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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022.
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Question 1 of 35
1. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to the Five-Year Planning (FYP) phase:
Implementation of Family Planning Programs was amongst the major targets of the seventh FYP.
The ninth FYP for the first time had a separate plan document on states.
The concept of Inclusive growth was introduced for the first time in the eighth FYP.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Incorrect
Incorrect
Incorrect
The objective of fourth FYP (1969-74) includes “growth with stability and progressive achievement of self- reliance”. Implementation of Family Planning Programs was amongst the major targets of the Plan.
The tenth FYP (2002 – 2007) sought to double national per capita income and create a hundred million jobs in 10 years.
The 10th FYP emphasized regional imbalance and for the first time had a separate plan document on states.
The eleventh plan (2007 – 2012) introduced the concept of inclusive growth. It focused on human resources, especially health and skill development.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Incorrect
Incorrect
Incorrect
The objective of fourth FYP (1969-74) includes “growth with stability and progressive achievement of self- reliance”. Implementation of Family Planning Programs was amongst the major targets of the Plan.
The tenth FYP (2002 – 2007) sought to double national per capita income and create a hundred million jobs in 10 years.
The 10th FYP emphasized regional imbalance and for the first time had a separate plan document on states.
The eleventh plan (2007 – 2012) introduced the concept of inclusive growth. It focused on human resources, especially health and skill development.
Question 2 of 35
2. Question
Which of the following expenditures are considered as Non-Developmental expenditure?
Expenditure on Administration
Maintenance of law and order
Cost of tax collection
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Correct
Correct
Non-developmental expenditure includes expenditures made for administrative service, defence service, debt servicing, subsidies, etc.
Non-developmental expenditure includes expenditure made on maintenance of law and order.
Cost of tax collection, cost of an audit, printing of notes, internal law and order are also included under Non-development expenditure.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Correct
Correct
Non-developmental expenditure includes expenditures made for administrative service, defence service, debt servicing, subsidies, etc.
Non-developmental expenditure includes expenditure made on maintenance of law and order.
Cost of tax collection, cost of an audit, printing of notes, internal law and order are also included under Non-development expenditure.
Question 3 of 35
3. Question
Consider the following pairs:
Deficit Description
Effective Revenue Deficit:: Fiscal deficit – Interest payments
Primary Deficit:: Revenue Deficit – Grants for the creation of capital assets
Monetized Deficit:: Government deficit financed by borrowing from the RBI
How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
a) None of the pairs
b) One pair only
c) Two pairs only
d) Three pairs only
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Incorrect
Incorrect
Correct
Revenue deficit is the difference between revenue receipts and revenue expenditure.
Effective Revenue deficit is a new term introduced in the Union Budget 2011-12.
Effective Revenue Deficit = Revenue Deficit – Grants for the creation of capital assets.
Primary Deficit is the difference between the current year’s fiscal deficit (Total income– Total expenditure of the government) and the interest paid on the borrowings of the previous year.
Primary Deficit = Fiscal deficit – Interest payments
Monetized deficit is also known as the ‘net reserve bank credit to the government’. It is that part of the government deficit which is financed solely by borrowing from the RBI
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Incorrect
Incorrect
Correct
Revenue deficit is the difference between revenue receipts and revenue expenditure.
Effective Revenue deficit is a new term introduced in the Union Budget 2011-12.
Effective Revenue Deficit = Revenue Deficit – Grants for the creation of capital assets.
Primary Deficit is the difference between the current year’s fiscal deficit (Total income– Total expenditure of the government) and the interest paid on the borrowings of the previous year.
Primary Deficit = Fiscal deficit – Interest payments
Monetized deficit is also known as the ‘net reserve bank credit to the government’. It is that part of the government deficit which is financed solely by borrowing from the RBI
Question 4 of 35
4. Question
With reference to the First Five-Year Plan in India, consider the following statement:
It focused on rapid industrialization using heavy and basic industries.
The actual growth rate exceeded the target growth rate set by the five-year plan.
Choose the correct code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Incorrect
Correct
An influx of refugees, severe food shortage & mounting inflation confronted the country at the onset of the First Five-year Plan.
The Plan Focused on agriculture, price stability, power, and transport.
The First Five-Year Plan (1951-56) kept the Growth rate target of 2.1%.
Whereas, the actual Growth rate was 3.6%.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Incorrect
Correct
An influx of refugees, severe food shortage & mounting inflation confronted the country at the onset of the First Five-year Plan.
The Plan Focused on agriculture, price stability, power, and transport.
The First Five-Year Plan (1951-56) kept the Growth rate target of 2.1%.
Whereas, the actual Growth rate was 3.6%.
Question 5 of 35
5. Question
Which of the following can lead to the condition of ‘Fiscal Slippage’ in an economy?
Farm loan waivers
Decline in tax collection
Increase in disinvestment proceeds
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Correct
Incorrect
Fiscal slippage in simple terms is any deviation in expenditure from the expected. When the Government’s expenditure surpasses the expected or estimated levels, the nation might face the threat of fiscal slippage.
Farm loan waivers increase the expenditure that will lead to the condition of fiscal slippage.
Tax rate cuts lead to a decline in tax revenue that will lead to the condition of fiscal slippage.
Increase in disinvestment proceed rather prevents (not lead to) the situation of fiscal slippage
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Correct
Incorrect
Fiscal slippage in simple terms is any deviation in expenditure from the expected. When the Government’s expenditure surpasses the expected or estimated levels, the nation might face the threat of fiscal slippage.
Farm loan waivers increase the expenditure that will lead to the condition of fiscal slippage.
Tax rate cuts lead to a decline in tax revenue that will lead to the condition of fiscal slippage.
Increase in disinvestment proceed rather prevents (not lead to) the situation of fiscal slippage
Question 6 of 35
6. Question
With reference to Revenue Deficit, consider the following statements:
It includes such transactions that affect the current income and expenditure of the government.
It signifies that government is using up the savings to finance a part of its consumption expenditure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Correct
The revenue deficit includes only such transactions that affect the current income and expenditure of the government. When the government incurs a revenue deficit, it implies that the government is dissaving and is using up the savings of the other sectors of the economy to finance a part of its consumption expenditure.
