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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 19th February 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan (PM JANMAN) Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: With the 2021 Census indefinitely delayed, the government’s attempt to estimate the total population of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTG) across the country is hitting one wall after another. Background:- The information on population is crucial to the implementation of the government’s ₹24,000 crore PM-JANMAN package for PVTGs. About PM JANMAN:- In line with the vision of Antyodaya to empower the last person at the last mile, PM-JANMAN was launched for the socio-economic welfare of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) on 15th November 2023. PM-JANMAN focuses on 11 critical interventions through 9 Ministries aimed to improve socio-economic conditions of the PVTGs by saturating PVTG households and habitations with basic facilities such as safe housing, clean drinking water and sanitation, improved access to education, health and nutrition, electricity, road and telecom connectivity, and sustainable livelihood opportunities. About PVTG: Sub-classification of Scheduled Tribe, who are most vulnerable in certain parameter than other Scheduled Tribe community. In 1973, the Dhebar Commission created Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs) as a separate category, who are less developed among the tribal groups. In 2006, the Government of India renamed the PTGs as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs). The Government of India follows the following criteria for identification of PVTGs: Pre-agricultural level of technology Low level of literacy Economic backwardness A declining or stagnant population. There are total of75 PVTGs in India. Source: The Hindu India sends assistance to cholera-hit Zambia Syllabus Prelims – Geography and Science Context: India on Saturday sent medical and material assistance to Zambia as the southern African country. Background: Zambia has been reeling under an outbreak of cholera over the past few weeks which had prompted a closure of schools in the country. Zambia has been asking for more medical help to deal with the situation that has been described as a “cholera emergency”. About Zambia: Zambia is alandlocked country at the crossroads of Central, Southern and East Africa. The landlocked country has experienced rapid economic growth over the last decade as Africa’s second largest copper producer after the DR Congo. The spectacular Victoria Falls are on Zambia’s border with Zimbabwe About Cholera Cholera is a bacterial disease usually spread through contaminated water. A bacterium called Vibrio cholerae causes cholera infection. The deadly effects of the disease are the result of a toxin the bacteria produces in the small intestine.The toxin causes the body to secrete enormous amounts of water, leading to diarrhea and a rapid loss of fluids and salts (electrolytes). Most people exposed to the cholera bacterium (Vibrio cholerae) don’t become ill and don’t know they’ve been infected. But because they shed cholera bacteria in their stool for seven to 14 days, they can still infect others through contaminated water. Source: The Hindu Rukhmabai Raut Syllabus Prelims : History Context: A new book on the life of Rukhmabai, a child bride who went on to become one of India’s pioneering women doctors was released recently Background: The book, written by academic and writer Sudhir Chandra, claims to shed new light on the “extraordinary but little-known life of the rebel-doctor” who dared to challenge the norms of her time and left behind a formidable legacy. About Rukhmabai: Born in 1864, Rukhmabai was denied formal education and wedded off at 11 years of age to the 19-year-old Dadaji Bhikaji. She, however, continued to stay at the house of her widowed mother, who later got married to Assistant Surgeon Sakharam Arjun Raut. She was supported by her step-father, when she refused to stay with Bhikaji and his family at his house. This led to the Dadaji Bhikaji vs Rukhmabai case, 1885. In 1885, the case of Bhikaji seeking “restitution of conjugal rights” titled “Bhikaji vs. Rukhmabai, 1885” came up for hearing and Judge declared that Rukhmabai had been wed in her “helpless infancy” and that he could not compel a young lady. Appeal was filed against the judgement.First order was overturned and court ordered Rukhmabai to “go live with her husband or face six months of imprisonment”. Rukhmabai responded that she would rather face imprisonment than obey the verdict. In July 1888, a settlement was reached with Bhikaji and he relinquished his claim on Rukhmabai for a payment of two thousand rupees. Ultimately, the publicity and debate generated by this case helped influence the enactment of the “Age of Consent Act” in 1891, which changed the age of consent from 10 to 12 years across British India Source: Scroll EUROPEAN FREE TRADE ASSOCIATION (EFTA) Syllabus Prelims -Current Event Context: Recently, India has rejected the demand of the four-nation European Free Trade Association (EFTA) for ‘data exclusivity’ provisions in the free trade agreement that both sides are negotiating. Background: Data exclusivity provisions will bar generic drug producers from using data of preclinical tests and clinical trials of former patent holders. India and EFTA have been negotiating the Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement since January 2008. About European Free Trade Association (EFTA) The European Free Trade Association (EFTA) is a regional trade organization and free trade area consisting of four European states: Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway, and Switzerland. These countries are not part of the European Union (EU), but they participate in the European Single Market and the Schengen Area. EFTA was established in 1960 as an alternative trade bloc for those European states that were unable or unwilling to join the then European Economic Community (EEC), the main predecessor of the EU. EFTA has signed free trade agreements with many countries around the world, and also cooperates with the EU in various policy areas through the European Economic Area (EEA) Agreement. EFTA’s headquarters are in Geneva, Switzerland. Source: Hindu Businessline OUTER SPACE TREATY Syllabus Prelims and Mains – Science Context: Multiple reports coming in this week said that Russia is making advances in space-based nuclear weapons that are aimed at destroying other satellites, both civilian and military. Background: If Russia were to develop and deploy such a weapon, it would be in violation of the Outer Space Treaty. It will also be in contravention of the Partial Nuclear Test Ban Treaty of 1963 that prohibits nuclear explosions in space. Russia is party to both treaties. About Outer Space Treaty: The Outer Space Treaty is a multilateral treaty that forms the basis of