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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 19th April 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   100 % FDI in Space Sector Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Current Event Context: The Finance Ministry has notified amended rules under the Foreign Exchange Management Act to operationalise its earlier decision to allow up to 100 per cent foreign direct investment (FDI) for the space sector. The new rules came into effect from April 16. Background:- The notification dated April 16 comes ahead of Tesla chief Elon Musk’s visit to India early next week where he is expected to meet space startups, make a push for his space venture Starlink’s plans and announce his electric vehicle (EV) investment plans. About FDI Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is defined as an investment in which a company takes controlling ownership of a business entity in another country. Therefore, foreign companies get directly involved with day-to-day operations in other countries. India gets FDI through two routes: (a) Automatic route: Under this route, the non-resident or Indian company does not require a prior nod from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) or the government of India for FDI. (b) Government route: Under this route, the government’s approval is mandatory. The company will have to apply through Foreign Investment Facilitation Portal, which facilitates single-window clearance. Key takeaways:  In February, the Union Cabinet had approved the amendment to the FDI policy for the space sector, allowing up to 100 per cent investment in certain categories. As per the latest Finance Ministry notification, 100 per cent FDI has been allowed for the space sector category of manufacturing and operation of satellites, satellite data products, and ground segment and user segment, out of which up to 74 per cent would be through the automatic route and government nod would be required for investment beyond 74 per cent. Under the earlier policy, any foreign investment in manufacturing and operating satellites is allowed only with government approval. Manufacturing of components and systems or sub-systems for satellites, ground segment and user segment will be fully under the 100 per cent automatic route. Automatic FDI has also been permitted up to 49 per cent for launch vehicles and associated systems or subsystems, and creation of spaceports for launching and receiving spacecraft. Government approval would be required for investments beyond 49 per cent. Ministry has also provided detailed definition of ‘Satellites – manufacturing and operation’, ‘Satellite data products’,  “launch vehicles and associated systems or sub-systems”, “spaceport” etc. Source: Indian Express Election Days Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Polity & Governance Context: Votes in the first phase of the Lok Sabha election will be cast on April 19. The most critical time in the election process includes the last day of the campaign period (72 hours before the poll), the non-campaign period (the last 48 hours), and the poll day. Candidates are afforded the opportunity to make a final impression on the electorate, while the period of “election silence” allows voters to take a reflective pause. Background: Several behind-the-scenes logistical and operational activities ensure that the elections are conducted smoothly. The scale of the exercise is immense — around 97 crore voters, 10.5 lakh polling stations, 1.5 crore polling officials and security staff, 55 lakh EVMs, and 4 lakh vehicles across the country — and timely and meticulous planning, rigorous implementation, and close supervision are essential to ensure free, fair, participative, and peaceful elections. The last 72 hours The monitoring of campaign expenditure includes the last check of candidates’ expenditure registers and strengthening the inspection teams. There are Flying Squads (FSs), Static Surveillance Teams (SSTs), Excise Teams, and a 24X7 District Control Room. The FSs operate in three shifts round the clock in each Assembly constituency, swiftly responding to complaints. They can seize cash or items intended as bribes, document evidence, and initiate legal proceedings. SSTs are stationed at critical locations, and focus on intercepting illicit goods such as liquor and large amounts of cash to deter malpractices and prevent undue influence. The District Election Officers (DEOs) collaborate with senior police officials to develop strategies to manage any potential disturbances during the critical 72 hours leading up to the close of the voting.This includes the sealing of borders to keep out anti-social and disruptive elements. The final assessment is made of the Assured Minimum Facilities (AMFs) at the polling stations, which include the provision of drinking water, shade, wheelchairs, clean toilets, etc for the comfort and convenience of voters. The last 48 hours Under Section 126 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, the election campaign halts during the “silent period” that lasts for 48 hours ending with the conclusion of the poll. The District Magistrate issues orders underSection 144 of the CrPC, 1973, prohibiting unlawful assemblies, public meetings, and the use of loudspeakers, and limiting gatherings to no more than five persons. Door-to-door campaigning is still permitted. This period also sees “area domination” activities by the Central Armed Police Forces, a restriction on opinion polls, and political advertisements through electronic and social media, and the enforcement of a ban on the sale of liquor. To ensure transparency at critical polling stations, measures including the deployment of micro-observers, video and still cameras, webcasting, and CCTV surveillance are implemented. On the day before polling, randomly-formed polling parties are dispatched to the polling stations with electronic voting machines (EVMs) and other election materials. They move with security personnel in designated vehicles. Reserve EVMs are allocated to the Sector Officers. The Polling Day The general restrictions on the poll day include using only one vehicle for the candidates, their agents, and party workers. However, using these vehicles to ferry voters to polling stations is considered a corrupt practice under Section 133 of the Representation of People Act (1951), attracting penal action under Section 123(5) of the Act. The use of mobile phones (except by officers on duty), canvassing, using campaign-related posters or banners, and loudspeakers or megaphones within 100 metres of a polling station are banned. Under Section 135(B) of the RP Act, employees are given a paid holiday on the poll date. Only persons entitled under Rule 49D of the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, are allowed inside polling stations, including polling officers, public servants on duty in connection with the election, a child in arms accompanying an elector, etc. Booth Level Officers are stationed at Voter Assistance Booths to help voters locate their details in the alphabetical electoral roll locator for the polling station. Before polling commences, the Presiding Officer must demonstrate a marked copy of the Electoral Roll and the EVMs, and conduct a mock poll before the candidates’ polling agents. Source: Indian Express GLOBAL FOREST WATCH (GFW) Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: According a recent report of Global Forest Watch, India lost 2.33 million hectares of tree cover since 2000. Background: The Global Forest Watch, which tracks forest changes in near real-time using satellite data and other sources, said the country lost 4,14,000 hectares of humid primary forest (4.1 per cent) from 2002 to 2023, making up 18 per cent of its total tree cover loss in the same period. About GLOBAL FOREST WATCH (GFW) Global Forest Watch (GFW) is an online platform that provides data, technology, and tools to help people everywhere protect forests. GFW is an initiative of the World Resources Institute (WRI), with partners including Google, USAID, the University of Maryland (UMD), Esri, Vizzuality, and many other organizations. It empowers users like conservation organizations, policymakers, journalists, and companies to manage and share information about forest cover and land use effectively. It sheds light on trends related to tree cover loss and offers insights into the current state of the world’s forests. This information is crucial for informed decision-making and policy formulation. Source: Hindu MEN5CV VACCINE Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: Nigeria became the 1st country to rollout a new meningitis vaccine, known as Men5CV. Background: This historic achievement underscores the importance of global collaboration and the critical role of vaccines in safeguarding public health. Nigeria’s proactive approach sets a precedent for other countries in the fight against meningitis. About MEN5CV VACCINE: Men5CV vaccine provides protection against five strains of the meningococcus bacteria. These strains include A, C, W, Y, and X. Nigeria has taken the lead as the first country globally to introduce this vaccine, which is recommended by the World Health Organization (WHO). By covering multiple serogroups, Men5CV has the potential to dramatically reduce meningitis cases and contribute to the fight against this deadly disease Nigeria is one of the 26 meningitis hyper-endemic countries in Africa, situated within the region known as the African Meningitis Belt. The Men5CV vaccine holds the potential to change the trajectory of meningitis, preventing future outbreaks and saving lives. The Men5CV vaccine aligns with the global goal to eliminate meningitis by 2030. Source: Hindustan Times GREEN CREDIT PROGRAMME (GCP) Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: The Union Environment Ministry has recently introduced modifications to the Green Credit Programme (GCP). Background: These changes aim to strike a balance between environmental conservation and sustainable development. About GREEN CREDIT PROGRAMME (GCP): The green credit represents a unit of incentive for a specific environmentally positive activity. Eg: Each tree planted and evaluated by the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) after two years yields one ‘green credit.’ These credits serve two purposes: Compliance with forest laws: Necessitating recompense for forest land diversion. Reporting under environmental, social, and governance norms: Meeting corporate social responsibility requirements. Green Credit Programme (GCP) The Green Credit Programme (GCP), notified on October 13, 2023, is a market-based mechanism introduced by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change under the ‘LiFE’ – ‘Lifestyle for Environment’ initiative. The GCP aims to incentivize voluntary environmental actions by individuals, communities, private sector industries, and companies. Key features of the GCP include: Incentivizing Environmental Actions: Participants can earn Green Credits for activities that positively impact the environment, such as water conservation and afforestation. Governance Framework: An inter-ministerial Steering Committee supports the GCP, and The Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) serves as the GCP Administrator. Digital Platform: A user-friendly digital platform will facilitate the registration of projects, verification, and issuance of Green Credits. Green Credit Registry and Trading Platform: This platform will allow for the buying and selling of Green Credits. Ecomark Scheme: Alongside the GCP, the Ecomark Scheme accredits and labels eco-friendly consumer products. Guidelines and Modifications: The Environment Ministry now empowers States to determine afforestation density based on local conditions, recognizing the variability in forest ecosystems. Indigenous species are prioritized, and naturally occurring seedlings are retained to foster ecosystem resilience. Source: The Hindu Previous Year Question Q) Regarding “carbon credits”, which one of the following statements is not correct? The carbon credit system was ratified in conjunction with the Kyoto Protocol Carbon credits are awarded to countries or groups that have reduced greenhouse gases below their emission quota The goal of the carbon credit system is to limit the increase of carbon dioxide emission Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from time to time by the United Nations Environment Programme. Solar Waste Management Syllabus Mains – GS 3 Context: A report titled ‘Enabling a Circular Economy in India’s Solar Industry – Assessing the Solar Waste Quantum’ shed light on India’s escalating solar waste crisis. It was conducted by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) in collaboration with experts from the Council on Energy, Environment and Water. Background: Recycling solar waste to recover materials will reduce import dependency and enhance India’s mineral security. Key highlights of the Report: The current solar capacity of India, as of FY23, has generated about 100 kilotonnes (kt) of cumulative waste, which will increase to 340 kt by 2030. This volume will increase 32 times by 2050 resulting in about 19000 kt of cumulative waste. 77% of the cumulative waste generated by 2050 will be due to new capacities. Around 67% of the projected waste by 2030 is expected to be produced by five states – Rajasthan, Gujarat, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and Andhra Pradesh. Rajasthan will account for 24% of the waste generated by 2030, followed by Gujarat accounting for 16%, and Karnataka accounting for 12%. Discarded solar modules contain critical minerals essential for India’s economic development and national security, including silicon, copper, tellurium, and cadmium. The projected 340 kt of waste by 2030 is estimated to comprise 10 kt of silicon, 12-18 tonnes of silver, and 16 tonnes of cadmium and tellurium. Recommendations made by the Report: The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) should maintain and periodically update a database of the installed solar capacity (containing details such as module technology, manufacturer, commissioning date, etc.) for accurate mapping of plausible waste generation centres. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change should issue guidelines for collecting and storing solar waste. Furthermore, it should promote the safe and efficient processing of stored waste. Solar cell and module producers should start developing waste collection and storage centres to adhere to the responsibilities assigned in the Electronic Waste Management Rules 2022. Challenges for recycling Solar Waste in India: The absence of specific comprehensive laws governing solar waste management hinders the establishment of standardised recycling practices and may contribute to inconsistent recycling efforts. Solar panels contain various materials like silicon, glass, aluminium, and toxic elements like lead and cadmium. Separating these components for effective recycling requires specialised technology, which is often expensive and not widely available in India. A large portion of solar waste ends up with informal recyclers who lack proper safety measures and often resort to environmentally harmful practices. In India, the lack of adequate demand for materials such as silicon wafers or glass cullet from recycled panels undermines the economic feasibility of recycling efforts. Ways to manage Solar Waste in India: India can create a comprehensive regulatory framework to guide collection, recycling, and material-specific recovery targets for solar waste. The framework can also encourage incentives like green certificates to encourage recycling and mineral recovery. It should also include developing and implementing comprehensive policies to promote circular economy principles within the solar industry, encouraging resource efficiency, recycling, and reuse. Integrating informal recyclers into the formal system through training programs and providing them with proper equipment. This ensures safe, environmentally sound practices and also provides them a secured employment. By establishing dedicated refurbishment facilities, India can clean, repair, and retest slightly damaged panels, diverting them from the waste stream and providing affordable options for consumers. Encouraging and incentivising green innovators to design and prototype new sustainable products using recycled solar materials, thereby fostering creativity and effective utilisation. Source:Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) With reference to Global Forest Watch (GFW), consider the following statements: Global Forest Watch (GFW) is an online platform that equips people worldwide with data, technology, and tools to protect forests. It is an initiative of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q2.) With reference to the Men5CV Vaccine, consider the following statements: Men5CV vaccine provides protection against five strains of the meningococcus bacteria. Nigeria is the first country globally to introduce Men5CV. The Men5CV vaccine aligns with the global goal to eliminate meningitis by 2030. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q3.) Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Green Credit Programme (GCP), is a market-based mechanism introduced by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. Statement-II: The GCP aims to incentivize voluntary environmental actions by individuals, communities, private sector industries, and companies. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  19th April  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  18th April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 19th April 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

[DAY 41] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question The spread in colours in a rainbow on sky is primarily due to? a) Reflection of sunlight b) Dispersion of sunlight c) Refraction of sunlight d) Total internal reflection of sunlight Correct Solution (b) Rainbow is a natural spectrum. It is caused by dispersion (i.e., splitting of white light into seven constituent colors VIBGYOR) of sunlight by tiny droplets of water present in the atmosphere. The most familiar example of dispersion is a rainbow, in which dispersion causes the spatial separation of a white light into components of different wavelengths (different colors). Incorrect Solution (b) Rainbow is a natural spectrum. It is caused by dispersion (i.e., splitting of white light into seven constituent colors VIBGYOR) of sunlight by tiny droplets of water present in the atmosphere. The most familiar example of dispersion is a rainbow, in which dispersion causes the spatial separation of a white light into components of different wavelengths (different colors). Question 2 of 35 2. Question A hydrogen-inflated polythene balloon is released from the surface of the earth. As the balloon rises to an altitude up in the atmosphere, it will? a) Increase in size b) Decrease in size c) Flatten into disc like shape d) No effect on size and shape Correct Solution (a) The air pressure at high altitudes is less than at ground level, so, the balloon will expand until the pressure inside equals the pressure outside. Consequently, the size will increase and at some point, it will burst. Incorrect Solution (a) The air pressure at high altitudes is less than at ground level, so, the balloon will expand until the pressure inside equals the pressure outside. Consequently, the size will increase and at some point, it will burst. Question 3 of 35 3. Question Consider the following statements w.r.t ‘Incandescent Electric Bulb and Fluorescent Light Bulb’: An incandescent lamp generates light when electric current heats a tungsten filament wire so that it glows whereas fluorescent bulbs generate light by sending an electrical discharge through an ionized gas. The efficacy of incandescent bulbs is low while fluorescent is a very energy efficient light source. Argon, mercury vapor, strontium and calcium oxides are used in incandescent bulbs. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Incandescent Electric Bulb and Fluorescent Light Bulb An incandescent lamp generates light when electric current heats a tungsten filament wire so that it glows, or incandesces. Fluorescent bulbs generate light by sending an electrical discharge through an ionized gas. Materials used in Fluorescent: Argon, mercury vapor, tungsten, barium, strontium and calcium oxides. Materials used in Incandescent: Argon, tungsten filament. The efficacy of incandescent bulbs is low which is a major disadvantage in terms of higher operating costs and more heat in the room. Fluorescent is a very energy efficient light source that enjoys low operating costs and contributes little heat to the room. Incorrect Solution (b) Incandescent Electric Bulb and Fluorescent Light Bulb An incandescent lamp generates light when electric current heats a tungsten filament wire so that it glows, or incandesces. Fluorescent bulbs generate light by sending an electrical discharge through an ionized gas. Materials used in Fluorescent: Argon, mercury vapor, tungsten, barium, strontium and calcium oxides. Materials used in Incandescent: Argon, tungsten filament. The efficacy of incandescent bulbs is low which is a major disadvantage in terms of higher operating costs and more heat in the room. Fluorescent is a very energy efficient light source that enjoys low operating costs and contributes little heat to the room. Question 4 of 35 4. Question Consider the following pairs: Heat- Celsius Sound- Decibel Electric Charge- Coulomb Electric Power- Watt How many of the above pairs are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) Heat is measured in terms of Joule (J) since it is energy. Celsius is used to measure temperature. All other options are correctly matched. Incorrect Solution (c) Heat is measured in terms of Joule (J) since it is energy. Celsius is used to measure temperature. All other options are correctly matched. Question 5 of 35 5. Question Consider the following: An electric motor is a rotating device that converts electrical energy to mechanical energy. A device that reverses the direction of flow of current through a circuit is called a commutator. A galvanometer is an instrument that can detect the presence of a current in a circuit. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) An electric motor is a rotating device that converts electrical energy to mechanical energy. Electric motor is used as an important component in electric fans, refrigerators, mixers, washing machines, computers, MP3 players etc. A device that reverses the direction of flow of current through a circuit is called a commutator. A galvanometer is an instrument that can detect the presence of a current in a circuit. Incorrect Solution (c) An electric motor is a rotating device that converts electrical energy to mechanical energy. Electric motor is used as an important component in electric fans, refrigerators, mixers, washing machines, computers, MP3 players etc. A device that reverses the direction of flow of current through a circuit is called a commutator. A galvanometer is an instrument that can detect the presence of a current in a circuit. Question 6 of 35 6. Question A person may bleed from the nose when at a great height above the sea level. With reference to this, which one of the following statements is correct? a) The pressure exerted by the blood in blood capillaries is slightly less than the atmospheric pressure. b) The pressure exerted by the blood in blood capillaries is more than the atmospheric pressure. c) There is no difference in internal and external pressure on the walls of the cell and blood capillaries. d) Blood capillaries in the nose can absorb less oxygen at greater height so it burst. Correct Solution (b) Atmospheric pressure decreases with increase in altitude. As we go higher, the pressure within the blood vessels exceeds the external pressure. This causes the blood vessels to burst. Consequently, we suffer nose bleeding, ear bleeding etc.   Incorrect Solution (b) Atmospheric pressure decreases with increase in altitude. As we go higher, the pressure within the blood vessels exceeds the external pressure. This causes the blood vessels to burst. Consequently, we suffer nose bleeding, ear bleeding etc.   Question 7 of 35 7. Question With reference to the Bose-Einstein Condensate, which of the following statement is incorrect? a) It is one of the states of matter, like the states solid, liquid, etc. b) Albert Einstein had predicted this new state of matter. c) It is formed by cooling a gas of extremely low density to super low temperatures. d) They are highly energized gases that have lost their electrons. Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Incorrect Scientists have always known about solids, liquids, and gases. Plasma was a new idea when it was identified by William Crookes in 1879. The Bose-Einstein condensate (BEC) was another state of matter. In 1920, Indian physicist Satyendra Nath Bose had done some calculations for a fifth state of matter. Building on his calculations, Albert Einstein predicted a new state of matter – the Bose-Einstein Condensate (BEC). In 2001, Eric A. Cornell, Wolfgang Ketterle and Carl E. Wieman of USA received the Nobel prize in physics for achieving “Bose-Einstein condensation”. The BEC is formed by cooling a gas of extremely low density, about one-hundred-thousandth the density of normal air, to super low temperatures. Plasmas are highly energized gases that have lost their electrons. Stars, including the Sun, are covered in plasma. Hydrogen (H) and helium (He) ions float around the Sun with their electrons moving freely. The BEC is all about atoms that are closer and less energetic than atoms in a solid. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Incorrect Scientists have always known about solids, liquids, and gases. Plasma was a new idea when it was identified by William Crookes in 1879. The Bose-Einstein condensate (BEC) was another state of matter. In 1920, Indian physicist Satyendra Nath Bose had done some calculations for a fifth state of matter. Building on his calculations, Albert Einstein predicted a new state of matter – the Bose-Einstein Condensate (BEC). In 2001, Eric A. Cornell, Wolfgang Ketterle and Carl E. Wieman of USA received the Nobel prize in physics for achieving “Bose-Einstein condensation”. The BEC is formed by cooling a gas of extremely low density, about one-hundred-thousandth the density of normal air, to super low temperatures. Plasmas are highly energized gases that have lost their electrons. Stars, including the Sun, are covered in plasma. Hydrogen (H) and helium (He) ions float around the Sun with their electrons moving freely. The BEC is all about atoms that are closer and less energetic than atoms in a solid. Question 8 of 35 8. Question The term ‘Tyndall effect’ is related to? a) Motion of sun, moon and earth around the actual centre of solar system. b) Conservation of momentum of an object falling from sky. c) Scattering of light. d) Speed of sound in different mediums. Correct Solution (c) Scattering of a beam of light is called the Tyndall effect after the name of the scientist who discovered this effect. Tyndall effect can also be observed when a fine beam of light enters a room through a small hole. This happens due to the scattering of light by the particles of dust and smoke in the air. Incorrect Solution (c) Scattering of a beam of light is called the Tyndall effect after the name of the scientist who discovered this effect. Tyndall effect can also be observed when a fine beam of light enters a room through a small hole. This happens due to the scattering of light by the particles of dust and smoke in the air. Question 9 of 35 9. Question ‘The electromagnets are the magnets that are created when the electric current is passed through it’. Which of the following are based on electromagnetism? Microwaves Transformers Microphones Optical Instruments Select the correct code: a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2, 3 and 4 c) 1, 2 and 4 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution (d) Electromagnet Electromagnet- device consisting of a core of magnetic material surrounded by a coil through which an electric current is passed to magnetize the core. The electromagnets are the magnets that are created when the electric current is passed through it. These electromagnets have immense applications in everyday life and every industry. The strength of the electromagnets can be altered by repeated variation in the amount of electric current that flows through them. Applications in: Electric Bells and Buzzers Loudspeakers Cranes in Lifting MRI machines Tape Recorders, Hard Disks etc. Microwaves Transformers Microphones Optical Instruments Pendrive etc. Incorrect Solution (d) Electromagnet Electromagnet- device consisting of a core of magnetic material surrounded by a coil through which an electric current is passed to magnetize the core. The electromagnets are the magnets that are created when the electric current is passed through it. These electromagnets have immense applications in everyday life and every industry. The strength of the electromagnets can be altered by repeated variation in the amount of electric current that flows through them. Applications in: Electric Bells and Buzzers Loudspeakers Cranes in Lifting MRI machines Tape Recorders, Hard Disks etc. Microwaves Transformers Microphones Optical Instruments Pendrive etc. Question 10 of 35 10. Question What do you understand by the term ‘Sonic boom’? a) Light waves resulting from the death of a star. b) Air pressure variation associated with objects travelling above speed of sound. c) Aquatic vibrations of a submarine travelling under ice. d) Signals related to low earth orbit satellites for internet connection. Correct Solution (b) When the speed of any object exceeds the speed of sound it is said to be travelling at supersonic speed. Bullets, jet aircrafts etc. often travel at supersonic speeds. When a sound, producing source moves with a speed higher than that of sound, it produces shock waves in air. These shock waves carry a large amount of energy. The air pressure variation associated with this type of shock waves produces a very sharp and loud sound called the “sonic boom”. The shock waves produced by a supersonic aircraft have enough energy to shatter window glass and even damage buildings. Incorrect Solution (b) When the speed of any object exceeds the speed of sound it is said to be travelling at supersonic speed. Bullets, jet aircrafts etc. often travel at supersonic speeds. When a sound, producing source moves with a speed higher than that of sound, it produces shock waves in air. These shock waves carry a large amount of energy. The air pressure variation associated with this type of shock waves produces a very sharp and loud sound called the “sonic boom”. The shock waves produced by a supersonic aircraft have enough energy to shatter window glass and even damage buildings. Question 11 of 35 11. Question Consider the following statements and identify the correct one/s: All conservation laws such as conservation of momentum, energy, etc. are considered to be fundamental laws. A conservation law can be easily proved. Law of conservation of momentum states that momentum can neither be created nor destroyed. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct All conservation laws such as conservation of momentum, energy, angular momentum, charge etc. are considered to be fundamental laws in physics. These are based on observations and experiments. It is important to remember that a conservation law cannot be proved. It can be verified, or disproved, by experiments. An experiment whose result is in conformity with the law verifies or substantiates the law; it does not prove the law. On the other hand, a single experiment whose result goes against the law is enough to disprove it. Law of conservation of momentum states that: For two or more bodies in an isolated system acting upon each other, their total momentum remains constant unless an external force is applied. Therefore, momentum can neither be created nor destroyed. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct All conservation laws such as conservation of momentum, energy, angular momentum, charge etc. are considered to be fundamental laws in physics. These are based on observations and experiments. It is important to remember that a conservation law cannot be proved. It can be verified, or disproved, by experiments. An experiment whose result is in conformity with the law verifies or substantiates the law; it does not prove the law. On the other hand, a single experiment whose result goes against the law is enough to disprove it. Law of conservation of momentum states that: For two or more bodies in an isolated system acting upon each other, their total momentum remains constant unless an external force is applied. Therefore, momentum can neither be created nor destroyed. Question 12 of 35 12. Question Consider the following w.r.t ddifferences between Alternating Current and Direct Current (AC and DC): Alternating current is the best way to transmit electricity over large distances. The frequency of alternating current is 50Hz or 60Hz depending upon the country whereas the frequency of direct current is zero. The magnitude of alternating current varies with time whereas the magnitude of D.C current does not vary with time. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Electricity flows in two ways: in an alternating current (AC) or in a direct current (DC). Electricity is nothing but the movement of electrons through a conductor In DC, the electrons flow steadily in a single direction, or forward. In AC, electrons keep switching directions. Alternating current is the best way to transmit electricity over large distances. D.C current does not travel safely over a long distance because D.C current loses much energy as compared to A.C. The frequency of alternating current is 50Hz or 60Hz depending upon the country. The frequency of direct current is zero. The magnitude of alternating current varies with time. The magnitude of D.C current does not vary with time. C current is produced mainly by Generators. D.C current is produced from battery or cell etc. In A.C current power factor always lies between 0 to 1. In D.C current power factor always remains 1. AC is used in homes, industries, etc. DC is used in refrigerators, TV, etc. Incorrect Solution (c) Electricity flows in two ways: in an alternating current (AC) or in a direct current (DC). Electricity is nothing but the movement of electrons through a conductor In DC, the electrons flow steadily in a single direction, or forward. In AC, electrons keep switching directions. Alternating current is the best way to transmit electricity over large distances. D.C current does not travel safely over a long distance because D.C current loses much energy as compared to A.C. The frequency of alternating current is 50Hz or 60Hz depending upon the country. The frequency of direct current is zero. The magnitude of alternating current varies with time. The magnitude of D.C current does not vary with time. C current is produced mainly by Generators. D.C current is produced from battery or cell etc. In A.C current power factor always lies between 0 to 1. In D.C current power factor always remains 1. AC is used in homes, industries, etc. DC is used in refrigerators, TV, etc. Question 13 of 35 13. Question Consider the following w.r.t ‘Refractive Index’: The refractive index is dimensionless. The value of the refractive index for a given pair of media depends upon the speed of light in the two media. Higher the refractive index, the higher the optical density and faster is the speed of light. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Refractive Index Refractive Index, also called index of refraction, measure of the bending of a ray of light when passing from one medium into another. The refractive index can be linked to an important physical quantity, the relative speed of propagation of light in different media. It turns out that light propagates with different speeds in different media. Light travels the fastest in vacuum with the highest speed of 3×10^8 m s–1. In air, the speed of light is only marginally less, compared to that in vacuum. It reduces considerably in glass or water. The value of the refractive index for a given pair of media depends upon the speed of light in the two media. The refractive index is dimensionless. The refractive index, represented by symbol n, is the velocity of light in vacuum divided by the velocity of light in a medium. Formula: n=c/v n is the refractive index c is the velocity of light in a vacuum (3 × 10^8 m/s) v is the velocity of light in a substance Higher the refractive index, the higher the optical density and slower is the speed of light. Incorrect Solution (b) Refractive Index Refractive Index, also called index of refraction, measure of the bending of a ray of light when passing from one medium into another. The refractive index can be linked to an important physical quantity, the relative speed of propagation of light in different media. It turns out that light propagates with different speeds in different media. Light travels the fastest in vacuum with the highest speed of 3×10^8 m s–1. In air, the speed of light is only marginally less, compared to that in vacuum. It reduces considerably in glass or water. The value of the refractive index for a given pair of media depends upon the speed of light in the two media. The refractive index is dimensionless. The refractive index, represented by symbol n, is the velocity of light in vacuum divided by the velocity of light in a medium. Formula: n=c/v n is the refractive index c is the velocity of light in a vacuum (3 × 10^8 m/s) v is the velocity of light in a substance Higher the refractive index, the higher the optical density and slower is the speed of light. Question 14 of 35 14. Question Consider the following statements and identify the incorrect one/s: Magnetic field is a quantity that has both direction and magnitude. If two field-lines are found to cross each other then it indicates the relative strength of the magnetic field. Select the answer: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Magnetic field is a quantity that has both direction and magnitude. The direction of the magnetic field is taken to be the direction in which a north pole of the compass needle moves inside it. Therefore, it is taken by convention that the field lines emerge from north pole and merge at the south pole. No two field-lines are found to cross each other. If they did, it would mean that at the point of intersection, the compass needle would point towards two directions, which is not possible. The relative strength of the magnetic field is shown by the degree of closeness of the field lines. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Magnetic field is a quantity that has both direction and magnitude. The direction of the magnetic field is taken to be the direction in which a north pole of the compass needle moves inside it. Therefore, it is taken by convention that the field lines emerge from north pole and merge at the south pole. No two field-lines are found to cross each other. If they did, it would mean that at the point of intersection, the compass needle would point towards two directions, which is not possible. The relative strength of the magnetic field is shown by the degree of closeness of the field lines. Question 15 of 35 15. Question Consider the following statements with respect to Pole star: It is aligned with the Earth’s axis of rotation. It’s the only star that doesn’t appear to move. The star known as Polaris is the present North Star, which has been earth’s pole star since its birth. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect What makes the Pole Star special is the fact that it points us to geographic north. The Pole Star is aligned with the Earth’s axis of rotation. So, when we observe in its direction, we’re looking in the direction of north. From our perspective on Earth, every star in the sky pivots around the Pole Star, causing them to rise and set. Because of its position over the North Pole, it’s the only star that doesn’t appear to move. At present, the star known as Polaris is the North Star. However, Polaris has not always been the North Star and will not always be the North Star. (Note: Read about Milankovic cycle for better understanding) Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect What makes the Pole Star special is the fact that it points us to geographic north. The Pole Star is aligned with the Earth’s axis of rotation. So, when we observe in its direction, we’re looking in the direction of north. From our perspective on Earth, every star in the sky pivots around the Pole Star, causing them to rise and set. Because of its position over the North Pole, it’s the only star that doesn’t appear to move. At present, the star known as Polaris is the North Star. However, Polaris has not always been the North Star and will not always be the North Star. (Note: Read about Milankovic cycle for better understanding) Question 16 of 35 16. Question Consider the following statements: Light year is the distance travelled by light in one year. The distance of the Sun from the Earth is around 8 light minutes. Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Large distances in space are expressed in another unit known as light year. It is the distance travelled by light in one year. One light-year equals 5,878,625,370,000 miles i.e. 9.5 trillion km. The speed of light is about 300,000 km per second. Thus, the distance of the Sun from the Earth may be said to be about 8 light minutes. The distance of Alpha Centauri is about 4.3 light years. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Large distances in space are expressed in another unit known as light year. It is the distance travelled by light in one year. One light-year equals 5,878,625,370,000 miles i.e. 9.5 trillion km. The speed of light is about 300,000 km per second. Thus, the distance of the Sun from the Earth may be said to be about 8 light minutes. The distance of Alpha Centauri is about 4.3 light years. Question 17 of 35 17. Question Consider the following statements with reference to ‘Microwave Oven’ and identify the correct statement/s: Its basic principle is to generate microwave radiation of appropriate frequency in the working space of the oven. One should use metal containers and not porcelain vessels in a microwave oven to avoid dangers from accumulated electric charges. Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The basic principle of a microwave oven is to generate microwave radiation of appropriate frequency in the working space of the oven where we keep food. This way energy is not wasted in heating up the vessel. In the conventional heating method, the vessel on the burner gets heated first, and then the food inside gets heated because of transfer of energy from the vessel. In the microwave oven, energy is directly delivered to water molecules which is shared by the entire food. One should use porcelain vessels and not metal containers in a microwave oven because of the danger of getting a shock from accumulated electric charges. Metals may also melt from heating. The porcelain container remains unaffected and cool, because its large molecules vibrate and rotate with much smaller frequencies, and thus cannot absorb microwaves. Hence, they do not get heated up. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The basic principle of a microwave oven is to generate microwave radiation of appropriate frequency in the working space of the oven where we keep food. This way energy is not wasted in heating up the vessel. In the conventional heating method, the vessel on the burner gets heated first, and then the food inside gets heated because of transfer of energy from the vessel. In the microwave oven, energy is directly delivered to water molecules which is shared by the entire food. One should use porcelain vessels and not metal containers in a microwave oven because of the danger of getting a shock from accumulated electric charges. Metals may also melt from heating. The porcelain container remains unaffected and cool, because its large molecules vibrate and rotate with much smaller frequencies, and thus cannot absorb microwaves. Hence, they do not get heated up. Question 18 of 35 18. Question Consider the following pairs with reference to link between technology and associated principle: Technology                      Scientific principle(s) Steam engine –          Laws of thermodynamics Aeroplane –          Bernoulli’s principle Optical fibres –          Magnetic confinement of plasma Tokamak –          Photoelectric effect Select the correct match: a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 3 and 4 only d) 1, 3 and 4 only Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Incorrect Incorrect The Second Law of Thermodynamics state that heat flows spontaneously only from hotter to colder bodies. This implies that a steam engine can do work only with a drop in temperature. The steam that enters a steam turbine is hotter than the steam that exits it. Bernoulli’s Principle states that faster moving air has low air pressure and slower moving air has high air pressure. Air pressure is the amount of pressure, or “push”, air particles exert. It is this principle that helps us understand how airplanes produce lift (or the ability to get into the air). Optical fibres rely on total internal reflection for their operation. An optical fibre is a thin rod of high-quality glass. Light/infrared getting in at one end undergoes repeated total internal reflection and emerges at the other end. Notice that light refracts towards the normal as it enters the optical fibre. A tokamak is a machine that confines a plasma using magnetic fields in a donut shape that scientists call a torus. Fusion energy scientists believe that tokamaks are the leading plasma confinement concept for future fusion power plants. Tokamaks are helping in attaining nuclear fusion reactors. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Incorrect Incorrect The Second Law of Thermodynamics state that heat flows spontaneously only from hotter to colder bodies. This implies that a steam engine can do work only with a drop in temperature. The steam that enters a steam turbine is hotter than the steam that exits it. Bernoulli’s Principle states that faster moving air has low air pressure and slower moving air has high air pressure. Air pressure is the amount of pressure, or “push”, air particles exert. It is this principle that helps us understand how airplanes produce lift (or the ability to get into the air). Optical fibres rely on total internal reflection for their operation. An optical fibre is a thin rod of high-quality glass. Light/infrared getting in at one end undergoes repeated total internal reflection and emerges at the other end. Notice that light refracts towards the normal as it enters the optical fibre. A tokamak is a machine that confines a plasma using magnetic fields in a donut shape that scientists call a torus. Fusion energy scientists believe that tokamaks are the leading plasma confinement concept for future fusion power plants. Tokamaks are helping in attaining nuclear fusion reactors. Question 19 of 35 19. Question With reference to major scientific contributions by Indians, consider the following pairs: N. Saha –    Quantum statistics N. Bose –    Thermal ionisation Chandrasekhar – Structure and evolution of stars How many of the pairs given above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Meghnad Saha (1893–1956) was an Indian physicist who did much of his work in the last decades of British colonial rule. In the 1920s he made important contributions to the theory of thermal ionization and its application to stellar spectra. Satyendra Nath Bose was an Indian mathematician and physicist specialising in theoretical physics. He is best known for his work on quantum mechanics in the early 1920s, in developing the foundation for Bose statistics and the theory of the Bose condensate. Subrahmanyan Chandrasekhar was an Indian-American astrophysicist who spent his professional life in the United States. He shared the 1983 Nobel Prize for Physics with William A. Fowler for “…theoretical studies of the physical processes of importance to the structure and evolution of the stars“. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Meghnad Saha (1893–1956) was an Indian physicist who did much of his work in the last decades of British colonial rule. In the 1920s he made important contributions to the theory of thermal ionization and its application to stellar spectra. Satyendra Nath Bose was an Indian mathematician and physicist specialising in theoretical physics. He is best known for his work on quantum mechanics in the early 1920s, in developing the foundation for Bose statistics and the theory of the Bose condensate. Subrahmanyan Chandrasekhar was an Indian-American astrophysicist who spent his professional life in the United States. He shared the 1983 Nobel Prize for Physics with William A. Fowler for “…theoretical studies of the physical processes of importance to the structure and evolution of the stars“. Question 20 of 35 20. Question People with hearing loss may need a hearing aid. This hearing aid consists of which of the following components? Amplifier Microphone Speaker Select the answer: a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The hearing aid receives sound through a microphone. The microphone converts the sound waves to electrical signals. These electrical signals are amplified by an amplifier. The amplified electrical signals are given to a speaker of the hearing aid. The speaker converts the amplified electrical signal to sound and sends to the ear for clear hearing. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The hearing aid receives sound through a microphone. The microphone converts the sound waves to electrical signals. These electrical signals are amplified by an amplifier. The amplified electrical signals are given to a speaker of the hearing aid. The speaker converts the amplified electrical signal to sound and sends to the ear for clear hearing. Question 21 of 35 21. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Production Linked Incentive Scheme (PLI): It aims to scale up domestic manufacturing capability, accompanied by higher import substitution and employment generation. It is currently active in three key sectors – mobile manufacturing, manufacturing of medical devices, and automobiles and auto components. It provides financial rewards to domestic and foreign companies for manufacturing in India, based on a percentage of their revenue over up to five years. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Production Linked Incentive Scheme (PLI) aims to scale up domestic manufacturing capability, accompanied by higher import substitution and employment generation. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is currently active in 14 key sectors – mobile manufacturing, manufacturing of medical devices, automobiles and auto components, pharmaceuticals, drugs, specialty steel, telecom & networking products, electronic products, white goods (ACs and LEDs), food products, textile products, solar PV modules, advanced chemistry cell (ACC) battery, and drones and drone components. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It provides financial rewards to domestic and foreign companies for manufacturing in India, based on a percentage of their revenue over up to five years. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (b) The Production Linked Incentive Scheme (PLI) aims to scale up domestic manufacturing capability, accompanied by higher import substitution and employment generation. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is currently active in 14 key sectors – mobile manufacturing, manufacturing of medical devices, automobiles and auto components, pharmaceuticals, drugs, specialty steel, telecom & networking products, electronic products, white goods (ACs and LEDs), food products, textile products, solar PV modules, advanced chemistry cell (ACC) battery, and drones and drone components. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It provides financial rewards to domestic and foreign companies for manufacturing in India, based on a percentage of their revenue over up to five years. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Mahakaleshwar Temple: It is situated beside the Rudra Sagar Lake in Uttar Pradesh. It is a Hindu temple dedicated to Shiva and is one of the twelve Jyotirlingams. Its idol is Dakshina Mukhi, facing south, unlike all the other Jyotirlingas. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Mahakaleshwar Temple is situated beside the Rudra Sagar Lake in Madhya Pradesh. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The temple complex comes with a spacious courtyard that is adorned with the finest sculptures that are believed to be influenced by the Chalukya, Maratha, and Bhumija styles of structural design. It is a Hindu temple dedicated to Shiva and is one of the twelve Jyotirlingams. Hence statement 2 is correct. The images of Ganesh, Parvati, and Karttikeya are installed in the west, north, and east of the sanctum sanctorum. Its idol is Dakshina Mukhi, facing south, unlike all the other Jyotirlingas. Hence statement 3 is correct. The temple also houses a tank constructed in the Sarvatobhadra style. Incorrect Solution (b) The Mahakaleshwar Temple is situated beside the Rudra Sagar Lake in Madhya Pradesh. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. The temple complex comes with a spacious courtyard that is adorned with the finest sculptures that are believed to be influenced by the Chalukya, Maratha, and Bhumija styles of structural design. It is a Hindu temple dedicated to Shiva and is one of the twelve Jyotirlingams. Hence statement 2 is correct. The images of Ganesh, Parvati, and Karttikeya are installed in the west, north, and east of the sanctum sanctorum. Its idol is Dakshina Mukhi, facing south, unlike all the other Jyotirlingas. Hence statement 3 is correct. The temple also houses a tank constructed in the Sarvatobhadra style. Question 23 of 35 23. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas: It is celebrated on January 9 to mark the contribution and achievements of the overseas Indian community to the development of India. It is the flagship event of the Ministry of Tourism. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) The Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas is celebrated on January 9 to mark the contribution and achievements of the overseas Indian community to the development of India. Hence statement 1 is correct. It commemorates the return of Mahatma Gandhi, the greatest Pravasi, from South Africa to India in 1915, who led India’s freedom struggle and changed the lives of Indians forever. It was first celebrated in 2003. It was an annual event earlier, but in 2015, the government revised its format to celebrate PBD once every two years. It is the flagship event of the Ministry of External Affairs. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It has become a platform to connect the Indian diaspora with their roots and encourage their continued engagement with India’s progress. It is held in different cities, to showcase the diversity and progress of different regions of Toa. To date, 17 conventions have been held. The last Pravasi Bharatiya Divas was celebrated in the Indore of Madhya Pradesh in 2023. Incorrect Solution (a) The Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas is celebrated on January 9 to mark the contribution and achievements of the overseas Indian community to the development of India. Hence statement 1 is correct. It commemorates the return of Mahatma Gandhi, the greatest Pravasi, from South Africa to India in 1915, who led India’s freedom struggle and changed the lives of Indians forever. It was first celebrated in 2003. It was an annual event earlier, but in 2015, the government revised its format to celebrate PBD once every two years. It is the flagship event of the Ministry of External Affairs. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It has become a platform to connect the Indian diaspora with their roots and encourage their continued engagement with India’s progress. It is held in different cities, to showcase the diversity and progress of different regions of Toa. To date, 17 conventions have been held. The last Pravasi Bharatiya Divas was celebrated in the Indore of Madhya Pradesh in 2023. Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements about the Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas (SHRESHTA): It aims to provide access to the best private residential schools for meritorious students from Scheduled Caste (SC) communities. It is implemented by the Department of Social Justice and Empowerment, Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) The Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas (SHRESHTA) aims to provide access to the best private residential schools for meritorious students from Scheduled Caste (SC) communities. Hence statement 1 is correct. It will provide scholarships to meritorious students from SC communities to study in private and NGO-run residential schools for Classes 9-12. It is implemented by the Department of Social Justice and Empowerment, Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment. Hence statement 2 is correct. The core objectives of the scheme are to enhance the reach of the development initiatives of the government and fill in the gap in service-deprived SC dominant areas in the education sector. The scheme will collaborate with voluntary organisations to provide an environment that can help create conditions for socio-economic upliftment and the overall development of the SC communities. Students whose annual parental income is less than Rs 2,50,000 and who belong to SC communities are eligible to participate in this scheme. Only those candidates who have passed or are appearing in Class VIII/X in the given academic session can apply for admission to Class IX/XI. Incorrect Solution (c) The Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas (SHRESHTA) aims to provide access to the best private residential schools for meritorious students from Scheduled Caste (SC) communities. Hence statement 1 is correct. It will provide scholarships to meritorious students from SC communities to study in private and NGO-run residential schools for Classes 9-12. It is implemented by the Department of Social Justice and Empowerment, Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment. Hence statement 2 is correct. The core objectives of the scheme are to enhance the reach of the development initiatives of the government and fill in the gap in service-deprived SC dominant areas in the education sector. The scheme will collaborate with voluntary organisations to provide an environment that can help create conditions for socio-economic upliftment and the overall development of the SC communities. Students whose annual parental income is less than Rs 2,50,000 and who belong to SC communities are eligible to participate in this scheme. Only those candidates who have passed or are appearing in Class VIII/X in the given academic session can apply for admission to Class IX/XI. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements regarding the International Classification of Diseases: It is developed by the World Health Organization (WHO) to classify diseases internationally. It facilitates the collection and dissemination of data on various diseases and mortality. In India, the Central Bureau of Health Intelligence (CBHI) under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare serves as its collaborator. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) The International Classification of Diseases (ICD) is developed by the World Health Organization (WHO) to classify diseases internationally. Hence statement 1 is correct. The global data on diseases currently available is mainly based on healthcare practices to be diagnosed through modern biomedicine. It serves a broad range of uses globally and provides critical knowledge on the extent, causes, and consequences of human disease and death worldwide via data that is reported and coded with the ICD. Clinical terms coded with ICD are the main basis for health recording and statistics on disease in primary, secondary, and tertiary care, as well as on cause of death certificates. It facilitates the collection and dissemination of data on various diseases and mortality. Hence statement 2 is correct. These data and statistics support payment systems, service planning, administration of quality and safety, and health services research. Diagnostic guidance linked to categories of ICD also standardizes data collection and enables large-scale research. The classification of data and terminology relating to diseases based on Ayush systems such as Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani, etc. is not yet included in the WHO ICD series. In India, the Central Bureau of Health Intelligence (CBHI) under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare serves as its collaborator. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) The International Classification of Diseases (ICD) is developed by the World Health Organization (WHO) to classify diseases internationally. Hence statement 1 is correct. The global data on diseases currently available is mainly based on healthcare practices to be diagnosed through modern biomedicine. It serves a broad range of uses globally and provides critical knowledge on the extent, causes, and consequences of human disease and death worldwide via data that is reported and coded with the ICD. Clinical terms coded with ICD are the main basis for health recording and statistics on disease in primary, secondary, and tertiary care, as well as on cause of death certificates. It facilitates the collection and dissemination of data on various diseases and mortality. Hence statement 2 is correct. These data and statistics support payment systems, service planning, administration of quality and safety, and health services research. Diagnostic guidance linked to categories of ICD also standardizes data collection and enables large-scale research. The classification of data and terminology relating to diseases based on Ayush systems such as Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani, etc. is not yet included in the WHO ICD series. In India, the Central Bureau of Health Intelligence (CBHI) under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare serves as its collaborator. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 26 of 35 26. Question Consider the following statements regarding the MCG-01-24-014: It is a galaxy situated approximately 275 million light-years away from Earth in the constellation of Hydra. It falls under the category of Type-2 Seyfert galaxies. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) The MCG-01-24-014 is a galaxy situated approximately 275 million light-years away from Earth in the constellation of Hydra. Hence statement 1 is correct. It boasts a well-defined structure and an extremely energetic core classified as an active galactic nucleus (AGN). It falls under the category of Type-2 Seyfert galaxies. Hence statement 2 is correct. Seyfert galaxies are any of a class of galaxies known to have active nuclei. They are one of the most common types of active galaxies, sharing the stage with the more distant and luminous quasars. Incorrect Solution (c) The MCG-01-24-014 is a galaxy situated approximately 275 million light-years away from Earth in the constellation of Hydra. Hence statement 1 is correct. It boasts a well-defined structure and an extremely energetic core classified as an active galactic nucleus (AGN). It falls under the category of Type-2 Seyfert galaxies. Hence statement 2 is correct. Seyfert galaxies are any of a class of galaxies known to have active nuclei. They are one of the most common types of active galaxies, sharing the stage with the more distant and luminous quasars. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements regarding Kavaratti Island: It is located between Agatti Island on the west and Andrott Island on the east. It has been selected as one of the hundred Indian cities to be developed as a smart city under the flagship Smart Cities Mission. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Kavaratti Island is located between Agatti Island on the west and Andrott Island on the east. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is the capital of Lakshadweep (the smallest Union Territory of India) and its most developed island. It lies 360 km off the coast of the State of Kerala. It is located in the centre of the Lakshadweep archipelago. It has been selected as one of the hundred Indian cities to be developed as a smart city under the flagship Smart Cities Mission. Hence statement 2 is correct. There is a shallow lagoon on the western side of the island, and coconut palms grow on the northern side. The island is home to 12 atolls, five submerged banks, and three coral reefs. It is noted for the carved wooden pillars and roofs of its mosques and the carved stones of its graveyards. Incorrect Solution (c) Kavaratti Island is located between Agatti Island on the west and Andrott Island on the east. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is the capital of Lakshadweep (the smallest Union Territory of India) and its most developed island. It lies 360 km off the coast of the State of Kerala. It is located in the centre of the Lakshadweep archipelago. It has been selected as one of the hundred Indian cities to be developed as a smart city under the flagship Smart Cities Mission. Hence statement 2 is correct. There is a shallow lagoon on the western side of the island, and coconut palms grow on the northern side. The island is home to 12 atolls, five submerged banks, and three coral reefs. It is noted for the carved wooden pillars and roofs of its mosques and the carved stones of its graveyards. Question 28 of 35 28. Question Consider the following statements: Chandubi Festival is organised every year along the Chandubi Lake in the state of Assam. Chandubi Lake is a saline lake that was created during a massive earthquake in the year 1897. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Chandubi Festival is organised every year along the Chandubi Lake in the state of Assam. Hence statement 1 is correct. The main attractions of the Chandubi festival are the local folk culture, ethnic cuisine, local handloom and dresses, boating, etc. The major aim of the Chandubi Festival is to promote eco-tourism in this biodiversity hotspot of Assam. Chandubi Lake is a freshwater lake that was created during a massive earthquake in the year 1897. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The name Chandubi is derived from two words where Chand means five and Dubi means sinking in Khasi language. It was turned into an economically viable water body that would sustain different communities living around the lake. Incorrect Solution (a) Chandubi Festival is organised every year along the Chandubi Lake in the state of Assam. Hence statement 1 is correct. The main attractions of the Chandubi festival are the local folk culture, ethnic cuisine, local handloom and dresses, boating, etc. The major aim of the Chandubi Festival is to promote eco-tourism in this biodiversity hotspot of Assam. Chandubi Lake is a freshwater lake that was created during a massive earthquake in the year 1897. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. The name Chandubi is derived from two words where Chand means five and Dubi means sinking in Khasi language. It was turned into an economically viable water body that would sustain different communities living around the lake. Question 29 of 35 29. Question Consider the following statements about Elasmobranch: It refers to the sharks, rays, and skates. They have a skeleton made of bone. They have large livers full of oil to provide buoyancy. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Elasmobranch refers to the sharks, rays, and skates. Hence statement 1 is correct. They have five to seven-gill openings on each side. Spiracles aid in breathing. They have a skeleton made of cartilage, rather than bone. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. They have several rows of teeth which are continually replaced. Their skin is made of tiny, hard, tooth-like placoid scales called denticles. These are renowned for their highly tuned senses, which make them incredibly successful in their environment. They don’t have swim bladders, but instead, their large livers are full of oil to provide buoyancy. Hence statement 3 is correct. They reproduce sexually with internal fertilization and either bear live young or lay eggs.   Incorrect Solution (b) Elasmobranch refers to the sharks, rays, and skates. Hence statement 1 is correct. They have five to seven-gill openings on each side. Spiracles aid in breathing. They have a skeleton made of cartilage, rather than bone. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. They have several rows of teeth which are continually replaced. Their skin is made of tiny, hard, tooth-like placoid scales called denticles. These are renowned for their highly tuned senses, which make them incredibly successful in their environment. They don’t have swim bladders, but instead, their large livers are full of oil to provide buoyancy. Hence statement 3 is correct. They reproduce sexually with internal fertilization and either bear live young or lay eggs.   Question 30 of 35 30. Question How many different words can be formed from the letters of the word EDUCATION so that vowels are always together? a) 7! b) 5! * 5! c) 7! * 4! d) 5! *4! Correct Solution (b) The vowels in the order presented are: E, U, A, I, O or perhaps better sorted as: A, E, I, O, U Think of the vowels as one block, and have some other letter (say X) representing that block. We go from the word EDUCATION to X,D,C,T,N The initial 9 letter word drops to 9-5 = 4 letters after we kick out the vowels. Then introducing letter X brings the count up to 5 letters. Anywhere you see an X, replace it with some permutation of A,E,I,O,U. There are 5! = 5*4*3*2*1 = 120 ways to arrange X,D,C,T,N And there are 5! = 120 ways to arrange the five vowels. Overall, there are (5!)*(5!) = 120*120 = 14400 different arrangements such that the vowels stick together. Incorrect Solution (b) The vowels in the order presented are: E, U, A, I, O or perhaps better sorted as: A, E, I, O, U Think of the vowels as one block, and have some other letter (say X) representing that block. We go from the word EDUCATION to X,D,C,T,N The initial 9 letter word drops to 9-5 = 4 letters after we kick out the vowels. Then introducing letter X brings the count up to 5 letters. Anywhere you see an X, replace it with some permutation of A,E,I,O,U. There are 5! = 5*4*3*2*1 = 120 ways to arrange X,D,C,T,N And there are 5! = 120 ways to arrange the five vowels. Overall, there are (5!)*(5!) = 120*120 = 14400 different arrangements such that the vowels stick together. Question 31 of 35 31. Question Consider the following statements regarding Sky Dew:  It is a high-altitude observation balloon that acts as a detection radar blip for small unmanned aircraft and cruise missiles. It has been jointly developed by Israel Defense and US company TCOM. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Sky Dew is a high-altitude observation balloon that acts as a detection radar blip for small unmanned aircraft and cruise missiles. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is one of the largest aerial threat warning systems in the world. It has been jointly developed by Israel Defense and US company TCOM. Hence statement 2 is correct. The project was entirely funded by the U.S. Department of Defence. The Israel Air Force was handed over the Sky Dew in 2022. The system comprises a blimp capable of flying at high altitudes with radar and detection systems to scan a wide range in any direction. The radar on the balloon is capable of observing at 250 km and tracking multiple targets, including low-altitude ones and those in valleys. It can carry 7,000 pounds and has an operational altitude of 10,000 feet. Incorrect Solution (c) Sky Dew is a high-altitude observation balloon that acts as a detection radar blip for small unmanned aircraft and cruise missiles. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is one of the largest aerial threat warning systems in the world. It has been jointly developed by Israel Defense and US company TCOM. Hence statement 2 is correct. The project was entirely funded by the U.S. Department of Defence. The Israel Air Force was handed over the Sky Dew in 2022. The system comprises a blimp capable of flying at high altitudes with radar and detection systems to scan a wide range in any direction. The radar on the balloon is capable of observing at 250 km and tracking multiple targets, including low-altitude ones and those in valleys. It can carry 7,000 pounds and has an operational altitude of 10,000 feet. Question 32 of 35 32. Question How many odd numbers with distinct digits can be created using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6? a) 975 b) 960 c) 978 d) 986 Correct Solution (c) => Single digit numbers: 1, 3 or 5: Three numbers => Two–digit numbers: Units digit = 1, 3 or 5. For the tens’ digit, there are 5 choices {anything apart from what went into the units digit}. So, there will be 3 × 5 = 15 such numbers. => Three–digit numbers: Units digit = 1, 3 or 5. For the tens’ digit, there are 5 choices {anything apart from what went into the units digit}. For the 100s’ digit, there are 4 choices {anything apart from what went into the units digit or tens digit}. So, there will be 3 * 5 * 4 = 60 such numbers. => 4–digit numbers: There will be 3 * 5 * 4 * 3 = 180 numbers. => 5–digit numbers: There will be 3 * 5 * 4 * 3 * 2 = 360 numbers. => 6–digit numbers: There will be 3 * 5 * 4 * 3 * 2 * 1 = 360 numbers. Total number of numbers = 360 + 360 + 180 + 60 + 15 + 3 = 978 Incorrect Solution (c) => Single digit numbers: 1, 3 or 5: Three numbers => Two–digit numbers: Units digit = 1, 3 or 5. For the tens’ digit, there are 5 choices {anything apart from what went into the units digit}. So, there will be 3 × 5 = 15 such numbers. => Three–digit numbers: Units digit = 1, 3 or 5. For the tens’ digit, there are 5 choices {anything apart from what went into the units digit}. For the 100s’ digit, there are 4 choices {anything apart from what went into the units digit or tens digit}. So, there will be 3 * 5 * 4 = 60 such numbers. => 4–digit numbers: There will be 3 * 5 * 4 * 3 = 180 numbers. => 5–digit numbers: There will be 3 * 5 * 4 * 3 * 2 = 360 numbers. => 6–digit numbers: There will be 3 * 5 * 4 * 3 * 2 * 1 = 360 numbers. Total number of numbers = 360 + 360 + 180 + 60 + 15 + 3 = 978 Question 33 of 35 33. Question 256 players participate in a chess tournament. Two players play a match. Matches are played on a knock-out basis, wherein loser in a match is eliminated from the tournament. All the matches produce a winner. How many matches have to be played to determine the winner of the tournament?   a) 257 b) 255 c) 256 d) 512 Correct Solution (b) For two players, we need one match. The first round, having 256 players will need 256/2 = 128 matches. Now there are 128 players left. To ensure that all players play a match, we need 128/2 = 64 matches Continuing in the same way Total number of matches = 128+64+ 32+ 16+8+4+2+1= 255 OR In 1 match 1 player is eliminated For tournament to conclude there should be only 1 winner and hence 255 players need to lose. Hence we need 255 matches to eliminate 255 players. Hence option (b). Incorrect Solution (b) For two players, we need one match. The first round, having 256 players will need 256/2 = 128 matches. Now there are 128 players left. To ensure that all players play a match, we need 128/2 = 64 matches Continuing in the same way Total number of matches = 128+64+ 32+ 16+8+4+2+1= 255 OR In 1 match 1 player is eliminated For tournament to conclude there should be only 1 winner and hence 255 players need to lose. Hence we need 255 matches to eliminate 255 players. Hence option (b). Question 34 of 35 34. Question How many zeroes are there at the end of the product 1*2*3*——*19*20? a) 10 b) 8 c) 6 d) 4 Correct Solution (d) Zero is there when we have 2 x 5. This creates 10 and as many pairs of 2 x 5 are there we will have same number of zeros at the end. Now, there are 10 twos in the series as there are 10 even numbers from 1 to 20. So, we need to check the number of fives. We have fives at 5, 10 (5 x 2), 15 (5 x 3) and 20 (5 x 2 x 2). So, the number of zeros at the end will be 4. Incorrect Solution (d) Zero is there when we have 2 x 5. This creates 10 and as many pairs of 2 x 5 are there we will have same number of zeros at the end. Now, there are 10 twos in the series as there are 10 even numbers from 1 to 20. So, we need to check the number of fives. We have fives at 5, 10 (5 x 2), 15 (5 x 3) and 20 (5 x 2 x 2). So, the number of zeros at the end will be 4. Question 35 of 35 35. Question Consider a class of 40 students whose average weight is 40 kg. m new students join this class whose average weight is n kg. If it is known that m + n = 50, what is the maximum possible average weight of the class now? a) 40.18 kg b) 40.56 kg c) 40.67 kg d) 40.49 kg Correct Solution (b) If the overall average weight has to increase after the new people are added, the average weight of the new entrants has to be higher than 40. So, n > 40 Consequently, m has to be < 10 (as n + m = 50) Working with the “differences” approach, we know that the total additional weight added by “m” students would be (n – 40) each, above the already existing average of 40. m(n – 40) is the total extra additional weight added, which is shared amongst 40 + m students. So, m * (n−40)/(m+40) has to be maximum for the overall average to be maximum. At this point, use the trial and error approach (or else, go with the answer options) to arrive at the answer The maximum average occurs when m = 5, and n = 45 And the average is 40 + (45 – 40) * 5/45 = 40 + 5/9 = 40.56 kgs   Incorrect Solution (b) If the overall average weight has to increase after the new people are added, the average weight of the new entrants has to be higher than 40. So, n > 40 Consequently, m has to be < 10 (as n + m = 50) Working with the “differences” approach, we know that the total additional weight added by “m” students would be (n – 40) each, above the already existing average of 40. m(n – 40) is the total extra additional weight added, which is shared amongst 40 + m students. So, m * (n−40)/(m+40) has to be maximum for the overall average to be maximum. At this point, use the trial and error approach (or else, go with the answer options) to arrive at the answer The maximum average occurs when m = 5, and n = 45 And the average is 40 + (45 – 40) * 5/45 = 40 + 5/9 = 40.56 kgs   window.wpProQuizInitList = window.wpProQuizInitList || []; window.wpProQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpProQuiz_3652', init: { quizId: 3652, mode: 1, globalPoints: 70, timelimit: 1800, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 704, qpp: 0, catPoints: [70], formPos: 0, lbn: "Test-summary", json: {"32544":{"type":"single","id":32544,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32547":{"type":"single","id":32547,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32549":{"type":"single","id":32549,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32550":{"type":"single","id":32550,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32551":{"type":"single","id":32551,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32553":{"type":"single","id":32553,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32554":{"type":"single","id":32554,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32556":{"type":"single","id":32556,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32559":{"type":"single","id":32559,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32562":{"type":"single","id":32562,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32563":{"type":"single","id":32563,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32565":{"type":"single","id":32565,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32568":{"type":"single","id":32568,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32570":{"type":"single","id":32570,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32572":{"type":"single","id":32572,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32575":{"type":"single","id":32575,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32578":{"type":"single","id":32578,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32579":{"type":"single","id":32579,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32580":{"type":"single","id":32580,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32581":{"type":"single","id":32581,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32583":{"type":"single","id":32583,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32586":{"type":"single","id":32586,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32588":{"type":"single","id":32588,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32589":{"type":"single","id":32589,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32590":{"type":"single","id":32590,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32593":{"type":"single","id":32593,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32594":{"type":"single","id":32594,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32596":{"type":"single","id":32596,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32597":{"type":"single","id":32597,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32598":{"type":"single","id":32598,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32600":{"type":"single","id":32600,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32602":{"type":"single","id":32602,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32605":{"type":"single","id":32605,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32606":{"type":"single","id":32606,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32608":{"type":"single","id":32608,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]}} } }); All the Best IASbaba

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 18th April 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 18th April 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Agroforestry Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Agriculture Context: Uptake of agroforestry remains restricted to farmers with medium or large landholdings.Small scale farmers are yet to adapt agroforestry.The adoption of agroforestry at scale in India must include smallholders, who hold most of India’s agricultural land. Background:- Agriculture in India has historically been a diversified land-use practice, integrating crops, trees, and livestock. This technique, broadly called agroforestry, can enhance farmer livelihoods and the environment and is slowly gaining in popularity after decades of the modus operandus of monocropping inspired by the Green Revolution. Small scale farmers and Agroforestry India’s efforts to promote agroforestry received an impetus nearly 10 years ago with the establishment of the National Agroforestry Policy (2014).Yet the uptake of agroforestry remains restricted to farmers with medium or large landholdings. This pattern is unsurprising since smallholder farmers seldom grow trees because of their long gestation, a lack of incentive or investment-based capital, and weak market linkages. Challenges: The Ministry of Agriculture recognised water availability as a challenge when it drafted the National Agroforestry Policy in 2014. Yet the problem remains relevant and is especially acute for smallholders, who need additional funding to secure water and/or who incur additional debt in doing so. Moreover, water availability is critical during the sapling stage but remains a constant concern if the trees compete with crops for water in water-constrained environments. Choosing the right species for the right place and the right reason is elemental for agroforestry to enhance the sustainability of livelihoods. Farmers, however, are drawn to tree species that are fast-growing and repel herbivores, but such species are also generally non-native and threaten soil health and human well-being. New and existing government policies and schemes that can facilitate transition to agroforestry are standardised, accounting neither for land-holding size nor, importantly, regional biophysical variabilities. As a result, these schemes inherently exclude smallholders. For example, the Indian Forest and Wood Certification Scheme 2023, which certifies agroforestry and wood-based products as sustainable, has an exhaustive list of eligibility criteria for farmers and industries.But it remains to be seen if its array of socio-economic and environmental parameters will place certification costs beyond the reach of smallholders. Source: Hindu Dubai floods and Cloud Seeding Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Geography Context: Following the floods, questions were raised whether cloud seeding, a process that the UAE frequently conducts, could have caused the heavy rains. Background: A storm hit the United Arab Emirates and Oman this week bringing record rainfall that flooded highways, inundated houses, grid-locked traffic and trapped people in their homes. Did cloud seeding cause the storm? Rainfall is rare in the UAE and elsewhere on the Arabian Peninsula, that is typically known for its dry desert climate. Summer air temperatures can soar above 50 degrees Celsius. Following Tuesday’s events, questions were raised whether cloud seeding, a process that the UAE frequently conducts, could have caused the heavy rains. Cloud seeding is a process in which chemicals are implanted into clouds to increase rainfall in an environment where water scarcity is a concern. The UAE, located in one of the hottest and driest regions on earth, has been leading the effort to seed clouds and increase precipitation. But the UAE’s meteorology agency said thatthere were no such operations before the storm. The huge rainfall was instead likely due to a normal weather system that was exacerbated by climate change, experts say. Climate scientists say that rising global temperatures, caused by human-led climate change, is leading to more extreme weather events around the world, including intense rainfall. Rainfall from thunderstorms, like the ones seen in UAE in recent days, sees a particular strong increase with warming. This is because convection, which is the strong updraft in thunderstorms, strengthens in a warmer world. Rainfall was becoming much heavier around the world as the climate warms because a warmer atmosphere can hold more moisture. It was misleading to talk about cloud seeding as the cause of the heavy rainfall, experts say. Source: The Hindu IMPORTED INFLATION Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Economy Context: The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has recently issued a cautionary note regarding India’s vulnerability to imported inflation. Background: The ADB’s warning underscores the need for vigilance in managing currency fluctuations and interest rate dynamics to mitigate the potential impact of imported inflation on India’s economy. About IMPORTED INFLATION Imported inflation refers to a situation where the general price level in a country rises due to an increase in the costs of imported products. The factors behind the Imported Inflation: Exchange Rates: Fluctuations in exchange rates play a significant role. When a country’s currency depreciates against foreign currencies, the cost of imports rises. Essentially, more money is needed to purchase goods and services from abroad. Commodity Prices: Many countries heavily rely on imported commodities such as oil, metals, and agricultural products. When global commodity prices increase, it directly impacts the cost of imports, potentially leading to higher inflation within the importing nation. Trade Policies and Global Supply Chains: Changes in trade policies (such as tariffs and quotas) can influence the cost of imported goods. Additionally, disruptions in global supply chains affect transportation costs, which, in turn, impact the final cost of imported products. Impact on Production Costs: Imported inflation affects companies’ production costs. These companies often pass on the increased costs to consumers by raising prices, leading to general inflation across the economy. Recent Scenario in India: The weakening of the Indian rupee in recent months has raised concerns about imported inflation. Factors such as growing risk aversion among investors, geopolitical tensions, and changes in monetary policy have contributed to the rupee’s depreciation. India’s reliance on imports of crude oil and gold makes it susceptible to price fluctuations in these commodities. Rising prices of these products can directly impact the country’s import bill and overall inflation. Source: Hindu TIGER TRIUMPH-24 EXERCISE Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: The Tiger Triumph-24 exercise has concluded recently. Background: This exercise reinforces the robust strategic partnership between India and the United States in humanitarian assistance and disaster relief efforts. About TIGER TRIUMPH-24 EXERCISE: The TIGER TRIUMPH-24 is a bilateral tri-Service Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) Exercise conducted between India and the United States. The exercise aimed to develop interoperability for conducting Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief operations and refine Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) for rapid and smooth coordination between the forces of both countries. The exercise included activities such as amphibious landings, setting up field hospitals, and establishing camps for displaced persons. It represents the strategic partnership between both nations and their commitment to sharing best practices in multinational HADR operations. Participating units included the Indian Navy, Army, and Air Force, as well as the US Navy and Marine Corps. Source: Hindustan Times ATHLETICS FEDERATION OF INDIA (AFI) Syllabus Prelims – Current Event Context: The Athletics Federation of India (AFI) recently took an unprecedented step by disaffiliating 16 district associations across the country. Background: These districts failed to send teams for the National inter-district junior athletics meet held in Ahmedabad in February. About ATHLETICS FEDERATION OF INDIA (AFI): The Athletics Federation of India (AFI) is the apex body responsible for overseeing athletics in India. The AFI was formed in 1946 and has since played a crucial role in promoting and managing athletics across the country. It is affiliated with World Athletics, the Asian Athletics Association (AAA), and the Indian Olympic Association. The AFI has 32 affiliated state units and institutional units. The AFI’s efforts contribute significantly to the development and success of Indian athletes on both national and international stages Responsibilities: National Championships: The AFI organizes the National Championships. Training and Selection: It trains Indian Athletics National Campers and selects Indian Athletics Teams for various international competitions, including the Olympics, Asian Games, Commonwealth Games, World Championships, and other international meets. Promotion and Development: The AFI conducts international and national championships, as well as various meets, to promote the sport and make athletics commercially attractive for further growth. Grassroots Promotion: It supervises and assists state units, plans coaching camps, and initiates development programs for grassroots promotion of athletics in India. Source: The Hindu Illegal Migration Syllabus Mains – GS 1 Context: The Gujarat Crime Investigation Department (CID) is probing the case of possible illegal immigration related to the Nicaragua-bound plane carrying Indians, which was grounded in France. Background: Days after the statements of passengers in the infamous Nicaragua-bound flight were recorded, theGujarat Police filed a First Information Report (FIR) against 14 immigration agents for reportedly being involved in human trafficking. The Police have discovered an international network of agents engaged in this operation, offering illegal immigration through the U.S.-Mexico border and the help of attorneys in the U.S. thereon. Illegal Migration: It refers to the transboundary migration of people from one country to another without valid documents, using illegal means. In the Indian context, as per the Citizenship Act, of 1955, an illegal migrant is defined as, a foreigner who enters India, without a valid passport or other prescribed travel documents, or with a valid passport or other prescribed travel documents but remains in India beyond the permitted time period. Reasons for Illegal Migration: Economic factors include poverty, lack of economic opportunities, stagnation of income, etc., that may force an individual or a group to look beyond their home country for better economic opportunities. Real or Perceived promise of better opportunities in destination countries. For, the promise of ‘The American Dream’ still attracts a lot of migrants both legal and illegal to the U.S.A. Smuggling of migrants is a highly profitable illicit activity with a relatively low risk of detection. As of October 2023, 2925 illegal agents have been notified in India through the e-Migrate portal. Political and religious persecution has led to refugees and illegal immigrants from Tibet, Afghanistan, Sri Lanka, Myanmar, Pakistan, and Bangladesh finding shelter in India. Overpopulation may lead to a crisis of living space. E.g. In countries like Bangladesh where high population density has led to illegal migration in Northeastern States of India. Natural disasters may force people to migrate for survival and better living conditions. E.g., Illegal migration from the Sahel region of Africa due to frequent droughts. Social networks established by previous migrants attract more migrants from similar communities, often resulting in migration through illegal routes in the absence of other options. Impacts of Illegal Migration: Illegal and undocumented migrants lack legal safeguards and thus are prone to informal, temporary, or unprotected jobs and even forced labour. Illegal migrants are vulnerable to multiple inhumane conditions and criminal offences like assault, rape, or extortion during their arduous journeys or at the destination region. Illegal migrants face constant fear of being deported by the authorities and may also be mistreated during detention. E.g., Detention centers in the US for illegal migrants, are often alleged to have poor living conditions impacting the physical, mental, and social health of detainees including children. Large-scale illegal migration may distort existing demography and pose a threat to existing socio-cultural identity. The threat to Assamese identity due to illegal migration from Bangladesh has given rise to various socio-political tensions in Assam. Often organized criminal groups are involved in smuggling migrants across borders. E.g., US-Mexico Border. Issues/Challenges in Tackling Illegal Migration: Centre in an affidavit filed in SC held that the ‘clandestine and surreptitious’ manner of entry of illegal migrants makes it difficult to have an accurate data collection. Porous borders facilitate the flow of illegal migrants across multiple countries using Donkey routes/flights. Poor regulation of travel agencies has led to the cropping up of unscrupulous travel and placement agents running illegal operations, particularly in regions where demand for moving abroad is high. Lack of coordination due to cross country dimension of international human trafficking networks requires extensive international cooperation of law enforcement agencies. Organized criminals have established professional networks that transcend borders and encompass all regions. Absence or inadequacy of national legislation to address the smuggling of migrants in many parts of the world. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) With reference to the Athletics Federation of India (AFI), consider the following statements: The Athletics Federation of India (AFI) is the apex body responsible for overseeing athletics in India. It is affiliated with the Indian Olympic Association. It selects Indian Athletics Teams for various international competitions, including the Olympics. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q2.) With reference to the Tiger Triumph-24 exercise, consider the following statements: It is a bilateral exercise conducted between India and the United States. The exercise aimed to develop interoperability for conducting Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief operations and refine Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) for rapid and smooth coordination between the forces of both countries. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q3.) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following: Depreciation of Indian rupee Increase in global commodity prices Changes in trade policies How many of the above causes the imported inflation in India? Only one Only two All three None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  18th April  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  17th April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – a Q.3) – c

[DAY 40] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – HISTORY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question Consider the following pairs: Temple            Dynasty/ Rule 1.     Kailashnath Temple Rashtrakutas 2.     Ajanta Caves Hoysalas 3.     Elephanta Caves Kalachuris 4.     Airavateshwara Temple Pallavas How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? a) One pair only b) Two pairs only c) Three pairs only d) All of the above pairs Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Incorrect The Kailashnath temple at the Ellora caves is one of the largest rock-cut temples in India. The construction of the temple is attributed to the Rashtrakuta King Krishna I. Ajanta caves are a group of Buddhist cave monuments. The temples are believed to be constructed during the period of 400 to 650 AD. The construction of these temples is believed to have been started by the Satavahanas. However, most of the caves have been constructed under the patronage of the Vakatakas. Elephanta caves are rock cut caves. They are devoted to Hinduism. The famous sculpture of Sadashiva is located here. They are believed to be constructed by the Kalachuris. Airavateshwara temple is a temple located in the town of Darasuram in Thanjavur district of Tamil Nadu. This temple was built by Rajaraja Chola II. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Incorrect The Kailashnath temple at the Ellora caves is one of the largest rock-cut temples in India. The construction of the temple is attributed to the Rashtrakuta King Krishna I. Ajanta caves are a group of Buddhist cave monuments. The temples are believed to be constructed during the period of 400 to 650 AD. The construction of these temples is believed to have been started by the Satavahanas. However, most of the caves have been constructed under the patronage of the Vakatakas. Elephanta caves are rock cut caves. They are devoted to Hinduism. The famous sculpture of Sadashiva is located here. They are believed to be constructed by the Kalachuris. Airavateshwara temple is a temple located in the town of Darasuram in Thanjavur district of Tamil Nadu. This temple was built by Rajaraja Chola II. Question 2 of 35 2. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Pallavas: Mahendravarman I introduced the rock-cut temples. Perundevanar translated the Mahabharata as Bharathavenba in Tamil. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Mahendravarman I introduced the rock-cut temples. This style of Pallava temples are seen at places like Mandagappattu, Mahendravadi, Mamandur, Dalavanur, Tiruchirappalli, Vallam, Siyamangalam and Tirukalukkunram. Perundevanar was patronized by Nandivarman II and he translated the Mahabharata as Bharathavenba in Tamil. Mahendravaraman I composed the Sanskrit play Mattavilasaprahasanam. Tamil literature had also developed.  The Nayanmars and Alwars composed religious hymns in Tamil. The Devaram composed by Nayanmars and the Nalayradivyaprabandam composed by Alwars represent the religious literature of the Pallava period. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Mahendravarman I introduced the rock-cut temples. This style of Pallava temples are seen at places like Mandagappattu, Mahendravadi, Mamandur, Dalavanur, Tiruchirappalli, Vallam, Siyamangalam and Tirukalukkunram. Perundevanar was patronized by Nandivarman II and he translated the Mahabharata as Bharathavenba in Tamil. Mahendravaraman I composed the Sanskrit play Mattavilasaprahasanam. Tamil literature had also developed.  The Nayanmars and Alwars composed religious hymns in Tamil. The Devaram composed by Nayanmars and the Nalayradivyaprabandam composed by Alwars represent the religious literature of the Pallava period. Question 3 of 35 3. Question Consider the following statements regarding Shikharas under Nagara temples: The shikhara which is square at the base and whose walls curve or slope inward to a point on top is called the ‘Latina’ or the Rekha-Prasada type of shikara. Phamsana buildings tend to be broader and shorter than Latina ones. Valabhi type are rectangular buildings with a roof that rises into a vaulted chamber. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct There are many subdivisions of nagara temples depending on the shape of the Shikhara. The most common name for the simple shikhara which is square at the base and whose walls curve or slope inward to a point on top is called the ‘Latina’ or the Rekhaprasada type of shikara. The second major type of architectural form in the Nagara order is the Phamsana. Phamsana buildings tend to be broader and shorter than Latina ones. Their roofs are composed of several slabs that gently rise to a single point over the center of the building, unlike the Latina ones which look like sharply rising tall towers. Phamsana roofs do not curve inward, instead they slope upwards on a straight incline. The third main sub-type of the nagara building is what is generally called the Valabhi type. These are rectangular buildings with a roof that rises into a vaulted chamber. The edge of this vaulted chamber is rounded, like the bamboo or wooden wagons that would have been drawn by bullocks in ancient times. They are usually called ‘wagon vaulted buildings’. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct There are many subdivisions of nagara temples depending on the shape of the Shikhara. The most common name for the simple shikhara which is square at the base and whose walls curve or slope inward to a point on top is called the ‘Latina’ or the Rekhaprasada type of shikara. The second major type of architectural form in the Nagara order is the Phamsana. Phamsana buildings tend to be broader and shorter than Latina ones. Their roofs are composed of several slabs that gently rise to a single point over the center of the building, unlike the Latina ones which look like sharply rising tall towers. Phamsana roofs do not curve inward, instead they slope upwards on a straight incline. The third main sub-type of the nagara building is what is generally called the Valabhi type. These are rectangular buildings with a roof that rises into a vaulted chamber. The edge of this vaulted chamber is rounded, like the bamboo or wooden wagons that would have been drawn by bullocks in ancient times. They are usually called ‘wagon vaulted buildings’. Question 4 of 35 4. Question Which of the following temples is/are located in Kanchipuram? Ulagalanda Perumal Temple Varadharaja Perumal temple Ekambaresvara Temple Kailasanathar Temple Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 3 only b) 1, 3 and 4 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct Ulagalanda Perumal Temple: This temple has a unique feature of having four Divya Desams in the same complex, which is not seen anywhere. Varadharaja Perumal temple: Dedicated to Lord Vishnu, it is one of the 108 Divya Desams visited by all the 12 Alwar saints. It has a ‘hundred pillar’ Mandapam built by the Vijayanagara kings. Ekambaresvara Temple: It is one of the five major Shiva temples of Pancha Bootha Sthalams (each representing a natural element) representing the element – Earth; The temple’s Raja Gopuram is one of the tallest (57m) in south India and was built by the Vijayanagara king Krishnadevaraya; One notable feature is the Aayiram Kaal Mandapam, or the ‘hallway with a thousand pillars’. Kailasanathar Temple: Built by the Pallava king Rajasimha I (Narasimhavarman II), it is the oldest structure in Kanchipuram. The temple’s sanctum sanctorum contains a unique 16- sided Shivalinga carved out of black granite   Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct Ulagalanda Perumal Temple: This temple has a unique feature of having four Divya Desams in the same complex, which is not seen anywhere. Varadharaja Perumal temple: Dedicated to Lord Vishnu, it is one of the 108 Divya Desams visited by all the 12 Alwar saints. It has a ‘hundred pillar’ Mandapam built by the Vijayanagara kings. Ekambaresvara Temple: It is one of the five major Shiva temples of Pancha Bootha Sthalams (each representing a natural element) representing the element – Earth; The temple’s Raja Gopuram is one of the tallest (57m) in south India and was built by the Vijayanagara king Krishnadevaraya; One notable feature is the Aayiram Kaal Mandapam, or the ‘hallway with a thousand pillars’. Kailasanathar Temple: Built by the Pallava king Rajasimha I (Narasimhavarman II), it is the oldest structure in Kanchipuram. The temple’s sanctum sanctorum contains a unique 16- sided Shivalinga carved out of black granite   Question 5 of 35 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding Odisha School of architecture: The main architectural features of Odisha temples are classified in three orders, i.e., Rekhapida, Pidhadeul and Khakra. The mandapa was known as Jagmohan. The interior walls were lavishly decorated with intricate carvings, but exterior walls were plain. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect The main architectural features of Odisha temples are classified in three orders, i.e., Rekhapida, Pidhadeul and Khakra. Most of the main temple sites are located in ancient Kalinga—modern Puri District, including Bhubaneswar or ancient Tribhuvanesvara, Puri and Konark. The temples of Odisha constitute a distinct sub-style within the nagara order. In general, here the shikhara, called Deul in Odisha, is vertical almost until the top when it suddenly curves sharply inwards. In general, the shikhara, called deul in Odisha, is vertical almost until the top when it suddenly curves sharply inwards. Deuls are preceded, as usual, by mandapas called jagamohana in Odisha. The ground plan of the main temple is almost always square, which, in the upper reaches of its superstructure, becomes circular in the crowning mastaka. The ground plan of the main temple is almost always square, which, in the upper reaches of its superstructure, becomes circular in the crowning Mastaka. This makes the spire nearly cylindrical in appearance in its length. The ground plan of the main temple is almost always square, which, in the upper reaches of its superstructure, becomes circular in the crowning mastaka.   Compartments and niches are generally square, the exterior of the temples are lavishly carved, their interiors generally quite bare. Odisha temples usually have boundary walls. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect The main architectural features of Odisha temples are classified in three orders, i.e., Rekhapida, Pidhadeul and Khakra. Most of the main temple sites are located in ancient Kalinga—modern Puri District, including Bhubaneswar or ancient Tribhuvanesvara, Puri and Konark. The temples of Odisha constitute a distinct sub-style within the nagara order. In general, here the shikhara, called Deul in Odisha, is vertical almost until the top when it suddenly curves sharply inwards. In general, the shikhara, called deul in Odisha, is vertical almost until the top when it suddenly curves sharply inwards. Deuls are preceded, as usual, by mandapas called jagamohana in Odisha. The ground plan of the main temple is almost always square, which, in the upper reaches of its superstructure, becomes circular in the crowning mastaka. The ground plan of the main temple is almost always square, which, in the upper reaches of its superstructure, becomes circular in the crowning Mastaka. This makes the spire nearly cylindrical in appearance in its length. The ground plan of the main temple is almost always square, which, in the upper reaches of its superstructure, becomes circular in the crowning mastaka.   Compartments and niches are generally square, the exterior of the temples are lavishly carved, their interiors generally quite bare. Odisha temples usually have boundary walls. Question 6 of 35 6. Question Who among the following authored ‘The Mattavilasa Prahasana’? a) Ravikirti b) Pulikesin II c) Mahendravarman I d) Rajendra Chola Correct Solution (c) The Mattavilasa Prahasana: Mattavilasa Prahasana, is a short one-act Sanskrit play. It is one of the two great one act plays written by Pallava King Mahendravarman I in the beginning of the seventh century in Tamil Nadu. Mattavilasa Prahasana is a satire that pokes fun at the peculiar aspects of the heretic Kapalika and Pasupata Saivite sects, Buddhists and Jainism. The setting of the play is Kanchipuram, the capital city of the Pallava kingdom in the seventh century. The play revolves around the drunken antics of a Kapalika mendicant, Satyasoma, his woman, Devasoma, and the loss and recovery of their skull-bowl. The act describes a dispute between a drunken Kapali and the Buddhist monk. The inebriated Kapali suspects the Buddhist monk of stealing his begging bowl made from a skull, but after a drawn-out argument it is found to have been taken away by a dog. Incorrect Solution (c) The Mattavilasa Prahasana: Mattavilasa Prahasana, is a short one-act Sanskrit play. It is one of the two great one act plays written by Pallava King Mahendravarman I in the beginning of the seventh century in Tamil Nadu. Mattavilasa Prahasana is a satire that pokes fun at the peculiar aspects of the heretic Kapalika and Pasupata Saivite sects, Buddhists and Jainism. The setting of the play is Kanchipuram, the capital city of the Pallava kingdom in the seventh century. The play revolves around the drunken antics of a Kapalika mendicant, Satyasoma, his woman, Devasoma, and the loss and recovery of their skull-bowl. The act describes a dispute between a drunken Kapali and the Buddhist monk. The inebriated Kapali suspects the Buddhist monk of stealing his begging bowl made from a skull, but after a drawn-out argument it is found to have been taken away by a dog. Question 7 of 35 7. Question With reference to the cultural history of the Chola Empire, consider the following pairs: Term Description Tirumurai Writings of the Saivite saints Variyam Village committees for local governance Valangai Type of caste division in Tamil land   How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? a) One pair only b) Two pairs only c) None of the above pairs d) All of the above pairs Correct Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct A number of popular saints, called the Nayanmars and the Alvars, who were the devotees of Siva and Vishnu, respectively, flourished in the Tamil kingdoms between the sixth and the ninth centuries. They composed their works in Tamil. The writings of the Saivite saints, which were collected into 11 volumes under the name Tirumurai in the early part of the twelfth century, are considered sacred and are looked upon as the fifth Veda. Village committees under the Chola rule were called as Variyam. They were divided into 6 types, such as Samvatsara Variyam, Eri Variyam, Thotta Variyam, Pancha Variyam, Pon Variyam and Puravuvari Variyam, to take up 6 different functions of the village administration. The committee members were called the Variyapperumakkal. The inscriptions of the later period of the Chola rule mention two major divisions among the castes – Valangai and Idangai castes. However, there was cooperation among various castes and subcastes in the social and religious life. Incorrect Solution (d) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct A number of popular saints, called the Nayanmars and the Alvars, who were the devotees of Siva and Vishnu, respectively, flourished in the Tamil kingdoms between the sixth and the ninth centuries. They composed their works in Tamil. The writings of the Saivite saints, which were collected into 11 volumes under the name Tirumurai in the early part of the twelfth century, are considered sacred and are looked upon as the fifth Veda. Village committees under the Chola rule were called as Variyam. They were divided into 6 types, such as Samvatsara Variyam, Eri Variyam, Thotta Variyam, Pancha Variyam, Pon Variyam and Puravuvari Variyam, to take up 6 different functions of the village administration. The committee members were called the Variyapperumakkal. The inscriptions of the later period of the Chola rule mention two major divisions among the castes – Valangai and Idangai castes. However, there was cooperation among various castes and subcastes in the social and religious life. Question 8 of 35 8. Question Consider the following statements regarding Ajanta: Ajanta is the only surviving example of painting of the first century BCE and the fifth century CE. Shrine images at Ajanta are grand in size. Vakataka kingdom were the important patrons at Ajanta. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The most famous cave site Ajanta is located in Aurangabad District of Maharashtra State. It has large chaitya-viharas and is decorated with sculptures and paintings. Ajanta is the only surviving example of painting of the first century BCE and the fifth century CE. The caves at Ajanta as well as in western Deccan in general have no precise chronology because of the lack of known dated inscriptions. Paintings have a lot of typological variations. Outward projections are used in the Ajanta paintings of the fifth century CE. Shrine images at Ajanta are grand in size. Lines are clearly defined and are very rhythmic. Body color gets merged with the outer line creating the effect of volume. The figures are heavy like the sculptures of western India. Among the important patrons at Ajanta were Varahadeva (patron of Cave No. 16), the prime minister of the Vakataka king, Harishena; Upendragupta (patron of Cave Nos. 17–20) the local king of the region and feudatory of the Vakataka king, Harishena; Buddhabhadra (patron of Cave No. 26); and Mathuradasa (patron of Cave No. 4). Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The most famous cave site Ajanta is located in Aurangabad District of Maharashtra State. It has large chaitya-viharas and is decorated with sculptures and paintings. Ajanta is the only surviving example of painting of the first century BCE and the fifth century CE. The caves at Ajanta as well as in western Deccan in general have no precise chronology because of the lack of known dated inscriptions. Paintings have a lot of typological variations. Outward projections are used in the Ajanta paintings of the fifth century CE. Shrine images at Ajanta are grand in size. Lines are clearly defined and are very rhythmic. Body color gets merged with the outer line creating the effect of volume. The figures are heavy like the sculptures of western India. Among the important patrons at Ajanta were Varahadeva (patron of Cave No. 16), the prime minister of the Vakataka king, Harishena; Upendragupta (patron of Cave Nos. 17–20) the local king of the region and feudatory of the Vakataka king, Harishena; Buddhabhadra (patron of Cave No. 26); and Mathuradasa (patron of Cave No. 4). Question 9 of 35 9. Question Consider the following statements regarding Kalinga school of temple architecture: Large gopurams and water tanks are present in temple premises. It is characterized by ‘mandaps’ or dance pavilions. It is a sub-style of Dravidian style of temple architecture. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Gopurams and Large water tanks in temple premises are features of Dravidian style of temple architecture. In this, Shikhara (called Deul in Odisha) is almost vertical before it curves near the top. Shikhara is preceded by a mandapa (called Jagmohan or ‘dance pavilion’ in Odisha).   Kaḷinga architectural style is a sub-style of Nagara architecture, flourished in the ancient Kalinga region – present state of Odisha, West Bengal and northern Andhra Pradesh. The style consists of three distinct types of temples: Rekha Deula, Pidha Deula and Khakhara Deula. The Rekha Deula and Khakhara Deula house the sanctum sanctorum, while the Pidha Deula constitutes outer dancing and offering halls. Examples of Kalinga architecture are Rajarani temple (Bhubaneshwar); Jagannath Temple, Puri. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Gopurams and Large water tanks in temple premises are features of Dravidian style of temple architecture. In this, Shikhara (called Deul in Odisha) is almost vertical before it curves near the top. Shikhara is preceded by a mandapa (called Jagmohan or ‘dance pavilion’ in Odisha).   Kaḷinga architectural style is a sub-style of Nagara architecture, flourished in the ancient Kalinga region – present state of Odisha, West Bengal and northern Andhra Pradesh. The style consists of three distinct types of temples: Rekha Deula, Pidha Deula and Khakhara Deula. The Rekha Deula and Khakhara Deula house the sanctum sanctorum, while the Pidha Deula constitutes outer dancing and offering halls. Examples of Kalinga architecture are Rajarani temple (Bhubaneshwar); Jagannath Temple, Puri. Question 10 of 35 10. Question Which of the temple architecture styles are easily distinguishable from other medieval temples by their highly original star-like ground-plans and a profusion of decorative carvings? a) Vijayanagara temples b) Pallavas temples c) Chalukyan temples d) Hoysala temples Correct Solution (d) Hoysala temples: The Hoysaleswara temple (Lord of the Hoysalas) at Halebid in Karnataka was built in dark schist stone by the Hoysala king in 1150. Hoysala temples are sometimes called hybrid or Vesara as their unique style seems neither completely Dravida nor nagara, but somewhere in between. They are easily distinguishable from other medieval temples by their highly original star-like ground-plans and a profusion of decorative carvings. Dedicated to Shiva as Nataraja, the Halebid temple is a double building with a large hall for the mandapa to facilitate music and dance. A Nandi pavilion precedes each building. The tower of the temple here and at nearby Belur fell long ago, and an idea of the temples’ appearance can now only be gleaned from their detailed miniature versions flanking the entrances. From the central square plan cut-out angular projections create the star effect decorated with the most profuse carvings of animals and deities. So intricate is the carving that it is said, for instance, in the bottom-most frieze featuring a continuous procession of hundreds of elephants with their mahouts, no two elephants are in the same pose. Incorrect Solution (d) Hoysala temples: The Hoysaleswara temple (Lord of the Hoysalas) at Halebid in Karnataka was built in dark schist stone by the Hoysala king in 1150. Hoysala temples are sometimes called hybrid or Vesara as their unique style seems neither completely Dravida nor nagara, but somewhere in between. They are easily distinguishable from other medieval temples by their highly original star-like ground-plans and a profusion of decorative carvings. Dedicated to Shiva as Nataraja, the Halebid temple is a double building with a large hall for the mandapa to facilitate music and dance. A Nandi pavilion precedes each building. The tower of the temple here and at nearby Belur fell long ago, and an idea of the temples’ appearance can now only be gleaned from their detailed miniature versions flanking the entrances. From the central square plan cut-out angular projections create the star effect decorated with the most profuse carvings of animals and deities. So intricate is the carving that it is said, for instance, in the bottom-most frieze featuring a continuous procession of hundreds of elephants with their mahouts, no two elephants are in the same pose. Question 11 of 35 11. Question Which of the following elements are associated with the Dravida style of temples? Water tank Multiple Shikharas Pyramidal Vimana River goddesses at the entrance of the Garbhagriha Tall gateways Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 1, 2 and 3 only c) 1, 3 and 5 only d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Statement 5 Correct Incorrect Correct Incorrect Correct It is common to find a large water reservoir, or a temple tank, enclosed within the complex. The north Indian idea of multiple Shikharas rising together as a cluster was not popular in south India. Stepped pyramid shaped Shikhara, which rises up geometrically. At the entrance to the north Indian temple’s Garbhagriha, it would be usual to find images, such as the Mithunas and the river goddesses, Ganga and Yamuna, whereas in the south you will generally find sculptures of the fierce Dwarapala or the door-keepers guarding the temple. Dravida temples are enclosed within a compound wall. The enclosure wall has a tall entrance gateway, called the Gopuram. There can be multiple Gopurams also. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Statement 5 Correct Incorrect Correct Incorrect Correct It is common to find a large water reservoir, or a temple tank, enclosed within the complex. The north Indian idea of multiple Shikharas rising together as a cluster was not popular in south India. Stepped pyramid shaped Shikhara, which rises up geometrically. At the entrance to the north Indian temple’s Garbhagriha, it would be usual to find images, such as the Mithunas and the river goddesses, Ganga and Yamuna, whereas in the south you will generally find sculptures of the fierce Dwarapala or the door-keepers guarding the temple. Dravida temples are enclosed within a compound wall. The enclosure wall has a tall entrance gateway, called the Gopuram. There can be multiple Gopurams also. Question 12 of 35 12. Question Consider the following statements about the Pala School of Architecture They built temples in the vanga style. As they were patrons of Vajrayana Buddhism only Buddhist art was encouraged. The Siddheswara Mahadeva temple in West Bengal is one of the examples of the Pala style of architecture. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct In the Pala School of Architecture, temples were built in the vanga style. These included Mahavihar, Chaityas, Temples, Terracottas, and Stupas. As they were patrons of Vajrayana Buddhism, Buddhist art was encouraged but they were tolerant towards Hindus and encouraged temple architecture too. The Siddheswara Mahadeva temple in West Bengal is one of the examples of the Pala style of architecture. The curved Shikhara and lancet window of the brick-built medieval Siva temple in Bihar was built by Narayan pala. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct In the Pala School of Architecture, temples were built in the vanga style. These included Mahavihar, Chaityas, Temples, Terracottas, and Stupas. As they were patrons of Vajrayana Buddhism, Buddhist art was encouraged but they were tolerant towards Hindus and encouraged temple architecture too. The Siddheswara Mahadeva temple in West Bengal is one of the examples of the Pala style of architecture. The curved Shikhara and lancet window of the brick-built medieval Siva temple in Bihar was built by Narayan pala. Question 13 of 35 13. Question Consider the following statements Provida style of architecture had exquisitely carved pillars and massive solid granite rathas with exceptional carvings and murals on walls. Provida style of architecture was found during the reign of the Cholas. Ekambarnatha temple at Kanchipuram is one of the finest examples of Provida style of architecture. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Provida style of architecture had exquisitely carved pillars and massive solid granite rathas with exceptional carvings and murals on walls. It had a depiction of animals like horses and elephants on the walls. Provida style of architecture was found during the reign of the Vijayanagara Empire.   Ekambarnatha temple at Kanchipuram and Vithalswami and Hazara temples at Hampi are examples of Provida style of architecture. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Provida style of architecture had exquisitely carved pillars and massive solid granite rathas with exceptional carvings and murals on walls. It had a depiction of animals like horses and elephants on the walls. Provida style of architecture was found during the reign of the Vijayanagara Empire.   Ekambarnatha temple at Kanchipuram and Vithalswami and Hazara temples at Hampi are examples of Provida style of architecture. Question 14 of 35 14. Question Consider the following Unao Kumbakonam Arasavalli Which of the above places are famous for Sun Temples in India? a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution (d) The famous Sun Temples in India are – Sun Temple at Konark, Odisha Martand Sun temple, Kashmir Katarmal Sun Temple, Uttarakhand Dakshinarkaa temple Gaya, Bihar Bhramanya temple, Unao, Madhya Pradesh Surya Prahaar temple, Assam Suryanar Kovil Temple at Kumbakonam in Tamil Nadu Suryanarayana temple at Arasavalli, Andhra Pradesh Incorrect Solution (d) The famous Sun Temples in India are – Sun Temple at Konark, Odisha Martand Sun temple, Kashmir Katarmal Sun Temple, Uttarakhand Dakshinarkaa temple Gaya, Bihar Bhramanya temple, Unao, Madhya Pradesh Surya Prahaar temple, Assam Suryanar Kovil Temple at Kumbakonam in Tamil Nadu Suryanarayana temple at Arasavalli, Andhra Pradesh Question 15 of 35 15. Question Consider the following statements about the Panch Rathas temples They are classified as the Mahendra group of Chola architecture. The Dharmaraja ratha is the largest structure among the five rathas. They are designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984. The structures have no link to the iconic characters of the Mahabharata epic How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Correct Correct Correct Pancha Rathas is a monument complex at Mahabalipuram, on the Coromandel Coast of the Bay of Bengal, in the Kancheepuram district of the state of Tamil Nadu, India. Pancha Rathas is an example of monolithic Indian rock-cut architecture. The complex was initially thought to have carved during the reign of King Narasimhavarman I (630–668 CE.) However, historians such as Nagaswamy attributed all of monuments in Mahabalipuram to Narasimhavarman II (c. 690–725 CE) with the discovery of new inscriptions. The Dharmaraja ratha is the largest structure among the five rathas.   They are designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984. The monoliths are named after the Pandavas – Arjuna, Bhima, Yudhishthira (“Dharmaraja”), Nakula and Sahadeva – and Draupadi. These names are considered to be a misrepresentation as the structures have no link to the iconic characters of the Mahabharata epic. They have no religious significance either, as they remained unfinished and unconsecrated; the uncut rock parts at the base and top of the rathas are still visible. The ASI confirmed the unfinished nature of the structures and suggested that they instead be referred to as vimanas. However, the Pandava names have become permanent. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Correct Correct Correct Pancha Rathas is a monument complex at Mahabalipuram, on the Coromandel Coast of the Bay of Bengal, in the Kancheepuram district of the state of Tamil Nadu, India. Pancha Rathas is an example of monolithic Indian rock-cut architecture. The complex was initially thought to have carved during the reign of King Narasimhavarman I (630–668 CE.) However, historians such as Nagaswamy attributed all of monuments in Mahabalipuram to Narasimhavarman II (c. 690–725 CE) with the discovery of new inscriptions. The Dharmaraja ratha is the largest structure among the five rathas.   They are designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984. The monoliths are named after the Pandavas – Arjuna, Bhima, Yudhishthira (“Dharmaraja”), Nakula and Sahadeva – and Draupadi. These names are considered to be a misrepresentation as the structures have no link to the iconic characters of the Mahabharata epic. They have no religious significance either, as they remained unfinished and unconsecrated; the uncut rock parts at the base and top of the rathas are still visible. The ASI confirmed the unfinished nature of the structures and suggested that they instead be referred to as vimanas. However, the Pandava names have become permanent. Question 16 of 35 16. Question Regarding Indian Classical Music, consider the following statements Raga is the basis of rhythm and Tala is the basis of melody. A Raga is a series of five or more notes which are classified according to the time of day. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Raga is the basis of melody and Tala is the basis of rhythm. The term ‘raga’ is derived from the Sanskrit word ‘Ranj,’ which means to delight, make happy, and satisfy someone. The ragas serve as the foundation for the melody, while the tala serves as the foundation for the rhythm. A Raga is a series of five or more notes which are classified according to the time of day. Each raga’s melodic structure has something in common with the subject’s distinct personality and the mood evoked by the sounds. The basic elements required for the operation of a raga is the note on which it is based. A Raga is a series of five or more notes which are classified according to the time of day. Ex: Hindol Raga is used during the morning. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Raga is the basis of melody and Tala is the basis of rhythm. The term ‘raga’ is derived from the Sanskrit word ‘Ranj,’ which means to delight, make happy, and satisfy someone. The ragas serve as the foundation for the melody, while the tala serves as the foundation for the rhythm. A Raga is a series of five or more notes which are classified according to the time of day. Each raga’s melodic structure has something in common with the subject’s distinct personality and the mood evoked by the sounds. The basic elements required for the operation of a raga is the note on which it is based. A Raga is a series of five or more notes which are classified according to the time of day. Ex: Hindol Raga is used during the morning. Question 17 of 35 17. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Buddhist text ‘Digha Nikaya’ It is a part of Sutta Pitaka. It was written in the Pali language which mentions the theory of the origin of Kingship. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct ‘Digha Nikaya’ is a part of Sutta Pitaka. It is a Buddhist scripture, the first of the five nikayas, or collections, in the Sutta Pitaka.   It was written in the Pali language which mentions the theory of the origin of Kingship. It points out that in the earliest stage, human beings lived happily. Gradually they began to own private property and set up houses with their wives, and this led to quarrels over property and women. To put an end to such quarrels, they elected a chief who would maintain law and order and protect the people. In return for protection, the people promised to give the chief a part of the paddy. The chief came to be called king, and that is how kingship or the state originated. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct ‘Digha Nikaya’ is a part of Sutta Pitaka. It is a Buddhist scripture, the first of the five nikayas, or collections, in the Sutta Pitaka.   It was written in the Pali language which mentions the theory of the origin of Kingship. It points out that in the earliest stage, human beings lived happily. Gradually they began to own private property and set up houses with their wives, and this led to quarrels over property and women. To put an end to such quarrels, they elected a chief who would maintain law and order and protect the people. In return for protection, the people promised to give the chief a part of the paddy. The chief came to be called king, and that is how kingship or the state originated. Question 18 of 35 18. Question Consider the following statements Aitareya Brahmana which is the first reference to the origin of kingship is a part of Samaveda. Gayatri Mantra is a part of Rigveda which is composed by Vishwamitra and dedicated to God Savitr. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Aitareya Brahmana which is the first reference to the origin of kingship is a part of Rigveda.   Gayatri Mantra is a part of Rigveda which is composed by Vishwamitra and dedicated to God Savitr. It is present in the 3rd Mandala. Rigveda is the oldest among the four Vedas and is arranged in 10 mandalas. The first mandala of Rigveda is dedicated to Indra and Agni. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Aitareya Brahmana which is the first reference to the origin of kingship is a part of Rigveda.   Gayatri Mantra is a part of Rigveda which is composed by Vishwamitra and dedicated to God Savitr. It is present in the 3rd Mandala. Rigveda is the oldest among the four Vedas and is arranged in 10 mandalas. The first mandala of Rigveda is dedicated to Indra and Agni. Question 19 of 35 19. Question Consider the following statements about ‘Amuktamalyada’ It is a Telugu epic poem composed by the Vijayanagara Emperor Krishnadevaraya. It describes the story of the wedding of the Hindu Lord Ranganayaka, an avatar of Vishnu, and Goda Devi or Andal, the Tamil Alvar poet at Srirangam. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Amuktamalyada is a Telugu epic poem composed by the Vijayanagara Emperor Krishnadevaraya. It was composed in the early 16th century. It describes the story of the wedding of the Hindu Lord Ranganayaka, an avatar of Vishnu, and Goda Devi or Andal, the Tamil Alvar poet at Srirangam. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Amuktamalyada is a Telugu epic poem composed by the Vijayanagara Emperor Krishnadevaraya. It was composed in the early 16th century. It describes the story of the wedding of the Hindu Lord Ranganayaka, an avatar of Vishnu, and Goda Devi or Andal, the Tamil Alvar poet at Srirangam. Question 20 of 35 20. Question Consider the following statements Natyashastra is a ancient treatise which covers only Indian music and is written by the sage Bharata Sangeeta-Ratnakara of Sarangadeva is regarded as the definitive text by both the Hindustani music and the Carnatic music traditions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Natyashastra is a treatise on ancient Indian music, dance, and drama written by the sage Bharata around the 2nd century BCE. It is considered one of the oldest surviving texts in the world on performing arts. Natyashastra is considered one of the oldest surviving texts in the world on performing arts and has 36 chapters The 13th century Sanskrit text Sangeeta-Ratnakara of Sarangadeva is regarded as the definitive text by both the Hindustani music and the Carnatic music traditions..   Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Natyashastra is a treatise on ancient Indian music, dance, and drama written by the sage Bharata around the 2nd century BCE. It is considered one of the oldest surviving texts in the world on performing arts. Natyashastra is considered one of the oldest surviving texts in the world on performing arts and has 36 chapters The 13th century Sanskrit text Sangeeta-Ratnakara of Sarangadeva is regarded as the definitive text by both the Hindustani music and the Carnatic music traditions..   Question 21 of 35 21. Question Consider the following statements regarding the National Green Tribunal (NGT): It is a statutory body established under the Environment Protection Act of 1986. Its chairperson is appointed by the central government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India (CJI). An appeal against the decision of the NGT lies to the Supreme Court, generally within ninety days from the date of communication. It deals with civil cases under the Public Liability Insurance Act of 1991 and the Forest (Conservation) Act of 1980. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a statutory body established under the National Green Tribunal Act of 2010. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is set up for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources. It has jurisdiction over all civil cases involving substantial questions relating to the environment (including enforcement of any legal right relating to the environment). Its chairperson is appointed by the central government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India (CJI). Hence statement 2 is correct. It comprises the Chairperson, the Judicial Members, and the Expert Members. They shall hold office for a term of three years or till the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier, and are not eligible for reappointment. It is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure 1908 but shall be guided by principles of natural justice. An appeal against the decision of the NGT lies to the Supreme Court, generally within ninety days from the date of communication. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is mandated to make disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of the filing of the same. The NGT has five places of sitting, New Delhi is the principal place of sitting, and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata, and Chennai are the other four. It deals with civil cases under the seven laws – Public Liability Insurance Act of 1991, the Forest (Conservation) Act of 1980, the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act of 1974, the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act of 1977, the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act of 1981, the Environment (Protection) Act of 1986, and the Biological Diversity Act of 2002. Hence statement 4 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a statutory body established under the National Green Tribunal Act of 2010. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is set up for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources. It has jurisdiction over all civil cases involving substantial questions relating to the environment (including enforcement of any legal right relating to the environment). Its chairperson is appointed by the central government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India (CJI). Hence statement 2 is correct. It comprises the Chairperson, the Judicial Members, and the Expert Members. They shall hold office for a term of three years or till the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier, and are not eligible for reappointment. It is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure 1908 but shall be guided by principles of natural justice. An appeal against the decision of the NGT lies to the Supreme Court, generally within ninety days from the date of communication. Hence statement 3 is correct. It is mandated to make disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of the filing of the same. The NGT has five places of sitting, New Delhi is the principal place of sitting, and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata, and Chennai are the other four. It deals with civil cases under the seven laws – Public Liability Insurance Act of 1991, the Forest (Conservation) Act of 1980, the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act of 1974, the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act of 1977, the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act of 1981, the Environment (Protection) Act of 1986, and the Biological Diversity Act of 2002. Hence statement 4 is correct. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements: A vote-on-account deals only with the expenditure side of the government’s budget. A vote-on-account is passed by the Lok Sabha without discussion and is normally valid for two months. A vote-on-account cannot alter direct taxes since they need to be passed through a finance bill. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Vote-On-Account is a parliamentary approval for withdrawing money from the Consolidated Fund of India from April to June/July or until the new Government presents its full-fledged budget. It can be termed an advance grant, interim arrangement, and authorization for the outgoing government to draw the money from the above-said fund and meet short-term expenditures. A vote-on-account deals only with the expenditure side of the government’s budget. Hence statement 1 is correct. The Parliament passes a Vote-on-account to meet essential expenditures such as salaries of central government staff, funding of ongoing projects, and other government expenditures. A vote-on-account is passed by the Lok Sabha without discussion and is normally valid for two months. Hence statement 2 is correct. During election year or when it is anticipated that the main Demands and Appropriation Bill will take longer time than two months, the Vote on Account may be granted for a period exceeding two months. A vote-on-account cannot alter direct taxes since they need to be passed through a finance bill. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) Vote-On-Account is a parliamentary approval for withdrawing money from the Consolidated Fund of India from April to June/July or until the new Government presents its full-fledged budget. It can be termed an advance grant, interim arrangement, and authorization for the outgoing government to draw the money from the above-said fund and meet short-term expenditures. A vote-on-account deals only with the expenditure side of the government’s budget. Hence statement 1 is correct. The Parliament passes a Vote-on-account to meet essential expenditures such as salaries of central government staff, funding of ongoing projects, and other government expenditures. A vote-on-account is passed by the Lok Sabha without discussion and is normally valid for two months. Hence statement 2 is correct. During election year or when it is anticipated that the main Demands and Appropriation Bill will take longer time than two months, the Vote on Account may be granted for a period exceeding two months. A vote-on-account cannot alter direct taxes since they need to be passed through a finance bill. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 23 of 35 23. Question Which of the following are the criteria evolved by the Government of India to determine the declaration of a language as a Classical language? High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 150-200 years. A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers. The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Criteria evolved by the Government of India to determine the declaration of a language as a Classical language: High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers. Hence statement 2 is correct. The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community. Hence statement 3 is correct. The benefits it provides once a language is notified as a Classical language: Two major annual international awards for scholars of eminence in classical Indian languages. A Centre of Excellence for Studies in Classical Languages is set up. The University Grants Commission is requested to create, to start with at least in the Central Universities, a certain number of Professional Chairs for the Classical Languages so declared. Note: Currently, six languages enjoy the ‘Classical’ status: Tamil (declared in 2004), Sanskrit (2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014). Incorrect Solution (b) Criteria evolved by the Government of India to determine the declaration of a language as a Classical language: High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers. Hence statement 2 is correct. The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community. Hence statement 3 is correct. The benefits it provides once a language is notified as a Classical language: Two major annual international awards for scholars of eminence in classical Indian languages. A Centre of Excellence for Studies in Classical Languages is set up. The University Grants Commission is requested to create, to start with at least in the Central Universities, a certain number of Professional Chairs for the Classical Languages so declared. Note: Currently, six languages enjoy the ‘Classical’ status: Tamil (declared in 2004), Sanskrit (2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014). Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements about the Tibetan Brown Bear: It is found in Tibet, China, Nepal, and Bhutan. It inhabits alpine forests, meadows, and steppes, close to the tree line. Its sense of smell is much more acute than its hearing and sight. It is listed as critically endangered on the IUCN Red List. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (c) Context: A rare and elusive bear, the Tibetan brown bear, has been recently sighted in Sikkim, making it the first confirmed record of the animal being sighted in India.   The Tibetan Brown Bear is found in Tibet, China, Nepal, and Bhutan. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is also known as the Tibetan blue bear, is one of the rarest subspecies of bears in the world and is rarely sighted in the wild. It inhabits alpine forests, meadows, and steppes, close to the tree line. Hence statement 2 is correct. They are solitary, but the territories between two Himalayan brown bears have been seen to overlap. They are one of the most terrestrial of the bears. It feeds on marmots and alpine vegetation. Its sense of smell is much more acute than its hearing and sight. Hence statement 3 is correct. It has shaggy, dark brown to black fur, a cream-to-cinnamon face, and a white collar that broadens from the shoulders to the chest. It has small ears covered with long black fur. It has a lifespan of around 20 to 30 years. It is listed as least concern on the IUCN Red List. Hence statement 4 is incorrect. It is protected under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 and Appendix I of the CITES. Incorrect Solution (c) Context: A rare and elusive bear, the Tibetan brown bear, has been recently sighted in Sikkim, making it the first confirmed record of the animal being sighted in India.   The Tibetan Brown Bear is found in Tibet, China, Nepal, and Bhutan. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is also known as the Tibetan blue bear, is one of the rarest subspecies of bears in the world and is rarely sighted in the wild. It inhabits alpine forests, meadows, and steppes, close to the tree line. Hence statement 2 is correct. They are solitary, but the territories between two Himalayan brown bears have been seen to overlap. They are one of the most terrestrial of the bears. It feeds on marmots and alpine vegetation. Its sense of smell is much more acute than its hearing and sight. Hence statement 3 is correct. It has shaggy, dark brown to black fur, a cream-to-cinnamon face, and a white collar that broadens from the shoulders to the chest. It has small ears covered with long black fur. It has a lifespan of around 20 to 30 years. It is listed as least concern on the IUCN Red List. Hence statement 4 is incorrect. It is protected under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 and Appendix I of the CITES. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Consider the following statements regarding the FASTags: It is a device that employs Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology for making toll payments directly from the customer’s linked prepaid or savings/current account. It can be purchased from any of the National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC) Member Banks. It is not vehicle-specific and it can be transferred from one vehicle to another vehicle. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The FASTags is a device that employs Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology for making toll payments directly from the customer’s linked prepaid or savings/current account. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is affixed on the windscreen of the vehicle and enables the customer to drive through toll plazas, without stopping for any toll payments. The toll fare is directly deducted from the linked account of the customer. It can be purchased from any of the National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC) Member Banks. Hence statement 2 is correct. If a FASTag is linked to the prepaid account, then it needs to be recharged/topped up as per the usage of the customer. It is vehicle-specific and once it is affixed to a vehicle, it cannot be transferred to another vehicle. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (b) The FASTags is a device that employs Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology for making toll payments directly from the customer’s linked prepaid or savings/current account. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is affixed on the windscreen of the vehicle and enables the customer to drive through toll plazas, without stopping for any toll payments. The toll fare is directly deducted from the linked account of the customer. It can be purchased from any of the National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC) Member Banks. Hence statement 2 is correct. If a FASTag is linked to the prepaid account, then it needs to be recharged/topped up as per the usage of the customer. It is vehicle-specific and once it is affixed to a vehicle, it cannot be transferred to another vehicle. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Question 26 of 35 26. Question Consider the following statements about the Bhitarkanika National Park: It is the largest mangrove ecosystem in India located in the state of Odisha. It is situated on a delta formed by rivers, namely Brahmani, Baitarani, and Dhamra. Gahirmatha Beach forms the boundary of the park in the east and is the largest colony of Olive Ridley Sea Turtles. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Bhitarkanika National Park is the second-largest mangrove ecosystem in India after Sunderbans, located in the state of Odisha. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It houses various species of mangroves spread across its forest region, marshy lands, creeks, etc. It is situated on a delta formed by rivers, namely Brahmani, Baitarani, and Dhamra. Hence statement 2 is correct. Gahirmatha Beach forms the boundary of the park in the east and is the largest colony of Olive Ridley Sea Turtles. Hence statement 3 is correct. Bhitarkanika has one of the largest populations of endangered saltwater crocodiles in India. Incorrect Solution (b) The Bhitarkanika National Park is the second-largest mangrove ecosystem in India after Sunderbans, located in the state of Odisha. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It houses various species of mangroves spread across its forest region, marshy lands, creeks, etc. It is situated on a delta formed by rivers, namely Brahmani, Baitarani, and Dhamra. Hence statement 2 is correct. Gahirmatha Beach forms the boundary of the park in the east and is the largest colony of Olive Ridley Sea Turtles. Hence statement 3 is correct. Bhitarkanika has one of the largest populations of endangered saltwater crocodiles in India. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements about the Panama Canal: It is a natural waterway that connects the Atlantic Ocean with the Pacific Ocean. It was built by the United States and is owned and administered by the United States. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (d) The Panama Canal is an artificial waterway that connects the Atlantic Ocean with the Pacific Ocean. It is approximately 80 kilometers long. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is one of the two most strategic artificial waterways in the world, the other being the Suez Canal. The canal was built by the United Statesbetween 1904 and 1914, and it was officially opened on August 15, 1914. It is owned and administered by the Republic of Panamasince the oversight of the Canal was transferred from the United States to Panama in 1999. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Incorrect Solution (d) The Panama Canal is an artificial waterway that connects the Atlantic Ocean with the Pacific Ocean. It is approximately 80 kilometers long. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is one of the two most strategic artificial waterways in the world, the other being the Suez Canal. The canal was built by the United Statesbetween 1904 and 1914, and it was officially opened on August 15, 1914. It is owned and administered by the Republic of Panamasince the oversight of the Canal was transferred from the United States to Panama in 1999. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Question 28 of 35 28. Question Consider the following statements: Paramyrothecium indicum is a new species of phytopathogenic bacteria. Phytopathogen fungi are responsible for serious plant diseases which might negatively affect crop productivity. Fungi include the yeasts, rusts, smuts, mildews, molds, and mushrooms. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Paramyrothecium indicum is a new species of phytopathogenic fungus. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Most of Paramyrothecium are phytopathogens. Phytopathogen fungi are responsible for serious plant diseases which might negatively affect crop productivity. Hence statement 2 is correct. Paramyrothecium leaf spots are a type of fungal disease that can affect a variety of plants. Fungi include the yeasts, rusts, smuts, mildews, molds, and mushrooms. Hence statement 3 is correct. They are eukaryotic organisms, i.e., their cells contain membrane-bound organelles and clearly defined nuclei. Fungi usually reproduce both sexually and asexually. Incorrect Solution (b) Paramyrothecium indicum is a new species of phytopathogenic fungus. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Most of Paramyrothecium are phytopathogens. Phytopathogen fungi are responsible for serious plant diseases which might negatively affect crop productivity. Hence statement 2 is correct. Paramyrothecium leaf spots are a type of fungal disease that can affect a variety of plants. Fungi include the yeasts, rusts, smuts, mildews, molds, and mushrooms. Hence statement 3 is correct. They are eukaryotic organisms, i.e., their cells contain membrane-bound organelles and clearly defined nuclei. Fungi usually reproduce both sexually and asexually. Question 29 of 35 29. Question Consider the following statements about Guru Gobind Singh: He founded the Sikh warrior community called Khalsa in 1699. He was engaged in the Battle of Bhangani and the Battle of Anandpur. His famous literary works are Jaap Sahib and the Tav-Prasad Savaiye. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Guru Gobind Singh founded the Sikh warrior community called Khalsa in 1699. Hence statement 1 is correct. He introduced the Five Ks, the five articles of faith that Khalsa Sikhs wear at all times. These are Kesh: uncut hair, Kangha: a wooden comb, Kara: an iron or steel bracelet worn on the wrist, Kirpan: a sword, and Kacchera: short breeches. He was the 10th and last human Guru of the Sikhs. Born as Gobind Rai on December 22, 1666, in Patna, Bihar, Guru Gobind Singh was the son of the ninth Guru of Sikhism, Guru Teg Bahadur. He became the spiritual and temporal leader of the Sikhs on November 11, 1675, at the age of nine, following the martyrdom of his father, Guru Tegh Bahadur, at the hands of the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb in 1675. He was engaged in the Battle of Bhangani, the Battle of Nadaun, the Battle of Anandpur, the Battle of Chamkaur, the Battle of Muktsar, and the Battle of Khidrana. Hence statement 2 is correct. His birth anniversary is called Guru Gobind Singh Jayanti, and his death anniversary is called Guru Gaddi Diwas. His famous literary works are the Benti Chaupai, Jaap Sahib, and the Tav-Prasad Savaiye. Hence statement 3 is correct. He further codified Sikh law, wrote martial poetry and music, and was the reputed author of the Sikh work called the Dasam Granth (“Tenth Volume”). Incorrect Solution (c) Guru Gobind Singh founded the Sikh warrior community called Khalsa in 1699. Hence statement 1 is correct. He introduced the Five Ks, the five articles of faith that Khalsa Sikhs wear at all times. These are Kesh: uncut hair, Kangha: a wooden comb, Kara: an iron or steel bracelet worn on the wrist, Kirpan: a sword, and Kacchera: short breeches. He was the 10th and last human Guru of the Sikhs. Born as Gobind Rai on December 22, 1666, in Patna, Bihar, Guru Gobind Singh was the son of the ninth Guru of Sikhism, Guru Teg Bahadur. He became the spiritual and temporal leader of the Sikhs on November 11, 1675, at the age of nine, following the martyrdom of his father, Guru Tegh Bahadur, at the hands of the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb in 1675. He was engaged in the Battle of Bhangani, the Battle of Nadaun, the Battle of Anandpur, the Battle of Chamkaur, the Battle of Muktsar, and the Battle of Khidrana. Hence statement 2 is correct. His birth anniversary is called Guru Gobind Singh Jayanti, and his death anniversary is called Guru Gaddi Diwas. His famous literary works are the Benti Chaupai, Jaap Sahib, and the Tav-Prasad Savaiye. Hence statement 3 is correct. He further codified Sikh law, wrote martial poetry and music, and was the reputed author of the Sikh work called the Dasam Granth (“Tenth Volume”). Question 30 of 35 30. Question Consider the following statements about the Jagannath Temple: It is dedicated to Lord Jagannath, a form of the Hindu deity Vishnu. It is called ‘Yamanika Tirtha’ and is built in the style of Kalinga architecture. Ratha Yatra is a Hindu festival associated with Lord Jagannath held at Puri in Odisha. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) The Jagannath Temple is dedicated to Lord Jagannath, a form of the Hindu deity Vishnu. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is located in Puri, Odisha. It is believed to have been built during the reign of King Anantavarman Chodaganga Deva, of the Eastern Ganga dynasty, in the 12th century. It is called ‘Yamanika Tirtha’ and is built in the style of Kalinga architecture. It is called ‘Yamanika Tirtha’ where, according to Hindu beliefs, the power of ‘Yama’, the god of death, has been nullified in Puri due to the presence of Lord Jagannath. Kaḷinga architecture is a style that flourished in the ancient Kalinga previously known as Utkal and in the present-day eastern Indian state of Odisha. The style consists of three distinct types of temples – Rekha Deula, Pidha Deula, and Khakhara Deula. Hence statement 2 is correct. Ratha Yatra is a Hindu festival associated with Lord Jagannath held at Puri in Odisha. Hence statement 3 is correct. It commemorates Jagannath’s annual visit to Gundicha Temple via Mausi Maa Temple (aunt’s home) near Balagandi Chaka, Puri. The most famous Rath Yatra festival begins on the second day of the bright half of the lunar month of Ashadha (June–July) and lasts for nine days. Incorrect Solution (c) The Jagannath Temple is dedicated to Lord Jagannath, a form of the Hindu deity Vishnu. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is located in Puri, Odisha. It is believed to have been built during the reign of King Anantavarman Chodaganga Deva, of the Eastern Ganga dynasty, in the 12th century. It is called ‘Yamanika Tirtha’ and is built in the style of Kalinga architecture. It is called ‘Yamanika Tirtha’ where, according to Hindu beliefs, the power of ‘Yama’, the god of death, has been nullified in Puri due to the presence of Lord Jagannath. Kaḷinga architecture is a style that flourished in the ancient Kalinga previously known as Utkal and in the present-day eastern Indian state of Odisha. The style consists of three distinct types of temples – Rekha Deula, Pidha Deula, and Khakhara Deula. Hence statement 2 is correct. Ratha Yatra is a Hindu festival associated with Lord Jagannath held at Puri in Odisha. Hence statement 3 is correct. It commemorates Jagannath’s annual visit to Gundicha Temple via Mausi Maa Temple (aunt’s home) near Balagandi Chaka, Puri. The most famous Rath Yatra festival begins on the second day of the bright half of the lunar month of Ashadha (June–July) and lasts for nine days. Question 31 of 35 31. Question The ratio of the number of Rs. 2 coins and Rs. 5 coins that Ajay has is 6:11. If the number of Rs. 5 coins is halved than he will have an amount of Rs. 790. How many Rs. 2 coins does Ajay have? a) 84 b) 108 c) 120 d) 220 Correct Solution (c) Let Rs. 2 coins and Rs. 5 coins be 6x and 11x respectively Then, 6x * 2 + (11x/2) * 5 = 790 24x + 55x = 790 * 2 79x = 790 * 2 X = 20 Thus, Rs. 2 coins = 6 * 20 = Rs. 120   Incorrect Solution (c) Let Rs. 2 coins and Rs. 5 coins be 6x and 11x respectively Then, 6x * 2 + (11x/2) * 5 = 790 24x + 55x = 790 * 2 79x = 790 * 2 X = 20 Thus, Rs. 2 coins = 6 * 20 = Rs. 120   Question 32 of 35 32. Question A container contains 40 litres of milk. From this container 4 litres of milk was taken out and replaced by water. This process was repeated further two times. How much milk is now contained by the container? a) 36 litres b) 32.4 litres c) 29.16 litres d) 28 litres Correct Solution (c) It is given in the question that a container contains 40 litres of milk. Then, it is said that 4 litres of milk was taken out and replaced by water. This process was repeated two more times which means that a total of three times the process was done. Now, after the third time, we have to find out how much milk is remaining in the container. So, let us find the amount of milk remaining step by step, so after every process we will find out the milk to water ratio.   After the first process, that is after replacing 4 litres of milk with 4 litres of water, we get (40 – 4) = 36 litres of milk and 4 litres of water in the container. So, the milk to water ratio is 36:4 that is 9:1.   For the second process, we have a mixture of milk and water, so we will take out 4 litres of the mixture which has the ratio 9:1, that is it has 9 parts of milk and 1 part of water. So, 4 litres of the mixture contains 3.6 litres of milk and 0.4 litres of water. So, after taking the mixture out and replacing it with 4 litres of water, the remaining amount of milk is (36 – 3.6) = 32.4 litres and the amount of water is (3.6 + 4) = 7.6 litres. So, the milk to water ratio is 32.4:7.6 in the container.   Now for the third process, 4 litres of the mixture is taken out which has the ratio 32.4:7.6, so it contains 3.24 litres of milk and 0.76 litres of water. So, after taking the mixture out and adding 4 litres of water, the amount of milk = (32.4 – 3.24) = 29.16 litres. Therefore, we get the amount of milk remaining in the container as 29.16 litres. Incorrect Solution (c) It is given in the question that a container contains 40 litres of milk. Then, it is said that 4 litres of milk was taken out and replaced by water. This process was repeated two more times which means that a total of three times the process was done. Now, after the third time, we have to find out how much milk is remaining in the container. So, let us find the amount of milk remaining step by step, so after every process we will find out the milk to water ratio.   After the first process, that is after replacing 4 litres of milk with 4 litres of water, we get (40 – 4) = 36 litres of milk and 4 litres of water in the container. So, the milk to water ratio is 36:4 that is 9:1.   For the second process, we have a mixture of milk and water, so we will take out 4 litres of the mixture which has the ratio 9:1, that is it has 9 parts of milk and 1 part of water. So, 4 litres of the mixture contains 3.6 litres of milk and 0.4 litres of water. So, after taking the mixture out and replacing it with 4 litres of water, the remaining amount of milk is (36 – 3.6) = 32.4 litres and the amount of water is (3.6 + 4) = 7.6 litres. So, the milk to water ratio is 32.4:7.6 in the container.   Now for the third process, 4 litres of the mixture is taken out which has the ratio 32.4:7.6, so it contains 3.24 litres of milk and 0.76 litres of water. So, after taking the mixture out and adding 4 litres of water, the amount of milk = (32.4 – 3.24) = 29.16 litres. Therefore, we get the amount of milk remaining in the container as 29.16 litres. Question 33 of 35 33. Question A pie chart gives the expenditure on five different items A, B, C, D, E in a household. If B, C, D, E correspond to 75 °, 55 °, 80 °, 50 ° respectively, then what is the percentage of expenditure on item A? a) 112/9 b) 125/6 c) 155/9 d) 250/9 Correct Solution (d) A pie chart corresponds to 360 ° Items B, C, D and E correspond to 75 °, 55 °, 80 °, 50 ° respectively on the pie chart. Angle corresponding to A in the pie chart = 360° – (75 °+ 55 °+ 80 °+ 50 °) = 100° So, percentage expenditure of the household on item A = (100/360) * 100 = 250/9 %   Incorrect Solution (d) A pie chart corresponds to 360 ° Items B, C, D and E correspond to 75 °, 55 °, 80 °, 50 ° respectively on the pie chart. Angle corresponding to A in the pie chart = 360° – (75 °+ 55 °+ 80 °+ 50 °) = 100° So, percentage expenditure of the household on item A = (100/360) * 100 = 250/9 %   Question 34 of 35 34. Question If N and x are positive integers such that N^N = 2^160 and N^2 + 2^N is an integral multiple of 2^x, then the largest possible x is a) 12 b) 10 c) 13 d) 11 Correct Solution (b) Given that N and X are positive integers such that NN = 2160 and N2 + 2N is an integral multiple of 2x Now we have to find the largest possible value for x NN = 2160 We can rewrite this 2160 as (2p)q such that 2p = N = q pq = 160 We can try by substituting p and q with 2 and 80 respectively (22)80 = 480 This doesn’t work so we can try by substituting p and q with 4 and 40 respectively (24)40 = 1640 This also doesn’t work so now we can substitute p and q with 5 and 32 respectively Such that (25)32 = 3232 Now we can say that N = 32 N2 + 2N ⟹ 322 + 232 = 2x × k (where k is the integral multiple) N2 + 2N ⟹ 210 + 232 = 2x × k since 322 = (25)2 N2 + 2N ⟹ 210 (1 + 222) = 2x × k This (1 + 222) is an odd number so the number is going to be 210 × multiple of the odd number Hence the largest power of 2 can be 10 i.e. 210 Xmax = 10 The largest possible x is 10 The question is “If N and x are positive integers such that NN = 2160 and N2 + 2N is an integral multiple of 2x, then the largest possible x is 10 Hence, the answer is 10 Incorrect Solution (b) Given that N and X are positive integers such that NN = 2160 and N2 + 2N is an integral multiple of 2x Now we have to find the largest possible value for x NN = 2160 We can rewrite this 2160 as (2p)q such that 2p = N = q pq = 160 We can try by substituting p and q with 2 and 80 respectively (22)80 = 480 This doesn’t work so we can try by substituting p and q with 4 and 40 respectively (24)40 = 1640 This also doesn’t work so now we can substitute p and q with 5 and 32 respectively Such that (25)32 = 3232 Now we can say that N = 32 N2 + 2N ⟹ 322 + 232 = 2x × k (where k is the integral multiple) N2 + 2N ⟹ 210 + 232 = 2x × k since 322 = (25)2 N2 + 2N ⟹ 210 (1 + 222) = 2x × k This (1 + 222) is an odd number so the number is going to be 210 × multiple of the odd number Hence the largest power of 2 can be 10 i.e. 210 Xmax = 10 The largest possible x is 10 The question is “If N and x are positive integers such that NN = 2160 and N2 + 2N is an integral multiple of 2x, then the largest possible x is 10 Hence, the answer is 10 Question 35 of 35 35. Question In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number. 3, 12, 8, 19, 13, 32, 18, 42, 23, 52 a) 12 b) 19 c) 42 d) 32 Correct Solution (b) The sequence is a combination of following two series: (I) 3, 8, 13, 18, 23 and (II) 12, 19, 32, 42, 52 The pattern in (I) has a constant difference of +5 and the pattern in (II) has a constant difference of +10. So, in (II), 19 is wrong and should be replaced by (12+10), i.e., 22. Incorrect Solution (b) The sequence is a combination of following two series: (I) 3, 8, 13, 18, 23 and (II) 12, 19, 32, 42, 52 The pattern in (I) has a constant difference of +5 and the pattern in (II) has a constant difference of +10. So, in (II), 19 is wrong and should be replaced by (12+10), i.e., 22. window.wpProQuizInitList = window.wpProQuizInitList || []; window.wpProQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpProQuiz_3649', init: { quizId: 3649, mode: 1, globalPoints: 70, timelimit: 1800, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 704, qpp: 0, catPoints: [70], formPos: 0, lbn: "Test-summary", json: {"32469":{"type":"single","id":32469,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32471":{"type":"single","id":32471,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32473":{"type":"single","id":32473,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32475":{"type":"single","id":32475,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32478":{"type":"single","id":32478,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32481":{"type":"single","id":32481,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32482":{"type":"single","id":32482,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32483":{"type":"single","id":32483,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32485":{"type":"single","id":32485,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32488":{"type":"single","id":32488,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32490":{"type":"single","id":32490,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32492":{"type":"single","id":32492,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32493":{"type":"single","id":32493,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32495":{"type":"single","id":32495,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32496":{"type":"single","id":32496,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32497":{"type":"single","id":32497,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32498":{"type":"single","id":32498,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32499":{"type":"single","id":32499,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32502":{"type":"single","id":32502,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32503":{"type":"single","id":32503,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32506":{"type":"single","id":32506,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32507":{"type":"single","id":32507,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32510":{"type":"single","id":32510,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32512":{"type":"single","id":32512,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32514":{"type":"single","id":32514,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32516":{"type":"single","id":32516,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32517":{"type":"single","id":32517,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32519":{"type":"single","id":32519,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32521":{"type":"single","id":32521,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32523":{"type":"single","id":32523,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32526":{"type":"single","id":32526,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32529":{"type":"single","id":32529,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32531":{"type":"single","id":32531,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32534":{"type":"single","id":32534,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32536":{"type":"single","id":32536,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]}} } }); All the Best IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 13th April 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Andaman and Nicobar Islands Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Geography, Security challenges Context: Various geopolitical events leading to the realisation of the critical importance of ocean power, the rapid enhancement in the capabilities of the Chinese PLA Navy, and the transformation of India’s Look East policy into a robust Act East policy have brought new thrust to developing Indian island territories in general and the Andaman and Nicobar groups in particular. Background:- The Andaman and Nicobar (A&N Islands) islands are located 700 nautical miles (1,300 km) southeast of the Indian mainland. Key takeaways Andaman and Nicobar islands share four of India’s international maritime zone delimitations with Myanmar, Thailand, Indonesia, and Bangladesh. They also give India substantial ocean space under the United Nations Conference on the Laws of the Sea (UNCLOS) in terms of exclusive economic zone and continental shelf. The Malacca Strait, the main waterway that connects the Indian Ocean to the Pacific, is less than a day’s steaming from Port Blair. The severe disruption and re-routing of shipping, occasioned by the Houthi attacks in the Red Sea, have served as yet another harsh and expensive reminder that “maritime choke points” constitute critical vulnerabilities for world trade and commerce. In this context, the Malacca Strait — more than 90,000 merchant ships carrying about 30 per cent of the world’s traded goods pass through it every year — presents a challenge as well as a latent opportunity for India. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are of great strategic importance since they straddle one of the busiest sea lanes in the world and give India the reach to monitor the flow of traffic from the South China Sea (Pacific Ocean) to the Andaman Sea (Indian Ocean) via the Strait of Malacca that’s key to trade and oil shipments in the Indo-Pacific. Of significance for Indian strategists is the location of the Great Nicobar Island, which sits astride the western entrance/exit of the Malacca Strait and can comprehensively dominate all shipping — merchant as well as naval — in transit. The A&N Islands should be the first line of offence against any attempt from the East to undermine India’s maritime security. While some effort was made to leverage this locational advantage with the Andaman and Nicobar Command (ANC) being constituted as a tri-services command in 2001, subsequent efforts have been grossly inadequate. Reasons for the Slow Pace of Infrastructural Development in the A&N Islands: Distance from the mainland and difficulties in developing infrastructure. Complex procedures for obtaining environmental clearances. Significant coordination challenges among ministries, departments, and agencies. Key areas to be focused on for the development of the A&N Islands: Development of separate airfields with long runways for monitoring and patrolling of sea areas by aircraft and surface platforms. Work on the Galathea Bay (Great Nicobar Island) transhipment port must be expedited. Maritime services such as repair and logistics must be developed for international and Indian shipping. Road networks, high-speed inter-island ferry services, and a seaplane terminal. Forest and environmental clearances must be accorded with minimum red tape. Planned habitation of uninhabited islands should be considered by providing incentives. Eco-friendly entrepreneurial efforts could be encouraged. Ports and fuel storages Source: Indian Express Marine Coldwaves Syllabus Prelims & Mains – Geography Context: The effects of ocean warming are profound and well-documented. But sometimes changes in the patterns of winds and ocean currents cause seawater to suddenly cool, instead. Background: When a “killer coldwave” manifested along South Africa’s southeast coast in March 2021, it killed hundreds of animals across at least 81 species. More worrying still was the fact these deaths included vulnerable manta rays and even specimens of notoriously robust migratory bull sharks. About Cold waves Sometimes changes in the patterns of winds and ocean currents cause seawater to suddenly cool. Surface temperatures can plummet rapidly — by 10ºC or more over a day or two. When these conditions persist for several days or weeks, the area experiences a “coldwave”. Certain wind and current conditions can cause the sea surface to cool, rather than warm. This happens when winds and currents force coastal waters to move offshore, which are then replaced from below by cold water from the deep ocean. This process is known as In some places, such as California on the US west coast, upwelling happens regularly along hundreds of kilometres of coastline. But localised upwelling can occur seasonally on a smaller scale, too, often at the edges of bays on the east coasts of continents due to interactions of wind, current and coastline. Previous research had shown climate change induced changes in global wind and current patterns. Studies reveal an increasing trend in the number of annual upwelling events over the past 40 years. We also found an increase in the intensity of such upwelling events and the extent to which temperatures dropped on the first day of each event – in other words, how severe and sudden these cold snaps were. During the extreme upwelling event along the southeast coast of South Africa in March 2021, at least 260 animals from 81 species died. These included tropical fish, sharks and rays. Overall, our oceans are warming. The ranges of tropical and subtropical species are extending towards the poles. But along some major current systems, sudden short-term cooling can make life difficult for these climate migrants, or even kill them. This really shows the complexity of climate change, as tropical species would expand into higher-latitude areas as overall warming continues, which then places them at risk of exposure to sudden extreme cold events. Source: The Hindu ASHWAGANDHA (WITHANIA SOMNIFERA) Syllabus Prelims – Environment Context: Ashwagandha is gaining global attention and popularity for its numerous health benefits. Background: Scientific research highlights its potential in stress management, cognitive function, physical performance, and more. About ASHWAGANDHA (WITHANIA SOMNIFERA) Ashwagandha (Withania somnifera), also known as Indian ginseng or winter cherry, is a prominent herb in Ayurveda, the traditional medicine system of India. It is renowned for its adaptogenic properties, which help the body manage stress. Some of the Potential Benefits and Uses of Ashwagandha: Stress and Anxiety Reduction: Ashwagandha may lower cortisol levels and mitigate stress and anxiety symptoms. Athletic Performance: It could potentially enhance physical performance and strength. Cognitive Function: There’s evidence suggesting it may improve memory and brain function. Anti-inflammatory Effects: Withanolides in Ashwagandha have anti-inflammatory properties. Sleep Improvement: Some studies indicate it may help improve sleep quality. Source: Hindu Businessline SPECIAL RUPEE VOSTRO ACCOUNT (SRVA) Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context:The Indian government has simplified the payment mechanism for traders importing pulses from Myanmar by implementing the Rupee/Kyat direct payment system through the Special Rupee Vostro Account (SRVA) via Punjab National Bank. Background: This move aims to streamline trade transactions and enhance efficiency. India heavily relies on imports of pulses, including tur and urad dals, from Myanmar to meet domestic demand. About SPECIAL RUPEE VOSTRO ACCOUNT (SRVA): Special Rupee Vostro Account (SRVA) is an account that domestic banks hold for foreign banks in the former’s domestic currency, which, in this case, is the Indian Rupee (INR). It allows domestic banks to provide international banking services to their clients who have global banking needs without physically being present abroad. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) introduced the SRVA mechanism to settle international transactions in rupees. The primary objectives were to promote the growth of global trade, emphasize Indian exports, and position the rupee as an international currency. Why SRVA? The existing system primarily uses freely convertible currencies (like the US dollar or pound) for trade transactions. However, the SRVA serves as an additional arrangement to this system, specifically focusing on transactions denominated in INR. It aims to reduce costs associated with currency conversions and streamline trade processes. Key Components of SRVA: Invoicing: All exports and imports must be denominated and invoiced in Indian National Rupee (INR). Exchange Rate: The exchange rate between the currencies of the trading partner countries is market-determined. Final Settlement: The ultimate settlement also takes place in INR. Benefits and Significance: Promoting Trade: SRVA facilitates smoother trade between India and other nations, including those facing sanctions (e.g., Russia). Reducing Currency Risks: By using INR, both parties avoid currency fluctuations and associated risks. Cost-Efficiency: Eliminating the need for multiple currency conversions saves costs for businesses. Source: Livemint Previous Year Question Q1. Convertibility of rupee implies being able to convert rupee notes into gold allowing the value of rupee to be fixed by market forces freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other currencies and vice versa developing an international market for currencies in India LAKE KARIBA Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Water levels at Lake Kariba in Zimbabwe have dropped dramatically because of the latest El Nino drought.   Background: El Niño leads to hotter temperatures and significantly reduced rainfall in southern Africa for extended periods.   About LAKE KARIBA : Lake Kariba is renowned as the world’s largest artificial lake and reservoir by volume. It situated along the border between Zambia and Zimbabwe. It was created following the completion of the Kariba Dam at its northeastern end, which flooded the Kariba Gorge on the Zambezi River. The lake was filled between 1958 and 1963 and is a significant source of hydroelectric power for both countries. This drastic decline in the water level of the Lake Kariba has a severe consequence for local communities, affecting livelihoods, economic activities, and the environment. The Zimbabwean government has declared a national disaster in response to this unfolding crisis. Source: Down To Earth Multilingualism in Education Syllabus Mains – GS 1 Context: With the advent of the New Education Policy (NEP) and recent initiatives like the NIPUN Bharat Mission that stresses the importance of using the mother tongue in the teaching-learning process and creating educational materials, we have an opportunity to revolutionise education. Background: In a diverse and culturally rich country like India, language is more than just a means of communication; it is the essence of our identity. Multilingualism: It is the ability to speak, understand, read, and write more than one language. It can be individual or societal, depending on whether a person or a community uses multiple languages. It can also be classified into different types, such as additive or subtractive, balanced or dominant, sequential or simultaneous, depending on how languages are acquired, used, and valued. India is one of the most linguistically diverse countries in the world, with over 19,500 languages spoken throughout the nation. According to the 2011 Census of India, more than 25% of the population speaks two languages, while about 7% speak three languages. Importance/Significance of Multilingualism in Education: Research shows that learning more than one language can boost brain functions, such as memory, attention, problem-solving, and creativity. It can also improve metalinguistic awareness, which is the ability to reflect on and manipulate language structures and rules. Learning multiple languages can expose students to different cultures, perspectives, and values. It can also help them develop intercultural competence, which is the ability to communicate effectively and appropriately with people from diverse backgrounds. With over 22 officially recognised languages and hundreds of dialects, each with its own unique cultural and historical significance, language is a crucial aspect of our identity. Studies have consistently shown that students who receive instruction in their mother tongue or home language perform better in school than those who are taught in a foreign or unfamiliar language. This is because they can access the curriculum content more easily and confidently, and transfer their skills and knowledge to other languages. Providing education in multiple languages can ensure that every child has equal access and opportunity to learn, regardless of their linguistic background. It can also foster a sense of belonging and identity among minority language speakers, and reduce discrimination and marginalization. Ways to implement Multilingual Education: Multilingual education should be based on the linguistic realities and needs of the learners and the communities. It should also respect the constitutional provisions and the three-language formula of the National Education Policy (NEP 2020). Multilingual education should adopt a learner-centered and interactive pedagogy that fosters language awareness and proficiency. It should also promote cross-linguistic transfer and multiliteracy skills among the learners. Multilingual education should use fair and valid assessment tools and criteria that measure the learning outcomes and progress of learners in multiple languages. It should also provide constructive feedback and support to the learners to improve their language skills. Benefits of Multilingual Education for India: Multilingual education can equip learners with the necessary language skills and competencies to participate in various domains of life, such as education, employment, research, innovation, etc. It can also increase their employability and mobility in the globalized world. Multilingual education can help preserve and revitalize the linguistic diversity and heritage of India. It can also promote the linguistic rights and dignity of the speakers of different languages, especially those who are endangered or marginalized. Multilingual education can foster mutual understanding and respect among speakers of different languages and cultures. It can also enhance social cohesion and harmony among the diverse groups of people in India. Starting education in one’s mother tongue provides a solid foundation for learning additional languages, including the national language and English, promoting multilingualism. When students can understand what they are being taught, they are more likely to stay in school and complete their education. Issues/Challenges for Multilingualism in Education: Implementing multilingual education requires adequate resources, such as trained teachers, appropriate curricula, quality textbooks, assessment tools, and digital platforms. However, many schools lack these resources, especially in rural and remote areas. Although the NEP 2020 and the NIPUN Bharat Mission advocate for multilingual education, there is still a gap between policy and practice. There is also a need for more coordination and collaboration among different stakeholders, such as central and state governments, educational institutions, civil society organizations, and communities. Many parents, teachers, students, and policymakers are not aware of the benefits of multilingual education. They may have misconceptions or prejudices about certain languages or dialects. Balancing the use of mother tongues or regional languages with national or standardized curricula can be challenging. Ensuring that students have access to a well-rounded education while also valuing their linguistic backgrounds is crucial. Developing fair and standardized assessment methods across different languages can be difficult. Ensuring that students are evaluated fairly and consistently can be a challenge when using multiple languages. While multilingual education can be effective at the primary level, transitioning to higher education or the job market might require proficiency in a more widely spoken language, potentially disadvantageous to students who were educated in their mother tongue. Source: Hindu Businessline Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1.) Which among the following lake recently had a devastating impact due to the El Niño drought? Chilika Pangong Tso Caspian Kariba Q2.)  Withania somnifera, recently seen in news is a herb an invasive plant a vaccine a turtle Q3.) With reference to the Special Rupee Vostro Account (SRVA), consider the following statements: SRVA is an account that domestic banks hold for foreign banks in the former’s domestic currency. SRVA facilitates smoother trade between India and other nations, including those facing sanctions. The exchange rate between the currencies of the trading partner countries is market-determined. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  17th April  2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  16th April – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 17th April 2024

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

[DAY 39] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – HISTORY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Archives Hello Friends The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year. It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday) Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology. 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule. It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday) Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday) CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants. Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published. Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis. To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE   60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE  Important Note Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis. Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂  You can post your comments in the given format  (1) Your Score (2) Matrix Meter (3) New Learning from the Test Time limit: 0 Test-summary 0 of 35 questions completed Questions: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Information The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022. To view Solutions, follow these instructions: Click on – ‘Start Test’ button Solve Questions Click on ‘Test Summary’ button Click on ‘Finish Test’ button Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links. You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again. Test is loading... You must sign in or sign up to start the test. You have to finish following test, to start this test: Results 0 of 35 questions answered correctly Your time: Time has elapsed You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0) Average score     Your score     Categories Not categorized 0% Your result has been entered into leaderboard Loading Name: E-Mail: Captcha: maximum of 70 points Pos. Name Entered on Points Result Table is loading No data available 1 Lakshmi 2024/04/17 1:06 PM 22 42.31 % 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 Answered Review Question 1 of 35 1. Question Which of the following kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha? Avanti Gandhara Kosala Magadha Select the correct answer using the codes given below: a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 and 4 c) 3 and 4 only d) 1, 3 and 4 Correct Solution (c) Buddha traveled to Rajagaha, capital of Magadha, to visit King Bimbisara. During this visit, Sariputta and Maudgalyayana were converted by Assaji, one of the first five disciples. Buddha belonged to Shakya clan whose capital was Kapilavastu, and who were later annexed by the growing Kingdom of Kosala during the Buddha’s lifetime. Avanti and Gandhara are not visited by Buddha. Incorrect Solution (c) Buddha traveled to Rajagaha, capital of Magadha, to visit King Bimbisara. During this visit, Sariputta and Maudgalyayana were converted by Assaji, one of the first five disciples. Buddha belonged to Shakya clan whose capital was Kapilavastu, and who were later annexed by the growing Kingdom of Kosala during the Buddha’s lifetime. Avanti and Gandhara are not visited by Buddha. Question 2 of 35 2. Question With reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world? a) Avalokiteshvara b) Lokesvara c) Maitreya d) Padmapani Correct Solution (c) Maitreya is regarded as a future Buddha of this world in Buddhist eschatology. In some Buddhist literature, such as the Amitabha Sutra and the Lotus Sutra, he is referred to as Ajita.According to Buddhist tradition, Maitreya is a bodhisattva who will appear on Earth in the future, achieve complete enlightenment, and teach the pure dharma. Incorrect Solution (c) Maitreya is regarded as a future Buddha of this world in Buddhist eschatology. In some Buddhist literature, such as the Amitabha Sutra and the Lotus Sutra, he is referred to as Ajita.According to Buddhist tradition, Maitreya is a bodhisattva who will appear on Earth in the future, achieve complete enlightenment, and teach the pure dharma. Question 3 of 35 3. Question Which of the following characterizes/characterize the people of the Indus Valley Civilization? They possessed great palaces and temples. They worshipped both male and female deities. They employed horse-drawn chariots How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) The Indus people probably worshipped Mother Goddess, in addition to male and female deities. They worshipped a father God who might be a progenitor of the race and probably was a prototype of Siva as the Lord of the Animals. On the basis of the Indus seals, it can be said that a large number of animals including goats, buffaloes, oxen, elephants, dogs, and camels were domesticated. But the Harappans seem not to have been familiar with the horse-drawn chariots. Incorrect Solution (a) The Indus people probably worshipped Mother Goddess, in addition to male and female deities. They worshipped a father God who might be a progenitor of the race and probably was a prototype of Siva as the Lord of the Animals. On the basis of the Indus seals, it can be said that a large number of animals including goats, buffaloes, oxen, elephants, dogs, and camels were domesticated. But the Harappans seem not to have been familiar with the horse-drawn chariots. Question 4 of 35 4. Question Of the second Sangam, it is the only surviving work. It is a work on Tamil grammar but it also provides information on the political and socio-economic conditions of the Sangam period. Which work is being described in the above-given paragraph? a) Ettuttokoi b) Tolkappiyam c) Pathinenkilkanakku d) Silappathikaram Correct Solution (b) a)       b)       c)       d)       Incorrect Correct Incorrect Incorrect The compositions of the third Sangam are classified into eight anthologies known as Ettuttokoi/ Ettuthokai and ten idylls known as Pattuppattu. The second Sangam was held at Kapadapuram but the all the literary works had perished except Tolkappiyam. Tolkappiyam authored by Tolkappiyar is the earliest of Tamil literature. It is a work on Tamil grammar but it provides information on the political and socio-economic conditions of the Sangam period. Pathinenkilkanakku contains eighteen works about ethics and morals. The most important among these works is Tirukkural authored by Thiruvalluvar, the Tamil great poet and philosopher. Silappadikaram, which is composed by Ilango Adigal. The story revolves around an anklet. The name literally means the tale of an anklet. A chief character is Kannagi, who seeks revenge on the Pandya kingdom for her husband who was wrongly put to death. The poem gives a lot of insight into contemporary Tamil society, polity, values and social life of the people.   Incorrect Solution (b) a)       b)       c)       d)       Incorrect Correct Incorrect Incorrect The compositions of the third Sangam are classified into eight anthologies known as Ettuttokoi/ Ettuthokai and ten idylls known as Pattuppattu. The second Sangam was held at Kapadapuram but the all the literary works had perished except Tolkappiyam. Tolkappiyam authored by Tolkappiyar is the earliest of Tamil literature. It is a work on Tamil grammar but it provides information on the political and socio-economic conditions of the Sangam period. Pathinenkilkanakku contains eighteen works about ethics and morals. The most important among these works is Tirukkural authored by Thiruvalluvar, the Tamil great poet and philosopher. Silappadikaram, which is composed by Ilango Adigal. The story revolves around an anklet. The name literally means the tale of an anklet. A chief character is Kannagi, who seeks revenge on the Pandya kingdom for her husband who was wrongly put to death. The poem gives a lot of insight into contemporary Tamil society, polity, values and social life of the people.   Question 5 of 35 5. Question Consider the following statements regarding ancient universities: The Chinese scholars, I-Qing and Xuan Zang, visited Nalanda in the 7th century CE. The Chancellor of the Nalanda University, Shilabhadra, was the authority in Yoga. Panini, Jivaka and Chanakya studied in Takshashila. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Nalanda, when Xuan Zang visited it, was called Nala and was a center of higher learning in various subjects. The Chinese scholars, I-Qing and Xuan Zang, visited Nalanda in the 7th century CE. They have given vivid accounts of Nalanda. They have noted that as many as 100 discourses happened on a daily basis, in a variety of disciplines through the methods of debate and discussions. Xuan Zang himself became a student of Nalanda to study Yogashastra. He has mentioned that the Chancellor of Nalanda, Shilabhadra, was the highest living authority in Yoga. Takshashila was an ancient Indian city, which is now in northwestern Pakistan. It is an important archaeological site and UNESCO declared it to be a ‘World Heritage Site’ in 1980. Its fame rested on the University, where Chanakya is said to have composed his Arthashastra. Panini and Jivaka also studied in Takshashila. Archaeologist Alexander Cunningham discovered its ruins in the mid-19th century. Note: The Nalanda University: The ancient Nalanda was a center of learning from the 5th century CE to the 12th century CE. Located in present day Rajgir (Bihar), Nalanda was one of the oldest universities of the world and UNESCO declared the ruins of Nalanda Mahavihara, a ‘World Heritage Site’. The new Nalanda University is envisaged as a center of inter-civilizational dialogue. Nalanda, when Xuan Zang visited it, was called Nala and was a center of higher learning in various subjects. The courses of study offered by the Nalanda University covered a wide range, almost the entire circle of knowledge then available. The students at Nalanda studied the Vedas and were also trained in fine arts, medicine, mathematics, astronomy, politics and the art of warfare. The Takshashila or Taxila University: In ancient times, Takshashila was a noted center of learning, including religious teachings of Buddhism for several centuries. It continued to attract students from around the world until its destruction in the 5th century CE. It was known for its higher education and the curriculum comprised the study of ancient scriptures, law, medicine, astronomy, military science and the 18 Silpas or arts. Takshashila became famous as a place of learning due to its teachers’ expertise. Among its noted pupils was the legendary Indian grammarian, Panini. He was an expert in language and grammar, and authored one of the greatest works on grammar, called Ashtadhyayi. Jivaka, one of the most renowned physicians in ancient India, and Chanakya (also known as Kautilya), a skilled exponent of statecraft, both studied here. Students came to Takshashila from Kashi, Kosala, Magadha and also from other countries, in spite of the long and arduous journey they had to undertake. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Nalanda, when Xuan Zang visited it, was called Nala and was a center of higher learning in various subjects. The Chinese scholars, I-Qing and Xuan Zang, visited Nalanda in the 7th century CE. They have given vivid accounts of Nalanda. They have noted that as many as 100 discourses happened on a daily basis, in a variety of disciplines through the methods of debate and discussions. Xuan Zang himself became a student of Nalanda to study Yogashastra. He has mentioned that the Chancellor of Nalanda, Shilabhadra, was the highest living authority in Yoga. Takshashila was an ancient Indian city, which is now in northwestern Pakistan. It is an important archaeological site and UNESCO declared it to be a ‘World Heritage Site’ in 1980. Its fame rested on the University, where Chanakya is said to have composed his Arthashastra. Panini and Jivaka also studied in Takshashila. Archaeologist Alexander Cunningham discovered its ruins in the mid-19th century. Note: The Nalanda University: The ancient Nalanda was a center of learning from the 5th century CE to the 12th century CE. Located in present day Rajgir (Bihar), Nalanda was one of the oldest universities of the world and UNESCO declared the ruins of Nalanda Mahavihara, a ‘World Heritage Site’. The new Nalanda University is envisaged as a center of inter-civilizational dialogue. Nalanda, when Xuan Zang visited it, was called Nala and was a center of higher learning in various subjects. The courses of study offered by the Nalanda University covered a wide range, almost the entire circle of knowledge then available. The students at Nalanda studied the Vedas and were also trained in fine arts, medicine, mathematics, astronomy, politics and the art of warfare. The Takshashila or Taxila University: In ancient times, Takshashila was a noted center of learning, including religious teachings of Buddhism for several centuries. It continued to attract students from around the world until its destruction in the 5th century CE. It was known for its higher education and the curriculum comprised the study of ancient scriptures, law, medicine, astronomy, military science and the 18 Silpas or arts. Takshashila became famous as a place of learning due to its teachers’ expertise. Among its noted pupils was the legendary Indian grammarian, Panini. He was an expert in language and grammar, and authored one of the greatest works on grammar, called Ashtadhyayi. Jivaka, one of the most renowned physicians in ancient India, and Chanakya (also known as Kautilya), a skilled exponent of statecraft, both studied here. Students came to Takshashila from Kashi, Kosala, Magadha and also from other countries, in spite of the long and arduous journey they had to undertake. Question 6 of 35 6. Question With reference to the difference between the culture of Rig Vedic Aryans and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements is/are correct? Rig Vedic Aryans used the cost of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them. Rig Vedic Aryans knew gold, silver, and copper whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper and iron. Rig Vedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Solution (c) Rig Vedic Aryans used the cost of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them.There is also evidence of swords, arrows, bows used during Rig Vedic Aryans. Rig Vedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal. Rig Vedic Aryans know gold, silver, copper, iron whereas Indus valley people knew gold, copper, bronze but they did not know iron. Incorrect Solution (c) Rig Vedic Aryans used the cost of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them.There is also evidence of swords, arrows, bows used during Rig Vedic Aryans. Rig Vedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal. Rig Vedic Aryans know gold, silver, copper, iron whereas Indus valley people knew gold, copper, bronze but they did not know iron. Question 7 of 35 7. Question Which one of the following ancient towns is well known for its elaborate system of water harvesting and management by building a series of dams and channelising water into connected reservoirs? a) Dholavira b) Kalibangan c) Rakhigarhi d) Ropar Correct Solution (a) Discovered in 1968, Dholavira is set apart by its unique characteristics, such as its water management system, multi-layered defensive mechanisms, extensive use of stone in construction and special burial structures. It has a complex system for collecting and storing rain water within several reservoirs. Planners in the ancient city of Dholavira had conceptualised a system of drains, dams and tanks to manage water. Incorrect Solution (a) Discovered in 1968, Dholavira is set apart by its unique characteristics, such as its water management system, multi-layered defensive mechanisms, extensive use of stone in construction and special burial structures. It has a complex system for collecting and storing rain water within several reservoirs. Planners in the ancient city of Dholavira had conceptualised a system of drains, dams and tanks to manage water. Question 8 of 35 8. Question During the period of Sangam Age, the designation ‘uzhavar’, was used for: a) Ordinary Ploughmen b) Craftsmen c) Weavers d) Large landowners Correct Solution (a) a)       b)       c)       d)       Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Ordinary Ploughmen were called Uzhavar. A Ploughman is a man whose job is to plough the land,especially with a plough pulled by horses or oxen. In villages they were other workers apart from the ones working in the field or owning lands. There were also some craft persons such as the blacksmiths, potter, carpenter and weavers. There were at least three different types of people living in most villages in the southern and northern part of the subcontinent. The handicraft included weaving, metal works and carpentry, ship building and making of ornaments using beads, stones and ivory. These were in great demand in the internal and external trade that was at its peak during the Sangam period. A high expertise was attained in spinning and weaving of cotton and silk clothes. These were in great demand in the western world especially for the cotton clothes woven at Uraiyur. Large landowners were known as Vellalar. They traditionally pursued agriculture as a profession in the Indian states of Tamil Nadu,Kerala and Northern part of Sri Lanka. They held offices pertaining to land, were ranked as Set-Sudra in the 1901 census.The Vellaras of Sri lanka form half of the Sri Lankan Tamil population and are the major husbandmen,involved in tillage and cattle cultivation. Incorrect Solution (a) a)       b)       c)       d)       Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Ordinary Ploughmen were called Uzhavar. A Ploughman is a man whose job is to plough the land,especially with a plough pulled by horses or oxen. In villages they were other workers apart from the ones working in the field or owning lands. There were also some craft persons such as the blacksmiths, potter, carpenter and weavers. There were at least three different types of people living in most villages in the southern and northern part of the subcontinent. The handicraft included weaving, metal works and carpentry, ship building and making of ornaments using beads, stones and ivory. These were in great demand in the internal and external trade that was at its peak during the Sangam period. A high expertise was attained in spinning and weaving of cotton and silk clothes. These were in great demand in the western world especially for the cotton clothes woven at Uraiyur. Large landowners were known as Vellalar. They traditionally pursued agriculture as a profession in the Indian states of Tamil Nadu,Kerala and Northern part of Sri Lanka. They held offices pertaining to land, were ranked as Set-Sudra in the 1901 census.The Vellaras of Sri lanka form half of the Sri Lankan Tamil population and are the major husbandmen,involved in tillage and cattle cultivation. Question 9 of 35 9. Question Consider the following statements in the context of Sangam literature: Aham under Sangam literature refers to subjective love poems. Puram under Sangam literature deals with all kinds of emotions, mainly the valor and glory of kings and about good and evil. Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Early classical Tamil literature is known as Sangam literature meaning, fraternity‟. In this, Aham deals purely with the subjective emotions of the lover. Puram deals with all kinds of emotions, mainly the valor and glory of kings and about good and evil.  Note: Sangam Literature: Dravidian literature mainly consists of the four languages Tamil, Telugu, Kannada and Malayalam. Out of these, Tamil is the oldest language which preserved its Dravidian character the most. Kannada, as a cultured language, is almost as old as Tamil. All these languages have borrowed many words from Sanskrit and vice versa. Tamil is the only modern Indian language which is recognizably continuous with a classical past. Early classical Tamil literature is known as Sangam literature meaning, fraternity‟, indicating mainly two schools of poets, Aham (subjective love poems): Aham deals purely with the subjective emotions of the lover. Puram (objective, public poetry and heroic): Puram with all kinds of emotions, mainly the valor and glory of kings and about good and evil. These were written by many poets, among whom 30 were women, the famous poetess Avvaiyar being one of them. The Sangam literature includes Tolkappiyam, Ettutogai, Pattuppattu, Pathinenkilkanakku, and two epics named – Silappathikaram and Manimegalai. Tolkappiyam was authored by Tolkappiyar and is considered the earliest of Tamil literary work. Though it is a work on Tamil grammar, it also provides insights on the political and socioeconomic conditions of the time. Ettutogai (Eight Anthologies) consists of eight works. The Pattuppattu (Ten Idylls) consists of ten works. Pathinenkilkanakku contains eighteen works about ethics and morals. The most important among these works is Tirukkural authored by Thiruvalluvar, the Tamil great poet and philosopher. It serves as a manual of precepts to guide one to noble living. The twin epics, Silappadhikaram (the story of the anklet), written by Ilango-Adigal, and Manimekalai (the story of Manimekalai) by Chattanar, were written sometimes in A.D. 200-300 and give vivid accounts of Tamil society during that period. In Manimekalai there is an elaborate exposition of the doctrines of Buddhism. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Early classical Tamil literature is known as Sangam literature meaning, fraternity‟. In this, Aham deals purely with the subjective emotions of the lover. Puram deals with all kinds of emotions, mainly the valor and glory of kings and about good and evil.  Note: Sangam Literature: Dravidian literature mainly consists of the four languages Tamil, Telugu, Kannada and Malayalam. Out of these, Tamil is the oldest language which preserved its Dravidian character the most. Kannada, as a cultured language, is almost as old as Tamil. All these languages have borrowed many words from Sanskrit and vice versa. Tamil is the only modern Indian language which is recognizably continuous with a classical past. Early classical Tamil literature is known as Sangam literature meaning, fraternity‟, indicating mainly two schools of poets, Aham (subjective love poems): Aham deals purely with the subjective emotions of the lover. Puram (objective, public poetry and heroic): Puram with all kinds of emotions, mainly the valor and glory of kings and about good and evil. These were written by many poets, among whom 30 were women, the famous poetess Avvaiyar being one of them. The Sangam literature includes Tolkappiyam, Ettutogai, Pattuppattu, Pathinenkilkanakku, and two epics named – Silappathikaram and Manimegalai. Tolkappiyam was authored by Tolkappiyar and is considered the earliest of Tamil literary work. Though it is a work on Tamil grammar, it also provides insights on the political and socioeconomic conditions of the time. Ettutogai (Eight Anthologies) consists of eight works. The Pattuppattu (Ten Idylls) consists of ten works. Pathinenkilkanakku contains eighteen works about ethics and morals. The most important among these works is Tirukkural authored by Thiruvalluvar, the Tamil great poet and philosopher. It serves as a manual of precepts to guide one to noble living. The twin epics, Silappadhikaram (the story of the anklet), written by Ilango-Adigal, and Manimekalai (the story of Manimekalai) by Chattanar, were written sometimes in A.D. 200-300 and give vivid accounts of Tamil society during that period. In Manimekalai there is an elaborate exposition of the doctrines of Buddhism. Question 10 of 35 10. Question In the context of the Mauryan period, Dharmasthiya and Kantakasodhana were: a) Priests for the interpretations of laws. b) Law courts. c) Officers in charge of propagation of Ashoka’ s Dhamma. d) Minister in charge for the superintendence of religious and social affairs. Correct Solution (b) a)       b)       c)       d)       Incorrect Correct Incorrect Incorrect In the Mauryan period purohit was a post in the Royal Department for Chief Priest. They were included in the ministry of Councils to help the king in their ways. The duties of the purohit is to perform rites or yajna and Vedic sacrifices such as ashvamedha in favor of Mauryan. There were civil and criminal courts which are mentioned in the Arthashastra. The Dharmasthiya were the civil court and the Kantakasodhana was the criminal wing. The former dealt with civil matters and was presided over by three amatyas and three Dharmasthas. Ashoka appointed officials, known as Dhamma-Mahamatta to go from place to place teaching people about dhamma. His messages are inscribed on stone pillars so that people can read them. Officials were instructed to spread his message. Ashoka used Prakrit and local languages ​​so that ordinary people could understand his messages. Ashoka embraced several ways to spread his dhamma. He himself set an example before his people by strictly following Ahimsa. Pativedakas and Pulisani functioned as special reporters of the king. In the Arthashastra of Kautilya there is mention of Pativedakas and Pulisani who functioned as special reporters of the King. They kept the King informed of public opinion.   Incorrect Solution (b) a)       b)       c)       d)       Incorrect Correct Incorrect Incorrect In the Mauryan period purohit was a post in the Royal Department for Chief Priest. They were included in the ministry of Councils to help the king in their ways. The duties of the purohit is to perform rites or yajna and Vedic sacrifices such as ashvamedha in favor of Mauryan. There were civil and criminal courts which are mentioned in the Arthashastra. The Dharmasthiya were the civil court and the Kantakasodhana was the criminal wing. The former dealt with civil matters and was presided over by three amatyas and three Dharmasthas. Ashoka appointed officials, known as Dhamma-Mahamatta to go from place to place teaching people about dhamma. His messages are inscribed on stone pillars so that people can read them. Officials were instructed to spread his message. Ashoka used Prakrit and local languages ​​so that ordinary people could understand his messages. Ashoka embraced several ways to spread his dhamma. He himself set an example before his people by strictly following Ahimsa. Pativedakas and Pulisani functioned as special reporters of the king. In the Arthashastra of Kautilya there is mention of Pativedakas and Pulisani who functioned as special reporters of the King. They kept the King informed of public opinion.   Question 11 of 35 11. Question Consider the following statements with regard to Mauryan art and culture? Marble was used on an extensive scale. The pillars were monolithic and highly polished. They introduced stone masonry on a wide scale. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Marble was not prevalent during the Mauryan times. Emperor. Wood and red buffed sandstone was the principal building material used during the Mauryan Empire. Examples: The Mauryan capital at Pataliputra, Ashoka’s palace at Kumrahar, Chandragupta Maurya’s palace. The remains certainly attest the high technical skill attained by the Maurya artisans in polishing the stone Pillars. Each pillar is made of a single piece of buff coloured sandstone. Only their capitals, which are beautiful pieces of sculpture in the form of lions or bulls, are joined with the pillars on the top. These polished pillars were set up throughout the country, which shows that technical knowledge involved in their polishing and transport had spread far and wide. The Mauryas made a remarkable contribution to art and architecture. They introduced stone masonry on a wide scale. Ashoka started using stones in sculptures and monuments whereas the preceding dynasties used wood or clay. Rock cut architecture began with the Mauryans. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Marble was not prevalent during the Mauryan times. Emperor. Wood and red buffed sandstone was the principal building material used during the Mauryan Empire. Examples: The Mauryan capital at Pataliputra, Ashoka’s palace at Kumrahar, Chandragupta Maurya’s palace. The remains certainly attest the high technical skill attained by the Maurya artisans in polishing the stone Pillars. Each pillar is made of a single piece of buff coloured sandstone. Only their capitals, which are beautiful pieces of sculpture in the form of lions or bulls, are joined with the pillars on the top. These polished pillars were set up throughout the country, which shows that technical knowledge involved in their polishing and transport had spread far and wide. The Mauryas made a remarkable contribution to art and architecture. They introduced stone masonry on a wide scale. Ashoka started using stones in sculptures and monuments whereas the preceding dynasties used wood or clay. Rock cut architecture began with the Mauryans. Question 12 of 35 12. Question Consider the following statements about different School of Arts in Ancient India: Gandhara School of Art was patronized by Kanva dynasties’ ruler Vasudeva. Mathura school of Art used the spotted red sandstone for making images. Amaravati School of Art had themes of Vardhaman Mahavira’s life only. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Gandhara school of art was one of the major schools of art in the history of ancient India. Although being an intricate part of Indian history, it is uniquely associated with the Greco-Roman style of art. Gandhara school owes its origin to the Indo-Greek rulers but the real patrons of the school were the Sakas and the Kushanas especially Kanishka. (1st to 3rd century AD). The Kanva dynasty was from 73 BC to 28 BC, not related to the Gandhara School of art. The Greco-Roman effect on Gandhara art can be traced through: Halo around the head of Lord Buddha; Buddha’s wavy hair; The forehead lines; Ornaments; Drape and style of the garments. The Mathura School of Art was entirely influenced by Indianism. The stone used in the Mathura school of arts was red sandstone. The sculptures were less spiritual. In its early phase the Mathura School was probably inspired by Jainism as many figures of cross-legged tirthankaras in meditation were carved by Mathura craftsmen. The initial images of the Buddha and the Bodhisattva are happy and fleshy figures with little spirituality about them. The Mathura School of arts prided themselves on creating images of Buddha and they also made statues of many gods and goddesses such as Jain Tirthankaras. The school has been involved in the evolution of regional art style based on the commercial and imperial system. The Amaravati sculptures are made out of white marble. Another feature of Amaravati sculptures is that the figures have slim blithe features with complex curves. Amaravati School flourished in the region between the lower valleys of the Krishna and Godavari which became an important center of Buddhism. It depicted scenes from Buddha life as well as secular figures.   Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Gandhara school of art was one of the major schools of art in the history of ancient India. Although being an intricate part of Indian history, it is uniquely associated with the Greco-Roman style of art. Gandhara school owes its origin to the Indo-Greek rulers but the real patrons of the school were the Sakas and the Kushanas especially Kanishka. (1st to 3rd century AD). The Kanva dynasty was from 73 BC to 28 BC, not related to the Gandhara School of art. The Greco-Roman effect on Gandhara art can be traced through: Halo around the head of Lord Buddha; Buddha’s wavy hair; The forehead lines; Ornaments; Drape and style of the garments. The Mathura School of Art was entirely influenced by Indianism. The stone used in the Mathura school of arts was red sandstone. The sculptures were less spiritual. In its early phase the Mathura School was probably inspired by Jainism as many figures of cross-legged tirthankaras in meditation were carved by Mathura craftsmen. The initial images of the Buddha and the Bodhisattva are happy and fleshy figures with little spirituality about them. The Mathura School of arts prided themselves on creating images of Buddha and they also made statues of many gods and goddesses such as Jain Tirthankaras. The school has been involved in the evolution of regional art style based on the commercial and imperial system. The Amaravati sculptures are made out of white marble. Another feature of Amaravati sculptures is that the figures have slim blithe features with complex curves. Amaravati School flourished in the region between the lower valleys of the Krishna and Godavari which became an important center of Buddhism. It depicted scenes from Buddha life as well as secular figures.   Question 13 of 35 13. Question Consider the following statements: Ashoka convened the Third Buddhist Council at Pataliputra. Ashoka’s inscriptions mention the southernmost kingdoms – the Cholas, the Satyaputras and the Keralaputras – as border-states. According to Rajatarangini, Kashmir was a part of the Mauryan Empire. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Ashoka convened the Third Buddhist Council at Pataliputra in 240 B.C., in order to strengthen the Sangha. It was presided over by Moggaliputta Tissa. About 261 B.C., Asoka became a Sakya Upasaka (lay disciple) and two and a half years later, a Bikshu (monk). Then he gave up hunting, visited Bodh-Gaya and organized missions. He appointed special officers, called the Dharma Mahamatras, to speed up the progress of Dhamma. According to some scholars, Asoka’s conversion to Buddhism was gradual and not immediate. Extent of Asoka’s empire: Asoka’s inscriptions mention the southernmost kingdoms – the Cholas, the Pandyas, the Satyaputras and the Keralaputras – as border-states. Therefore, these states remained outside the Mauryan Empire. According to Rajatarangini, Kashmir was a part of the Mauryan Empire. Nepal was also within the Mauryan Empire. Incorrect Solution (c) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Ashoka convened the Third Buddhist Council at Pataliputra in 240 B.C., in order to strengthen the Sangha. It was presided over by Moggaliputta Tissa. About 261 B.C., Asoka became a Sakya Upasaka (lay disciple) and two and a half years later, a Bikshu (monk). Then he gave up hunting, visited Bodh-Gaya and organized missions. He appointed special officers, called the Dharma Mahamatras, to speed up the progress of Dhamma. According to some scholars, Asoka’s conversion to Buddhism was gradual and not immediate. Extent of Asoka’s empire: Asoka’s inscriptions mention the southernmost kingdoms – the Cholas, the Pandyas, the Satyaputras and the Keralaputras – as border-states. Therefore, these states remained outside the Mauryan Empire. According to Rajatarangini, Kashmir was a part of the Mauryan Empire. Nepal was also within the Mauryan Empire. Question 14 of 35 14. Question Tolkappiyam refers to the five-fold division of lands during the Sangam period. Consider the following pairs regarding this: Division of lands Feature 1.     Kurinji Agricultural land 2.     Neydal Coastal land 3.     Marudam Hilly tracks How many of the pairs given above is/are incorrectly matched? a) One pair only b) Two pairs only c) Three pairs only d) All of the above pairs Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Division of lands during the Sangam period – Kurinji: Hilly tracks Division of lands during the Sangam period – Neydal: Coastal land Division of lands during the Sangam period – Marudam: Agricultural land   Note: The Sangam Society – Tolkappiyam refers to the five-fold division of lands: Division of lands Feature Kurinji Mullai Marudam Neydal Palai Hilly tracks Pastoral Agricultural Coastal land Desert Tolkappiyam also refers to 4 castes, namely Arasar; Anthanar; Vanigar; and Vellalar. The ruling class was called Arasar. Anthanars played a significant role in the Sangam polity and religion. Vanigars carried on trade and commerce. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Division of lands during the Sangam period – Kurinji: Hilly tracks Division of lands during the Sangam period – Neydal: Coastal land Division of lands during the Sangam period – Marudam: Agricultural land   Note: The Sangam Society – Tolkappiyam refers to the five-fold division of lands: Division of lands Feature Kurinji Mullai Marudam Neydal Palai Hilly tracks Pastoral Agricultural Coastal land Desert Tolkappiyam also refers to 4 castes, namely Arasar; Anthanar; Vanigar; and Vellalar. The ruling class was called Arasar. Anthanars played a significant role in the Sangam polity and religion. Vanigars carried on trade and commerce. Question 15 of 35 15. Question Consider the following statements are correct about Kalidasa? In Kalidasa’s play, women and men, other than the king and the Brahmins, use Prakrit to converse . Abhijnana Shakuntalam is the story of love between a king named Dushyanta and a woman named Shakuntala. Kumarasambhava is a poem written by Bhavabhuti. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Kalidasa is known for his plays depicting life in the king’s court. An interesting feature about these plays is that the king and most Brahmins are shown as speaking Sanskrit, while women and men, other than the king and the Brahmins, use Prakrit. Abhijnana Shakuntalam, is the work by which Kalidasa is best known not only in India, but throughout the world. It was the first work of Kalidasa to be translated into English. It is the story of love between a king named Dushyanta and a young woman named Shakuntala. Kumarasambhava is a poem written by Kalidasa Poems by Kalidasa: Kumarasambhava (Birth of Kumara) and Raghuvamsha (Dynasty of Raghu). Meghaduuta (Cloud Messenger) and Ritusamhara (Description of the Seasons). Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Kalidasa is known for his plays depicting life in the king’s court. An interesting feature about these plays is that the king and most Brahmins are shown as speaking Sanskrit, while women and men, other than the king and the Brahmins, use Prakrit. Abhijnana Shakuntalam, is the work by which Kalidasa is best known not only in India, but throughout the world. It was the first work of Kalidasa to be translated into English. It is the story of love between a king named Dushyanta and a young woman named Shakuntala. Kumarasambhava is a poem written by Kalidasa Poems by Kalidasa: Kumarasambhava (Birth of Kumara) and Raghuvamsha (Dynasty of Raghu). Meghaduuta (Cloud Messenger) and Ritusamhara (Description of the Seasons). Question 16 of 35 16. Question Consider the following statements: The Madhuban plate inscription and the Sonpat inscription are helpful to know the chronology of Harsha. The maintenance of public records was the salient feature of Harsha’s administration. Hiuen Tsang’s accounts mention the victory of Harshavardhana over Pulakesin II. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect The decline of the Gupta Empire was followed by a period of political disorder and disunity in north India. It was only in the beginning of the seventh century A.D. that Harshvardhana succeeded in establishing a larger kingdom in north India. The chief sources for tracing the history of Harsha and his times are the Harshacharita’ written by Bana and the travel accounts of Hiuen Tsang. Bana was the court poet of Harsha. There are three inscriptions— Madhuban Plate, Sonpat plate and the Bankkhera inscription which are immensely valuable. The Madhuban plates speak much on the family of Harsha and Sonepat plates disclose the names and reign of many kings of the dynasty. The Bankkhera inscription confirms that Harsha was an efficient ruler and artsman. Coins of Harsha give adequate reliable information of his reign. Harsha followed the traditional monarchical system of administration which had existed in India during the earlier imperial periods. His time having been nearer to the Gupta Age, the various features of the imperial Gupta administration influenced Harsha’s administration to a very large extent. Harsha was the first commander in chief of the army and oversaw all administrative, legislative, and judicial functions. The names of owners of land were entered in the village records. It appears that record of village census was also kept. It is certain that land revenue was only a modest percentage of total yield. Taxation was light-revenue from crown lands amounted to only one -sixth of the crop, according to traditional standard. The other sources of revenue were trade, and duties at ferries and barrier stations. Important officers of Harsha’s administration are: The ‘Sreshti’ (Chief Banker or Merchant) The ‘Sarthavaha’ (Leader of Merchant Caravans) ‘Prathama Kulika’ (Chief Craftsman) ‘Kayasthas’ (head of the scribes). Hiuen Tsang was the Chinese traveler who visited India in the seventh century A.D. Besides these two sources, the dramas written by Harsha, namely Ratnavali, Nagananda and Priyadarshika, also provide useful information. But, in the Aihole inscription of Pulakesin II mentions the defeat of Harsha by Pulakesin, who, after this achievement, assumed the title Paramesvara. Hiuen Tsang’s accounts also confirm the victory of Pulakesin. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect The decline of the Gupta Empire was followed by a period of political disorder and disunity in north India. It was only in the beginning of the seventh century A.D. that Harshvardhana succeeded in establishing a larger kingdom in north India. The chief sources for tracing the history of Harsha and his times are the Harshacharita’ written by Bana and the travel accounts of Hiuen Tsang. Bana was the court poet of Harsha. There are three inscriptions— Madhuban Plate, Sonpat plate and the Bankkhera inscription which are immensely valuable. The Madhuban plates speak much on the family of Harsha and Sonepat plates disclose the names and reign of many kings of the dynasty. The Bankkhera inscription confirms that Harsha was an efficient ruler and artsman. Coins of Harsha give adequate reliable information of his reign. Harsha followed the traditional monarchical system of administration which had existed in India during the earlier imperial periods. His time having been nearer to the Gupta Age, the various features of the imperial Gupta administration influenced Harsha’s administration to a very large extent. Harsha was the first commander in chief of the army and oversaw all administrative, legislative, and judicial functions. The names of owners of land were entered in the village records. It appears that record of village census was also kept. It is certain that land revenue was only a modest percentage of total yield. Taxation was light-revenue from crown lands amounted to only one -sixth of the crop, according to traditional standard. The other sources of revenue were trade, and duties at ferries and barrier stations. Important officers of Harsha’s administration are: The ‘Sreshti’ (Chief Banker or Merchant) The ‘Sarthavaha’ (Leader of Merchant Caravans) ‘Prathama Kulika’ (Chief Craftsman) ‘Kayasthas’ (head of the scribes). Hiuen Tsang was the Chinese traveler who visited India in the seventh century A.D. Besides these two sources, the dramas written by Harsha, namely Ratnavali, Nagananda and Priyadarshika, also provide useful information. But, in the Aihole inscription of Pulakesin II mentions the defeat of Harsha by Pulakesin, who, after this achievement, assumed the title Paramesvara. Hiuen Tsang’s accounts also confirm the victory of Pulakesin. Question 17 of 35 17. Question Consider the following historical temples: Sun temple, Konark Dashavatara Vishnu temple, Deogarh Virupaksha temple, Mysore Which of the above is/are examples of Nagara style temples? a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only c) 1, 2 and 3 d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Sun temple, Konark is a Nagara style temple. Konark Sun Temple, located in the East Odisha near the sacred city of Puri. Built in the 13th century by King Narasimhadeva I (AD 1238-1264). Its scale, refinement and conception represent the strength and stability of the Eastern Ganga Empire as well as the value systems of the historic milieu. The temple is designed in the shape of a colossal chariot. It is dedicated to the sun God. The Konark temple is widely known not only for its architectural grandeur but also for the intricacy and profusion of sculptural work. However, the temple architecture of Odisha corresponds altogether to a different category for their unique representations called Kalinga style of temple architecture. This style broadly comes under the Nagara style. Dashavatara Vishnu temple, Deogarh is a Nagara style temple. It is a Classic example of the late Gupta period temple architecture. Main shrine is built on a rectangular plinth with four subsidiary shrines that are smaller and at the 4 corners. This temple has a rekha-prasada type of shikhara. It is a west-facing temple. Most temples are north or east facing. It has a grand doorway with figures of Ganga and Yamuna on the left and right side respectively. Depicts Vishnu in various forms. 3 main Vishnu reliefs on the temple walls: Sheshashayana on the south; Nara-Narayan on the east; and Gajendramoksha on the west. Since it was assumed that the subsidiary shrines had avatars of Vishnu in them, the temple was mistaken to be Dashavatara temple. Virupaksha Temple is located in Hampi in the Ballari district of Karnataka, India. It is part of the Group of Monuments at Hampi, designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The temple is dedicated to Lord Virupaksha, a form of Shiva. The Virupaksha temple is a Dravida style temple.  Note: Temple Architecture: The style of temple architecture that became popular in northern India is known as nagara. Most of the nagara temples were built on the stone platform with steps leading up to it, whereas the temples in south India have elaborate boundary walls or gateways. Depending on the shape of the shikhara, the nagara temples are sub-divided as the Latina type, Phamsana type and the Valabhi type. The important temples belonging to the nagara style are: Sun temple, Konark Dashavatara Vishnu temple, Deogarh Vishwanatha temple and Laxman temple, Khajuraho Sun temple, Modhera, etc. Virupaksha Temple is located in Hampi in the Ballari district of Karnataka, India. It is part of the Group of Monuments at Hampi, designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The temple is dedicated to Lord Virupaksha, a form of Shiva. The Virupaksha temple is a Dravida style temple. Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Sun temple, Konark is a Nagara style temple. Konark Sun Temple, located in the East Odisha near the sacred city of Puri. Built in the 13th century by King Narasimhadeva I (AD 1238-1264). Its scale, refinement and conception represent the strength and stability of the Eastern Ganga Empire as well as the value systems of the historic milieu. The temple is designed in the shape of a colossal chariot. It is dedicated to the sun God. The Konark temple is widely known not only for its architectural grandeur but also for the intricacy and profusion of sculptural work. However, the temple architecture of Odisha corresponds altogether to a different category for their unique representations called Kalinga style of temple architecture. This style broadly comes under the Nagara style. Dashavatara Vishnu temple, Deogarh is a Nagara style temple. It is a Classic example of the late Gupta period temple architecture. Main shrine is built on a rectangular plinth with four subsidiary shrines that are smaller and at the 4 corners. This temple has a rekha-prasada type of shikhara. It is a west-facing temple. Most temples are north or east facing. It has a grand doorway with figures of Ganga and Yamuna on the left and right side respectively. Depicts Vishnu in various forms. 3 main Vishnu reliefs on the temple walls: Sheshashayana on the south; Nara-Narayan on the east; and Gajendramoksha on the west. Since it was assumed that the subsidiary shrines had avatars of Vishnu in them, the temple was mistaken to be Dashavatara temple. Virupaksha Temple is located in Hampi in the Ballari district of Karnataka, India. It is part of the Group of Monuments at Hampi, designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The temple is dedicated to Lord Virupaksha, a form of Shiva. The Virupaksha temple is a Dravida style temple.  Note: Temple Architecture: The style of temple architecture that became popular in northern India is known as nagara. Most of the nagara temples were built on the stone platform with steps leading up to it, whereas the temples in south India have elaborate boundary walls or gateways. Depending on the shape of the shikhara, the nagara temples are sub-divided as the Latina type, Phamsana type and the Valabhi type. The important temples belonging to the nagara style are: Sun temple, Konark Dashavatara Vishnu temple, Deogarh Vishwanatha temple and Laxman temple, Khajuraho Sun temple, Modhera, etc. Virupaksha Temple is located in Hampi in the Ballari district of Karnataka, India. It is part of the Group of Monuments at Hampi, designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The temple is dedicated to Lord Virupaksha, a form of Shiva. The Virupaksha temple is a Dravida style temple. Question 18 of 35 18. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Bhitargaon brick temple: It is the oldest and the largest surviving brick temple of the Mauryan period. This temple is dedicated to Varaha (Incarnation of Lord Vishnu). This temple resembles the Nagara style of temple architecture. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct The Bhitargaon brick temple is the oldest and the largest surviving brick temple of the Gupta period. The Bhitargaon temple was first excavated by Alexander Cunningham (An archaeologist). Though Cunningham had placed it as belonging to the 7th century, it has subsequently been identified as belonging to the late Gupta period, to the 5th century. Village Bhitargaon had been a part of an ancient city, called Phulpur. According to Cunningham, because of the Varaha incarnation at the back of the temple, it was probably a Vishnu temple. It is covered throughout with terracotta sculptures of superb workmanship and resembles the Nagara style of temple architecture.   Incorrect Solution (b) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct The Bhitargaon brick temple is the oldest and the largest surviving brick temple of the Gupta period. The Bhitargaon temple was first excavated by Alexander Cunningham (An archaeologist). Though Cunningham had placed it as belonging to the 7th century, it has subsequently been identified as belonging to the late Gupta period, to the 5th century. Village Bhitargaon had been a part of an ancient city, called Phulpur. According to Cunningham, because of the Varaha incarnation at the back of the temple, it was probably a Vishnu temple. It is covered throughout with terracotta sculptures of superb workmanship and resembles the Nagara style of temple architecture.   Question 19 of 35 19. Question With reference to the Brihadeeswarar temple, consider the following statements: It is made up of complete white marble. It is a part of the UNESCO’s World Heritage Sites. The temple is built in the Vesara style of temple architecture. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect The Brihadeeswarar temple, or Peruvudaiyar Kovil, or the Rajrajeshwaram temple at Thanjavur is the world’s first complete ‘granite’ temple. It was built by Rajraja Chola I and is a part of the UNESCO’s World Heritage Sites. The Vimana or the temple tower (known as Raja Gopuram) is one of the tallest buildings of its kind. The Nandi is carved out of a single rock. It is a classic example of the Dravida temple style. It was dedicated to Lord Shiva by Rajaraja Chola I when he triumphed over the Ilam (Sri Lanka) Island.  Note: Other important Chola temples include: Vijayalaya Cholisvara temple, Thanjore; Koranganatha temple, Srinivasanallur; Muvarkovil, Pudukkottai; Tiruvalisvaram temple, Tiruneveli and Brihadeeswarar temple, Gangaikondacholapuram. Incorrect Solution (a) Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect The Brihadeeswarar temple, or Peruvudaiyar Kovil, or the Rajrajeshwaram temple at Thanjavur is the world’s first complete ‘granite’ temple. It was built by Rajraja Chola I and is a part of the UNESCO’s World Heritage Sites. The Vimana or the temple tower (known as Raja Gopuram) is one of the tallest buildings of its kind. The Nandi is carved out of a single rock. It is a classic example of the Dravida temple style. It was dedicated to Lord Shiva by Rajaraja Chola I when he triumphed over the Ilam (Sri Lanka) Island.  Note: Other important Chola temples include: Vijayalaya Cholisvara temple, Thanjore; Koranganatha temple, Srinivasanallur; Muvarkovil, Pudukkottai; Tiruvalisvaram temple, Tiruneveli and Brihadeeswarar temple, Gangaikondacholapuram. Question 20 of 35 20. Question With reference to the cultural history of India, which of the following is the correct description of the term ‘Agraharams’? a) The earliest Dharmashastra texts are written in aphoristic (Sutra) style. b) Gathering of the adult men in the Brahman villages. c) Perfections whose attainment led to the Bodhisattva path. d) Powerful merchant guilds of the early medieval south India. Correct Solution (b) Village government in the Chola Empire is known from a number of inscriptions. We hear of two assemblies, called the Ur and the Sabha or Mahasabha. The Ur was a general assembly of the village. However, we know more about the working of the Mahasabha. This was a gathering of the adult men in the Brahman villages, which was called Agraharam. An Agraharam or Agrahara was a grant of land and royal income from it, typically by a king or a noble family in India, for religious purposes, particularly to Brahmins to maintain temples in that land or a pilgrimage site and to sustain their families. Agraharams were also known as Chaturvedimangalams in ancient times. They were also known as Ghatoka, and Boya. Agraharams were built and maintained by dynasties such as the Cholas and Pallavas. The name originates from the fact that the Agraharams have lines of houses on either side of the road and the temple to the village god at the center, thus resembling a garland around the temple. According to the traditional Hindu practice of architecture and town-planning, an Agraharam is held to be two rows of houses running north–south on either side of a road at one end of which would be a temple to Shiva and at the other end, a temple to Vishnu. An example is Vadiveeswaram in Tamil Nadu. Incorrect Solution (b) Village government in the Chola Empire is known from a number of inscriptions. We hear of two assemblies, called the Ur and the Sabha or Mahasabha. The Ur was a general assembly of the village. However, we know more about the working of the Mahasabha. This was a gathering of the adult men in the Brahman villages, which was called Agraharam. An Agraharam or Agrahara was a grant of land and royal income from it, typically by a king or a noble family in India, for religious purposes, particularly to Brahmins to maintain temples in that land or a pilgrimage site and to sustain their families. Agraharams were also known as Chaturvedimangalams in ancient times. They were also known as Ghatoka, and Boya. Agraharams were built and maintained by dynasties such as the Cholas and Pallavas. The name originates from the fact that the Agraharams have lines of houses on either side of the road and the temple to the village god at the center, thus resembling a garland around the temple. According to the traditional Hindu practice of architecture and town-planning, an Agraharam is held to be two rows of houses running north–south on either side of a road at one end of which would be a temple to Shiva and at the other end, a temple to Vishnu. An example is Vadiveeswaram in Tamil Nadu. Question 21 of 35 21. Question Which of the following has been designated as India’s first Dark Sky Park which is protecting the night sky and preventing light pollution? a) Tadoba Tiger Reserve b) Melghat Tiger Reserve c) Pench Tiger Reserve d) None of the above Correct Solution (c) Pench Tiger Reserve (PTR) has been designated as India’s first Dark Sky Park which is protecting the night sky and preventing light pollution. Dark Sky Place certification focuses on lighting policy, dark sky-friendly retrofits, outreach and education, and monitoring the night sky. This designation positions PTR as a sanctuary where tourists can witness celestial spectacles, shielded from the intrusion of artificial light pollution. The certification was given by the International Dark-Sky Association, a global dark-sky movement to promote astronomy. Hence option c is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) Pench Tiger Reserve (PTR) has been designated as India’s first Dark Sky Park which is protecting the night sky and preventing light pollution. Dark Sky Place certification focuses on lighting policy, dark sky-friendly retrofits, outreach and education, and monitoring the night sky. This designation positions PTR as a sanctuary where tourists can witness celestial spectacles, shielded from the intrusion of artificial light pollution. The certification was given by the International Dark-Sky Association, a global dark-sky movement to promote astronomy. Hence option c is correct. Question 22 of 35 22. Question Consider the following statements about Thylakoids:  They are little pouches located in the chloroplasts of plants. They are found in ancient, light-sensitive bacteria called cyanobacteria. They store chlorophyll, the substance in plants that reacts to sunlight and triggers photosynthesis. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Thylakoids are little pouches located in the chloroplasts of plants. Hence statement 1 is correct. These membranes are dense, mostly galactolipid, protein-containing bilayers in which photosynthesis occurs in photosynthetic organisms. They are found in ancient, light-sensitive bacteria called cyanobacteria. Hence statement 2 is correct. The cyanobacteria multiplied in the oceans billions of years ago, and are believed to be responsible for the vast stores of oxygen that are found in the atmosphere and thus, a precursor to life. It is now believed that thylakoid membranes in cyanobacteria were what made them capable of using sunlight to create energy and release oxygen. They store chlorophyll, the substance in plants that reacts to sunlight and triggers photosynthesis. Hence statement 3 is correct. Incorrect Solution (c) Thylakoids are little pouches located in the chloroplasts of plants. Hence statement 1 is correct. These membranes are dense, mostly galactolipid, protein-containing bilayers in which photosynthesis occurs in photosynthetic organisms. They are found in ancient, light-sensitive bacteria called cyanobacteria. Hence statement 2 is correct. The cyanobacteria multiplied in the oceans billions of years ago, and are believed to be responsible for the vast stores of oxygen that are found in the atmosphere and thus, a precursor to life. It is now believed that thylakoid membranes in cyanobacteria were what made them capable of using sunlight to create energy and release oxygen. They store chlorophyll, the substance in plants that reacts to sunlight and triggers photosynthesis. Hence statement 3 is correct. Question 23 of 35 23. Question Consider the following statements: Pangolins are the only known mammals with large keratin scales covering their skin. The Indian Pangolin lives in India, Bangladesh, Southern Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Pakistan. The Indian Pangolin is listed as critically endangered on the IUCN Red List and is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) Pangolins are the only known mammals with large keratin scales covering their skin. Hence statement 1 is correct. Of the eight species found worldwide (four each in Asia and Africa), two are found in India: The Indian Pangolin (Manis crassicaudata) and the Chinese Pangolin (Manis pentadactyla). The Indian Pangolin lives in India, Bangladesh, Southern Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Pakistan. Hence statement 2 is correct. It can also curl itself into a ball in self-defense against predators. It is an insectivore, feeding on ants and termites. It is nocturnal and it rests in deep burrows during the day. The Indian Pangolin is listed as endangered on the IUCN Red List and is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. It is protected under the Appendix I of the CITES. Incorrect Solution (b) Pangolins are the only known mammals with large keratin scales covering their skin. Hence statement 1 is correct. Of the eight species found worldwide (four each in Asia and Africa), two are found in India: The Indian Pangolin (Manis crassicaudata) and the Chinese Pangolin (Manis pentadactyla). The Indian Pangolin lives in India, Bangladesh, Southern Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Pakistan. Hence statement 2 is correct. It can also curl itself into a ball in self-defense against predators. It is an insectivore, feeding on ants and termites. It is nocturnal and it rests in deep burrows during the day. The Indian Pangolin is listed as endangered on the IUCN Red List and is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. It is protected under the Appendix I of the CITES. Question 24 of 35 24. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Warli Adivasi Revolt: It began in Zari village of Maharashtra in 1945. It was against the exploitation of the landlords and moneylenders. Godaveri Parulekar supported the women participating in this revolt. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Warli Tribes are spread across Thane, Nashik, and Dhule districts of Maharashtra, Valsad district of Gujarat, Karnataka, Goa, and the Union Territories of Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu. They are small-scale cultivators and cultivate rice, pulses, and vegetables. They also sell toddy, mahua, and fuelwood to their tribesmen and neighbouring communities for a living. Warli are nature worshippers. Warli art stems from their belief system shaped by their centuries-old subsistence on forest land. Warli Adivasi Revolt began in Zari village of Maharashtra in 1945. Hence statement 1 is correct. It was against the exploitation of the landlords and moneylenders. Hence statement 2 is correct. Nearly 5,000 indentured tribals gathered and refused to work in landlords’ fields until they received 12 annas a day in wages. Their resistance sowed the first seeds of rights-based movements among the region’s indigenous communities. Godaveri Parulekar supported the women participating in this revolt. Hence statement 3 is correct. She was the Kisan Sabha leader and was also known as Godutai (elder sister) by the Adivasis. Women followed her and spoke at meetings about the oppression they faced and encouraged other women to join the struggle. Incorrect Solution (c) Warli Tribes are spread across Thane, Nashik, and Dhule districts of Maharashtra, Valsad district of Gujarat, Karnataka, Goa, and the Union Territories of Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu. They are small-scale cultivators and cultivate rice, pulses, and vegetables. They also sell toddy, mahua, and fuelwood to their tribesmen and neighbouring communities for a living. Warli are nature worshippers. Warli art stems from their belief system shaped by their centuries-old subsistence on forest land. Warli Adivasi Revolt began in Zari village of Maharashtra in 1945. Hence statement 1 is correct. It was against the exploitation of the landlords and moneylenders. Hence statement 2 is correct. Nearly 5,000 indentured tribals gathered and refused to work in landlords’ fields until they received 12 annas a day in wages. Their resistance sowed the first seeds of rights-based movements among the region’s indigenous communities. Godaveri Parulekar supported the women participating in this revolt. Hence statement 3 is correct. She was the Kisan Sabha leader and was also known as Godutai (elder sister) by the Adivasis. Women followed her and spoke at meetings about the oppression they faced and encouraged other women to join the struggle. Question 25 of 35 25. Question Which of the following amounts to genocide under the Genocide Convention of 1948? Killing members of the group Causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of the group Imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group Forcibly transferring children of the group to another group How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Correct Solution (d) The term ‘genocide’ has been defined using set criteria in the UN’s Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide, moved in the General Assembly in 1948. It says, “In the present Convention, genocide means any of the following acts committed with intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial or religious group, as such: Killing members of the group; Causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of the group; Deliberately inflicting on the group conditions of life calculated to bring about its physical destruction in whole or in part; Imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group; Forcibly transferring children of the group to another group. Hence option d is correct. As per this convention, genocide is a crime whether committed during wartime or peacetime. Incorrect Solution (d) The term ‘genocide’ has been defined using set criteria in the UN’s Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide, moved in the General Assembly in 1948. It says, “In the present Convention, genocide means any of the following acts committed with intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial or religious group, as such: Killing members of the group; Causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of the group; Deliberately inflicting on the group conditions of life calculated to bring about its physical destruction in whole or in part; Imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group; Forcibly transferring children of the group to another group. Hence option d is correct. As per this convention, genocide is a crime whether committed during wartime or peacetime. Question 26 of 35 26. Question Consider the following statements about the Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC): It is an apex organization under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, with regard to khadi and village industries within India. It is a statutory body established under the Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act of 1956. Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) and Market Promotion Development Assistance (MPDA) are covered under the KVIC. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (b) The Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) is an apex organization under the Ministry of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises, with regard to khadi and village industries within India. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is charged with the planning, promotion, organisation, and implementation of programmes for the development of Khadi and other village industries in rural areas in coordination with other agencies engaged in rural development wherever necessary. It is a statutory body established under the Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act of 1956. Hence statement 2 is correct. At the state level, Khadi & Village Industries Boards were set up to effectively implement the schemes of KVIC in their respective states. Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) and Market Promotion Development Assistance (MPDA) are covered under the KVIC. Hence statement 3 is correct. The other schemes covered under the KVIC include the Interest Subsidy Eligibility Certificate (ISEC), the Workshed Scheme for Khadi Artisans, Strengthening the infrastructure of existing weak Khadi institutions and assistance for marketing infrastructure, the Khadi Reform and Development Programme (KRDP), Scheme of Fund for Regeneration of Traditional Industries (SFURTI), and Honey Mission. Incorrect Solution (b) The Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) is an apex organization under the Ministry of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises, with regard to khadi and village industries within India. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It is charged with the planning, promotion, organisation, and implementation of programmes for the development of Khadi and other village industries in rural areas in coordination with other agencies engaged in rural development wherever necessary. It is a statutory body established under the Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act of 1956. Hence statement 2 is correct. At the state level, Khadi & Village Industries Boards were set up to effectively implement the schemes of KVIC in their respective states. Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) and Market Promotion Development Assistance (MPDA) are covered under the KVIC. Hence statement 3 is correct. The other schemes covered under the KVIC include the Interest Subsidy Eligibility Certificate (ISEC), the Workshed Scheme for Khadi Artisans, Strengthening the infrastructure of existing weak Khadi institutions and assistance for marketing infrastructure, the Khadi Reform and Development Programme (KRDP), Scheme of Fund for Regeneration of Traditional Industries (SFURTI), and Honey Mission. Question 27 of 35 27. Question Consider the following statements about the VIPER Rover: It is the first mobile robotic mission to the Moon by the European Space Agency. It navigates across the rugged terrain of the lunar South Pole. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (b) The Volatiles Investigating Polar Exploration Rover, or VIPER Rover is the first mobile robotic mission to the Moon by NASA. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It will directly analyze ice on the surface and subsurface of the Moon at varying depths and temperature conditions within four main soil environments. The data VIPER transmits back to Earth will be used to create resource maps, helping scientists determine the location and concentration of ice on the Moon and the forms it’s in, such as ice crystals or molecules chemically bound to other materials. It navigates across the rugged terrain of the lunar South Pole and gathers valuable data that will help us better understand the history of the Moon and the environment where NASA is planning to send Artemis astronauts. Hence statement 2 is correct. The mission duration is 100 Earth days, covering 3 cycles of lunar day and night. It will land at the South Pole of the Moon in late 2024. Incorrect Solution (b) The Volatiles Investigating Polar Exploration Rover, or VIPER Rover is the first mobile robotic mission to the Moon by NASA. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. It will directly analyze ice on the surface and subsurface of the Moon at varying depths and temperature conditions within four main soil environments. The data VIPER transmits back to Earth will be used to create resource maps, helping scientists determine the location and concentration of ice on the Moon and the forms it’s in, such as ice crystals or molecules chemically bound to other materials. It navigates across the rugged terrain of the lunar South Pole and gathers valuable data that will help us better understand the history of the Moon and the environment where NASA is planning to send Artemis astronauts. Hence statement 2 is correct. The mission duration is 100 Earth days, covering 3 cycles of lunar day and night. It will land at the South Pole of the Moon in late 2024. Question 28 of 35 28. Question Consider the following statements about the Devika River: It originates from the hilly Suddha Mahadev temple of Jammu and Kashmir. It flows down towards western Punjab where it merges with the Sutlej River. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Devika River originates from the hilly Suddha Mahadev temple of Jammu and Kashmir. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is considered the sister of the sacred river Ganga, and it has great religious significance. It flows down towards western Punjab where it merges with the Ravi River. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. River Devika Project is built on the lines of ‘Namami Ganga’ and it is north India’s first river rejuvenation project. Incorrect Solution (a) Devika River originates from the hilly Suddha Mahadev temple of Jammu and Kashmir. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is considered the sister of the sacred river Ganga, and it has great religious significance. It flows down towards western Punjab where it merges with the Ravi River. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. River Devika Project is built on the lines of ‘Namami Ganga’ and it is north India’s first river rejuvenation project. Question 29 of 35 29. Question Consider the following statements regarding the Karman Line: It is named after Theodore von Karman, who first determined the altitude at which the atmosphere becomes too thin to support aeronautical flight. NASA defines the Karman line as the altitude of 500 kilometres above Earth’s mean sea level. Choose the correct code: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (a) Karman Line is named after Theodore von Karman, who first determined the altitude at which the atmosphere becomes too thin to support aeronautical flight. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is the internationally recognized boundary of space. The Fédération Aéronautique Internationale (FAI) defines the Kármán line as the altitude of 100 kilometres (62 miles) above Earth’s mean sea level. FAI is an international standard-setting and record-keeping body for aeronautics and astronautics. However, not all organizations recognize this definition. The US Air Force and NASA define the boundary as 50 miles (80 km) above sea level. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. But there is no international law that defines the edge of space or the limit of national airspace. Incorrect Solution (a) Karman Line is named after Theodore von Karman, who first determined the altitude at which the atmosphere becomes too thin to support aeronautical flight. Hence statement 1 is correct. It is the internationally recognized boundary of space. The Fédération Aéronautique Internationale (FAI) defines the Kármán line as the altitude of 100 kilometres (62 miles) above Earth’s mean sea level. FAI is an international standard-setting and record-keeping body for aeronautics and astronautics. However, not all organizations recognize this definition. The US Air Force and NASA define the boundary as 50 miles (80 km) above sea level. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. But there is no international law that defines the edge of space or the limit of national airspace. Question 30 of 35 30. Question Consider the following statements about Savitri Bai Phule: She started the Mahila Seva Mandalto raise awareness about women’s rights. She wrote two books, Kavya Phule in 1854 and Bavan Kashi Subodh Ratnakar in 1892. She wrote the famous poem ‘Go Get Education’ to encourage backward and oppressed class people to get an education. How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Correct Solution (c) Savitri Bai Phule started the Mahila Seva Mandal to raise awareness about women’s rights. Hence statement 1 is correct. It brought together members of all castes, challenging entrenched social hierarchies. She was born in a small village in the Satara district of Maharashtra on January 3, 1831, Savitribai Phule was an Indian social reformer, poet, and powerful voice in the Indian freedom struggle. She was an active participant in the women’s liberation movement. Savitribai trained at Ms. Farar’s Institution in Ahmednagar and at Ms. Mitchell’s school in Pune to become the first female teacher in India. Savitribai Phule and her husband, Jyotirao Phule (one of the most famous social reformers in Maharashtra), opened India’s first school for women in Pune in 1848. They also established two educational trusts: the Native Female School, Pune, and the Society for Promoting the Education of Mahars, Mangs, and others from downtrodden castes. She wrote two books, Kavya Phule in 1854 and Bavan Kashi Subodh Ratnakar in 1892. They are collections of her poems. Hence statement 2 is correct. Savitribai also fought against dowry and other oppressive social customs. In 1863, Jyotirao and Savitribai began Balhatya Pratibandhak Griha, India’s first home prohibiting infanticide, helping pregnant Brahmin widows and rape victims. She wrote the famous poem ‘Go Get Education’ to encourage backward and oppressed class people to get an education. Hence statement 3 is correct. Her birth anniversary celebrated as Savitribai Phule Jayanti, is a day to commemorate her legacy and contributions to education and social equality.   Incorrect Solution (c) Savitri Bai Phule started the Mahila Seva Mandal to raise awareness about women’s rights. Hence statement 1 is correct. It brought together members of all castes, challenging entrenched social hierarchies. She was born in a small village in the Satara district of Maharashtra on January 3, 1831, Savitribai Phule was an Indian social reformer, poet, and powerful voice in the Indian freedom struggle. She was an active participant in the women’s liberation movement. Savitribai trained at Ms. Farar’s Institution in Ahmednagar and at Ms. Mitchell’s school in Pune to become the first female teacher in India. Savitribai Phule and her husband, Jyotirao Phule (one of the most famous social reformers in Maharashtra), opened India’s first school for women in Pune in 1848. They also established two educational trusts: the Native Female School, Pune, and the Society for Promoting the Education of Mahars, Mangs, and others from downtrodden castes. She wrote two books, Kavya Phule in 1854 and Bavan Kashi Subodh Ratnakar in 1892. They are collections of her poems. Hence statement 2 is correct. Savitribai also fought against dowry and other oppressive social customs. In 1863, Jyotirao and Savitribai began Balhatya Pratibandhak Griha, India’s first home prohibiting infanticide, helping pregnant Brahmin widows and rape victims. She wrote the famous poem ‘Go Get Education’ to encourage backward and oppressed class people to get an education. Hence statement 3 is correct. Her birth anniversary celebrated as Savitribai Phule Jayanti, is a day to commemorate her legacy and contributions to education and social equality.   Question 31 of 35 31. Question If the length of the rectangle is increased by 50% and breadth is decreased by 20%. Then what is the percentage change in the area? a) 20% decrease b) 20% increase c) 30% decrease d) 30% increase Correct Solution (b) Let the length of the rectangle be ‘l’ Let the breadth of the rectangle be ‘b’ Now, the length is increased by 50% = 1.5l The breadth is decreased by 20% = 0.8b As we know, the area of a rectangle = length * breadth The new area = 1.5l * 0.8b = 1.2 times the original area = 20% increase. Incorrect Solution (b) Let the length of the rectangle be ‘l’ Let the breadth of the rectangle be ‘b’ Now, the length is increased by 50% = 1.5l The breadth is decreased by 20% = 0.8b As we know, the area of a rectangle = length * breadth The new area = 1.5l * 0.8b = 1.2 times the original area = 20% increase. Question 32 of 35 32. Question The price of wheat has increased by 30%. Chandana has decided to spend only 17% more than her earlier spend. By what percentage does she have to decrease her wheat consumption? a) 13% b) 12% c) 10% d) 15% Correct Solution (c) Assume that Chandana earlier used to purchase 10 units of wheat for Rs. 100 per unit. ∴ Initial spending = 100 × 10 = Rs. 1,000. New price of wheat = 1.3 × 100 = Rs. 130 and new spend = 1.17 × 1000 = Rs. 1,170 ∴ New consumption = 1170/130 = Rs. 9 per unit. ∴ Percentage decrease in consumption = [(10 – 9)/10] × 100 = 10% Hence, option c. Incorrect Solution (c) Assume that Chandana earlier used to purchase 10 units of wheat for Rs. 100 per unit. ∴ Initial spending = 100 × 10 = Rs. 1,000. New price of wheat = 1.3 × 100 = Rs. 130 and new spend = 1.17 × 1000 = Rs. 1,170 ∴ New consumption = 1170/130 = Rs. 9 per unit. ∴ Percentage decrease in consumption = [(10 – 9)/10] × 100 = 10% Hence, option c. Question 33 of 35 33. Question In an election between two candidates, the winner got 70% of the valid votes and loser lost by 1800 votes. Which of the following statements is false if 10% of the total votes cast were invalid? a) The winner got 3150 votes. b) The loser did not get more than 1500 votes. c) The winner got more than twice the number of votes that the loser got. d) None of the above Correct Solution (d) Let the total number of votes cast be 100x. Since 10% of the votes were invalid, total valid votes = 90x. Since the winner got 70% of the valid votes, votes cast for the winner = (0.7)(90x) = 63x ∴ Votes received by loser = 90x – 63x = 27x The loser lost by 1800 votes. ∴ 63x – 27x = 1800 ∴ 36x = 1800 i.e. x = 50 ∴ Votes obtained by winner = 63x = 3150 and votes obtained by loser = 27x = 1350 Hence, statements a and b are true. Observe that 63x/27x = 2.33 i.e. > 2 Hence, statement c is definitely true. Hence, none of the statements is false. Hence, option d.   Incorrect Solution (d) Let the total number of votes cast be 100x. Since 10% of the votes were invalid, total valid votes = 90x. Since the winner got 70% of the valid votes, votes cast for the winner = (0.7)(90x) = 63x ∴ Votes received by loser = 90x – 63x = 27x The loser lost by 1800 votes. ∴ 63x – 27x = 1800 ∴ 36x = 1800 i.e. x = 50 ∴ Votes obtained by winner = 63x = 3150 and votes obtained by loser = 27x = 1350 Hence, statements a and b are true. Observe that 63x/27x = 2.33 i.e. > 2 Hence, statement c is definitely true. Hence, none of the statements is false. Hence, option d.   Question 34 of 35 34. Question A number consists of three digits having their sum as 6 and the tens digit as 0. If the number formed by reversing the original number is greater than the original number by 396, what is the difference between the first and last digit? a) 5 b) 3 c) 4 d) 2 Correct Solution (c) Let the original number be 100x + 10y + z. Hence, the reversed number is 100z + 10y + x. Here, y = 0. Hence, the numbers become (100x + z) and (100z + x) The difference between these numbers is 396. ∴ (100z + x) – (100x + z) = 396 ∴ 99z – 99x = 396 ∴ z – x = 4 Hence, option c.   Incorrect Solution (c) Let the original number be 100x + 10y + z. Hence, the reversed number is 100z + 10y + x. Here, y = 0. Hence, the numbers become (100x + z) and (100z + x) The difference between these numbers is 396. ∴ (100z + x) – (100x + z) = 396 ∴ 99z – 99x = 396 ∴ z – x = 4 Hence, option c.   Question 35 of 35 35. Question Consider the following statements: If a two-digit number is added to a number obtained by reversing the digits of the given number, then the sum is always divisible by 11. If the digits of a two-digit number are reversed, then the difference of the reversed number and the original number is always divisible by 9. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?   a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Solution (c) Let a two digit number be (10x + y) and reversing number be (10y + x) Therefore, Required sum = 10x + y + 10y + x = 11x + 11y = 11 (x+y) Hence it is divisible by 11.   Similarly, Let a two digit number be (10x + y) And reversing number be (10y + x) Required difference = 10x + y – 10y – x = 9x – 9y = 9 (x-y) Hence it is divisible by 9. Thus, both statements are correct.   Incorrect Solution (c) Let a two digit number be (10x + y) and reversing number be (10y + x) Therefore, Required sum = 10x + y + 10y + x = 11x + 11y = 11 (x+y) Hence it is divisible by 11.   Similarly, Let a two digit number be (10x + y) And reversing number be (10y + x) Required difference = 10x + y – 10y – x = 9x – 9y = 9 (x-y) Hence it is divisible by 9. Thus, both statements are correct.   window.wpProQuizInitList = window.wpProQuizInitList || []; window.wpProQuizInitList.push({ id: '#wpProQuiz_3645', init: { quizId: 3645, mode: 1, globalPoints: 70, timelimit: 1800, resultsGrade: [0], bo: 704, qpp: 0, catPoints: [70], formPos: 0, lbn: "Test-summary", json: {"32397":{"type":"single","id":32397,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32399":{"type":"single","id":32399,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32401":{"type":"single","id":32401,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32403":{"type":"single","id":32403,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32405":{"type":"single","id":32405,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32407":{"type":"single","id":32407,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32408":{"type":"single","id":32408,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32410":{"type":"single","id":32410,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32413":{"type":"single","id":32413,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32415":{"type":"single","id":32415,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32416":{"type":"single","id":32416,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32417":{"type":"single","id":32417,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32419":{"type":"single","id":32419,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32420":{"type":"single","id":32420,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32421":{"type":"single","id":32421,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32424":{"type":"single","id":32424,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32426":{"type":"single","id":32426,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32429":{"type":"single","id":32429,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32431":{"type":"single","id":32431,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32433":{"type":"single","id":32433,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32436":{"type":"single","id":32436,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32437":{"type":"single","id":32437,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32439":{"type":"single","id":32439,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32440":{"type":"single","id":32440,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32443":{"type":"single","id":32443,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32445":{"type":"single","id":32445,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32446":{"type":"single","id":32446,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32447":{"type":"single","id":32447,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32449":{"type":"single","id":32449,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[1,0,0,0]},"32450":{"type":"single","id":32450,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32452":{"type":"single","id":32452,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,1,0,0]},"32455":{"type":"single","id":32455,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32456":{"type":"single","id":32456,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,0,1]},"32457":{"type":"single","id":32457,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]},"32458":{"type":"single","id":32458,"catId":0,"points":2,"correct":[0,0,1,0]}} } }); All the Best IASbaba