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Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 29th November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 28th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Silkyara Tunnel Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, Silkyara tunnel rescue operations entered their 16th day. Background:- The accident when the workers were trapped in the Silkyara Tunnel located on the Uttarkashi-Yamnotri Road. The collapse happened about 270m from the entrance of the Silkyara side. The National Disaster Response Force (NDRF), the State Disaster Relief Force (SDRF) and the police are among the main figures in the multi-agency rescue operations. About Silkyara Tunnel:- Location: Uttarakhand. The total length of the tunnel is 5 km. It is meant to connect Silkyara to Dandal gaon in Uttarkashi district. The double-lane tunnel is pegged as one of the longest tunnels under the Char Dham all-weather road project. (The significance of the Char Dham board verdict) It aims to reduce the journey from Uttarkashi to Yamunotri Dham by 26 kilometres. From the Silkyara side, 2.3km of tunnel has been constructed, while 1.6km of tunnelling work has been completed from the Barkot end. Approximately, a 400m stretch of the tunnel is yet to be constructed. The Silkyara tunnel is part of the ongoing construction between Silkyara and Dandalgaon on the Brahmakhal-Yamunotri stretch of the National Highway under the Char Dham project. Char Dham Project: Launched in December 2016, it aims to enhance connectivity between the four pilgrimage sites of Char Dham—Kedarnath, Badrinath, Yamunotri, and Gangotri. MUST READ: Char Dham Highways SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 New Zealand Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, Christopher Luxon sworn in as New Zealand’s prime minister. Background:- The swearing-in ceremony was presided over by Governor-General Cindy Kiro. About New Zealand:- IMAGE SOURCE: Nations Online New Zealand, an island country in the South Pacific Ocean, the southwesternmost part of Polynesia. It lies more than 1,000 miles (1,600 km) southeast of Australia, its nearest neighbour. The country comprises two main islands—the North and the South Island—and a number of small islands, some of them hundreds of miles from the main group. The capital city is The largest urban area in Auckland. The North Island of New Zealand has a ‘spine’ of mountain ranges running through the middle, with gentle rolling farmland on both sides. The central North Island is dominated by the Volcanic Plateau, an active volcanic and thermal area. The massive Southern Alps form the backbone of the South Island. To the east of the Southern Alps is the rolling farmland of Otago and Southland, and the vast, flat Canterbury Plains. India-New Zealand Relations:- Historical Relations: India and New Zealand have a longstanding, friendly and growing relationship. Our ties go back to the 1800s, with Indians settling in Christchurch as early as the 1850s. Political Relations: India and New Zealand have cordial and friendly relations rooted in the linkages of the Commonwealth, parliamentary democracy, and the English language. Economic relations: India NZ Business Council (INZBC) and India NZ Trade Alliance (INZTA) are the two prominent organizations working to promote India-NZ trade and investment relations. ( India and RCEP) Cultural Relations: All Indian festivals including Diwali, Holi, Rakshabandhan, Baisakhi, Guruparv, Onam, Pongal, etc. are celebrated with much enthusiasm all over NZ. MUST READ: India-Australia relations SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert? (2022) Lake Victoria Lake Faguibine Lake Oguta Lake Volta Q.2) The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions? (2022) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco Region along the Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa The entire coastal Mediterranean Sea areas Dead Sea Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, A new school for 400 children evacuated from the Gaza area opened near the Dead Sea. Background:- One month after the start of the war in Gaza, Israel’s Minister of Education Yoav Kish held the official opening ceremony of the first school established in the Tamar Regional Council (by the Dead Sea) for students from first to twelfth grades who were evacuated from their homes. About Dead Sea:- The Dead Sea is a landlocked salt lake between Israel and Jordan in southwestern Asia. The Dead Sea, also known as the Salt Sea. It has the lowest elevation on land and is the world’s lowest body of water. (Global Sea-level Rise and Implications) The water in the Dead Sea is roughly ten times saltier than ocean water in general. This salinity makes for a harsh environment in which animals cannot flourish, hence its name. It lies to the east of the Mediterranean Sea and south of the Sea of Galilee. It lies in the Jordan Rift Valley. It is fed mainly by the Jordan River, which enters the lake from the north. It is 306 m deep, the deepest hypersaline lake in the world. Clinical studies have shown that the high mineral concentration of its water and mud, zinc, and oxygen-rich air can treat a variety of ailments, including psoriasis and other skin conditions, asthma, rheumatism, high blood pressure, and more. MUST READ: Deep-Sea Mining SOURCE: NEWSX PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value. Statement-II: Switzerland has the second-largest gold reserves in the world. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q2) With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements: (2022) A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from a baseline determined in accordance with the convention. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Election Commission of India (ECI) Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, Election Commission of India (ECI) issued a notice to the Karnataka government over publishing advertisements related to its achievements in newspapers in poll-bound Telangana. Background:- The Commission has sought an explanation from the State Congress government. About Election Commission of India (ECI):- The Election Commission is a permanent and independent body established by the Constitution of India. (UPSC CSE: Election Commission) Objective: to ensure free and fair elections in the country. Article 324 of the Constitution: provides that the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to parliament, state legislatures, the office of president of India and the office of vice-president of India shall be vested in the election commission. Composition Election Commission of India:- Members: The election commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and a such number of other election commissioners, if any, as the President may from time to time fix. Appointment: The appointment of the chief election commissioner and other election commissioners shall be made by the Head: When any other election commissioner is so appointed the chief election commissioner shall act as the chairman of the election commission. Regional commissioners: The president may also appoint after consultation with the election commission such regional commissioners as he may consider necessary to assist the election commission. Procedure of Removal:- The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only through a process of removal similar to that of a Supreme Court judge by Parliament. Judges of High Courts and Supreme Court, CEC, Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) may be removed from office through a motion adopted by Parliament on grounds of ‘Proven misbehaviour or incapacity’. Removal requires a special majority of 2/3rd members present and voting supported by more than 50% of the total strength of the house. Conditions of service: it shall be such as the President may by rule. Tenure of office: President may by rule determine it. Key Functions of ECI:- ECI superintendents, direct and control the entire process of conducting elections. These include elections to Parliament and Legislature of every State and to the offices of President and Vice-President of India. It decides the election schedules for the conduct of periodic and timely elections, whether general or bye-elections. It prepares electoral rolls and issues Electronic Photo Identity Cards (EPIC). It decides on the location of polling stations, assignment of voters to the polling stations, location of counting centres, and other related arrangements to be made. It grants recognition to political parties. It allots election symbols to them along with settling disputes related to it. (Remote Voting by ECI) Advisory jurisdiction: it can advise in the matter of post-election disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures. It issues the Model Code of Conduct in elections for political parties and candidates. Model Code of Conduct: a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission of India for the conduct of political parties and candidates during elections. It sets limits of campaign expenditure per candidate to all the political parties and also monitors the same. MUST READ: Appointment of Chief Election Commissioner and Other ECs SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean? (2023) The principle of natural justice The procedure established by law Fair application of law Equality before law Q.2) With reference to the Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements : (2023) When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill. When the Lok Sabha transmits the Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Debrigarh Sanctuary Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, a rare grey wolf was sighted in Debrigarh Sanctuary recently. Background:- Wolf, a schedule-1 endangered species in India, has been sighted at Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary for the first time in the recent past. About Debrigarh Sanctuary:- Location: Bargarh district, Odisha. The Hirakud reservoir on the east and north boundaries of the sanctuary attracts migratory waterfowl during the winter months. Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary is characterized by a variety of vegetation types, including dry deciduous forests, mixed forests, and grasslands. The sanctuary is known for its rich biodiversity and is home to numerous wildlife species. It was declared as a wildlife sanctuary on 8th February 1985. It is an important site for in situ conservation of wildlife and its habitat in the state of Odisha. It finds a special mention because of noted freedom fighter Veer Surendra Sai. During his rebellion against the British, Veer Surendra Sai made his base at ‘Barapathara,” located within the sanctuary. Flora:- Dry deciduous forests. Fauna:- Four-horned antelope, Indian leopard, Indian elephant, sambar, chital, gaur, etc. MUST READ: Sanctuary SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Which of the following organisms perform the waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food? (2023) Butterflies Dragonflies Honeybees Wasps Q2. Consider the following fauna : (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None Qatar Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, Qatar said that an agreement was reached to extend a truce in Gaza between Israel and Hamas by two more days. Background:- In a social media post, Qatar’s foreign ministry spokesperson Majed Al-Ansari said that the truce between Israel and Hamas in the Gaza Strip will be extended by two days, opening the way for further releases of hostages and prisoners. About Qatar:- IMAGE SOURCE: WORLDATLAS Qatar is located in Asia continent. It is primarily a desert country. The temperatures in the summer go above 40 degrees Celsius with high humidity. Qatar shares a land border with Saudi Arabia, Bahrain, and the United Arab Emirates. Due to the presence of massive offshore natural gas fields, the nation has one of the world’s highest per capita incomes. The majority of its 2.9 million people live around its capital, Doha, on its eastern coast. Background of the ISRAEL-PALESTINE war:- Both Israelis and Palestinians were struggling for self-determination and sovereignty over the territory, developing respective movements for their causes. Both Palestinians and Israelis see the territory between the Jordan River and the Mediterranean Sea as their own, and Christians, Jews, and Muslims all hold parts of the land as sacred. The past seven decades have brought war and uprisings. ( 15th India-Israel Joint Working Group) Historic Timeline of the war:- Ottoman Empire: The Ottoman Empire had controlled that part of the Middle East from the early 16th century until control of most of the region was granted to the British after World War I. In 1916: the Sykes-Picot Agreement secretly negotiated between Britain and France planned to carve up the Middle East into spheres of influence, and determined that the land in question was to be internationalized. In 1917: Britain’s foreign secretary, Lord Arthur Balfour, expressed his government’s support for “the establishment in Palestine of a national home for the Jewish people. 1947: After World War II, nearing the end of the British Mandate for Palestine, the United Nations General Assembly in 1947 passed Resolution 181, urging the partition of the land into two independent states — one Arab and one Jewish. Religiously significant Jerusalem is to be under special international administration. The plan is not implemented after the Arab side rejects it, arguing that it is unfavourable to their majority population. Violence in the regional conflict grows. 1948: Israel declares independence. Israel declared independence in May 1948. The next day, a coalition of Arab states, allied with Palestinian factions, attacked Israeli forces in what became the first of several Arab-Israeli wars. In the end, Israel gains control of an even larger portion of territory — not including the areas of the West Bank and Gaza Strip January 2023: Israeli forces raid the Palestinian city of Jenin, killing nine people in a shootout. Summer 2023: Retaliatory attacks flare Israel launches surprise airstrikes across the Gaza Strip in May. October 2023: Israel is attacked by Hamas. Prime Minister of Israel, Netanyahu formally declared war on Hamas on Oct. 8 following a surprise assault by Hamas militants that came a day after the 50th anniversary of the start of the 1973 Yom Kippur War. MUST READ: India, Israel and Palestine SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements (2020) The value of Indo-Sri Lanka Trade has consistently increased in the last decade. Textile and textile articles constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh. In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1,2, and 3 Q.2) Consider the following countries: (2018) Australia Canada China India Japan USA Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN? 1, 2, 4 and 5 3, 4, 5 and 6 1, 3, 4 and 5 2, 3, 4 and 6 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Exercises Countries Al Nagah India & Oman Naseem Al Bahr India & Qatar Lamitiye India & Seychelles How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Israel declared independence in 1946. .Statement-II : There is no specific treatment or vaccine for Hepatitis E. Qatar shares a land border with Saudi Arabia, Bahrain, and the United Arab Emirates. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Silkyara tunnel, consider the following statements: The total length of the tunnel is 4.5 km. It is meant to connect Silkyara to Dandal Gaon in Uttarkashi district. The double-lane tunnel is pegged as one of the longest tunnels under the Char Dham all-weather road project. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 2 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  28th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 27th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 28th November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 27th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Nidirana noadihing Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, scientists have discovered a new species of ‘music frog’ Nidirana noadihing in Arunachal Pradesh. Background:- The scientists, Bitupan Boruah, V Deepak, and Abhijit Das, detailed their findings in an article published in the November 15 edition of the journal Zootaxa About Nidirana noadihing:- The Noa-Dihing Music Frog boasts a ‘robust’ body. The males measure approximately 1.8 to 2.3 inches and females ranging from about 2.4 to 2.6 inches. ( New Species of frog in Andaman found) It received its name, Nidirana noadihing, as a homage to the Noa-Dihing River, the vicinity where these unique specimens were encountered and collected. They have ’rounded’ snouts and ‘smooth’ skin, adorned with bony protrusions on their backs. They showcase a striking colour palette, featuring a ‘pale cream’ line bordered with dark brown along the centre of their bodies. Light brown limbs, adorned with dark stripes, further enhance their visual distinctiveness. The speciality of this new species of frog, Nidirana noadihing, is that both the male and female are vocal. Noa-Dihing Music Frogs are distinguished not only by their size but also by their oval toe tips, the tubercles on their backs, and a distinctive call. The irregularly shaped and sized spots on their eyelids, along with dark stripes around their moderately large eyes, contribute to their unique visual features. Significance of the Discovery:- This discovery marks the first confirmation of the Nidirana genus’s presence in India, expanding its known habitat beyond regions in Japan, Taiwan, China, Vietnam, Laos, and Thailand. MUST READ: Atelopus or harlequin frogs SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Q.2) Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi? (2022) Ant Cockroach Crab Spider Governor Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, the Supreme Court, in a 27-page judgment, has clarified that the rejection of a Bill by a Governor does not mean its death. Background:- The court says Article 200 of the Constitution provides the Governor with three options — consent to the proposed law, withhold consent, or reserve the Bill for the consideration of the President About Governor:- Article 153 of the Constitution provides the provision that there shall be a Governor for each State. Articles 155 and 156: Under Articles 155 and 156 of the Constitution, a Governor is appointed by the President and holds office “during the pleasure of the President”. If this pleasure is withdrawn before the completion of the five-year term, the Governor has to step down. As the President works on the aid and advice of the Prime Minister and the council of ministers, in effect, the Governor can be appointed and removed by the central government. Article 163: says the Governor will normally be aided and advised by the Council of Ministers except in those functions which require his discretion.  