This situation means that the government will have to borrow not only to finance its investment but also its consumption requirements. This will lead to a build-up of stock of debt and interest liabilities and force the government, eventually, to cut expenditure. Since a major part of revenue expenditure is committed expenditure, it cannot be reduced. Often the government reduces productive capital expenditure or welfare expenditure. This would mean lower growth and adverse welfare implications.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Correct
The revenue deficit includes only such transactions that affect the current income and expenditure of the government. When the government incurs a revenue deficit, it implies that the government is dissaving and is using up the savings of the other sectors of the economy to finance a part of its consumption expenditure.
This situation means that the government will have to borrow not only to finance its investment but also its consumption requirements. This will lead to a build-up of stock of debt and interest liabilities and force the government, eventually, to cut expenditure. Since a major part of revenue expenditure is committed expenditure, it cannot be reduced. Often the government reduces productive capital expenditure or welfare expenditure. This would mean lower growth and adverse welfare implications.
Question 7 of 35
7. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Short Term Capital Gains Tax’ in India:
It refers to a tax on the gain that arises from the sale of an asset after holding it less than sixty months.
Securities Transaction Tax (STT) is an indirect tax levied on sale and purchase of equities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Incorrect
Incorrect
Short Term Capital Gains Tax (STCG) is the tax levied on profits generated from the sale of an asset which is held for a short-term period which differs for various items – for example it is 36 months or less in the case of immovable property such as land and building and 12 months or less for equity, bonds, government securities etc.
The Securities Transaction Tax (STT) is a type of direct tax which is levied at the time of purchase and sale of securities listed on stock exchanges in India. Securities are tradable investment instruments such as shares bonds, debentures, equity-oriented mutual funds (MFs) and so on and are issued either by companies or by the Indian government. This tax was introduced in the Union Budget of 2004.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Incorrect
Incorrect
Short Term Capital Gains Tax (STCG) is the tax levied on profits generated from the sale of an asset which is held for a short-term period which differs for various items – for example it is 36 months or less in the case of immovable property such as land and building and 12 months or less for equity, bonds, government securities etc.
The Securities Transaction Tax (STT) is a type of direct tax which is levied at the time of purchase and sale of securities listed on stock exchanges in India. Securities are tradable investment instruments such as shares bonds, debentures, equity-oriented mutual funds (MFs) and so on and are issued either by companies or by the Indian government. This tax was introduced in the Union Budget of 2004.
Question 8 of 35
8. Question
Which of the following statements is correct with respect to ‘General Anti-Avoidance Rule (GAAR)’?
a) It is designed to prevent tax avoidance in cross border transactions only.
b) Its provisions are included in the Income Tax Act, 1961.
c) Its provisions are effective from January 2019.
d) As of now, there are no appellate tribunals to appeal against the decisions of tax authorities regarding GAAR provisions.
Correct
Solution (b)
GAAR is an anti-tax avoidance law under Chapter X-A of the Income Tax Act, 1961 of India. It is framed by the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance.
GAAR applies to any arrangement that is considered an Impermissible Avoidance Arrangement (IAA). Furthermore, under its provisions, certain transactions are deemed to lack commercial substance. Once the Revenue authorities decide to treat an arrangement as an IAA, the onus to prove otherwise is on taxpayers. Consequently, they are required to substantiate the commercial reasons for such arrangements and that availing tax benefit was not the main purpose for these transactions.
Under the Income Tax act, a taxpayer has the right to appeal to the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT) against an order passed by the Revenue authorities along with the direction of the Approving Panel.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
GAAR is an anti-tax avoidance law under Chapter X-A of the Income Tax Act, 1961 of India. It is framed by the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance.
GAAR applies to any arrangement that is considered an Impermissible Avoidance Arrangement (IAA). Furthermore, under its provisions, certain transactions are deemed to lack commercial substance. Once the Revenue authorities decide to treat an arrangement as an IAA, the onus to prove otherwise is on taxpayers. Consequently, they are required to substantiate the commercial reasons for such arrangements and that availing tax benefit was not the main purpose for these transactions.
Under the Income Tax act, a taxpayer has the right to appeal to the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT) against an order passed by the Revenue authorities along with the direction of the Approving Panel.
Question 9 of 35
9. Question
In the context of Indian economy, what is ‘Economic Capital Framework’?
a) It is a part of the annual budget documents, intended to be placed before the parliament, outlining the various strategies for capital generation.
b) It is a framework developed by the RBI to determine the appropriate level of risk provisions and distribution of profits between the RBI and the Union Government.
c) It is the annual submission of RBI under the Basel Committee outlining the former's commitments.
d) It is the framework developed by the NITI Aayog that guides the sharing of revenues between the Centre and the states.
Correct
Solution (b)
The economic capital framework provides a methodology for determining the appropriate level of risk provisions and profit distribution to be made under Section 47 of the RBI Act, 1934.
As per this provision, the central bank is required to pay balance of its profits to the central government after making provision for bad and doubtful debts, depreciation in assets, and contributions to staff.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
The economic capital framework provides a methodology for determining the appropriate level of risk provisions and profit distribution to be made under Section 47 of the RBI Act, 1934.
As per this provision, the central bank is required to pay balance of its profits to the central government after making provision for bad and doubtful debts, depreciation in assets, and contributions to staff.
Question 10 of 35
10. Question
Which of the following fiscal policy statements are required to be laid before the Parliament under the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003 (FRBMA)?
Medium-term Fiscal Policy
Fiscal Policy Strategy
Outcome Budget
Medium-term Expenditure Framework
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Statement 4
Correct
Correct
Incorrect
Correct
The FRBM Act includes the Medium Term Fiscal Policy. It sets out the three-year rolling targets for five specific fiscal indicators in relation to GDP at market prices, namely
(i) Revenue Deficit, (ii) Fiscal Deficit,
(iii) Effective Revenue Deficit
(iv) Tax to GDP ratio and
(v) Total outstanding Central Government Debt at the end of the year.
The Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement, presented to Parliament as per the FRBM Act. The Strategy Statement outlines the strategic priorities of Government in the fiscal area for the ensuing financial year relating to taxation, expenditure, lending and investments, administered pricing, borrowings and guarantees. The Statement explains how the current policies are in conformity with sound fiscal management principles and gives the rationale for any major deviation in key fiscal measures.
