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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 26th January 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Global Alliance for Global Good - Gender Equity and Equality Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, India established a “Global Alliance for Global Good – Gender Equity and Equality” to promote women’s empowerment and gender equality at the 54th annual World Economic Forum meeting in Davos. Background:- Union ministers Smriti Irani Hardeep Puri were present. About Global Alliance for Global Good – Gender Equity and Equality:- Ministry: Ministry of Women and Child Development. The idea of this alliance emerged from the G20 Leaders’ Declaration and India’s abiding commitment to the cause of women-led development as propounded by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi. (World Economic Forum) The primary and stated objective of this new Alliance is to bring together global best practices, knowledge sharing and investments in the identified areas of women’s health, education, and enterprise. The Alliance will be taking forward the commitments of the G20 leaders for the benefit of the larger global community as a follow-up to the activities of the Engagement Group and initiatives under the G20 framework, inter alia, the Business 20, Women 20 and G20 EMPOWER. The alliance will bring together worldwide best practices, knowledge sharing, and investment opportunities in women’s education, health, and enterprise. The Alliance has garnered support from industry leaders, including Mastercard, Uber, Tata, TVS, Bayer, Godrej, Serum Institute of India, IMD Lausanne, and over 10,000 partners from the industry. Significance:- This initiative marks a significant stride toward achieving multiple Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), including SDG 3 (Good Health and Well-Being), 4 (Quality Education), 5 (Gender Equality and Empowerment), 17 (Global Partnership for Development) and more.  MUST READ: FireAId initiative SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are correct? (2020) Quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors are prohibited. They apply to investment measures related to trade in both goods and services. They are not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the (2019) International Monetary Fund United Nations Conference on Trade and Development World Economic Forum World Bank Vaibhav fellowship Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, the Science Ministry announced the first recipients of the ‘Vaibhav’ fellowship. Background:- Science Minister Jitendra Singh said that the scheme was “open-ended” and was meant to facilitate meaningful collaboration, and potentially attract diaspora scientists to work in India. About Vaibhav fellowship:- The fellowship offers NRI researchers an opportunity to work for a minimum of one month to a maximum of two months a year with a research institution or an academic institution in India. The duration of the fellowship is three years with the government offering the researchers an amount of up to Rs 37 lakh for the entire period. Objective: The VAIBHAV Fellowship aims at improving the research ecosystem of India’s Higher Educational and Scientific Institutions by facilitating academic and research collaborations between Indian Institutions and the best institutions in the world through the mobility of faculty/researchers from overseas institutions to India. Eligibility: (for Scientists) The applicant should be a Non-Resident Indian (NRI), Person of Indian Origin (PIO) and Overseas Citizen of India (OCI), currently living abroad. The applicant must have obtained Ph.D./M.D/M.S degree from a recognized University. Applicant must be a researcher engaged in an overseas academic / research / industrial organization with a proven track record of research & development working in the top 500 QS World University Ranking. Plan to pursue research work for a minimum of 1 month to a maximum of 2 months a year in a research institution / academic institution in India, spread over 3 years. Applicants can submit their proposals only once in a calendar year. Eligibility: (for Institutions) Higher Educational Institutions / Universities ranked in the top 200 in NIRF overall rankings and have NAAC ‘A” grades (3.0 and above) and scientific institutes. Nature & Duration of Support: The fellowship is tenable only in India. It can be implemented in any of the recognized academic institutions, national laboratories and other recognized R&D institutions. The host institution should provide the necessary administrative and infrastructural support The fellowship is for 1-2 months each year for a period of 3 years. The fellows will be entitled to receive the grants as given below: Fellowship of USD 5000 (in equivalent Indian currency) International Travel from a place of their institute to a place of work in India in business class Accommodation in 3 or 4-star hotel Contingency Rs 1,00,000 per year Domestic Travel for academic purposes up to two stations in a year MUST READ: SpaceTech Innovation Network (SpIN) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Q.2) What is the purpose of ‘Vidyanjali Yojana’? (2017) To enable famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 2 only 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only PM GatiShakti Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, PM GatiShakti spurred project planning and implementation of Ayodhya Bypass Project. Background:- Ayodhya Bypass Project to facilitate economic, social and logistics connectivity across multiple districts About PM GatiShakti:- Launched : October 13, 2021. PM Gati Shakti plan envisages a centralised portal to unite the infrastructural initiatives planned and initiated by as many as 16 central ministries and departments. It involves the creation of a common umbrella platform through which infrastructure projects can be planned and implemented in an efficacious manner by way of coordination between various ministries/departments on a real-time basis. GatiShakti targets to cut logistic costs, increase cargo handling capacity and reduce the turnaround time. It will facilitate the last mile connectivity of infrastructure and reduce logistics costs. It will incorporate the infrastructure schemes of various Ministries and State Governments like Bharatmala, Sagarmala, inland waterways, dry/land ports, UDAN etc. Significance:- Bring down logistics & supply cost of India. Enhances Supply Chain Efficiency. Coordinated Governance. Improves Connectivity.  MUST READ: National Logistics Policy SOURCE:  PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements with reference to India: (2023) According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between (‘ 15 crores and ’25 crore.) All bank loans to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Padma Awards Syllabus Prelims –AWARDS Context: Recently, Prime Minister congratulates to all those who have been conferred the Padma Awards. Background:- In a X post, the Prime Minister said; “Congratulations to all those who have been conferred the Padma Awards. India cherishes their contribution across diverse sectors. May they continue to inspire people with their exceptional work. About Padma Awards:- The Padma Award are one of the highest civilian honours of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954. It is announced every year on the occasion of Republic Day except for brief interruption(s) during the years 1978 and 1979 and 1993 to 1997. It is announced annually on the eve of Republic Day. The Awards are given in three categories:- Padma Vibhushan: for exceptional and distinguished service Padma Bhushan: distinguished service of higher order Padma Shri: distinguished service. The award seeks to recognize achievements in all fields of activities or disciplines where an element of public service is involved. The Padma Awards are conferred on the recommendations made by the Padma Awards Committee, which is constituted by the Prime Minister every year. The nomination process is open to the public. Even self-nomination can be made. Eligibility:- All persons without distinction of race, occupation, position or sex are eligible for these awards. Government servants including those working with PSUs, except doctors and scientists, are not eligible for these Awards. The award seeks to recognize works of distinction and is given for distinguished and exceptional achievements/service in all fields of activities/disciplines:- Art: includes Music, Painting, Sculpture, Photography, Cinema, Theatre etc. Social work: includes social service, charitable service, contribution to community projects etc. Public Affairs: includes Law, Public Life, Politics etc. Science & Engineering: includes Space Engineering, Nuclear Science, Information Technology, Research & Development in Science & its allied subjects etc. Trade & Industry: includes Banking, Economic Activities, Management, Promotion of Tourism, Business etc. Medicine: includes medical research, distinction/specialization in Ayurveda, Homeopathy, Siddha, Allopathy, Naturopathy etc. Literature & Education: includes Journalism, Teaching, Book composing, Literature, Poetry, Promotion of education, Promotion of literacy, Education Reforms etc. Civil Service: includes distinction/excellence in administration etc. by Government Servants Sports: includes popular Sports, Athletics, Adventure, Mountaineering, promotion of sports, Yoga etc. Others: fields not covered above and may include propagation of Indian Culture, protection of Human Rights, Wild Life protection/conservation etc. The award is normally not conferred posthumously. However, in highly deserving cases, the Government could consider giving an award posthumously. The awards are presented by the President of India usually in the month of March/April every year. The awardees are presented a Sanad (certificate) signed by the President and a medallion. The recipients are also given a small replica of the medallion, which they can wear during any ceremonial/State functions etc. The total number of awards to be given in a year (excluding posthumous awards and to NRI/foreigners/OCIs) should not be more than 120. The award does not amount to a title and cannot be used as a suffix or prefix to the awardees’ name.  MUST READ: Ramon Magsaysay Award SOURCE: PIB  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards. (2021) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. (C) The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements is not correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Asteroid 2024 BM Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY  Context: Asteroid 2024 BM passed by Earth recently. Background:- The asteroid passed the Earth at a distance of approximately 3 million kilometres today, January 22, 2024. About Asteroid 2024 BM:- This particular space rock belongs to the Apollo group of Near-Earth Asteroids, which are Earth-crossing space rocks with semi-major axes larger than Earth’s. These asteroids are named after the enormous 1862 Apollo asteroid which German astronomer Karl Reinmuth discovered in the 1930s.( Environment of extra solar planets) This is not the first time that Asteroid 2024 BM has entered the proximity of Earth. It has earlier passed Earth on December 5, 1900, at a distance of approximately 23 million kilometers. After this, it is set to approach the planet at a distance of 9.7 kilometers on May 2, 2039. It is approximately 150 feet wide, making it as big as an aircraft. The width of Asteroid 2024 BM is 45 feet. The main asteroid belt, situated between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter, is where asteroids are commonly found in our solar system. MUST READ: Exoplanets SOURCE: FINANCIAL EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the: (2022) First half of the month of June Second half of the month of June First half of the month of July Second half of the month of July Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY/ ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: As per recent reports Cheetahs’ second home in India, Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary, almost ready. Background:- South African experts will arrive in India to review conditions at Madhya Pradesh’s Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary in February. About Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary:- Location: northwestern Madhya Pradesh, with one of its boundaries running along the border of Rajasthan. Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary was notified as a wildlife sanctuary in 1974. The sanctuary has vast open landscapes with sparse vegetation and rocky terrain, along with small patches of dense forests. The vegetation comprises of Northern tropical dry deciduous forest, Northern tropical dry mixed deciduous forest, and Dry deciduous scrub. The River Chambal flows through the sanctuary, dividing it into two parts. Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary and the reservoir are also designated Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA) as it boasts a large bird diversity with healthy populations. Flora: Khair, Salai, Kardhai, Dhawda, Tendu and Palash are the principal tree species found here. Fauna: The sanctuary is home to herbivores like Chinkara, Nilgai, and Spotted Deer, and carnivores like the Indian Leopard, Striped Hyena, and Jackal. MUST READ: Tungareshwar Wildlife Sanctuary SOURCE:THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Q.2) With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements : Wild animals are the sole property of the government. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled to equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: SCHEME MINISTRY Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojna Ministry of Defense PM SVANIDI Ministry of Jal Shakti Saral Jeevan Bima Ministry of Finance How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Madhya Pradesh. Statement-II : Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary was notified as a wildlife sanctuary in 1994. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Padma Awards, consider the following statements: The nomination process is open to the public. Self-nomination cannot be made. The total number of awards to be given in a year should not be more than 100. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 2 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  26th January 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 25th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 26th January 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

[INTERVIEW INITIATIVE] Think, Rethink and Perform (TRP) [DAY 18] 2023 for UPSC/IAS Personality Test!