Constitutional power of the Governor related to State Bills:- Article 200 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Governor’s powers in relation to assenting to legislation enacted by the State legislature and other functions of the Governor such as reserving the bill for consideration by the President. Article 201 relates to “Bills Reserved for Consideration”: Governors have absolute veto power, suspense veto power (except on money bills), but no pocket veto power. Absolute Veto: This refers to the Governor’s power to refuse to sign a bill passed by the Assembly. Suspensive Veto: A suspensive veto is used by the Governor when he returns a bill to the State Assembly for reconsideration. If the Assembly resends the bill to the Governor, with or without alteration, he must approve it without using any of his veto powers. The Governor may not use his suspensive veto in connection to the Money Bill Pocket Veto: Power of the President, in pocket veto, the bill is held pending indefinitely. He neither rejects nor sends the measure back for review. MUST READ: Delhi CM-LG stalemate SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2018) No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State? (2014) Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule Appointing the Ministers Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration by the President of India Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Wasp-107b Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, a Jupiter-sized exoplanet “Wasp-107b” discovered by NASA. Background:- NASA’s James Webb Telescope has discovered a new exoplanet, which is the size of Jupiter. About Wasp-107b:- WASP-107b is an exoplanet. It was discovered in 2017. It orbits the star WASP-107. It is 200 light years away from the Earth. It is located in the constellation Virg. Earlier, scientists believed that the planet was huge in size due to the huge gas envelope that surrounded the planet. Also, the scientists believed that such huge gas envelopes are possible only with massive and dense cores. However, a recent study says that the cores of WASP-107b are not as dense as thought earlier. It orbits the star WASP-107. It is 200 light years away from the Earth. It is located in the constellation Virg MUST READ: Space sustainability SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q2. Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fueled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Earthquake Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, an Earthquake of 3.0 magnitude hit Haryana’s Sonipat region. Background:- The epicentre of the earthquake was in Sonipat and occurred at latitude 29.15 degrees north and longitude 76.97 degrees east, at a depth of 5 km. About Earthquake:- An earthquake is the shaking or trembling of the earth’s surface. It is caused by the seismic waves or earthquake waves that are generated due to a sudden movement (sudden release of energy) in the earth’s crust (shallow-focus earthquakes) or upper mantle (some shallow-focus and all intermediate and deep-focus earthquakes). A seismograph, or seismometer, is an instrument used to detect and record earthquakes. Hypocentre/Focus: The point where the energy is released. Epicentre: The point on the surface directly above the focus. Isoseismic line: A line connecting all points on the surface where the intensity is the same. Causes of Earthquakes:- Fault Zones Plate tectonics Volcanic activity Human-Induced Earthquakes Types of Earthquakes:- Tectonic Earthquakes The most common ones are tectonic earthquakes. The Earth is made of four basic layers (generally three): a solid crust, a hot, nearly solid mantle, a liquid outer core and a solid inner core. Tectonic plates (Lithospheric plates) are constantly shifting as they drift around on the viscous, or slowly flowing, mantle layer below. When tectonic plates move, it also causes movements at the (Anatolian Plate) Thus, the slipping of land along the Faultline along convergent, divergent and transform boundaries cause earthquakes. Volcanic Earthquake Earthquakes produced by stress changes in solid rock due to the injection or withdrawal of magma (molten rock) are called volcano earthquakes. Human Induced Earthquakes In areas of intense mining activity, sometimes the roofs of underground mines collapse causing minor tremors. These are called collapse earthquakes. Ground shaking may also occur due to the explosion of chemical or nuclear devices. Such tremors are called explosion earthquakes. MUST READ: (Volcano) SOURCE: INDIA TODAY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2022) The region often mentioned in the news:   Country Anatolia                                                    Turkey Amhara                                                   Ethiopia Cabo Delgado                                          Spain Catalonia                                                  Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) consider the following statements: (2020) Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only. Only some cyclones develop an eye. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10°C less than that of the surroundings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 only Constitution Day Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT DAYS Context: Recently, Vice President Jagdeep Dhankhar addressed a gathering in New Delhi on the occasion of Constitution Day. Background:- Vice President Jagdeep Dhankhar has said that the Constitutional Day is a befitting occasion to remember the visionary leaders who framed the Indian constitution which is the spine of democracy. About Constitution Day:- The Constitution of India is the supreme law of India. It was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India on 26 November 1949. Constitution Day marks the ratification of the Constitution, whereas Republic Day, on January 26th, commemorates the establishment of the Constitution of India. The adoption of the constitution marked the transition to full independence from Britain as it ended Lord Mountbatten’s role as governor-general of India. After gaining independence, the Constituent Assembly, comprised of 299 elected members, played a pivotal role in shaping the destiny of the nation. Until 2015, this day was recognized as Law Day in India. In 2015, on the occasion of the 125th birth anniversary of B.R. Ambedkar, the Union government declared November 26 as Constitution Day. Objective: to encourage citizens to uphold and follow the constitutional values in their daily lives, fostering a deeper understanding of the principles that guide the nation. Timeline:- On December 6, 1949, the Constitution Assembly was formed and its first meeting was held on December 9. Rajendra Prasad was appointed its President and H C Mukherjee its vice-chairman. On August 29, 1947, the drafting committee appointed Ambedkar as its chairman and six other members — Munshi N Gopalaswami Ayyangar, Khaitan, Mitter, Muhammed Sadulla, Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer. The members of the Constituent Assembly signed two hand-written copies of the document (one each in Hindi and English) on January 24, 1950. On November 26, 1949, the Constitution of India was adopted by the Assembly. On January 26, 1950, the Constitution was enforced. MUST READ: International Mother Language Day SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022) This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people. This would create a local self-governing body in that area. This would convert that area into a Union Territory. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State. Q.2) The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to : (2015) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes determine the boundaries between states determine the powers, authorities, and responsibilities of Panchayats protect the interests of all the border States Mount Etna Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, Italy’s Mount Etna eruption was captured from space as ash, and lava spews out of it recently. Background:- The event was so significant that it was observed from space by the Copernicus Sentinel-2 mission, which used shortwave-infrared bands to highlight the lava flow at the time of acquisition. About Mount Etna:- IMAGE SOURCE: BRITANNICA Mount Etna is the highest Mediterranean island mountain. It is about 3,326 metres high. It is on the eastern coast of Sicily. It is the highest peak in Italy South of the Alps. It is also the most active stratovolcano in the world. Its recorded volcanic activity dates back to 1500 B.C. Since then, it has erupted more than 200 times. A stratovolcano is also called a composite volcano.  (Volcano) This volcanic landform is characterized by a conical shape formed by layers of volcanic material deposited during successive volcanic eruptions. The volcano also supports important terrestrial ecosystems including endemic flora and fauna. Etna has erupted in a variety of modes, including tremendous explosions and massive lava flows. MUST READ: Mt. Mauna Loa SOURCE: BBC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: VOLCANO TYPE Mount Fuji Stratovolcano Mt Etna Shield volcano Mount Vesuvius Cinder cone volcano How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : On January 26, 1950, the Constitution of India was adopted by the Assembly. Statement-II : There is no specific treatment or vaccine for Hepatitis E. 26th November,2023 is Law Day in India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Mount Etna, consider the following statements: It is on the western coast of Sicily. It is the highest peak in Italy South of the Alps. It is also the least active stratovolcano in the world. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  27th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 25th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 25th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Tropical cyclones Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recent studies suggest that Tropical cyclones cause more damage than we think. Background:- India is among the countries facing a high social cost of carbon. About Tropical cyclones:- IMAGE SOURCE: Britannica A cyclone is a pattern of winds (or air mass) that circulates a low-pressure system. It rotates counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere. (Naming of Cyclone) It is an intense circular storm that originates over warm tropical oceans. It is characterized by low atmospheric pressure, high winds, and heavy rain. These are formed over slightly warm ocean waters. The temperature of the top layer of the sea, up to a depth of about 60 meters, needs to be at least 28°C to support the formation of a cyclone. April-May and October-December periods are conducive for cyclones. ( Bomb Cyclone) Then, the low level of air above the waters needs to have an ‘anticlockwise’ rotation (in the northern hemisphere; clockwise in the southern hemisphere). During these periods, there was an ITCZ in the Bay of Bengal. MUST READ: (Colour Coded Weather Warning) SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 Igla-S Syllabus Prelims –DEFENCE Context: Recently, India announced the procurement of Igla-S, a powerful air defence system from Russia. Background:- India is all set to procure a powerful anti-aircraft missile system from Russia — its top weapons supplier which will help boost its defence capabilities along the China and Pakistan borders. About Igla-S:- Igla-S is a prominent and highly effective man-portable air defence system (MANPADS) developed by Russia. The Igla-S is developed and manufactured by the Russian state-owned defence company, KBM (Design Bureau of Machine Building), which specializes in designing missile systems. It entered service with the Russian Army in 2004. (Ballistic missiles) It can be fired by an individual or crew to bring down an enemy aircraft. It is a next-generation surface-to-air missile designed for engaging low-flying aircraft, helicopters, drones, and cruise missiles. It offers superior performance over earlier supplied SA-18 missiles to India. It is designed for use against visible aerial targets at short ranges such as tactical aircraft, helicopters, unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs), and cruise missiles, head-on or receding, in the presence of natural (background) clutter and countermeasures. The Igla-S system consists of the 9M342 missile, which is a part of combat equipment. MUST READ: Intercontinental Ballistic Missile SOURCE: THE TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) India is a member of which of the following? (2015) Asia-Pacific economic corporation. Association of South-East Asian Nations. East Asia Summit Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 3 only 1, 2, and 3 India is a member of none of them Q.2) With reference to ‘The Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC)’, Consider the following statements: (2015) It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills It is an alliance meant for maritime security only Which of the following statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Hindustan Aeronautics Limited Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi visited the Hindustan Aeronautics Limited site in Bengaluru. Background:- The visit has come at a crucial time as the Indian Air Force recently issued a tender to HAL for the purchase of 12 advanced Su-30MKI fighter jets. About Hindustan Aeronautics Limited:- HQ: Bangalore, India. MINISTRY: Ministry of Defense. HAL is a state-owned Indian aerospace and defense firm. VISION: To be a global leader in the Aerospace & Defense Industry. The Company which had its origin as Hindustan Aircraft Limited was incorporated on 23 Dec 1940 at Bangalore by Shri Walchand Hirachand in association with the then Government of Mysore, with the aim of manufacturing aircraft in India. In March 1941, the Government of India became one of the shareholders in the Company and subsequently took over its management in 1942. In collaboration with the Inter Continental Aircraft Company of USA, the Company commenced its business of manufacturing Harlow Trainer, Curtiss Hawk Fighter and Vultee Bomber Aircraft. In January 1951, Hindustan Aircraft Limited was placed under the administrative control of the Ministry of Defence, Government of India. It mainly engages in aerospace activities and is presently involved in the fabrication & production of aircraft, design, helicopters, jet engines & their replacement parts. (Dornier aircraft) It has many facilities scattered throughout India, including Bangalore, Kanpur, Nasik, Koraput, Korwa, Lucknow, Kasaragod and Hyderabad.  MUST READ: Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q2. Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Sea buckthorn Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Ladakh is eyeing more production of sea buckthorn post GI tag. Background:- As per official records, at least 600 tonnes of sea buckthorn berries are harvested in Ladakh annually. About Sea buckthorn:- Scientific Name: Hippophae rhamnoides It is a shrub which produces an orange-yellow coloured edible berry. In India, it is found above the tree line in the Himalayan region, generally in dry areas such as the cold deserts of Ladakh and Spiti. In Himachal Pradesh, it is locally called Uses:- Treating stomach, heart and skin problems Its fruit and leaves are rich in vitamins, carotenoids and omega fatty acids Helps troops in acclimatizing to high-altitude Important source of fuelwood and fodder Prevents soil-erosion Checks siltation in rivers Helps preserve floral biodiversity (Invasive Species) Used in making juices, jams, nutritional capsules etc. MUST READ: Water Hyacinth SOURCE: THE TRIBUNE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Which of the following organisms perform the waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food? (2023) Butterflies Dragonflies Honeybees Wasps Q2. Consider the following fauna : (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None 54th International Film Festival of India Syllabus Prelims – AWARDS Context: Recently, ‘Odh won the best film award at the ‘75 Creative Minds of Tomorrow’ film challenge held at the 54th International Film Festival of India (IFFI). Background:- The Union Information and Broadcasting Minister Anurag Singh Thakur launched the ‘75 Creative Minds of Tomorrow’ film challenge at IFFI in Goa. About the 54th International Film Festival of India:- Date: 20th to 28th of November. Venue: Goa. Organized by: National Film Development Corporation of India Ltd (NFDC). Ministry: Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. Historical Background:- Since 1952, India has hosted 53 International Film Festival of India (IFFI) both competitive and non-competitive. The festival became an annual event from 1975 onwards. The 54th edition of the festival, which includes a competition for feature films by Directors from all Continents will be held in Goa. Government of India in collaboration with the State Government of Goa and the Indian Film Industry. The Festival is recognized by the International Federation of Film Producers Associations (FIAPF) as a Competitive Feature Film Festival. Objectives:- providing a common platform for filmmakers of the world to project their excellence in film art. contributing to the understanding and appreciation of film cultures of different nations in the context of their social and cultural ethos promoting friendship and co-operation among people of the world. Categories:- The festival programme is broadly divided into the following categories: – International Competition for Feature Films (up to 15 numbers. Up to three Indian Films will be selected for this section. Fiction Films with a minimum duration of 70 minutes and above). Non-Competition (World Panorama) – for feature films from around the world ( Films with a minimum duration of 70 minutes and above). Country Focus & other specially curated packages (Indian & Foreign) and Special Screenings/Gala Premieres. Indian Panorama – for Indian feature films, Indian Panorama Regulations 2023 will be applicable. Technical Workshops/Masterclasses/other Interactive and academic Sessions/Panel Discussions/Talent Hub etc. both virtual and physical. Film Bazaar: IFFI also hosts the Film Bazaar, South Asia’s largest and One of Asia’s most prolific Film Markets showcasing rich content to potential buyers from different countries across the world. National Film Development Corporation Ltd (NFDC) reserves the right to exclude films that are not in conformity with the philosophy and objective of the festival, which could offend the feelings/susceptibilities of any participating country, or are likely to promote discrimination of any kind. Awards & Prizes:- Best Film: A Cash prize of Rs. 40,00,000/- to be shared equally between the Director and Producer. (The urgent need for CBFC reforms) Director to be given the Golden Peacock and a Certificate in addition to the cash component. Producer to be given a Certificate in addition to the cash component. Best Director: Silver Peacock, Certificate and a cash prize of Rs.15,00,000/- Best Actor (Male): Silver Peacock, Certificate and a cash prize of Rs. 10,00,000/- Best Actor (Female): Silver Peacock, Certificate and a cash prize of Rs. 10,00,000/- Special Jury Award: Silver Peacock, Certificate and a cash prize of Rs. 15,00,000/- given to a film (for any aspect of the film which the jury wishes to award/acknowledge) or an individual (for his/her artistic contribution to a film). The award, if given to a film, will be given to the Director of the film. Award for Best Debut Feature Film of a Director. Satyajit Ray Lifetime Achievement Award for Excellence in Cinema This prestigious award, instituted in the name of legendry filmmaker Satyajit Ray, consisting of a cash prize of Rs. 10,00,000/-, certificate, shawl, Medal (Silver Peacock) and a scroll, is conferred upon a master filmmaker/film technician/film personalities for his / her outstanding contribution to cinema. Indian Film Personality of the Year Award This prestigious award consisting of a cash prize of Rs 10, 00,000/-, certificate, shawl and Medal (Silver Peacock) is conferred upon an Indian film personality for his/her outstanding contribution to Indian Cinema. ICFT UNESCO – Gandhi Medal Award The Gandhi Medal Award is given to a film reflecting UNESCO’s fundamental mandate of building peace in the minds of men and women, particularly human rights.  MUST READ: Golden Globes Award SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Yoga Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: A recent, study conducted by AIIMS has revealed that practising Yoga can reduce felt stigma among adults suffering from epilepsy. Background:- Manjari Tripathi, Head of the Neurology Department, AIIMS, said that the result suggested that yoga enhances the overall quality of life by reducing the burden of epilepsy and felt stigma when used as an add-on, in people with epilepsy who are on medications. About YOGA:- IMAGE SOURCE: WordPress.com The word ‘yoga’ is derived from Sanskrit and means to join or to unite. It symbolizes the union of body and consciousness. Yoga is an ancient physical, mental and spiritual practice. It originated in India. It was put on the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity by UNESCO in 2016. UNESCO List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity: includes forms of expression that demonstrate the diversity of intangible heritage and raise awareness of its importance. India has 13 intangible heritage including Yoga as a part of this list. (UNESCO Heritage Sites in Maharashtra) Related Initiatives M-Yoga App:- The app is a work of collaboration between the World Health Organisation (WHO) and the Ministry of Ayurveda, Yoga & Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha and Homoeopathy (Ministry of AYUSH), Government of India. New website for International Day of Yoga (IDY):- This web portal provides all the updated and relevant information relating to the International Day of Yoga. Yoga as a sport:- The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, after reviewing the categorization of various Sports disciplines, recognised Yoga as a sports discipline and placed it in the ‘Priority’ category in 2015. Common Yoga Protocol:- It is an initiative of the Ministry of AYUSH. Vocational Education Courses in Yoga:- The Beauty & Wellness Sector Skill Council (B&WSSC) has vocational education courses in Yoga for CBSE schools. Skilling initiatives:- Thousands of candidates have been trained as yoga instructors and trainers through various skilling initiatives like the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY). PMKVY: it is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship. Fit India Movement:- Yoga is also a part of the Fit India Movement. Fit India Movement: a nationwide campaign that aims at encouraging people to include physical activities and sports in their everyday lives. MUST READ: New sites added to India’s tentative list of UNESCO world heritage sites SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2021) 21st February is declared to be International Mother Language Day by UNICEF. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2018) Crafts                                    Heritage of Puthukkuli Shawls                   Tamil Nadu Sujni Embroidery                   Maharashtra Uppada Jamdani saris             Karnataka Which of the pairs given above is /are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Fighter Aircraft Country Rafale Russia Tejas India Sukhoi 30 France How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : M-Yoga App is a work of collaboration between the World Health Organisation (WHO) and the (Ministry of AYUSH), Government of India. Statement-II : Yoga is also a part of the Fit India Movement. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Tropical cyclone, consider the following statements: April-May and October-December periods are conducive for cyclones. It is characterized by low atmospheric pressure, high winds, and heavy rain. These are formed over slightly cooler ocean waters. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  25th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 24th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 27th November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 25th November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 24th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Malaria Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, experts say that East Africa may experience a surge in El Nino-related malaria infections. Background:- Impending outbreaks of new infections can wipe away gains in malaria control, they say. About Malaria:- It is a life-threatening mosquito-borne blood disease. It is caused by Plasmodium parasites. It is predominantly found in the tropical and subtropical areas of Africa, South America as well and Asia. It is preventable as well as curable. Symptoms:- Symptoms usually begin ten to fifteen days after being bitten by an infected mosquito. Symptoms include fever, tiredness, vomiting, and headaches. In severe cases, it can cause jaundice, seizures, coma, or death. Transmission:- The parasites spread through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. In the human body, parasites initially multiply in liver cells and then attack the Red Blood Cells (RBCs). There are 5 parasite species that cause Malaria in humans and 2 of these species (Plasmodium falciparum and Plasmodium vivax) pose the greatest threat. Prevention:- Using mosquito nets when sleeping in places where malaria is present Using mosquito repellents (containing DEET, IR3535 or Icaridin) after dusk Using coils and vaporizers. Wearing protective clothing. Using window screens. Treatment:- Artemisinin-based combination therapy medicines like artemether-lumefantrine are usually the most effective medicines. Chloroquine is recommended for the treatment of infection with the vivax parasite only in places where it is still sensitive to this medicine. Primaquine should be added to the main treatment to prevent relapses of infection with the P. vivax and P. ovale parasites. Most medicines used are in pill form. Some people may need to go to a health centre or hospital for injectable medicines. (Malaria Vaccine) India’s status:- In India, malaria elimination efforts were initiated in These were intensified after the launch of the National Framework for Malaria Elimination (NFME) in 2016. It is an initiative under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. NFME is in line with WHO’s 2016-2030 Malaria Strategy. (World Malaria Report 2021) WHO’s 2016-2030 Malaria Strategy: guides the WHO Global Malaria Programme (GMP). Status on elimination: India continues to show a sustained decline in overall malaria but faces several challenges in its malaria elimination journey. MUST READ: New hope for malaria vaccine SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following diseases (2014) Diphtheria Chickenpox Smallpox Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated in India? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 None Q.2) Widespread resistance of the malarial parasites to drugs like chloroquine has prompted attempts to develop a malarial vaccine to combat malaria. Why is it difficult to develop an effective malaria vaccine? (2010) Malaria is caused by several species of Plasmodium Man does not develop immunity to malaria during natural infection Vaccines can be developed only against bacteria Man is only an intermediate host and not the definitive host Air Quality Index (AQI) Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY/ ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, the Air Quality Index in the overall Delhi region was recorded at 323. Background:- The air quality level was recorded in the “Very Poor” category in the National Capital. About Air Quality Index (AQI):- Air Quality Index (AQI) is a number used by government agencies to measure air pollution levels and communicate it to the population. (Air pollution) There are six AQI categories, namely Good, Satisfactory, Moderately polluted, Poor, Very Poor, and Severe. Each of these categories is decided based on ambient concentration values of air pollutants and their likely health impacts (known as health breakpoints). AQ sub-index and health breakpoints are evolved for eight pollutants (PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3, and Pb) for which short-term (up to 24-hours) National Ambient Air Quality Standards are prescribed. As the AQI increases, it means that a large percentage of the population will experience severe adverse health effects. The measurement of the AQI requires an air monitor and an air pollutant concentration over a specified averaging period. The results are grouped into ranges. Each range is assigned a descriptor, a colour code and a standardized public health advisory. The pollution sources in India and in most Asian countries are numerous and incompletely understood. In Delhi, for example, it comes mostly from light and heavy-duty vehicle traffic emissions, road dust, solid fuel combustion for heating and cooking, biomass, waste burning, thermal power plants, diesel generators, construction and small-scale local industries. ( Delhi and Air Pollution) Government Initiatives:- The National Air Quality Index Standard (NAQI): It was launched by The Minister for Environment, Forests & Climate Change, Shri Prakash Javadekar, on 17 September 2014. The initiative constitutes part of the Government’s mission to introduce the “culture of cleanliness”, as air pollution has been a huge concern in the country, especially in urban areas The National Air Monitoring Program (NAMP): it covers 240 cities in the country, has been operated by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and developed by the Indian Institute of Technology, Kanpur (IIT), providing data in the public domain, on a real-time basis. System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting and Research (SAFAR) Portal. Graded Response Action Plan. Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) Reducing Vehicular Pollution: BS-VI Vehicles, Push for Electric Vehicles (EVs), Odd-Even Policy as an emergency measure. Subsidy to farmers for buying Turbo Happy Seeder (THS) Machine. MUST READ: Initiatives and Measures for Prevention of Air Pollution SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2023) Aerosols Foam agents Fire retardants Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: (2022) The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m3 and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 ug/m3. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of inclement weather. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only Lucy Mission Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY-SPACE Context: Recently, the Lucy spacecraft successfully completed its first flyby of an asteroid named Dinkinesh. Background:- It is a mission by NASA. About Lucy Mission:- It was successfully launched on 16, 2021, from the Kennedy Space Center in Florida, US. The spacecraft was launched on an Atlas V 401 rocket. It is a NASA space probe. It is on a twelve-year journey to ten different asteroids. It is the first solar-powered spacecraft to venture so far from the Sun. (Aditya-L1 Mission) It will observe more asteroids than any probe before it — eight in all. It includes Jupiter’s Trojan asteroids. They orbit the Sun in two loose groups: one group leading ahead of Jupiter in its orbit, the other trailing behind at the same distance from the Sun as Jupiter. Asteroids sharing an orbit with a planet, but which are located at the leading (L4) and trailing (L5) Lagrangian points, are known as Trojan asteroids. The mission is named after ‘Lucy’, a 3.2 million-year-old ancestor who belonged to a species of hominins (which include humans and their ancestors). The spacecraft carries two infrared spectrometers and four cameras. MUST READ: IN-SPACe SOURCE: MSN PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Q.2) With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018) PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only National Investigation Agency (NIA) Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT AGENCIES/GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, the National Investigation Agency (NIA) conducted simultaneous raids in Kaimur, Gaya and Aurangabad districts following Naxal-related inputs in Bihar. Background:- During the raids at different locations in Naxal affected Adhaura area in Kaimur three suspected Maoists were arrested. About National Investigation Agency (NIA):- NIA is functioning as the Central Counter Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency in India. Establishment: 2008. It was established by National Investigation Agency Act, enacted on 31-12-08. (NIA) Ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs. HQ: New Delhi. It is a central agency to investigate and prosecute offences:- affecting the sovereignty, security and integrity of India, security of the State, and friendly relations with foreign States. against atomic and nuclear facilities. smuggling in High-Quality Counterfeit Indian Currency. Objectives:- It implements international treaties, agreements, conventions and resolutions of the United Nations, its agencies and other international organisations. Historical Background:- The agency at the Central level was created for t investigation of offences related to terrorism and certain other Acts post-2008 Mumbai terror attacks. Functions of NIA:- In-depth professional investigation of scheduled offences using the latest scientific methods. Ensuring effective and speedy trials. Developing into a thoroughly professional, result-oriented organization. Developing a professional workforce through regular training and exposure to the best practices and procedures. Maintaining professional and cordial relations with the governments of States and Union Territories and other law enforcement agencies in compliance with the legal provisions of the NIA Act. Assist all States and other investigating agencies in the investigation of terrorist cases. Build a database on all terrorist-related information. Share the database available with the States and other agencies. Study and analyse laws relating to terrorism in other countries. Evaluate the adequacy of existing laws in India and propose changes as and when necessary. To win the confidence of the citizens of India through selfless and fearless endeavours. MUST READ: Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements : (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following organizations/ bodies in India : (2023) The National Commission for Backward Classes The National Human Rights Commission The National Law Commission The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies? Only one Only two Only three All four SURAT Warship Syllabus Prelims –Defense Context: Recently, the Crest unveiling ceremony of the Indian Navy’s Warship “SURAT”.  Background:- The Crest of Indian Navy’s latest, indigenous under-construction, guided missile destroyer, ‘Surat’, is scheduled to be unveiled by Shri Bhupendra Patel, the Chief Minister of Gujarat in the presence of Adm R Hari Kumar, the Chief of the Naval Staff, at a ceremony to be held in the city of Surat . About SURAT Warship:- Constructed by: Mazagon Docks Shipbuilders Ltd. Mumbai. Naming: The Destroyer has been named after Gujarat’s commercial capital- Surat, which has a rich maritime and ship-building history. INS Surat is the fourth and the last ship of the Project 15B Indian Navy Destroyers. These are called the Visakhapatnam class after the lead vessel INS Visakhapatnam. The Indian Naval Destroyers are named after Indian cities as per the naval tradition. It began with Project 15, under which three destroyers were built: INS Delhi in 1997, INS Mysore in 1999 and INS Mumbai in 2001. Project 15 was followed by the three-destroyer Project 15A, under which INS Kolkata was commissioned in 2014, INS Kochi in 2015 and INS Chennai in 2016. It was followed by the ‘Project 15B’ programme involves the construction of four next-generation stealth-guided missile destroyers, of which ‘Surat’ is the fourth and the last ship. Under project 15-B:- The first: INS Visakhapatnam. (Project-15B stealth guided missile destroyers) The second: INS Mormugao. The third: INS Imphal. The fourth: INS Surat. While INS Morm­ugao will be commissioned in 2022, INS Imphal will be commissioned in 2023 and INS Surat is likely to be commissioned in 2024, all at one-year intervals. INS Surat has been built using Block construction methodology that involves hull construction in two different locations and then joined together at one hub. It is a Guided-missile destroyer. This is the first capital warship to be named after the city of Gujarat. MUST READ: Dunagiri, a Project 17A Frigate SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q2. Consider the following countries : (2023) Bulgaria Czech Republic Hungary Latvia Lithuania Romania How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine? Only two Only three Only four Only five Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) Syllabus Prelims – IMPORTANT ORGANIZATION Context: Recently, the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) has busted a major module of cyber-enabled crimes allegedly coercing foreign nationals for payments and recovered cash amounts of nearly 2.2 crore rupees. Background:- As part of the operation, the CBI conducted searches in an ongoing investigation of a case at around 24 locations across multiple States, including Delhi, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, and Gujarat. About CBI:- It was established as the Special Police Establishment in 194. Objective: to investigate cases of corruption in procurement during the Second World War. Later, the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption recommended the establishment of the CBI. As a result, it was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the Union Home Ministry. The Special Police Establishment (which looked into vigilance cases) setup in 1941 was also merged with the CBI Later, it was transferred to the Ministry of Personnel and now it enjoys the status of an attached office. The CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, of 1946. The CBI is the main investigating agency of the Central Government. The CBI investigates the crime of corruption, economic offences and serious and organized crime other than terrorism. The CBI is headed by a Director who is assisted by a special/additional director. The Director of CBI has been provided security of two-year tenure by the CVC Act, 2003. As per the CVC Act of 2003, the Central Government shall appoint the Director of CBI on the recommendation of a three-member committee consisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha Chief Justice of India or Judge of the Supreme Court nominated by him. If there is no recognized leader of the opposition in the Lok Sabha, then the leader of the single largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha would be a member of that committee. The CBI Academy is located in Ghaziabad, UP and started functioning in 1996. It also has three regional training centres at Kolkata, Mumbai & Chennai. (CBI and its troubles) The superintendence of CBI related to the investigation of offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 lies with the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC). Other matters with the Department of Personnel & Training (DOPT) in the Ministry of Personnel, Pension & Grievances of the Government of India Functions:- Investigating cases of corruption, bribery and misconduct of Union govt employees Investigating cases relating to infringement of fiscal and economic laws Investigating serious crimes, having national and international ramifications, committed by organised gangs of professional criminals. Coordinating activities of the anticorruption agencies and various state police forces Taking up, on the request of a state government, any case of public importance for investigation. The Central Government can authorize CBI to investigate such a crime in a State but only with the consent of the concerned State Government. It takes up investigation of conventional crimes like murder, kidnapping, rape etc., on reference from the state governments or when directed by the Supreme Court/High Courts. Maintaining crime statistics and disseminating criminal information. The CBI acts as the “National Central Bureau” of Interpol in India. MUST READ: CBI and ED SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: EXERCISE COUNTRIES Mitra Shakti India & Sri Lanka Siam Bharat India & Thailand Cope India India & US How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : The CBI Academy is located in Ghaziabad, UP Statement-II : The CBI Investigates cases of corruption, bribery and misconduct of Union govt employee. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Lucy Mission, consider the following statements: It is a NASA space probe. It is on a twelve-year journey to ten different asteroids. It is the first solar-powered spacecraft to venture so far from the Sun , consider the following statements How many of the statements given above is/are correct? only 1, 2 and 3 only and 3 only only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  24th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 23rd November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 24th November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 23rd November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Ozone Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recent reports suggest that the ozone Hole May Not Be Recovering After all. Background:- The hole in the Antarctic ozone layer has been getting deeper in mid-spring over the last two decades, despite a global ban on chemicals that deplete Earth’s shield from deadly solar radiation, new research suggested. About Ozone:- Ozone is a gas composed of three atoms of oxygen. It is both a natural and a man-made product. It occurs in the Earth’s Stratosphere and the Troposphere. Stratospheric ozone is formed naturally through the interaction of solar ultraviolet (UV) radiation with molecular oxygen (O2). Ozone is produced naturally in the stratosphere. But this ozone is gradually being destroyed by man-made chemicals referred to as ozone-depleting substances (ODS), including chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs), halons, methyl bromide, carbon tetrachloride, and methyl chloroform. Effects of Ozone Layer Depletion:- Humans may have severe health problems as a result, including skin conditions, cancer, sunburns, cataracts, rapid ageing, and weakened immune systems. Animals that are directly exposed to UV light develop skin and eye cancer. Strong UV radiation may prevent plants from growing, blooming, or performing photosynthesis. Planktons are greatly affected by exposure to harmful ultraviolet rays. (Ozone Levels Exceeding Permitted Levels) Efforts taken to control ground-level ozone pollution:- Adoption of BS-VI standards The Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) for Delhi was prepared by the Ministry of Environment, Forests & Climate Change (MoEFCC) after the order of the Supreme Court in December 2016. The Environmental Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA) is responsible for its implementation. It aims to prevent the worsening of the Air Quality of Delhi-NCR including Ozone pollution. (Ozone Hole Recovery) National Clean Air Programme (NCAP): The government launched this campaign to reduce air pollution in 102 non-attainment cities including Ozone pollution. MUST READ: Preservation of Ozone Hole SOURCE: SCIENCE ALERT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of India’s preparation for Climate-smart Agriculture, consider the following statements: (2021) The ‘Climate-Smart Village’ approach in India is part of a project led by Climate Change, Agriculture, and Food Security (CCAFS), an international research program. The project of CCAFS is carried out under the Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’s research centres. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 ISRAEL-PALESTINE CONFLICT Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi welcomed the agreement for the ongoing  ISRAEL-PALESTINE CONFLICT. Background:- Israel and the Palestinian terror group Hamas agreed to the release of 50 hostages held in Gaza and a temporary pause in fighting. In his remarks at the virtual G20 Leaders Summit last evening, Mr Modi expressed hope that all the hostages will be released soon. About ISRAEL-PALESTINE CONFLICT:- IMAGE SOURCE: express.co.uk Both Israelis and Palestinians have been in a struggle for self-determination and sovereignty over the territory, developing respective movements for their causes. (India, Israel and Palestine) Both Palestinians and Israelis see the territory between the Jordan River and the Mediterranean Sea as their own, and Christians, Jews, and Muslims all hold parts of the land as sacred. The past seven decades have brought war and uprisings. (15th India-Israel Joint Working Group) Historic Timeline:- Ottoman Empire: The Ottoman Empire had controlled that part of the Middle East from the early 16th century until control of most of the region was granted to the British after World War I. In 1916: the Sykes-Picot Agreement secretly negotiated between Britain and France planned to carve up the Middle East into spheres of influence, and determined that the land in question was to be internationalized. In 1917: Britain’s foreign secretary, Lord Arthur Balfour, expressed his government’s support for “the establishment in Palestine of a national home for the Jewish people. 1947: UN resolution 1947: After World War II, nearing the end of the British Mandate for Palestine, the United Nations General Assembly in 1947 passed Resolution 181, urging the partition of the land into two independent states — one Arab and one Jewish. Religiously significant Jerusalem is to be under special international administration. The plan is not implemented after the Arab side rejects it, arguing that it is unfavourable to their majority population. Violence in the regional conflict grows. 1948: Israel declares independence. Israel declared independence in May 1948. The next day, a coalition of Arab states, allied with Palestinian factions, attacked Israeli forces in what became the first of several Arab-Israeli wars. In the end, Israel gains control of an even larger portion of territory — not including the areas of the West Bank and Gaza Strip. 1967: the Six-Day War In June of 1967, a war known as the “Six-Day War” or the 1967 Arab-Israeli War broke out amid lingering conflicts, including Egypt’s continued blockade of shipping into the Gulf of Aqaba. Israel ultimately takes control of the Gaza Strip, Sinai, the West Bank, the Golan Heights, and predominantly Palestinian East Jerusalem. The Arab armies suffered massive losses. 1987: First intifada A Palestinian uprising, or intifada, brings largely spontaneous clashes, protests, and civil disobedience against Israeli occupation in the West Bank, Gaza, and Israel, leading to harsh Israeli military crackdowns. Unrest continues for years, with many killed or injured on both sides. 1993: Oslo Accords The first of two pacts, known as the Oslo Accords, was signed between Israel and the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO). It set out a peace process based on previous U.N. resolutions. It charted out the expansion of a limited Palestinian self-rule in the West Bank and Gaza Strip. A follow-up accord was signed in 1995. However, key issues such as Israeli settlements in the West Bank and the status of Jerusalem, were left unresolved. 2006: Hamas elected in Gaza Israel withdrew its troops from Gaza in 2005. The Palestinian militant group Hamas wins legislative elections the next year, leading to political strains with the more moderate Fatah party controlling the West Bank. 2017: U.S. recognizes Jerusalem as capital The Donald Trump administration recognizes Jerusalem as the capital of Israel and announces that it plans to shift the U.S. Embassy from Tel Aviv, stirring outrage from Palestinians. 2022: Netanyahu sworn in for sixth term Benjamin Netanyahu is sworn in again as Israeli prime minister, after winning an election that gives him his sixth term and elevates a once-fringe bloc of far-right politicians into powerful seats. 2023: Recent events:- January 2023: Israeli forces raid the Palestinian city of Jenin, killing nine people in a shootout. Summer 2023: Retaliatory attacks flare Israel launches surprise airstrikes across the Gaza Strip in May. October 2023: Israel is attacked by Hamas. Prime Minister of Israel, Netanyahu formally declared war on Hamas on Oct. 8 following a surprise assault by Hamas militants that came a day after the 50th anniversary of the start of the 1973 Yom Kippur War. MUST READ: India-Israel Industrial R&D & Technological Innovation Fund (I4F) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin? (2023) Cameroon Nigeria South Sudan Uganda Q.2) With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements: (2022) A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from a baseline determined in accordance with the convention. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Vanuatu Islands Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: A Magnitude 6.7 Earthquake Jolted the Vanuatu Islands Near Australia recently. About Vanuatu Islands:- IMAGE SOURCE: BRITANNICA Vanuatu, a country in the southwestern Pacific Ocean. It consists of a chain of 13 principal and many smaller islands located about 500 miles (800 km) west of Fiji and 1,100 miles (1,770 km) east of Australia. Vanuatu (officially, the Republic of Vanuatu) is divided into 6 provinces. These provinces are Malampa, Penama, Sanma, Shefa, Tafea and Torba. These provinces are further subdivided into municipalities. The indigenous population, called ni-Vanuatu, is overwhelmingly Melanesian, though some of the outlying islands have Polynesian populations. Subsistence agriculture has traditionally been the economic base of Vanuatu, together with an elaborate exchange network within and between islands. Since independence, Vanuatu’s tourism and offshore financial services have emerged as the largest earners of foreign income. The Lapita sites became Vanuatu’s first UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2008. About Earthquake:- An earthquake is the shaking or trembling of the earth’s surface. (Anatolian Plate) It is caused by the seismic waves or earthquake waves that are generated due to a sudden movement (sudden release of energy) in the earth’s crust (shallow-focus earthquakes) or upper mantle (some shallow-focus and all intermediate and deep-focus earthquakes). A seismograph, or seismometer, is an instrument used to detect and record earthquakes. Hypocentre/Focus: The point where the energy is released. Epicentre: The point on the surface directly above the focus. Isoseismic line: A line connecting all points on the surface where the intensity is the same. MUST READ: (Volcano) SOURCE: TIMES NOW PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2022) The region often mentioned in the news:   Country Anatolia Turkey Amhara Ethiopia Cabo Delgado Spain Catalonia Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) consider the following statements: (2020) Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only. Only some cyclones develop an eye. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10°C less than that of the surroundings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 only Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT INSTITUTION Context: Recently, the central government has suspended Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) official Anil Gill with immediate effect. Background:- The action was taken by a vigilance committee established by the DGCA to conduct its preliminary investigation into allegations of corruption. About Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA):- The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is a statutory body of the Government of India. It was formed under the Aircraft (Amendment) Act, of 2020. It comes under the Ministry of Civil Aviation. (New Director General of Bureau Of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS) appointed) It aims to regulate civil aviation in India. It primarily deals with safety issues in civil aviation. Its headquarters are located in New Delhi. It has regional offices in various parts of India. Mandate: DGCA is responsible for the regulation of air transport services to/from/within India and for enforcement of civil air regulations, air safety, and airworthiness standards. (Reforms In Civil Aviation Industry) Functions:- Registration of civil aircraft. Formulation of standards of airworthiness for civil aircraft registered in India and grant of certificates of airworthiness to such aircraft. Licensing of pilots, aircraft maintenance engineers and flight engineers, and conducting examinations and checks for that purpose. Licensing of air traffic controllers. Investigating accidents/incidents. Taking accident prevention measures. Coordination at the national level for flexible use of air space by civil and military air traffic agencies Interaction with ICAO for the provision of more air routes for civil use through Indian air space. Promoting indigenous design and manufacture of aircraft. MUST READ: International Air Connectivity Scheme (IACS) scheme SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2022) The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 4 Sant Mirabai Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi visited Mathura in Uttar Pradesh today to take part in Sant Mirabai Janmotsav. Background:- The programme is being organized to mark the 525th Birth Anniversary of Sant Mirabai. During the event, the Prime Minister will also release a commemorative stamp and a coin in honour of Sant Mira Bai. About Sant Mirabai:- Mirabai was born into a Rajput royal family in Kudki, Rajasthan’s Pali region, and spent her youth in Merta. By around 1600 CE, she was referenced in Bhaktamal, indicating that she was a well-known and revered figure in the Bhakti movement. Mirabai was a Rajput princess who married a prince from the royal family. She became a follower of Ravidas, a saint who was said to be untouchable. (Sant Ravidas) She committed her life to Lord Krishna’s devotion. She was the first to introduce the Giridhara Gopala cult of Brindavan and also the first to introduce Bhajan in the Bhakti movement Her bhajans were composed in the language of Vraj Bhasha. Meerabai’s five teachings are:- She did not believe in the caste hierarchy and instead attacked higher caste standards. She fled the kingdom because of her great devotion to Lord Krishna. She was not a follower of kingly traditions. She preached love while avoiding hatred. Despite being from the royal family, she became a follower of Ravidas, who was considered untouchable. MUST READ: The Sant Tukaram temple SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts: (2022) Nettipakarana Parishishtaparvan Avadanashataka Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana Which of the above are Jaina texts 1,2 and 3 2 and 4 only 1,3 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following pairs: (2020) Parivrajaka — Renunciant and Wanderer Shramana — Priest with a high status Upasaka — Lay follower of Buddhism Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 PAVANA RIVER Syllabus Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, a laundry owner was booked for polluting the Pavana River. Background:- A laundry owner from Tathawade was booked for allegedly discharging untreated contaminated water in the Pavana River. About Pavana River:- Location: Pune District, Maharashtra. The river is a prominent river that runs through Pune City. It separates it from the Pimpri-Chinchwad district. It comes from the Western Ghats, around 6 kilometres south of Lonavala. It is a tributary of the Bhima River that joins the Mula River in Pune. Flowing eastward at first, it turns south and travels through the suburbs of Dehu, Chinchwad, Pimpri, and Dapodi before joining the Mula River. The “Pavana Nagar Dam” is being built on this river at Pavana Nagar. It is a gravity earthfill. (River Cities Alliance) It has a total storage capacity of 30,500.00 km3 and measures 1,329 m (4,360 ft) long and 42.37 m (139.0 ft) high. MUST READ: Teesta River SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2020) Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only. Only some cyclones develop an eye. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10°C less than that of the surroundings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 only Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: RIVER ORIGIN Penna River   Nandi Hills Sabari River   Sinkaram hill ranges Dihing River Patkai Hills How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None  Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Pavana River is a prominent river that runs through Kolkata. Statement-II : It separates it from the Pimpri-Chinchwad district. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Earthquake, consider the following statements: The point where the energy is released is called the epicentre. A line connecting all points on the surface where the intensity is the same is called an Isoseismic line. A seismograph, or seismometer, is an instrument used to detect and record earthquakes. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 2 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  23rd November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 22nd November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – c