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Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 6th May 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the TestClick Here

[DAY 55] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 Siddhartha mish 2024/05/06 11:55 AM 18 50 % 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question Consider the following statements about the Troposphere: It is thicker at the equator than at the poles. This is the only layer in which all kinds of weather changes occur. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) The troposphere is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere. Its average height is 13 km and extends roughly to a height of 8 km near the poles and about 18 km at the equator. It is thicker at the equator than at the poles because heat is transported to greater heights by strong convectional currents. Hence statement 1 is correct. The air never remains static in this layer. Therefore this layer is called changing sphere or troposphere. This is the only layer in which all kinds of weather changes occur. This is the most important layer for all biological activity. Hence statement 2 is correct.   Incorrect Solution (c) The troposphere is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere. Its average height is 13 km and extends roughly to a height of 8 km near the poles and about 18 km at the equator. It is thicker at the equator than at the poles because heat is transported to greater heights by strong convectional currents. Hence statement 1 is correct. The air never remains static in this layer. Therefore this layer is called changing sphere or troposphere. This is the only layer in which all kinds of weather changes occur. This is the most important layer for all biological activity. Hence statement 2 is correct.   Question 2 of 35 2. Question Consider the following statements: Homosphere extends up to a height of 90 km from sea level. Heterosphere extends from 90 km to 10,000 km. There is a greater variation in the composition of gases in the homosphere. There is no greater variation in the composition of gases in the heterosphere. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Homosphere Heterosphere Homosphere extends up to a height of 90 km from sea level. Heterosphere extends from 90 km to 10,000 km. There is no greater variation in the composition of gases in the homosphere. There is a greater variation in the composition of gases in the heterosphere.   The homosphere contains a higher proportion of heavier gases such as nitrogen and oxygen. The heterosphere contains a higher proportion of lighter gases such as hydrogen and helium. The gases in the homosphere occur in the form of a homogenous mixture. The gases in the heterosphere occur in the form of layers. The gases in the homosphere show a higher reactivity. The gases in the heterosphere show a lower reactivity. Hence option d is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) Homosphere Heterosphere Homosphere extends up to a height of 90 km from sea level. Heterosphere extends from 90 km to 10,000 km. There is no greater variation in the composition of gases in the homosphere. There is a greater variation in the composition of gases in the heterosphere.   The homosphere contains a higher proportion of heavier gases such as nitrogen and oxygen. The heterosphere contains a higher proportion of lighter gases such as hydrogen and helium. The gases in the homosphere occur in the form of a homogenous mixture. The gases in the heterosphere occur in the form of layers. The gases in the homosphere show a higher reactivity. The gases in the heterosphere show a lower reactivity. Hence option d is correct. Question 3 of 35 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Torrid Zone: It receives the maximum amount of sunlight and is the hottest zone among all the other zones. It includes Mexico, Brazil, Sudan, Egypt, Sahara, Libya, Malawi, Zimbabwe, Namibia, United Arab Emirates, and Oman. It covers almost 60% of Earth’s total surface and has a very rich biodiversity, fauna, and flora. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Torrid zone, also known as the Tropical Zone or the Tropics, refers to that area of Earth that is located near the Equator. On the North of the Torrid Zone, there is the Tropic of Cancer, and towards its south is the Tropic of Capricorn. The Torrid zone receives the maximum amount of Sunlight and, therefore, is the hottest zone among all three zones. Hence statement 1 is correct. This zone includes Mexico, Brazil, Sudan, Egypt, Sahara, Libya, Malawi, Zimbabwe, Namibia, United Arab Emirates, Oman, Southern India, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Maldives, some parts of Australia, etc. Hence statement 2 is correct. The Torrid zone covers almost 40% of Earth’s total surface, has a very rich biodiversity, fauna, and flora, and also consists of 40% of the total world population due to its hospitable and viable climatic conditions for human settlement. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (b) The Torrid zone, also known as the Tropical Zone or the Tropics, refers to that area of Earth that is located near the Equator. On the North of the Torrid Zone, there is the Tropic of Cancer, and towards its south is the Tropic of Capricorn. The Torrid zone receives the maximum amount of Sunlight and, therefore, is the hottest zone among all three zones. Hence statement 1 is correct. This zone includes Mexico, Brazil, Sudan, Egypt, Sahara, Libya, Malawi, Zimbabwe, Namibia, United Arab Emirates, Oman, Southern India, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Maldives, some parts of Australia, etc. Hence statement 2 is correct. The Torrid zone covers almost 40% of Earth’s total surface, has a very rich biodiversity, fauna, and flora, and also consists of 40% of the total world population due to its hospitable and viable climatic conditions for human settlement. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Question 4 of 35 4. Question The Karman Line is located in the: a) Troposphere b) Stratosphere c) Thermosphere d) Mesosphere Correct Solution (c) The Karman line is located in the thermosphere at an altitude of 100 km. It is commonly used to define the boundary between the Earth’s atmosphere and outer space. Hence option c is correct.   Incorrect Solution (c) The Karman line is located in the thermosphere at an altitude of 100 km. It is commonly used to define the boundary between the Earth’s atmosphere and outer space. Hence option c is correct.   Question 5 of 35 5. Question Consider the following statements: If the sun’s rays are vertical, the angle of incidence is small hence, they heat up a small area. If the sun’s rays are oblique, the angle of incidence is large hence, they heat up a large area. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (d) The earth is round so the sun’s rays strike the surface at different angles at different places. The angle formed by the sun’s ray with the tangent of the earth’s surface circle at a point is called the angle of incidence. It has the following influences: If the sun’s rays are vertical, the angle of incidence is large hence, they heat up a small area. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. If the sun’s rays are oblique, the angle of incidence is small hence, they heat up a large area. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The sun’s rays with small angles traverse more of the atmosphere than rays striking at a large angle. Note: The longer the path of the sun’s rays, the greater is the amount of reflection and absorption of heat by the atmosphere. Hence the intensity of insolation at a place is less. Incorrect Solution (d) The earth is round so the sun’s rays strike the surface at different angles at different places. The angle formed by the sun’s ray with the tangent of the earth’s surface circle at a point is called the angle of incidence. It has the following influences: If the sun’s rays are vertical, the angle of incidence is large hence, they heat up a small area. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. If the sun’s rays are oblique, the angle of incidence is small hence, they heat up a large area. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The sun’s rays with small angles traverse more of the atmosphere than rays striking at a large angle. Note: The longer the path of the sun’s rays, the greater is the amount of reflection and absorption of heat by the atmosphere. Hence the intensity of insolation at a place is less. Question 6 of 35 6. Question The variations in the length of day and night from season to season is due to the? a) Latitudinal position of the place b) Revolution of the earth on a tilted axis c) Earth’s rotation on its own axis d) None Correct Solution (b) The variations in the length of day and night from season to season is due to the revolution of the earth on a tilted axis. This results in changes in the intensity of the Sun’s rays falling on a given location over the course of a year, resulting in changes in day and night time. Hence option b is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) The variations in the length of day and night from season to season is due to the revolution of the earth on a tilted axis. This results in changes in the intensity of the Sun’s rays falling on a given location over the course of a year, resulting in changes in day and night time. Hence option b is correct. Question 7 of 35 7. Question Consider the following statements regarding the evolution of the Earth’s atmosphere: The hot interior of the earth contributed to the evolution of the atmosphere. The solar winds haven’t played a significant role in the evolution of the atmosphere. The early atmosphere was mainly composed of hydrogen and helium. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) There are three stages in the evolution of the present-day atmosphere. The first stage is marked by the loss of the primordial atmosphere. In the second stage, the hot interior of the earth contributed to the evolution of the atmosphere. Hence statement 1 is correct. In the third stage, the composition of the atmosphere was modified by the living world through the process of photosynthesis. The solar winds have played a significant role in the evolution of the atmosphere by stripping off the early atmosphere. This has happened in all the terrestrial planets which have lost their primordial atmosphere. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The early atmosphere was mainly composed of hydrogen and helium. The present-day atmosphere is chiefly contributed by nitrogen and oxygen. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) There are three stages in the evolution of the present-day atmosphere. The first stage is marked by the loss of the primordial atmosphere. In the second stage, the hot interior of the earth contributed to the evolution of the atmosphere. Hence statement 1 is correct. In the third stage, the composition of the atmosphere was modified by the living world through the process of photosynthesis. The solar winds have played a significant role in the evolution of the atmosphere by stripping off the early atmosphere. This has happened in all the terrestrial planets which have lost their primordial atmosphere. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The early atmosphere was mainly composed of hydrogen and helium. The present-day atmosphere is chiefly contributed by nitrogen and oxygen. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 8 of 35 8. Question Consider the following statements: The Dry Adiabatic Lapse rate is mainly associated with unstable conditions. The Wet Adiabatic Lapse rate is mainly associated with stable conditions. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (d) The Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate (DALR) is the rate of fall in temperature with altitude for a parcel of dry or unsaturated air rising under adiabatic conditions. Unsaturated air has less than 100% relative humidity. When a rising air parcel has little moisture, condensation during upliftment is low, and the latent heat of condensation released is low [Less additional heat from inside]. As a result, the fall in temperature with height is greater compared to the Adiabatic Lapse Rate (normal parcel of air). The dry adiabatic lapse rate for the Earth’s atmosphere equals 8° C per kilometre. The Dry Adiabatic Lapse rate is mainly associated with stable conditions because it has less moisture. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The Wet Adiabatic Lapse Rate is when an air parcel that is saturated with water vapour rises, some of the vapour will condense and release latent heat. This process causes the parcel to cool more slowly than it would if it were not saturated. The moist adiabatic lapse rate varies considerably because the amount of water vapour in the air is highly variable. The greater the amount of vapour, the smaller the adiabatic lapse rate [because the condensation process keeps on adding more latent heat of condensation]. On average, it is taken as 4° C per kilometre. Wet Adiabatic Lapse rate is mainly associated with unstable conditions because it has more moisture. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. As an air parcel rises and cools, it may eventually lose its moisture through condensation; its lapse rate then increases and approaches the dry adiabatic value. Note: Saturated air cannot hold any more moisture. Unsaturated air can accommodate some more moisture.   Incorrect Solution (d) The Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate (DALR) is the rate of fall in temperature with altitude for a parcel of dry or unsaturated air rising under adiabatic conditions. Unsaturated air has less than 100% relative humidity. When a rising air parcel has little moisture, condensation during upliftment is low, and the latent heat of condensation released is low [Less additional heat from inside]. As a result, the fall in temperature with height is greater compared to the Adiabatic Lapse Rate (normal parcel of air). The dry adiabatic lapse rate for the Earth’s atmosphere equals 8° C per kilometre. The Dry Adiabatic Lapse rate is mainly associated with stable conditions because it has less moisture. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The Wet Adiabatic Lapse Rate is when an air parcel that is saturated with water vapour rises, some of the vapour will condense and release latent heat. This process causes the parcel to cool more slowly than it would if it were not saturated. The moist adiabatic lapse rate varies considerably because the amount of water vapour in the air is highly variable. The greater the amount of vapour, the smaller the adiabatic lapse rate [because the condensation process keeps on adding more latent heat of condensation]. On average, it is taken as 4° C per kilometre. Wet Adiabatic Lapse rate is mainly associated with unstable conditions because it has more moisture. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. As an air parcel rises and cools, it may eventually lose its moisture through condensation; its lapse rate then increases and approaches the dry adiabatic value. Note: Saturated air cannot hold any more moisture. Unsaturated air can accommodate some more moisture.   Question 9 of 35 9. Question Which of the following factors affect the Pattern of Planetary Winds? The Rotation of the Earth The Emergence of Pressure Belts The Latitudinal Variation of Atmospheric Heating The Distribution of Continents and Oceans Choose the correct code: a) 2, 3 and 4 b) 1, 3 and 4 c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution (d) The pattern of the movement of the planetary winds is called the general circulation of the atmosphere. It also sets influences the ocean water circulation which influences the earth’s climate. The factors that affect the Pattern of Planetary Winds: The Rotation of the Earth The Emergence of Pressure Belts The Latitudinal Variation of Atmospheric Heating The Distribution of Continents and Oceans The Migration of Belts Following the apparent path of the Sun Hence option d is correct. Incorrect Solution (d) The pattern of the movement of the planetary winds is called the general circulation of the atmosphere. It also sets influences the ocean water circulation which influences the earth’s climate. The factors that affect the Pattern of Planetary Winds: The Rotation of the Earth The Emergence of Pressure Belts The Latitudinal Variation of Atmospheric Heating The Distribution of Continents and Oceans The Migration of Belts Following the apparent path of the Sun Hence option d is correct. Question 10 of 35 10. Question Consider the following statements: Water vapour does not play a major role in atmospheric thermodynamics. The amount of water vapour is measured by an instrument called Hygrometer. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Water vapour is crucial to the thermal radiation balance and the hydrological cycle. It is a key component in atmospheric thermodynamics because it transfers latent heat, and contributes to absorption and emission in a range of groups. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It condenses into clouds that reflect and absorb solar radiation, affecting the energy balance directly. The amount of water vapour is measured by an instrument called Hygrometer. Hence statement 2 is correct.   Note: Water vapour in the air varies from zero to four per cent by volume of the atmosphere (averaging around 2% in the atmosphere).   Incorrect Solution (b) Water vapour is crucial to the thermal radiation balance and the hydrological cycle. It is a key component in atmospheric thermodynamics because it transfers latent heat, and contributes to absorption and emission in a range of groups. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It condenses into clouds that reflect and absorb solar radiation, affecting the energy balance directly. The amount of water vapour is measured by an instrument called Hygrometer. Hence statement 2 is correct.   Note: Water vapour in the air varies from zero to four per cent by volume of the atmosphere (averaging around 2% in the atmosphere).   Question 11 of 35 11. Question Consider the following statements: Evaporation is a process by which water is converted from liquid to gas. The latent heat of vaporization is called the temperature at which the water starts to evaporate. The greater the motion of the air, the lesser the evaporation. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Evaporation is a process by which water is converted from liquid to gas. Hence statement 1 is correct. Temperature is the main cause of evaporation. The latent heat of vaporization is called the temperature at which the water starts to evaporate. Hence statement 2 is correct. The rise in temperature increases the absorption of water and the concentration of air in the parcel. Air movement replaces an unsaturated layer with a saturated layer. The greater the motion of the air, the greater the evaporation. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (b) Evaporation is a process by which water is converted from liquid to gas. Hence statement 1 is correct. Temperature is the main cause of evaporation. The latent heat of vaporization is called the temperature at which the water starts to evaporate. Hence statement 2 is correct. The rise in temperature increases the absorption of water and the concentration of air in the parcel. Air movement replaces an unsaturated layer with a saturated layer. The greater the motion of the air, the greater the evaporation. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Question 12 of 35 12. Question Consider the following statements regarding Frost: It forms only on warm surfaces when condensation takes place below the freezing point. In this, the excess moisture is deposited in the form of minute ice crystals. The air temperature must be at or below the freezing point to form frost. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) It forms on cold surfaces when condensation takes place below the freezing point (0° C), i.e. the dew point is at or below the freezing point. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The excess moisture is deposited in the form of minute ice crystals instead of water droplets. Hence statement 2 is correct. The air temperature must be at or below the freezing point to form frost. Hence statement 3 is correct. The other conditions for its formation are a clear sky, calm air, high relative humidity, and cold and long nights. Incorrect Solution (b) It forms on cold surfaces when condensation takes place below the freezing point (0° C), i.e. the dew point is at or below the freezing point. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The excess moisture is deposited in the form of minute ice crystals instead of water droplets. Hence statement 2 is correct. The air temperature must be at or below the freezing point to form frost. Hence statement 3 is correct. The other conditions for its formation are a clear sky, calm air, high relative humidity, and cold and long nights. Question 13 of 35 13. Question Consider the following statements: Fog is defined as the thick layer of cloud composed of small droplets of water suspended in the air. Mist is defined as the layer of cloud that is created due to volcanic activities. The density of mist is always thick as compared to fog. Fog last for a longer period while mist lasts for a shorter period. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) Fog is defined as the thick layer of cloud, that appears at the surface level and is a composition of small droplets of water suspended in the air. Hence statement 1 is correct. Mist is defined as the layer of cloud, that is created due to volcanic activities, and changes in the level of temperature and humidity. Hence statement 2 is correct. The density of fog is always thick as compared to mist. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Fog last for a longer period while mist lasts for a shorter period. Hence statement 4 is correct. Fog is visible for less than one kilometre. Mist is visible between one to two kilometres.   Incorrect Solution (c) Fog is defined as the thick layer of cloud, that appears at the surface level and is a composition of small droplets of water suspended in the air. Hence statement 1 is correct. Mist is defined as the layer of cloud, that is created due to volcanic activities, and changes in the level of temperature and humidity. Hence statement 2 is correct. The density of fog is always thick as compared to mist. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Fog last for a longer period while mist lasts for a shorter period. Hence statement 4 is correct. Fog is visible for less than one kilometre. Mist is visible between one to two kilometres.   Question 14 of 35 14. Question Consider the following statements about Lightning: It is a very rapid and massive discharge of electricity into the atmosphere. It is a result of the difference in electrical charge between the top and bottom of a cloud. The lightning-generating clouds base about 100-200 km from the Earth’s surface. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Lightning is a very rapid and massive discharge of electricity into the atmosphere. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is the process of occurrence of a natural electrical discharge of very short duration and high voltage between a cloud and the ground or within a cloud, accompanied by a bright flash and sound, and sometimes thunderstorms. It is a result of the difference in electrical charge between the top and bottom of a cloud. Hence statement 2 is correct. The lightning-generating clouds are typically about 10-12 km in height, with their base about 1-2 km from the Earth’s surface. The temperatures at the top range from -35°C to -45°C. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Note: Intercloud or intra-cloud (IC) lightning is visible and harmless. Cloud-to-ground (CG) lightning is harmful as the ‘high electric voltage and electric current’ leads to electrocution. Incorrect Solution (b) Lightning is a very rapid and massive discharge of electricity into the atmosphere. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is the process of occurrence of a natural electrical discharge of very short duration and high voltage between a cloud and the ground or within a cloud, accompanied by a bright flash and sound, and sometimes thunderstorms. It is a result of the difference in electrical charge between the top and bottom of a cloud. Hence statement 2 is correct. The lightning-generating clouds are typically about 10-12 km in height, with their base about 1-2 km from the Earth’s surface. The temperatures at the top range from -35°C to -45°C. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Note: Intercloud or intra-cloud (IC) lightning is visible and harmless. Cloud-to-ground (CG) lightning is harmful as the ‘high electric voltage and electric current’ leads to electrocution. Question 15 of 35 15. Question Which of the following conditions leads to Hailstorm formation? Highly developed cumulonimbus clouds Strong air currents descending through these clouds Clouds with high concentrations of supercooled liquid water How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Hail is a type of solid rain made up of balls or lumps of ice. Storms that produce hail which reaches the ground are known as hailstorms. The conditions that lead to Hailstorms: Highly developed Cumulonimbus clouds need to be present. These are the massive anvil or mushroom-shaped clouds that are seen during thunderstorms which can reach heights up to 65,000 feet. Hence statement 1 is correct. There must be strong currents of air ascending through these clouds. These currents are commonly known as updrafts. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The clouds will need to contain high concentrations of supercooled liquid water. Hence statement 3 is correct.   Incorrect Solution (b) Hail is a type of solid rain made up of balls or lumps of ice. Storms that produce hail which reaches the ground are known as hailstorms. The conditions that lead to Hailstorms: Highly developed Cumulonimbus clouds need to be present. These are the massive anvil or mushroom-shaped clouds that are seen during thunderstorms which can reach heights up to 65,000 feet. Hence statement 1 is correct. There must be strong currents of air ascending through these clouds. These currents are commonly known as updrafts. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The clouds will need to contain high concentrations of supercooled liquid water. Hence statement 3 is correct.   Question 16 of 35 16. Question Consider the following statements: The fairweather waterspout is formed along the dark flat base of the embryonic column of the cloud. The tornadic waterspout is formed when air moves across the steam that comes from the extremely cold water. The winter waterspout is formed over water or moves from land to water. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) The fairweather waterspout is generally formed along the dark flat base of the embryonic column of the cloud. It is not so intense because it develops on the surface of the water and moves upwards. Hence statement 1 is correct. The tornadic waterspout is formed over water or moves from land to water. It is very intense because it is accompanied by high winds and seas, large hail, and frequent dangerous lightning. It is associated with thunderstorms. It forms as a vertical shape of a coiled column of mist and air from severe thunderstorm clouds to a water body. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The winter waterspout is formed when air moves across the steam that comes from the extremely cold water. It is also known as a snow devil, an ice spout, an ice devil, a snownado, or a snowspout. This type of waterspout formation is very rare, especially under the base of a snow squall. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (a) The fairweather waterspout is generally formed along the dark flat base of the embryonic column of the cloud. It is not so intense because it develops on the surface of the water and moves upwards. Hence statement 1 is correct. The tornadic waterspout is formed over water or moves from land to water. It is very intense because it is accompanied by high winds and seas, large hail, and frequent dangerous lightning. It is associated with thunderstorms. It forms as a vertical shape of a coiled column of mist and air from severe thunderstorm clouds to a water body. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The winter waterspout is formed when air moves across the steam that comes from the extremely cold water. It is also known as a snow devil, an ice spout, an ice devil, a snownado, or a snowspout. This type of waterspout formation is very rare, especially under the base of a snow squall. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Question 17 of 35 17. Question Consider the following statements about Squall: It is the downward movement and divergence of cold air at the ground surface. It is produced after the thunderstorm becomes mature and heavy precipitation occurs. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Squall is the downward movement and divergence of cold air at the ground surface. Hence statement 1 is correct. The velocity of squalls is equal to and sometimes greater than hurricane velocity and hence they inflict great damage to human structures and vegetation. It is produced after the thunderstorm becomes mature and heavy precipitation occurs. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) Squall is the downward movement and divergence of cold air at the ground surface. Hence statement 1 is correct. The velocity of squalls is equal to and sometimes greater than hurricane velocity and hence they inflict great damage to human structures and vegetation. It is produced after the thunderstorm becomes mature and heavy precipitation occurs. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 18 of 35 18. Question Consider the following statements: The dust particles in the atmosphere cannot be transported to greater heights due to convectional air currents. The higher concentration of dust particles is found in the sub-tropical and temperate regions. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) The dust particles in the atmosphere can be transported to greater heights due to convectional air currents. In general, the dust particles are mainly concentrated in the lower layers of the atmosphere. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The higher concentration of dust particles is found in the sub-tropical and temperate regions. It is because this region has dry winds when compared to equatorial and polar regions. Hence statement 2 is correct. Note: Dust and salt particles act as hygroscopic nuclei around which water vapour condenses to produce clouds.   Incorrect Solution (b) The dust particles in the atmosphere can be transported to greater heights due to convectional air currents. In general, the dust particles are mainly concentrated in the lower layers of the atmosphere. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The higher concentration of dust particles is found in the sub-tropical and temperate regions. It is because this region has dry winds when compared to equatorial and polar regions. Hence statement 2 is correct. Note: Dust and salt particles act as hygroscopic nuclei around which water vapour condenses to produce clouds.   Question 19 of 35 19. Question Consider the following statements about Westerlies: They blow from subtropical high-pressure belts to subpolar low-pressure belts. They blow from the northwest to the southeast in the northern hemisphere. The westerlies in the southern hemisphere are stronger than the northern hemisphere. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Westerlies are winds that move from subtropical high-pressure belts to subpolar low-pressure belts. Hence statement 1 is correct. They blow from the southwest to the northeast in the northern hemisphere, and from the northwest to the southeast in the southern hemisphere. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The westerlies in the southern hemisphere are stronger and more persistent due to the great expanse of the ocean, but those in the northern hemisphere are irregular due to uneven relief of vast landmasses. Hence statement 3 is correct.   Incorrect Solution (b) The Westerlies are winds that move from subtropical high-pressure belts to subpolar low-pressure belts. Hence statement 1 is correct. They blow from the southwest to the northeast in the northern hemisphere, and from the northwest to the southeast in the southern hemisphere. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The westerlies in the southern hemisphere are stronger and more persistent due to the great expanse of the ocean, but those in the northern hemisphere are irregular due to uneven relief of vast landmasses. Hence statement 3 is correct.   Question 20 of 35 20. Question Consider the following statements about Types of Thunderstorms: Convectional Thunderstorms are caused by the intense heating of the ground during summer. Frontal Thunderstorms are caused at cold fronts by the movements of air masses. Orographic Thunderstorms are caused when warm moist air parcels are forced uplifted as they travel over a mountain barrier. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Convectional Thunderstorms are caused by the intense heating of the ground during summer. It is also known as a thermal thunderstorm. Hence statement 1 is correct. Frontal Thunderstorms are caused at cold fronts by the movements of air masses. The colder, denser air pushes beneath the warm front’s warmer air, raising it. Thermal thunderstorms cover a bigger region, whereas frontal thunderstorms are less intense. Hence statement 2 is correct. Orographic Thunderstorms are caused when warm moist air parcels are forced uplifted as they travel over a mountain barrier, bringing heavy precipitation on the windward side. It is associated with Cumulonimbus Clouds. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) Convectional Thunderstorms are caused by the intense heating of the ground during summer. It is also known as a thermal thunderstorm. Hence statement 1 is correct. Frontal Thunderstorms are caused at cold fronts by the movements of air masses. The colder, denser air pushes beneath the warm front’s warmer air, raising it. Thermal thunderstorms cover a bigger region, whereas frontal thunderstorms are less intense. Hence statement 2 is correct. Orographic Thunderstorms are caused when warm moist air parcels are forced uplifted as they travel over a mountain barrier, bringing heavy precipitation on the windward side. It is associated with Cumulonimbus Clouds. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 21 of 35 21. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) It exercises jurisdiction only in relation to the service matters of the parties covered by the Administrative Tribunals Act 1985. It adjudicates disputes and complaints with respect to the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services. The conditions of service of the chairman and members of CAT are the same as applicable to a Judge of the High Court. The salaries, allowances, and conditions of service of the officers and other employees of the Tribunal are specified by the Central Government. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) exercises jurisdiction only in relation to the service matters of the parties covered by the Administrative Tribunals Act 1985. Hence statement 1 is correct. It had been established under Article 323-A of the Constitution. It adjudicates disputes and complaints with respect to the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services. Hence statement 2 is correct. In addition to the Ministries and Departments of Central Government, the Government has notified about 214 organizations under Section 14(2) of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, to bring them within the jurisdiction of the CAT from time to time. A bench consists of one Judicial Member and one Administrative Member. The conditions of service of the chairman and members of CAT are the same as applicable to a Judge of the High Court. Hence statement 3 is correct. The Tribunal is guided by the principles of natural justice in deciding cases and is not bound by the procedure prescribed by the Civil Procedure Code. CAT is empowered to frame its own rules of procedure and practice. It has been conferred with the power to exercise the same jurisdiction and authority in respect of contempt of itself as a High Court. The salaries, allowances, and conditions of service of the officers and other employees of the Tribunal are specified by the Central Government. Hence statement 4 is correct. Incorrect Solution (d) The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) exercises jurisdiction only in relation to the service matters of the parties covered by the Administrative Tribunals Act 1985. Hence statement 1 is correct. It had been established under Article 323-A of the Constitution. It adjudicates disputes and complaints with respect to the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services. Hence statement 2 is correct. In addition to the Ministries and Departments of Central Government, the Government has notified about 214 organizations under Section 14(2) of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, to bring them within the jurisdiction of the CAT from time to time. A bench consists of one Judicial Member and one Administrative Member. The conditions of service of the chairman and members of CAT are the same as applicable to a Judge of the High Court. Hence statement 3 is correct. The Tribunal is guided by the principles of natural justice in deciding cases and is not bound by the procedure prescribed by the Civil Procedure Code. CAT is empowered to frame its own rules of procedure and practice. It has been conferred with the power to exercise the same jurisdiction and authority in respect of contempt of itself as a High Court. The salaries, allowances, and conditions of service of the officers and other employees of the Tribunal are specified by the Central Government. Hence statement 4 is correct. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Red Sea It is bordered by Saudi Arabia to the north and west and by Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti to the west. Its northern portion is bifurcated by the Sinai Peninsula into the Gulf of Aqaba and the Gulf of Suez. It is connected to the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean to the south through the Gulf of Aden and Strait of Bab El-Mandeb. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Red Sea is bordered by Egypt to the north and west and by Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti to the west. It is bordered by Yemen and Saudi Arabia to the east. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is a semi-enclosed inlet (or extension) of the Indian Ocean between the continents of Africa and Asia. Its northern portion is bifurcated by the Sinai Peninsula into the Gulf of Aqaba and the Gulf of Suez. Hence statement 2 is correct. Some well-known islands include Tiran Island, which is located near the mouth of the Gulf of Aqaba, and Shadwan Island, which is located at the entrance of the Gulf of Suez. With its connection to the Mediterranean Sea via the Suez Canal, it is one of the most heavily travelled waterways in the world, carrying maritime traffic between Europe and Asia. It is connected to the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean to the south through the Gulf of Aden and Strait of Bab El-Mandeb. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) The Red Sea is bordered by Egypt to the north and west and by Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti to the west. It is bordered by Yemen and Saudi Arabia to the east. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is a semi-enclosed inlet (or extension) of the Indian Ocean between the continents of Africa and Asia. Its northern portion is bifurcated by the Sinai Peninsula into the Gulf of Aqaba and the Gulf of Suez. Hence statement 2 is correct. Some well-known islands include Tiran Island, which is located near the mouth of the Gulf of Aqaba, and Shadwan Island, which is located at the entrance of the Gulf of Suez. With its connection to the Mediterranean Sea via the Suez Canal, it is one of the most heavily travelled waterways in the world, carrying maritime traffic between Europe and Asia. It is connected to the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean to the south through the Gulf of Aden and Strait of Bab El-Mandeb. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 23 of 35 23. Question Consider the following statements regarding Caracal It is primarily a nocturnal animal. It is found in Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Madhya Pradesh. It lives in tropical wet evergreen forests. It is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) Caracal is primarily a nocturnal animal. Hence statement 1 is correct. In India, it is called siya gosh, a Persian name that translates as ‘black ear’. They typically use abandoned porcupine burrows and rock crevices for maternal dens but can be found with their young in dense vegetation. It is found in Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Madhya Pradesh, the Malwa Plateau, the Aravalli hill range, and the Bundelkhand region. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is found in Africa, the Middle East, and Central and South Asia. It lives in woodlands, savannahs, and in scrub forests. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Large-scale hunting, illegal trading, and loss of natural habitats are considered significant threats to the species. It is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Hence statement 4 is correct.   Incorrect Solution (c) Caracal is primarily a nocturnal animal. Hence statement 1 is correct. In India, it is called siya gosh, a Persian name that translates as ‘black ear’. They typically use abandoned porcupine burrows and rock crevices for maternal dens but can be found with their young in dense vegetation. It is found in Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Madhya Pradesh, the Malwa Plateau, the Aravalli hill range, and the Bundelkhand region. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is found in Africa, the Middle East, and Central and South Asia. It lives in woodlands, savannahs, and in scrub forests. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Large-scale hunting, illegal trading, and loss of natural habitats are considered significant threats to the species. It is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Hence statement 4 is correct.   Question 24 of 35 24. Question Which of the following reports are published by the International Energy Agency? World Energy Outlook World Energy Investment Report India Energy Outlook Report Coal Market Report Choose the correct code: a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) Reports published by the International Energy Agency (IEA): World Energy Outlook World Energy Investment Report India Energy Outlook Report Coal Market Report Hence option d is correct. Note: IEA is an autonomous inter-governmental organisation within the OECD framework. It works with governments and industry to shape a secure and sustainable energy future for all. It was founded in 1974 to ensure the security of oil supplies. Clean Energy Transitions Programme is the IEA’s flagship initiativelaunched in 2017 to accelerate progress toward a global net-zero energy system. It leverages the insights and influence of the world’s leading energy authority to accelerate clean energy transitions, particularly in emerging and developing economies. Incorrect Solution (d) Reports published by the International Energy Agency (IEA): World Energy Outlook World Energy Investment Report India Energy Outlook Report Coal Market Report Hence option d is correct. Note: IEA is an autonomous inter-governmental organisation within the OECD framework. It works with governments and industry to shape a secure and sustainable energy future for all. It was founded in 1974 to ensure the security of oil supplies. Clean Energy Transitions Programme is the IEA’s flagship initiativelaunched in 2017 to accelerate progress toward a global net-zero energy system. It leverages the insights and influence of the world’s leading energy authority to accelerate clean energy transitions, particularly in emerging and developing economies. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements regarding SCORES  It is a web-based centralized grievance redress system of the Reserve Bank of India. It enables investors to lodge and follow up on their complaints and track the status of redressal of such complaints online from anywhere. It enables market intermediaries and listed companies to receive complaints online from investors. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) SEBI Complaint Redress System (SCORES) is a web-based centralized grievance redress system of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It enables investors to lodge and follow up on their complaints and track the status of redressal of such complaints online from anywhere. Hence statement 2 is correct. An investor who is not familiar with SCORES or does not have access to SCORES can lodge complaints in physical form at any of the offices of SEBI. Such complaints would be scanned and also uploaded in SCORES for processing. It enables market intermediaries and listed companies to receive complaints online from investors. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) SEBI Complaint Redress System (SCORES) is a web-based centralized grievance redress system of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It enables investors to lodge and follow up on their complaints and track the status of redressal of such complaints online from anywhere. Hence statement 2 is correct. An investor who is not familiar with SCORES or does not have access to SCORES can lodge complaints in physical form at any of the offices of SEBI. Such complaints would be scanned and also uploaded in SCORES for processing. It enables market intermediaries and listed companies to receive complaints online from investors. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 26 of 35 26. Question Consider the following statements regarding Organic Electrochemical Transistors They have low power consumption, high driving voltages, and a limited structure. They can be used to create biosensors, wearable devices, and neuromorphic systems. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Organic Electrochemical Transistors are an emerging class of transistors based on organic superconducting materialsknown for their ability to modulate electrical current in response to small changes in the voltage applied to their gate electrode. It is a device capable of simultaneously controlling the flow of electronic and ionic currents. They have promising amplification and sensing capabilities, low power consumption, low driving voltages, and a versatile structure. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. They can be used to create biosensors, wearable devices, and neuromorphic systems. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) Organic Electrochemical Transistors are an emerging class of transistors based on organic superconducting materialsknown for their ability to modulate electrical current in response to small changes in the voltage applied to their gate electrode. It is a device capable of simultaneously controlling the flow of electronic and ionic currents. They have promising amplification and sensing capabilities, low power consumption, low driving voltages, and a versatile structure. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. They can be used to create biosensors, wearable devices, and neuromorphic systems. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements regarding Zero FIR It was introduced on the recommendation of the Justice Verma Committee. It refers to a First Investigation Report (FIR) that is registered irrespective of the area where the offense is committed. The police in such a case can no longer claim that they have no jurisdiction. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Zero FIR was introduced on the recommendation of the Justice Verma Committee. Hence statement 1 is correct. It was formed at the backdrop of the brutal Nirbhaya gang rape in Delhi in 2012. It refers to a First Investigation Report (FIR) that is registered irrespective of the area where the offense is committed. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is later transferred to the police station that has the actual jurisdiction so that the investigation can begin. The police in such a case can no longer claim that they have no jurisdiction. Hence statement 3 is correct. This puts a legal obligation on the police to begin an investigation and take quick action without the excuse of the absence of jurisdiction. It aims to ensure the victim doesn’t have to run from pillar to post to get a police complaint registered. The provision is meant to provide speedy redressal to the victim so that timely action can be taken after the filing of the FIR. Incorrect Solution (c) Zero FIR was introduced on the recommendation of the Justice Verma Committee. Hence statement 1 is correct. It was formed at the backdrop of the brutal Nirbhaya gang rape in Delhi in 2012. It refers to a First Investigation Report (FIR) that is registered irrespective of the area where the offense is committed. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is later transferred to the police station that has the actual jurisdiction so that the investigation can begin. The police in such a case can no longer claim that they have no jurisdiction. Hence statement 3 is correct. This puts a legal obligation on the police to begin an investigation and take quick action without the excuse of the absence of jurisdiction. It aims to ensure the victim doesn’t have to run from pillar to post to get a police complaint registered. The provision is meant to provide speedy redressal to the victim so that timely action can be taken after the filing of the FIR. Question 28 of 35 28. Question Consider the following statements regarding Lalit Kala Akademi It is registered under the Societies Registration Act of 1860. It has preserved and documented a permanent collection of contemporary, modern, folk, and tribal art in India. It is funded by the Ministry of Culture. It organizes the National Exhibition of Art every year. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (d) Lalit Kala Akademi is registered under the Societies Registration Act of 1860. Hence statement 1 is correct. It was inaugurated on 5th August 1954 by the then Minister for Education, Maulana Abul Kalam Azad. It is India’s national academy of fine arts established by the Government of India to promote and propagate understanding of Indian art, in and outside the country. It has preserved and documented a permanent collection of contemporary, modern, folk, and tribal art in India. Hence statement 2 is correct. It promotes the Visual Art of India in various countries of the world through Cultural Agreements and Cultural Exchange Programmes. It is funded by the Ministry of Culture. Hence statement 3 is correct. It has regional centres situated at Chennai, Lucknow, Kolkata, Bhubaneswar, and Garhi. It is headquartered in New Delhi. It organizes the National Exhibition of Art every year. Hence statement 4 is correct. Incorrect Solution (d) Lalit Kala Akademi is registered under the Societies Registration Act of 1860. Hence statement 1 is correct. It was inaugurated on 5th August 1954 by the then Minister for Education, Maulana Abul Kalam Azad. It is India’s national academy of fine arts established by the Government of India to promote and propagate understanding of Indian art, in and outside the country. It has preserved and documented a permanent collection of contemporary, modern, folk, and tribal art in India. Hence statement 2 is correct. It promotes the Visual Art of India in various countries of the world through Cultural Agreements and Cultural Exchange Programmes. It is funded by the Ministry of Culture. Hence statement 3 is correct. It has regional centres situated at Chennai, Lucknow, Kolkata, Bhubaneswar, and Garhi. It is headquartered in New Delhi. It organizes the National Exhibition of Art every year. Hence statement 4 is correct. Question 29 of 35 29. Question Recently, in the news, Punnett Square is related to a) Cyber Security b) Genetic Engineering c) Space Technology d) None Correct Solution (b) Punnett Square is related to Genetic Engineering. The Punnett Square is named after British geneticist Reginald Punnett. Punnett Squares are commonly used in biology to understand inheritance patterns, like when you learn about dominant and recessive genes in school. It is a useful tool that helps predict the variations and probabilities resulting from cross-breeding. It can also be used to understand the genetic traits in the offspring of animals, including humans. Hence option b is correct.   Incorrect Solution (b) Punnett Square is related to Genetic Engineering. The Punnett Square is named after British geneticist Reginald Punnett. Punnett Squares are commonly used in biology to understand inheritance patterns, like when you learn about dominant and recessive genes in school. It is a useful tool that helps predict the variations and probabilities resulting from cross-breeding. It can also be used to understand the genetic traits in the offspring of animals, including humans. Hence option b is correct.   Question 30 of 35 30. Question Consider the following pairs Moon Planet 1.     Callisto Jupiter 2.     Phobos Mars 3.     Miranda Saturn 4.     Enceladus Uranus How many given pairs are correctly matched? a) One pair b) Two pairs c) Three pairs d) Four pairs Correct Solution (b) Moon Planet 1.     Callisto Jupiter 2.     Phobos Mars 3.     Miranda Uranus 4.     Enceladus Saturn Hence option b is correct. Moons of Jupiter: Ganymede, Europa, and Lo. Moons of Mars:  Deimos Moons of Saturn: Titan, Hyperion, Prometheus, Pandora, Mimas, and Telesto. Moons of Uranus: Ariel, Umbriel, and Titania. Moons of Neptune: Despina, Halimede, Larissa, and Proteus. Incorrect Solution (b) Moon Planet 1.     Callisto Jupiter 2.     Phobos Mars 3.     Miranda Uranus 4.     Enceladus Saturn Hence option b is correct. Moons of Jupiter: Ganymede, Europa, and Lo. Moons of Mars:  Deimos Moons of Saturn: Titan, Hyperion, Prometheus, Pandora, Mimas, and Telesto. Moons of Uranus: Ariel, Umbriel, and Titania. Moons of Neptune: Despina, Halimede, Larissa, and Proteus. Question 31 of 35 31. Question How many times are the hands of a clock at right angle in a day? a) 22 b) 24 c) 44 d) 48 Correct Solution (c) In 12 hours, they are at right angles 22 times. ∴ In 24 hours, they are at right angles 44 times. Incorrect Solution (c) In 12 hours, they are at right angles 22 times. ∴ In 24 hours, they are at right angles 44 times. Question 32 of 35 32. Question Rahul wants to go to railway station and then return to his home on the same day. He has to change the bus at city-bus terminal between his home and railway station. There are five buses available from his home to city-bus terminal and four buses are available from city-bus terminal to railway station. If Rahul does not want to use a bus more than once, in how many ways can he make the round trip? a) 100 b) 144 c) 120 d) 240 Correct Solution (d) Number of ways he can go to railway station from his home = 5 × 4 = 20 On returning, if he doesn’t take the same bus then, Number of buses from railway station to city-bus terminal = 3 buses Number of buses from city-bus terminal to his home = 4 buses Number of ways he can go to his home from railway station = 3 × 4 = 12 For round trip, number of ways = 20 × 12 = 240 Incorrect Solution (d) Number of ways he can go to railway station from his home = 5 × 4 = 20 On returning, if he doesn’t take the same bus then, Number of buses from railway station to city-bus terminal = 3 buses Number of buses from city-bus terminal to his home = 4 buses Number of ways he can go to his home from railway station = 3 × 4 = 12 For round trip, number of ways = 20 × 12 = 240 Question 33 of 35 33. Question A pizza vendor sells a large pizza for Rs. 120 and small pizza for Rs. 85. In a day, he sells total 190 pizzas and earns Rs. 18,775. How many small pizzas does he sell that day? a) 115 b) 120 c) 105 d) 110 Correct Solution (a) Let the number of small pizzas be x and number of large pizzas be y. ∴ x + y = 190 … (i) Also: 85x + 120y = 18775 … (ii) Solving (i) and (ii): y = 75 and x = 115 Hence, he sells 115 small pizzas. Hence, option a. Incorrect Solution (a) Let the number of small pizzas be x and number of large pizzas be y. ∴ x + y = 190 … (i) Also: 85x + 120y = 18775 … (ii) Solving (i) and (ii): y = 75 and x = 115 Hence, he sells 115 small pizzas. Hence, option a. Question 34 of 35 34. Question A watch, which loses time uniformly, was observed to be 5 minutes fast at 8.00 p.m. on Thursday. It was noticed to be 7 minutes slow at 8.00 a.m. on the subsequent Monday. When did the watch show the correct time?   a) 7 a.m. Saturday b) 7 a.m. on Friday c) 10 a.m. on Sunday d) 11 a.m. on Friday Correct Solution (a) The number of hours from 8:00 p.m. on Thursday to 8:00 a.m. on Monday = 84 hours. In 84 hours, the clock gained 12 minutes. But to show the correct time, the clock has to gain 5 minutes. :. 5/12 *84 = 35 hours. 35 hours from 8:00 p.m. on Thursday is 7:00 a.m. on Saturday. Incorrect Solution (a) The number of hours from 8:00 p.m. on Thursday to 8:00 a.m. on Monday = 84 hours. In 84 hours, the clock gained 12 minutes. But to show the correct time, the clock has to gain 5 minutes. :. 5/12 *84 = 35 hours. 35 hours from 8:00 p.m. on Thursday is 7:00 a.m. on Saturday. Question 35 of 35 35. Question The cost of a half ticket for a fun-fair was Rs. 15 and the cost of a full ticket was Rs. 25. If 500 people visited the fun-fair on a certain day and the total revenue earned by selling only tickets was Rs. 10200, how many half tickets were sold that day? a) 230 b) 250 c) 260 d) 220 Correct Solution (a) Let the number of half tickets sold be x and no. of full tickets sold be y. ∴ x + y = 500 … (i) and 15x + 25y = 10200 … (ii) Solving (i) and (ii), we get x = 230 and y = 270 Hence, 230 half-tickets were sold. Incorrect Solution (a) Let the number of half tickets sold be x and no. of full tickets sold be y. ∴ x + y = 500 … (i) and 15x + 25y = 10200 … (ii) Solving (i) and (ii), we get x = 230 and y = 270 Hence, 230 half-tickets were sold. window.wpProQuizInitList = window.wpProQuizInitList || []; window.wpProQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpProQuiz_3710', init: { quizId: 3710, mode: 1, globalPoints: 70, timelimit: 1800, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 704, qpp: 0, catPoints: [70], formPos: 0, lbn: "Test-summary", json: {"33642":{"type":"single","id":33642,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33644":{"type":"single","id":33644,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33646":{"type":"single","id":33646,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33649":{"type":"single","id":33649,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33650":{"type":"single","id":33650,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33653":{"type":"single","id":33653,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33655":{"type":"single","id":33655,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33657":{"type":"single","id":33657,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33658":{"type":"single","id":33658,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33661":{"type":"single","id":33661,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33663":{"type":"single","id":33663,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33664":{"type":"single","id":33664,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33666":{"type":"single","id":33666,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33668":{"type":"single","id":33668,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33671":{"type":"single","id":33671,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33674":{"type":"single","id":33674,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"33677":{"type":"single","id":33677,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33678":{"type":"single","id":33678,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33680":{"type":"single","id":33680,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33683":{"type":"single","id":33683,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33684":{"type":"single","id":33684,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33685":{"type":"single","id":33685,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33686":{"type":"single","id":33686,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33689":{"type":"single","id":33689,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33691":{"type":"single","id":33691,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33692":{"type":"single","id":33692,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33695":{"type":"single","id":33695,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33696":{"type":"single","id":33696,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33697":{"type":"single","id":33697,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33700":{"type":"single","id":33700,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"33701":{"type":"single","id":33701,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"33704":{"type":"single","id":33704,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"33705":{"type":"single","id":33705,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"33707":{"type":"single","id":33707,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"33710":{"type":"single","id":33710,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]}} } }); All the Best IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –4th May 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   El Nino, anti-cyclone systems: Why large parts of India experienced heatwaves in April Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Geography Context: April has been abnormally hot. In the first 26 days of the month, either a small pocket or a considerably large geographical area in India experienced heatwave conditions, according to the India Meteorological Department (IMD). Background:- Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) reports and analysis of weather models clearly indicate that heatwaves in India shall no longer remain contained over only those regions traditionally believed to be prone. Newer areas, especially from the southern peninsular India,  are already experiencing heatwaves. Which areas in India are prone to heatwaves? The Core Heatwave Zone (CHZ) spanning central, north, and peninsular India between Gujarat and West Bengal is prone to heatwave conditions every year, during the summer season March to June and occasionally in July. Rajasthan, Punjab, Haryana, Chandigarh, Delhi, West Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Vidarbha in Maharashtra, parts of Gangetic West Bengal, coastal Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana are the most heatwave-prone states or regions. When does IMD declare a heatwave? IMD declares a heatwave when the normal maximum temperature recorded over at least two localities in plains touches 40 degree Celsius or exceeds 4.5 degree Celsius from normal.  Heatwave is declared in hilly and coastal regions when temperatures cross 30 degree Celsius and 37 degree Celsius respectively. A severe heatwave is declared if the temperature departure exceeds 6 degree Celsius from normal. Why has April been so hot? One, 2024 is a year that began in an El Niño state. El Niño, is a climate pattern that describes the unusual warming of surface waters in the eastern Pacific Ocean, which leads to extreme heat in many parts of the world and the ocean. It developed in June 2023 and generally, the years which begin in an El Niño state, experience extreme temperatures, harsh, multiple and extended heatwave spells, and lack of pre-monsoon rainfall. Two, the persistent presence of anticyclone systems over southern peninsular and southeastern coastal areas is also partly responsible for such a hot April. These high-pressure systems, which exist at about the altitude of 3 km and extend between 1,000 and 2,000 km in length,  push the air underneath them towards the Earth, in a process called air subsidence. As a result, the forcefully sunk air generates more heat on the surface closer to the Earth. The presence of anticyclone systems also leads to wind flow from land towards the sea and prevents the incoming cooler sea breeze, which is otherwise responsible for cooling land from time to time. El Niño and anticyclone systems collectively created sweltering hot conditions and heatwaves during April, especially over Gangetic West Bengal, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka, and Maharashtra. What has been the extent of heatwaves this April? Except for four days (April 1, 10, 11 and 12), a small pocket or a considerably large geographical area of the country experienced either heatwave or severe heatwave conditions, according to the IMD. The worst affected were southern peninsular India and the southeastern coast areas, including Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu along with large areas of Karnataka, Kerala, Sikkim, Bihar, Jharkhand, and Gangetic West Bengal. The inclusion of Kerala and Sikkim to the list of heatwave-affected areas indicates that the temperatures are rapidly rising during summers over regions outside that of the CHZ. Source: Indian Express Patachitra Painting Syllabus Prelims – Art & Culture Context: The first generation women patachitra artists of West Bengal sell their work online & are recognised world over, encouraging future generations to stay in the profession Background: Patachitra or Pattachitra is a general term for traditional, cloth-based scroll painting, based in the eastern Indian states of Odisha, West Bengal and parts of Bangladesh. Patachitra artform is known for its intricate details as well as mythological narratives and folktales inscribed in it. About Patachitra Painting : Patachitra painting dates back to the 12th century and its origins can be traced to the modern-day state of Odisha. Pattachitra is one of the ancient artworks of Odisha, originally created for ritual use and as souvenirs for pilgrims to Puri, as well as other temples in Odisha The word ‘patachitra’ is a combination of two words in the Sanskrit language, where ‘pata’ means ‘cloth’ and ‘chitra’ means ‘picture’. It is a narrative scroll art and a form of storytelling, focusing on themes of mythology and culture. It is difficult to determine the exact year when Patachitra as an art form reached Bengal but art historians believe that it occurred approximately three centuries ago. When people migrated from Odisha to Bengal back then, they brought the tradition of Patachitra with them. In their native homeland, they would worship Durga on Patachitra and carried this form of worship when they travelled to Bengal. Source: Down To Earth CONTEMPT OF COURTS ACT I971 Syllabus Prelims – Polity Context: The Allahabad High Court recently observed that orders issued by the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) under the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, are subject to appeal solely to the Supreme Court and not the High Court. Background: While the High Courts retain jurisdiction under Article 226/227 for orders issued under Section 14(1) of the Administrative Tribunals Act, orders falling under Section 17 of the Act are appealable solely to the Supreme Court. About CONTEMPT OF COURTS ACT I971 The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, is an important statute in India that defines and limits the powers of courts in punishing contempts of courts. It also regulates their procedure in relation to contempt proceedings. The act defines contempt of court as any act that scandalizes or tends to scandalize, prejudices, or interferes with the administration of justice. The Act distinguishes between civil and criminal contempt. Civil contempt refers to willful disobedience to any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ, or other process of a court, or willful breach of an undertaking given to a court. Criminal contempt includes any act that scandalizes or tends to scandalize, or lowers the authority of the court, prejudices, or interferes with judicial proceedings, or obstructs the administration of justice. The Act provides protection for the innocent publication and distribution of matter not considered contempt, ensuring freedom of expression while respecting the course of justice. It allows for fair and accurate reporting of judicial proceedings and fair criticism of judicial acts without constituting contempt of court. High Courts have the power to punish contempts of subordinate courts and to try offences committed outside their jurisdiction. The Act outlines the punishment for contempt of court, which can include imprisonment or fine. Source: Livelaw SEA OF JAPAN Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: North Korea recently fired a ballistic missile into the Sea of Japan, also known as the East Sea. Background: These missile tests are closely monitored by neighboring countries and the international community due to their potential implications for regional security.   About SEA OF JAPAN: The Sea of Japan is a marginal sea located between the Japanese archipelago, Sakhalin, the Korean Peninsula, and the mainland of the Russian Far East. The Japanese archipelago separates the Sea of Japan from the Pacific Ocean. The Sea of Japan is bordered by the following countries: Japan: To the east and south, with major islands like Hokkaidō, Honshū, and Kyūshū. Russia: To the north, including the mainland and Sakhalin Island. North Korea: To the west, across the sea from Japan. South Korea: Also, to the west, separated from Japan by the Korea Strait. Source: NDTV TORNADO Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Recently, a deadly tornado struck in West Bengal and killed five people and injured over a 100. Background: In recent years, an increasing number of tornadoes have formed across India and caused destruction. A warming Bay of Bengal and land, along with anomalous wind patterns could be a reason behind this.   About TORNADO A tornado is a violently rotating column of air that extends from a cumulonimbus cloud to the Earth’s surface. It forms during severe thunderstorms. Unlike cyclones (which are large-scale weather systems), tornadoes are local and short-lived. The formation of a tornado involves a complex interaction between a supercell (a long-lived thunderstorm with a deep, persistently rotating updraft) and the environment. Wind shear (changes in wind speed and direction with height) plays a crucial role in creating the necessary conditions for tornado development. Tornadoes are more likely to occur in regions where warm, moist air near the surface interacts with cooler, drier air aloft. Composition and Impact: Tornadoes consist of air, water droplets, dust, and debris. The visible funnel is primarily made of water droplets formed from condensation, along with dust and debris picked up from the ground. The core of the storm contains the lowest pressure and highest wind speeds, causing the most significant damage. Tornadoes can destroy buildings, homes, bridges, vehicles, uproot trees, and alter landscapes. The Enhanced Fujita Scale (EF Scale) rates tornado intensity based on the damage they cause, ranging from EF0 (weakest) to EF5 (strongest). Source: Down To Earth India and Greece Syllabus Mains – GS 2 Context: During extensive talks between Prime Minister Narendra Modi and his Greek counterpart Kyriakos Mitsotakis held recently, the leaders aimed to inject “new energy” into their bilateral ties. Background: India’s contacts with Greece began over 2500 years ago. Trading between the Mauryan Kings and Greece is evidenced by coinage and writings. In 326 BC, Alexander the Great invaded the North-Western part of the Indian subcontinent as far as the Hyphasis (Beas River), and fought with Raja Puru, King of Pauravaa – between the Jhelum and Chenab), and Ambhi who ruled at Taxila.He did not cross the Indus into India; and turned South and apparently went back to Babylon. India and Greece Relations: Greece has historical linkages with India as Chanakya, in Chandragupta’s Court records in Arthashastra mentioned the Yavan Ambassador in the Kings’ court, named Megasthenes. Trading between Mauryan Kings and Greece is evidenced by coinage and writings. Gandhara art is believed to be a fusion of Indian and Greek influences. Diplomatic relations were established between the two countries in 1950. Greece opened its Embassy in Delhi in 1950 and India in Athens in 1978. Agreement on Science and Technology was ratified by both sides to encourage and support cooperation in the science and technology field based on equality and mutual benefit. Greece supported India’s membership at NSG (National Supplier Group) and bid for a permanent seat on the United Nations Security Council. India’s relations with Greece and Armenia are crucial in the context of an emerging Turkey-Pakistan-Azerbaijan military axis (often referred to as the Three Brothers) and can counter increased Chinese presence in the region. Greece borders the Mediterranean Sea, which covers three continents, i.e., Asia, Africa, and Europe, and thus can help enhance India’s outreach to the Mediterranean region. The Mediterranean region is vital for India’s Indo-Pacific policy. India is exploring a multi-modal link between Mumbai and the European mainland via the Greek transhipment port of Piraeus. This will allow much faster shipment of Indian goods to markets in the entire Eurasian region. The Mediterranean region can be a potential source to meet India’s increasing energy demand and enhance energy security given its vast resources of oil (1.7 billion barrels) and gas (112 trillion cubic feet). Greece’s abundant sunshine and its robust wind energy capacity present substantial untapped opportunities for electricity generation. With Greece expanding its defence expenditure from US$5 billion to 8.4 billion (2019- 2022), it can act as a potential market for India’s defence exports. India and Greece have engaged in joint naval exercises in the Mediterranean Sea and multinational air force exercise INIOCHOS-23. Issues/Concerns associated with India- Greece Relations: The absence of high-level interaction in four decades has resulted in a lack of strong strategic connections. Chinese state-owned shipping company COSCO has approx. 60% stake in the Piraeus port and thus can hamper India’s connectivity plans and trade opportunities through the port. India’s trade relations with Greece face challenges characterised by limited business opportunities, insufficient investment and capital inflow, a shortage of enterprises capable of bolstering exports, etc. Way Forward: Greece and Cyprus are two EU member states that can act as a bridge between the European Union and India, and thus, urgent steps are required to strengthen bilateral ties. India can extend its Line of Credit, utilise its soft power and diaspora to counter China’s presence and provide an alternative to China’s Debt Trap Policy. Collaborate on tourism promotion efforts, including joint marketing campaigns and improved air connectivity. Greece is emerging as a popular tourist destination among Indians. Enhance cooperation on maritime security, including information sharing and joint naval exercises. Source: MEA Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following countries: Japan Russia North Korea South Korea China Philippines How many of the statements given above are correct? Only two Only three Only four Only five    Q2.) With reference to Tornados, consider the following statements: A tornado is a violently rotating column of air that extends from a cumulonimbus cloud to the Earth’s surface. Tornadoes are more likely to occur in regions where warm, moist air near the surface interacts with cooler, drier air aloft. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3.) With reference to the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, consider the following statements: The Act distinguishes between civil and criminal contempt. The Act provides protection for the innocent publication and distribution of matter not considered contempt. High Courts have the power to punish contempts of subordinate courts. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  4th May 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  3rd May – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – b

[DAY 54] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – ENVIRONMENT, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 Tuna Das 2024/05/04 1:15 PM 8 36.36 % 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question With reference to the Ecologists and their research’, consider the following pairs: Antonie van Leeuwenhoek : First introduced the concept of food chains Herbert Spencer : Coined the term ‘survival of the fittest’ Tansley : Coined the term ‘ecology’ How many of the above given pairs is/are correctly matched? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Ecology Ecology can be defined as the scientific exploration of living organisms and their interactions with each other and their environment. The term “ecology” was coined by Ernst Haeckel, a German biologist, in 1869. It originates from the Greek words “Oikos,” meaning home or estate, and “logos,” meaning study. The main focus of ecology is to understand the relationships between organisms and the abiotic (non-living) and biotic (living) components of their environment. It investigates how organisms are influenced by their surroundings and how they utilize environmental resources, including energy flow and mineral cycling. Timeline of Ecologists: Antonie van Leeuwenhoek (1632–1723): First introduced the concept of food chains. (Hence pair 1 is correctly matched) Carl Linnaeus (1707–1778): Renowned naturalist and founder of scientific study on natural economics. Alexander Humboldt (1769–1859): First described the latitudinal biodiversity gradient toward the tropics. Charles Darwin (1809–1882): Proposed the idea of natural selection and conducted ecological studies on soils. Herbert Spencer (1820–1903): Coined the term “survival of the fittest.” (Hence pair 2 is correctly matched) Karl Möbius (1825–1908): Developed the concept of ecological community or living community. Ernst Haeckel (1834–1919): Coined the term “ecology” and popularized the study of ecology in relation to evolution. (Hence pair 3 is incorrectly matched) Vladimir Vernadsky (1869–1939): Introduced the concept of the biosphere. Henry C. Cowles (1869–1939): Pioneered studies on ecological succession. Tansley (1871–1955): Coined the term “ecosystem” and was a prominent researcher. Henry Gleason (1882–1975): Founder of the individualistic concept of ecology and a quantitative theorist. Charles S. Elton (1900–1991): Known as the Father of Animal Ecology, he developed the concepts of food chains and niches. Evelyn Hutchinson (1903–1991): Elaborated on the niche concept in ecology. Incorrect Solution (b) Ecology Ecology can be defined as the scientific exploration of living organisms and their interactions with each other and their environment. The term “ecology” was coined by Ernst Haeckel, a German biologist, in 1869. It originates from the Greek words “Oikos,” meaning home or estate, and “logos,” meaning study. The main focus of ecology is to understand the relationships between organisms and the abiotic (non-living) and biotic (living) components of their environment. It investigates how organisms are influenced by their surroundings and how they utilize environmental resources, including energy flow and mineral cycling. Timeline of Ecologists: Antonie van Leeuwenhoek (1632–1723): First introduced the concept of food chains. (Hence pair 1 is correctly matched) Carl Linnaeus (1707–1778): Renowned naturalist and founder of scientific study on natural economics. Alexander Humboldt (1769–1859): First described the latitudinal biodiversity gradient toward the tropics. Charles Darwin (1809–1882): Proposed the idea of natural selection and conducted ecological studies on soils. Herbert Spencer (1820–1903): Coined the term “survival of the fittest.” (Hence pair 2 is correctly matched) Karl Möbius (1825–1908): Developed the concept of ecological community or living community. Ernst Haeckel (1834–1919): Coined the term “ecology” and popularized the study of ecology in relation to evolution. (Hence pair 3 is incorrectly matched) Vladimir Vernadsky (1869–1939): Introduced the concept of the biosphere. Henry C. Cowles (1869–1939): Pioneered studies on ecological succession. Tansley (1871–1955): Coined the term “ecosystem” and was a prominent researcher. Henry Gleason (1882–1975): Founder of the individualistic concept of ecology and a quantitative theorist. Charles S. Elton (1900–1991): Known as the Father of Animal Ecology, he developed the concepts of food chains and niches. Evelyn Hutchinson (1903–1991): Elaborated on the niche concept in ecology. Question 2 of 35 2. Question Which of the following sequence correctly orders the levels of organizations in ecology from the smallest to the greatest? a) Organism → Population → Community → Ecosystem → Biome → Biosphere b) Population →Organism → Community → Biome → Biosphere → Ecosystem c) Population → Community → Organism → Biome → Biosphere → Ecosystem d) Organism → Population → Community → Biome → Ecosystem → Biosphere Correct Solution (a) Levels of Organisations in Ecology Levels of the organization are natural systems that are frequently described by part-whole relationships, with higher ones being made up of lower levels. The individual, population, community, ecosystem, biome, and biosphere are the levels of organization in ecology. Ecosystems can be researched on a local or large scale. From the smallest to the greatest, the levels of organisation are detailed below: Organism → Population → Community → Ecosystem → Biome → Biosphere (Hence option (a) is correct) Incorrect Solution (a) Levels of Organisations in Ecology Levels of the organization are natural systems that are frequently described by part-whole relationships, with higher ones being made up of lower levels. The individual, population, community, ecosystem, biome, and biosphere are the levels of organization in ecology. Ecosystems can be researched on a local or large scale. From the smallest to the greatest, the levels of organisation are detailed below: Organism → Population → Community → Ecosystem → Biome → Biosphere (Hence option (a) is correct) Question 3 of 35 3. Question With reference to the difference between Environment and Ecology, consider the following statements: Ecology specifically focuses on the interactions between organisms and their surroundings while Environment examines the interaction of physical, chemical, and biological components. The ecology encompasses all aspects of a living thing’s existence, while environment has a narrower scope centered on the study of organisms and their environment Environmental elements encompass temperature, water, light, air, soil, and nutrients, whereas ecology focuses on the study of different ecosystems and how animals depend on each other for survival How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Environment: Refers to the interaction of physical, chemical, and biological components. Encompasses the circumstances in which living things exist, ranging from small-scale settings to larger ecosystems. Examines both internal and external factors that influence the environment, such as pollution, global warming, and deforestation. Includes environmental elements like temperature, water, light, air, soil, and nutrients. Ecology: The study of how organisms interact with their surroundings. Focuses on understanding life processes, adaptability, distribution, and biodiversity. Explores the intricate relationships and interactions among organisms and their environment. Considers factors like population size, organism dispersion, species diversity, and competition. Involves studying various ecosystems and how animals depend on one another to survive. Differences between Environment and Ecology: Environment examines the interaction of physical, chemical, and biological components, while ecology specifically focuses on the interactions between organisms and their surroundings. (Hence statement 1 is correct) The environment encompasses all aspects of a living thing’s existence, while ecology has a narrower scope centered on the study of organisms and their environment. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) Environmental concerns include issues like pollution, global warming, and deforestation, while ecological considerations involve population size, organism dispersion, diversity, and competition. Environmental elements encompass temperature, water, light, air, soil, and nutrients, whereas ecology focuses on the study of different ecosystems and how animals depend on each other for survival. (Hence statement 3 is correct) The term “eco” is often associated with environmentally friendly practices that do not harm specific species or substances. Incorrect Solution (b) Environment: Refers to the interaction of physical, chemical, and biological components. Encompasses the circumstances in which living things exist, ranging from small-scale settings to larger ecosystems. Examines both internal and external factors that influence the environment, such as pollution, global warming, and deforestation. Includes environmental elements like temperature, water, light, air, soil, and nutrients. Ecology: The study of how organisms interact with their surroundings. Focuses on understanding life processes, adaptability, distribution, and biodiversity. Explores the intricate relationships and interactions among organisms and their environment. Considers factors like population size, organism dispersion, species diversity, and competition. Involves studying various ecosystems and how animals depend on one another to survive. Differences between Environment and Ecology: Environment examines the interaction of physical, chemical, and biological components, while ecology specifically focuses on the interactions between organisms and their surroundings. (Hence statement 1 is correct) The environment encompasses all aspects of a living thing’s existence, while ecology has a narrower scope centered on the study of organisms and their environment. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) Environmental concerns include issues like pollution, global warming, and deforestation, while ecological considerations involve population size, organism dispersion, diversity, and competition. Environmental elements encompass temperature, water, light, air, soil, and nutrients, whereas ecology focuses on the study of different ecosystems and how animals depend on each other for survival. (Hence statement 3 is correct) The term “eco” is often associated with environmentally friendly practices that do not harm specific species or substances. Question 4 of 35 4. Question What is the significance of understanding the niche of a species in conservation efforts? a) It helps determine the evolutionary history of a species. b) It provides information about the species' geographic distribution. c) It enables the identification of key habitat areas for conservation. d) It assists in understanding the species' social behavior. Correct Solution (c) Niche: Understanding the niche of a species provides valuable insights into its habitat requirements, population dynamics, and ecological interactions. This knowledge is vital for identifying key habitat areas, managing populations, and developing effective conservation strategies to safeguard species and preserve biodiversity. (Hence option (c) is correct answer) A niche refers to the unique functional role or place of a species in an ecosystem. It encompasses all the biological, physical, and chemical factors that a species requires to survive, stay healthy, and reproduce. No two species have identical niches; each species has its own unique niche. Understanding the niche of a species is crucial for conservation efforts. Conservation of a species in its native habitat requires knowledge about its niche requirements and ensuring that all those requirements are fulfilled. There are different types of niches: Habitat niche: Refers to the specific location where a species lives. Food niche: Involves the species’ diet, including what it eats or decomposes, and its interactions with other species for food resources. Reproductive niche: Describes the species’ reproductive strategies, including how and when it reproduces. Physical niche: Encompasses physical and environmental factors such as temperature, land slope, humidity, and other specific requirements for the species. Incorrect Solution (c) Niche: Understanding the niche of a species provides valuable insights into its habitat requirements, population dynamics, and ecological interactions. This knowledge is vital for identifying key habitat areas, managing populations, and developing effective conservation strategies to safeguard species and preserve biodiversity. (Hence option (c) is correct answer) A niche refers to the unique functional role or place of a species in an ecosystem. It encompasses all the biological, physical, and chemical factors that a species requires to survive, stay healthy, and reproduce. No two species have identical niches; each species has its own unique niche. Understanding the niche of a species is crucial for conservation efforts. Conservation of a species in its native habitat requires knowledge about its niche requirements and ensuring that all those requirements are fulfilled. There are different types of niches: Habitat niche: Refers to the specific location where a species lives. Food niche: Involves the species’ diet, including what it eats or decomposes, and its interactions with other species for food resources. Reproductive niche: Describes the species’ reproductive strategies, including how and when it reproduces. Physical niche: Encompasses physical and environmental factors such as temperature, land slope, humidity, and other specific requirements for the species. Question 5 of 35 5. Question Which process in the Phosphorus Cycle involves the breakdown of organic materials into inorganic forms of phosphorus by bacteria? a) Weathering b) Decomposition c) Absorption d) Mineralization Correct Solution (d) Phosphorus Cycle: Phosphorus undergoes a cycle, moving through rocks, water, soil, sediments, and organisms. Rain and weathering gradually release phosphate ions and other minerals from rocks. Inorganic phosphate is then distributed throughout the soil and water. Plants absorb inorganic phosphate from the soil, while animals consume plants for their phosphorus needs. Once inside plants or animals, phosphate is incorporated into organic molecules like DNA. Upon the death and decomposition of plants or animals, organic phosphate is released back into the soil. Bacteria play a role in the process of mineralization, breaking down organic materials into inorganic forms of phosphorus and making them available to plants in the soil. (Hence option (d) is correct) Phosphorus from the soil can find its way into streams and eventually reach the oceans. Over time, it can become absorbed into sediments in these locations. Incorrect Solution (d) Phosphorus Cycle: Phosphorus undergoes a cycle, moving through rocks, water, soil, sediments, and organisms. Rain and weathering gradually release phosphate ions and other minerals from rocks. Inorganic phosphate is then distributed throughout the soil and water. Plants absorb inorganic phosphate from the soil, while animals consume plants for their phosphorus needs. Once inside plants or animals, phosphate is incorporated into organic molecules like DNA. Upon the death and decomposition of plants or animals, organic phosphate is released back into the soil. Bacteria play a role in the process of mineralization, breaking down organic materials into inorganic forms of phosphorus and making them available to plants in the soil. (Hence option (d) is correct) Phosphorus from the soil can find its way into streams and eventually reach the oceans. Over time, it can become absorbed into sediments in these locations. Question 6 of 35 6. Question Consider the following Cycles: Water (Hydrologic) Cycle The Carbon Cycle The Nitrogen Cycle Sulphur Cycle Which of the above given cycles are considered as Gaseous Cycles? a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 2 only d) 2, 3 and 4 only Correct Solution (a) Gaseous Cycles: Water (Hydrologic) Cycle: The water (hydrologic) cycle refers to the continuous circulation of water in the Earth-atmosphere system, driven by solar energy. Various reservoirs such as the atmosphere, oceans, lakes, rivers, soils, glaciers, snowfields, and groundwater store water in our world. Processes like evaporation, transpiration, condensation, precipitation, deposition, runoff, infiltration, and groundwater flow facilitate the movement of water between reservoirs. The hydrologic cycle also involves the continuous exchange of water between the land surface, oceans, subsoil, and organisms. It begins with the evaporation of water from the ocean’s surface. The Carbon Cycle: Carbon, mainly in the form of carbon dioxide (CO2), exists in the atmosphere. The carbon cycle involves the continual exchange of carbon between the atmosphere and organisms. Through processes like photosynthesis, carbon is transferred from the atmosphere to green plants and subsequently to other organisms. It returns to the atmosphere through respiration and the decomposition of dead organic matter. It is considered a relatively short-term cycle. The Nitrogen Cycle: Nitrogen is a fundamental component of living tissues and plays a crucial role in proteins, accounting for approximately 16 percent of protein weight. The nitrogen cycle consists of three main phases: nitrogen fixation, nitrification, and denitrification. It involves the atmosphere, hydrosphere, and lithosphere. Nitrogen fixation is the anaerobic process in which atmospheric nitrogen (N2) is converted into NH3 (ammonia) by nitrogen-fixing bacteria. Nitrification is a two-step process where ammonium ions (NH4+) are first reduced to NO2 and then further oxidized to produce NO3. Soil bacteria are involved in both steps. Denitrification is the conversion of nitrates (NO3) back into nitrogen gas. Denitrifying bacteria perform a similar function as nitrogen-fixing bacteria. Incorrect Solution (a) Gaseous Cycles: Water (Hydrologic) Cycle: The water (hydrologic) cycle refers to the continuous circulation of water in the Earth-atmosphere system, driven by solar energy. Various reservoirs such as the atmosphere, oceans, lakes, rivers, soils, glaciers, snowfields, and groundwater store water in our world. Processes like evaporation, transpiration, condensation, precipitation, deposition, runoff, infiltration, and groundwater flow facilitate the movement of water between reservoirs. The hydrologic cycle also involves the continuous exchange of water between the land surface, oceans, subsoil, and organisms. It begins with the evaporation of water from the ocean’s surface. The Carbon Cycle: Carbon, mainly in the form of carbon dioxide (CO2), exists in the atmosphere. The carbon cycle involves the continual exchange of carbon between the atmosphere and organisms. Through processes like photosynthesis, carbon is transferred from the atmosphere to green plants and subsequently to other organisms. It returns to the atmosphere through respiration and the decomposition of dead organic matter. It is considered a relatively short-term cycle. The Nitrogen Cycle: Nitrogen is a fundamental component of living tissues and plays a crucial role in proteins, accounting for approximately 16 percent of protein weight. The nitrogen cycle consists of three main phases: nitrogen fixation, nitrification, and denitrification. It involves the atmosphere, hydrosphere, and lithosphere. Nitrogen fixation is the anaerobic process in which atmospheric nitrogen (N2) is converted into NH3 (ammonia) by nitrogen-fixing bacteria. Nitrification is a two-step process where ammonium ions (NH4+) are first reduced to NO2 and then further oxidized to produce NO3. Soil bacteria are involved in both steps. Denitrification is the conversion of nitrates (NO3) back into nitrogen gas. Denitrifying bacteria perform a similar function as nitrogen-fixing bacteria. Question 7 of 35 7. Question With reference to the Ecological succession, consider the following statements: Ecological succession is a common phenomenon observed in all communities, and it is closely connected to the process of evolution Secondary succession progresses at a slower pace in comparison to primary succession Pioneer species are the first organisms to colonize an area during secondary succession, playing a crucial role in the establishment of subsequent communities. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Ecological Succession: Ecological succession refers to the gradual and progressive growth of species in a specific area in response to changing environmental conditions. It aims to establish equilibrium in the ecological system through the development of a climax community, which represents a stable and diverse community of organisms. The process involves constant changes in the number and types of species within a given area, leading to the formation of different communities known as seral communities. Ecological succession is a common phenomenon observed in all communities, and it is closely connected to the process of evolution. (Hence statement 1 is correct) There are two main types of ecological succession: primary succession and secondary succession. Primary succession occurs in lifeless areas where there is no soil or in barren lands that cannot support life. The process starts from scratch, with rocks being broken down and soil formation being a crucial step. Secondary succession occurs when an existing ecosystem is disrupted or destroyed, allowing new species to colonize the area. This type of succession is faster because there is already a foundation of soil and life present. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) Pioneer species are the first organisms to colonize an area during primary succession, playing a crucial role in the establishment of subsequent communities. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) The stages of ecological succession involve a series of changes in species composition, vegetation structure, and ecological dynamics, leading to the development of a climax community. Ecological succession is essential for the initiation and persistence of life on Earth, and it plays a vital role in shaping ecosystems and their biodiversity. Incorrect Solution (a) Ecological Succession: Ecological succession refers to the gradual and progressive growth of species in a specific area in response to changing environmental conditions. It aims to establish equilibrium in the ecological system through the development of a climax community, which represents a stable and diverse community of organisms. The process involves constant changes in the number and types of species within a given area, leading to the formation of different communities known as seral communities. Ecological succession is a common phenomenon observed in all communities, and it is closely connected to the process of evolution. (Hence statement 1 is correct) There are two main types of ecological succession: primary succession and secondary succession. Primary succession occurs in lifeless areas where there is no soil or in barren lands that cannot support life. The process starts from scratch, with rocks being broken down and soil formation being a crucial step. Secondary succession occurs when an existing ecosystem is disrupted or destroyed, allowing new species to colonize the area. This type of succession is faster because there is already a foundation of soil and life present. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) Pioneer species are the first organisms to colonize an area during primary succession, playing a crucial role in the establishment of subsequent communities. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) The stages of ecological succession involve a series of changes in species composition, vegetation structure, and ecological dynamics, leading to the development of a climax community. Ecological succession is essential for the initiation and persistence of life on Earth, and it plays a vital role in shaping ecosystems and their biodiversity. Question 8 of 35 8. Question With reference to the ‘Ecological Adaptation’, consider the following statements: Phenotypic plasticity is the capacity of organisms to alter their physical characteristics in accordance with the surrounding environment Sciophytes are plants that exhibit a preference for shade and conditions with low light levels Reproduction in humans serves as an instance of an ecological adaptation How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Ecological Adaptations The topic of organisms and their environment explores how living beings develop special characteristics to thrive in specific environmental conditions. These adaptations can be morphological, physiological, or behavioral in nature, and they arise through the process of natural selection, either from existing variations or through gradual selection of small adaptive traits. The main purpose of these adaptations is to enhance an individual’s ability to obtain food and space for survival, find opportunities for reproduction, and successfully raise offspring. Reproduction in humans is a biological process that ensures the continuation of the species. While reproduction is a fundamental aspect of an organism’s life cycle, it is not specifically considered an ecological adaptation. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) Ecological adaptations typically refer to traits or behaviors that directly aid an organism in its interaction with the environment, such as camouflage in animals to blend with their surroundings, drought tolerance in plants to survive arid conditions, or migration in birds to find more favorable habitats during different seasons Phenotypic Plasticity and Ecotypes Phenotype refers to the observable traits resulting from the interaction between an organism’s genetic makeup (genotype) and its surrounding environment. Within a local habitat, variations in environmental conditions lead to diverse phenotypes, a phenomenon known as phenotypic plasticity. (Hence statement 1 is correct) These variations give rise to ecotypes, which are genetically adapted local populations of species that exhibit morphological and physiological differences. Despite these genetic variations, ecotypes can interbreed. Ecotypes are commonly observed in plants and sessile animals. Strategies of Adaptations in Plants Plants possess unique characteristics that enable them to tolerate a wide range of environmental conditions, such as light regimes, dryness, high temperatures, water-saturation, and saline environments. They have evolved specialized structures in their flowers to ensure pollination by insects or other animals. Additionally, plants have developed various mechanisms to cope with stressful environmental conditions. Adaptation to Light Regime Based on their adaptation to different light intensities, plant communities can be categorized into two groups: Sciophytes: These are shade-loving plants that exhibit lower levels of photosynthetic, respiratory, and metabolic activities. They typically grow under the dense canopy of forests and include ferns and herbaceous plants. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Heliophytes: These plants are adapted to high-intensity light and have higher temperature thresholds for photosynthesis. They also exhibit higher rates of respiration. Examples of heliophytes include shrubs and trees. Incorrect Solution (b) Ecological Adaptations The topic of organisms and their environment explores how living beings develop special characteristics to thrive in specific environmental conditions. These adaptations can be morphological, physiological, or behavioral in nature, and they arise through the process of natural selection, either from existing variations or through gradual selection of small adaptive traits. The main purpose of these adaptations is to enhance an individual’s ability to obtain food and space for survival, find opportunities for reproduction, and successfully raise offspring. Reproduction in humans is a biological process that ensures the continuation of the species. While reproduction is a fundamental aspect of an organism’s life cycle, it is not specifically considered an ecological adaptation. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) Ecological adaptations typically refer to traits or behaviors that directly aid an organism in its interaction with the environment, such as camouflage in animals to blend with their surroundings, drought tolerance in plants to survive arid conditions, or migration in birds to find more favorable habitats during different seasons Phenotypic Plasticity and Ecotypes Phenotype refers to the observable traits resulting from the interaction between an organism’s genetic makeup (genotype) and its surrounding environment. Within a local habitat, variations in environmental conditions lead to diverse phenotypes, a phenomenon known as phenotypic plasticity. (Hence statement 1 is correct) These variations give rise to ecotypes, which are genetically adapted local populations of species that exhibit morphological and physiological differences. Despite these genetic variations, ecotypes can interbreed. Ecotypes are commonly observed in plants and sessile animals. Strategies of Adaptations in Plants Plants possess unique characteristics that enable them to tolerate a wide range of environmental conditions, such as light regimes, dryness, high temperatures, water-saturation, and saline environments. They have evolved specialized structures in their flowers to ensure pollination by insects or other animals. Additionally, plants have developed various mechanisms to cope with stressful environmental conditions. Adaptation to Light Regime Based on their adaptation to different light intensities, plant communities can be categorized into two groups: Sciophytes: These are shade-loving plants that exhibit lower levels of photosynthetic, respiratory, and metabolic activities. They typically grow under the dense canopy of forests and include ferns and herbaceous plants. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Heliophytes: These plants are adapted to high-intensity light and have higher temperature thresholds for photosynthesis. They also exhibit higher rates of respiration. Examples of heliophytes include shrubs and trees. Question 9 of 35 9. Question Consider the following statements with reference to the Productivity of biomass: Primary productivity refers to the rate of biomass production per unit area by the primary producers Gross primary productivity (GPP) is the total amount of energy fixed by the primary producer through photosynthesis Net primary productivity (NPP) is the energy remaining after subtracting the energy lost through respiration The open ocean contributes the largest percentage of the world’s annual NPP due to its extensive coverage How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) Productivity of biomass Productivity is the measure of biomass production per unit area. Primary productivity refers to the rate of biomass production per unit area by the primary producers. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Primary producers are organisms that produce food through photosynthesis. Primary producers occupy the first trophic level in an ecosystem and provide energy to all the consumers. Gross primary productivity (GPP) is the total amount of energy fixed by the primary producer through photosynthesis. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Net primary productivity (NPP) is the energy remaining after subtracting the energy lost through respiration. (Hence statement 3 is correct) NPP represents the actual biomass available for consumption by primary consumers. Secondary productivity refers to the rate of new biomass production by primary consumers. Ecosystem Productivity: Tropical rainforests, swamps and marshes, and algae beds and reefs have the highest NPP. Open Ocean and desert ecosystems have the lowest NPP. The graph illustrates the average NPP (in g/m2/yr) of different ecosystems. The third graph shows the world’s annual NPP for each ecosystem type. The open ocean contributes the largest percentage of the world’s annual NPP (24.4%) due to its extensive coverage (70% of Earth’s surface). (Hence statement 4 is correct) The tropical rainforest has the second highest annual NPP (22%), followed by swamps and marshes (2.3%), and algae beds and reefs (0.9%). Therefore, the correct order of ecosystems in increasing NPP is: algae beds and reefs (0.9%), swamps and marshes (2.3%), tropical rainforests (22%), and open oceans (24.4%). Incorrect Solution (d) Productivity of biomass Productivity is the measure of biomass production per unit area. Primary productivity refers to the rate of biomass production per unit area by the primary producers. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Primary producers are organisms that produce food through photosynthesis. Primary producers occupy the first trophic level in an ecosystem and provide energy to all the consumers. Gross primary productivity (GPP) is the total amount of energy fixed by the primary producer through photosynthesis. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Net primary productivity (NPP) is the energy remaining after subtracting the energy lost through respiration. (Hence statement 3 is correct) NPP represents the actual biomass available for consumption by primary consumers. Secondary productivity refers to the rate of new biomass production by primary consumers. Ecosystem Productivity: Tropical rainforests, swamps and marshes, and algae beds and reefs have the highest NPP. Open Ocean and desert ecosystems have the lowest NPP. The graph illustrates the average NPP (in g/m2/yr) of different ecosystems. The third graph shows the world’s annual NPP for each ecosystem type. The open ocean contributes the largest percentage of the world’s annual NPP (24.4%) due to its extensive coverage (70% of Earth’s surface). (Hence statement 4 is correct) The tropical rainforest has the second highest annual NPP (22%), followed by swamps and marshes (2.3%), and algae beds and reefs (0.9%). Therefore, the correct order of ecosystems in increasing NPP is: algae beds and reefs (0.9%), swamps and marshes (2.3%), tropical rainforests (22%), and open oceans (24.4%). Question 10 of 35 10. Question Which of the following components is/are considered as biotic components of Environment: Topography Symbionts Geologic substratum Non-green plants Green plants Select the correct answer by using the code below: a) 1, 3 and 5 only b) 1, 4 and 5 only c) 2, 3, and 5 only d) 2, 4 and 5 only Correct Solution (d) Components of Environment The environment consists of two fundamental components, which are as follows: Biotic Components (Biological Component): The biotic component encompasses all living organisms within the environment. It is also referred to as the biological component of the ecosystem. Ecosystems are formed through the interactions between animals, plants, and microorganisms, along with abiotic components. The biotic community is categorized into various groups, such as autotrophs, heterotrophs, and saprotrophs. These groups occupy different trophic levels in the food chain. Autotrophs, also known as producers, form the base of the food chain. Abiotic Components (Physical Components): The physical component refers to the non-living aspects of the environment. These components, also known as abiotic variables, include elements such as air, water, soil, and climate. They are further classified into the atmosphere, hydrosphere, and lithosphere. Scientists also use the term “biosphere” to describe the zone of life, which encompasses the global collection of ecosystems. Components of Environment Abiotic Biotic ·       Energy ·       Radiation ·       Temperature & heat flow ·       Atmospheric gases and wind ·       Water ·       Fire ·       Gravity ·       Topography ·       Soil ·       Geologic substratum ·       Green plants ·       Non-green plants ·       Decomposers ·       Parasites ·       Symbionts ·       Animals ·       Man Incorrect Solution (d) Components of Environment The environment consists of two fundamental components, which are as follows: Biotic Components (Biological Component): The biotic component encompasses all living organisms within the environment. It is also referred to as the biological component of the ecosystem. Ecosystems are formed through the interactions between animals, plants, and microorganisms, along with abiotic components. The biotic community is categorized into various groups, such as autotrophs, heterotrophs, and saprotrophs. These groups occupy different trophic levels in the food chain. Autotrophs, also known as producers, form the base of the food chain. Abiotic Components (Physical Components): The physical component refers to the non-living aspects of the environment. These components, also known as abiotic variables, include elements such as air, water, soil, and climate. They are further classified into the atmosphere, hydrosphere, and lithosphere. Scientists also use the term “biosphere” to describe the zone of life, which encompasses the global collection of ecosystems. Components of Environment Abiotic Biotic ·       Energy ·       Radiation ·       Temperature & heat flow ·       Atmospheric gases and wind ·       Water ·       Fire ·       Gravity ·       Topography ·       Soil ·       Geologic substratum ·       Green plants ·       Non-green plants ·       Decomposers ·       Parasites ·       Symbionts ·       Animals ·       Man Question 11 of 35 11. Question With reference to the differences between a biome and a biosphere, consider the following statements: Biome refers to the living organisms in an ecosystem, while the biosphere refers to the physical environment. Biome encompasses a smaller area than the biosphere. Biome represents a specific ecological region, while the biosphere encompasses the entire planet. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Biome: Biomes are large divisions within the terrestrial portion of the biosphere. (Hence statement 2 is correct) They are characterized by specific climate patterns, types of vegetation, animal life, and soil characteristics. (not only living organisms) (Hence statement 1 is incorrect) Each biome is unique and differs from one another. Climate plays a crucial role in determining the boundaries of biomes and the abundance of plant and animal species. Temperature and precipitation are the key climatic factors that influence biome characteristics. Examples of biomes include tundra, boreal forests, grasslands, deserts, temperate forests, tropical rainforests, tropical deciduous forests, and savannahs. Biosphere: The biosphere refers to the part of the Earth that supports life. It encompasses the surface of the Earth, including land, water bodies, and a portion of the atmosphere. The biosphere includes all living organisms and their habitats. It also encompasses the interaction between organisms and their physical surroundings. The biosphere consists of the atmosphere (gaseous envelope surrounding the Earth), lithosphere (solid Earth materials), and hydrosphere (water bodies). It represents the interconnected web of life on Earth. The main difference between a biome and a biosphere is that a biome represents a specific ecological region with distinct characteristics, while the biosphere encompasses the entire planet and encompasses all ecosystems and their interactions. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Incorrect Solution (b) Biome: Biomes are large divisions within the terrestrial portion of the biosphere. (Hence statement 2 is correct) They are characterized by specific climate patterns, types of vegetation, animal life, and soil characteristics. (not only living organisms) (Hence statement 1 is incorrect) Each biome is unique and differs from one another. Climate plays a crucial role in determining the boundaries of biomes and the abundance of plant and animal species. Temperature and precipitation are the key climatic factors that influence biome characteristics. Examples of biomes include tundra, boreal forests, grasslands, deserts, temperate forests, tropical rainforests, tropical deciduous forests, and savannahs. Biosphere: The biosphere refers to the part of the Earth that supports life. It encompasses the surface of the Earth, including land, water bodies, and a portion of the atmosphere. The biosphere includes all living organisms and their habitats. It also encompasses the interaction between organisms and their physical surroundings. The biosphere consists of the atmosphere (gaseous envelope surrounding the Earth), lithosphere (solid Earth materials), and hydrosphere (water bodies). It represents the interconnected web of life on Earth. The main difference between a biome and a biosphere is that a biome represents a specific ecological region with distinct characteristics, while the biosphere encompasses the entire planet and encompasses all ecosystems and their interactions. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Question 12 of 35 12. Question With reference to the Ecotone, consider the following statements: A geographical zone where different ecosystems come together and engage with one another The presence of edge effect leads to an increase in both species’ diversity and population density within the ecotone The species found in the ecotone are identical to those in the adjacent ecosystems. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Ecotone is a zone of junction between two or more diverse ecosystems. Examples of ecotones include mangrove forests (between marine and terrestrial ecosystems), grasslands, estuaries, and river banks. (Hence statement 1 is correct) It can vary in width, ranging from very narrow to quite wide. Ecotone exhibits conditions that are intermediate to the adjacent ecosystems, making it a zone of tension. It is linear and shows a progressive increase in species composition of one community while simultaneously decreasing species of the adjoining community. Well-developed ecotones may contain organisms that are entirely different from those found in the adjacent communities. The edge effect can be observed in ecotones, where the number of species and population density may be greater than in either adjacent community. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Organisms primarily or most abundantly found in this zone are known as edge species. In terrestrial ecosystems, the edge effect is applicable to birds, with higher bird density observed in the mixed habitat of forest and desert ecotones. Ecotones typically have a mixture of species from the adjacent ecosystems rather than an identical species composition. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) Incorrect Solution (b) Ecotone is a zone of junction between two or more diverse ecosystems. Examples of ecotones include mangrove forests (between marine and terrestrial ecosystems), grasslands, estuaries, and river banks. (Hence statement 1 is correct) It can vary in width, ranging from very narrow to quite wide. Ecotone exhibits conditions that are intermediate to the adjacent ecosystems, making it a zone of tension. It is linear and shows a progressive increase in species composition of one community while simultaneously decreasing species of the adjoining community. Well-developed ecotones may contain organisms that are entirely different from those found in the adjacent communities. The edge effect can be observed in ecotones, where the number of species and population density may be greater than in either adjacent community. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Organisms primarily or most abundantly found in this zone are known as edge species. In terrestrial ecosystems, the edge effect is applicable to birds, with higher bird density observed in the mixed habitat of forest and desert ecotones. Ecotones typically have a mixture of species from the adjacent ecosystems rather than an identical species composition. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) Question 13 of 35 13. Question Consider the following statements with respect to food chain in ecosystem: The trophic level at the bottom of the food chain consists of consumers, while higher trophic levels include producers Producers within the food chain are capable of generating their own nutrients through the process of photosynthesis The food chain depicts the complete exchange of energy and nutrients among organisms within an ecosystem A food chain provides alternative food sources to organisms, increasing their chances of survival by offering multiple options for obtaining energy and nutrients Which of the above given statements is/are incorrect? a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 3 and 4 only d) 1, 3 and 4 only Correct Solution (d) Food Chain: A food chain represents a series of events in an ecosystem where one living organism consumes another organism, which is then consumed by a larger organism. The movement of nutrients and energy from one creature to another at different trophic levels is known as a food chain. The food chain explains the feeding patterns and relationships between living species. Trophic levels refer to the specific order in which producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, and tertiary consumers appear in a food chain. The trophic level at the bottom of the food chain consists of producers, while higher trophic levels include consumers. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect) Food Chain – Example: Grass, using sunlight, produces its own food through photosynthesis. The grass is consumed by a grasshopper, which in turn becomes prey for a frog. The frog is a food source for a snake, and the snake is hunted by a hawk. When a hawk dies, microbes decompose its body, returning nutrients to the soil and benefiting grass-growing plants. Major Components of Food Chain: The Sun: The primary source of energy for all living things and a crucial component of the food chain. Producers: Organisms, such as green plants, phytoplankton, and algae that produce their own nutrients through photosynthesis. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Consumers: Living species that rely on plants or other organisms for nourishment, including herbivores, carnivores, parasites, and scavengers. Decomposers: Organisms that obtain energy from dead organic matter and play a vital role in nutrient recycling. Types of Food Chains: Grazing Food Chain: Begins with green plants, followed by herbivores and carnivores. Detritus Food Chain: Starts with decomposing organic matter and involves various organisms such as algae, bacteria, fungi, protozoa, and insects. Significance of Food Chain: Food chains illustrate the complex relationships that exist in an ecosystem. They highlight the interdependence of organisms for survival. Food chains depict the flow of energy within an ecosystem, showcasing the path of energy movement from producers to consumers. Food Web A food web represents a complex network of interconnected food chains within an ecosystem. Unlike a food chain, which depicts a linear pathway of energy flow, a food web shows all possible transfers of energy and nutrients among organisms in an ecosystem. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) In a food web, multiple organisms are involved in consuming and being consumed by others, forming a more realistic representation of energy flow in ecosystems. Removing any intermediate component from the food web can have significant impacts on the succeeding links of the chain. A food web provides alternative food sources to organisms, increasing their chances of survival by offering multiple options for obtaining energy and nutrients. (Hence statement 4 is incorrect) Organisms in a food web can have shifting food preferences and availability, influenced by seasonal changes and other factors. The interconnected networks of feeding relationships in a food web ensure the stability and resilience of an ecosystem by providing redundancy and flexibility in energy flow pathways. Incorrect Solution (d) Food Chain: A food chain represents a series of events in an ecosystem where one living organism consumes another organism, which is then consumed by a larger organism. The movement of nutrients and energy from one creature to another at different trophic levels is known as a food chain. The food chain explains the feeding patterns and relationships between living species. Trophic levels refer to the specific order in which producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, and tertiary consumers appear in a food chain. The trophic level at the bottom of the food chain consists of producers, while higher trophic levels include consumers. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect) Food Chain – Example: Grass, using sunlight, produces its own food through photosynthesis. The grass is consumed by a grasshopper, which in turn becomes prey for a frog. The frog is a food source for a snake, and the snake is hunted by a hawk. When a hawk dies, microbes decompose its body, returning nutrients to the soil and benefiting grass-growing plants. Major Components of Food Chain: The Sun: The primary source of energy for all living things and a crucial component of the food chain. Producers: Organisms, such as green plants, phytoplankton, and algae that produce their own nutrients through photosynthesis. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Consumers: Living species that rely on plants or other organisms for nourishment, including herbivores, carnivores, parasites, and scavengers. Decomposers: Organisms that obtain energy from dead organic matter and play a vital role in nutrient recycling. Types of Food Chains: Grazing Food Chain: Begins with green plants, followed by herbivores and carnivores. Detritus Food Chain: Starts with decomposing organic matter and involves various organisms such as algae, bacteria, fungi, protozoa, and insects. Significance of Food Chain: Food chains illustrate the complex relationships that exist in an ecosystem. They highlight the interdependence of organisms for survival. Food chains depict the flow of energy within an ecosystem, showcasing the path of energy movement from producers to consumers. Food Web A food web represents a complex network of interconnected food chains within an ecosystem. Unlike a food chain, which depicts a linear pathway of energy flow, a food web shows all possible transfers of energy and nutrients among organisms in an ecosystem. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) In a food web, multiple organisms are involved in consuming and being consumed by others, forming a more realistic representation of energy flow in ecosystems. Removing any intermediate component from the food web can have significant impacts on the succeeding links of the chain. A food web provides alternative food sources to organisms, increasing their chances of survival by offering multiple options for obtaining energy and nutrients. (Hence statement 4 is incorrect) Organisms in a food web can have shifting food preferences and availability, influenced by seasonal changes and other factors. The interconnected networks of feeding relationships in a food web ensure the stability and resilience of an ecosystem by providing redundancy and flexibility in energy flow pathways. Question 14 of 35 14. Question How do keystone species differ from foundation species in terms of their impact on community structure? a) Keystone species have a larger biomass than foundation species. b) Keystone species belong to lower trophic levels, while foundation species are top predators. c) Keystone species have a disproportionate impact on community structure, while foundation species have a proportional impact. d) Keystone species primarily affect the physical environment, while foundation species primarily affect species interactions. Correct Solution (c) Structure of Community: The structure of a community refers to the composition of organisms present in an ecosystem, their abundance, and how they interact with each other. Species richness, which is the number of species present, and species diversity, which considers the relative numbers of each species, are used to define the structure of a community. Community structure is influenced by various factors, including abiotic influences (such as climate and physical environment), species interactions, disturbance levels, and random events. Foundation species and keystone species play crucial roles in shaping the structure of their ecosystems. Keystone species are those that have a disproportionately large impact on community structure relative to their biomass or abundance. (Hence option (c) is correct) Keystone species are often top predators and exhibit a wider range of behaviors compared to foundation species. An example of a keystone species is the intertidal sea star Pisasterochraceus, which regulates the population of mussels in its ecosystem. In an experiment where sea stars were removed, the mussel population increased significantly, leading to a decrease in species diversity and the dominance of mussels over other species. The loss of a keystone species can result in a decline in diversity or the collapse of community structure, as the interactions that the keystone species maintained are disrupted. In the example, the absence of sea stars allowed mussels to outcompete and suppress other species, leading to a loss of diversity in the intertidal zone. Incorrect Solution (c) Structure of Community: The structure of a community refers to the composition of organisms present in an ecosystem, their abundance, and how they interact with each other. Species richness, which is the number of species present, and species diversity, which considers the relative numbers of each species, are used to define the structure of a community. Community structure is influenced by various factors, including abiotic influences (such as climate and physical environment), species interactions, disturbance levels, and random events. Foundation species and keystone species play crucial roles in shaping the structure of their ecosystems. Keystone species are those that have a disproportionately large impact on community structure relative to their biomass or abundance. (Hence option (c) is correct) Keystone species are often top predators and exhibit a wider range of behaviors compared to foundation species. An example of a keystone species is the intertidal sea star Pisasterochraceus, which regulates the population of mussels in its ecosystem. In an experiment where sea stars were removed, the mussel population increased significantly, leading to a decrease in species diversity and the dominance of mussels over other species. The loss of a keystone species can result in a decline in diversity or the collapse of community structure, as the interactions that the keystone species maintained are disrupted. In the example, the absence of sea stars allowed mussels to outcompete and suppress other species, leading to a loss of diversity in the intertidal zone. Question 15 of 35 15. Question With reference to the Pyramid of Biomass, consider the following statements: The determination of the pyramid of biomass involves the collection of organisms from individual trophic levels and the subsequent measurement of their dry weight The upward pyramid demonstrates that the highest trophic level possesses the greatest amount of biomass The base of the Inverted pyramid pyramid consists of primary producers (autotrophs) with the highest biomass How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Pyramid of Biomass: The pyramid of biomass is used to address the limitations of the pyramid of numbers by considering the weight of individuals in each trophic level rather than just counting them. The pyramid of biomass is determined by collecting organisms from each trophic level separately and measuring their dry weight. This approach accounts for the size differences among organisms and provides a more accurate representation. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Biomass is measured in grams per square meter (g/m²) to quantify the total dry weight of all organisms at each trophic level at a specific time. (a) Upward pyramid: Most land ecosystems exhibit an upward pyramid of biomass. The base of the pyramid consists of primary producers (autotrophs) with the highest biomass. The trophic levels above the producers show a decreasing biomass, with primary consumers having less biomass than producers, and secondary consumers having less biomass than primary consumers. The highest trophic level has the lowest amount of biomass. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) (b) Inverted pyramid: Many aquatic ecosystems may have an inverted pyramid of biomass. In this case, tiny phytoplanktons serve as producers, and they grow and reproduce rapidly. The pyramid of biomass in aquatic ecosystems has a small base, with the biomass of consumers at any given moment exceeding the biomass of producers. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) As a result, the pyramid assumes an inverted shape, with higher trophic levels having more biomass than the base. Incorrect Solution (a) Pyramid of Biomass: The pyramid of biomass is used to address the limitations of the pyramid of numbers by considering the weight of individuals in each trophic level rather than just counting them. The pyramid of biomass is determined by collecting organisms from each trophic level separately and measuring their dry weight. This approach accounts for the size differences among organisms and provides a more accurate representation. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Biomass is measured in grams per square meter (g/m²) to quantify the total dry weight of all organisms at each trophic level at a specific time. (a) Upward pyramid: Most land ecosystems exhibit an upward pyramid of biomass. The base of the pyramid consists of primary producers (autotrophs) with the highest biomass. The trophic levels above the producers show a decreasing biomass, with primary consumers having less biomass than producers, and secondary consumers having less biomass than primary consumers. The highest trophic level has the lowest amount of biomass. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect) (b) Inverted pyramid: Many aquatic ecosystems may have an inverted pyramid of biomass. In this case, tiny phytoplanktons serve as producers, and they grow and reproduce rapidly. The pyramid of biomass in aquatic ecosystems has a small base, with the biomass of consumers at any given moment exceeding the biomass of producers. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect) As a result, the pyramid assumes an inverted shape, with higher trophic levels having more biomass than the base. Question 16 of 35 16. Question Consider the following statements with respect to Pyramid of Energy: The energy pyramid is always upward, with a large energy base at the bottom, indicating the availability of more energy at lower trophic levels As energy moves from one trophic level to another, there is a decrease in usable energy As herbivores consume plants and carnivores consume herbivores, the energy absorption decreases at each step due to utilization for metabolism How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Pyramid of Energy: Purpose: The energy pyramid is used to compare the functional roles of trophic levels in an ecosystem. Reflects thermodynamics: The energy pyramid reflects the laws of thermodynamics, showing the conversion of solar energy to chemical energy and heat energy at each trophic level, along with energy loss during transfers. Upward orientation: The energy pyramid is always upward, with a large energy base at the bottom, indicating the availability of more energy at lower trophic levels. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Energy loss: As energy moves from one trophic level to another, there is a decrease in usable energy. This is due to energy being used for metabolism and lost as heat. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Example: Suppose an ecosystem receives 1000 calories of light energy. Only a small portion is absorbed and utilized by green plants, resulting in 100 calories stored as energy-rich materials. Energy transfer: When a herbivore (e.g., a deer) consumes the plant, it absorbs a smaller amount of energy (e.g., 10 calories) after using some for its own metabolism. Similarly, a carnivore (e.g., a lion) that consumes the herbivore receives an even smaller amount of energy. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Biological magnification: The energy pyramid concept helps explain biological magnification, which is the progressive increase in the concentration of toxic substances at higher levels of the food chain. Incorrect Solution (c) Pyramid of Energy: Purpose: The energy pyramid is used to compare the functional roles of trophic levels in an ecosystem. Reflects thermodynamics: The energy pyramid reflects the laws of thermodynamics, showing the conversion of solar energy to chemical energy and heat energy at each trophic level, along with energy loss during transfers. Upward orientation: The energy pyramid is always upward, with a large energy base at the bottom, indicating the availability of more energy at lower trophic levels. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Energy loss: As energy moves from one trophic level to another, there is a decrease in usable energy. This is due to energy being used for metabolism and lost as heat. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Example: Suppose an ecosystem receives 1000 calories of light energy. Only a small portion is absorbed and utilized by green plants, resulting in 100 calories stored as energy-rich materials. Energy transfer: When a herbivore (e.g., a deer) consumes the plant, it absorbs a smaller amount of energy (e.g., 10 calories) after using some for its own metabolism. Similarly, a carnivore (e.g., a lion) that consumes the herbivore receives an even smaller amount of energy. (Hence statement 3 is correct) Biological magnification: The energy pyramid concept helps explain biological magnification, which is the progressive increase in the concentration of toxic substances at higher levels of the food chain. Question 17 of 35 17. Question Which of the following examples best illustrates the concept of survival of the fittest? a) A bird with strong wings being able to fly longer distances. b) A plant producing a large number of seeds for reproduction. c) A predator capturing and consuming its prey. d) A lizard changing its color to match its surroundings and avoid detection Correct Solution (d) Concept of Survival of the Fittest: The concept of survival of the fittest stems from Charles Darwin’s theory of natural selection. Organisms tend to produce more offspring than can be supported by available resources, leading to competition for survival. Genetic variation exists within species, and some variations provide advantages in terms of survival and reproduction. Beneficial variations increase an organism’s chances of survival and successful reproduction, leading to the passing on of these advantageous traits to future generations. Over time, populations undergo changes as the beneficial traits become more prevalent. Survival of the fittest implies that organisms that can adapt to their environment have a higher likelihood of surviving and passing on their advantageous genes. Examples of survival of the fittest include the case of moth wing color adaptation during the Industrial Revolution in London and the variation in beak size among Galapagos finches based on environmental conditions. The moth population adapted to the changing environment by developing darker wing colors to blend with the soot-covered trees, enhancing their chances of survival. Galapagos finches showcase how different beak sizes are favored in different climatic conditions, enabling specific variants to have better survival rates. This example demonstrates an adaptation that enhances the lizard’s survival by increasing its chances of avoiding predation. By changing its color to blend with its surroundings, the lizard becomes less visible to potential predators. This adaptation allows the lizard to better survive and pass on its genes to the next generation. (Hence option d) is correct) The other examples, while important for the respective organisms, do not directly represent the concept of survival of the fittest in the same way. The bird with strong wings, although beneficial for flying longer distances, does not necessarily imply a higher chance of survival in its environment. The plant producing a large number of seeds is an example of reproductive strategy but does not directly relate to adaptation or survival in a specific environment. The predator capturing and consuming its prey is an illustration of predator-prey interactions but does not solely represent the concept of fitness and adaptation. Incorrect Solution (d) Concept of Survival of the Fittest: The concept of survival of the fittest stems from Charles Darwin’s theory of natural selection. Organisms tend to produce more offspring than can be supported by available resources, leading to competition for survival. Genetic variation exists within species, and some variations provide advantages in terms of survival and reproduction. Beneficial variations increase an organism’s chances of survival and successful reproduction, leading to the passing on of these advantageous traits to future generations. Over time, populations undergo changes as the beneficial traits become more prevalent. Survival of the fittest implies that organisms that can adapt to their environment have a higher likelihood of surviving and passing on their advantageous genes. Examples of survival of the fittest include the case of moth wing color adaptation during the Industrial Revolution in London and the variation in beak size among Galapagos finches based on environmental conditions. The moth population adapted to the changing environment by developing darker wing colors to blend with the soot-covered trees, enhancing their chances of survival. Galapagos finches showcase how different beak sizes are favored in different climatic conditions, enabling specific variants to have better survival rates. This example demonstrates an adaptation that enhances the lizard’s survival by increasing its chances of avoiding predation. By changing its color to blend with its surroundings, the lizard becomes less visible to potential predators. This adaptation allows the lizard to better survive and pass on its genes to the next generation. (Hence option d) is correct) The other examples, while important for the respective organisms, do not directly represent the concept of survival of the fittest in the same way. The bird with strong wings, although beneficial for flying longer distances, does not necessarily imply a higher chance of survival in its environment. The plant producing a large number of seeds is an example of reproductive strategy but does not directly relate to adaptation or survival in a specific environment. The predator capturing and consuming its prey is an illustration of predator-prey interactions but does not solely represent the concept of fitness and adaptation. Question 18 of 35 18. Question With reference to the Comparison of Bioaccumulation and Biomagnification, consider the following statements: Bioaccumulation is driven by the concentration increase inside an organism, while biomagnification occurs as contaminants travel up the food chain Bioaccumulation occurs within a specific trophic level, while biomagnification involves the transfer of pollutants between trophic levels. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Bioaccumulation: Definition: Bioaccumulation refers to the progressive buildup of contaminants or other compounds in an organism. Absorption: Chemicals can enter an organism through breathing, skin absorption, or ingestion. Rate of accumulation: Bioaccumulation occurs when the rate of substance accumulation exceeds the rate of removal through catabolism or excretion. Persistence: Persistent pollutants like DDT pose a significant risk of bioaccumulation due to their long lifespan, even at low environmental levels. Biomagnification: Definition: Biomagnification is the increasing concentration of a pollutant at each trophic level over time. Biological half-life: Biomagnification occurs when the pollutant has a long biological half-life and is soluble in fats rather than water (e.g., DDT). Excretion: Water-soluble pollutants are excreted by organisms, while lipid-soluble pollutants remain in the body for longer periods. Measurement: Contaminant levels in fatty tissues, such as fish, are commonly measured to assess biomagnification. Milk analysis: Milk produced by female mammals, rich in fat, is examined for contaminants due to their potential for biomagnification. Comparison: Scope: Bioaccumulation focuses on the accumulation of substances within an organism, while biomagnification emphasizes the increasing concentration of pollutants across trophic levels. Cause: Bioaccumulation is driven by the concentration increase inside an organism, while biomagnification occurs as contaminants travel up the food chain. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Level of concentration: Bioaccumulation results in increased concentration within the organism, while biomagnification shows increasing concentration at higher trophic levels. Food Chain Interaction: Bioaccumulation occurs within a specific trophic level, while biomagnification involves the transfer of pollutants between trophic levels. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Examples: Bioaccumulation is exemplified by mercury accumulation in fish, while biomagnification is illustrated by the transfer of pollutants from microscopic organisms to larger fish and aquatic species. Incorrect Solution (c) Bioaccumulation: Definition: Bioaccumulation refers to the progressive buildup of contaminants or other compounds in an organism. Absorption: Chemicals can enter an organism through breathing, skin absorption, or ingestion. Rate of accumulation: Bioaccumulation occurs when the rate of substance accumulation exceeds the rate of removal through catabolism or excretion. Persistence: Persistent pollutants like DDT pose a significant risk of bioaccumulation due to their long lifespan, even at low environmental levels. Biomagnification: Definition: Biomagnification is the increasing concentration of a pollutant at each trophic level over time. Biological half-life: Biomagnification occurs when the pollutant has a long biological half-life and is soluble in fats rather than water (e.g., DDT). Excretion: Water-soluble pollutants are excreted by organisms, while lipid-soluble pollutants remain in the body for longer periods. Measurement: Contaminant levels in fatty tissues, such as fish, are commonly measured to assess biomagnification. Milk analysis: Milk produced by female mammals, rich in fat, is examined for contaminants due to their potential for biomagnification. Comparison: Scope: Bioaccumulation focuses on the accumulation of substances within an organism, while biomagnification emphasizes the increasing concentration of pollutants across trophic levels. Cause: Bioaccumulation is driven by the concentration increase inside an organism, while biomagnification occurs as contaminants travel up the food chain. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Level of concentration: Bioaccumulation results in increased concentration within the organism, while biomagnification shows increasing concentration at higher trophic levels. Food Chain Interaction: Bioaccumulation occurs within a specific trophic level, while biomagnification involves the transfer of pollutants between trophic levels. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Examples: Bioaccumulation is exemplified by mercury accumulation in fish, while biomagnification is illustrated by the transfer of pollutants from microscopic organisms to larger fish and aquatic species. Question 19 of 35 19. Question With reference Biotic Interactions, consider the following pairs: Parasitism : One species benefits, while the other is harmed Commensalism : One species is harmed, while the other is unaffected Amensalism : One species is harmed, while the other is unaffected Competition : Both species are harmed by the interaction How many of the above given pairs is/are correctly matched? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) Types of Biotic Interactions: Mutualism: Both species benefit from the interaction. Example: Pollination mutualisms, where pollinators receive food (pollen, nectar) while plants achieve cross-fertilization. Commensalism: One species benefit, while the other is unaffected. Example: Dung beetles benefit from cow dung, which provides them with food and shelter, while the cows are not affected. (Hence pair 2 is correctly matched) Competition: Both species are harmed by the interaction. (Hence pair 4 is correctly matched) Example: When two species compete for the same food and there is insufficient supply, both species suffer from a shortage of food. Predation and Parasitism: One species benefit, while the other is harmed. (Hence pair 1 is correctly matched) Example: Predation occurs when one fish kills and eats another, while parasitism is seen in ticks gaining benefits by sucking blood, which harms the host. Amensalism: One species is harmed, while the other is unaffected. Example: A large tree casting shade on a small plant, inhibiting its growth, while the small plant has no effect on the tree. (Hence pair 3 is correctly matched) Neutralism: No net benefit or harm to either species. Example: In some interactions, the costs and benefits experienced by each partner are exactly the same, resulting in a neutral relationship. It can also refer to species inhabiting the same space and utilizing the same resources without influencing each other significantly. Incorrect Solution (d) Types of Biotic Interactions: Mutualism: Both species benefit from the interaction. Example: Pollination mutualisms, where pollinators receive food (pollen, nectar) while plants achieve cross-fertilization. Commensalism: One species benefit, while the other is unaffected. Example: Dung beetles benefit from cow dung, which provides them with food and shelter, while the cows are not affected. (Hence pair 2 is correctly matched) Competition: Both species are harmed by the interaction. (Hence pair 4 is correctly matched) Example: When two species compete for the same food and there is insufficient supply, both species suffer from a shortage of food. Predation and Parasitism: One species benefit, while the other is harmed. (Hence pair 1 is correctly matched) Example: Predation occurs when one fish kills and eats another, while parasitism is seen in ticks gaining benefits by sucking blood, which harms the host. Amensalism: One species is harmed, while the other is unaffected. Example: A large tree casting shade on a small plant, inhibiting its growth, while the small plant has no effect on the tree. (Hence pair 3 is correctly matched) Neutralism: No net benefit or harm to either species. Example: In some interactions, the costs and benefits experienced by each partner are exactly the same, resulting in a neutral relationship. It can also refer to species inhabiting the same space and utilizing the same resources without influencing each other significantly. Question 20 of 35 20. Question With reference to the nitrogen cycle, consider the following statements: The nitrogen cycle starts with nitrogen fixation, converting atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia through symbiotic bacteria like Azotobacter and Rhizobium Ammonification converts organic nitrogen from dead plants or animals into ammonium through the action of decomposers like bacteria and fungi Denitrification is the final stage of the nitrogen cycle, where bacteria convert nitrates into gaseous nitrogen in oxygen-depleted environments, releasing nitrogen compounds into the atmosphere How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Nitrogen Cycle The nitrogen cycle is a biogeochemical process that converts inert nitrogen in the atmosphere into a form that can be used by living organisms. It is a vital component of the ecosystem. The nitrogen cycle involves several processes, including nitrogen fixation, nitrification, assimilation, ammonification, and denitrification. Nitrogen exists in both organic and inorganic forms. Organic nitrogen is found in living organisms and is transferred through the food chain. Inorganic nitrogen is abundant in the atmosphere. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria play a crucial role in converting atmospheric nitrogen into nitrogen compounds, such as nitrates and nitrites, which can be utilized by plants. The nitrogen cycle begins with nitrogen fixation, where atmospheric nitrogen is transformed into ammonia by symbiotic bacteria. This process is facilitated by diazotrophs like Azotobacter and Rhizobium. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Nitrification is the process in which ammonia is converted into nitrate by microorganisms in the soil. This involves the oxidation of ammonia to nitrite, followed by the conversion of nitrite to nitrate. Assimilation occurs when plants absorb nitrogen compounds from the soil through their roots. These compounds are used in the production of plant and animal proteins, entering the food web. Ammonification is the process of converting organic nitrogen from dead plants or animals into ammonium. Decomposers, such as bacteria and fungi, break down organic matter and release ammonia. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Denitrification is the final stage of the nitrogen cycle, where bacteria convert nitrates back into gaseous nitrogen, releasing nitrogen compounds into the atmosphere. This process occurs in oxygen-depleted environments. (Hence statement 3 is correct) In the marine ecosystem, the nitrogen cycle is similar to the terrestrial ecosystem. Marine microorganisms, including cyanobacteria and phytoplankton, play a crucial role in nitrogen fixation, nitrification, and other nitrogen cycle processes. The nitrogen cycle helps maintain ecosystem balance and nutrient availability for plants and animals. It is essential for the growth and survival of organisms in both terrestrial and marine environments. Incorrect Solution (c) Nitrogen Cycle The nitrogen cycle is a biogeochemical process that converts inert nitrogen in the atmosphere into a form that can be used by living organisms. It is a vital component of the ecosystem. The nitrogen cycle involves several processes, including nitrogen fixation, nitrification, assimilation, ammonification, and denitrification. Nitrogen exists in both organic and inorganic forms. Organic nitrogen is found in living organisms and is transferred through the food chain. Inorganic nitrogen is abundant in the atmosphere. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria play a crucial role in converting atmospheric nitrogen into nitrogen compounds, such as nitrates and nitrites, which can be utilized by plants. The nitrogen cycle begins with nitrogen fixation, where atmospheric nitrogen is transformed into ammonia by symbiotic bacteria. This process is facilitated by diazotrophs like Azotobacter and Rhizobium. (Hence statement 1 is correct) Nitrification is the process in which ammonia is converted into nitrate by microorganisms in the soil. This involves the oxidation of ammonia to nitrite, followed by the conversion of nitrite to nitrate. Assimilation occurs when plants absorb nitrogen compounds from the soil through their roots. These compounds are used in the production of plant and animal proteins, entering the food web. Ammonification is the process of converting organic nitrogen from dead plants or animals into ammonium. Decomposers, such as bacteria and fungi, break down organic matter and release ammonia. (Hence statement 2 is correct) Denitrification is the final stage of the nitrogen cycle, where bacteria convert nitrates back into gaseous nitrogen, releasing nitrogen compounds into the atmosphere. This process occurs in oxygen-depleted environments. (Hence statement 3 is correct) In the marine ecosystem, the nitrogen cycle is similar to the terrestrial ecosystem. Marine microorganisms, including cyanobacteria and phytoplankton, play a crucial role in nitrogen fixation, nitrification, and other nitrogen cycle processes. The nitrogen cycle helps maintain ecosystem balance and nutrient availability for plants and animals. It is essential for the growth and survival of organisms in both terrestrial and marine environments. Question 21 of 35 21. Question Consider the following statements: World Hepatitis Day is observed each year on the birthday of Dr. Baruch Blumberg. The theme for World Hepatitis Day 2023 is “We’re not waiting”. Hepatitis is the inflammation of the liver, characterised by irritation or swelling of the liver cells due to various causes. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) World Hepatitis Day is observed each year on the birthday of Dr. Baruch Blumberg. Hence statement 1 is correct. Blumberg discovered the hepatitis B virus in 1967,and 2 years later, he developed the first hepatitis B vaccine.  These achievements culminated in Dr. Blumberg winning the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1976. World Hepatitis Day is observed each year on July 28 to raise awareness of viral hepatitis, which causes inflammation of the liverthat leads to severe disease and liver cancer. It is recognized by the World Health Organization (WHO). The theme for World Hepatitis Day 2023 is “We’re not waiting”.  Hence statement 2 is correct. This theme highlights the need for urgent action to eliminate viral hepatitis by 2030. Hepatitis is the inflammation of the liver, characterised by irritation or swelling of the liver cells due to various causes. Hence statement 3 is correct. Hepatitis can be an acute (short-term) infection or a chronic (long-term) infection.  There aredifferent types of hepatitis, with different causes: Viral hepatitis is the most common type. It is caused by one of several viruses — hepatitis viruses A, B, C, D, and E. Alcoholic hepatitisis caused by heavy alcohol use. Toxic hepatitis can be caused by certain poisons, chemicals, medicines, or supplements. Autoimmune hepatitis is a chronic type in which your body’s immune system attacks your liver.The cause is not known, but genetics and your environment may play a role. Some people with hepatitis do not have symptoms and do not know they are infected. Common symptoms include: Fever Fatigue Loss of appetite Nausea and/or vomiting Abdominal pain Dark urine Clay-colored bowel movements Joint pain Jaundice, yellowing of your skin and eyes Treatment for hepatitis depends on which type you have and whether it is acute or chronic. Acute viral hepatitis often goes away on its own. There are different medicinesto treat the different chronic types of hepatitis. Incorrect Solution (c) World Hepatitis Day is observed each year on the birthday of Dr. Baruch Blumberg. Hence statement 1 is correct. Blumberg discovered the hepatitis B virus in 1967,and 2 years later, he developed the first hepatitis B vaccine.  These achievements culminated in Dr. Blumberg winning the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1976. World Hepatitis Day is observed each year on July 28 to raise awareness of viral hepatitis, which causes inflammation of the liverthat leads to severe disease and liver cancer. It is recognized by the World Health Organization (WHO). The theme for World Hepatitis Day 2023 is “We’re not waiting”.  Hence statement 2 is correct. This theme highlights the need for urgent action to eliminate viral hepatitis by 2030. Hepatitis is the inflammation of the liver, characterised by irritation or swelling of the liver cells due to various causes. Hence statement 3 is correct. Hepatitis can be an acute (short-term) infection or a chronic (long-term) infection.  There aredifferent types of hepatitis, with different causes: Viral hepatitis is the most common type. It is caused by one of several viruses — hepatitis viruses A, B, C, D, and E. Alcoholic hepatitisis caused by heavy alcohol use. Toxic hepatitis can be caused by certain poisons, chemicals, medicines, or supplements. Autoimmune hepatitis is a chronic type in which your body’s immune system attacks your liver.The cause is not known, but genetics and your environment may play a role. Some people with hepatitis do not have symptoms and do not know they are infected. Common symptoms include: Fever Fatigue Loss of appetite Nausea and/or vomiting Abdominal pain Dark urine Clay-colored bowel movements Joint pain Jaundice, yellowing of your skin and eyes Treatment for hepatitis depends on which type you have and whether it is acute or chronic. Acute viral hepatitis often goes away on its own. There are different medicinesto treat the different chronic types of hepatitis. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements regarding the climatic conditions required for Cocoa: It requires an annual rainfall of 300-500 cm. It grows in the temperature range of 15°-39°C with an optimum of 25°C considered ideal. The majority of the area under Cocoa cultivation is on clay loam and sandy loam soil. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Cocoa is an important plantation crop grown for chocolates around the world. It is known as a crop of humid tropics and is native to the Amazon basin of South America. It is mainly grown in an area of land around the equator between 20 degrees latitude north and south. About 70 percent of the world’s cocoa beans come from four West African countries – Ivory Coast, Ghana, Nigeria, and Cameroon. The climatic conditions required for Cocoa: It requires an annual rainfall of 150-200 cm. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It grows in the temperature range of 15°-39°C with an optimum of 25°C considered ideal. Hence statement 2 is correct. The majority of the area under Cocoa cultivation is on clay loam and sandy loam soil. It grows well in the pH range of 6.5 to 7.0. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) Cocoa is an important plantation crop grown for chocolates around the world. It is known as a crop of humid tropics and is native to the Amazon basin of South America. It is mainly grown in an area of land around the equator between 20 degrees latitude north and south. About 70 percent of the world’s cocoa beans come from four West African countries – Ivory Coast, Ghana, Nigeria, and Cameroon. The climatic conditions required for Cocoa: It requires an annual rainfall of 150-200 cm. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It grows in the temperature range of 15°-39°C with an optimum of 25°C considered ideal. Hence statement 2 is correct. The majority of the area under Cocoa cultivation is on clay loam and sandy loam soil. It grows well in the pH range of 6.5 to 7.0. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 23 of 35 23. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Bugun Tribe: They mainly reside adjacent to Dibru-Saikhowa National Park in Assam. They celebrate the annual festival called the “Pham-Kho”. They have their own socio-political administrative decision-making body called the Nimiang. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Bugun Tribe mainly resides adjacent to Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary in Arunachal Pradesh. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. They migrated from Tibet via East Kameng, Arunachal Pradesh. They have their own geographical boundaries with neighbouring tribes and have a distinct language called Khowa. In ancient times the Bugun/Khowa tribe was known as “Shisung-Rubai.” They celebrate the annual festival called the “Pham-Kho”. Hence statement 2 is correct. Like other Indo-Mongoloid tribes of Arunachal Pradesh, Buguns (Khowas) too build their houses with bamboo. They are skilled at extracting oil from a local wood species found in the forests called Chiblem. They are generally endogamous as they marry within their community. They have their own socio-political administrative decision-making body called the Nimiang. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) The Bugun Tribe mainly resides adjacent to Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary in Arunachal Pradesh. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. They migrated from Tibet via East Kameng, Arunachal Pradesh. They have their own geographical boundaries with neighbouring tribes and have a distinct language called Khowa. In ancient times the Bugun/Khowa tribe was known as “Shisung-Rubai.” They celebrate the annual festival called the “Pham-Kho”. Hence statement 2 is correct. Like other Indo-Mongoloid tribes of Arunachal Pradesh, Buguns (Khowas) too build their houses with bamboo. They are skilled at extracting oil from a local wood species found in the forests called Chiblem. They are generally endogamous as they marry within their community. They have their own socio-political administrative decision-making body called the Nimiang. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements regarding Asbestos: They are a group of six silicate minerals with similar but distinct properties. They are non-flammable even at very high temperatures, and resistant to heat and corrosion. India’s asbestos requirement is met through imports from Russia, Kazakhstan, Brazil, and China. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Asbestos is a group of six silicate minerals with similar but distinct properties. Hence statement 1 is correct. These are generally divided into two sub-groups – serpentine and amphiboles. Serpentine asbestos (chrysotile or white asbestos) was the most commonly used type of asbestos. They are non-flammable even at very high temperatures, and resistant to heat and corrosion. Hence statement 2 is correct. They are extremely flexible and durable. They have good tensile strength and have low heat conductivity and high resistance to electricity. India’s asbestos requirement is met through imports from Russia, Kazakhstan, Brazil, and China. Hence statement 3 is correct. According to the World Health Organization, all varieties of asbestos are associated with conditions such as lung cancer, mesothelioma, laryngeal cancer, ovarian cancer, and asbestosis, lung fibrosis. If products containing asbestos are disturbed, tiny asbestos fibers are released into the air. When asbestos fibers are breathed in, they may get trapped in the lungs and remain there for a long time.   Incorrect Solution (c) Asbestos is a group of six silicate minerals with similar but distinct properties. Hence statement 1 is correct. These are generally divided into two sub-groups – serpentine and amphiboles. Serpentine asbestos (chrysotile or white asbestos) was the most commonly used type of asbestos. They are non-flammable even at very high temperatures, and resistant to heat and corrosion. Hence statement 2 is correct. They are extremely flexible and durable. They have good tensile strength and have low heat conductivity and high resistance to electricity. India’s asbestos requirement is met through imports from Russia, Kazakhstan, Brazil, and China. Hence statement 3 is correct. According to the World Health Organization, all varieties of asbestos are associated with conditions such as lung cancer, mesothelioma, laryngeal cancer, ovarian cancer, and asbestosis, lung fibrosis. If products containing asbestos are disturbed, tiny asbestos fibers are released into the air. When asbestos fibers are breathed in, they may get trapped in the lungs and remain there for a long time.   Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements regarding the International Seabed Authority (ISA): It is an autonomous international organization established to regulate mining and related activities in the international seabed beyond national jurisdiction. It came into existence upon the entry into force of the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). It is headquartered in Lyon, France. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The International Seabed Authority (ISA) is an autonomous international organization established to regulate mining and related activities in the international seabed beyond national jurisdiction. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is the organization through which state parties to UNCLOS organize and control all mineral-resources-related activities in the Area (the seabed and ocean floor and the subsoil thereof, beyond the limits of national jurisdiction) for the benefit of humankind as a whole. In so doing, ISA has the mandate to ensure the effective protection of the marine environment from harmful effects that may arise from deep-seabed-related activities. It came into existence upon the entry into force of the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). Hence statement 2 is correct. UNCLOS codified international law regarding territorial waters, sea lanes, and ocean resources. ISA has 169 Members, including 168 Member States and the European Union. It is headquartered in Kingston, Jamaica. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (b) The International Seabed Authority (ISA) is an autonomous international organization established to regulate mining and related activities in the international seabed beyond national jurisdiction. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is the organization through which state parties to UNCLOS organize and control all mineral-resources-related activities in the Area (the seabed and ocean floor and the subsoil thereof, beyond the limits of national jurisdiction) for the benefit of humankind as a whole. In so doing, ISA has the mandate to ensure the effective protection of the marine environment from harmful effects that may arise from deep-seabed-related activities. It came into existence upon the entry into force of the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). Hence statement 2 is correct. UNCLOS codified international law regarding territorial waters, sea lanes, and ocean resources. ISA has 169 Members, including 168 Member States and the European Union. It is headquartered in Kingston, Jamaica. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Question 26 of 35 26. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Netravati River: It rises between Kudrermukh and Ballalaryan Durga in the Dakshina Kannada district of Karnataka. The Kumaradhara and Hemavati are its tributaries. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) The Netravati River rises between Kudrermukh and Ballalaryan Durga in the Dakshina Kannada district of Karnataka. Hence statement 1 is correct. The river drains an area of 3,657 sq km. During the monsoon season, the Netravati River overflows, which has an adverse effect on the nearby areas. Under the world’s biodiversity conservation project, the catchment area of the Netravati River is selected as one of the 30 hotspots for biodiversity conservation. It flows generally in a North-South direction for 40 km up to Gohattu, where it takes a turn towards the West and thereafter flows in an East-West direction up to its outfall into the Arabian Sea near Mangalore. The Kumaradhara and Hemavati are its tributaries. Hence statement 2 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) The Netravati River rises between Kudrermukh and Ballalaryan Durga in the Dakshina Kannada district of Karnataka. Hence statement 1 is correct. The river drains an area of 3,657 sq km. During the monsoon season, the Netravati River overflows, which has an adverse effect on the nearby areas. Under the world’s biodiversity conservation project, the catchment area of the Netravati River is selected as one of the 30 hotspots for biodiversity conservation. It flows generally in a North-South direction for 40 km up to Gohattu, where it takes a turn towards the West and thereafter flows in an East-West direction up to its outfall into the Arabian Sea near Mangalore. The Kumaradhara and Hemavati are its tributaries. Hence statement 2 is correct. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements about the Earth Hour: It is a global grassroots movement uniting people to take action on environmental issues and protect the planet. It is organized by the International Energy Agency (IEA). It takes place towards the end of March every year. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Earth Hour is a global grassroots movement uniting people to take action on environmental issues and protect the planet. Hence statement 1 is correct. It started in Sydney, Australia, in 2007 as a symbolic lights-out event and has since grown into a global movement involving millions of people in over 190 countries and territories. It is organized by the World Wildlife Fund (WWF). Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It encourages people to switch off all lights for an hour, from 8:30 p.m. to 9:30 p.m. local time, to promote awareness of climate change challenges and energy conservation. Governments and companies also participate by turning off non-essential lights in their buildings, monuments, and landmarks to raise awareness about the impact of energy consumption on our planet. It takes place towards the end of March every year. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is known as the ‘lights off’ moment, unites people worldwide in a show of support for the planet and serves as a reminder of the environmental issues facing us.   Incorrect Solution (b) The Earth Hour is a global grassroots movement uniting people to take action on environmental issues and protect the planet. Hence statement 1 is correct. It started in Sydney, Australia, in 2007 as a symbolic lights-out event and has since grown into a global movement involving millions of people in over 190 countries and territories. It is organized by the World Wildlife Fund (WWF). Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It encourages people to switch off all lights for an hour, from 8:30 p.m. to 9:30 p.m. local time, to promote awareness of climate change challenges and energy conservation. Governments and companies also participate by turning off non-essential lights in their buildings, monuments, and landmarks to raise awareness about the impact of energy consumption on our planet. It takes place towards the end of March every year. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is known as the ‘lights off’ moment, unites people worldwide in a show of support for the planet and serves as a reminder of the environmental issues facing us.   Question 28 of 35 28. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Battle of Okinawa: It was the last major battle of World War I. It was fought between the U.S. and Germany. Okinawa is the largest of the Ryukyu Islands. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) The Battle of Okinawa was the last major battle of World War II. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The Americans wanted control of Okinawa because it had four airfields and could support tactical and strategic air operations. Capturing Okinawa was regarded as a vital precursor to a ground invasion of the Japanese home islands. Code named Operation Iceberg, the invasion of Okinawa and other islands in the Ryukyus began on April 1, 1945. It was fought between the U.S. and Japan. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The immense size of the invasion forces made it the largest amphibious assault in the Pacific War. Okinawa is the largest of the Ryukyu Islands. Hence statement 3 is correct. It lies 350 miles from mainland Japan. Ryukyus Islands is an archipelago, extending some 700 miles (1,100 km) south-westward from the southern Japanese island of Kyushu to north-eastern Taiwan. Incorrect Solution (a) The Battle of Okinawa was the last major battle of World War II. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The Americans wanted control of Okinawa because it had four airfields and could support tactical and strategic air operations. Capturing Okinawa was regarded as a vital precursor to a ground invasion of the Japanese home islands. Code named Operation Iceberg, the invasion of Okinawa and other islands in the Ryukyus began on April 1, 1945. It was fought between the U.S. and Japan. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The immense size of the invasion forces made it the largest amphibious assault in the Pacific War. Okinawa is the largest of the Ryukyu Islands. Hence statement 3 is correct. It lies 350 miles from mainland Japan. Ryukyus Islands is an archipelago, extending some 700 miles (1,100 km) south-westward from the southern Japanese island of Kyushu to north-eastern Taiwan. Question 29 of 35 29. Question Consider the following statements regarding Biomining: It is a method of extracting metals from ores and solid materials using prokaryotes, fungi, or plants. It targets various metals, including copper, gold, uranium, and rare earth elements. It reduces energy consumption, water usage, and carbon emissions compared to traditional mining methods. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Biomining is a method of extracting metals from ores and solid materials using prokaryotes, fungi, or plants. Hence statement 1 is correct. Microorganisms such as bacteria and archaea secrete organic compounds that chelate metals from the environment, making them accessible for extraction. It may also be used to clean up sites that have been polluted with metals. It targets various metals, including copper, gold, uranium, and rare earth elements. Hence statement 2 is correct. It primarily involves bio-oxidation and bioleaching processes. Large-scale biomining operations utilize chemostats of microbes to leach metals from ores, offering a sustainable and eco-friendly alternative to traditional mining methods. It reduces energy consumption, water usage, and carbon emissions compared to traditional mining methods. Hence statement 3 is correct. It permits extraction from low-grade ores, contributing to resource recovery and waste remediation. Incorrect Solution (c) Biomining is a method of extracting metals from ores and solid materials using prokaryotes, fungi, or plants. Hence statement 1 is correct. Microorganisms such as bacteria and archaea secrete organic compounds that chelate metals from the environment, making them accessible for extraction. It may also be used to clean up sites that have been polluted with metals. It targets various metals, including copper, gold, uranium, and rare earth elements. Hence statement 2 is correct. It primarily involves bio-oxidation and bioleaching processes. Large-scale biomining operations utilize chemostats of microbes to leach metals from ores, offering a sustainable and eco-friendly alternative to traditional mining methods. It reduces energy consumption, water usage, and carbon emissions compared to traditional mining methods. Hence statement 3 is correct. It permits extraction from low-grade ores, contributing to resource recovery and waste remediation. Question 30 of 35 30. Question Consider the following statements regarding Reverse Flipping: It is used to describe the trend of overseas start-ups shifting their domicile to India and listing on Indian stock exchanges. The process such as simplifying the processes for tax vacations, capital movements, and decreasing tax layers can accelerate it. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Reverse Flipping is used to describe the trend of overseas start-ups shifting their domicile to India and listing on Indian stock exchanges. Hence statement 1 is correct. The general motivation for a reverse flip is the increased certainty of an exit at a higher valuation in India. This trend has been gaining traction in recent years, as start-ups look to capitalise on India’s large and growing economy, access to deeper pools of venture capital, favourable tax regimes, better intellectual property protection, a young and educated population, and favourable government policies. The process such as simplifying the processes for tax vacations, capital movements, and decreasing tax layers can accelerate it. These are proposed in the Economic Survey 2022-23. Hence statement 2 is correct.   Incorrect Solution (c) Reverse Flipping is used to describe the trend of overseas start-ups shifting their domicile to India and listing on Indian stock exchanges. Hence statement 1 is correct. The general motivation for a reverse flip is the increased certainty of an exit at a higher valuation in India. This trend has been gaining traction in recent years, as start-ups look to capitalise on India’s large and growing economy, access to deeper pools of venture capital, favourable tax regimes, better intellectual property protection, a young and educated population, and favourable government policies. The process such as simplifying the processes for tax vacations, capital movements, and decreasing tax layers can accelerate it. These are proposed in the Economic Survey 2022-23. Hence statement 2 is correct.   Question 31 of 35 31. Question From a point P on a level ground, the angle of elevation of the top tower is 300. If the tower is 100 m high, the distance of point P from the foot of the tower is: a) 149 m b) 156 m c) 173 m d) 200 m Correct Solution (c) Let AB be the tower. Then, ∠APB = 30° and AB = 100m   AB/AP = tan 30° = 1/√3 ⇒ AP = AB × √3 = 100 × √3 ⇒ AP = 100 × 1.73 = 173m Incorrect Solution (c) Let AB be the tower. Then, ∠APB = 30° and AB = 100m   AB/AP = tan 30° = 1/√3 ⇒ AP = AB × √3 = 100 × √3 ⇒ AP = 100 × 1.73 = 173m Question 32 of 35 32. Question Let a, b, c and d be natural numbers such that a – 502 = b + 503 = c – 504 = d + 506 Which one of the following is the largest natural number? a) d b) c c) b d) a Correct Solution (c) In questions like this, we need to keep in mind that we are just supposed to compare the numbers and so we should avoid wasting our time in finding their real values. a – 502 = b + 503 or a = b + 503 + 502 (it means a > b) b + 503 = c – 504 or c = b + 503 + 504 (it means c > b) c – 504 = d + 505 or c = d + 505 + 504 (it means c > d) a – 502 = c – 504 or c = a – 502 + 504 = a + 2 (it means c > a) We already know that c > b, d On arranging all letters according to above findings, we get: c > a > b & c > d Hence, c is the largest number. Incorrect Solution (c) In questions like this, we need to keep in mind that we are just supposed to compare the numbers and so we should avoid wasting our time in finding their real values. a – 502 = b + 503 or a = b + 503 + 502 (it means a > b) b + 503 = c – 504 or c = b + 503 + 504 (it means c > b) c – 504 = d + 505 or c = d + 505 + 504 (it means c > d) a – 502 = c – 504 or c = a – 502 + 504 = a + 2 (it means c > a) We already know that c > b, d On arranging all letters according to above findings, we get: c > a > b & c > d Hence, c is the largest number. Question 33 of 35 33. Question x is a prime number. It is squared, and added to a different prime number. Statements: The resultant is a positive number. The resultant is an odd number. The resultant is an even number. The resultant is a negative number. Based on the above statements chose the correct option a) i and iii only b) ii or iii only c) ii and iv only d) Either ii or iii and i only Correct Solution (d) Case 1: Let x = 2 Required sum = 22+ 3 = 4 + 3 = 7 So, the resultant is odd. So, statement ii is correct. Case 2: Let x = 3 Required sum = 32 + 5 = 9 + 5 = 14 So, the resultant is even. So, statement iii is correct. Both the results are positive numbers. So statement i is also true. So, option (d) is the correct answer.   Incorrect Solution (d) Case 1: Let x = 2 Required sum = 22+ 3 = 4 + 3 = 7 So, the resultant is odd. So, statement ii is correct. Case 2: Let x = 3 Required sum = 32 + 5 = 9 + 5 = 14 So, the resultant is even. So, statement iii is correct. Both the results are positive numbers. So statement i is also true. So, option (d) is the correct answer.   Question 34 of 35 34. Question In the repeating decimal below, the digits 9639757 repeat. What digit is in the 768th place to the right of the decimal point? 0.96397579639757… a) 5 b) 3 c) 9 d) 7 Correct Solution (d) There is 7 digits in the given number, so it will repeat after every 7 digit and 7th digit of the number is 7. It will look like: 1st 2nd 3rd 4th 5th 6th 7th 8th 9th 10th 11th 12th 13th 14th 9    6   3    9   7    5   7   9    6    3      9     7       5     7 763rd  764th  765th  766th  767th  768th 7         9         6         3        9         7 763 is the closest number that is a multiple of 7. Hence, 768th place will be 7. So, option (d) is the correct option. Incorrect Solution (d) There is 7 digits in the given number, so it will repeat after every 7 digit and 7th digit of the number is 7. It will look like: 1st 2nd 3rd 4th 5th 6th 7th 8th 9th 10th 11th 12th 13th 14th 9    6   3    9   7    5   7   9    6    3      9     7       5     7 763rd  764th  765th  766th  767th  768th 7         9         6         3        9         7 763 is the closest number that is a multiple of 7. Hence, 768th place will be 7. So, option (d) is the correct option. Question 35 of 35 35. Question A monkey tries to pick a coconut from a coconut tree which is at the height of 61 feet. Every time the monkey jumps 3 feet and slides down 1 feet. What is the number of jumps required for the monkey to reach to the coconut? a) 28 b) 29 c) 30 d) 31 Correct Solution (c) Height of coconut = 61 feet Total height covered by monkey in one jump = 3 – 1 = 2 feet Number of jumps required by monkey to cover 58 feet = 58/2 = 29 jumps In the 30th jump the monkey will reach the coconut. Hence, total number of jumps required = 30 Hence, the correct answer is option (c). Incorrect Solution (c) Height of coconut = 61 feet Total height covered by monkey in one jump = 3 – 1 = 2 feet Number of jumps required by monkey to cover 58 feet = 58/2 = 29 jumps In the 30th jump the monkey will reach the coconut. 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Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 4th May 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 3rd May 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   La Cumbre volcano Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: On March 2, La Cumbre erupted for the first time since 2020, NASA’s Earth Observatory reported, when lava began slowly seeping out of a fissure near the summit of the volcano’s 4,850-foot-tall (1,480 meters) southeast flank and dribbling down the mountain’s tree-covered slopes. Since then, lava has continually poured out of the volcano, and in early April, the river of molten rock reached the island’s coastline around 6 miles (10 km) from La Cumbre Background:- Fernandina, the youngest of the Galápagos islands, is also the most volcanically active. The island’s La Cumbre volcano lies directly atop the mantle plume, or hot spot, that produced all of the Galápagos islands. About La Cumbre volcano La Cumbre is a shield volcano on Fernandina Island in the Galápagos Islands. Volcanic emissions from Galápagos volcanoes are typically rich in sulfur dioxide and have little ash. The La Cumbre volcano is located around 1,125 kilometres off mainland Ecuador. Since Fernandina – the most volcanically active island among the Galápagos Islands – is uninhabited, there is no risk to people or infrastructure, but the lava flow reportedly has proven to be a spectacle for people on passing ships. Most of Fernandina is rocky and inhospitable to vegetation due to recent lava flows, but a ring of vegetation grows on the volcano’s upper slopes. Vegetation covers more of the other Galápagos islands, where eruptions are less frequent. The island is also home to a large population of rare land iguanas which nest and lay eggs on the rim of the volcano’s large crater or caldera and deep within it. About Galápagos Islands The Galápagos Islands are an archipelago of volcanic islands in the Eastern Pacific, located around the Equator 900 km (560 mi) west of South America. They form the Galápagos Province of the Republic of Ecuador. The Galápagos are famous for their large number of endemic species, which were studied by Charles Darwin in the 1830s and inspired his theory of evolution by means of natural selection. All of these islands are protected as part of Ecuador’s Galápagos National Park and Marine Reserve. Source: Nasa Great Rift Valley Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: At least 42 people died when a dam burst its banks near a town in Kenya’s Rift Valley, as heavy rains and floods battered the country recently. Background: A rift valleyis a lowland region that forms where Earth’s tectonic plates move apart, or Rift valleys are found on land and at the bottom of the ocean, where they are created by the process of seafloor spreading. Rift valleys differ from river valleys and glacial valleys in that they are created by tectonic activity and not the process of erosion. About the Great Rift Valley The Great Rift Valley is a series of contiguous geographic trenches, approximately 7,000 kilometres (4,300 mi) in total length, that runs from Lebanon in Asia to Mozambique in Southeast Africa. While the name continues in some usages, it is rarely used in geology as it is considered an imprecise merging of separate though related rift and fault systems. The northern part of the system is the Jordan Rift Valley. The Jordan Rift Valley stretches from the Golan Heights, near Israel’s border with Syria and Lebanon, to the Dead Sea, to the Gulf of Aqaba—an inlet of the Red Sea that separates the Sinai Peninsula from the Arabian Peninsula. Associated with the Jordan Rift Valley to the south is the Red Sea Rift. Millions of years ago, the Arabian Peninsula was connected to Africa. Seafloor spreading caused the Arabian and African plates to rift apart. The Indian Ocean flooded the rift valley between the continents, creating the Red Sea. Today, Africa and Asia are connected by the triangle of the Sinai Peninsula. Eventually, the Red Sea Rift will separate Africa and Asia entirely and connect the Mediterranean and Red Seas. South of the Red Sea Rift lies the massive, complex East African Rift. Throughout the East African Rift, the continent of Africa is splitting in two. The African plate, sometimes called the Nubian plate, carries most of the continent, while the smaller Somali plate carries Horn of Africa. Several deep, elongated lakes, called ribbon lakes, exist on the floor of this rift valley: Lake Malawi and Lake Tanganyika are examples of such lakes. The region has a unique ecosystem and contains a number of Africa’s wildlife parks. Source: National Geographic NAVRATNA STATUS Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: Recently, the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency, a public sector undertaking company was granted ‘Navratna status’ from the department of public enterprises. Background: IREDA provides funding and other services to projects focused on renewable energy and energy efficiency. About NAVRATNA STATUS The Indian government classifies Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) into three categories: Maharatna, Navratna, and Miniratna. Navratna companies are a group of Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) in India that enjoy a certain degree of financial autonomy from the government. These companies have specific privileges and can invest up to Rs 1,000 crore without explicit government approval. Eligibility Criteria for Navratna Status: A company must first be a Miniratna and have four independent directors on its board before it can be considered for Navratna status. The company must score at least 60 out of 100 based on specific parameters, including : PBDIT (Profit Before Depreciation, Interest, and Taxes), Total Manpower Cost, Cost of Services, Capital Employed, Net Worth, Net Profit. Additionally, the company must demonstrate significant global presence or international operations. Benefits of Navratna Status: Navratna companies can invest up to Rs 1,000 crore or 15% of their net worth in a single project, whichever is lower. They can also invest up to 30% of their net worth over the entire year, again not exceeding Rs 1,000 crore. These companies have greater financial flexibility and can undertake strategic projects without seeking explicit government approval. Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA) Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA) is a ‘Navratna’ Government of India Enterprise under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). Established in 1987, IREDA serves as a Non-Banking Financial Institution (NBFC) dedicated to promoting, developing, and extending financial assistance for projects related to renewable sources of energy and energy efficiency/conservation. Source: Livemint CONFLICT MINERALS Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Recently, the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) has accused Apple of using conflict minerals. Background: The DRC accuses Apple of purchasing minerals that have been smuggled out of the country into neighbouring Rwanda. These minerals are then integrated into Apple’s global technology supply chain, where their origin is allegedly obscured. About CONFLICT MINERALS: Conflict minerals, also known as “blood minerals,” are extracted from regions affected by armed conflict or human rights abuses. These minerals play a significant role in funding violence and wars. These minerals play a crucial role in various industries, including electronics, automotive, and renewable energy. The DRC is rich in untapped reserves of precious metals and minerals. The primary conflict minerals include: Tin , Tantalum, Tungsten, Gold. These minerals are extracted from ores such as cassiterite (tin), columbite-tantalite (tantalum), and wolframite (tungsten). Impact of Conflict Minerals: In politically unstable regions, the trade in these minerals can: Finance armed groups: The proceeds from mineral sales may directly fund armed conflict. Fuel forced labour: Miners, including children, may be subjected to exploitative working conditions. Support corruption and money laundering: Illicit trade can perpetuate corruption and criminal activities. Source: Down To Earth AJRAKH Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context:  Ajrakh from Kutch gets GI tag Background: Ajrakh’s GI tag was granted by the Geographical Indications Registry after a long process of documentation and verification of its origin and production techniques.   About AJRAKH : The Ajrakh fabric is a traditional hand-block printing technique that originated in Kutch, Gujarat. It uses natural dyes and intricate patterns to create beautiful textiles, which are then used to make sarees, dupattas, stoles, and other garments. The unique feature of Ajrakh is its use of geometric patterns and rich earthy colours like indigo, madder, and mustard. This fabric has been an integral part of the Kutchi culture for centuries and has now gained recognition on a global level with its GI tag. What is a GI tag? A Geographical Indication (GI) tag is a sign used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities or a reputation that are due to that origin. It serves as an intellectual property right, attributing a product’s quality, reputation, or other characteristic to its geographical origin. In India, GI tags are issued by the Geographical Indication Registry under the Department of Industry Promotion and Internal Trade, Ministry of Commerce and Industry. The GI tag helps to ensure that only those registered as authorized users are allowed to use the popular product name. This system of tagging is beneficial as it prevents unauthorized use of a registered GI by others, promotes economic prosperity of producers of goods produced in a geographical territory, and helps consumers to get quality products of desired traits. Some other Indian textiles that have received similar recognition. Banarasi Silk: It is a fine variant of silk originating from the city of Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh, India. Chanderi Fabric: Chanderi, a small town in Madhya Pradesh, is known for its delicate and lightweight fabric. Kanjeevaram Silk: The Kanjeevaram sarees from Tamil Nadu are famous for their vibrant colours, fine silk, and intricate zari work. Kota Doria: One of the many varieties of sari clothing produced in Muhammadabad Gohna, Mau in Uttar Pradesh and the surrounding area, as well as in Kota, Rajasthan, is kota doria. Odisha Ikat: One type of ikat, which is a resist dyeing method, comes from Odisha and is called Orissa Ikat. Source: Times of India Previous Year Question Q) Which of the following has/have been accorded ‘Geographical Indication’ status? Banaras Brocades and Sarees Rajasthani Daal-Bati-Churma Tirupathi Laddu Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Marine Cloud Brightening (MCB) Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Context: Scientists are testing a geoengineering technique called marine cloud brightening that involves using machines to inject tiny saltwater particles into marine stratocumulus clouds, aiming to increase their reflectivity and cool the Earth. Background: The Brightening clouds is one of several ideas to push solar energy back into space — sometimes called solar radiation modification, solar geoengineering, or climate intervention. Marine Cloud Brightening (MCB): It is a scientific initiative that explores how altering atmospheric particles (aerosols) can impact cloud reflectivity. By releasing tiny aerosol particles into the atmosphere, researchers aim to enhance cloud brightness, leading to increased sunlight reflection. Aerosols of the right size and concentration could significantly increase the reflectivity of specific types of clouds. This phenomenon is visible in satellite images of clouds brightened by ship emissions (known as “ship tracks”). Goals of the Marine Cloud Brightening Program: It helps in better understanding of the present-day effects of pollution aerosols on clouds. Investigate whether aerosol particles made from sea salt could be used to intentionally reduce near-term climate warming while greenhouse gas concentrations are brought down to safer levels. It aims to understand the benefits, risks, and efficacy of the intentional use of aerosols to reduce warming through different implementations of marine cloud brightening. Concerns/Challenges associated with Marine Cloud Brightening (MCB): MCB involves the large-scale spraying of seawater into the atmosphere at significant altitudes, which presents engineering complexities in terms of design, cost, maintenance, and operation of the spraying devices. Alterations in cloud patterns and precipitation due to MCB could affect regional climate and hydrological cycles, potentially causing unintended consequences like droughts or floods. Changes in clouds over broad regions affect the circulation of the atmosphere, weather, and precipitation. Both marine cloud brightening (MCB) and pollution aerosols can change clouds, which in turn affects regions both nearby and far from where the brightening occurs. MCB raises ethical dilemmas about human intervention in natural processes and the governance and decision-making processes surrounding its implementation. MCB might lead to complacency among policymakers and the public, diminishing their commitment to reducing greenhouse gas emissions and adapting to climate change. Source:NY Times Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following statements: Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA) is a ‘Navratna’ Government of India Enterprise. Navratna companies have greater financial flexibility and can undertake strategic projects without seeking explicit government approval. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2.) Consider the following pairs: Fabrics with GI Tag          State Chanderi Fabric – Madhya Pradesh Kanjeevaram Silk- Tamil Nadu Ajrakh fabric – Kerala How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched: Only one Only two All three None Q3.) Consider the following pairs: Minerals               Ores Tin –    Cassiterite Tantalum –    Bauxite Tungsten –    wolframite How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  3rd May 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  2nd May– Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – c Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 3rd May 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

[DAY 53] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question Which of the following is correct sequence (descending) in taxonomic hierarchy? a) Species-Genus-Order-Class-Family-Phylum-Kingdom b) Kingdom-Phylum-Order-Family-Class-Genus-Species c) Species-Genus-Family-Order-Class-Phylum-Kingdom d) Kingdom-Phylum-Class-Order-Family-Genus-Species Correct Solution (c) Taxonomic hierarchy is the process of arranging various organisms into successive levels of the biological classification either in a decreasing or an increasing order from kingdom to species and vice versa. In Ascending Order: Kingdom: Animalia Multicellular organisms; cells with a nucleus, with cell membranes but lacking cell walls Phylum: Chordata Animals with a spinal cord Class: Mammalia Warm-blooded chordates that bear live young; females have mammary glands that secrete milk to nourish young Order: Primates Mammals with collar bone; eyes face forward; grasping hands with fingers; two types of teeth (incisors and molars) Family: Hominidae Primates with upright posture, large brain, stereoscopic vision, flat face, different use of hands and feet Genus: Homo A group of similar species forms a genus. The scientific name for humans is Homo sapiens. Homo is the genus name, while sapiens is the species name. Species: Homo sapiens Humans with high forehead, well-developed chin, thin skull bones Incorrect Solution (c) Taxonomic hierarchy is the process of arranging various organisms into successive levels of the biological classification either in a decreasing or an increasing order from kingdom to species and vice versa. In Ascending Order: Kingdom: Animalia Multicellular organisms; cells with a nucleus, with cell membranes but lacking cell walls Phylum: Chordata Animals with a spinal cord Class: Mammalia Warm-blooded chordates that bear live young; females have mammary glands that secrete milk to nourish young Order: Primates Mammals with collar bone; eyes face forward; grasping hands with fingers; two types of teeth (incisors and molars) Family: Hominidae Primates with upright posture, large brain, stereoscopic vision, flat face, different use of hands and feet Genus: Homo A group of similar species forms a genus. The scientific name for humans is Homo sapiens. Homo is the genus name, while sapiens is the species name. Species: Homo sapiens Humans with high forehead, well-developed chin, thin skull bones Question 2 of 35 2. Question Which of the following is not a digestive enzyme in the human system? a) Gastrin b) Ptyalin c) Pepsin d) Trypsin Correct Solution (a) Trypsin, Pepsin and Ptyalin are digestive enzymes. Trypsin is an enzyme that helps us digest protein. Pepsin is a stomach enzyme that serves to digest proteins found in ingested food. Ptyalin is a digestive enzyme which is formed from the acinar cells present in the mouth. It is an enzyme that is released by the salivary glands along with the salivary amylase. Gastrin is a peptide hormone that stimulates secretion of gastric acid by the parietal cells of the stomach and aids in gastric motility. It is released by G cells in the pyloric antrum of the stomach, duodenum, and the pancreas. Incorrect Solution (a) Trypsin, Pepsin and Ptyalin are digestive enzymes. Trypsin is an enzyme that helps us digest protein. Pepsin is a stomach enzyme that serves to digest proteins found in ingested food. Ptyalin is a digestive enzyme which is formed from the acinar cells present in the mouth. It is an enzyme that is released by the salivary glands along with the salivary amylase. Gastrin is a peptide hormone that stimulates secretion of gastric acid by the parietal cells of the stomach and aids in gastric motility. It is released by G cells in the pyloric antrum of the stomach, duodenum, and the pancreas. Question 3 of 35 3. Question Consider the following statements: Femur is the longest bone in the human body. Cholera is a disease caused by bacteria. Athlete’s foot is a disease caused by virus. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Also called the thigh bone, Femur is the longest bone in the human body. Cholera is a bacterial disease usually spread through contaminated water. Cholera causes severe diarrhea and dehydration. Athlete’s foot (tinea pedis) is a fungal skin infection that usually begins between the toes. It commonly occurs in people whose feet have become very sweaty while confined within tight-fitting shoes.   Incorrect Solution (b) Also called the thigh bone, Femur is the longest bone in the human body. Cholera is a bacterial disease usually spread through contaminated water. Cholera causes severe diarrhea and dehydration. Athlete’s foot (tinea pedis) is a fungal skin infection that usually begins between the toes. It commonly occurs in people whose feet have become very sweaty while confined within tight-fitting shoes.   Question 4 of 35 4. Question Mutation in a virus is caused due to a change in its? a) Cell size b) Genetic material c) Shape d) Color Correct Solution (b) When a virus replicates or makes copies of itself, it sometimes changes a little bit, which is normal for a virus. These changes are called “mutations”. A virus with one or more new mutations is referred to as a “variant” of the original virus. Viruses are continuously changing as a result of genetic selection. They undergo subtle genetic changes through mutation and major genetic changes through recombination. Mutation occurs when an error is incorporated in the viral genome. Recombination occurs when coinfecting viruses exchange genetic information, creating a novel virus. Incorrect Solution (b) When a virus replicates or makes copies of itself, it sometimes changes a little bit, which is normal for a virus. These changes are called “mutations”. A virus with one or more new mutations is referred to as a “variant” of the original virus. Viruses are continuously changing as a result of genetic selection. They undergo subtle genetic changes through mutation and major genetic changes through recombination. Mutation occurs when an error is incorporated in the viral genome. Recombination occurs when coinfecting viruses exchange genetic information, creating a novel virus. Question 5 of 35 5. Question Consider the following pairs and identify the correct one/s:         Disease              Deficiency caused Beriberi –    Vitamin B1 deficiency Scurvy –     Vitamin D deficiency Goiter –     Calcium deficiency Select the answer: a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Vitamin B1 deficiency causes Beriberi which has symptoms like weak muscles and very little energy to work. Vitamin A deficiency, on the other hand, causes loss of vision with symptoms like poor vision, loss of vision in darkness (night) and sometimes complete loss of vision. Vitamin C deficiency causes Scurvy which has symptoms like bleeding gums, wounds taking longer time to heal whereas Vitamin D deficiency causes Rickets, with symptoms like bones becoming soft and bent.   Calcium deficiency causes bone and tooth decay with symptoms like weak bones, tooth Decay, etc. Iodine deficiency, on the other hand, causes goiter where symptoms like glands in the neck appear swollen, mental disability in children, etc. is seen. Iron deficiency causes anaemia, which has symptoms like weakness. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Vitamin B1 deficiency causes Beriberi which has symptoms like weak muscles and very little energy to work. Vitamin A deficiency, on the other hand, causes loss of vision with symptoms like poor vision, loss of vision in darkness (night) and sometimes complete loss of vision. Vitamin C deficiency causes Scurvy which has symptoms like bleeding gums, wounds taking longer time to heal whereas Vitamin D deficiency causes Rickets, with symptoms like bones becoming soft and bent.   Calcium deficiency causes bone and tooth decay with symptoms like weak bones, tooth Decay, etc. Iodine deficiency, on the other hand, causes goiter where symptoms like glands in the neck appear swollen, mental disability in children, etc. is seen. Iron deficiency causes anaemia, which has symptoms like weakness. Question 6 of 35 6. Question Excessive release of the pollutant carbon monoxide (CO) into the air may produce a condition in which oxygen supply in the human body decreases. What causes this condition? a) When inhaled in human body, CO is converted into CO2. b) The inhaled CO has higher affinity for haemoglobin as compared to oxygen. c) The inhaled CO destroys the chemical structure of haemoglobin. d) The inhaled CO adversely affects respiratory center in brain. Correct Solution (b) Carbon monoxide has 210 times greater affinity for haemoglobin than oxygen. CO binds to haemoglobin and affects by decreasing the oxygen level. Incorrect Solution (b) Carbon monoxide has 210 times greater affinity for haemoglobin than oxygen. CO binds to haemoglobin and affects by decreasing the oxygen level. Question 7 of 35 7. Question Regular intake of fresh fruits and vegetables is recommended in the diet since they are a good source of antioxidants. How do antioxidants help a person maintain health and promote longevity? a) The activate the enzymes necessary for vitamins synthesis in the body and help prevent vitamin deficiency b) They prevent excessive oxidation of carbohydrates. fats and proteins in the body and help to avoid unnecessary wastage of energy c) They neutralize the free radicals produced in the body during metabolism d) They activate certain genes in the cells of the body and help delay the ageing process Correct Solution (c) Antioxidants are found in certain foods and may prevent some of the damage caused by free radicals by neutralising them. These include the nutrient antioxidants, vitamins A, C and E, and the minerals copper, zinc and selenium. Other dietary food compounds, such as the phytochemicals in plants, are believed to have greater antioxidant effects than vitamins or minerals. These are called the non-nutrient antioxidants and include phytochemicals, (such as lycopenes in tomatoes and anthocyanins found in cranberries). Incorrect Solution (c) Antioxidants are found in certain foods and may prevent some of the damage caused by free radicals by neutralising them. These include the nutrient antioxidants, vitamins A, C and E, and the minerals copper, zinc and selenium. Other dietary food compounds, such as the phytochemicals in plants, are believed to have greater antioxidant effects than vitamins or minerals. These are called the non-nutrient antioxidants and include phytochemicals, (such as lycopenes in tomatoes and anthocyanins found in cranberries). Question 8 of 35 8. Question Which one of the following statements regarding insulin hormone is correct? a) Insulin is a protein hormone produced in the body. b) Insulin is a cholesterol driven hormone given to human. c) Insulin is a steroid given to human. d) Insulin is a protein hormone not produced in the body. Correct Solution (a) Insulin is a peptide hormone produced by beta cells of the pancreatic islets encoded in human. Insulin is a hormone that is responsible for allowing glucose in the blood to enter cells, providing them with the energy to function. A lack of effective insulin plays a key role in the development of diabetes. Incorrect Solution (a) Insulin is a peptide hormone produced by beta cells of the pancreatic islets encoded in human. Insulin is a hormone that is responsible for allowing glucose in the blood to enter cells, providing them with the energy to function. A lack of effective insulin plays a key role in the development of diabetes. Question 9 of 35 9. Question Arrange the following in order of their evolution: Amphibians Fish Reptiles Birds Select from the code: a) 2-1-4-3 b) 1-2-3-4 c) 4-2-3-1 d) 2-4-1-3 Correct Solution (a) The first vertebrate to evolve is the bony fish which evolved from a jawless fish. The amphibians evolved next after fish. The first amphibians have evolved from a lobe-finned fish ancestor about 365 million years ago. The reptiles evolved from the amphibians. They lived completely on land. They laid amniotic eggs and had fertilization. They were the first vertebrates that didn’t have to return to water for reproduction. Reptiles developed certain added features such as feather, hollow bones, and warm body. These animals were called birds or Aves. Mammals and birds both evolved from reptiles like ancestors. Incorrect Solution (a) The first vertebrate to evolve is the bony fish which evolved from a jawless fish. The amphibians evolved next after fish. The first amphibians have evolved from a lobe-finned fish ancestor about 365 million years ago. The reptiles evolved from the amphibians. They lived completely on land. They laid amniotic eggs and had fertilization. They were the first vertebrates that didn’t have to return to water for reproduction. Reptiles developed certain added features such as feather, hollow bones, and warm body. These animals were called birds or Aves. Mammals and birds both evolved from reptiles like ancestors. Question 10 of 35 10. Question Consider the following statements: The lungs are situated in the thoracic chamber. The thoracic chamber is formed dorsally by the vertebral column. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The lungs are situated in the thoracic chamber which is anatomically an air-tight chamber. The anatomical setup of lungs in thorax is such that any change in the volume of the thoracic cavity will be reflected in the lung cavity. The thoracic chamber is formed dorsally by the vertebral column, ventrally by the sternum, laterally by the ribs and on the lower side by the dome-shaped diaphragm. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The lungs are situated in the thoracic chamber which is anatomically an air-tight chamber. The anatomical setup of lungs in thorax is such that any change in the volume of the thoracic cavity will be reflected in the lung cavity. The thoracic chamber is formed dorsally by the vertebral column, ventrally by the sternum, laterally by the ribs and on the lower side by the dome-shaped diaphragm. Question 11 of 35 11. Question The term ‘Graves’ disease’ is generally associated with: a) Immune system disorder b) Locomotive disorder c) Speech disorder d) Respiratory disease Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Graves’ disease is an immune system disorder that results in the overproduction of thyroid hormones (hyperthyroidism). Although a number of disorders may result in hyperthyroidism, Graves’ disease is a common cause. Thyroid hormones affect many body systems, so signs and symptoms of Graves’ disease can be wide ranging. Locomotive syndrome is a condition of reduced mobility due to impairment of locomotive organs. Since upright bipedal walking involves minutely controlled movement patterns, impairment of any aspect of the locomotive organs has the potential to adversely affect it. A speech disorder is a condition in which a person has problems creating or forming the speech sounds needed to communicate with others. This can make the child’s speech difficult to understand. Common speech disorders are: Articulation disorders. Phonological disorders. They are a type of disease that affects the lungs and other parts of the respiratory system. Respiratory diseases may be caused by infection, by smoking tobacco, or by breathing in second-hand tobacco smoke, etc. Respiratory diseases include asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonia, and lung cancer. Also called lung disorder and pulmonary disease. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Graves’ disease is an immune system disorder that results in the overproduction of thyroid hormones (hyperthyroidism). Although a number of disorders may result in hyperthyroidism, Graves’ disease is a common cause. Thyroid hormones affect many body systems, so signs and symptoms of Graves’ disease can be wide ranging. Locomotive syndrome is a condition of reduced mobility due to impairment of locomotive organs. Since upright bipedal walking involves minutely controlled movement patterns, impairment of any aspect of the locomotive organs has the potential to adversely affect it. A speech disorder is a condition in which a person has problems creating or forming the speech sounds needed to communicate with others. This can make the child’s speech difficult to understand. Common speech disorders are: Articulation disorders. Phonological disorders. They are a type of disease that affects the lungs and other parts of the respiratory system. Respiratory diseases may be caused by infection, by smoking tobacco, or by breathing in second-hand tobacco smoke, etc. Respiratory diseases include asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonia, and lung cancer. Also called lung disorder and pulmonary disease. Question 12 of 35 12. Question Consider the following statements about Human Eye: The iris controls the amount of light entering into the eye through the pupil by opening or closing. When we say that a person has green eyes, we refer actually to the colour of the cornea. Most of the refraction for the light rays entering the eye occurs at the outer surface of the cornea. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Light enters the eye through a thin membrane called the cornea. The size of the pupil is controlled by the iris. The iris is the part of that eye which gives it its distinctive colour. When we say that a person has green eyes, we refer actually to the colour of the iris. The iris controls the amount of light entering into the eye through the pupil by opening or closing. Retina contains several nerve cells. Sensations felt by the nerve cells are then transmitted to the brain through the optic nerve. Most of the refraction for the light rays entering the eye occurs at the outer surface of the cornea.   Incorrect Solution (b) Light enters the eye through a thin membrane called the cornea. The size of the pupil is controlled by the iris. The iris is the part of that eye which gives it its distinctive colour. When we say that a person has green eyes, we refer actually to the colour of the iris. The iris controls the amount of light entering into the eye through the pupil by opening or closing. Retina contains several nerve cells. Sensations felt by the nerve cells are then transmitted to the brain through the optic nerve. Most of the refraction for the light rays entering the eye occurs at the outer surface of the cornea.   Question 13 of 35 13. Question With reference to dietary deficiencies, consider the following statements: Marasmus is due to a simultaneous deficiency of proteins and calories. Kwashiorkar is due to protein deficiency unaccompanied by calorie deficiency. Like marasmus, kwashiorkor shows wasting of muscles. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Marasmus is produced by a simultaneous deficiency of proteins and calories. It is found in infants less than a year in age, if mother’s milk is replaced too early by other foods which are poor in both proteins and caloric value. Kwashiorkar is produced by protein deficiency unaccompanied by calorie deficiency. It results from the replacement of mother’s milk by a high calorie, low protein diet in a child more than one year in age. Like marasmus, kwashiorkor shows wasting of muscles, thinning of limbs, failure of growth and brain development. But unlike marasmus, some fat is still left under the skin; moreover, extensive oedema and swelling of body parts are seen.   Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Marasmus is produced by a simultaneous deficiency of proteins and calories. It is found in infants less than a year in age, if mother’s milk is replaced too early by other foods which are poor in both proteins and caloric value. Kwashiorkar is produced by protein deficiency unaccompanied by calorie deficiency. It results from the replacement of mother’s milk by a high calorie, low protein diet in a child more than one year in age. Like marasmus, kwashiorkor shows wasting of muscles, thinning of limbs, failure of growth and brain development. But unlike marasmus, some fat is still left under the skin; moreover, extensive oedema and swelling of body parts are seen.   Question 14 of 35 14. Question With reference to ‘Yeast’, consider the following statements: Yeast produces carbon dioxide during respiration. Yeast is used for commercial production of alcohol and wine. Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Yeast reproduces rapidly and produces carbon dioxide during respiration. Bubbles of the gas fill the dough and increase its volume. This is the basis of the use of yeast in the baking industry for making breads, pastries and cakes. Microorganisms are used for the large-scale production of alcohol, wine and acetic acid (vinegar). Yeast is used for commercial production of alcohol and wine. For this purpose, yeast is grown on natural sugars present in grains like barley, wheat, rice, crushed fruit juices, etc. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Yeast reproduces rapidly and produces carbon dioxide during respiration. Bubbles of the gas fill the dough and increase its volume. This is the basis of the use of yeast in the baking industry for making breads, pastries and cakes. Microorganisms are used for the large-scale production of alcohol, wine and acetic acid (vinegar). Yeast is used for commercial production of alcohol and wine. For this purpose, yeast is grown on natural sugars present in grains like barley, wheat, rice, crushed fruit juices, etc. Question 15 of 35 15. Question Consider the following statements: Microorganisms are classified into seven types. Nutrients are recycled in the atmosphere with the help of certain micro-organisms referred to as decomposers. Microorganisms are used to produce industrial chemicals, enzymes and other bioactive molecules. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Microorganisms are divided into seven types: bacteria, archaea, protozoa, algae, fungi, viruses, and multicellular animal parasites (helminths). Each type has a characteristic cellular composition, morphology, mean of locomotion, and reproduction. Microorganisms are beneficial in producing oxygen, decomposing organic material, providing nutrients for plants, and maintaining human health, but some can be pathogenic and cause diseases in plants and humans. Most decomposers are microscopic organisms, including protozoa and bacteria. Nutrients are recycled in the atmosphere with the help of certain microorganisms these are called decomposers. Microorganisms live in soil and all over the atmosphere that recycle the organic molecules into useful nutrients. Decomposers release nutrients when they break down dead organisms. Decomposition is a biological process that occurs naturally with the help of microorganisms. Microorganisms are used to produce many commercial and industrial chemicals, enzymes and other bioactive molecules. Incorrect Solution (c) Microorganisms are divided into seven types: bacteria, archaea, protozoa, algae, fungi, viruses, and multicellular animal parasites (helminths). Each type has a characteristic cellular composition, morphology, mean of locomotion, and reproduction. Microorganisms are beneficial in producing oxygen, decomposing organic material, providing nutrients for plants, and maintaining human health, but some can be pathogenic and cause diseases in plants and humans. Most decomposers are microscopic organisms, including protozoa and bacteria. Nutrients are recycled in the atmosphere with the help of certain microorganisms these are called decomposers. Microorganisms live in soil and all over the atmosphere that recycle the organic molecules into useful nutrients. Decomposers release nutrients when they break down dead organisms. Decomposition is a biological process that occurs naturally with the help of microorganisms. Microorganisms are used to produce many commercial and industrial chemicals, enzymes and other bioactive molecules. Question 16 of 35 16. Question Consider the following statements: Microorganisms which cause diseases in human beings, plants and animals are known as pathogens. Anthrax is a human and cattle disease caused by a bacterium. Citrus canker is a bacteria that causes disease in plants. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Microorganisms are harmful in many ways. Some of the microorganisms cause diseases in human beings, plants and animals. Such disease-causing microorganisms are called pathogens. Some microorganisms spoil food, clothing and leather. Several microorganisms not only cause diseases in humans and plants, but also in other animals. For example, anthrax is a dangerous human and cattle disease caused by a bacterium. Foot and mouth disease of cattle is caused by a virus. Several microorganisms cause diseases in plants like wheat, rice, potato, sugarcane, orange, apple and others. The diseases reduce the yield of crops. Citrus canker, Rust of wheat and yellow vein mosaic of bhindi (Okra). Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Microorganisms are harmful in many ways. Some of the microorganisms cause diseases in human beings, plants and animals. Such disease-causing microorganisms are called pathogens. Some microorganisms spoil food, clothing and leather. Several microorganisms not only cause diseases in humans and plants, but also in other animals. For example, anthrax is a dangerous human and cattle disease caused by a bacterium. Foot and mouth disease of cattle is caused by a virus. Several microorganisms cause diseases in plants like wheat, rice, potato, sugarcane, orange, apple and others. The diseases reduce the yield of crops. Citrus canker, Rust of wheat and yellow vein mosaic of bhindi (Okra). Question 17 of 35 17. Question From the following pairs of disease and microorganism causing it, identify the correct pair/s: Human Disease                       Microorganism Measles –                   Bacteria Hepatitis A –                   Virus Malaria –                   Protozoa Select the answer: a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 and 3 only Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Measles is an infection caused by a virus. Once quite common, measles can now almost always be prevented with a vaccine. Also called rubeola, measles spreads easily and can be serious and even fatal for small children. While death rates have been falling worldwide as more children receive the measles vaccine, the disease still kills more than 200,000 people a year, mostly children. Hepatitis A is a vaccine-preventable liver infection caused by the hepatitis A virus (HAV). HAV is found in the stool and blood of people who are infected. Hepatitis A is very contagious. It is spread when someone unknowingly ingests the virus even in microscopic amounts through close personal contact with an infected person or through eating contaminated food or drink. Malaria is a protozoan infection of the red blood cells, transmitted by the bite of a female anopheles’ mosquito. Malaria is caused by the protozoa of the genus Plasmodium. There are four species that infect humans: P. vivax, P. ovale, P. malariae, and P. falciparum. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Measles is an infection caused by a virus. Once quite common, measles can now almost always be prevented with a vaccine. Also called rubeola, measles spreads easily and can be serious and even fatal for small children. While death rates have been falling worldwide as more children receive the measles vaccine, the disease still kills more than 200,000 people a year, mostly children. Hepatitis A is a vaccine-preventable liver infection caused by the hepatitis A virus (HAV). HAV is found in the stool and blood of people who are infected. Hepatitis A is very contagious. It is spread when someone unknowingly ingests the virus even in microscopic amounts through close personal contact with an infected person or through eating contaminated food or drink. Malaria is a protozoan infection of the red blood cells, transmitted by the bite of a female anopheles’ mosquito. Malaria is caused by the protozoa of the genus Plasmodium. There are four species that infect humans: P. vivax, P. ovale, P. malariae, and P. falciparum. Question 18 of 35 18. Question With reference to the ‘Cells’, which of the following statement/s is/are correct? Cells that have membrane bound nuclei are called eukaryotic whereas cells that lack a membrane bound nucleus are prokaryotic. The cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities in both the plant and animal cells. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Inside each cell is a dense membrane bound structure called nucleus. This nucleus contains the chromosomes which in turn contain the genetic material, DNA. Cells that have membrane bound nuclei are called eukaryotic whereas cells that lack a membrane bound nucleus are prokaryotic. In both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, a semi-fluid matrix called cytoplasm occupies the volume of the cell. The cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities in both the plant and animal cells. Various chemical reactions occur in it to keep the cell in the ‘living state’. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Inside each cell is a dense membrane bound structure called nucleus. This nucleus contains the chromosomes which in turn contain the genetic material, DNA. Cells that have membrane bound nuclei are called eukaryotic whereas cells that lack a membrane bound nucleus are prokaryotic. In both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, a semi-fluid matrix called cytoplasm occupies the volume of the cell. The cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities in both the plant and animal cells. Various chemical reactions occur in it to keep the cell in the ‘living state’. Question 19 of 35 19. Question In the human body, Cowper’s glands form a part of which one of the following? a) Digestive System b) Reproductive System c) Nervous System d) Endocrine System Correct Solution (b) The bulbourethral glands or Cowper’s glands are two small exocrine glands in the reproductive system of many male mammals. Incorrect Solution (b) The bulbourethral glands or Cowper’s glands are two small exocrine glands in the reproductive system of many male mammals. Question 20 of 35 20. Question Consider the following statements with reference to Parenchyma: It is the most common simple permanent tissue. Large intercellular spaces are found in it. It allows bending of various parts of a plant. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect A few layers of cells beneath the epidermis are generally simple permanent tissue. Parenchyma is the most common simple permanent tissue. It consists of relatively unspecialised cells with thin cell walls. They are living cells. They are usually loosely arranged, thus large spaces between cells (intercellular spaces) are found in this tissue. This tissue generally stores food. The flexibility in plants is due to another permanent tissue, collenchyma. It allows bending of various parts of a plant like tendrils and stems of climbers without breaking. It also provides mechanical support. We can find this tissue in leaf stalks below the epidermis. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect A few layers of cells beneath the epidermis are generally simple permanent tissue. Parenchyma is the most common simple permanent tissue. It consists of relatively unspecialised cells with thin cell walls. They are living cells. They are usually loosely arranged, thus large spaces between cells (intercellular spaces) are found in this tissue. This tissue generally stores food. The flexibility in plants is due to another permanent tissue, collenchyma. It allows bending of various parts of a plant like tendrils and stems of climbers without breaking. It also provides mechanical support. We can find this tissue in leaf stalks below the epidermis. Question 21 of 35 21. Question Which of the following tribes are recognized as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups in the state of Andhra Pradesh? Bodo Gadaba Korwa Konda Reddi Tothi Baiga Choose the correct code: a) Only two b) Only three c) Only four d) All five Correct Solution (a) Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups in the state of Andhra Pradesh: Chenchu Bodo Gadaba Gutob Gadaba Dongaria Khond Kutia Kondha Kolam Konda Reddi Kondasavara Bondo Porja Khond Porja Parengi Porja Tothi Hence option a is correct. Incorrect Solution (a) Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups in the state of Andhra Pradesh: Chenchu Bodo Gadaba Gutob Gadaba Dongaria Khond Kutia Kondha Kolam Konda Reddi Kondasavara Bondo Porja Khond Porja Parengi Porja Tothi Hence option a is correct. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Financial Action Task Force (FATF): It is the global money laundering and terrorist financing watchdog set up in 1989 by ASEAN countries. Its objective is to examine and develop measures to combat money laundering and terrorist financing. Its Secretariat is located at the OECD headquarters in Paris. Currently, three countries North Korea, Iran, and Myanmar are on FATF’s blacklist. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is the global money laundering and terrorist financing watchdog set up in 1989 by G7 countries. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It aims to establish international standards, and to develop and promote policies, both at national and international levels, to combat money laundering and the financing of terrorism. Its objective is to examine and develop measures to combat money laundering and terrorist financing. Hence statement 2 is correct. Its members include 39 countries, including the United States, India, China, Saudi Arabia, Britain, Germany, France, and the EU as such. India became a member of FATF in 2010. Its members are Argentina, Australia, Austria, Belgium, Brazil, Canada, China, Denmark, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hong Kong (China), Iceland, India, Ireland, Israel, Italy, Japan, Republic of Korea, Luxembourg, Malaysia, Mexico, Netherlands, New Zealand, Norway, Portugal, Russia, Saudi Arabia, Singapore, South Africa, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, Türkiye, the UK and the US. Its Secretariat is located at the OECD headquarters in Paris. Hence statement 3 is correct. The Secretariat supports the substantive work of the FATF membership and global network. Thefunding for the FATF Secretariat and other services is provided by the FATF annual budget to which members contribute. Countries known as Non-Cooperative Countries or Territories (NCCTs) are put on the blacklist. These countries support terror funding and money laundering activities. The FATF revises the blacklist regularly, adding or deleting entries. Currently, three countries North Korea, Iran, and Myanmar are on FATF’s blacklist. Hence statement 4 is correct. Note: Countries that are considered a safe haven for supporting terror funding and money laundering are put on the FATF grey list. This inclusion serves as a warning to the country that it may enter the blacklist. Incorrect Solution (c) The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is the global money laundering and terrorist financing watchdog set up in 1989 by G7 countries. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It aims to establish international standards, and to develop and promote policies, both at national and international levels, to combat money laundering and the financing of terrorism. Its objective is to examine and develop measures to combat money laundering and terrorist financing. Hence statement 2 is correct. Its members include 39 countries, including the United States, India, China, Saudi Arabia, Britain, Germany, France, and the EU as such. India became a member of FATF in 2010. Its members are Argentina, Australia, Austria, Belgium, Brazil, Canada, China, Denmark, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hong Kong (China), Iceland, India, Ireland, Israel, Italy, Japan, Republic of Korea, Luxembourg, Malaysia, Mexico, Netherlands, New Zealand, Norway, Portugal, Russia, Saudi Arabia, Singapore, South Africa, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, Türkiye, the UK and the US. Its Secretariat is located at the OECD headquarters in Paris. Hence statement 3 is correct. The Secretariat supports the substantive work of the FATF membership and global network. Thefunding for the FATF Secretariat and other services is provided by the FATF annual budget to which members contribute. Countries known as Non-Cooperative Countries or Territories (NCCTs) are put on the blacklist. These countries support terror funding and money laundering activities. The FATF revises the blacklist regularly, adding or deleting entries. Currently, three countries North Korea, Iran, and Myanmar are on FATF’s blacklist. Hence statement 4 is correct. Note: Countries that are considered a safe haven for supporting terror funding and money laundering are put on the FATF grey list. This inclusion serves as a warning to the country that it may enter the blacklist. Question 23 of 35 23. Question Which of the following constitutes a trademark violation? Using the same name for the same category of products. Using the same package material for different products. Using similar names for different categories of products/services. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Using the same name for the same category of products: In Vishnudas Trading v. Vazir Sultan Tobacco Co. Ltd which involved the use of the ‘CHARMINAR’ trademark for different products. Despite both products being tobacco-related, the court ruled that they were distinct enough to warrant separate trademark registrations. Hence statement 1 is correct. Using the same package material for different products: In Parle Products Pvt. Ltd. v JP & Co, Parle, a biscuit maker, had a trademark for their “Parle’s Glucose Biscuits” wrapper. When they noticed a similar wrapper used by JP & Co. in 1961, they took legal action. The Supreme Court decided that despite minor differences, the resemblance was enough to confuse, highlighting the importance of avoiding confusion in trademark infringement cases. Hence statement 2 is correct. Using similar names for different categories of products/services: In Sony Corporation vs. K. Selvamurthy, Sony Corporation filed a trademark infringement suit against a tour and travel business named Sony Tours and Travels. The court ruled in favour of the defendant, stating that the businesses were distinctly different, and consumers weren’t likely to be confused. Moreover, the plaintiff’s delay in taking legal action was noted, resulting in costs awarded to the defendant. So it does not constitute trademark infringement. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.  Note: Passing off action refers to the unauthorized use of goods, services, and the goodwill attached to another person’s business, which would amount to misrepresentation. The notion of Passing off in the Indian Trademarks Act, of 1999, seeks to safeguard the goodwill associated with unregistered trademarks. Incorrect Solution (b) Using the same name for the same category of products: In Vishnudas Trading v. Vazir Sultan Tobacco Co. Ltd which involved the use of the ‘CHARMINAR’ trademark for different products. Despite both products being tobacco-related, the court ruled that they were distinct enough to warrant separate trademark registrations. Hence statement 1 is correct. Using the same package material for different products: In Parle Products Pvt. Ltd. v JP & Co, Parle, a biscuit maker, had a trademark for their “Parle’s Glucose Biscuits” wrapper. When they noticed a similar wrapper used by JP & Co. in 1961, they took legal action. The Supreme Court decided that despite minor differences, the resemblance was enough to confuse, highlighting the importance of avoiding confusion in trademark infringement cases. Hence statement 2 is correct. Using similar names for different categories of products/services: In Sony Corporation vs. K. Selvamurthy, Sony Corporation filed a trademark infringement suit against a tour and travel business named Sony Tours and Travels. The court ruled in favour of the defendant, stating that the businesses were distinctly different, and consumers weren’t likely to be confused. Moreover, the plaintiff’s delay in taking legal action was noted, resulting in costs awarded to the defendant. So it does not constitute trademark infringement. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.  Note: Passing off action refers to the unauthorized use of goods, services, and the goodwill attached to another person’s business, which would amount to misrepresentation. The notion of Passing off in the Indian Trademarks Act, of 1999, seeks to safeguard the goodwill associated with unregistered trademarks. Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements regarding Pandavula Gutta: It is located in Jayashankar Bhupalpally district in Tamil Nadu. Its paintings feature geometrical designs and impressions in green, red, yellow, and white pigment colours. It is recognised as the sole Geo-heritage site in Telangana. It is a geological marvel older than the Himalayan hills. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) Pandavula Gutta is located in Jayashankar Bhupalpally district in Telangana. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is home to many prehistoric habitation sites. This site was first discovered in the year 1990. Its paintings feature geometrical designs and impressions in green, red, yellow, and white pigment colours. Hence statement 2 is correct. These cave paintings offer a rare glimpse into prehistoric man’s rock art identified on walls and ceilings of caves, rock shelters, and isolated boulders. The rock art paintings depict wildlife like Bison, Antelope, Tiger, and Leopard, and wildlife shapes like swastika symbols, circles, and squares, as weapons such as bows, arrows, swords, lancers, etc are present in these paintings. It is recognised as the sole Geo-heritage site in Telangana. Hence statement 3 is correct. “Geoheritage” is a generic but descriptive term applied to sites or areas of geologic features with significant scientific, educational, cultural, or aesthetic value. It is a geological marvel older than the Himalayan hills. Hence statement 4 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) Pandavula Gutta is located in Jayashankar Bhupalpally district in Telangana. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is home to many prehistoric habitation sites. This site was first discovered in the year 1990. Its paintings feature geometrical designs and impressions in green, red, yellow, and white pigment colours. Hence statement 2 is correct. These cave paintings offer a rare glimpse into prehistoric man’s rock art identified on walls and ceilings of caves, rock shelters, and isolated boulders. The rock art paintings depict wildlife like Bison, Antelope, Tiger, and Leopard, and wildlife shapes like swastika symbols, circles, and squares, as weapons such as bows, arrows, swords, lancers, etc are present in these paintings. It is recognised as the sole Geo-heritage site in Telangana. Hence statement 3 is correct. “Geoheritage” is a generic but descriptive term applied to sites or areas of geologic features with significant scientific, educational, cultural, or aesthetic value. It is a geological marvel older than the Himalayan hills. Hence statement 4 is correct. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements: Insulin is a hormone that regulates blood glucose. Diabetes is a chronic disease that occurs when the pancreas can no longer make insulin, or the body cannot make good use of the insulin it produces. Hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) Test is one of the most commonly used tests to diagnose pre-diabetes and diabetes. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Insulin is a hormone that regulates blood glucose. Hence statement 1 is correct. Not being able to produce or use insulin effectively leads to raised glucose levels in the blood, known as hyperglycaemia. Over the long-term high glucose levels are associated with damage to the body and failure of various organs and tissues. Diabetes is a chronic disease that occurs when the pancreas can no longer make insulin, or the body cannot make good use of the insulin it produces. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is a major cause of blindness, kidney failure, heart attacks, stroke, and lower limb amputation. Hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) Test is one of the most commonly used tests to diagnose pre-diabetes and diabetes. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is also known as the glycated haemoglobin or glycosylated haemoglobin test. Hemoglobin is the part of your red blood cells that carries oxygen from your lungs to the rest of your body. It is an important blood test that gives a good indication of how well your diabetes is being controlled. Incorrect Solution (c) Insulin is a hormone that regulates blood glucose. Hence statement 1 is correct. Not being able to produce or use insulin effectively leads to raised glucose levels in the blood, known as hyperglycaemia. Over the long-term high glucose levels are associated with damage to the body and failure of various organs and tissues. Diabetes is a chronic disease that occurs when the pancreas can no longer make insulin, or the body cannot make good use of the insulin it produces. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is a major cause of blindness, kidney failure, heart attacks, stroke, and lower limb amputation. Hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) Test is one of the most commonly used tests to diagnose pre-diabetes and diabetes. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is also known as the glycated haemoglobin or glycosylated haemoglobin test. Hemoglobin is the part of your red blood cells that carries oxygen from your lungs to the rest of your body. It is an important blood test that gives a good indication of how well your diabetes is being controlled. Question 26 of 35 26. Question Consider the following statements: The issue of temple entry was first raised by Ezhava leader T K Madhavan in a 1917 editorial in his paper Deshabhimani. Vaikom Satyagraha was the first anti-caste movement, as the pupils of the depressed class and untouchables were restricted from entering the temple. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) The issue of temple entry was first raised by Ezhava leader T K Madhavan in a 1917 editorial in his paper Deshabhimani. Hence statement 1 is correct. In AICC (All India Congress Committee) meeting in Kakinada 1923, K Madhavan along with Sardar Panikkar and KP Kesava Menon submitted a petition which sought to grant the right to temple entry and worship of gods for all sections of the society irrespective of caste, creed, and community to the Travancore legislative council. The Vaikom Satyagraha was launched on 30th March 1924. It took place in the vicinity of Mahadev temple in Kottayam district of Kerala and took place during 1924-1925. Vaikom Satyagraha was the first anti-caste movement, as the pupils of the depressed class and untouchables were restricted from entering the temple. Hence statement 2 is correct. It aimed to establish the rights of the oppressed classes to walk on the roads to the Shree Mahadeva Temple in Vaikom in Kottayam district. Incorrect Solution (c) The issue of temple entry was first raised by Ezhava leader T K Madhavan in a 1917 editorial in his paper Deshabhimani. Hence statement 1 is correct. In AICC (All India Congress Committee) meeting in Kakinada 1923, K Madhavan along with Sardar Panikkar and KP Kesava Menon submitted a petition which sought to grant the right to temple entry and worship of gods for all sections of the society irrespective of caste, creed, and community to the Travancore legislative council. The Vaikom Satyagraha was launched on 30th March 1924. It took place in the vicinity of Mahadev temple in Kottayam district of Kerala and took place during 1924-1925. Vaikom Satyagraha was the first anti-caste movement, as the pupils of the depressed class and untouchables were restricted from entering the temple. Hence statement 2 is correct. It aimed to establish the rights of the oppressed classes to walk on the roads to the Shree Mahadeva Temple in Vaikom in Kottayam district. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements: The Gulf of Mexico is the largest gulf in the world. The Gulf of Aden is located in the Arabian Sea between Yemen and Somalia. The Persian Gulf is located in Western Asia between Iran and the Arabian Peninsula. The Gulf of Bothnia is part of the Baltic Sea between Sweden and Finland. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) The Gulf of Mexico is the largest gulf in the world. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is bordered by the United States, Mexico, and the island nation of Cuba. The Gulf of Aden is located in the Arabian Sea between Yemen and Somalia. Hence statement 2 is correct. In the northwest, it connects with the Red Sea through the Bab-el-Mandeb strait. The waterway is part of the important Suez Canal shipping route between the Mediterranean Sea and the Arabian Sea in the Indian Ocean. The Persian Gulf is located in Western Asia between Iran and the Arabian Peninsula. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is an extension of the Indian Ocean (Gulf of Oman) through the Strait of Hormuz. Countries with a coastline on the Persian Gulf are (clockwise, from the north) – Iran, Oman, United Arab Emirates, Saudi Arabia, Qatar, Bahrain, Kuwait, and Iraq. The Gulf of Bothnia is part of the Baltic Sea between Sweden and Finland. Hence statement 4 is correct. It is the northernmost arm of the Baltic Sea.   Incorrect Solution (d) The Gulf of Mexico is the largest gulf in the world. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is bordered by the United States, Mexico, and the island nation of Cuba. The Gulf of Aden is located in the Arabian Sea between Yemen and Somalia. Hence statement 2 is correct. In the northwest, it connects with the Red Sea through the Bab-el-Mandeb strait. The waterway is part of the important Suez Canal shipping route between the Mediterranean Sea and the Arabian Sea in the Indian Ocean. The Persian Gulf is located in Western Asia between Iran and the Arabian Peninsula. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is an extension of the Indian Ocean (Gulf of Oman) through the Strait of Hormuz. Countries with a coastline on the Persian Gulf are (clockwise, from the north) – Iran, Oman, United Arab Emirates, Saudi Arabia, Qatar, Bahrain, Kuwait, and Iraq. The Gulf of Bothnia is part of the Baltic Sea between Sweden and Finland. Hence statement 4 is correct. It is the northernmost arm of the Baltic Sea.   Question 28 of 35 28. Question Consider the following statements: Peatlands are aquatic wetland ecosystems in which waterlogged conditions prevent plant material from fully decomposing. The majority of the world’s peatlands occur in boreal and temperate parts of the Southern Hemisphere. Peatlands are the largest natural terrestrial carbon store. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Peatlands are terrestrial wetland ecosystems in which waterlogged conditions prevent plant material from fully decomposing. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Consequently, the production of organic matter exceeds its decomposition, which results in a net accumulation of peat. Peatlands occur in every climatic zone and continent and cover 4.23 million km2, which corresponds to 2.84% of the Earth’s terrestrial surface. The majority of the world’s peatlands occur in boreal and temperate parts of the Northern Hemisphere, especially, Europe, North America, and Russia, where they have formed under high precipitation-low temperature climatic regimes. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Peatlands include landscapes that are still actively accumulating peat, others that are no longer accumulating and do not support the principal peat-forming plants, and peatlands used for economic uses such as agriculture, forestry, and excavation for energy and heat generation, horticulture, and other uses. About 84% of the world’s peatlands are considered to be in a natural, or near-natural state. Peatlands are the largest natural terrestrial carbon store. They store more carbon than all other vegetation types in the world combined. Hence statement 3 is correct. Note: Damaged peatlands are a major source of greenhouse gas emissions, responsible for almost 5% of global anthropogenic CO2 emissions.   Incorrect Solution (a) Peatlands are terrestrial wetland ecosystems in which waterlogged conditions prevent plant material from fully decomposing. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Consequently, the production of organic matter exceeds its decomposition, which results in a net accumulation of peat. Peatlands occur in every climatic zone and continent and cover 4.23 million km2, which corresponds to 2.84% of the Earth’s terrestrial surface. The majority of the world’s peatlands occur in boreal and temperate parts of the Northern Hemisphere, especially, Europe, North America, and Russia, where they have formed under high precipitation-low temperature climatic regimes. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Peatlands include landscapes that are still actively accumulating peat, others that are no longer accumulating and do not support the principal peat-forming plants, and peatlands used for economic uses such as agriculture, forestry, and excavation for energy and heat generation, horticulture, and other uses. About 84% of the world’s peatlands are considered to be in a natural, or near-natural state. Peatlands are the largest natural terrestrial carbon store. They store more carbon than all other vegetation types in the world combined. Hence statement 3 is correct. Note: Damaged peatlands are a major source of greenhouse gas emissions, responsible for almost 5% of global anthropogenic CO2 emissions.   Question 29 of 35 29. Question Which of the following statement is not correct regarding the Developing Countries Trading Scheme (DCTS)? a) It reduces or removes rates of duty, or tariffs, on imports from eligible developing countries. b) It applies to least developed countries (LDCs) as defined by the United Nations. c) It is a scheme introduced by the United States to facilitate developing countries to integrate into the global economy d) It does not extend to countries and territories deemed by the World Bank as upper-middle income for three consecutive years. Correct Solution (c) The Developing Countries Trading Scheme (DCTS) reduces or removes rates of duty, or tariffs, on imports from eligible developing countries. Hence statement 1 is correct. It applies to least developed countries (LDCs) as defined by the United Nations. Hence statement 2 is correct. It applies to low-income countries (LIC) and lower-middle-income countries (LMIC) as defined by the World Bank. It will provide duty-free, quota-free trade to LDCs on everything but arms and duty-free, quota-free trade on 85% of eligible goods to most low LIC and LMIC countries. It is a scheme introduced by the United Kingdom to facilitate developing countries to integrate into the global economy. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. It creates stronger trade and investment partnerships and strengthens supply chains. It is a simpler and more generous preferential trading scheme that has been designed to boost trade with developing countries to support their development. It does not extend to countries and territories deemed by the World Bank as upper-middle income for three consecutive years, or to LICs and LMICs who have a free trade agreement (FTA) with the UK. Hence statement 4 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) The Developing Countries Trading Scheme (DCTS) reduces or removes rates of duty, or tariffs, on imports from eligible developing countries. Hence statement 1 is correct. It applies to least developed countries (LDCs) as defined by the United Nations. Hence statement 2 is correct. It applies to low-income countries (LIC) and lower-middle-income countries (LMIC) as defined by the World Bank. It will provide duty-free, quota-free trade to LDCs on everything but arms and duty-free, quota-free trade on 85% of eligible goods to most low LIC and LMIC countries. It is a scheme introduced by the United Kingdom to facilitate developing countries to integrate into the global economy. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. It creates stronger trade and investment partnerships and strengthens supply chains. It is a simpler and more generous preferential trading scheme that has been designed to boost trade with developing countries to support their development. It does not extend to countries and territories deemed by the World Bank as upper-middle income for three consecutive years, or to LICs and LMICs who have a free trade agreement (FTA) with the UK. Hence statement 4 is correct. Question 30 of 35 30. Question Consider the following statements regarding the FASTag: It is operated by the National Council for Science and Technology Communication (NCSTC) under the Ministry of Science and Technology. It is a device that employs Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology for making toll payments directly while the vehicle is in motion. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) FASTag (RFID Tag) is affixed on the windscreen of the vehicle and enables a customer to make toll payments directly from the account which is linked to FASTag. It is operated by the National Highway Authority of India (NHAI) under the supervision of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. FASTag is a device that employs Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology for making toll payments directly while the vehicle is in motion. Hence statement 2 is correct.   Incorrect Solution (b) FASTag (RFID Tag) is affixed on the windscreen of the vehicle and enables a customer to make toll payments directly from the account which is linked to FASTag. It is operated by the National Highway Authority of India (NHAI) under the supervision of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. FASTag is a device that employs Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology for making toll payments directly while the vehicle is in motion. Hence statement 2 is correct.   Question 31 of 35 31. Question Some birds settled on the branches of a tree. First, they sat one to a branch and there was one bird too many. Next they sat two to a branch and there was one branch too many. How many branches were there? a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6 Correct Solution (a) When the birds sat one on a branch, there was one extra bird. When they sat Two to a branch one branch was extra. Now, we go through the options; Checking option (A); If there were 3 branches, there would be 4 birds. (This would leave one bird without branch as per the question.) When 4 birds would sit Two to a branch there would be one branch free (as per the question.). Hence, the option (A) is correct. Incorrect Solution (a) When the birds sat one on a branch, there was one extra bird. When they sat Two to a branch one branch was extra. Now, we go through the options; Checking option (A); If there were 3 branches, there would be 4 birds. (This would leave one bird without branch as per the question.) When 4 birds would sit Two to a branch there would be one branch free (as per the question.). Hence, the option (A) is correct. Question 32 of 35 32. Question The difference between one fifth of a number and one third of the same number is 8. What is the half of that number? a) 18 b) 24 c) 30 d) 36 Correct Solution (c) Given: Difference between ⅕ of a number and ⅓ of the same number is 8. Find: ½ of the number Plan: setup an equation and solve Let the number be “n”. (1/3)n – (1/5)n = 8 Solve for “n” Multiply both sides of the equation by the LCD 15. 15(1/3)n – 15(1/5)n = 15(8) 5n – 3n = 120 Combine like term 2n = 120 => n = 60 ✅ Double Check: 1/3(60) – 1/5(60) = 20 – 12 = 8 Reasonable/Recalculated ✅ Now 1/2(60) = 30 ✅ Answer: Number = 30 Hence, option (c) is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) Given: Difference between ⅕ of a number and ⅓ of the same number is 8. Find: ½ of the number Plan: setup an equation and solve Let the number be “n”. (1/3)n – (1/5)n = 8 Solve for “n” Multiply both sides of the equation by the LCD 15. 15(1/3)n – 15(1/5)n = 15(8) 5n – 3n = 120 Combine like term 2n = 120 => n = 60 ✅ Double Check: 1/3(60) – 1/5(60) = 20 – 12 = 8 Reasonable/Recalculated ✅ Now 1/2(60) = 30 ✅ Answer: Number = 30 Hence, option (c) is correct. Question 33 of 35 33. Question 31% of employees pay tax in the year 2008. Non-tax paying employees are 20700. The total number of employees is: a) 31160 b) 64750 c) 30000 d) 66775 Correct Solution (c) Percentage of Non-tax paying employees = (100 – 31)% = 69% 69% of total employees = 20700 Total employees = (20700)/69 * 100 = 30000 Incorrect Solution (c) Percentage of Non-tax paying employees = (100 – 31)% = 69% 69% of total employees = 20700 Total employees = (20700)/69 * 100 = 30000 Question 34 of 35 34. Question What is the probability that a number selected from numbers 1, 2, 3, ……., 30, is prime number, when each of the given numbers is equally likely to be selected? a) 9/30 b) 8/30 c) 10/30 d) 11/30 Correct Solution (c) X = {2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29} n(X) = 10, n(S) = 30 Hence required probability, = n(X)/n(S) = 10/30 Incorrect Solution (c) X = {2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29} n(X) = 10, n(S) = 30 Hence required probability, = n(X)/n(S) = 10/30 Question 35 of 35 35. Question Two Statements S1 and S2 are given below followed by a Question: S1 : Bill is richer than Elon as well as Jeff. S2 : Warren is not the richest one. Among four friends Elon, Jeff, Bill and Warren, which one is the richest? Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Statements and the Question? a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question. b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question. c) S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the Question, but neither S1 alone nor S2 alone is sufficient to answer the question. d) S1 and S2 together are not sufficient to answer the Question. Correct Solution (c) S1 : Bill is richer than Elon as well as Jeff, i.e. Bill > Elon / Jeff S2 : Warren is not the richest one. Either of the two statements alone is not sufficient to answer the question. Taking both statements together, we can conclude that: Bill > Elon / Jeff / Warren Thus, Bill is the richest one among the four friends. Hence, we can say that S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the question. Hence, option (c) is the answer. Incorrect Solution (c) S1 : Bill is richer than Elon as well as Jeff, i.e. Bill > Elon / Jeff S2 : Warren is not the richest one. Either of the two statements alone is not sufficient to answer the question. Taking both statements together, we can conclude that: Bill > Elon / Jeff / Warren Thus, Bill is the richest one among the four friends. Hence, we can say that S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the question. 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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –2nd May 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   State of the Climate in Asia Syllabus Mains – Climate Change & Disaster Management Context: Asia has warmed faster than the global average since 1960, the World Meteorological Organisation’s 2023 ‘State of the Climate in Asia’ report has said. Background:- According to the report, released on April 23, the Asian continent is struggling with extreme climate events like floods and heatwaves, with record-breaking temperatures and precipitation reported across its countries. Key Takeaways from the report More than 2,000 people were killed and more than nine million were affected by extreme climate events across Asia in 2023. More than 80% of these events were related to storms and floods. The report recorded several parts experiencing severe heat waves, leading to multiple fatalities, but acknowledged that heat-related mortality is widely underreported. In India, severe heat waves in April and June killed around 110 people by heat stroke (a condition in which the body temperature increases beyond 40 degrees C). In India, floods and landslides in August 2023, primarily in Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand, killed at least 25 and damaged a lot of infrastructure. Lightning by itself accounted for 1,200 deaths around India through the year. Report noted an “alarming gap” between climate projections and the ability of Asian countries to adapt to and mitigate climate change and its impacts. How well can Asia spot a coming disaster? An early-warning system is an integrated process that monitors, predicts, and forecasts hazards. It also includes activities related to risk-assessment, communications, and preparedness that allow individuals, communities, governments, businesses, etc. to take timely action to mitigate risks. Thanks to such systems, for example, authorities in Bangladesh had a day’s head-start to prepare for Cyclone Mocha and take anticipatory action in Cox’s Bazar, which allowed local communities to better survive its landfall. According to the U.N. Office for Disaster Risk Reduction, the average composite score for the availability of and access to multi‑hazard early warning systems was 0.46 out of 1 in Asia; 0.58 for preparedness to respond; and 0.50 for observation and forecasting. To compare, the world scored 0.35, 0.78, and 0.33, respectively, on average on these counts. Warning and dissemination was the strongest area under the framework for Asia while risk knowledge was the weakest. What do these findings mean for India? India’s early preparedness when dealing with cyclones is commendable, but managing deaths and destruction caused by lightning needs improvement. The response time for lightning is very less. Although India has built mobile applications and other tools, marginalised communities are unable to utilise it. It is crucial that India empowers communities and local governments with the necessary resources and policies to effectively combat these evolving climatic adversities. Source: The Hindu Labour Day or May Day Syllabus Prelims & Mains – History Context: Politicians, celebrities and members of civil society came together on Wednesday to celebrate Labour Day and recognise the contributions of workers. Background: Also known as May Day, May 1 is celebrated to honour the working class and commemorate their struggles for fair wages and better working conditions.On the occasion, the International Labour Organisation (ILO) emphasised the importance of renewing commitment to social justice. What is the history and significance of May Day? The origins of May Day can be traced back to the late 19th century, specifically to the 1886 Haymarket Massacre in Chicago. At the time, several countries were reeling under the heat of industrialisation. Crop failure in the 1840s had led to widespread anti-feudal upheavals collectively called ‘The Revolutions of 1848,’ with Karl Marx’s The Communist Manifesto leaving a lasting impact on workers. The subsequent events resulted in the birth of an umbrella body for socialists and communist organisations in 1864, known as the First International. Thousands of blue-collar workers in the industrial city of Chicago in the United States went on a massive strike to demand better working conditions and a reduction in their work hours from 12-15 hours a day to eight hours daily. The movement spread throughout the country, rallying tens of thousands of workers. On May 4, 1886, a bomb went off at a protest rally at the Haymarket Square in Chicago and ended in a riot as workers clashed with police. At least 11 people were killed. The incident, which came to be known as the Haymarket massacre, is referred to as the origin of May 1 being celebrated as Workers’ Day. The Second International that emerged in 1889 declared May 1 as International Workers’ Day to commemorate the struggle for labour rights and as a tribute to those killed in Chicago. On June 28, 1894, U.S. President Grover Cleveland signed a bill into law declaring the first Monday in September as Labour Day and a national holiday. As for India, Labour Day was first celebrated on May 1, 1923, in Chennai (then known as Madras). Two meetings were held— one on the Triplicane Beach and another near the Madras High Court. These were organised by the Labour Kisan Party of Hindustan. The party was founded by Malayapuram Singaravelu Chettiar, who was one of the founders of the Communist Party of India (CPI). It was at these meetings that a resolution was passed urging the British government to declare May 1 as Labour Day and a government holiday. Interestingly, the red flag that is synonymous with the Left movement was used for the first time during the Chennai event. Source: Hindu BIOHACKING Syllabus Prelims – Science Context: Recently, the Biohacking India 2.0 event took place in New Delhi. Background: This event provided a platform for discussions, knowledge sharing, and innovative ideas related to enhancing human health and performance through cutting-edge technology and lifestyle modifications. About BIOHACKING Biohacking refers to the practice of using science and technology to optimize and enhance the human body’s performance and well-being. It is a broad term that encompasses a variety of practices, from simple lifestyle and dietary changes to the use of advanced technology and biometrics. It includes practices aimed at improving physical and mental performance, longevity, and overall well-being. Currently, there are no laws in India that specifically address biohacking. Techniques: Dietary Modifications: Implementing diets like ketogenic or intermittent fasting to boost energy and health. Supplementation: Using vitamins, minerals, or nootropics to enhance cognitive function and physical performance. Physical Training: Customized exercise routines to build strength and endurance. Sleep Optimization: Techniques to improve sleep quality and duration. Mindfulness Practices: Meditation and deep breathing exercises for mental well-being. Biometric Monitoring: Using devices to track health metrics for insights into health and performance. Biofeedback Devices: Devices to train the body’s physiological responses. Source: Livemint STREET VENDORS (PROTECTION OF LIVELIHOOD AND REGULATION OF STREET VENDING) ACT, 2014 Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Policies & Acts Context: A decade has passed since the Street Vendors (Protection of Livelihood and Regulation of Street Vending) Act came into effect on May 1, 2014. Background: The Provisions of the act are aimed at creating a conducive atmosphere where street vendors, are able to carry out their business in a fair and transparent manner, without the fear of harassment and eviction. Features of the Street Vendors (Protection of Livelihood and Regulation of Street Vending) Act, 2014 : The Act provides for constitution of a Town Vending Authority in each Local Authority, for implementing the provisions of the Bill. In order to ensure participatory decision making for aspects relating to street vending activities like determination of natural market, identification of vending zones, preparation of street vending plan, survey of street vendors etc. the TVC is required to have representation of officials and non-officials and street vendors, including women vendors with due representation from SC, ST, OBC, Minorities and persons with disabilities. To avoid arbitrariness of authorities, the act provides for a survey of all existing street vendors, and subsequent survey at-least once in every five years, and issue of certificate of vending to all the street vendors identified in the survey, with preference to SC, ST, OBC, women, persons with disabilities, minorities etc. All existing street vendors, identified in the survey, will be accommodated in the vending zones subject to a norm conforming to 2.5% of the population of the ward or zone or town or city. Where the number of street vendors identified are more than the holding capacity of the vending zone, the Town Vending Committee (TVC) is required to carry out a draw of lots for issuing the certificate of vending for that vending zone and the remaining persons will be accommodated in any adjoining vending zone to avoid relocation. Those street vendors who have been issued a certificate of vending/license etc. before the commencement of this Act, they will be deemed to be a street vendor for that category and for the period for which he/she has been issued such certificate of vending/license. It has been provided that no street vendor will be evicted until the survey has been completed and certificate of vending issued to the street vendors. Relocation of street vendors should be exercised as a last resort. The Local authority is required to make out a plan once in every 5 years, on the recommendation of TVC, to promote a supportive environment and adequate space for urban street vendors to carry out their vocation. It specifically provides that declaration of no-vending zone shall be carried subject to the specified principles. The thrust of the act is on “natural market”, which has been defined under the act. The entire planning exercise has to ensure that the provision of space or area for street vending is reasonable and consistent with existing natural markets. Thus, natural locations where there is a constant congregation of buyers and sellers will be protected under the act. There is a provision for establishment of an independent dispute redressal mechanism under the chairmanship of retired judicial officers to maintain impartiality towards grievance redressal of street vendors. Source: The Hindu GROUP OF SEVEN (G7) Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Energy ministers from the Group of Seven (G7) reached a deal to shut down their coal-fired power plants by 2035. Background: The agreement on coal marks a significant step in the direction indicated last year by the COP28 United Nations climate summit to phase out fossil fuels, of which coal is the most polluting. About G7 : The Group of Seven (G7) is an intergovernmental political and economic forum that brings together seven of the world’s advanced economies. These countries include Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom, and the United States. Additionally, the European Union (EU) is considered a “non-enumerated member” of the G7. The forum is organized around shared values of pluralism, liberal democracy, and representative government. Key points : Origins: The G7 originated from an ad hoc gathering of finance ministers in 1973. Over time, it has evolved into a formal and high-profile venue for discussing and coordinating solutions to major global issues. These issues span areas such as trade, security, economics, and climate change. Annual Summit: Each member’s head of government or state, along with the EU’s Commission President and European Council President, meet annually at the G7 Summit. Throughout the year, other high-ranking officials from the G7 and the EU engage in discussions and initiatives. Russia’s Membership: Russia was a formal member of the G7 (as part of the G8) from 1997 until its expulsion in 2014 due to the annexation of Crimea. Since then, the G7 has continued without Russia’s participation. Rotating Presidency: The G7 operates without a legal or institutional basis. It is organized through a rotating presidency among the member states. The presiding state sets the group’s priorities and hosts the annual summit. For 2024, Italy holds the presidency. Source: Times of India Mpox Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Context: A study revealed a novel adaptation mechanism of the Mpox virus enhancing its ability to infect humans amidst recent outbreaks. The name was changed from “monkeypox” to “mpox” to avoid stigma towards monkeys and reflect the virus’s direct human infectivity. Background: Mpox was first discovered in laboratory monkeys in the 1950s. The first human case was reported in 1970 in the DRC. Since then, outbreaks of mpox have been small and traceable to a single person – typically someone who had recently returned from a country where the virus is endemic – such as west and central Africa. Mpox: It is also known as monkeypox and is a DNA virus. It belongs to the family Poxviridae, which consists of large, double-stranded DNA viruses. It is primarily transmitted to humans from animals, particularly rodents and primates, through direct contact or contaminated objects. Its infection in humans typically presents with fever, headache, muscle aches, and a characteristic rash that progresses from macules to papules to vesicles and pustules. While a vaccine for mpox exists, its availability and effectiveness are limited, highlighting the need for improved prevention and control measures. Mpox gained global attention during a widespread outbreak that affected over 100,000 people in more than 118 countries in 2022-2023. The outbreak was characterised by high human-to-human transmission, particularly through close contact and the sexual route. The World Health Organization (WHO) declared the mpox outbreak a public health emergency, leading to coordinated efforts to control its spread. Genomic Features: Mpox genomes are divided into clades I and II, with evidence suggesting clade I has higher mortality. The 2022 outbreak involved a new lineage, clade IIb, better adapted for human-to-human transmission. Researchers found evidence of a distinct lineage of clade I associated with human-to-human transmission, suggesting a recent zoonotic spillover event. Mpox viruses can undergo genomic accordion through gene duplication or deletion to adapt to different hosts and environments. A study published in Nature Communications sequenced the genome of the mpox virus from the 2022 outbreak, revealing that certain sections strongly influence human-to-human transmission and are the virus’s genomic accordions. Source: The Conversation Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following countries: Canada China France India Japan United States How many of the above-mentioned countries are the members of the Group of Seven (G7)? Only two Only three Only four Only five Q2.) With reference to the Street Vendors (Protection of Livelihood and Regulation of Street Vending) Act, consider the following statements: The Act mandates a survey of street vendors to identify and protect their livelihoods. Street vendors receive a certificate of vending, which establishes their legitimacy. The Act provides a mechanism for resolving grievances and disputes among street vendors. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q3.) Consider the following statements about the Biohacking: Biohacking refers to the practice of using science and technology to optimize and enhance the human body’s performance and well-being. Currently, there are no laws in India that specifically address biohacking Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  2nd May 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  1st May – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 2nd May 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here