international space law. It was signed in 1967 by the United States, the Soviet Union, and the United Kingdom, and it has 114 parties as of 2024. The treaty prohibits the placement of nuclear weapons or other weapons of mass destruction in outer space, and it limits the use of the Moon and other celestial bodies to peaceful purposes only. The treaty also establishes that outer space is the common heritage of all humankind, and that no country can claim sovereignty over any part of it. The treaty aims to promote the exploration and use of outer space for the benefit and interest of all countries, and to prevent any conflict or arms race in space. India became a party to the Outer Space Treaty on January 18, 1982. India signed the treaty on March 3, 1967, but it took about 15 years to complete the ratification process. India is also a party to the Moon Treaty, which further regulates the exploration and use of the Moon and other natural resources in space. Source: The Hindu PARTIAL NUCLEAR TEST BAN TREATY (PTBT) Syllabus Prelims – Science Context: Multiple reports coming in this week said that Russia is making advances in space-based nuclear weapons that are aimed at destroying other satellites, both civilian and military. Background: If Russia were to develop and deploy such a weapon, it would be in violation of Outer Space Treaty as well as the Partial Nuclear Test Ban Treaty of 1963 that prohibits nuclear explosions in space. Russia is party to both treaties. About Partial Nuclear Test Ban Treaty The Partial Nuclear Test Ban Treaty of 1963 (PTBT) was an international treaty that prohibited nuclear weapons tests in the atmosphere, in outer space, and under water. The treaty was signed in 1963 by the United States, the Soviet Union, and the United Kingdom, and it has 126 parties as of 2024. The treaty aimed to reduce the radioactive fallout from nuclear tests and to prevent the escalation of the nuclear arms race. However, the treaty did not ban underground nuclear tests, which continued to be conducted by the nuclear powers and other countries. Indias stand India is not a party to the PTBT, as it refused to sign the treaty on the grounds that it discriminated against non-nuclear weapon states and did not address the issue of nuclear disarmament India also refused to sign the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT), which is a successor to the PTBT that bans all nuclear explosions, including underground tests, for both civilian and military purposes. India argued that the CTBT was not universal, verifiable, or non-discriminatory, and that it did not address the security concerns of India in a nuclearized region. India also maintained that it had a sovereign right to conduct nuclear tests for its national security and that it would not join any treaty that constrained its nuclear options. Source: U N Previous Year Question Q) Consider the following countries: China France India Israel Pakistan Which among the above are Nuclear Weapons States as recognized by the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons, commonly known as Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)? 1 and 2 only 1, 3, 4 and 5 only 2, 4 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Global Innovation Index 2023 Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Context: India retains 40th rank out of 132 economies in the Global Innovation Index 2023 rankings published by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO). Background: The Index is a leading reference for measuring an economy’s innovation ecosystem performance. It is published annually by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO). World Intellectual Property Organisation: It works with the vision of encouraging creative activity and promoting the protection of Intellectual Property throughout the world. It is a self-funding agency of the United Nations, with 193 member states. WIPO is one of the 15 specialised agencies of the United Nations. Key findings of the Global Innovation Index 2023: Switzerland is the most innovative economy in 2023 followed by Sweden, the United States, the United Kingdom, and Singapore. Singapore has entered the top five and has taken the leading position among South East Asia, East Asia, and Oceania (SEAO) region economies. The top science and technology innovation clusters in the world in 2023 are Tokyo–Yokohama, followed by Shenzhen–Hong Kong–Guangzhou, Seoul, Beijing, and Shanghai-Suzhou. China now has the largest number of clusters in the world, overtaking the United States. Key findings related to India: India secured the 40th position in the latest GII 2023, showcasing a remarkable climb from the 81st spot in 2015. It underscores India’s consistent and substantial growth in innovation over the past eight years. India secured the top position among the 37 lower-middle-income countries and led among the 10 economies in Central and South America. Key indicators affirmed India’s robust innovation landscape, including significant rankings in ICT services exports, venture capital received, graduates in science and engineering, and global corporate research and development investors. Compared to China’s 24 and the US’s 21, India has only 4 science and technology clusters among the world’s top 100. These are Chennai, Bengaluru, Mumbai and Delhi. India’s progress is attributed to its abundant knowledge capital and a thriving startup ecosystem, along with commendable efforts from public and private research organizations. Certain areas necessitate improvement, particularly infrastructure, business sophistication, and institutions. To bridge these gaps, NITI Aayog is actively working to promote policy-led innovation in crucial sectors such as electric vehicles, biotechnology, nanotechnology, space, and alternative energy sources. Sources : WIPO Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following countries: Iceland France Liechtenstein Norway Germany Switzerland How many of the above are the members of the European Free Trade Association (EFTA)? Only two Only three Only four Only five Q2.) With reference to Outer Space Treaty, consider the following statements: The Outer Space Treaty is a multilateral treaty that forms the basis of international space law. Treaty prohibits the placement of nuclear weapons or other weapons of mass destruction in outer space. India became a party to the Outer Space Treaty in 2023. How many statements given above is/are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q3.) Which among the following international treaties is India a member of? Outer Space Treaty Partial Nuclear Test Ban Treaty Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  19th February  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  17th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 19th February 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

[INTERVIEW INITIATIVE] Think, Rethink and Perform (TRP) [DAY 25] 2023 for UPSC/IAS Personality Test!