ARCHIVES (of TRP) – > CLICK HERE Those who have appeared for UPSC Mains 2023, fill up the Google form given below. Students who fill out the form will be added to a telegram group so that there can be healthy discussions with other students who will be appearing for the Interview/Personality Test. Also, Mohan sir, Bureaucrats and Ex-Bureaucrats will be interacting one-on-one with all the students who will be appearing for the same. REGISTER HERE – CLICK HERE Interview Discussion: Think, Rethink and Perform; (TRP) – Day 18 Set 1: Ask these questions to yourself; contemplate and come out with a concrete answer (not to be discussed on this forum). Invest at least 30 minutes in this set of questions. What are your most significant goals and dreams? How did you come to realize these aspirations? Discuss a dream that you had to let go of. How did you come to terms with this, and what did you learn from the experience? How do you balance realistic goal-setting with the pursuit of ambitious dreams? Can you share an example from your life? Set 2: Analyse the following issue:  Income inequality and unemployment are critical challenges in India, impacting social stability and economic growth. Addressing these issues is vital for achieving inclusive development. Let’s delve into this – What strategies should India adopt to tackle income inequality and unemployment? Consider the roles of education, skill development, and economic policies in your discussion. We expect you to discuss the above question (Set 2) in the comments below and come out with a balanced view of the issues. Thank You IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 25th January 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Gujarat International Finance Tec-City – International Financial Services Centre (GIFT IFSC) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, the Government allowed the direct listing of securities by public Indian companies on International Exchanges of GIFT IFSC. Background:- In pursuance of the announcement on July 28, 2023, by Union Minister for Finance and Corporate Affairs Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman to enable direct listing of Indian Companies at GIFT- IFSC exchanges in the first phase, the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA), Ministry of Finance, has amended Foreign Exchange Management (Non-debt Instruments) Rules, 2019, and notified the ‘Direct Listing of Equity Shares of Companies Incorporated in India on International Exchanges Scheme’. About GIFT IFSC:- GIFT-IFSC is the maiden international financial services centre of India that connects India with global opportunities. It aims to attract the top talent in the country by providing the finest quality of life. It enables the Indian economy to connect with the global financial system and allows a seamless and easy flow of global capital into India. It aspires to cater to the dynamic development needs of GIFT IFSC, the unified statutory regulatory authority, the International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) has taken significant steps in accelerating global sustainable capital flows by providing an agile and world-class regulatory and business environment in GIFT IFSC. GIFT IFSC aspires to become India’s gateway for inbound and outbound requirements of international financial services. Benefits:- Central Government’s proactive support to develop the country as a hub of international financial services, the GIFT City has emerged as the preferred location for national and multinational firms. Tax exemptions also make it lucrative for investment. Job creation will occur in huge numbers. MUST READ: Special Economic Zones SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following:  (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) Which of the following activities constitute a real sector in the economy? (2022) Farmers harvesting their crops Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics A commercial bank lending money to a trading company A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Swachh Survekshan 2023 Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, the Swachh Survekshan Awards 2023 were released. Background:- 24 National, 20 Zonal and 54 State level awards announced. About Swachh Survekshan 2023:- Hosted by: Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). 13 awardees received felicitations under the categories of Clean Cities, Cleanest Cantonment, SafaiMitra Suraksha, Ganga Towns and Best Performing State were given away. This year the cleanest city award showcased joint winners. Port City Surat bagged the top honours, alongside Indore, who had conquered the top spot alone for 6 consecutive years. In the category of cities with a population of less than 1 lakh, Sasvad, Patan and Lonavala secured the top three spots. Mhow Cantonment Board in Madhya Pradesh was adjudged the Cleanest Cantonment Board. Varanasi and Prayagraj won the top two awards among the Cleanest Ganga Towns. Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh won the top three awards for Best Performing State. Chandigarh walked away with the award for the Best Safaimitra Surakshit Sheher. 110 awards were bestowed during the ceremony. About Swachh Survekshan:- Swachh Survekshan, conducted by MoHUA since 2016. It is the world’s largest urban sanitation and cleanliness survey. It has been instrumental in fostering a spirit of healthy competition among towns and cities to improve their service delivery to citizens and towards creating cleaner cities. The primary goal of Swachh Survekshan is to encourage large scale citizen participation and create awareness amongst all sections of society about the importance of working together towards making towns and cities better places to reside in. It is conducted under the ambit of the Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban).  MUST READ: Swachh Bharat 2.0 SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency Q.2) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements (2018) The National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 National Voters Day Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT EVENTS Context: Recently, Prime Minister extended greetings on the occasion of National Voters Day. Background:- The Prime Minister posted on X; “Greetings on National Voters Day, an occasion which celebrates our vibrant democracy and also a day to encourage people to register as voters, if they haven’t already. At 11 AM, I will address  the Nav Matdata Sammelan, which will bring together first time voters from across India.” About National Voters Day:- Every year on January 25, India celebrates National Voters Day. Objective: to encourage every voter in the country to participate in the political process. National Voters Day was observed for the first time in the country in 2011. The main reason behind this was to inspire more young people to participate in the electoral process. The theme for National Voters Day 2023 is “Making Elections Inclusive, Accessible, and Participatory.” Significance:- The main significance behind the voting system is that it allows people to decide who will govern at the local, regional and national levels. This also means that people have the power to select which political party, ideology or policies will shape the nation’s future. MUST READ: National Voters’ Day – The Power of Vote SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements with respect to the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002: (2023) Statement-I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm. Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3: 2. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of Constitution Day: (2023) Statement-I: Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens. Statement-II: On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the chairmanship of Dr B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft ·Constitution of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Kuno National Park Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, Namibian cheetah Jwala has given birth to four cubs at the Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh, and not three as earlier announced. Background:- Union Environment Minister Bhupender Yadav on January 24 ,2024 said this. About Kuno National Park:- IMAGE SOURCE: researchgate.net Location: Madhya Pradesh, India. It was established in 1981 as a wildlife sanctuary. It is part of the Khathiar-Gir dry deciduous forests ecoregion. It is named after the Kuno River (One of the main tributaries of the Chambal River) that cuts across it. Initially established as a wildlife sanctuary, it was only in 2018 that the government changed its status into a national park. Kuno National Park was selected under ‘Action Plan for Introduction of Cheetah in India’. Flora: dry savanna forest and grassland and tropical riverine forest. Fauna: Indian leopard, jungle cat, sloth bear, dhole, Indian wolf, golden jackal, striped hyena and Bengal fox. MUST READ: Manas National Park SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India’s biodiversity, Ceylon Frogmouth, Coppersmith Barbet, Gray Chinned Minivet and White-throated Redstart are (2020) Birds Primates Reptiles Amphibians  Q.2) Recently, there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to one of the following sites (2017) Corbett National Park Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Sariska National Park Parkinson's disease Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recent studies show that early detection, regular medication and exercises are necessary for Parkinson’s patients to manage their motor functions. About Parkinson’s disease:- Parkinson’s disease is a progressive disorder that affects the nervous system and the parts of the body controlled by the nerves. Symptoms start slowly. (Rare Diseases) The risk of developing it increases with age. Symptoms:- Uncontrollable shaking and tremors Slowed movement (bradykinesia) Balance difficulties and eventual problems standing up Stiffness in limbs Speech changes Writing changes Loss of automatic movements Causes:- Genes Environmental triggers Presence of Lewy bodies: Clumps of specific substances within brain cells are microscopic markers of Parkinson’s disease. These are called Lewy bodies. Parkinson’s disease is often accompanied by these additional problems like:- Thinking difficulties Depression and emotional changes Swallowing problems Chewing and eating problems Sleep problems and sleep disorders People also may experience rapid eye movement sleep behaviour disorder, which involves acting out dreams. Medicines may improve your sleep. Bladder problems Constipation Treatments:- Although there is no cure for Parkinson’s disease, medicines, surgical treatment, and other therapiescan often relieve some symptoms. Medicines: Medicines can help treat the symptoms of Parkinson’s by: Increasing the level of dopamine in the brain Having an effect on other brain chemicals, such as neurotransmitters, which transfer information between brain cells Helping control non-movement symptoms Therapy: the main therapy for Parkinson’s is levodopa. Nerve cells use levodopa to make dopamine to replenish the brain’s dwindling supply. Deep brain stimulation:For people with Parkinson’s disease who do not respond well to medications, the doctor may recommend deep brain stimulation. MUST READ: Need for stronger mental health strategy SOURCE: The Indian Express PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy : (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents, and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three Q.2) Consider the following : (2022) Bacteria Fungi Virus Which of the above can be cultured in an artificial/ synthetic medium? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Nayagarh Kanteimundi Brinjal Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, Nayagarh Kanteimundi Brinjal got GI Tag. About Nayagarh Kanteimundi Brinjal:- Nayagarh Kanteimundi Brinjal is known for its prickly thorns on the stems and the whole plant. The green and round fruits contain more seeds as compared to other genotypes. It is famous for its unique taste and relatively short quick cooking time. The plants are resistant to major insects and can be grown with minimal pesticide. It is being widely cultivated in Nayagarh district of the state. The growers are getting a yield of up to 200 quintals per hectare and selling at around Rs 60 per kg. Historical records also suggest that the locals got the brinjal from the hilly areas. They collected seeds from it and started raising seedlings nearly 100 years ago.  MUST READ: GI Tag for Mithila Makhana SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2022) The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 4 Q.2) System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practiced, results in: (2022) Reduced seed requirement Reduced methane production Reduced electricity consumption Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Kaushal Bhawan Syllabus Prelims –Art and culture Context: Recently, President of India, Smt Droupadi Murmu inaugurated Kaushal Bhawan. Background:- On the occasion, the President visited the exhibition stalls set up by the beneficiaries of various initiatives of the Government such as PM Vishwakarma, PM JANMAN, Skill Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion (SANKALP), Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) and interacted with them. About Kaushal Bhawan:- Location: in New Delhi . Kaushal Bhawan is a new building of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship . Its foundation stone was laid in March 2019. It will provide office space for the Ministry as well as its associated organisations – the Directorate General of Training, the National Council for Vocational Education and Training and the National Skill Development Corporation. This state-of-the-art office building, equipped with modern facilities and infrastructure . It has been built with the aim of providing a safe, convenient and efficient work environment to usher in new work culture and give a fillip to Skill India Mission.  MUST READ: Hoysala temples SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Th Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of the Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) With reference  to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: (2021) It is a circular temple built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. It is the only circular temple built in India. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: NATIONAL PARK STATE Mount Harriett Goa Nameri Assam Valmiki Bihar How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : The foundation stone of Kaushal Bhawan was laid in March 2019. Statement-II : It is located in Pune. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Parkinson’s disease, consider the following statements: Parkinson’s disease is a progressive disorder that affects the nervous system and the parts of the body controlled by the nerves. Its symptoms start rapidly. The risk of developing it decreases with age. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  25th January 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 24th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 25th January 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 24th January 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

[INTERVIEW INITIATIVE] Think, Rethink and Perform (TRP) [DAY 17] 2023 for UPSC/IAS Personality Test!

ARCHIVES (of TRP) – > CLICK HERE Those who have appeared for UPSC Mains 2023, fill up the Google form given below. Students who fill out the form will be added to a telegram group so that there can be healthy discussions with other students who will be appearing for the Interview/Personality Test. Also, Mohan sir, Bureaucrats and Ex-Bureaucrats will be interacting one-on-one with all the students who will be appearing for the same. REGISTER HERE – CLICK HERE Interview Discussion: Think, Rethink and Perform; (TRP) – Day 17 Set 1: Ask these questions to yourself; contemplate and come out with a concrete answer (not to be discussed on this forum). Invest at least 30 minutes in this set of questions. How do you define spirituality in your life? Does it play a role in your daily decisions and interactions? Share an experience where you felt a deep spiritual connection or had a spiritual awakening. How did this experience affect your outlook on life? In your opinion, what is the relevance of spirituality in today’s fast-paced, material world? Set 2: Analyse the following issue:  India has a rich civilizational legacy that spans thousands of years, influencing its culture, values, and worldviews. This legacy is a source of pride but also comes with the responsibility of preservation and interpretation. Let’s reflect on this – How should India leverage its civilisational legacy in shaping its contemporary identity and global image? What role does this legacy play in India’s approach to modern challenges and opportunities? We expect you to discuss the above question (Set 2) in the comments below and come out with a balanced view of the issues. Thank You IASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 24th January 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Opium Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recent reports show an uncertain future for the production of opium plants. Background:- Three districts in Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan together contribute to 80% of India’s opium production. Already facing the problem of stagnant procurement rates and rising input prices, farmers are now angry with the Union government for opening opium production and processing to private players. About Opium:- IMAGE SOURCE: pinterest.co.uk Opium is a natural substance obtained from poppy seeds and its derivatives are mainly used for pain management. Poppy, any of several flowering plants of the poppy family (Papaveraceae), especially species of the genus Papaver. Most poppies are found in the Northern Hemisphere, and several species of poppies are cultivated as garden ornamentals. Opium, from which morphine, heroin, codeine, and papaverine are derived, comes from the milky latex in the unripe seed capsule of the opium poppy (Papaver somniferum), which is native to Turkey. Uses:- The extracts from opium poppy such as morphine are potent painkillers and are mainly prescribed to cancer patients. The opium product codeine is helpful in cough suppression. It is used illicitly for smoking, drinking, or even eating as pills. Opium cultivation in India:- India has been growing poppy at least since the 15th century, as per historical records. The British East India Company assumed a monopoly on the cultivation of poppy when the Mughal Empire was on the decline, and the entire trade was brought under government control by 1873. After India gained independence, the cultivation and trade of opium passed on to the Indian government, with the activity being controlled by The Opium Act, 1857, The Opium Act, 1878, and The Dangerous Drugs Act, 1930. At present, the cultivation and processing of poppy and opium is controlled by the provisions of The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act and Rules. Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh are the three traditional opium-growing States. Among the few countries permitted to cultivate the opium poppy crop for export and extraction of alkaloids, India currently only extracts alkaloids from opium gum at facilities controlled by the Revenue Department in the Finance Ministry. This entails farmers extracting gum by manually lancing the opium pods and selling the gum to government factories.  MUST READ: Drug Addiction SOURCE: THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following trees: (2023) Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus.) Mahua (Madhuca indica) Teak (Tectona grandis) How many of the above are deciduous trees? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Some mushrooms have medicinal properties. Some mushrooms have psychoactive properties. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Pradhanmantri Suryoday Yojana Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recently, PM Modi announced the launch of Pradhanmantri Suryoday Yojana . Background:- Currently, there is no centrally compiled estimate of the number of households in India with rooftop solar installations. About Pradhanmantri Suryoday Yojana:- Launched: January,2024. Objectives:- Provide affordable solar energy. Increase energy independence Promote environmental sustainability. Salient Features:- It will provide incentives and financial assistance to make it affordable for residential consumers to adopt rooftop solar. This scheme comes after India missed its initial target of 40 gigawatts of rooftop solar capacity by 2022 under the existing Rooftop Solar Programme. The new scheme signals renewed impetus to achieve the target of 40GW capacity by the extended deadline of 2026. With only around 11GW currently installed, the Pradhan Mantri Suryodaya Yojana intends to accelerate rooftop solar adoption. (PM-KUSUM) The scheme aimed to expand India’s rooftop solar installed capacity in the residential sector by providing Central Financial Assistance and incentives to DISCOMs (distribution companies). A consumer can avail of the benefits of the scheme through DISCOM tendered projects or through the National Portal (solarrooftop.gov.in) The DISCOM’s role is limited to issuing of technical feasibility approval, installation of the net meter and inspect the system. Net metering is a billing mechanism that credits solar energy system owners for the electricity they add to the grid. Surplus solar power units generated from the rooftop solar plant can be exported to the grid. Benefits:- Installing solar rooftops under this scheme will help reduce monthly electricity bills of households. It will also support India’s ambitious goal of reaching 500GW of renewable energy by 2030, with solar expected to contribute the major share. It will boost energy security and self-reliance while also benefiting the environment. Additional income generation through surplus electricity production.  MUST READ: Solar Roof Top Scheme SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at (2018) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi EXERCISE DESERT KNIGHT Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: Recently, EXERCISE DESERT KNIGHT was commenced. Background:- On 23 Jan 24, the Indian Air Force (IAF) conducted Exercise Desert Knight along with French Air and Space Force (FASF) and United Arab Emirates (UAE) Air Force. About EXERCISE DESERT KNIGHT:- It is a bilateral Air exercise between the Indian Air Force (IAF) and French Air and Space Force. The French participation included the Rafale fighter aircraft and a Multi Role Tanker Transport, the UAE Air Force fielded the F-16. These aircraft operated from the Al Dhafra air base in the UAE. The IAF contingent comprised of Su-30 MKI, MiG-29, Jaguar, AWACS, C-130-J and Air to Air Refueller aircraft. The exercise in Indian FIR was conducted over the Arabian Sea, with IAF aircraft operating from bases within India. The main focus of Exercise Desert Knight was on enhancing synergy and interoperability between the three Air Forces. The interactions during the exercise facilitated the exchange of operational knowledge, experiences and best practices amongst the participants. Such exercises are indicative of the growing diplomatic and military interactions in the region, apart from showcasing the prowess of the IAF. Defence Exercises between India and France:- Varuna – Naval exercise Garuda – Air exercise Shakti – Army exercise  MUST READ: SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2)The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’ recently in the news, is related to the affairs of: (2015) ASEAN (b)BRICS OECD WTO SUBHAS CHANDRA BOSE Syllabus Prelims –HISTORY/ IMPORTANT PERSONALITIES Context: Recently, the President of India, Smt Droupadi Murmu paid homage to Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose on his birth anniversary. Background:- Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose on his birth anniversary is on January 23, 2024. It is celebrated as Parakram Diwas. About Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose:- Birth: 1897. Birth place: Cuttack, Bengal. Subhas Chandra Bose was the ninth child of Janakinath and Prabhavati Bose. He passed the Indian Civil Services (ICS) examination in 1919. However, Bose later resigned. Vivekananda’s teachings had a strong influence on him, and he regarded him as his spiritual Guru. Chittaranjan Das was his political mentor. (Bhagat Singh) He founded his own newspaper, Swaraj, after working as an editor for Das’s newspaper Forward. He advocated for unqualified Swaraj (independence) and opposed the Motilal Nehru Report, which advocated for India’s dominion status. He actively participated in the 1930 Salt Satyagraha and was vehemently opposed to the suspension of the Civil Disobedience Movement and the signing of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact in 1931. He was intimately linked with left politics in Congress in the 1930s, alongside Jawaharlal Nehru and M.N. Roy. In 1938, Bose was elected president of the Congress Party in Haripura. In 1939, he won the presidential elections in Tripuri against Gandhi’s candidate, Pattabhi Sitaramayya. Bose resigned and left Congress due to ideological differences with Gandhi. He established a new political party, called “the Forward Bloc.” INA and World War II:- The Indian National Army was formed in 1942, consisting of thousands of Indian prisoners of war captured by the Japanese, and supported by Japanese troops. After his arrival in Singapore, Bose, issued from there his famous call, ‘Delhi Chalo’, and announced the formation of the Azad Hind Government and the Indian National Army on 21st October 1943. The headquarters of the provisional government was moved to Rangoon in January 1944, and after fighting at the Arakan Front, the INA crossed the Indo-Burma border and marched towards Imphal and Kohima in March. The Chalo Delhi campaign ended at Imphal however, as the British and British Indian armies, were able to defeat the Japanese forces and the INA and push them out of Kohima as well. After the Japanese surrendered on August 16, Bose left South East Asia on a Japanese plane and headed toward China. MUST READ: Nataji Subhash Chandra Bose’s contribution and legacy SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was (2018) Aurobindo Ghosh Bipin Chandra Pal Lala Lajpat Rai Motilal Nehru National Green Hydrogen Mission Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES/ ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: The Union Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) has recently published guidelines and incentives to promote the procurement of green hydrogen as part of the National Green Hydrogen Mission. Background:- Under the mission, Rs 17,490 crore has been set aside for the Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition (SIGHT) programme, to bolster domestic electrolyser manufacturing and green hydrogen production. About National Green Hydrogen Mission:- Launched: 2021. Ministry: Ministry of New and Renewable Energy. Objectives:- To make India a global hub for the production and export of green hydrogen. To harness green hydrogen energy to fulfill India’s Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs). Salient Features:- NGHM is a part of National Hydrogen Mission (NHM) which was announced by the finance minister in the Union Budget 2021-22. The Prime Minister of India also announced the National Hydrogen Mission on India’s 75th Independence Day. The NGHM will facilitate demand creation, production, utilization and export of Green Hydrogen. The Mission will also support pilot projects in emerging end-use sectors and production pathways. An enabling policy framework will be developed to support the establishment of the Green Hydrogen ecosystem. A public-private partnership framework for R&D will be facilitated under the Mission. R&D projects will be goal-oriented, time-bound, and suitably scaled up to develop globally competitive technologies. About Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition (SIGHT) Programme:- It is a subcomponent of National Green Hydrogen Mission. Objective:To bolster domestic electrolyser manufacturing and green hydrogen production. Implementing agency: The Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI) . In the initial stage, two distinct financial incentive mechanisms were proposed with an outlay of ₹ 17,490 crore up to 2029-30: Incentive for manufacturing of electrolysers Incentive for production of green hydrogen. MUST READ: India’s Renewable Energy SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements: (2023) None of them uses seawater. None of them is set up in a water-stressed district. None of them is privately owned. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency Great Indian Bustard Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, the Great Indian Bustard, Supreme Court asks government. Background:- The Supreme Court recently directed the Centre to come clean on its plans to save the critically endangered Great Indian Bustard. About Great Indian Bustard:- Scientific Name: Ardeotis nigriceps. Habitat: dry grasslands and scrublands. It is one of the most critically threatened speciesin India, with less than 150 birds left in the wild. They are one of the heaviest flying birds in India. (Great Indian Bustard) Experts say only two districts in Rajasthan : Jaisalmer and Barmer. The bird can also be found in very small numbers in Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh. Conservation Status:- IUCN Red List: Critically Endangered. Wildlife (Protection)Act, 1972: Schedule 1. CITES: Appendix 1.  MUST READ: Snow Leopard SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements are correct? (2020) It is spread over two districts. There is no human habitation inside the Park. It is one of the natural habitats of the Great Indian Bustard. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: GOVERNMENT SCHEMES MINISTRY STARS Project Ministry of Education Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojna Ministry of Finance PM SVANIDI Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose on his birth anniversary is on January 23, 2024. Statement-II : It is celebrated as Parakram Diwas. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Great Indian Bustard, consider the following statements: Is Scientific Name is Ardeotis nigriceps. It stays in dry grasslands and scrublands. They are one of the lightest flying birds in India. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  13th January 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 12th January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 23rd January 2024

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   North Eastern Council Syllabus Prelims – POLITY Context: The Union Home Minister and Minister of Cooperation Shri Amit Shah addressed the 71st Plenary Session of the North Eastern Council in Shillong recently. Background:- In his address, Shri Amit Shah said that the last 10 years under the leadership of Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi have been the most significant for the development of the Northeast in the 75 years since independence. About North Eastern Council:- The North Eastern Council (NEC) is not a constitutional body. It is a statutory organization. It was established under the North Eastern Council Act, 1971, as amended in 2002. Initially, NEC was an Advisory Body for the North Eastern Region (NER). Now NEC is mandated to function as a Regional Planning Body for the North Eastern Region. The Union Cabinet, in June 2018, approved the proposal of the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER) for the nomination of the Union Home Minister as ex-officio Chairman of the North Eastern Council (NEC). The Cabinet also approved that the Minister of State (Independent Charge), Ministry of DoNER would serve as Vice Chairman of the Council.  Zonal Councils The Council comprises Governors and Chief Ministers of constituent States and three members nominated by the President. While formulating the regional plans for the North Eastern Region, it is mandated to give priority to schemes and projects, benefitting two or more States, provided that in the case of Sikkim, the Council shall formulate specific projects and schemes for that State including the review of implementation of such project and schemes. To fulfil its mandate, the NEC has been implementing various projects in different sectors. Over the years, NEC has achieved the construction of 10500 km. of roads, supported the installation of 695 MW of power plants, constructed transmission and distribution lines, improved in infrastructure of 5 major airports and constructed of new airport in Tezu, Arunachal Pradesh. MUST READ:  Inter-State Council SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State, and Deputy Minister. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution? (2013) National Development Council Planning Commission Zonal Councils Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Oil Prices and India Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, Oil Prices dropped by 0.93% Amid Geopolitical Tensions in West Asia. Background:- In intra-day trade, Brent crude was trading 0.93 per cent lower at 77 dollars and 56 cents per barrel, while U.S. West Texas Intermediate crude was also trading three per cent lower at 71 dollars and 91 cents per barrel when reports last came in. About Oil Prices and India:- India is the third-largest oil consumer and imports more than 80% of its total crude oil India imports roughly 70% of its crude from the OPEC members. On a decadal comparison, the imports have reduced drastically from 87% to 70% in 2021-22. However, OPEC still accounts for the majority of India’s oil imports. OPEC is a permanent, intergovernmental organization, which aims to manage the supply of oil in an effort to set the price of oil in the world market. Factors that affect Oil Prices:- Supply and Consumption. Government regulation. Geo-Politics Financial Markets. Impacts of Oil Prices drop on India:- Decreased Imported Inflation. (High oil prices) Higher Economic Growth. Lower Fiscal Deficit. Lower External Vulnerability  MUST READ: Oil Market meltdown SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1)  With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements. (2022) An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of the rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2)With reference to Foreign Direct Investment in India, which one of the following is considered its major characteristic? (2020) It is the investment through capital instruments essentially in a listed company. It is a largely non-debt-creating capital flow. It is the investment which involves debt-servicing. It is the investment made by foreign institutional investors in Government securities Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar 2024 Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT AWARDS/ GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: Recently, Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar 2024 were announced. Background:- The President of India, Smt. Droupadi Murmu will confer the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar, 2024 to 19 exceptional children in an award ceremony which will take place at Vigyan Bhawan on 22nd January, 2024. About Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar 2024:- The awards were conferred by the President of India at a ceremonial function to be held at Vigyan Bhawan on 22nd January, 2024. The Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar, 2024 will be conferred upon 19 children selected from all regions of the country for their exceptional achievements in the fields of Art and Culture (7), Bravery (1), Innovation (1), Science & Technology (1), Social Service (4), and Sports (5). There are 9 boys and 10 girls among the awardees belonging to 18 States and UTs including 2 Aspirational Districts. On 23rd January 2024 Prime Minister of India, Shri Narendra Modi will interact with Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar awardees. The children will also participate in the Republic Day parade on 26th January 2024. The Government of India confers the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar (PMRBP) award to children for their exceptional achievement. Eligibility:- The awards are conferred upon the children in the age group 5 – 18 years, for their excellence in seven categories, viz. Art & Culture, Bravery, Environment, Innovation, Science & Technology, Social Service and Sports, which deserve national recognition. Nominations:- This year, the Ministry of Women & Child Development made special efforts to increase nominations by issuing advertisements in regional newspapers and all major National newspapers. The National Award Portal was kept open for nominations for a longer period from 9th May 23 to 15th September 23. Line Ministries, Chief Secretaries/ Administrators of all States/ UTs, DMs/ DCs across the country were requested to give PMRBP wide publicity through print and electronic media and other mediums, so that the award is publicized, and nominations are submitted from all levels including Gram Panchayats/ Municipalities, etc. Selection:- The profiles shortlisted after the Screening Committee Meeting were again examined by National Level Independent Experts from various domains such as Sangeet Natak Akademi, Central Reserve Police Force, Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change, Indian Space Research Organisation, Department of Scientific & Industrial Research, Indian Institute of Public Administration and Sports Authority of India amongst others. The National Selection Committee examined the shortlisted profiles for final selection. Decoration:- Each awardee of PMRBP is given a medal and a Certificate. (Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar-2023)  MUST READ: Ramon Magsaysay Award SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards : (2023) Major Dhyan Chand: For the most Khel Ratna Award spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over the period of the last four years. Arjuna Award:                        For the lifetime achievement of a sportsperson. Dronacharya Award: To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams. Rashtriya Khel: To recognize the Protsahan Puraskar contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards. (2021) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements is not correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Sanatan Khadi Vastra Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) launched a new range of ‘Sanatan Khadi Vastra’. Background:- KVIC Chairman Manoj Kumar launched Sanatan Vastra made from Khadi clothes at the flagship Khadi Bhawan in Connaught Place in Delhi. About Sanatan Khadi Vastra:- By: Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC). The design of Sanatan clothing has been prepared at the Khadi Centre of Excellence located at NIFT. The creation of Khadi involves no mechanical or chemical processes, distinguishing Sanatan textiles for adhering to traditional Indian methods. To celebrate the launch, KVIC offered a special 20% discount on ‘Sanatan Vastra’ and 10% to 60% on other Khadi and village industry products from January 17 to 25, 2024​​​​​​​​​. Significance:- ‘Sanatan Vastra’ embodies a fusion of India’s rich heritage and contemporary fashion trends. It holds a broader significance in enhancing the livelihoods of countless rural artisans. This initiative contributes significantly to the economic empowerment of these communities.( Rural Manufacturing)  Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) Establishment: Ministry:Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises. It is a statutory bodyestablished under the Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act, of 1956. Objectives of KVIC:- To boost employment in the country. (UPSC CSE: Project Re-Hab) To promote the promotion and sale of Khadi articles. To cater to the self-reliance doctrine of the country by empowering underprivileged and rural sections of society. Function: The KVIC is charged with the planning, promotion, organization and implementation of programmes for the development of Khadi and other village industries in the rural areas in coordination with other agencies engaged in rural development wherever necessary.  MUST READ: Gramodyog Vikas Yojna SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements with reference to India: (2023) According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between (‘ 15 crores and ’25 crore.) All bank loans to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Shri Ram Janmbhoomi Mandir Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi participated in Pran Pratishtha  ceremony of Shri Ramlalla in the newly built Shri Ram Janmbhoomi Mandir. Background:- The historic Pran Pratishtha ceremony will be attended by representatives of all major spiritual and religious sects of the country. About Shri Ram Janmbhoomi Mandir:- Tata Consulting Engineers Limited ( TCEL) is the Project Management Company. Larsen and Toubro (L&T) is the Construction Company. The Sculptors are Arun Yogiraaj (Mysore), Ganesh Bhatt and Satyanarayan Pandey. Chandrakant Sompura, and his two sons – Nikhil Sompura and Ashish Sompura are the Chief Architects. IIT Guwahati, IIT Chennai, IIT Bombay, NIT Surat, Central Building Research Institute Roorkee, National Geo Research Institute Hyderabad, and the National Institute of Rock Mechanics are the design advisors. The construction of the Ram Mandir is being supervised by the Shri Ram Janmabhoomi Teerth Kshetra Trust. The trust was set up in 2020 after the Supreme Court’s verdict in the Ayodhya land dispute case. It is composed of 15 trustees. Architecture:- It is designed in the Nagara Style.( Indian temple architecture ‘Devayatanam’) Gurjara Chalukya architecture is classified as part of the Nagara style of temple architecture. The temple will consist of five mandapas in the middle of the garbhagriha (sanctum sanctorum) and on the entryway. Ram Lalla Virajman, the infant form of Lord Rama, an incarnation of Lord Vishnu, is the presiding deity of the temple. The temple will have idols each including the incarnations of Shiva, the 10 Dashavataras, the 64 Chausath Yoginis, and the 12 incarnations of the goddess Saraswati. The main structure of the temple will be built on a raised platform and will have three storeys. The use of Steel or Iron has been completely avoided in the construction of Ram Mandir. Instead, traditional construction materials have been used in its construction to reflect an alignment with traditional building practices MUST READ: Srisailam Temple SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Th Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of the Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) With reference  to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: (2021) It is a circular temple built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. It is the only circular temple built in India. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Khelo India Youth Games 2023 Syllabus Prelims –SPORTS Context: Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi inaugurated the opening ceremony of the Khelo India Youth Games 2023 in Chennai, Tamil Nadu recently. Background:- Shri Modi also launched and laid the foundation stone of projects related to the Broadcasting sector worth about Rs 250 crores. About Khelo India Youth Games 2023:- The Khelo India Youth Games, will witness the participation of athletes from all 36 states and union territories of India. It will bring together the resolve, commitment and belief of all athletes and the nation will be a witness to their dedication, self-confidence, never-say-die spirit and passion for extraordinary performances. Khelo India Logo carries the image of Saint Thiruvalluvar. This is the first time that Khelo India Youth Games are being held in South India. The Games will be played across four cities of Tamil Nadu, namely Chennai, Madurai, Trichy and Coimbatore. It will be from 19th to 31st  January 2024. The mascot for the games is Veera Mangai. Rani Velu Nachiyar, fondly called Veera Mangai, was an Indian queen who waged a war against British colonial rule. The mascot symbolizes the valour and spirit of Indian women, embodying the strength of women’s power. MUST READ: Grand Slam SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. · How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate and Baseball are included in this Olympics. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 SLIM (Smart Lander for Investigating Moon) Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Japan’s Smart Lander for Investigating Moon (SLIM) successfully landed on the moon recently. Background:- SLIM landed on the moon surface on January 20, 2024, at 0:20 am (JST). Communication with spacecraft has been established after the landing. About SLIM (Smart Lander for Investigating Moon):- Launch Date: September 7, 2023 Launch Location: Yoshinobu Launch Complex at the JAXA Tanegashima Space Center. Launch Vehicle: H-IIA Launch Vehicle No. 47. Agency: Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA). SLIM is Japan’s first lunar surface mission. (CHANDRAYAAN-2) The SLIM (Smart Lander for Investigating the Moon) project is a mission for researching the pinpoint landing technology necessary for future lunar probes and verifying this on the surface of the moon with a small-scale probe. SLIM is lighter because it carries much less fuel. It utilized earth gravity to build kinetic energy, eventually aligning its trajectory with the moon for a slower approach and capture. Once it gets close to the moon, it will get deflected into the deeper space by the combined forces of Earth and Moon. This larger, more loopy path was designed to bring it back near the moon after it had slowed down further, allowing it to get captured by the Moon’s orbit. Upon soft landing, SLIM will deploy two small rovers called Lunar Excursion Vehicle (LEV) 1 and 2. They will study the lunar surface near the landing point, collect temperature and radiation readings, and attempt to study the moon’s mantle. MUST READ: Chandrayaan-3 SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the: (2022) First half of the month of June Second half of the month of June First half of the month of July Second half of the month of July Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: SPACE MISION AGENCY VIPER JAXA Aditya L-1 DRDO Hera NASA How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar 2024 was conferred by the Prime Minister of India. Statement-II : The awards are conferred upon the children in the age group 5 – 18 years. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Shri Ram Janmbhoomi Mandir, consider the following statements: The chief sculptors are Arun Yogiraaj (Mysore), Ganesh Bhatt and Satyanarayan Pandey. Chandrakant Sompura, and his two sons – Nikhil Sompura and Ashish Sompura are the Chief Architects. Steel or Iron has been used extensively in the construction of Ram Mandir. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  23rd January 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 22nd January – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2024 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 23rd January 2024

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here