The introduction of Outcome Budget is an executive action by the government. From the year 2017-18 onwards, it has been decided that the output and outcomes of the schemes of 68 Ministries and Departments will be available along with the financial outlays as a part of the Budget documents, so that clearly defined objectives and goals for each scheme can be seen by all.
The medium-term expenditure framework (MTEF) statement sets a three-year rolling target for expenditure indicators, along with specifications of underpinning assumptions and risks. This statement is presented in Parliament under Section 3 of the FRBM Act, 2003.
The statement provides an estimate of expenditure for various sectors, including education, health, rural development, energy, subsidies and pension, and so on.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Statement 4
Correct
Correct
Incorrect
Correct
The FRBM Act includes the Medium Term Fiscal Policy. It sets out the three-year rolling targets for five specific fiscal indicators in relation to GDP at market prices, namely
(i) Revenue Deficit, (ii) Fiscal Deficit,
(iii) Effective Revenue Deficit
(iv) Tax to GDP ratio and
(v) Total outstanding Central Government Debt at the end of the year.
The Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement, presented to Parliament as per the FRBM Act. The Strategy Statement outlines the strategic priorities of Government in the fiscal area for the ensuing financial year relating to taxation, expenditure, lending and investments, administered pricing, borrowings and guarantees. The Statement explains how the current policies are in conformity with sound fiscal management principles and gives the rationale for any major deviation in key fiscal measures.
The introduction of Outcome Budget is an executive action by the government. From the year 2017-18 onwards, it has been decided that the output and outcomes of the schemes of 68 Ministries and Departments will be available along with the financial outlays as a part of the Budget documents, so that clearly defined objectives and goals for each scheme can be seen by all.
The medium-term expenditure framework (MTEF) statement sets a three-year rolling target for expenditure indicators, along with specifications of underpinning assumptions and risks. This statement is presented in Parliament under Section 3 of the FRBM Act, 2003.
The statement provides an estimate of expenditure for various sectors, including education, health, rural development, energy, subsidies and pension, and so on.
Question 11 of 35
11. Question
Which of the following actions implemented by the government may lead to reduction in its deficit?
Increase in the rate of personal Income Tax.
Sale of shares of Public Sector Undertakings.
Introduction of new welfare schemes by the government.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Correct
Incorrect
Government deficit can be reduced by an increase in taxes or reduction in expenditure. In India, the government has been trying to increase tax revenue with greater reliance on direct taxes.
There has also been an attempt to raise receipts through the sale of shares in PSUs.
The other way is to change the scope of the government by withdrawing from some of the areas where it operated before. Cutting back government programmes in vital areas like agriculture, education, health, poverty alleviation, etc. would adversely affect the economy.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Correct
Incorrect
Government deficit can be reduced by an increase in taxes or reduction in expenditure. In India, the government has been trying to increase tax revenue with greater reliance on direct taxes.
There has also been an attempt to raise receipts through the sale of shares in PSUs.
The other way is to change the scope of the government by withdrawing from some of the areas where it operated before. Cutting back government programmes in vital areas like agriculture, education, health, poverty alleviation, etc. would adversely affect the economy.
Question 12 of 35
12. Question
The government of a nation performs its income distribution function through which of the following mechanisms?
Levying taxes
Transfer Payment
Controlling money supply
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Correct
Incorrect
Through its tax and expenditure policy, the government attempts to bring about a distribution of income that is considered, fair by society. The government affects the personal disposable income of households by making transfer payments and collecting taxes and, therefore, can alter the income distribution. This is the distribution function.
Transfer Payment is a payment made or income received in which no goods or services are being paid for, such as a benefit payment or subsidy. Unlike the exchange transaction which mutually benefits all the parties involved in it, the transfer payment consists of a donor and a recipient, with the donor giving up something of value without receiving anything in return.
In any period, the level of expenditures may not be sufficient for full utilisation of labour and other resources of the economy. Since wages and prices are generally rigid downwards (they do not fall below a level), employment cannot be restored automatically. Hence, policy measures are needed to raise aggregate demand.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Correct
Incorrect
Through its tax and expenditure policy, the government attempts to bring about a distribution of income that is considered, fair by society. The government affects the personal disposable income of households by making transfer payments and collecting taxes and, therefore, can alter the income distribution. This is the distribution function.
Transfer Payment is a payment made or income received in which no goods or services are being paid for, such as a benefit payment or subsidy. Unlike the exchange transaction which mutually benefits all the parties involved in it, the transfer payment consists of a donor and a recipient, with the donor giving up something of value without receiving anything in return.
In any period, the level of expenditures may not be sufficient for full utilisation of labour and other resources of the economy. Since wages and prices are generally rigid downwards (they do not fall below a level), employment cannot be restored automatically. Hence, policy measures are needed to raise aggregate demand.
Question 13 of 35
13. Question
Which of the following is/are included in Public Debt of India?
Treasury bills
Outstanding external debts
Borrowing from small savings
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Correct
Incorrect
In India, public debt refers to a part of the total borrowings by the Union Government which includes such items as market loans, special bearer bonds, treasury bills and special loans and securities issued by the Reserve Bank.
It also includes the outstanding external debt.
At end-March 2021, India’s external debt was placed at US$ 570.0 billion
Public debt does not include the following items of borrowings:
· small savings,
· provident funds,
· other accounts, reserve funds and deposits.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Correct
Incorrect
In India, public debt refers to a part of the total borrowings by the Union Government which includes such items as market loans, special bearer bonds, treasury bills and special loans and securities issued by the Reserve Bank.
It also includes the outstanding external debt.
At end-March 2021, India’s external debt was placed at US$ 570.0 billion
Public debt does not include the following items of borrowings:
· small savings,
· provident funds,
· other accounts, reserve funds and deposits.
Question 14 of 35
14. Question
With reference to Primary Deficit, consider the following statements:
The primary deficit is the sum of Fiscal deficit and interest payments.
It includes the burden of the past debt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Incorrect
Incorrect
Gross Primary deficit is defined as gross fiscal deficit minus net interest payments. Net primary deficit, is gross primary deficit minus net domestic lending.
It excludes the burden of the past debt and shows the net increase in the government’s indebtedness due to the current year’s fiscal operations. A reduction in primary deficit is reflective of government’s efforts at bridging the fiscal gap during a financial year.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Incorrect
Incorrect
Gross Primary deficit is defined as gross fiscal deficit minus net interest payments. Net primary deficit, is gross primary deficit minus net domestic lending.
It excludes the burden of the past debt and shows the net increase in the government’s indebtedness due to the current year’s fiscal operations. A reduction in primary deficit is reflective of government’s efforts at bridging the fiscal gap during a financial year.
Question 15 of 35
15. Question
With reference to Minimum Alternate Tax, consider the following statements:
It is a direct tax imposed under Income Tax Act, 1961.
It does not apply to any income accruing or arising to a company from life insurance business.
It is not applicable to public corporate entities.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Correct
Incorrect
Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT) is a tax effectively introduced in India by the Finance Act of 1987, vide Section 115J of the Income Tax Act, 1961 (IT Act), to facilitate the taxation of ‘zero tax companies’ i.e., those companies which show zero or negligible income to avoid tax. It is a direct tax.
Under MAT, such companies are made liable to pay to the government, by deeming a certain percentage of their book profit as taxable income.
However, it does not apply to any income accruing or arising to a company from life insurance business.
The applicability of MAT extends to all types of companies, including a private company, one-person company, public limited company and Nidhi company.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Correct
Incorrect
Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT) is a tax effectively introduced in India by the Finance Act of 1987, vide Section 115J of the Income Tax Act, 1961 (IT Act), to facilitate the taxation of ‘zero tax companies’ i.e., those companies which show zero or negligible income to avoid tax. It is a direct tax.
Under MAT, such companies are made liable to pay to the government, by deeming a certain percentage of their book profit as taxable income.
However, it does not apply to any income accruing or arising to a company from life insurance business.
The applicability of MAT extends to all types of companies, including a private company, one-person company, public limited company and Nidhi company.
Question 16 of 35
16. Question
In the context of the Indian Economy, what are Ways and Means advances?
a) These are part of the infrastructure projects financing mechanism by the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF).
b) These are loans advanced by the World Bank to developing economies.
c) These are temporary loans advanced by RBI to central and state governments.
d) These are loans advanced by the IMF to overcome the medium-term balance of payments crisis.
Correct
Solution (c)
The Reserve Bank of India gives temporary loan facilities to the centre and state governments as a banker to the This temporary loan facility is called Ways and Means Advances (WMA).
This facility is provided to help them tide over temporary mismatches in the cash flow of their receipts and This is guided under Section 17(5) of the RBI Act, 1934.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
The Reserve Bank of India gives temporary loan facilities to the centre and state governments as a banker to the This temporary loan facility is called Ways and Means Advances (WMA).
This facility is provided to help them tide over temporary mismatches in the cash flow of their receipts and This is guided under Section 17(5) of the RBI Act, 1934.
Question 17 of 35
17. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the differences between Proportional and Progressive Taxation:
In progressive taxation, tax rate increases with an increase in the income whereas, in proportional taxation same percentage of tax is levied on all taxpayers.
As compared to progressive taxation, proportional taxation makes disposable income less sensitive to fluctuations in GDP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Correct
A proportional tax is an income tax system where the same percentage of tax is levied on all taxpayers, regardless of their income. A proportional tax applies the same tax rate across low, middle, and high-income taxpayers.
Whereas, progressive taxation is based on the taxable amount of an individual’s income. They follow an accelerating schedule, so high-income earners pay more than low-income earners.
The proportional income tax acts as an automatic stabiliser – a shock absorber because it makes disposable income, and thus consumer spending, less sensitive to fluctuations in GDP as compared to progressive taxation. When GDP rises, disposable income also rises but by less than the rise in GDP because a part of it is siphoned off as taxes. This helps limit the upward fluctuation in consumption spending.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Correct
A proportional tax is an income tax system where the same percentage of tax is levied on all taxpayers, regardless of their income. A proportional tax applies the same tax rate across low, middle, and high-income taxpayers.
Whereas, progressive taxation is based on the taxable amount of an individual’s income. They follow an accelerating schedule, so high-income earners pay more than low-income earners.
The proportional income tax acts as an automatic stabiliser – a shock absorber because it makes disposable income, and thus consumer spending, less sensitive to fluctuations in GDP as compared to progressive taxation. When GDP rises, disposable income also rises but by less than the rise in GDP because a part of it is siphoned off as taxes. This helps limit the upward fluctuation in consumption spending.
Question 18 of 35
18. Question
Which of the following are the quantitative methods of credit control in India?
Regulation of consumer credit
Rationing Credit
Discount Rate Policy
Open Market Operations
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Statement 4
Incorrect
Incorrect
Correct
Correct
Regulation of consumer credit is a Qualitative method of money control.
Rationing Credit credit is a Qualitative method of money control.
Discount Rate Policy points to the rate of interest that is going to be paid by the banks and other financial institutions on the credits that they avail from the central bank through discount window loan procedure. This will infuse more liquidity in the market.
Open Market Operations refers to buying and selling of bonds issued by the Government in the open market.
When thes central bank want to infuse liquidity in the monetary system, it will buy government securities in the open market.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Statement 4
Incorrect
Incorrect
Correct
Correct
Regulation of consumer credit is a Qualitative method of money control.
Rationing Credit credit is a Qualitative method of money control.
Discount Rate Policy points to the rate of interest that is going to be paid by the banks and other financial institutions on the credits that they avail from the central bank through discount window loan procedure. This will infuse more liquidity in the market.
Open Market Operations refers to buying and selling of bonds issued by the Government in the open market.
When thes central bank want to infuse liquidity in the monetary system, it will buy government securities in the open market.
Question 19 of 35
19. Question
Which of the following was/were the financial sector reforms taken up by the Government of India post the economic reforms of 1991?
Allowing Foreign Institutional Investors to invest in Indian financial markets.
Necessary approval of RBI needed for all banks to set up new branches.
Banks were allowed to generate resources from India and abroad.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Incorrect
Correct
Foreign Institutional Investors (FII), such as merchant bankers, mutual funds and pension funds, are allowed to invest in Indian financial markets.
Those banks which fulfill certain conditions have been given freedom to set up new branches without the approval of the RBI and rationalize their existing branch networks.
Though banks have been given permission to generate resources from India and abroad, certain managerial aspects have been retained with the RBI to safeguard the interests of the account-holders and the nation.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Incorrect
Correct
Foreign Institutional Investors (FII), such as merchant bankers, mutual funds and pension funds, are allowed to invest in Indian financial markets.
Those banks which fulfill certain conditions have been given freedom to set up new branches without the approval of the RBI and rationalize their existing branch networks.
Though banks have been given permission to generate resources from India and abroad, certain managerial aspects have been retained with the RBI to safeguard the interests of the account-holders and the nation.
Question 20 of 35
20. Question
Which of the following category of people are exempted from income tax?
a) Income of a member of a Scheduled Tribes who resides in any area in the State of Nagaland.
b) Members of the Scheduled castes who resides in any area in the State of Rajasthan.
c) Income of a member of a Scheduled Tribes who resides in any area in the State of Assam.
d) Members of the Scheduled Tribes in any area in State of Himachal Pradesh.
Correct
Solution (a)
Income of a member of a Scheduled Tribe [as per article 366(25) of the Constitution] is exempt from tax, if following conditions are satisfied:
Such member resides in any area in the State of Nagaland, Manipur, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram or district of North Cachar Hills, Mikir Hills, Khasi Hills, Jaintia Hills and Garo Hills or in the Ladakh region.
Such exemption is available in respect of income which accrues/arises from any source in such areas or income by way of dividends/interest on securities arises from any area.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Income of a member of a Scheduled Tribe [as per article 366(25) of the Constitution] is exempt from tax, if following conditions are satisfied:
Such member resides in any area in the State of Nagaland, Manipur, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram or district of North Cachar Hills, Mikir Hills, Khasi Hills, Jaintia Hills and Garo Hills or in the Ladakh region.
Such exemption is available in respect of income which accrues/arises from any source in such areas or income by way of dividends/interest on securities arises from any area.
Question 21 of 35
21. Question
Consider the following statements about Anthrax:
It is a highly infectious disease that is caused by Bacillus anthracis.
It affects animals like cows, sheep, goats, and wild herbivores.
It can infect humans if they come in contact with infected animals.
It can be treated with antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin, doxycycline, or levofloxacin.
Choose the correct code:
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Correct
Solution (d)
Anthrax is a highly infectious disease that is caused by Bacillus anthracis. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Anthrax bacteria also occur naturally in soil.
It affects animals like cows, sheep, goats, and wild herbivores. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The disease manifests in three forms depending on the route of infection – cutaneous, gastrointestinal, and inhalational.
It can infect humans if they come in contact with infected animals. Hence statement 3 is correct.
It can be diagnosed by identifying Bacillus anthracis in blood, skin lesions, or respiratory secretions through laboratory culture, PCR, or ELISA tests.
It can be treated with antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin, doxycycline, or levofloxacin. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Vaccines are also available for both livestock and humans.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Anthrax is a highly infectious disease that is caused by Bacillus anthracis. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Anthrax bacteria also occur naturally in soil.
It affects animals like cows, sheep, goats, and wild herbivores. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The disease manifests in three forms depending on the route of infection – cutaneous, gastrointestinal, and inhalational.
It can infect humans if they come in contact with infected animals. Hence statement 3 is correct.
It can be diagnosed by identifying Bacillus anthracis in blood, skin lesions, or respiratory secretions through laboratory culture, PCR, or ELISA tests.
It can be treated with antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin, doxycycline, or levofloxacin. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Vaccines are also available for both livestock and humans.
Question 22 of 35
22. Question
It is located in the state of Tamil Nadu. It lies adjacent to the Bay of Bengal along the east coast. It is one of the major wetlands on the Coromandel Coast after Pulicat Lake. The southern part of the wetland has been reserved land since 2001. It is listed as one of Tamil Nadu’s 141 prioritised wetlands, Kazhuveli is also a wetland of international significance and a potential Ramsar site. It has a feeding ground for long-distance migrants from the cold subarctic regions of Central Asia and Siberia including Black-tailed Godwits, Eurasian Curlew, White Stork, Ruff, and Dunlin.
The above paragraph refers to which of the following?
a) Kazhuveli Bird Sanctuary
b) Vedanthangal Bird Sanctuary
c) Vettangudi Bird Sanctuary
d) Kanjirankulam Bird Sanctuary
Correct
Solution (a)
Kazhuveli Bird Sanctuary is located in the state of Tamil Nadu. It lies adjacent to the Bay of Bengal along the east coast. It is one of the major wetlands on the Coromandel Coast after Pulicat Lake. The southern part of the wetland has been reserved land since 2001. It is listed as one of Tamil Nadu’s 141 prioritised wetlands, Kazhuveli is also a wetland of international significance and a potential Ramsar site. It has a feeding ground for long-distance migrants from the cold subarctic regions of Central Asia and Siberia including Black-tailed Godwits, Eurasian Curlew, White Stork, Ruff, and Dunlin. Hence option a is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Kazhuveli Bird Sanctuary is located in the state of Tamil Nadu. It lies adjacent to the Bay of Bengal along the east coast. It is one of the major wetlands on the Coromandel Coast after Pulicat Lake. The southern part of the wetland has been reserved land since 2001. It is listed as one of Tamil Nadu’s 141 prioritised wetlands, Kazhuveli is also a wetland of international significance and a potential Ramsar site. It has a feeding ground for long-distance migrants from the cold subarctic regions of Central Asia and Siberia including Black-tailed Godwits, Eurasian Curlew, White Stork, Ruff, and Dunlin. Hence option a is correct.
Question 23 of 35
23. Question
Consider the following statements about the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence:
It is the premier intelligence and enforcement agency on anti-smuggling matters.
It works under the aegis of the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI).
It is headquartered in New Delhi.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence is the premier intelligence and enforcement agency on anti-smuggling matters. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It has been carrying out its mandate of preventing and detecting cases of smuggling of narcotic drugs & psychotropic substances, wildlife items, notes, foreign currency, hazardous & environmentally sensitive materials, antiques, etc., and taking punitive action against the organised crime groups engaged therein.
It works under the aegis of the Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs (CBIC), Government of India. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
It is also engaged in unearthing commercial frauds and instances of customs duty evasion.
It is headquartered in New Delhi. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence is the premier intelligence and enforcement agency on anti-smuggling matters. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It has been carrying out its mandate of preventing and detecting cases of smuggling of narcotic drugs & psychotropic substances, wildlife items, notes, foreign currency, hazardous & environmentally sensitive materials, antiques, etc., and taking punitive action against the organised crime groups engaged therein.
It works under the aegis of the Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs (CBIC), Government of India. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
It is also engaged in unearthing commercial frauds and instances of customs duty evasion.
It is headquartered in New Delhi. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Question 24 of 35
24. Question
Consider the following statements about Pompe Disease:
It is caused due to mutations in the GAA gene.
It affects males and females equally.
It is treated through enzyme replacement therapy (ERT).
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (c)
Pompe Disease is caused due to mutations in the GAA gene. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The GAA gene provides instructions for producing an enzyme called acid alpha-glucosidase (also known as acid maltase).
This enzyme is active in lysosomes, which are structures that serve as recycling centers within cells.
The enzyme normally breaks down glycogen into a simpler sugar called glucose, which is the main energy source for most cells.
Mutations in the GAA gene prevent acid alpha-glucosidase from breaking down glycogen effectively, which allows this sugar to build up to toxic levels in lysosomes. This buildup damages organs and tissues throughout the body, particularly the muscles, leading to the progressive signs and symptoms of Pompe disease.
It affects males and females equally. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Some common side effects and symptoms include muscle weakness, respiratory issues, heart problems, and difficulty swallowing.
It is treated through enzyme replacement therapy (ERT). Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Pompe Disease is caused due to mutations in the GAA gene. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The GAA gene provides instructions for producing an enzyme called acid alpha-glucosidase (also known as acid maltase).
This enzyme is active in lysosomes, which are structures that serve as recycling centers within cells.
The enzyme normally breaks down glycogen into a simpler sugar called glucose, which is the main energy source for most cells.
Mutations in the GAA gene prevent acid alpha-glucosidase from breaking down glycogen effectively, which allows this sugar to build up to toxic levels in lysosomes. This buildup damages organs and tissues throughout the body, particularly the muscles, leading to the progressive signs and symptoms of Pompe disease.
It affects males and females equally. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Some common side effects and symptoms include muscle weakness, respiratory issues, heart problems, and difficulty swallowing.
It is treated through enzyme replacement therapy (ERT). Hence statement 3 is correct.
Question 25 of 35
25. Question
Consider the following statements:
The Doctrine of Laches states that the court will only assist those individuals who are vigilant about their rights and not those who are negligent.
The Doctrine of Eclipse asserts that a law that infringes fundamental rights is not null or void from the outset, but is merely non-enforceable.
The Doctrine of Territorial Nexus dictates that laws made by a state legislature are not applicable outside that state unless there is a sufficient nexus between the state and the object.
The Doctrine of Casus Omissus asserts that a matter which should have been provided for in a statute cannot be supplied by the courts.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Correct
Solution (d)
The Doctrine of Laches states that the court will only assist those individuals who are vigilant about their rights and not those who are negligent. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The Doctrine of Eclipse asserts that a law that infringes fundamental rights is not null or void from the outset, but is merely non-enforceable. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The Doctrine of Territorial Nexus dictates that laws made by a state legislature are not applicable outside that state unless there is a sufficient nexus between the state and the object. Hence statement 3 is correct.
The Doctrine of Casus Omissus asserts that a matter which should have been provided for in a statute cannot be supplied by the courts. Hence statement 4 is correct.
The Doctrine of Promissory Estoppel is a legal principle that prevents a person from retracting a promise they made, even if the promise was not supported by a contract.
The Doctrine of Colourable Legislation is a principle used to determine the legislative competence of laws enacted by various legislatures.
The Doctrine of Harmonious Construction posits that a provision of the statute should not be interpreted in isolation but as a whole, to eliminate any inconsistency or repugnancy.
The Doctrine of Incidental or Ancillary Powers suggests that the power to legislate on a particular issue also includes the power to legislate on ancillary matters that are reasonably connected to that issue.
The Doctrine of Waiver implies that a person can intentionally relinquish their right or privilege or choose not to exercise their right or privilege conferred on them by the state
Incorrect
Solution (d)
The Doctrine of Laches states that the court will only assist those individuals who are vigilant about their rights and not those who are negligent. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The Doctrine of Eclipse asserts that a law that infringes fundamental rights is not null or void from the outset, but is merely non-enforceable. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The Doctrine of Territorial Nexus dictates that laws made by a state legislature are not applicable outside that state unless there is a sufficient nexus between the state and the object. Hence statement 3 is correct.
The Doctrine of Casus Omissus asserts that a matter which should have been provided for in a statute cannot be supplied by the courts. Hence statement 4 is correct.
The Doctrine of Promissory Estoppel is a legal principle that prevents a person from retracting a promise they made, even if the promise was not supported by a contract.
The Doctrine of Colourable Legislation is a principle used to determine the legislative competence of laws enacted by various legislatures.
The Doctrine of Harmonious Construction posits that a provision of the statute should not be interpreted in isolation but as a whole, to eliminate any inconsistency or repugnancy.
The Doctrine of Incidental or Ancillary Powers suggests that the power to legislate on a particular issue also includes the power to legislate on ancillary matters that are reasonably connected to that issue.
The Doctrine of Waiver implies that a person can intentionally relinquish their right or privilege or choose not to exercise their right or privilege conferred on them by the state
Question 26 of 35
26. Question
Consider the following statements about the European Free Trade Association (EFTA):
It is an intergovernmental organization established by the Washington Convention.
It promotes free trade and economic integration between its members within Europe and globally.
It currently has four member countries – Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway, and Switzerland.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
The European Free Trade Association (EFTA) is an intergovernmental organization established by the Stockholm Convention. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
EFTA is not a customs union because the individual EFTA States are free to set their own customs tariffs and arrange other foreign trade measures vis-à-vis the non-EFTA States.
It promotes free trade and economic integration between its members within Europe and globally. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The EFTA countries have developed one of the largest networks of Free Trade Agreements (FTAs). These FTAs span over 60 countries and territories, including the EU.
The EFTA members are all open, competitive economies committed to the progressive liberalization of trade in the multinational arena as well as in free trade agreements.
It currently has four member countries – Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway, and Switzerland. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Note: Customs unions are groups of countries that apply one common system of procedures, rules, and tariffs for all or almost all their imports, exports, and transit goods. Usually, countries participating in customs unions share common trade and competition policies.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
The European Free Trade Association (EFTA) is an intergovernmental organization established by the Stockholm Convention. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
EFTA is not a customs union because the individual EFTA States are free to set their own customs tariffs and arrange other foreign trade measures vis-à-vis the non-EFTA States.
It promotes free trade and economic integration between its members within Europe and globally. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The EFTA countries have developed one of the largest networks of Free Trade Agreements (FTAs). These FTAs span over 60 countries and territories, including the EU.
The EFTA members are all open, competitive economies committed to the progressive liberalization of trade in the multinational arena as well as in free trade agreements.
It currently has four member countries – Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway, and Switzerland. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Note: Customs unions are groups of countries that apply one common system of procedures, rules, and tariffs for all or almost all their imports, exports, and transit goods. Usually, countries participating in customs unions share common trade and competition policies.
Question 27 of 35
27. Question
Consider the following statements about Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs):
It is a collection of marketable securities that tracks an index, a commodity, bonds, or a basket of assets.
It can be purchased or sold on a stock exchange in the same way that regular stocks can.
Choose the correct code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (c)
Exchange-traded funds (ETFs) are a collection of marketable securities that track an index, a commodity, bonds, or a basket of assets. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It can be structured to track anything from the price of an individual commodity to a large and diverse collection of securities. ETFs can even be structured to track specific investment strategies.
It can be purchased or sold on a stock exchange in the same way that regular stocks can. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The traded price of an ETF changes throughout the day like any other stock, as it is bought and sold on the stock exchange.
The trading value of an ETF is based on the net asset value of the underlying stocks that it represents.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Exchange-traded funds (ETFs) are a collection of marketable securities that track an index, a commodity, bonds, or a basket of assets. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It can be structured to track anything from the price of an individual commodity to a large and diverse collection of securities. ETFs can even be structured to track specific investment strategies.
It can be purchased or sold on a stock exchange in the same way that regular stocks can. Hence statement 2 is correct.
The traded price of an ETF changes throughout the day like any other stock, as it is bought and sold on the stock exchange.
The trading value of an ETF is based on the net asset value of the underlying stocks that it represents.
Question 28 of 35
28. Question
Consider the following statements:
The Global Cooling Watch Report was released by the UN Environment Programme (UNEP)-led Cool Coalition.
The Global Cooling Pledge was signed at COP25 to address the growing demand for cooling while mitigating its climate impacts.
Choose the correct code:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct
Solution (a)
The Global Cooling Watch Report was released by the UN Environment Programme (UNEP)-led Cool Coalition. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It is a comprehensive analysis of the global cooling sector and focuses not only on space cooling but also on cold chains for food and health.
Its key highlights are:
Currently, cooling equipment currently accounts for 20% of total electricity consumption and is expected to more than double by 2050.
Under a business-as-usual scenario, emissions from cooling are predicted to account for more than 10 percent of global emissions in 2050.
The Global Cooling Pledge was signed at COP28 to address the growing demand for cooling while mitigating its climate impacts. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Around 63 countries have signed the pledge. However, India has not signed it yet.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
The Global Cooling Watch Report was released by the UN Environment Programme (UNEP)-led Cool Coalition. Hence statement 1 is correct.
It is a comprehensive analysis of the global cooling sector and focuses not only on space cooling but also on cold chains for food and health.
Its key highlights are:
Currently, cooling equipment currently accounts for 20% of total electricity consumption and is expected to more than double by 2050.
Under a business-as-usual scenario, emissions from cooling are predicted to account for more than 10 percent of global emissions in 2050.
The Global Cooling Pledge was signed at COP28 to address the growing demand for cooling while mitigating its climate impacts. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Around 63 countries have signed the pledge. However, India has not signed it yet.
Question 29 of 35
29. Question
Consider the following statements:
Convertible preference shares are those shares that can be easily converted into equity shares.
Non-convertible preference shares are those shares that cannot be converted into equity shares.
Redeemable preference shares are those shares that can be repurchased or redeemed by the issuing company at a fixed rate and date.
Non-redeemable preference shares are those shares that cannot be redeemed or repurchased by the issuing company at a fixed date.
Choose the correct code:
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
Correct
Solution (d)
Convertible preference shares are those shares that can be easily converted into equity shares. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Non-convertible preference shares are those shares that cannot be converted into equity shares. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Redeemable preference shares are those shares that can be repurchased or redeemed by the issuing company at a fixed rate and date. Hence statement 3 is correct.
These types of shares help the company by providing a cushion during times of inflation.
Non-redeemable preference shares are those shares that cannot be redeemed or repurchased by the issuing company at a fixed date. Hence statement 4 is correct.
These types of shares help companies by acting as a lifesaver during times of inflation.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Convertible preference shares are those shares that can be easily converted into equity shares. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Non-convertible preference shares are those shares that cannot be converted into equity shares. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Redeemable preference shares are those shares that can be repurchased or redeemed by the issuing company at a fixed rate and date. Hence statement 3 is correct.
These types of shares help the company by providing a cushion during times of inflation.
Non-redeemable preference shares are those shares that cannot be redeemed or repurchased by the issuing company at a fixed date. Hence statement 4 is correct.
These types of shares help companies by acting as a lifesaver during times of inflation.
Question 30 of 35
30. Question
Consider the following statements about Chousingha:
It is endemic to the Indian subcontinent.
It is the smallest antelope found in Asia.
It is listed as endangered on the IUCN Red List.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
Correct
Solution (b)
Chousingha is endemic to the Indian subcontinent. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The four-horned antelope, or chousingha, is a small antelope found in India and Nepal.
It is the smallest antelope found in Asia. Hence statement 2 is correct.
They are usually diurnal and solitary by nature; however, they can be spotted in loose groups of three to four.
Animals are sedentary, inhabiting more or less the same region throughout their lives.
It is listed as vulnerable on the IUCN Red List. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Chousingha is endemic to the Indian subcontinent. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The four-horned antelope, or chousingha, is a small antelope found in India and Nepal.
It is the smallest antelope found in Asia. Hence statement 2 is correct.
They are usually diurnal and solitary by nature; however, they can be spotted in loose groups of three to four.
Animals are sedentary, inhabiting more or less the same region throughout their lives.
It is listed as vulnerable on the IUCN Red List. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Question 31 of 35
31. Question
The diagonal of a rectangle is √21 cm and its area is 50 sq. cm. What is the perimeter of the rectangle? (Note – Diagonal equals the square root of the width squared plus the height squared)
a) 11
b) 22
c) 14
d) 28
Correct
Solution (b)
For a rectangle, d^2 = l^2 + b^2 where l= length, b = breadth and d = diagonal of the of the rectangle
d= √21
d^2 = l^2 + b^2
l^2 + b^2= 21 ….. (1)
Area = l × b = 50 …..(2)
We know that (a+b)^2 = a^2 + b^2 + 2ab
Using the same formula, we have
(l+b)^2 = l^2 + b^2 + 2lb
(l+b)^2 = 21 + 2*50
(l+b) = 11
Perimeter of the rectangle = 2(l + b)
= 2(11)
= 22 cm
Incorrect
Solution (b)
For a rectangle, d^2 = l^2 + b^2 where l= length, b = breadth and d = diagonal of the of the rectangle
d= √21
d^2 = l^2 + b^2
l^2 + b^2= 21 ….. (1)
Area = l × b = 50 …..(2)
We know that (a+b)^2 = a^2 + b^2 + 2ab
Using the same formula, we have
(l+b)^2 = l^2 + b^2 + 2lb
(l+b)^2 = 21 + 2*50
(l+b) = 11
Perimeter of the rectangle = 2(l + b)
= 2(11)
= 22 cm
Question 32 of 35
32. Question
A and B playing a game with rolling a fare dice, one after the other replacing it every time till one of them gets a six. If A begins the game, then the probability that A wins the game is
a) 1/6
b) 2/6
c) 5/11
d) 6/11
Correct
Solution (c)
Let S denote the success (getting a ‘6’) and F denote the failure (not getting a ‘6’) . Thus, P(S)= 1/6 =p,
P(F)= 5/6 =q
P(A wins in first throw)=P(S)=p P(A wins in third throw)=P(FFS)=qqp P(A wins in fifth throw)=P(FFFFS)=qqqqp
So, P(A wins)=p+qqp+qqqqp+… =p(1+q^2 +q^4 +…) = 1−q^2 p = (1/6)/(1− 25/36) = 6/11
P(B wins)=1–P(A wins) P(B wins) =1− 6/11 = 5/11
So, P(A wins)= 6/11 , P(B wins)= 5/11
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Let S denote the success (getting a ‘6’) and F denote the failure (not getting a ‘6’) . Thus, P(S)= 1/6 =p,
P(F)= 5/6 =q
P(A wins in first throw)=P(S)=p P(A wins in third throw)=P(FFS)=qqp P(A wins in fifth throw)=P(FFFFS)=qqqqp
So, P(A wins)=p+qqp+qqqqp+… =p(1+q^2 +q^4 +…) = 1−q^2 p = (1/6)/(1− 25/36) = 6/11
P(B wins)=1–P(A wins) P(B wins) =1− 6/11 = 5/11
So, P(A wins)= 6/11 , P(B wins)= 5/11
Question 33 of 35
33. Question
When a particular positive number is divided by 3, the remainder is 1. If the same number is divided by 5, the remainder is 4. If the difference between the quotients of the division is 3, then find the number.
a) 34
b) 19
c) 49
d) 64
Correct
Solution (b)
Let the quotients when this number is divided by 3 and 5 be x and y respectively. (Note that x will be greater than y as 3 is smaller than 5)
Number = 3x + 1 = 5y + 4
Given that, x – y = 3
On solving both equation we get, x = 6, y=3 Thus the number is 5 × 3 + 4= 19.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Let the quotients when this number is divided by 3 and 5 be x and y respectively. (Note that x will be greater than y as 3 is smaller than 5)
Number = 3x + 1 = 5y + 4
Given that, x – y = 3
On solving both equation we get, x = 6, y=3 Thus the number is 5 × 3 + 4= 19.
Question 34 of 35
34. Question
In 10 years, A will be thrice as old as B was 5 years ago. If A is now 9 years older than B, the present age of B is
a) 19
b) 21
c) 17
d) 15
Correct
Solution (c)
Let B’s present age = x years.
Then, A’s present age = (x + 9) years.
(x + 9) + 10 = 3(x – 5)
=> x + 19 = 3x – 15
=> x =17
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Let B’s present age = x years.
Then, A’s present age = (x + 9) years.
(x + 9) + 10 = 3(x – 5)
=> x + 19 = 3x – 15
=> x =17
Question 35 of 35
35. Question
Out of the four annual examinations, each with a total of 100 marks, a student secured average marks of 35%, 65% and 50% in the first, second and third annual examinations. To have an overall average of 60%, how many marks does the student need to secure in the fourth annual examination?
a) 60
b) 70
c) 80
d) 90
Correct
Solution (d)
Let the average marks in the third Annual examination be x.
Total marks = (Marks in first + second + third + forth) Annual examination
= > 4(60) ( 100/100) = ( 35/100) (100) + ( 65/100) (100) + ( 50/100) (100) + ( x/100) (100)
=> 4(60) = 35 + 65 +50 + x =>x = 90
So, the student must score 90% in the fourth annual examination to secure 60% overall average.
∴ Average marks in the third annual examination (90/100) × 100 = 90 marks.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Let the average marks in the third Annual examination be x.
Total marks = (Marks in first + second + third + forth) Annual examination
= > 4(60) ( 100/100) = ( 35/100) (100) + ( 65/100) (100) + ( 50/100) (100) + ( x/100) (100)
=> 4(60) = 35 + 65 +50 + x =>x = 90
So, the student must score 90% in the fourth annual examination to secure 60% overall average.
∴ Average marks in the third annual examination (90/100) × 100 = 90 marks.
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IASbaba