sea A military base in Djibouti along with major port development projects in Myanmar and Sri Lanka are defining the contours of China’s Maritime Silk Road The Horn of Africa nation is strategically located on the junction of the Indian Ocean and the Red Sea Choose the appropriate option: a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3 Q.18) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Dedicated Freight Corridors (DFC) project? The project aims to reduce the unit cost of transportation and speed up the freight train in India. The Eastern DFC is funded by Japan while the Western DFC is funded by World Bank. The freight trains in DFC will run completely on electricity, reducing the emission of Green house gases. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 2 and 3 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1 only Q.19) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I    (Hydroelectric power station)              List-II (Location in the map) Srisailam                                                                                       Sabarigiri Hirakud Sileru a) A B C D : 3 1 4 2 b) A B C D : 3 4 1 2 c) A B C D : 2 4 1 3 d) A B C D : 2 1 4 3 Q.20) According to the International Energy Agency (IEA), which region will be a big source of crude oil imports for India as country’s oil demand is set to increase to five million barrels per day by 2021? a) Gulf region b) The United States of America (USA) c) Middle East region d) Central Asia region Q.21) Consider the following French Arabic Spanish Chinese Which of the following is an official language of United Nations? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2 3 and 4 Q.22) Consider the following Argentina Brazil Marshall Islands Nicaragua Which of the countries are the members of MERCOSUR common market? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only All Q.23) “Energy statistics report” is released by which of the following ministry Ministry of Statistics and Programme Ministry of Power Ministry of New and Renewable energy Ministry of Finance Q.24) Consider the following To study Pluto To analyse Kupier belt Space probe to study Solar flare Select the correct option with respect to “New Horizon mission” 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only All Q.25) Consider the following Down’s syndrome Turner syndrome Klinefelter syndrome Which of the above chromosomal disorder is caused by the presence of extra chromosomes? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only All Download the Solution- Click here P.S- Attempt these questions within 20 minutes with full honesty and write your results in the comment box. Next day, come back and check your result. You can also discuss the important concepts and issues, in case of doubts (among peers) All the best IASbaba

Jun 29, 2016 60 Days Plan 2019 - Daily Prelims Test

Very Important: CLARIFICATION on Prelims 60 Days Plan [Day 21 to Day 30]

Hello Friends Thank You for the patience and support. Here in this document we have tried our best to consolidate and clear all the genuine doubts, errors from our side and ambiguity in the questions. There were many other doubts which were rectified by us and peers on the same day. Download the File- Click here  

Jun 28, 2016 60 Days Plan 2019 - Daily Prelims Test

IASbaba '60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 POLITY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 38]

Click here to get all the Tests– Archives   Hello Friends Hope you are enjoying Daily questions. The link for Day 37 solution is active now.  Why we asked you to comment? Now go back to check your answers that you posted with honest effort. Edit your answers with marks. Everyday like this you can self monitor your progress for all 60 days. Accountability to self is the only way for success   IASbaba '60 Day Plan' - Prelims Test 2016 [Day 38]   Q.1) Under Article 352, the President can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by War External aggression Internal disturbance Select the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 1 and 2 only d) All of the above Q.2) Consider the following statements: The Constitution declares Delhi as the seat of the Supreme Court. But, it also authorises the chief justice of India to appoint other place or places as seat of the Supreme Court. The CJI can take decision in this regard only with the approval of the President. This means that Supreme Court can give direction either to the President or to the Chief Justice to appoint any other place as a seat of the Supreme Court. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? a) 3 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) None of the above Q.3) Consider the following statements with regard to Parliamentary Approval of the proclamation of Constitutional Emergency: Once the President proclaims the Constitutional Emergency, it must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within one month from the date of its issue. However, if the proclamation of the Constitutional Emergency is issued at a time when the LS has been dissolved or the dissolution of the LS takes place during the period of one month without approving the proclamation, then the proclamation survives until 30 days from the first sitting of the Lok Sabha after its reconstitution, provided the Rajya Sabha has in the meantime approved it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q.4) When there is a lack of quorum of the permanent judges to hold or continue any session of the Supreme Court The Chief Justice of India can appoint a judge of a High Court as an ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary period The CJI can do so only after consultation with the chief justice of the High Court concerned and with the previous consent of the president Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both d) None Q.5) Which of the following statements is/are true in regard to the Judiciary? India has a single system of courts, adopted from the Government of India Act of 1935 The Parliament is authorized to regulate the jurisdiction, powers, procedures and so on of the Supreme Court Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both d) None Q.6) Consider the following statements: Proclamation of a national emergency by President is not a discretionary power, as he can proclaim only after receiving a written recommendation from the Prime Minister In the Minerva Mills case, the Supreme Court held that the proclamation of a national emergency can be challenged in a court on the ground of malafide or that the declaration was based on wholly extraneous and irrelevant facts or is absurd or perverse Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q.7) Which of the following is not true in regard to the proclamation of Emergency? a) The proclamation of Emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue b) Every resolution approving the proclamation of emergency or its continuance must be passed by either House of Parliament by a special majority c) A proclamation of emergency may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require the parliamentary approval d) Further, the President must revoke a proclamation if the Lok Sabha passes a resolution disapproving its continuation Q.8) A resolution of disapproval is different from a resolution approving the continuation of a proclamation, because: The first one is required to be passed by the Lok Sabha only, while the second one needs to be passed by the both Houses of Parliament. The first one is to be adopted by a simple majority only, while the second one needs to be adopted by a special majority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q.9) Consider the following statements in regard to Supreme Court’s Writ Jurisdiction: The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court with regard to federal disputes is different from its original jurisdiction with regard to disputes relating to fundamental rights In the first case, it is exclusive and in the second case, it is concurrent with high courts jurisdiction Moreover, the parties involved in the first case are units of the federation (Centre and states) while the dispute in the second case is between a citizen and the Government (Central or state) Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) All of the above d) None of the above Q.10) Consider the following statements in regard to the National Emergency: During a national emergency, the executive power of the Centre extends to directing any state regarding the manner in which its executive power is to be exercised. Thus, the state governments are suspended and are brought under the complete control of the Centre. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both d) None Q.11) The expression, “Proclamation of Emergency” as used in the Constitution refers to – a) National Emergency b) State Emergency or Constitutional Emergency c) Financial Emergency d) All of the above Q.12) What happens when a proclamation of national emergency is in operation? The President can issue ordinances on the state subjects also, if the Parliament is not in session The President can either reduce or cancel the transfer of finances from Centre to the states The six Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended However, every such order [in statement (2) and (3)] of the President has to be laid before both the Houses of Parliament Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 only b) 1, 2 and 3 only c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) All of the above Q.13) Which of the following are the eligibility criteria for a person to be appointed as a Supreme Court Judge? The person must be a citizen of India The person must have attained 35 years of age A judge of one high court or more (continuously), for at least five years An advocate in a High Court, for at least ten years A distinguished jurist, in the opinion of the president Select the code from below: a) 3,4 and 5 b) 1,3,4 and 5 c) 1,2 and 3 d) All of the above Q.14)Earlier the judges of the Supreme court were appointed by the President on the Advice of the Union Cabinet. But the Scenario changed after the Second Judges Case of 1993. In the light of Second Judges Case, which of the following statements are correct? Judges are appointed by the President on the recommendation of the Collegium consisting of Chief Justice and four senior most Judges. No Minister, or the executive collectively cannot suggest a name to president. Collegium system was put into Constitution by 44th Select the code from below: a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) All of the above Q.15) Consider the following statements regarding Judiciary during British rule: The Indian High Court Act was passed in 1861 and High Courts were established at Calcutta, Bombay and Madras. The judges in these High Courts were appointed by the Crown. The Indian Penal Code was enacted in the year 1860. Which of the above statements are correct? a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 c) 1 and 3 d) All of the above Q.16) As per Article 143 the President has the power to address questions to the Supreme Court, which he deems important for public welfare. Which of the following statements are correct about advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court? The ‘Advice’ given by the Supreme Court under Article 143 is binding on the President. The Supreme Court may decline to give its opinion under Article 143(1) in cases it does not consider proper or not amenable to such exercise. References made by Supreme Court under Article 143 are binding on the inferior Courts. Select the code from below: a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) All of the above Q.17) Consider the following statements: Family Courts are statutory provisions to secure speedy settlement of disputes related to marriage and family affairs. Family Courts are established by State Governments after consultation with High Courts. Select the correct code from the following: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q.18) Consider the following statements: ‘e-Courts’ is a Mission Mode Project for justice delivery by ICT enablement of Courts. According to the project, all the courts including taluk courts will get computerised. The project also includes producing witnesses through video conferencing. Which of the above statements are correct? a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 c) 2 and 3 d) All of the above Q.19) Consider the following statements regarding the writ jurisdiction of High Courts: The writ jurisdiction of High Court is mentioned under Article 32 of the Indian Constitution. The Supreme Court has wider powers as compared to High Courts in issuing writs. Which of the above statements are incorrect? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q.20) Two or more states can have a common High Court. A common High Court for two or more states and Union Territory may be established by: a) The President b) The Parliament by law c) The State Governments of the Respective states d) The Governors of the respective states Q.21) Consider the following statements and select the incorrect statement/s from the codes given below: Foreign-origin companies can give “donations to political parties” Donations made by such [foreign shareholding] companies to entities including parties will not attract provisions of the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) The Representation of the People Act bars parties from receiving foreign funds Choose the appropriate code: a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 3 only d) None Q.22) Choose the incorrect pair from below: Missile                                     Associated Country a) Dong-Feng 26 (DF 26)                 North Korea b) Guam killer                                     China c) Poseidon                                          US d) Babur                                                Pakistan Q.23) Consider the following statements related to Indian Rhinos Vision 2020: The goal of IRV 2020 is to increase the total rhino population in Assam from 2,000 to 3,000 by the year 2020 Pabitora National Park has the largest number of one horned rhinos in the world Kaziranga National Park has the highest density of rhinos in the world. Translocations of rhinos from source populations in Kaziranga and Pabitora to target areas such as Manas. Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 4 c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 2, 3 and 4 Q.24) Consider the following with regard to Intellectual Property Rights: Every year World Intellectual Property Day (WIPD) is being observed on 26 April It highlights the importance of intellectual property rights (patents, trademarks, industrial designs, copyright) in encouraging innovation and creativity. 2016 Theme: “Digital Creativity: Culture Reimagined“. Choose the correct code a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) All of the above Q.25) Consider the following with regard to Trade Facilitation Agreement: India yet to formally ratify the WTO’s (World Trade Organisation) Trade Facilitation Agreement, which aims at easing customs procedures to boost commerce. The TFA is the WTO’s first-ever multilateral accord that aims to simplify customs regulations for the cross-border movement of goods. It was outcome of WTO’s 9th Bali (Indonesia) ministerial package of 2013. Choose the correct code a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only d) All of the above   Download the Solution- Click here P.S- Attempt these questions within 20 minutes with full honesty and write your results in the comment box. Next day, come back and check your result. You can also discuss the important concepts and issues, in case of doubts (among peers) All the best IASbaba  

Jun 28, 2016 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs – 28th June, 2016

Archives   IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs – 28th June, 2016   NATIONAL   TOPIC:   General Studies 2 Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation. Issues relating to development and management of Social Sector or Services relating to Health, Education, Human Resources.   Healthcare needs to meet Skilled India India’s public health care system is patchy, with underfunded and overcrowded hospitals and clinics, inadequate rural coverage, and a shortage of qualified medical practitioners and personnel. The shortage of qualified medical professionals is one of the key challenges facing the Indian health care industry. India’s ratio of 0.7 doctors and 1.5 nurses per 1,000 people is dramatically lower than the WHO average of 2.5 doctors and nurses per 1,000 people. There is an acute shortage of paramedical and administrative professionals. Excessive concentration of medical professionals in urban areas, which have only 30 percent of India’s population Patients living in rural and semi urban areas receive services from unqualified practitioners The industry needs an additional 1.54 million doctors and 2.4 million nurses to match the global average   Quality over Quantity Quality health care is easily defined as doing the right thing (getting the health care services you need), at the right time (when you need it), in the right way (using the appropriate test or procedure), to achieve the best possible results. Pillars of Quality Healthcare: Safety - patients should not be harmed by the care that is intended to help them Patient-centered - care should be based on individual needs Timely - waits and delays in care should be reduced Effective - care should be evidence-based Efficient - reduce waste Equitable - care should be equal for all people Quality should be a “look in the mirror” incentive— Proper communication and documentation: Right from the registration of patients and discharge of patients Transparency: By properly displaying charges and miscellaneous costs to the patients as well as standardizing outcomes measurement, really emphasizing outcomes over processes, and starting the hard work of measuring real costs No blame-game: Instead of finding faults with others on treatments, they should approach the bodies concerned for remedy. Weak enforcement of regulation is a major impediment in ensuring quality of care and this should be done away with. Measuring quality has to be an inclusive strategy that takes into account various paradigms like— A patient may receive poor-quality care but may recover fully, or a patient may receive high-quality care for a complicated illness (such as cerebral malaria or tuberculosis) and still not recover. Laws: Hospitals and practitioners should have clear understanding on the prevailing laws on medical practices, hospitals and clinics Emotional Labour: Healthcare organizations can do the work more reliably and more effectively by organizing to create “social capital” and by using social network science to spread empathy as a core value Ethical Treatment: The ethical code and the concept of ethical treatment should be kept on a high pedestal by the medical practitioners. Need to upgrade medical education infrastructure— There exists widening demand—supply gap of medical professionals in the country. Medical education infrastructure in the country has witnessed rapid growth during the last 19 years. However, despite this rapid growth, this supply of medical professionals is insufficient to meet the estimated requirement of doctors. The quality of medical education is defined by the availability and quality of teachers. The shortage of teachers is estimated at approximately 30-40 percent in medical colleges There are limited formal teacher training programmes and the absence of a monitoring mechanism for faculty learning; leading to a static medical learning system Solution: Continuous focus on upgrading the quality of existing infrastructure—it therefore requires concerted efforts of the public as well private sector. Capacity Building and Training - Capacity building for formal, informal and continuing education of professional, para-professional and ancillary staff engaged in the delivery of healthcare   Improvement in Skills—the starting point Nursing courses: They can be blended with the flagship scheme ‘Skill India’ training courses to counter the shortage of nursing staff—accessible, affordable and quality training. It is expected that to meet the global average of 2.56 nurses per 1000 population in the coming 15 years India needs to add 1500 nursing colleges. Some steps taken: Establishment of ANM/GNM schools, Up-gradation of institutions from School of Nursing to College of Nursing, Training of Nurses, Development of 11 one year specialisation courses, Revision of curriculum for all nursing programmes Establishment of national PhD consortium for Nursing Research Launch of courses: Nurse practitioner in critical care programme will be a two-year residential M.Sc degree which on completion will make nurses qualified to assume responsibility for the care of critically ill patients Nurse Practitioner in Primary Health care Programme will be a one-year residential Post Graduate diploma programme ‘Live Register’: Accurate data of active and registered nurses will be made available online—helping the Government in better planning, rationalisation and optimum utilisation of manpower, and for making policy level decisions for the nursing professionals in India Stress needs to be laid upon the importance of adequate skill enhancement through appropriate training related to the field of the Indian health care landscape— Introduction of informal education in addition to formal education can provide a holistic and rounded understanding of the various issues Sensitisation towards the laid down protocols in treatment should be initiated and made part of the curriculum Connecting the Dots: Critically analyse the shortcomings in public health policy of India. Give suggestions to overcome the same. Is there a need for an integrated health care information mechanism to exist in India? What will be the importance of such a move, if taken, by the Government?   Refer: Getting Medical Education on track MUST READ Does it pay to open payments banks? Livemint Related Articles: Payment Banks: Banks for the unbanked aam aadmi   Govt moves to constitute monetary policy committee Livemint Related Articles: Time for a “new fiscal framework”   Who wins from Brexit? China Livemint Related Articles: EU referendum: the big questions for Britain BREXIT – Britain’s Exit from EU Brexit—Mind-map UK-EU Deal-Brexit— Mind-map   Why the British said no to Europe Hindu   Picking up the pieces from Seoul Hindu Related Articles: Quest for another Holy Grail – Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) The Big Picture – How important is it for India to be part of NSG? 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