Feb 14, 2024 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 14th February 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   BIOLOGICAL DIVERSITY ACT, 2002. Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: Recently, the Odisha government has declared the Gupteswar forest in Koraput district as its fourth Biodiversity Heritage Site (BHS). Background:- The Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS) are declared by the state governments in consultation with local bodies under Section 37 of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002. About Biological Diversity Act:-   The Biological Diversity Act, 2002 is a law that protects the different kinds of living things in India and ensures fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from their use. The law was enacted to meet the requirements of the United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity, to which India is a party. Biological Diversity Act 2002 (BD Act), is in close synergy with the Nagoya Protocol and aims to implement provisions of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD). The Nagoya Protocol sought to ensure commercial and research utilisation of genetic resources led to sharing its benefits with the government and the community that conserved such resources. Features of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 It establishes a three-tier structure to regulate the access and use of biological resources, consisting of the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) at the central level, the State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs) at the state level, and the Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) at the local level. It prohibits any person or organisation, whether Indian or foreign, from obtaining any biological resource occurring in India or knowledge associated with it for research or commercial purposes without the prior approval of the NBA or the SBBs. It also prohibits the transfer of the results of any research relating to any biological resource or knowledge obtained from India to any person or entity outside India without the approval of the NBA. It also prohibits the claim of any intellectual property rights on any invention based on the research made on the biological resources or knowledge obtained from India without the approval of the NBA. It provides for the conservation and sustainable use of biological resources and associated knowledge, as well as the protection and rehabilitation of threatened species and ecosystems. It provides for the declaration of certain areas as Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS), which are unique, ecologically fragile, and rich in biodiversity. The state governments can notify such areas in consultation with the local bodies and the central government. It provides for the involvement of the local communities in the conservation and management of the biological resources and associated knowledge, and ensures that they get a fair share of the benefits arising from their use. It provides for the establishment of institutions such as repositories, gene banks, and museums for the preservation and documentation of the biological resources and associated knowledge. It provides for the penalties and offences for the violation of the provisions of the Act, and empowers the National Green Tribunal (NGT) to hear any grievances or disputes arising from the implementation of the Act. Biological Diversity Act 2002 (BD Act), is in close synergy with the Nagoya Protocol and aims to implement provisions of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD). The Nagoya Protocol sought to ensure that commercial and research utilisation of genetic resources lead to sharing its benefits with the government and the community that conserved such resources. Source: The Indian Express Previous Year Questions Consider the following statements: (2011) Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is normally greater in the lower altitudes as compared to the higher altitudes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2  Neither 1 nor 2 MULTILATERAL NAVAL EXERCISE (MILAN) – 2024 Syllabus Prelims- Current Event Context: The Indian Navy is all set to host the 12th edition of the Multilateral Naval Exercise – 2024 (MILAN), from Feb 19 to 27. Background: Navies from across the globe, including the US, Japan, Australia, France, Bangladesh, South Korea, Vietnam, Indonesia and Malaysia, are lining up for participation in this significant event off Visakhapatnam. About MILAN: The Multilateral Naval Exercise (MILAN) is a biennial naval war game hosted by the Indian Navy. The first Milan exercise was conducted in 1995 at Port Blair in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. It was a multilateral naval exercise hosted by the Indian Navy, involving the navies of Indonesia, Singapore, Sri Lanka and Thailand. The 12th edition of MILAN is scheduled to be held in Visakhapatnam, India. The aim of MILAN is to foster international maritime cooperation and showcase India’s naval prowess. Milan 2024 reflects India’s ‘Look East policy’ and emphasizes regional security cooperation. The theme of MILAN 2024 is “Cohesion, Camaraderie and Collaboration”. MILAN 2024 also expects to realise the G20 theme of Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam, which means “the world is one family”. INSOLVENCY AND BANKRUPTCY BOARD OF INDIA (IBBI) Syllabus Prelims : Economy Context: To ensure fairness in bankruptcy cases, the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) has issued a circular instructing resolution professional (RPs) to share copies of their reports with both creditors and debtors involved in insolvency cases. Background: The circular highlights instances where resolution professional (RPs) failed to provide equal access to information to both parties, leading to a disparity in understanding. About The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI): The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) is the regulator for overseeing insolvency proceedings and entities like Insolvency Professional Agencies (IPA), Insolvency Professionals (IP) and Information Utilities (IU) in India. It was established on 1st October, 2016 under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, which is a law that aims to resolve insolvency and bankruptcy cases in a time-bound and efficient manner. The IBBI also regulates the profession of valuers in India under the Companies (Registered Valuers and Valuation Rules), 2017. It has a three-tier structure, consisting of a chairperson, three ex-officio members from the central government, one ex-officio member from the RBI, and five other members nominated by the central government. Some of the key functions and features of the IBBI are: It grants registration to IPs (insolvency professionals), IPAs(insolvency professional agency), IUs (Information Utilities ), and valuers and sets the curriculum for the qualifying examination of the IPs for their enrolment. It makes regulations and guidelines for the implementation of the Code and the Rules, and enforces them through inspections, investigations, and penalties. It collects and maintains records relating to insolvency and bankruptcy cases and disseminates information relating to such cases. It promotes awareness and research on insolvency and bankruptcy matters and engages with various stakeholders, such as the government, the judiciary, the industry, and the academia. Source: Hindu Businessline NORTH ATLANTIC TREATY ORGANISATION (NATO) Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Former U.S President Donald Trump has criticised North Atlantic Treaty Organisation. Background: As US president from 2017-21, Trump often lambasted NATO and members such as Germany, accusing them of not paying enough for their own defence and relying on Washington to protect them. Trump continues his criticism of NATO during campaign for upcoming presidential election. About NATO: Founded in 1949 to counter the Soviet Union with Cold War tensions rising, the North Atlantic Treaty Organization is a political and military alliance of countries from North America and Europe. Enshrined in Article 5 of its founding treaty is the principle of collective defence – the idea that an attack on one member is considered an attack on all of them. However, Article 5 stops short of a commitment to an automatic military response to help an ally under attack. That means the strength of Article 5 depends on clear statements from political leaders that it will be backed up by action NATO takes decisions by consensus but the political and military strength of the United States means that it is by far the most powerful country in the alliance, with its nuclear arsenal seen as the ultimate security guarantee. Which countries are in NATO? NATO currently has 31 members – most of them European nations, plus the United States and Canada. The newest member is Finland, which joined last April in reaction to Russia’s 2022 invasion of Ukraine. Sweden applied to join along with Finland but is waiting for Hungary to ratify its application as the final major step before membership. During the Cold War, NATO’s main focus was protecting Western Europe from the Soviet Union. After the 1989 fall of the Berlin Wall,NATO expanded to take in former communist bloc countries from Central and Eastern Europe. NATO’s members range from large countries such as Britain, France, Germany and Turkey to small nations such as Iceland and Montenegro. How is NATO funded Trump has often accused other NATO members of not paying their dues, giving the impression that the alliance is like a club with membership fees. But NATO operates differently. It has some common funds, to which all members contribute. But the vast bulk of its strength comes from members’ own national defence spending – to maintain forces and buy arms that can also be used by NATO. However, NATO members have committed to spending at least 2% of their Gross Domestic Product (GDP) every year on defence – and most of them did not meet that goal last year. Source:The Indian Express Human Wildlife Conflict Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Context: Wayanad is on the boil after a wild elephant chased a 47-year-old man and trampled him to death. Background: Instances of human wildlife conflict has been increasing across India.People affected by the issue has often come into direct confrontation with state asking government to take stronger measures to protect their life and property. What is human-wildlife conflict? Human-wildlife conflict refers to situations where human activities, such as agriculture, infrastructure development, or resource extraction, come into conflict with wild animals, leading to negative outcomes for both humans and animals. Reasons/ factors causing human-wildlife conflict: Urbanization and Development Lack of Protected areas Population explosion Deforestation Agricultural expansion Climate change Invasive species Increase in eco-tourism Substantial increase in the population of prolific breeders like wild boars and peacocks. Consequences/Implications of human-wildlife conflict: Wild animals can destroy crops, damage infrastructure, and kill livestock, leading to financial hardship. Wild animals can pose a threat to human safety, especially in areas where people and wildlife coexist. Attacks by large predators such as lions, tigers, and bears can result in serious injury or death. It can have a negative impact on the environment. For example, when humans kill predators, it can lead to an increase in prey populations, which can then cause ecological imbalances. It can also pose a challenge to conservation efforts, as it can lead to negative perceptions of wildlife and make it difficult to implement conservation measures. It can also have psychological impacts on people, especially those who have experienced attacks or property damage. It can lead to fear, anxiety, and trauma. Source: The Hindu Radioactive Discharge Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Context: The researchers from Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) analyzed the radiological data from six nuclear power plants in India over a period of 20 years (2000-2020) has found that the radioactive discharges from Indian nuclear plants have been minimal. Background: Public has often protested against nuclear power plants.The minimal public doses underscore the safe operation of Indian nuclear power plants.The study’s findings have the potential to dispel unfounded beliefs, serving as a catalyst to reinforce India’s commitment to advancing its nuclear power programme. What is Radioactive Discharge? It refers to the release of radioactive substances into the environment as a result of human activities, typically from nuclear facilities such as nuclear power plants, research reactors, or other industrial processes involving radioactive materials. Key findings of the analysis: The radioactive discharges from the nuclear plants were found to have a minimal impact on the environment. The concentrations of fission products beyond a 5 km radius have been below the minimum detectable activity of the instruments used, implying that the monitored values are “insignificant”. Gaseous waste released into the atmosphere includes fission product noble gases, Argon 41, radioiodine, and particulate radionuclides (cobalt-60, strontium-90, caesium-137, and tritium) while liquid discharge consists of fission product radionuclides, radioiodine, tritium, strontium -90, caesium-137 — and activation products like cobalt-60. Radioactive discharges are carried out through dilution and dispersion, adhering to strict radiological and environmental regulatory regimes. The average gross alpha activity in air particulates at all seven nuclear plants was less than 0.1 mega becquerel (mBq) per cubic meter. Average concentrations of radionuclides (iodine-131, caesium-137, and strontium-90) in air particulates across all sites were below 1 mBq per cubic meter. Concentrations of caesium-137 and strontium-90 in rivers, lakes, and seawater near the nuclear plants were below specified levels. The concentrations of caesium-137 and strontium-90 in sediments were within the statistical variation of values observed in natural sediments, without showing any trend of deposition or accumulation. Tritium was detectable above the minimum detectable activity at all sites except the Kudankulam Nuclear Power Station. Implications of radioactive discharge: Radioactive substances released into the environment can impact ecosystems, affecting plants, animals, and microorganisms. Radioactive particles can settle on soil and sediment, leading to contamination. In water bodies, radioactive substances may accumulate, potentially affecting aquatic life. Radioactive discharges can expose nearby populations to ionizing radiation. Prolonged or high-level exposure may increase the risk of radiation-related health issues, including cancer. If radioactive substances enter the food chain, agricultural products and livestock may become contaminated, posing risks to consumers. In the 2011 Fukushima Nuclear Disaster, nuclear radiation contaminated agricultural products, such as rice and fish, raising concerns about food safety. Areas near nuclear facilities that experience radioactive discharges may see a decline in property values due to safety concerns. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) With reference Biological Diversity Act, 2002, which of the following statements is not correct? It establishes a three-tier structure to regulate the access and use of biological resources. It prohibits any person or organisation from obtaining any biological resource occurring in India or knowledge associated with it for research or commercial purposes without the prior approval of the concerned authorities. It provides for the involvement of the local communities in the conservation and management of the biological resources and associated knowledge. It empowers the Supreme Court of India to hear any grievances or disputes arising from the implementation of the Act. Q2.)  Consider the following pairs Naval Exercise                                             Countries Konkan                                         India and the UK Naseem Al Bahr                          India and Oman Zayed Talwar                               India and the UAE Varuna                                          India and France How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.3) With reference to Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI), consider the following statements: It was established on 1st October, 2016 under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016. It makes regulations and guidelines for the implementation of the Code and the Rules, and enforces them through inspections, investigations, and penalties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  14th February  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  13th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – d

Feb 14, 2024 Important Articles

[OFFICIAL ANNOUNCEMENT] UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination Notification, 2024 Released – 1056 Vacancies

Dear Friends, To download the notification of the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2024, CLICK BELOW LINK Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2024 Notification - DOWNLOAD How to Apply The process has completely changed from the previous years. Candidates must take note of this. Candidates are required to apply Online by using the website https://upsconline.nic.in It is essential for the applicant to register himself/herself first at the One Time Registration (OTR) platform, available on the Commission’s website, and then proceed for filling up the online application for the examination. OTR has to be registered only once in a lifetime. This can be done anytime throughout the year. If the candidate is already registered, he/she can proceed straightway to filling up the online application for the examination. In case, the candidate wants to effect any change in his/her OTR profile, it shall be allowed only once in the lifetime after the registration at the OTR platform. The online Applications can be filled up to 5th March 2024 till 6:00 PM. Making correction(s) in any field(s) of the application form from 6th March to 12th March 2024 The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card three weeks before the commencement of the examination. Candidates (excepting Female/SC/ST/Persons with Benchmark Disability Candidates who are exempted from payment of fee) are required to pay the fee of Rs. 100/- (Rupees One Hundred only). All female candidates and candidates belonging to Scheduled Caste/ Scheduled Tribe/ Persons with Benchmark Disability categories are exempted from payment of the fee. No fee exemption is, however, available to OBC/EWS candidates and they are required to pay the prescribed fee in full. Complete details can be found in the Official Notification of UPSC  -> Click Here Points To Consider The OBC candidates applying for CSE-2024 must produce OBC (Non-Creamy Layer) certificate based on the income for the Financial Year (FY) 2020-2021, 2021-2022 and 2022-2023 and issued on/after 01.04.2023 (after the completion of FY 2022-23) but not later than the closing date of the application for Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination-2024 i.e. 5th March, 2024 A candidate will be eligible to get the benefit of the Economically Weaker Section reservation only in case the candidate meets the criteria issued by the Central Government and is in possession of requisite Income & Asset Certificate based on income for Financial Year (FY) 2022-2023 and issuedon/after 01.04.2023 (after the completion of FY 2022-23 ) but not later than the closing date of the application for Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination-2024 i.e. 5th March, 2024 Age Limit General – 32 Years OBC (Non-Creamy Layer) – 35 Years SC/ST – 37 Years Number of Attempts (Subject to Age Limit) General- 6 OBC- 9 PwBD- 9 SC/ST- Unlimited Attempts Vacancies The number of vacancies to be filled through the examination is expected to be approximately 1056 which includes 40 vacancies reserved for Persons with Benchmark Disability Category. The final number of vacancies may undergo change after getting a firm number of vacancies from Cadre Controlling Authorities. Reservations will be made for candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes, the Economically Weaker Sections and Persons with Benchmark Disability in respect of vacancies as may be fixed by the Government. Scheme and subjects for the Preliminary examination The Examination shall comprise two compulsory Papers of 200 marks each. Both the question papers will be of the objective type (multiple choice questions) and each will be two hours in duration. The General Studies Paper-II of the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination will be a qualifying paper with minimum qualifying marks fixed at 33%. Paper I – (200 marks) Duration: Two hours Current events of national and international importance. History of India and Indian National Movement. Indian and World Geography-Physical, Social, Economic Geography of India and the World. Indian Polity and Governance-Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc. Economic and Social Development-Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector Initiatives, etc. General issues on Environmental ecology, Bio-diversity and Climate Change – that do not require subject specialization. General Science Paper II-(200 marks) Duration: Two hours Comprehension; Interpersonal skills including communication skills; Logical reasoning and analytical ability; Decision-making and problem-solving; General mental ability; Basic numeracy (numbers and their relations, orders of magnitude, etc.) (Class X level), Data interpretation (charts, graphs, tables, data sufficiency etc. — Class X level)

Feb 14, 2024 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 14th February 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

Feb 14, 2024 UPSC Interview Discussion-TRP

[INTERVIEW INITIATIVE] Think, Rethink and Perform (TRP) [DAY 23] 2023 for UPSC/IAS Personality Test!

ARCHIVES (of TRP) – > CLICK HERE Those who have appeared for UPSC Mains 2023, fill up the Google form given below. Students who fill out the form will be added to a telegram group so that there can be healthy discussions with other students who will be appearing for the Interview/Personality Test. Also, Mohan sir, Bureaucrats and Ex-Bureaucrats will be interacting one-on-one with all the students who will be appearing for the same. REGISTER HERE – CLICK HERE Interview Discussion: Think, Rethink and Perform; (TRP) – Day 23 Set 1: Ask these questions to yourself; contemplate and come out with a concrete answer (not to be discussed on this forum). Invest at least 30 minutes in this set of questions. What motivates you the most in life, and how do you find or renew this motivation when it wanes? Can you share an example where your source of motivation helped you overcome a difficult situation? How does understanding your personal motivation impact your goals and the way you pursue them? Set 2: Analyse the following issue:  India faces various internal security challenges, ranging from terrorism to cyber-attacks, which have evolved in complexity and scale over time. What are the new threats to India’s internal security, and how should the country adapt its strategies to address these challenges effectively? We expect you to discuss the above question (Set 2) in the comments below and come out with a balanced view of the issues. Thank You IASbaba

Feb 13, 2024 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 13th February 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   StarLink Syllabus Prelims and Mains – Science Context: Russia on Monday rejected Ukraine’s claim that Russian troops fighting on the frontline were using Starlink terminals. Background:- The Kremlin said on Monday that Elon Musk’s Starlink satellite internet system was neither certified for use in, nor officially supplied to, Russia, and therefore could not be used.Ukraine, which has used Starlink for military communications throughout its conflict with Russia, said on Sunday that Russian troops were using Starlink in parts of Ukraine they control. About Starlink:-   Starlink is a satellite constellation that comprises thousands of small satellites in low-Earth orbit (LEO). SpaceX first began sending them into space in 2019. SpaceX is an American aerospace manufacturer and space transport services company founded by Elon Musk. Currently, there are more than 3,000 of these satellites that send internet signals to designated ground receivers. Unlike traditional internet providers, Starlink doesn’t require any ground infrastructure. One just needs to have a small satellite dish or a receiver device to access high-speed internet, much like satellite TV. Significance of Starlink: Global Connectivity: Starlink aims to offer high-speed internet to users worldwide, including those living in remote and rural areas with limited or no access to traditional broadband services. Low Latency: LEO satellites offer low latency, reducing the signal delay experienced with traditional geostationary satellites, making activities like online gaming and video conferencing smoother. Reliable and Redundant: The large number of satellites in the constellation allows for redundancy, minimizing service disruptions in case of satellite failures. Emergency Connectivity: Starlink has shown its potential in providing emergency internet access during natural disasters and crises, offering communication lifelines to affected communities. Challenges Space Debris: With thousands of satellites in LEO, concerns have been raised about space debris , its impact on the space environment and other satellite operations. Astronomy Interference: Starlink satellites have been criticized for interfering with ground-based astronomical observations due to their brightness and impact on the night sky. Monopoly Concerns: As Starlink expands its dominance in the satellite internet market, concerns arise about potential monopolistic control over global internet. Regulatory and Legal Challenges: Operating a massive satellite constellation involves navigating complex international regulations, spectrum management, and coordination with other satellite operators. Russia Ukraine – Operations controlled by company: After the Russia-Ukraine war broke out in 2022, fibre network lines and cell towers were the first pieces of infrastructure to be destroyed, rendering Starlink as the lifeblood of Ukraine’s communication network. When Internet connectivity is deployed in a region, the nature of the technology is such that its operations aren’t controlled by the user, but by the company. For example, if a piece of territory had fallen into Russian hands and a few Starlink dishes or terminals had been lost – it had to call up Starlink each time. SOURCE: Reuters Event Horizon Telescope (EHT) Syllabus Prelims- Science Context: Scientists have unveiled new details of a colossal black hole 53 million lightyears away first photographed by the earth-wide Event Horizon Telescope (EHT) in 2017. Background: The image of blackhole captured with the help of EHT was hailed at the time as a matter of “astonishment and wonder” for revealing “a part of the universe that was off limits”.In the image, a central dark region is encapsulated by a ring of light that looks brighter on one side.The massive galaxy, called Messier 87 or M87, is near the Virgo galaxy cluster 55 million light-years from Earth.The super-massive black hole has a mass that is 6.5 billion times that of our sun. About EHT: The EHT is not a single telescope but a worldwide network of radio telescopes that work together to study a common object in space. EHT benefit from a technique called very-long baseline interferometry, where the data each telescope collects about the object is correlated with data from the others using extremely precise clocks. The project is named for the event horizon, the proposed boundary around a black hole that represents the point of no return where no light or radiation can escape.   About black hole A black hole is a place in space where gravity pulls so much that even light cannot get out. The gravity is so strong because matter has been squeezed into a tiny space. This can happen when a star is dying. Because no light can get out, people can’t see black holes. They are invisible. Space telescopes with special tools can help find black holes. The special tools can see how stars that are very close to black holes act differently than other stars. Size of Black hole: Smallest Black holes – Scientists think the smallest black holes are as small as just one atom. These black holes are very tiny but have the mass of a large mountain. Stellar – Its mass can be up to 20 times more than the mass of the sun. There may be many, many stellar mass black holes in Earth’s galaxy. Earth’s galaxy is called the Milky Way. Supermassive – The largest black holes are called “” These black holes have masses that are more than 1 million suns together. Scientists have found proof that every large galaxy contains a supermassive black hole at its center. The supermassive black hole at the center of the Milky Way galaxy is called Sagittarius A. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Question: Consider the following phenomena: (2018) Light is affected by gravity. The Universe is constantly expanding. Matter warps its surrounding space-time. Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in media? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Ans: (d) Index of industrial production (IIP) Syllabus Prelims : Economy Context: Industrial output witnessed mild recovery in December. Background: At 3.8 percent, the latest industrial growth figure as per the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is up from the November 2023 figure of 2.4 percent. About Index of Industrial Production (IIP): Publication time: monthly. (IIP) Published by: National Statistical Office (NSO). Ministry: Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. Base Year: 2011-2012. IIP is an indicator that measures the changes in the volume of production of industrial products during a given period. It is a composite indicator that measures the growth rate of industry groups classified under: Broad sectors: Mining, Manufacturing, and Electricity. The relative weights of these three sectors are 6% (manufacturing), 14.4% (mining) and 8% (electricity). Eight core industries: Electricity, crude oil, coal, cement, steel, refinery products, natural gas, and fertilizers. They comprise about 40 per cent of the weight of items included in the IIP. The eight core sector industries in decreasing order of their weightage: Refinery Products> Electricity> Steel> Coal> Crude Oil> Natural Gas> Cement> Fertilizers. Use-based sectors: Basic Goods, Capital Goods, and Intermediate Goods. Source: Money Control Previous Year Question: 1)In the ‘Index of Eight Core Industries’, which one of the following is given the highest weight? (2015) Coal production Electricity generation Fertilizer production Steel production RED SEA Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Yemen’s Houthi rebels attacked a ship in the Bab el-Mandeb Strait near Red Sea. Background: The Houthis have been targeting ships in the Red Sea over Israel’s offensive in Gaza raising fears of supply bottlenecks. The Red Sea is one of the world’s busiest shipping lanes, and any disruption to the shipping routes can have significant global implications. About RED SEA: Red Sea is an arm of the Indian Ocean, lying between Africa and Asia. It is connected to the ocean in the south, through the Bab-el-Mandeb strait and the Gulf of Aden. To its north lie the Sinai Peninsula, the Gulf of Aqaba, and the Gulf of Suez (leading to the Suez Canal). The Red Sea is connected to the Mediterranean Sea through the Suez Canal. The Red Sea is one of the most densely packed shipping channels in the world, carrying maritime traffic between Europe and Asia and east Africa. About 12% of global trade passes through the Red Sea, including 30% of global container traffic. The Red Sea also serves as a strategic zone for both regional and Great Powers projecting their military might or openly engaging in conflict. The Red Sea is bordered by the following countries: Eastern shore: Israel, Jordan, Saudi Arabia and Yemen. Western shore: Egypt, Sudan, Eritrea, Djibouti. Source: BBC AYUSHMAN BHARAT-PRADHAN MANTRI JAN AROGYA YOJANA (AB-PMJAY) Syllabus Prelims – Current events Context: The Health Ministry has so far received Aadhaar details of 23 lakh anganwadi workers and helpers and over three lakh ASHA workers from various States after the central government’s announcement to provide the free health cover to them under Ayushman Bharat scheme. Background: In India, currently, 55 crore individuals corresponding to 12 crore families are covered under the scheme. The decision to include this group of healthcare workers was announced by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman during the presentation of the interim Union Budget 2024-25. About AYUSHMAN BHARAT-PRADHAN MANTRI JAN AROGYA YOJANA (AB-PMJAY): Ayushman Bharat-Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY) is a flagship scheme of the Government of India, launched as recommended by the National Health Policy 2017, to achieve the vision of Universal Health Coverage (UHC). This initiative has been designed to meet Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and its underlying commitment, which is to “leave no one behind. The scheme comprises two inter-related components: Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs) & Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY). AB PM-JAY is the largest health assurance scheme in the world which aims at providing a health cover of ₹ 5,00,000 per family per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization. The benefits of ₹ 5,00,000 are on a family floater basis which means that it can be used by one or all members of the family. Under AB PM-JAY, there is no cap on family size or the age of members. In addition, pre-existing diseases are covered from the very first day. Any eligible person suffering from any medical condition before being covered by PM-JAY will now be able to get treatment for all those medical conditions as well under this scheme right from the day they are enrolled. However, certain specified conditions may have a waiting period of up to 2 years before they can be covered under the scheme. The households included is based on the deprivation and occupational criteria of the Socio-Economic Caste Census 2011 (SECC 2011) for rural and urban areas respectively. PM-JAY is fully funded by the Government and the cost of implementation is shared between the Central and State Governments. Source: The Hindu Corruption Perceptions Index Syllabus Mains – GS 2 Context:The Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) 2023 has been released by Transparency International showing that most countries have made little to no progress in tackling public sector corruption. Background: Public Sector corruption has been difficult to tackle especially in the global south with various anti corruption measures falling short of expectations. About Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI): The CPI ranks 180 countries and territories around the globe by their perceived levels of public sector corruption, scoring on a scale of0 (highly corrupt) to 100 (very clean). Key highlights of the Corruption Perception Index (CPI) 2023: Over two-thirds of countries scorebelow 50 out of 100, which strongly indicates that they have serious corruption The global average score isstuck at only 43, while the vast majority of countries have made no progress or declined in the last decade. Denmarkwith a score of 90 tops the index for the sixth consecutive year, with Finland and New Zealand following closely with scores of 87 and 85, respectively. Somalia, Venezuela, Syria, South Sudan, and Yemen, with theirscores of 11, 13, 13, and 13 respectively, take the bottom spots in the India was ranked93 out of 180 countries on the CPI 2023. In 2022, India was ranked 85. The overall score for India in 2023 was 39, a slight decrease from 40 in 2022. According to theRule of Law Index, the world is experiencing a decline in the functioning of justice systems. Countries with the lowest scores in the Rule of Law index are also scoring very low on the CPI, highlighting a clear connection between access to justice and corruption. Both authoritarian and democratic leaders are undermining justice. This is increasingimpunity for corruption, and even encouraging it by eliminating consequences for criminals. Where corruption is the norm, vulnerable people have restricted access to justice while the rich and powerful capture whole justice systems, at the expense of the common good. Transparency International: It is an international non- governmental organisation founded in 1993 based in Berlin, Germany to take action to combat global corruption with civil societal anti- corruption measures and to prevent criminal activities arising from corruption. Its publications include theGlobal Corruption Barometer and the Corruption Perception Index. Source: Transparency International Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Consider the following countries: Israel Jordan Sudan Lebanon Yemen Ethiopia How many of the above-mentioned countries share border with Red Sea? Only two Only three Only four Only five Q2.) Consider the following statements in relation to Ayushman Bharat-Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY): It was launched as per recommendations of National Health Policy 2017. It aims at providing a health cover of ₹ 5,00,000 per family per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization. There is no cap on family size or the age of members under this scheme The households included is based on the deprivation and occupational criteria of the Socio-Economic Caste Census 2011. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.3) Which among the following industries are part of core industries as classified under Index of Industrial Production (IIP) : Electricity Coal Cement Steel Fertilisers Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 5 3 and 4 1,2 and 3 All of the above Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  13th February  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  12th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – d Q.3) – b

Feb 13, 2024 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 13th February 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂 After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

Feb 13, 2024 UPSC Interview Discussion-TRP

[INTERVIEW INITIATIVE] Think, Rethink and Perform (TRP) [DAY 22] 2023 for UPSC/IAS Personality Test!

ARCHIVES (of TRP) – > CLICK HERE Those who have appeared for UPSC Mains 2023, fill up the Google form given below. Students who fill out the form will be added to a telegram group so that there can be healthy discussions with other students who will be appearing for the Interview/Personality Test. Also, Mohan sir, Bureaucrats and Ex-Bureaucrats will be interacting one-on-one with all the students who will be appearing for the same. REGISTER HERE – CLICK HERE Interview Discussion: Think, Rethink and Perform; (TRP) – Day 22 Set 1: Ask these questions to yourself; contemplate and come out with a concrete answer (not to be discussed on this forum). Invest at least 30 minutes in this set of questions. What does having a higher purpose in life mean to you, and how have you sought to find or fulfill it? Share a personal journey or story where you felt connected to a purpose greater than yourself. What was the experience, and what did it teach you? How can one align their daily actions and decisions with their higher purpose, especially in times of uncertainty or challenge? Set 2: Analyse the following issue:  India’s G-20 presidency brought an opportunity to showcase its leadership on global issues, including economic governance, climate change, and sustainable development. What do you believe was the most significant achievement of India’s G-20 presidency, and why? How can India leverage this momentum to enhance its role on the global stage? We expect you to discuss the above question (Set 2) in the comments below and come out with a balanced view of the issues. Thank You IASbaba

Feb 12, 2024 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 12th February 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   The Great Indian Bustard (GIB) Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: The Great Indian Bustard (GIB) has not put in its annual appearance this year also at the Rollapadu Wildlife Sanctuary in  Andhra Pradesh. Background:- The forest officials in Andhra Pradesh have been conducting surveys regularly and couldn’t find the bird in the last two years in the State. About Great Indian Bustard:-   The Great Indian Bustard (GIB), is one of the heaviest flying birds, and is found mainly in the Indian subcontinent. Less than 140 of these birds are estimated to be surviving now globally, its population is confined mostly to Rajasthan and Gujarat. It is designated as critically endangered on the red list of International Union for Conservation of Nature. Scientific Name: Ardeotis nigriceps. Physical description: Black crown on the forehead contrasting with the pale neck and head. They feed on grass seeds, insects like grasshoppers and beetles, and sometimes even small rodents and reptiles. Distribution: India, effectively the only home of the bustards, today, its population is confined mostly to Rajasthan and Gujarat. Small population also occur in Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. It is the State bird of Rajasthan. Along with chick-rearing centre for GIB in Jaisalmer, Sorsan in Rajasthan has been identified as the most conducive site for their rearing, due to availability of grasslands, access to roads and well suited climatic conditions The GIB is a flagship species of the grassland; it determines the health of the grasslands, on which many other species of birds and animals, and even the dairy industry is dependent on. Factors affecting population of GIBs: Agricultural Expansion and Urbanization resulting in habitat loss and fragmentation. Increased human activities such as grazing and disturbance due to tourism can disrupt the natural behavior of the bustards, affecting their breeding and feeding activities. Poaching remains a threat to the Great Indian Bustard. Despite legal protection, they are sometimes targeted for their meat and feathers. The birds are at risk of colliding with overhead power lines, especially in the semi-arid landscapes where they are found. This can lead to fatalities and population decline. Climate change can impact the availability of suitable habitats and affect the availability of prey species, indirectly influencing the bustard population. Low Reproductive Success:Disturbances during the nesting season can lead to low reproductive success, as the birds may abandon nests or be unable to raise chicks successfully.GIBs are slow-reproducing, laying just a few eggs, and having almost a year-long parental care of chicks. Limited Genetic Diversity:The small and isolated populations of the Great Indian Bustard may lead to reduced genetic diversity, making them more vulnerable to diseases and environmental changes. MUST READ: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/how-do-you-plan-to-save-the-great-indian-bustard-sc-asks-government/article67757330.ece SOURCE: The Hindu RAJYA SABHA ELECTION Syllabus Prelims-polity Context: The elections for 56 seats in the Rajya Sabha are set to take place on February 27. Background: Major political parties have released the list of their candidates for Rajya Sabha election.It is watched closely as it comes close to the upcoming Lok Sabha Election. About Rajya Sabha election: Rajya Sabha is a permanent House and cannot be dissolved. To ensure continuity, one-third of its members retire after every second year, under Article 83(1) of the Constitution, and “biennial elections” are held to fill these vacancies. The term of a member is six years. Out of the 245 members, 12 are nominated by the President and 233 are representatives of the States and Union territories of Delhi and Puducherry. Rajya Sabha polls: Who votes, and how? Rajya Sabha MPs are elected by MLAs through an indirect election. Article 80(4) provides that members shall be elected by the elected members of state Assemblies through a system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution provides for allocation of Rajya Sabha seats to the states and Union Territories, on the basis of the population of each state. Rajya Sabha polls have an open ballot The Rajya Sabha polls have a system of open ballots, but it is a limited form of openness. As a measure to check rampant cross-voting, there is a system of each party MLA showing his or her marked ballots to the party’s authorized agent (called Whip), before they are put into the ballot box. Showing a marked ballot to anyone other than one’s own party’s authorized agent will render the vote invalid. Not showing the ballot to the authorized agent will also mean that the vote cannot be counted. Independent candidates are barred from showing their ballots to anyone. Previous Year Question: Q.)Consider the following statements : The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 MUST READ: The Hindu Explains | How are elections to the Rajya Sabha held? Source: The Hindu Brumation Syllabus Prelims : Science Context: Typically observed during cold months, its  a process similar to hibernation. Background: Researchers have observed instances of brumation in various reptilian species across habitats. About Brumation: It is the name to describe a period of dormancy or slowed activity in reptiles, much like hibernation in mammals. It typically occurs during colder months, when temperatures drop and food becomes scarce. Reptiles enter a state of brumation to conserve energy and survive these adverse environmental conditions. During brumation, reptiles may retreat to underground burrows, rock crevices or other sheltered areas where temperatures are relatively more stable. Metabolism slows significantly, allowing them to go weeks or even months without eating. This period of reduced activity allows reptiles to conserve energy and minimise their resource requirements. Species which exhibit brumation include box turtles and painted turtles, which burrow into the mud at the bottom of ponds or lakes. Snakes may seek refuge in underground dens or caves while lizards may hide under rocks or within vegetation. Source: The Hindu CITIZENSHIP AMENDMENT ACT (CAA) Syllabus Prelims : Polity Context: Home Minister Amit Shah recently said that the Citizenship Amendment Act, will be implemented before the Lok Sabha election 2024. Background: The CAA was first introduced in 2016 and went through several stages in Parliament. It was passed in 2019 and amended the Citizenship Act. About CAA: The Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019 (CAA) was passed by the Parliament of India on 11 December 2019. The CAA intends to make it easier for persecuted people from neighbouring countries to become Indian citizens. This act amended the Citizenship Act, 1955. The CAA is for illegal migrants who entered India before December 31, 2014. It covers migrants from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan.Specifically, it benefits those of Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, and Christian faiths. CAA does not grant such eligibility to Muslims from these countries Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, an illegal migrant is a foreigner who enters the country without valid travel documents like a passport and visa, or enters with valid documents, but stays beyond the permitted time period. The Amendment exempts the members of the six communities from any criminal case under the Foreigners Act, 1946 and the Passport Act, 1920. The two Acts (Foreigners Act, 1946 and the Passport Act, 1920) specify punishment for entering the country illegally and staying here on expired visas and permits. Under The Citizenship Act, 1955, one of the requirements for citizenship by naturalisation is that the applicant must have resided in India during the last 12 months, as well as for 11 of the previous 14 years. The amendment relaxes the second requirement from 11 years to 5 years as a specific condition for applicants belonging to these six religions (Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, and Christian) and the aforementioned three countries (Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan). Source: PRS Conference of the Parties (COP28) of the UNFCCC Syllabus Mains-GS 3 Context: 28th Conference of the Parties (COP28) of the UNFCCC, was held in Dubai, UAE. Background: The summit followed a year of extreme weather events in which many climate records were broken. About COP: COPs are gatherings held within the framework of theUnited Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), a multinational treaty established in During these sessions, participating countries (Parties) evaluate global endeavors aligned with the primary goal of theParis Agreement, aiming to restrict global warming to approximately 1.5 °C above pre-industrial levels. COP 28 marked the 18th session of the Conference of the Parties to the Kyoto Protocol (CMP 18) and the 5th session of the Conference of the Parties to the Paris Agreement (CMA 5). It also adopted a final document called the UAE Consensus. Major outcomes/highlights of the COP 28: COP28 calls for transitioning away from fossil fuels in energy systems, in a just, orderly, and equitable manner, accelerating action in this critical decade, to achieve net zero by 2050. The Global Cooling Pledge for COP 28 includes 66 national government signatories committed to working together to reduce cooling-related emissions across all sectors by at least 68% globally relative to 2022 levels by 2050. Declaration to Triple Nuclear Energy launched at COP28 aims to triple global nuclear energy capacity by 2050. Member countries reached an agreement to operationalize the Loss and Damage (L&D) fund aimed at compensating countries grappling with climate change impacts. Global Renewables and Energy Efficiency Pledge stipulates that signatories commit to work together to triple the world’s installed renewable energy generation capacity to at least 11,000 GW by 2030. It also calls for collectively doubling the global average annual rate of energy efficiency improvements from around 2% to over 4% every year until 2030. Indias relationship with UAE Syllabus Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi is scheduled to pay an official visit to the United Arab Emirates (UAE) from February 13-14. Background: This is PM Modi’s seventh visit to the UAE since 2015 and the third in the last eight months.In this short duration, India’s relationship with UAE has evolved into becoming one of the most prominent bilateral relationships for New Delhi. About India- UAE relationship: UAE has become India’s strategic partner and also one of the most important linchpins of India’s engagement in the Gulf region. Bilateral trade grew to $85 billion in 2022-23, making the UAE India’s third-largest trading partner and India’s second-largest export destination. USE is also the fourth-largest overall investor in India. The India-UAE Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement, signed on February 18, 2022 aims to increase trade in services to $115 billion in five years. On February 1, 2024, the Indian government also approved the signing and ratification of a bilateral investment treaty with the UAE, which would significantly boost bilateral economic engagement, especially manufacturing and foreign direct investment. The RuPay card, a key component of India’s Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI), is accepted in the UAE since August 2019. From July 2023, the rupee was being accepted for transactions at Dubai’s airports. India and the UAE also operationalised a rupee-dirham settlement system when, in August 2023, the Indian Oil Corporation made a rupee payment to the Abu Dhabi National Oil Company for crude oil imports. The UAE is also India’s trusted partner in energy security. The UAE was one of few nations specially invited for the G-20 summit, in September 2023, under India’s G-20 presidency. The IIT Delhi Abu Dhabi campus has been established, and the UAE opened a consulate in Hyderabad in June 2023. Convergence of interest visible through groupings: Within the region, both countries are in close coordination and a part of a number of important groupings such as the I2U2 or the West Asian Quad comprising India, Israel, the United States and the UAE. The UAE is also part of the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEEC) infrastructure project. The corridor aims to connect India to Europe across the Arabian peninsula, and is a potential rival to China’s Belt and Road Initiative. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements about Rajya Sabha Election: Members of state legitlative councils participate in the election. NOTA option is provided in the RS election. A person, to be elected to Rajya Sabha from a particular state, should be a registered voter in that state. Which of the above statement is/are correct? 1 and 2 3 only 2 only None of the above Q2). Consider the following statements: The Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA), 2019 amended the Citizenship Act, 1955. The CAA intends to give Indian Citizenship for the persecuted people from all the neighbouring countries of India. The amendment reduces the required period of residence in India for naturalization from twelve years to 8 years for all migrants. How many statements given above is/are not correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.3) Which one among the following terms describe a period of dormancy or slowed activity in reptiles? Hibernation Brumation Anabolism Catabolism Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  12th February  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  10th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

Feb 12, 2024 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 12th February 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

Feb 10, 2024 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 10th February 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Dr.M S Swaminathan conferred Bharat Ratna Syllabus Prelims – current events of national importance Context: Conferring of Bharat Ratna, the highest civilian honour of the country on late agricultural scientist, Dr M S Swaminathan. Background:- This year’s tally of five Bharat Ratna awards is the highest that has ever been announced in a single year, one more than the four announced in 1999. The winners of the award are L.K Advani, Karpoori Thakur, M S Swaminathan, Narasimha Rao, Chaudhary Charan Singh. About M.S.Swaminathan:-   Born on August 7, 1925 in Kumbakonam, Tamil Nadu, Dr Mankombu Sambasivan Swaminathan is hailed as the father of India’s green revolution. Witnessing the Bengal famine of 1942-43 deeply impacted Dr Swaminathan. He served as an Independent Chairman of the Food and Agricultural Organisation Council (1981-85) He was the President of the International Union for the Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (1984-90) He was also the President of the World Wide Fund for Nature (India) from 1989-96 He served as the Director General of Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), among others. Contribution to green revolution: The Basic strategic vision underpinning the Green Revolution in India — introducing a new genetic strain or ‘plant type’ responsive to increased fertiliser and water application — came from Swaminathan. The problem with the traditional wheat and rice varieties was that they were tall and slender. These ‘lodged’ – fell flat on the ground — when they grew and their earheads were heavy with well-filled grains produced in response to high fertiliser doses Swaminathan approached Norman Borlaug, who had incorporated dwarfing genes into wheat varieties in Mexico. India started working seriously on dwarf wheat breeding programme in 1963. His efforts transformed India from a food deficient nation to one with increased wheat production – from 6 million tonnes a year in 1947 to 17 million tonnes a year between 1964 and 1968. MUST READ: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/bharat-ratna-ms-swaminathan-significance-profile-9152692/ SOURCE: Indian Express Sovereign gold bond scheme Syllabus Prelims-Economy  Context: Sovereign gold bone scheme, 2023-24 will open for subscription from 12 to 16 February 2024 Background: Floated by the Indian Government in 2015, Sovereign Gold Bonds or SGBs emerged as an innovative investment strategy involving gold for interested investors. About SGBs: SGBs are provided as a substitute for physical gold to investors. The main objective of the scheme is to reduce the demand for physical gold and shift a part of the money spent for gold, which usually amounts to huge import bill into financial savings through Gold Bonds. SGBs are issued by RBI on behalf of the Government of India on payment of the required amount in rupees and are denominated in grams of gold. The Bonds are restricted for sale to resident Indian entities including individuals, HUFs, trusts, Universities, charitable institutions. Investors ineligible to participate in the SGB scheme include – Non-Resident Indians:Direct investment in SGB is not permitted for them, Foreign institutional investors (FII): investing in SGB is restricted for FIIs, minors: investment in SGB is only permissible through their guardians. The bonds are available in both in Demat and paper form. The rate for the Bonds is fixed on the basis of simple average of closing price for gold of 999 purity of the previous week published by the India Bullion and Jewellers Association (IBJA). The tenor of the Bond is for a period of 8 years with exit option from 5th year onwards to be exercised on the interest payment dates. Participants in the SGB scheme are entitled to a stable interest rate of 2.50 per cent per annum, disbursed semi-annually based on the nominal value of their investment. On maturity, the investor will get the equivalent rupee value of the quantum of gold invested at the then prevailing price of gold as calculated using the simple average of the closing price of 999 purity gold over the three preceding working days. SOURCE: Livemint Previous Year Questions Q.1) What is/are the purpose/purposes of the Government’s ‘Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme’ and ‘Gold Monetization Scheme’? (2016) To bring the idle gold lying with Indian households into the economy To promote FDI in the gold and jewellery sector To reduce India’s dependence on gold imports Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 KYASANUR FOREST DISEASE (KFD) Syllabus Prelims – General Science Context: Since January 1 this year, two people have died due to Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD), a viral infection, in Karnataka. Background: According to the health department, the first fatality due to monkey fever was reported in Shivamogga district on 8 January wherein an 18-year-old succumbed to the virus. The second fatality was reported at Manipal in Udupi district when a 79-year-old man died in a private hospital. About Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD) Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD), also known as monkey fever, is a tick-borne viral haemorrhagic fever endemic to the southwestern part of India. KFD is caused by the Kyasanur Forest disease virus (KFDV), a member of the Flaviviridae virus family. Reservoir: Hard ticks (Haemaphysalis spinigera) serve as the reservoir for KFDV. Once infected, ticks remain carriers for life. Hosts: Rodents, shrews, and monkeys become common hosts for KFDV after being bitten by an infected tick. Human Transmission: Humans can contract KFD through tick bites or contact with infected animals. Historically, KFD has been limited to the western and central districts of Karnataka State, India. According to the US Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), the disease was first identified in 1957 when it was isolated from a sick monkey from the Kyasanur Forest in Karnataka (formerly Mysore). There is no specific treatment for KFD, but early hospitalization and supportive therapy is important. A vaccine exists for KFD and is used in endemic areas of India MUST READ: https://www.cdc.gov/vhf/kyasanur/pdf/factsheet.pdf SOURCE: Center for Disease Control and Prevention High-altitude pseudo satellite vehicle (HAPS) Syllabus Prelim – Science Context: THE NATIONAL Aerospace Laboratories (NAL) in Bengaluru has successfully completed the first test of a solar-powered “pseudo satellite”, a new age unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) Background: HAPS is a still-developing technology, and the successful test flight last week puts India among a very small group of countries currently experimenting with this technology. About HAPS: The high-altitude pseudo satellite vehicle, or HAPS, can fly at altitudes of 18-20 km from the ground, almost double the heights attained by commercial airplanes. Due to its ability to generate solar power, it can remain in air for months, evenyears, offering it advantages of a satellite. It does not require a rocket to get into space, the cost of operating HAPS is several times lower than that of a satellite that is usually placed at least 200 km from the earth. Need of HAPS Need for development of high-endurance, high-altitude flying instruments arose from the desire to have continuous surveillance of border areas, particularly in the wake of the Doklam standoff. Satellites placed in low-earth orbits and meant to observe the Earth usually move in their orbits and are not watching constantly. Solar-powered unmanned aircraft is considered a better solution. Current State of Indias HAPS The test flight saw the scaled-down 23-kg prototype with a wing-span of about 12 metres, remain in air for about eight and a half hours, achieving an altitude of about 3 km. The next step is to make this vehicle fly for at least 24 hours. NAL will only develop the technology and a prototype. The manufacturing of the actual thing would happen with industry linkages. Source: Indian Express Inheritance Tax Syllabus Mains-GS 3 Context: Oxfam report says that 70% of countries dont have any form of inheritance tax on wealth. Background: The report comes on the backdrop of increased inequalities in income, wealth and possession of resources. About Inheritance tax: It was a tax that was levied against a particular asset during the time of its inheritance. It comes under direct tax and a person can receive inheritance either under a will or under the personal law of the deceased. Status of inheritance tax in India: The Inheritance or Estate Tax was abolished with effect from 1985. In India, the concept of levying tax on inheritance does not exist now. In the event of the death of an individual, properties belonging to the deceased would pass on to his legal heirs, a transfer without any consideration in return. Hence, it could qualify as a gift for income tax. The Income Tax Act, of 1961, specifically excludes the transfer of assets under will or inheritance from the purview of gift tax. When should the person receiving the inheritance pay tax ? The person receiving the inheritance has to pay tax on the income earned (rent, interest, etc.) in respect of the assets inherited by him once he becomes the owner of the same. The person has to pay capital gains tax when he sells the inherited asset. Need for an inheritance tax in India It will allow for a more efficient dispersion of wealth. It will create a meritocratic society by chipping away the advantages the children of the wealthiest families enjoy by an accident of birth. Most of India’s tax revenues accrue from indirect taxes, intensifying the hardship of economically weaker Inheritance tax can raise a significant quantum of revenue for the exchequer. Countries such as England, France, Germany, the USA, and Greece have been taxing inherited wealth at as high as 40%. Source: The Hindu Decline of America's leadership Syllabus Mains– GS 3 Context: A divided American polity combined with a perception of its declining power is creating ripples among diplomatic circles. Background: Post the collapse of USSR, American hegemony was firmly established. But with recent geopolitical and geoeconomic changes, global order is undergoing major changes shifting power balance from the west. US as a superpower and its decline The traditional strength of US are its values platform, emphasising democracy and human rights, its military power, position in the global financial system and possessing formidable economic resource and technology. After Second World War, US shaped the rule based international system. In reality, it was a power based system, where US considered itself exempt from the common standards of international conduct. America’s refusal to honour its own international obligations has dented its credibility. Domestic polarisation combined with sharp ideological divide has rendered cooperation in its two party system non-existent questioning its democratic soft power. The legitimacy of US dominated institutions has been continuously questioned. Potential negative repercussions for India: India will have to carefully craft its relationship with US and Russia, keeping in mind the declining role of US. A decline in American power might create a power vacuum. Other major powers, such as China or Russia, may seek to fill this vacuum, potentially impacting India’s strategic position. A weakened US presence in Asia could embolden China to assert its dominance more aggressively in the region. This could lead to increased tensions and the possibility of conflict Weekend US economy combined with loss of leadership in technology space could lead to declining trade and technology access for India. India has benefited from its strategic partnership with the US on issues like counter-terrorism and maritime security. A decline in US power could weaken these partnerships, leaving India to face these challenges alone or seek new partners. Potential positive repercussions: Greater strategic autonomy: A less dominant US could provide India with more space to pursue its own interests and forge new partnerships, diversifying its foreign policy. Opportunity for leadership: As the US steps back, India could emerge as a leading power in Asia, playing a more significant role in regional affairs and shaping the global order. Increased self-reliance: A decline in US dependence could motivate India to accelerate its own economic and military development, fostering greater self-reliance. Source:The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1)  Consider the following statements: Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD), is a tick-borne haemorrhagic fever endemic to the southwestern part of Africa. KFD is caused by the Kyasanur Forest disease virus. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2) consider the following individuals: K.Advani Sachin Tendulkar N.R.Rao Lata Mangeshkar Amartya Sen Who among the above are recipients of Bharat Ratna? 1 and 2 2,3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 All of the above Q3) consider the following statements about high altitude pseudo satellite vehicles (HAPS) India is the only country to have a full fledged working model of HAPS. HAPS relay on solar energy. The cost of operating HAPS is several times lower than that of a satellite. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  10th February  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  9th February – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – c Q.3) – a