ARCHIVES (of TRP) – > CLICK HERE Those who have appeared for UPSC Mains 2023, fill up the Google form given below. Students who fill out the form will be added to a telegram group so that there can be healthy discussions with other students who will be appearing for the Interview/Personality Test. Also, Mohan sir, Bureaucrats and Ex-Bureaucrats will be interacting one-on-one with all the students who will be appearing for the same. REGISTER HERE – CLICK HERE Interview Discussion: Think, Rethink and Perform; (TRP) – Day 25 Set 1: Ask these questions to yourself; contemplate and come out with a concrete answer (not to be discussed on this forum). Invest at least 30 minutes in this set of questions. Discuss a goal in your life that requires a deep commitment from you. What is this goal, and why is it important to you? Share how you maintain your commitment to your goals, especially when faced with distractions or challenges. Reflect on a time when your commitment was tested. How did you handle it, and what was the outcome? Set 2: Analyse the following issue:  The dynamics between China and Taiwan have significant implications for global geopolitics, affecting international relations, trade, and security. How do the China-Taiwan dynamics influence global geopolitical stability? What role should the international community, including India, play in this scenario? We expect you to discuss the above question (Set 2) in the comments below and come out with a balanced view of the issues. Thank You IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 17th February 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   OpenAI launches Sora Syllabus Prelims – Current event Context: OpenAI, the creator of the revolutionary chatbot ChatGPT, has unveiled a new generative artificial intelligence (GenAI) model that can convert a text prompt into video called Sora. Background:- Generative artificial intelligence (AI) describes algorithms (such as ChatGPT) that can be used to create new content, including audio, code, images, text, simulations, and videos.The recent buzz around generative AI has been driven by the simplicity of new user interfaces for creating high-quality text, graphics and videos in a matter of seconds. About Sora:- Sora is a generative AI model designed by Open AI (makers of chatGPT) that can convert a text prompt into video. Sora can generate videos up to a minute long while maintaining visual quality and adherence to the user’s prompt. While generation of images and textual responses to prompts on GenAI platforms have become significantly better in the last few years, text-to-video was an area that had largely lagged, owing to its added complexity of analysing moving objects in a three-dimensional space. Other companies apart from Open AI too have ventured into the text-to-video space. Google’s Lumiere, which was announced last month, can create five-second videos on a given prompt, both text- and image-based. Other companies like Runway and Pika have also shown impressive text-to-video models of their own. Open AI has said that it will take some “safety steps” ahead of making Sora available in OpenAI’s products, and will work with red teamers — domain experts in areas like misinformation, hateful content, and bias — who will be “adversarially” testing the model. Source: Indian Express Farmers demand legal guarantee for Minimum Support Price Syllabus Mains – GS3 Context: Thousands of farmers amassed at the Punjab and Haryana border are protesting for  legal guarantee to minimum support prices Background: The farmer’s unions assert that the Centre has failed to fulfill its promise of providing a legal guarantee for MSP, as agreed upon at the conclusion of the massive protests in 2021. About MSP: MSP is the minimum rate at which the government procurement agencies purchase agricultural commodities from farmers. It serves as a safety net for farmers, ensuring them a minimum income for their produce, particularly during times of market fluctuations or distress. The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) is tasked with recommending MSPs for various crops. Operating as an attached office of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, the CACP has been functioning since January 1965. How is the MSP Calculated? When determining the MSP, farmers’ incurred costs, both implicit and explicit, are carefully considered. Implicit costs, such as family labour and rent paid by farmers, are factored into the calculation alongside explicit costs. These variables are represented by A2, FL, and C2. A2: This includes expenses incurred by farmers for purchasing chemicals, fertilisers, seeds, and hiring labour for crop growth, production, and maintenance. A2 + FL: This includes actual costs along with implicit costs in the form of family labour. C2: This includes A2 + FL along with fixed capital assets and rent paid by farmers. Additionally, the CACP considers several other factors when deciding the MSP like market prices of concerned crops and any fluctuations, information on produce supply, including area, yield, production, imports, exports, and stocks with public agencies or industries, demand information across regions, including total and per capita consumption, processing industry trends, and capacity etc Once the CACP submits its recommendations, the final decision regarding the MSP levels is taken by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), chaired by Prime Minister of India. Key Benefits of the MSP for farmers Income Security: MSP gives farmers with a guaranteed minimum price for their crops, ensuring a stable and predictable income, especially during times of market volatility. Price Stability: By setting a floor price for agricultural commodities, MSP helps stabilise market prices, preventing sharp fluctuations that could negatively impact both farmers and consumers. Boosts Production: MSP serves as an incentive for farmers to raise production of crops covered under the MSP regime, as they are assured of receiving a remunerative price for their efforts. Food Security: MSP plays a vital role in ensuring food security by incentivising farmers to cultivate essential food crops. This helps maintain a steady supply of food grains in the market, cutting the dependence on imports and enhancing domestic food security. Source: Money Control ANTI-DUMPING DUTY Syllabus Prelims : Economy Context: India initiates anti-dumping probe into imports of solar glass from China, Vietnam. Background: Solar glass is used to make solar panels and modules for renewable energy generation. India is one of the largest markets for solar power, and has set a target of installing 450 gigawatts of renewable energy capacity by 2030. About Anti Dumping Duty: Anti-dumping duty is a tariff imposed by a government on imported goods that are sold at a price lower than their normal value in the exporting country. The purpose of anti-dumping duty is to protect the domestic industry from unfair competition and trade distortion caused by dumping. The World Trade Organization (WTO) regulates dumping practices through the Anti-Dumping Agreement, which sets forth the rules and procedures for the investigation, determination, and application of anti-dumping measures by WTO members. According to the Anti-Dumping Agreement, a WTO member can impose anti-dumping measures if it can prove that: The imports are being sold at a price below their normal value in the exporting country. The dumping is causing material injury to the domestic industry producing similar goods. There is a causal link between the two. Authority to impose anti- dumping duty in India The Ministry of Finance has the final authority to impose anti-dumping duty on the imports that are found to be dumped and causing injury to the domestic industry. The Ministry of Finance acts on the basis of the recommendations of the Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR), which conducts the investigation and determines the existence and extent of dumping and injury. The Directorate General of Trade Remedies (DGTR), is a part of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, which is responsible for formulating and implementing the foreign trade policy and dealing with multilateral and bilateral trade relations. Source: Economic Times TERAI ARC LANDSCAPE (TAL) Syllabus Prelims -Current Event Context: Terai Arc Landscape recognized as UN World Restoration Flagship as a part of the UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration. Background: The UN World Restoration Flagship is a global recognition and support program for the large-scale ecosystem restoration. The Terai region is a lowland area that lies south of the Himalayas and north of the Indo-Gangetic Plain, in parts of northern India and southern Nepal. It is characterized by tall grasslands, scrub savannah, sal forests, and clay-rich swamps. It is also home to diverse and endangered wildlife, such as tigers, rhinos, elephants, and dolphins. About  The Terai Arc Landscape (TAL) initiative The Terai Arc Landscape (TAL) initiative is a joint effort by Nepal and India to conserve and restore the biodiversity and ecosystems of the Terai region, which is home to many endangered species such as tigers, rhinos, elephants, and gharials. The initiative has been recognized by the U.N. as one of the World Restoration Flagships, which are exemplary projects that demonstrate the benefits of ecosystem restoration for people and nature. The Terai Arc Landscape (TAL) is a transboundary region that spans across India and Nepal, covering 14 protected areas. The protected areas included in the Terai Arc Landscape: Parsa National Park, Nepal Chitwan National Park, Nepal Banke National Park, Nepal Bardia National Park, Nepal Blackbuck Conservation Area, Nepal Shuklaphanta Wildlife Reserve, Nepal Valmiki National Park, India Sohelwa Wildlife Sanctuary, India Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary, India Dudhwa National Park, India Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary, India Corbett National Park, India Rajaji National Park, India Pilibhit Tiger Reserve, India Source: Mongabay Acid Rain Syllabus Prelims and Mains – Environment Context: As 2023 was regarded as one of the worst in terms of environmental damages, multiple associated issues have come to discussion. Background: Acid Rain is a complex environmental issue with multiple causes and widespread consequences, and it has its origins in fossil fuels. About Acid Rain: Acid rain or acid deposition is a broad term that includes any form of precipitation with acidic components, such as sulfuric or nitric acid that fall to the ground from the atmosphere in wet or dry forms. This can include rain, snow, fog, hail, or even dust that is acidic. Formation of acid rain: When SO2 (Sulphur Dioxide) and NOx (Nitrogen Oxide) combine with water and oxygen in the atmosphere, they form sulfuric acid (H2SO4) and nitric acid (HNO3), respectively. These acids then dissolve in water droplets, leading to the creation of acid rain, snow, or fog. Causes of acid rain: Burning of fossil fuels, particularly those containing sulfur, releases sulfur dioxide (SO2) and, at higher temperatures, nitrogen oxides (NOx). Fossil fuel combustion is prevalent in vehicles such as automobiles and the combustion of coal in power plants and industrial processes. Volcanic eruptions and lightning contribute to the presence of sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides in the atmosphere. In the atmosphere, the pollutants SO2 and NOx undergo chemical reactions, forming sulfuric and nitric acids. When combined with water vapor, they create acid rain during precipitation. Consequences/impacts of acid rain: Acid rain can make water bodies, such as rivers and lakes, inhospitable to certain species of aquatic life as the increased acidity disrupts their reproductive patterns and can lead to fish population decline in affected rivers and lakes. The increased acidity alters the pH of marine environments, adversely impacting the distribution and survival of various organisms. Shell-forming marine species, like molluscs and certain types of plankton, face particular challenges as acidification interferes with their ability to build and maintain protective shells. Acid rain poses substantial threats to physical structures and monuments, causing deterioration and discoloration. Notable examples include the Taj Mahal, whose iconic white marble has been affected, exhibiting a yellowish hue due to sulfuric acid reactions. Source: EPA WINDFALL TAX Syllabus  Prelims – Economy Context: The Indian government has announced a slight increase in the windfall tax on domestically produced crude oil and diesel, effective from February 16. Background: The tax is levied in the form of a Special Additional Excise Duty (SAED). About windfall tax A windfall tax is a higher tax rate levied by governments on certain industries or sectors that experience significantly above-average profits due to unexpected events or market conditions. A windfall tax is different from a regular income tax, as it is applied only to the profits that exceed a certain threshold or percentage, and only for a limited period of time. India first imposed windfall profit taxes on July 1, 2022, joining a host of nations that tax supernormal profits of energy companies. This is part of the government’s strategy to capitalise on energy sector profits amid global uncertainties. The tax rates are reviewed every fortnight based on average oil prices in the previous two weeks. Rationale behind the imposition of windfall tax Redistribution of unexpected gains, when high prices benefit producers at the expense of consumers. Funding social welfare schemes or public goods, such as health, education, or infrastructure. Providing a supplementary revenue stream for the government, especially during fiscal deficits or crises. Encouraging more efficient use of resources or reducing negative externalities, such as pollution or overexploitation. Narrowing the country’s widened trade deficit. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) With reference to Windfall tax, consider the following statements: It is a higher tax rate levied by governments on certain industries or sectors that experience significantly above-average profits due to unexpected market conditions. India hasn’t imposed any form of windfall taxes on any sector/industry yet. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2.) The Terai Arc Landscape is one among the World Restoration Flagships selected  as part of  the UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration. Which of the following protected area is not a part of it? Valmiki National Park Dudhwa National Park Corbett National Park Mukundhara National Park Q3.) Consider the following statements: Anti-dumping duty is a tariff imposed by a government on imported goods that are sold at a price lower than their normal value in the exporting country. The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) regulates dumping practices through the Anti-Dumping Agreement. Ministry of Commerce and Industry has the final authority to impose anti-dumping duty in India. How many statements given above are not correct? Only one Only two All three None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  17th February  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  16th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – a

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 16th February 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Test of proportionality Syllabus Prelims and Mains – Polity Context: The Supreme Court used the test of proportionality to strike down Electoral Bonds scheme Background:- It was used in the demonetisation case, aadhar case and also the puttuswamy case among many others. About Test of proportionality Proportionality test is “ the judicial standard for resolving disputes that involve either a conflict between two rights claims or between a right and a legitimate government interest.” The test is deemed necessary to guard against arbitrary action, so that the state cannot extinguish the right entirely even in pursuance of a legitimate state interest. In Modern Dental College & Research Centre v. State of Madhya Pradesh & Ors, a five-judge Bench of the Supreme Court listed four components to be looked at in order to determine proportionality. The same was agreed to in essence by a nine-judge Bench of the Supreme Court in Justice KS Puttaswamy v. Union of India, in which the Court upheld privacy as a fundamental right. In the judgment authored by Justice Sanjay Kishan Kaul in Justice KS Puttaswamy v. Union of India, proportionality can be ascertained on the basis of the following: (a) the action must be sanctioned by law;(b) the proposed action must be necessary in a democratic society for a legitimate aim;(c) the extent of such interference must be proportionate to the need for such interference; (d) There must be procedural guarantees against abuse of such interference. Must Read: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/electoral-bonds-verdict-how-the-proportionality-test-was-applied-in-the-case-9164082/ Source: Deccan Herald STATE OF THE WORLD’S MIGRATORY SPECIES REPORT Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: First-ever State of the World’s Migratory Species report, launched recently by the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS). Background: The Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS), CMS is an intergovernmental treaty under the aegis of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). About Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS): The Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS), also known as the Bonn Convention, is an international agreement that aims to conserve migratory species throughout their ranges. CMS was signed in Bonn, Germany, on 23 June 1979, and entered into force on 1 November 1983. It provides a global platform for the conservation and sustainable use of terrestrial, aquatic and avian migratory animals and their habitats. CMS currently has 133 Parties and covers 583 migratory species. India is a party to the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) since 1983. India hosted the 13th Conference of the Parties (COP) to CMS in February 2020 in Gandhinagar, Gujarat. The latest CMS convention, also known as the 14th Conference of the Parties (COP14) to the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS), was held in Samarkand, Uzbekistan from February 10 to 15, 2024. Key findings of the World’s Migratory Species report: Nearly half (44 per cent) of CMS-listed species are showing population declines, and more than one-in-five (22 per cent) are threatened with extinction. The extinction risk is growing for migratory species globally, including those not listed under CMS. The two greatest threats to both CMS-listed and all migratory species are overexploitation and habitat loss due to human activity. Half (51 per cent) of Key Biodiversity Areas identified as important for CMS-listed migratory animals do not have protected status, and 58 per cent of the monitored sites recognized as being important for CMS-listed species are experiencing unsustainable levels of human-caused pressure. Globally, 399 migratory species that are threatened or near threatened with extinction are not currently listed under CMS. The report also provides information on the main drivers of these declines, such as climate change, pollution and invasive species, and the successful actions that have been taken to conserve some migratory species. The report calls for urgent action to protect these species and their habitats, and to ensure their sustainable use for the benefit of people and nature. Source: Forbes India Classical Language Syllabus Mains – GS 1 & GS 2 Context: West Bengal’s Chief Minister made headlines for advocating classical language status for Bangla, which is the world’s 7th most spoken language. Background: Multiple state governments and regional political parties has been demanding classical language status for their respective regional languages. About Classical language In 2006, the Government of India laid down the criteria for conferring classical language status. TheMinistry of Culture provides guidelines regarding Classical languages. They are: High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years; A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers; The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community; The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots. Currently, six languages enjoy the‘Classical’ status in India. They are Tamil (declared in 2004), Sanskrit (2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014). Benefits of declaring a language as a classical language: Once a language is declared classical, it getsfinancial assistance for setting up a center of excellence for the study of that language and also opens up an avenue for two major awards for scholars of eminence. Besides, theUniversity Grants Commission can be requested to create – to begin with at least in Central Universities, a certain number of professional chairs for classical languages for scholars of eminence in the language. Source: Indian Express Kotravai sculpture from Pallava period unearthed Syllabus Prelims : History Context: On February 14, 2024, a team of researchers unveiled a magnificent Kotravai sculpture in Pilrampattu village, Kallakurichi district. This awe-inspiring discovery transports us to the Pallava period, offering an invaluable glimpse into the ancient craftsmanship and spirituality of our forebears. Background: Kotṟavai also spelled Kotravai or Korravai, is the goddess of war and victory in the Tamil tradition. She is also the mother goddess and the goddess of fertility, agriculture, and hunters.She is among the earliest documented goddesses in the Tamil Sangam literature.She is depicted as a deity with several arms holding different weapons. She is said to be mother of the Tamil god Murugan. About Pallavas: The Pallava dynasty existed from 275 CE to 897 CE, ruling a significant portion of the Deccan, also known as Tondaimandalam. The dynasty rose to prominence after the downfall of the Satavahana Empire, whom they had formerly served as feudatories. The Pallavas became a major southern Indian power during the reign of Mahendravarman I (600–630 CE) and Narasimhavarman I (630–668 CE), and dominated the southern Telugu region and the northern parts of the Tamil region for about 600 years, until the end of the 9th century. Kancheepuram served as the capital of the Pallava kingdom. The Pallavas are most noted for their patronage of Hindu temple architecture, the finest example being the Shore Temple, a UNESCO World Heritage Site in Mamallapuram. The Kailasanatha temple in Kanchipuram and rock cut temple in Mahendravadi are other examples of the Pallava style temples. The Chinese traveller Xuanzang visited Kanchipuram during Pallava rule and extolled their benign rule. Source: The New Indian Express FINANCE COMMISSION Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context:The 16th Finance Commission (XVI-FC) held its first meeting under the chairmanship of Arvind Panagariya in New Delhi. Background: The XVI-FC will make its recommendations available by October 31, 2025, covering an award period of five years commencing April 1, 2026. The 15th Finance Commission was constituted by the President of India in November 2017, under the chairmanship of NK Singh. Its recommendations covered a period of five years from April 2020 to March 2025. About Finance Commission: The Finance Commission is a constitutional body that is established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution. It is appointed by the President of India every five years or earlier. Terms of reference for the 16th Finance Commission Recommending the division of tax proceeds between the Union and the States, and the allocation of shares among the States. Establishing the principles for grants-in-aid to the States from the Consolidated Fund of India, especially for purposes other than those specified in Article 275 of the Constitution. Identifying measures to enhance the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats and Municipalities, based on the recommendations of the State Finance Commissions. Reviewing the current financing structures for Disaster Management initiatives, and suggesting improvements or changes. Source: Hindustan times MINERALS SECURITY PARTNERSHIP (MSP) Syllabus Prelims: Current Event Context: India plans to acquire critical mineral assets overseas by leveraging the US-led Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) or Critical Minerals Club. Background: The future global economy will be powered by technologies that depend on minerals such as lithium, graphite, cobalt, titanium and rare earth elements. These are essential for the advancement of many sectors, including high- tech electronics, telecommunications, transport, and defence. About MINERALS SECURITY PARTNERSHIP: The Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) is a US-led collaboration of 14 countries and the EU that aims to catalyze public and private investment in responsible critical minerals supply chains globally. Critical minerals are essential for the production of clean energy technologies, such as batteries, solar panels, wind turbines, and electric vehicles. The MSP was established in 2022. India joined the MSP in June 2023, as part of its efforts to secure its energy transition and reduce its dependence on China for critical minerals. Critical Minerals Critical minerals are those minerals that are essential for economic development and national security, the lack of availability of these minerals or concentration of extraction or processing in a few geographical locations may lead to supply chain vulnerabilities and even disruption of supplies. In July 2023, the Government India has identified 30 minerals as Critical Minerals by amending the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, through the MMDR Amendment Act, 2023, empowering the Central Government to auction blocks of these minerals. The 30 critical minerals are Antimony, Beryllium, Bismuth, Cobalt, Copper, Gallium, Germanium, Graphite, Hafnium, Indium, Lithium, Molybdenum, Niobium, Nickel, PGE, Phosphorous, Potash, REE, Rhenium, Silicon, Strontium, Tantalum, Tellurium, Tin, Titanium, Tungsten, Vanadium, Zirconium, Selenium and Cadmium. India plans to acquire critical mineral assets overseas by leveraging the MSP’s financial and diplomatic support, as well as its commitment to high environmental, social, and governance standards. India is particularly interested in exploring opportunities in Africa, Australia, and Canada for minerals such as lithium, cobalt, nickel, manganese, graphite, and rare earth elements. India has signed bilateral agreements with Argentina, Chile, and Bolivia (Lithium Triangle) to enhance its position in critical mineral exploration, development, processing, and trade Source: News18 Previous Year Question Q). About three-fourths of world’s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by Argentina Botswana The Democratic Republic of the Congo Kazakhstan Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: India joined the MSP in June 2023, as part of its efforts to secure its energy transition and reduce its dependence on China for critical minerals. Statement-II: In July 2023, the Government India has identified 30 minerals as Critical Minerals by amending the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Q2.)With reference to 16th Finance Commission (XVI-FC), Consider the following statements: Recommending the division of tax proceeds between the Union and the States. Establishing the principles for grants-in-aid to the States from the Consolidated Fund of India. Reviewing the current financing structures for Disaster Management initiatives. How many of the above are the terms of reference for the 16th Finance Commission? Only one Only two Only three None Q3.) With reference to the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS), consider the following statements: It provides a global platform for the conservation and sustainable use of terrestrial, aquatic and avian migratory animals and their habitats. India hosted the 14th Conference of the Parties (COP) to CMS in 2024. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  16th February  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  15th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 17th February 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 16th February 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

[INTERVIEW INITIATIVE] Think, Rethink and Perform (TRP) [DAY 24] 2023 for UPSC/IAS Personality Test!

ARCHIVES (of TRP) – > CLICK HERE Those who have appeared for UPSC Mains 2023, fill up the Google form given below. Students who fill out the form will be added to a telegram group so that there can be healthy discussions with other students who will be appearing for the Interview/Personality Test. Also, Mohan sir, Bureaucrats and Ex-Bureaucrats will be interacting one-on-one with all the students who will be appearing for the same. REGISTER HERE – CLICK HERE Interview Discussion: Think, Rethink and Perform; (TRP) – Day 24 Set 1: Ask these questions to yourself; contemplate and come out with a concrete answer (not to be discussed on this forum). Invest at least 30 minutes in this set of questions. How do you view forgiveness as part of personal growth and relationships? Share your perspective or a personal experience where forgiveness played a key role. What challenges have you faced in trying to forgive someone, and how did you overcome them? Discuss the impact of forgiveness on mental and emotional well-being. How does forgiving others benefit the one who forgives? Set 2: Analyse the following issue:  The debate around implementing a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) in India has been a topic of significant discussion, touching upon aspects of secularism, diversity, and national unity. What are the arguments for and against the implementation of a UCC in India? How could a UCC affect the fabric of Indian society? We expect you to discuss the above question (Set 2) in the comments below and come out with a balanced view of the issues. Thank You IASbaba

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 15th February 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.  To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 14th February 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   BIOLOGICAL DIVERSITY ACT, 2002. Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: Recently, the Odisha government has declared the Gupteswar forest in Koraput district as its fourth Biodiversity Heritage Site (BHS). Background:- The Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS) are declared by the state governments in consultation with local bodies under Section 37 of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002. About Biological Diversity Act:-   The Biological Diversity Act, 2002 is a law that protects the different kinds of living things in India and ensures fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from their use. The law was enacted to meet the requirements of the United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity, to which India is a party. Biological Diversity Act 2002 (BD Act), is in close synergy with the Nagoya Protocol and aims to implement provisions of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD). The Nagoya Protocol sought to ensure commercial and research utilisation of genetic resources led to sharing its benefits with the government and the community that conserved such resources. Features of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 It establishes a three-tier structure to regulate the access and use of biological resources, consisting of the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) at the central level, the State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs) at the state level, and the Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) at the local level. It prohibits any person or organisation, whether Indian or foreign, from obtaining any biological resource occurring in India or knowledge associated with it for research or commercial purposes without the prior approval of the NBA or the SBBs. It also prohibits the transfer of the results of any research relating to any biological resource or knowledge obtained from India to any person or entity outside India without the approval of the NBA. It also prohibits the claim of any intellectual property rights on any invention based on the research made on the biological resources or knowledge obtained from India without the approval of the NBA. It provides for the conservation and sustainable use of biological resources and associated knowledge, as well as the protection and rehabilitation of threatened species and ecosystems. It provides for the declaration of certain areas as Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS), which are unique, ecologically fragile, and rich in biodiversity. The state governments can notify such areas in consultation with the local bodies and the central government. It provides for the involvement of the local communities in the conservation and management of the biological resources and associated knowledge, and ensures that they get a fair share of the benefits arising from their use. It provides for the establishment of institutions such as repositories, gene banks, and museums for the preservation and documentation of the biological resources and associated knowledge. It provides for the penalties and offences for the violation of the provisions of the Act, and empowers the National Green Tribunal (NGT) to hear any grievances or disputes arising from the implementation of the Act. Biological Diversity Act 2002 (BD Act), is in close synergy with the Nagoya Protocol and aims to implement provisions of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD). The Nagoya Protocol sought to ensure that commercial and research utilisation of genetic resources lead to sharing its benefits with the government and the community that conserved such resources. Source: The Indian Express Previous Year Questions Consider the following statements: (2011) Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is normally greater in the lower altitudes as compared to the higher altitudes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2 MULTILATERAL NAVAL EXERCISE (MILAN) – 2024 Syllabus Prelims- Current Event Context: The Indian Navy is all set to host the 12th edition of the Multilateral Naval Exercise – 2024 (MILAN), from Feb 19 to 27. Background: Navies from across the globe, including the US, Japan, Australia, France, Bangladesh, South Korea, Vietnam, Indonesia and Malaysia, are lining up for participation in this significant event off Visakhapatnam. About MILAN: The Multilateral Naval Exercise (MILAN) is a biennial naval war game hosted by the Indian Navy. The first Milan exercise was conducted in 1995 at Port Blair in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. It was a multilateral naval exercise hosted by the Indian Navy, involving the navies of Indonesia, Singapore, Sri Lanka and Thailand. The 12th edition of MILAN is scheduled to be held in Visakhapatnam, India. The aim of MILAN is to foster international maritime cooperation and showcase India’s naval prowess. Milan 2024 reflects India’s ‘Look East policy’ and emphasizes regional security cooperation. The theme of MILAN 2024 is “Cohesion, Camaraderie and Collaboration”. MILAN 2024 also expects to realise the G20 theme of Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam, which means “the world is one family”. INSOLVENCY AND BANKRUPTCY BOARD OF INDIA (IBBI) Syllabus Prelims : Economy Context: To ensure fairness in bankruptcy cases, the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) has issued a circular instructing resolution professional (RPs) to share copies of their reports with both creditors and debtors involved in insolvency cases. Background: The circular highlights instances where resolution professional (RPs) failed to provide equal access to information to both parties, leading to a disparity in understanding. About The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI): The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) is the regulator for overseeing insolvency proceedings and entities like Insolvency Professional Agencies (IPA), Insolvency Professionals (IP) and Information Utilities (IU) in India. It was established on 1st October, 2016 under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, which is a law that aims to resolve insolvency and bankruptcy cases in a time-bound and efficient manner. The IBBI also regulates the profession of valuers in India under the Companies (Registered Valuers and Valuation Rules), 2017. It has a three-tier structure, consisting of a chairperson, three ex-officio members from the central government, one ex-officio member from the RBI, and five other members nominated by the central government. Some of the key functions and features of the IBBI are: It grants registration to IPs (insolvency professionals), IPAs(insolvency professional agency), IUs (Information Utilities ), and valuers and sets the curriculum for the qualifying examination of the IPs for their enrolment. It makes regulations and guidelines for the implementation of the Code and the Rules, and enforces them through inspections, investigations, and penalties. It collects and maintains records relating to insolvency and bankruptcy cases and disseminates information relating to such cases. It promotes awareness and research on insolvency and bankruptcy matters and engages with various stakeholders, such as the government, the judiciary, the industry, and the academia. Source: Hindu Businessline NORTH ATLANTIC TREATY ORGANISATION (NATO) Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Former U.S President Donald Trump has criticised North Atlantic Treaty Organisation. Background: As US president from 2017-21, Trump often lambasted NATO and members such as Germany, accusing them of not paying enough for their own defence and relying on Washington to protect them. Trump continues his criticism of NATO during campaign for upcoming presidential election. About NATO: Founded in 1949 to counter the Soviet Union with Cold War tensions rising, the North Atlantic Treaty Organization is a political and military alliance of countries from North America and Europe. Enshrined in Article 5 of its founding treaty is the principle of collective defence – the idea that an attack on one member is considered an attack on all of them. However, Article 5 stops short of a commitment to an automatic military response to help an ally under attack. That means the strength of Article 5 depends on clear statements from political leaders that it will be backed up by action NATO takes decisions by consensus but the political and military strength of the United States means that it is by far the most powerful country in the alliance, with its nuclear arsenal seen as the ultimate security guarantee. Which countries are in NATO? NATO currently has 31 members – most of them European nations, plus the United States and Canada. The newest member is Finland, which joined last April in reaction to Russia’s 2022 invasion of Ukraine. Sweden applied to join along with Finland but is waiting for Hungary to ratify its application as the final major step before membership. During the Cold War, NATO’s main focus was protecting Western Europe from the Soviet Union. After the 1989 fall of the Berlin Wall,NATO expanded to take in former communist bloc countries from Central and Eastern Europe. NATO’s members range from large countries such as Britain, France, Germany and Turkey to small nations such as Iceland and Montenegro. How is NATO funded Trump has often accused other NATO members of not paying their dues, giving the impression that the alliance is like a club with membership fees. But NATO operates differently. It has some common funds, to which all members contribute. But the vast bulk of its strength comes from members’ own national defence spending – to maintain forces and buy arms that can also be used by NATO. However, NATO members have committed to spending at least 2% of their Gross Domestic Product (GDP) every year on defence – and most of them did not meet that goal last year. Source:The Indian Express Human Wildlife Conflict Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Context: Wayanad is on the boil after a wild elephant chased a 47-year-old man and trampled him to death. Background: Instances of human wildlife conflict has been increasing across India.People affected by the issue has often come into direct confrontation with state asking government to take stronger measures to protect their life and property. What is human-wildlife conflict? Human-wildlife conflict refers to situations where human activities, such as agriculture, infrastructure development, or resource extraction, come into conflict with wild animals, leading to negative outcomes for both humans and animals. Reasons/ factors causing human-wildlife conflict: Urbanization and Development Lack of Protected areas Population explosion Deforestation Agricultural expansion Climate change Invasive species Increase in eco-tourism Substantial increase in the population of prolific breeders like wild boars and peacocks. Consequences/Implications of human-wildlife conflict: Wild animals can destroy crops, damage infrastructure, and kill livestock, leading to financial hardship. Wild animals can pose a threat to human safety, especially in areas where people and wildlife coexist. Attacks by large predators such as lions, tigers, and bears can result in serious injury or death. It can have a negative impact on the environment. For example, when humans kill predators, it can lead to an increase in prey populations, which can then cause ecological imbalances. It can also pose a challenge to conservation efforts, as it can lead to negative perceptions of wildlife and make it difficult to implement conservation measures. It can also have psychological impacts on people, especially those who have experienced attacks or property damage. It can lead to fear, anxiety, and trauma. Source: The Hindu Radioactive Discharge Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Context: The researchers from Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) analyzed the radiological data from six nuclear power plants in India over a period of 20 years (2000-2020) has found that the radioactive discharges from Indian nuclear plants have been minimal. Background: Public has often protested against nuclear power plants.The minimal public doses underscore the safe operation of Indian nuclear power plants.The study’s findings have the potential to dispel unfounded beliefs, serving as a catalyst to reinforce India’s commitment to advancing its nuclear power programme. What is Radioactive Discharge? It refers to the release of radioactive substances into the environment as a result of human activities, typically from nuclear facilities such as nuclear power plants, research reactors, or other industrial processes involving radioactive materials. Key findings of the analysis: The radioactive discharges from the nuclear plants were found to have a minimal impact on the environment. The concentrations of fission products beyond a 5 km radius have been below the minimum detectable activity of the instruments used, implying that the monitored values are “insignificant”. Gaseous waste released into the atmosphere includes fission product noble gases, Argon 41, radioiodine, and particulate radionuclides (cobalt-60, strontium-90, caesium-137, and tritium) while liquid discharge consists of fission product radionuclides, radioiodine, tritium, strontium -90, caesium-137 — and activation products like cobalt-60. Radioactive discharges are carried out through dilution and dispersion, adhering to strict radiological and environmental regulatory regimes. The average gross alpha activity in air particulates at all seven nuclear plants was less than 0.1 mega becquerel (mBq) per cubic meter. Average concentrations of radionuclides (iodine-131, caesium-137, and strontium-90) in air particulates across all sites were below 1 mBq per cubic meter. Concentrations of caesium-137 and strontium-90 in rivers, lakes, and seawater near the nuclear plants were below specified levels. The concentrations of caesium-137 and strontium-90 in sediments were within the statistical variation of values observed in natural sediments, without showing any trend of deposition or accumulation. Tritium was detectable above the minimum detectable activity at all sites except the Kudankulam Nuclear Power Station. Implications of radioactive discharge: Radioactive substances released into the environment can impact ecosystems, affecting plants, animals, and microorganisms. Radioactive particles can settle on soil and sediment, leading to contamination. In water bodies, radioactive substances may accumulate, potentially affecting aquatic life. Radioactive discharges can expose nearby populations to ionizing radiation. Prolonged or high-level exposure may increase the risk of radiation-related health issues, including cancer. If radioactive substances enter the food chain, agricultural products and livestock may become contaminated, posing risks to consumers. In the 2011 Fukushima Nuclear Disaster, nuclear radiation contaminated agricultural products, such as rice and fish, raising concerns about food safety. Areas near nuclear facilities that experience radioactive discharges may see a decline in property values due to safety concerns. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) With reference Biological Diversity Act, 2002, which of the following statements is not correct? It establishes a three-tier structure to regulate the access and use of biological resources. It prohibits any person or organisation from obtaining any biological resource occurring in India or knowledge associated with it for research or commercial purposes without the prior approval of the concerned authorities. It provides for the involvement of the local communities in the conservation and management of the biological resources and associated knowledge. It empowers the Supreme Court of India to hear any grievances or disputes arising from the implementation of the Act. Q2.)  Consider the following pairs Naval Exercise                                             Countries Konkan                                         India and the UK Naseem Al Bahr                          India and Oman Zayed Talwar                               India and the UAE Varuna                                          India and France How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.3) With reference to Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI), consider the following statements: It was established on 1st October, 2016 under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016. It makes regulations and guidelines for the implementation of the Code and the Rules, and enforces them through inspections, investigations, and penalties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  14th February  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  13th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – d