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Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 23rd November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 22nd November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   World Television Day Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT DAYS Context: Recently, World Television Day was globally observed. Background:- World Television Day is globally observed today to highlight the importance of visual media and to recognize its increasing impact on decision-making and potential role in shaping global conversations. About World Television Day:- Date: 21st   November Theme for 2023: ‘Accessibility’. Historical Background:- On this day in 1996, the United Nations held the First World Television Forum and decided to observe 21st November every year as World Television Day. TV was invented by a Scottish engineer, John Logie Baird in 1924. TV in India:- It was introduced in India on 15th September 1959 in New Delhi with the assistance of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO). Daily transmission began in 1965 as a part of Akashvani. National telecast was introduced in 1982 and in the same year, colour television was introduced in the Indian market. During this time, there was only one national channel, the government-owned ‘Krishi Darshan’ was telecast in 1967 as the first and Indian television’s longest-running programme. ‘Ramayana’ and ‘Mahabharata’ were the first major television series produced. Other shows like ‘Hum Log’, ‘Wagle Ki Duniya’ and ‘Buniyaad’ were also popular. The invention of television revolutionised the way we communicate and consume information. On this day, meet-ups at local and global levels take place to raise awareness among people about the role television plays in communication and globalization. (Broadcasting Infrastructure and Network Development (BIND) scheme) Significance:- This day also marks the commitment of governments, news organizations and individuals to deliver unbiased information in times when the authenticity of content on social media platforms is questionable. MUST READ: On regulation of Digital media (Sudarshan TV Case) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘stand up India scheme’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) Its purpose is to promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs. It provides for refinancing through SIDBI. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 54th International Film Festival of India Syllabus Prelims – AWARDS Context: Recently, Veteran Hollywood actor & producer Michael Douglas addressed a Masterclass at the 54th International Film Festival of India in Goa. Background:- The legendary American actor will also be honoured with the Satyajit Ray Lifetime Achievement Award at the closing ceremony of IFFI on the same day. About the 54th International Film Festival of India:- Date: 20th to 28th of November. Venue: Goa. Organized by: National Film Development Corporation of India Ltd (NFDC). Ministry: Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. Historical Background:- Since 1952, India has hosted 53 International Film Festival of India (IFFI) both competitive and non-competitive. The festival became an annual event from 1975 onwards. The 54th edition of the festival, which includes a competition for feature films by Directors from all Continents will be held in Goa. Government of India in collaboration with the State Government of Goa and the Indian Film Industry. The Festival is recognized by the International Federation of Film Producers Associations (FIAPF) as a Competitive Feature Film Festival. Objectives:- providing a common platform for filmmakers of the world to project their excellence in film art. contributing to the understanding and appreciation of film cultures of different nations in the context of their social and cultural ethos promoting friendship and co-operation among people of the world. Categories:- The festival programme is broadly divided into the following categories: – International Competition for Feature Films (up to 15 numbers. Up to three Indian Films will be selected for this section. Fiction Films with a minimum duration of 70 minutes and above). Non-Competition (World Panorama) – for feature films from around the world ( Films with a minimum duration of 70 minutes and above). Country Focus & other specially curated packages (Indian & Foreign) and Special Screenings/Gala Premieres. Indian Panorama – for Indian feature films, Indian Panorama Regulations 2023 will be applicable. Technical Workshops/Masterclasses/other Interactive and academic Sessions/Panel Discussions/Talent Hub etc. both virtual and physical. Film Bazaar: IFFI also hosts the Film Bazaar, South Asia’s largest and One of Asia’s most prolific Film Markets showcasing rich content to potential buyers from different countries across the world. National Film Development Corporation Ltd (NFDC) reserves the right to exclude films that are not in conformity with the philosophy and objective of the festival, which could offend the feelings/susceptibilities of any participating country, or are likely to promote discrimination of any kind. Awards & Prizes:- Best Film: A Cash prize of Rs. 40,00,000/- to be shared equally between the Director and Producer. (The urgent need for CBFC reforms) Director to be given the Golden Peacock and a Certificate in addition to the cash component. Producer to be given a Certificate in addition to the cash component. Best Director: Silver Peacock, Certificate and a cash prize of Rs.15,00,000/- Best Actor (Male): Silver Peacock, Certificate and a cash prize of Rs. 10,00,000/- Best Actor (Female): Silver Peacock, Certificate and a cash prize of Rs. 10,00,000/- Special Jury Award: Silver Peacock, Certificate and a cash prize of Rs. 15,00,000/- given to a film (for any aspect of the film which the jury wishes to award/acknowledge) or an individual (for his/her artistic contribution to a film). The award, if given to a film, will be given to the Director of the film. Award for Best Debut Feature Film of a Director. Satyajit Ray Lifetime Achievement Award for Excellence in Cinema This prestigious award, instituted in the name of legendry filmmaker Satyajit Ray, consisting of a cash prize of Rs. 10,00,000/-, certificate, shawl, Medal (Silver Peacock) and a scroll, is conferred upon a master filmmaker/film technician/film personalities for his / her outstanding contribution to cinema. Indian Film Personality of the Year Award This prestigious award consisting of a cash prize of Rs 10, 00,000/-, certificate, shawl and Medal (Silver Peacock) is conferred upon an Indian film personality for his/her outstanding contribution to Indian Cinema. ICFT UNESCO – Gandhi Medal Award The Gandhi Medal Award is given to a film reflecting UNESCO’s fundamental mandate of building peace in the minds of men and women, particularly human rights. MUST READ: Golden Globes Award SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Dr SS Badrinath Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT PERSONALITIES Context: Recently, PM, condoles the death of Sankara Nethralaya founder Dr SS Badrinath. Background:- The founder of Sankara Netralaya Dr.S.S Badrinath passed away in Chennai. About Dr SS Badrinath:- He was the founder of Sankara Netralaya. He was 83 due to illness. Born on February,24,1940. S.S. Badrinath graduated from Madras Medical College in 1962. He pursued his post-graduation in the United States. After returning to India in 1970, he worked with the Voluntary Health Services in Adyar. He was closely associated with the Sankara Mutt as he performed cataract surgery on his spiritual guru Chandrasekara Saraswathi Swamigal. He founded the Sankara Nethralaya as a unit of the Medical Research Foundation in 1978. The institution which he founded has become iconic, a symbol of the progress of modern medicine. Achievements:- He was a recipient of:- Padma Shri:1983 Padma Bhushan: 1999. (Padma awards) MUST READ: Padma awardee Shanti Devi SOURCE: THE NEW INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy : (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: (2019) PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4 Enforcement Directorate (ED) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, the Enforcement Directorate (ED) seized over 751 crore rupees in assets in the National Herald money laundering case. Background:- In a social media post, the agency said, the investigation revealed that Associated Journals Ltd. (AJL) is in possession of proceeds of crime in the form of immovable properties spread across many cities of India such as Delhi, Mumbai, and Lucknow the tune of 661.69 crore rupees. About ED:- The Enforcement Directorate is a multi-disciplinary organization founded in 1956. It is a law enforcement organization tasked with enforcing economic laws and combating economic crime in India, such as money laundering and foreign exchange irregularities. It works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. Headquarters: New Delhi The functions of the Directorate include the enforcement of the following Acts:- The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA) (Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) 2002) The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA): A civil law under which ED conducts an investigation into suspected contraventions of foreign exchange laws and regulations. ( Foreign Exchange Management Act) The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act 1973 Sponsoring Organizations under the 1974 Foreign Exchange Conservation and Smuggling Activity Prevention Act The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 (FEOA): A law whereby the Directorate is mandated to attach the properties of fugitive economic offenders who have escaped from India warranting arrest and providing for the confiscation of their properties to the Central Government. (Fugitive Economic Offenders) Director of Enforcement:- Appointed by the central government on the recommendation of a committee chaired by the Central Vigilance Commissioner and members comprising of Vigilance Commissioners, Home Secretary, Secretary DOPT and Revenue Secretary. Tenure: up to 5 years. Recruitment of other officers:- Other officers may be recruited directly from other investigative agencies or indirectly. It is made up of representatives from the police, excise, customs, and income tax departments of the Indian Revenue Services (IRS), the Indian Police Services (IPS), and the Indian Administrative Services (IAS). MUST READ: CBI and ED SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 G-20 summit Syllabus Prelims – INTERNATIONAL ORGANIZATIONS Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi to chair the concluding G-20 summit-2023 virtually soon. Background:- The Virtual G20 Summit is going to be held today under the chairmanship of Prime Minister Narendra Modi. Briefing media on the Summit, G20 Sherpa Amitabh Kant said this will be the second time that the Prime Minister will be hosting the Leaders of the G20 in a span of two and a half months. India holds the G20 Presidency until the 30th of November, 2023. The G20 Troika during the Brazilian G20 Presidency in 2024 will comprise India, Brazil, and South Africa. About G-20 summit:- Establishment: 1999. ( G20) Historical Background: The G20 forum was established by the finance ministers and central bank governors of seven countries – Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the U.K., and the U.S. after a meeting in Washington DC. Members: Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, the U.K., the U.S. and the European Union. Presidency of the G20: it rotates every year among members. The country holding the presidency, together with the previous and next presidency-holder, forms the ‘Troika’. India assumed the presidency of the G20 grouping from Indonesia, in 2022 and will hold the post for a year. During India’s presidency, India, Indonesia and Brazil will form the troika. The G20 does not have a permanent secretariat or Headquarters. MUST READ: India and G20 Presidency SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements about G-20: (2023) The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss the International economic and financial issues. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’ recently in the news, is related to the affairs of: (2015) ASEAN BRICS OECD WTO Zika Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, a 64-year-old woman in Pune was found to be infected with Zika. Background:- A 64-year-old woman in the Yerawada area of Pune has been found to be infected with Zika, a mosquito-borne disease. Co-director of the Epidemiology Department Dr. Pratap Singh Saranikar met the patient and instructed her regarding taking care of her health. About Zika:- IMAGE SOURCE: share.upmc.com The Zika virus is a mosquito-borne flavivirus. It was first identified in Uganda in 1947 in monkeys. It was later identified in humans in 1952 in Uganda and the United Republic of Tanzania. Most infections in humans are asymptomatic or with mild symptoms, including fever, rash, and joint pain. Transmission:- It is primarily transmitted to humans through the bite of infected Aedes mosquitoes, particularly Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus. It can also spread through sexual contact, blood transfusion, and from an infected mother to her baby during pregnancy or childbirth. The Zika virus became notorious during the 2015-2018 outbreak that swept through the Americas. The outbreak was characterized by an alarming increase in the number of microcephaly cases in newborns, prompting the World Health Organization to declare it a public health emergency of international concern in early 2016. Treatment:- There is no vaccine or medicine for Zika. Instead, the focus is on relieving symptoms and includes rest, rehydration and acetaminophen for fever and pain. MUST READ: Controlling Dengue Using Wolbachia Bacteria SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2022) Aarogya Setu COWIN DigiLocker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4  Q.2) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Organizations Headquarters United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA) Brussels, Belgium North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) New York, USA Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) Vienna, Austria How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : The G20 does not have a permanent secretariat or Headquarters. Statement-II : During India’s presidency, India, Indonesia and Brazil will form the troika. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Zika, consider the following statements: The Zika virus is a mosquito-borne flavivirus. It was first identified in India in 1947 in monkeys. Most infections in humans are asymptomatic or with mild symptoms, including fever, rash, and joint pain. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  22nd November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 21st November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 22nd November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 21st November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   India and Australia Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, India and Australia exchanged views on deepening multifaceted ties in several areas in two-plus two dialogues in New Delhi. Background:- The second India-Australia Two plus Two Dialogue was held in New Delhi . About India and Australia:- The Australia-India relationship was upgraded to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership (CSP) in June 2020. (India-Australia relations) It is based on mutual understanding, trust, close connections and a shared vision of a stable, open and prosperous Indo-Pacific. Diplomatic Relationship:- Australia and India established diplomatic relations in 1943 when Lieutenant-General Sir Iven Mackay was appointed Australia’s first High Commissioner to India. India’s first High Commissioner to Australia, Sir Raghunath P Paranjpe arrived in Canberra in 1945. Australia is one of only three countries with which India holds annual leader-level summits. The Prime Ministers of Australia and India also regularly interact at major international meetings, including through the Quad, G20 and East Asia Summit. In addition, Australian and Indian Foreign and Defence Ministers meet every second year to discuss strategic issues in a ‘2+2’ format. People-to-people Relationship:- The Indian community is Australia’s second-largest, and fastest-growing, overseas-born group. In the 2021 Census, the number of people reporting Indian heritage was 976,000. Of these, there were 673,000 Indian-born Australians, representing 2.6 per cent of the Australian population. India remains Australia’s largest source of skilled migrants. India is also the second-largest source of international students. Economic relationship:- According to the International Monetary Fund (IMF), India is the world’s fifth-largest economy in nominal terms and third-largest by Purchasing Power Parity. The IMF estimates India’s GDP will grow by 5.9 per cent in 2023 and 6.2 per cent in 2025. In 2022, India was Australia’s sixth-largest two-way goods and services trading partner and fourth-largest goods and services export market. Two-way goods and services trade with India was $48.4 billion in 2022. Australia’s exports to India totalled $34.8 billion and imports from India totalled $13.5 billion in 2022. Australia’s stock of investment in India was $17.6 billion in 2022. India’s total investment in Australia was $34.5 billion. Environmental Relationship:- During Prime Minister Modi’s visit to Sydney in May 2023, Australia and India agreed on Terms of Reference for the Australia-India Green Hydrogen Taskforce. The task force will be comprised of Australian and Indian experts in green hydrogen production and deployment. It complements the work of the India-Australia Solar Taskforce welcomed by the Prime Ministers of Australia and India in March 2023. The Solar Taskforce will provide advice on opportunities to accelerate solar PV deployment and enhance supply chains. The Australia-India Green Steel Partnership is helping India meet growing steel requirements while supporting the commercialization of innovative technologies that improve efficiencies and environmental outcomes in steel production. Education Relationship:- Education is Australia’s largest service export to India, valued at $4.4 billion in 2022. As of May 2023, almost 88,000 Indian visa holders were studying in Australia. Defence Relationship:- Australia’s defence engagement with India gathered significant momentum in 2022 and has continued to grow. Since signing our CSP in 2020 and the Mutual Logistics Support Agreement in 2021. For the first time in 2023, Australia will host Exercise Malabar – a joint training initiative with India, the US and Japan. They regularly exercise together during Exercise AUSTRAHIND and AUSINDEX, bilateral army and navy exercises. They conduct Maritime Patrol Aircraft deployments to enhance maritime domain awareness.  MUST READ: India-Australia Economic Co-operation and Trade Agreement SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements (2022) It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. It is an initiative to support Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’ recently in the news, is related to the affairs of:(2015) ASEAN BRICS OECD WTO Employees' Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) Syllabus Prelims – ECONOMY Context: Recent data shows that the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) added 17.21 lakh net members during September 2023. Background:- This is an increase of 21 thousand 475 net members over the previous month of August. About Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO):- The EPFO is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India. It is one of the World’s largest Social Security Organisations in terms of clientele and the volume of financial transactions undertaken. It into existence with the promulgation of the Employees’ Provident Funds Ordinance on the 15th of November 1951. It was replaced by the Employees’ Provident Funds Act, of 1952. The Employees’ Provident Funds Bill was introduced in the Parliament in the year 1952 as a Bill to provide for the institution of provident funds for employees in factories and other establishments. The Act is now referred to as the Employees’ Provident Funds & Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 which extends to the whole of India. The Act and Schemes framed there under are administered by a tri-partite Board known as the Central Board of Trustees, Employees’ Provident Fund. The Central Board of Trustees : It consists of representatives of Government (Both Central and State), Employers, and Employees. It administers a contributory provident fund, a pension scheme and an insurance scheme for the workforce engaged in the organized sector in India. It is assisted by the Employees’ PF Organization (EPFO), consisting of offices at 138 locations across the country. The Organization has a well-equipped training set-up where officers and employees of the Organization as well as Representatives of the Employers and Employees attend sessions for training and seminars. Vision: An innovation-driven social security organisation aiming to extend universal coverage and ensure Nirbadh (Seamless and uninterrupted) service delivery to its stakeholders through state-of-the-art technology. Schemes under EPFO:- EPF Scheme 1952 It provides for the accumulation plus interest upon retirement and death. Partial withdrawals are allowed for education, marriage, illness and house construction. (Nidhi Aapke Nikat 2.0) Pension Scheme 1995 (EPS) It provides monthly benefits for superannuation/retirement, disability, survivor, widow(er) and children. It provides a minimum pension on disablement. It provides past service benefits to participants of the erstwhile Family Pension Scheme, 1971. Insurance Scheme 1976 (EDLI) It provides the benefit in case of the death of an employee who was a member of the scheme at the time of death. It provides the benefit amount 20 times the wages. Maximum benefit is 6 lakhs. MUST READ: EPFO’s New Facility on UMANG App started SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022) An increase in the Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of the rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements is correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Retail investors through Demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market The “Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching” is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India. The “Central Depository Services Ltd” is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 1 and 2 3 only 2 and 3 Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT INSTITUTIONS Context: Recently, the Indian Media Delegation met with Dr Kao Kim Hourn, Secretary General of ASEAN, as part of the ASEAN-India Media Exchange Programme in Indonesia’s capital Jakarta. Background:- Addressing the Indian media delegates, the Secretary-General underscored the significance, ASEAN places on its relationship with India. He highlighted the evolution of the three-decade-long India-ASEAN relationship into a comprehensive strategic partnership, signifying substantial progress. The Secretary-General also expressed ASEAN’s proactive pursuit of specific areas of partnership with India in the upcoming years, covering the digital economy, tourism, maritime security, counter-terrorism and trade cooperation. About ASEAN-India Media Exchange Programme:- It involves visits by Indian journalists to ASEAN countries and reciprocal visits by ASEAN journalists to India. It is to foster a deeper understanding of the socio-economic and cultural ethos between ASEAN and India among the journalists from both regions. About ASEAN:- IMAGE SOURCE: blogspot.com Establishment: 8 August 1967. Secretariat: Jakarta, Indonesia. Members: Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Brunei, Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar, and Cambodia. Bangkok Declaration, 1967, formally established the ASEAN. The first ASEAN Summit was in 1976. The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is a regional association that was founded to maintain social stability and political equilibrium among Asia’s post-colonial states amid escalating conflicts. “One Vision, One Identity, One Community” is its motto. The 8th of August is celebrated as the ASEAN Day. Institutional mechanism of ASEAN:- ASEAN Summit: It meets annually to discuss regional issues and set policy directions. (India-ASEAN Connectivity Partnerships) ASEAN Coordinating Council (ACC): It oversees the implementation of ASEAN agreements and decisions. ASEAN Secretariat: It supports and facilitates ASEAN’s activities and initiatives. ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF): It is a platform for dialogue and cooperation on political and security issues among ASEAN member countries and their partners. Decision Making: It is done through consultation and consensus. Significance of ASEAN for India:- India needs a close diplomatic relationship with ASEAN nations both for economic and security reasons. Connectivity with the ASEAN nations can allow India to improve its presence in the region. (India-ASEAN conclave) These connectivity projects keep Northeast India at the centre, ensuring the economic growth of the northeastern states. Improved trade ties with the ASEAN nations would mean a counter to China’s presence in the region and economic growth and development for India. ASEAN occupies a centralized position in the rules-based security architecture in the Indo-Pacific, which is vital for India since most of its trade is dependent on maritime security. Collaboration with the ASEAN nations is necessary to counter insurgency in the Northeast, combat terrorism, tax evasion etc.  MUST READ: India-ASEAN relations SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Region often mentioned in the news:   Country (2022) Anatolia                Turkey Amhara                    Ethiopia Cabo Delgado         Spain Catalonia               Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Q.2) The term “two-state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of (2018) China Israel Iraq Yemen INFUSE Mission Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY-SPACE Context: Recently, NASA launched the ‘INFUSE’ payload mission. Background:- INFUSE stands for Integral Field Ultraviolet Spectroscope Experiment (INFUSE) mission. NASA’s INFUSE Probes Sizzling Supernova Secrets. About INFUSE Mission:- Launched by: NASA. (India – USA space cooperation) Objective: to study the Cygnus Loop, a 20,000-year-old supernova remnant located 2,600 light-years away from Earth. The Cygnus Loop is a favourite spot for both amateur astronomers and scientists due to its prominent location near the constellation Cygnus, often referred to as the “swan.” The remnants of this colossal supernova, known as the Cygnus Loop or the Veil Nebula, continue to intrigue researchers. The INFUSE mission, led by Brian Fleming from the University of Colorado Boulder, seeks to delve into the life cycle of stars. The INFUSE mission involves collecting crucial data about the Cygnus Loop from an altitude of 150 miles (240 km) for a few minutes. The mission’s instrument will capture far-ultraviolet wavelengths of light emanating from the Cygnus Loop. One of the primary objectives is to understand how the supernova releases energy into our Milky Way galaxy. It will observe the release of light as the supernova’s blast wave collides with pockets of cold gas dispersed throughout the galaxy. By studying the Cygnus Loop and its remnants, the INFUSE mission contributes to our understanding of the intricate processes involved in the life cycle of stars and their profound impact on the evolution of galaxies.  MUST READ: International Space Station (ISS) SOURCE: SCITECHDAILY PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct? (2023) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times that received at the poles. Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation. Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere. Infrared waves are a part of the visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation. Q.2) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan National Investigation Agency Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT INSTITUTIONS/GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, the National Investigation Agency has registered a case against ‘listed individual terrorist’ Gurpatwant Singh Pannun. Background:- The case has been registered for his latest viral video threatening the passengers flying with Air India Airlines and closure of the operations of the airline. According to the NIA, Pannun also threatened that Air India would not be allowed to operate in the world. About National Investigation Agency:- NIA is functioning as the Central Counter Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency in India. Establishment: 2008. It was established by the National Investigation Agency Act, enacted on 31-12-08. (NIA) Ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs. HQ: New Delhi. It is a central agency to investigate and prosecute offences:- affecting the sovereignty, security and integrity of India, security of the State, and friendly relations with foreign States. against atomic and nuclear facilities. smuggling in High-Quality Counterfeit Indian Currency. Objectives:- It implements international treaties, agreements, conventions and resolutions of the United Nations, its agencies and other international organizations. Historical Background:- The agency at the Central level was created for the investigation of offences related to terrorism and certain other Acts post-2008 Mumbai terror attacks. Functions of NIA:- In-depth professional investigation of scheduled offences using the latest scientific methods. Ensuring effective and speedy trials. Developing into a thoroughly professional, result-oriented organization. Developing a professional workforce through regular training and exposure to the best practices and procedures. Maintaining professional and cordial relations with the governments of States and Union Territories and other law enforcement agencies in compliance with the legal provisions of the NIA Act. Assist all States and other investigating agencies in the investigation of terrorist cases. Build a database on all terrorist-related information. Share the database available with the States and other agencies. Study and analyse laws relating to terrorism in other countries. MUST READ: Unlawful Activities and (Prevention) Act (UAPA)) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following organizations/ bodies in India : (2023) The National Commission for Backward Classes The National Human Rights Commission The National Law Commission The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements : (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Lemru Elephant reserve Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: The Union coal ministry recently said that Coal India Limited’s (CIL) 40 coal blocks in and around the Lemru Elephant Corridor (LEC) will not be auctioned on the request of the Chhattisgarh government. Background:- The ministry said areas beyond the LEC have also been considered for exemption from mining at the request of the state government. About Lemru Elephant Reserve:- Location: Korba district of Chhattisgarh. The reserve is aimed at reducing human-animal conflict and destruction of property. In addition it aims at providing a permanent habitat to the elephants. Earlier, the state government notified the reserve (Conservation Reserve) in October 2020 under Section 36A of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 (WLPA). The reserve is part of an elephant corridor that connects Lemru (Korba), Badalkhol (Jashpur), and Tamorpingla (Surguja). Elephant reserves in India-: There are 33 notified Elephant Reserves (ERs) in the country, spread over 14 states. ( Elephant Conservation) Significance:- North Chhattisgarh alone is home to over 240 elephants. More than 150 elephants have died in the state over the last 20 years, including 16 between June and October 2020. MUST READ: Endangered Asian elephant in Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Q.2) With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements : (2022) Wild animals are the sole property of the government. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled to equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Laodracon carsticola Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, a New ‘dragon lizard’ species (Laodracon carsticola) with impressive camouflage capabilities was found in Southeast Asia. Background:- An international team of biologists, animal management specialists, geneticists and forestry managers has discovered a new species of “dragon lizard” in Laos—one with very impressive camouflage capabilities. About Laodracon carsticola:- The name of this newly discovered species is Laodracon carsticola or the Khammouane Karst dragon. It was first discovered in August 2022, when a botanist team conducting a plant survey spotted an “unusual” looking lizard on the karst rocks nearby. The Khammouane karst dragon is considered “medium-sized,” reaching about 1 foot (about 30 centimetres) in length. It has a triangular head, long and slender appendages, as well as bluish-grey eyes and roughly textured scales. Its body is black with a few larger white bands on its back and speckles of white across the rest of its head and limbs. Its belly and a spot under its throat are tinged blue. The lizards are suspected to have a diet of ants. It possesses extraordinary camouflage abilities. It belongs to the mainland Asian subfamily Draconinae. This subfamily contains around 256 species that all live across Asia. ( Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI)) Locals described the lizards as “rare,” most active in the afternoon and entirely restricted to the rocks.  MUST READ: Wildlife Institute of India (WII) SOURCE: PHYS.ORG PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Recently, there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites? (2017) Corbett National Park Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Sariska National Park Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: EXERCISE PARTICIPATING COUNTRIES Exercise Indra India & Russia Ajeya Warrior India & USA Lamitiye India &Maldives How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Lemru Elephant Reserve lies in the Korba district of Jharkhand. Statement-II : The reserve is part of an elephant corridor that connects Lemru (Korba), Badalkhol (Jashpur), and Tamorpingla (Surguja). Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the INFUSE Mission, consider the following statements: It was launched by JAXA. It was led by Brian Fleming. It will observe the release of light as the supernova’s blast wave collides with pockets of cold gas. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  21st November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 20th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 21st November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 20th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Eklavya Model Residential School Syllabus Context: Recently, President Droupadi Murmu inaugurated an Eklavya Model Residential School at Kuliana in the Mayurbhanj district. attended the inaugural session of the 36th Annual Conference and Literary Festival of All India Santali Writers’ Association at Baripada, Odisha. Background:- Out of 87 new Eklavya Model Residential Schools sanctioned in Odisha, Mayurbhanj district alone has 19 schools, one in every block, the largest for any district in India. About Eklavya Model Residential School:- Eklavya Model Residential School is a Government of India scheme for model residential schools for Indian tribals (Scheduled Tribes, ST) across India. Objectives of EMRS:- Comprehensive physical, mental and socially relevant development of all students enrolled in each and every EMRS. Students will be empowered to be change agents, beginning in their school, in their homes, in their village and finally in a larger context. Focus differentially on the educational support to be made available to those in Standards XI and XII, and those in Standards VI to X, so that their distinctive needs can be met, Support the construction of infrastructure that provides education, physical, environmental and cultural needs of student life. Salient Features:- EMRS started in the year 1997-98. It is one of the flagship interventions of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs. The schools focus not only on academic education but on the all-round development of the students. Each school has a capacity of 480 students, catering to students from Class VI to XII. Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRSs) for ST students are set up in States/UTs with provisioning of funds through “Grants under Article 275(1) of the Constitution”. The establishment of EMRSs is based on the demand of the concerned States/UTs with the availability of land as an essential attribute. There will be an autonomous society under the ministry of tribal affairs — similar to Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti — to run the EMRSs. Apart from school building, including hostels and staff quarters, playgrounds, computer labs and teacher resource rooms are also included in the scheme. Significance:- EMRS can impact quality education for Scheduled Tribes (ST) children. MUST READ: Integrating tribal knowledge systems SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022) This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people. This would create a local self-governing body in that area. This would convert that area into a Union Territory. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State. Q.2) At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006? (2021) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climatic Change. Ministry of Panchayat Raj Ministry of Rural Development Ministry of Tribal Affairs Chickenpox Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, U.S. data underscored the benefits of chickenpox vaccination. Background:- On November 14, the U.K. government announced that the Joint Committee on Vaccination and Immunization (JCVI) had recommended a vaccine against chickenpox (varicella) should be added to the routine childhood immunization programme. The vaccine is to be offered to all children in two doses, at 12 and 18 months of age. A final decision to introduce the vaccine has not been taken yet. About Chickenpox:- Chickenpox is an illness caused by the varicella-zoster virus. It brings on an itchy rash with small, fluid-filled blisters. (Delta Variant as contagious as Chicken Pox) Chickenpox spreads very easily to people who haven’t had the disease or haven’t gotten the chickenpox vaccine. Symptoms:- Rash: The rash caused by chickenpox appears 10 to 21 days after you’re exposed to the varicella-zoster virus. The rash often lasts about 5 to 10 days. Other symptoms that may appear 1 to 2 days before the rash include:- Fever. Loss of appetite. Headache. Tiredness and a general feeling of being unwell. Causes: A virus called varicella-zoster causes chickenpox. Transmission:- It can spread through direct contact with the rash. It also can spread when a person with chickenpox coughs or sneezes and you breathe in the air droplets. Treatment:- Most people diagnosed with chickenpox will be advised to manage their symptoms while they wait for the virus to pass through their system. The doctor may prescribe antihistamine medications or topical ointments, or you may purchase these over the counter to help relieve itching. The chickenpox vaccine prevents chickenpox in 98 per cent of people who receive the two recommended doses. (Approaches to Vaccine Making) MUST READ: Ramsay Hunt Syndrome SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2022) Aarogya Setu COWIN DigiLocker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 ICC Cricket World Cup 2023 Syllabus Prelims –SPORTS Context: Recently, the Australian cricket team lifted the ICC Cricket World Cup 2023 trophy after defeating India in the finals in Ahmedabad on November 19, 2023. Background:- Travis Head and Marnus Labuschagne stitched a 192-run partnership for the fourth wicket. About ICC Cricket World Cup 2023:- Date: 5th October 2023 – 19th November 2023. The Cricket World Cup was held entirely in India for the first time . Ten participating nations vie for 50-over supremacy. It was the 13th edition of the quadrennial One Day International (ODI) competition. It was contested in the same format as the last edition, with 48 matches to be played. Originally scheduled for early in 2023, the COVID pandemic forced a delay as qualification tournaments were pushed back amid cricket’s congested calendar. It was initially expected to take place between February and March 2023 but officials announced in July 2020 that it would be pushed back due to COVID restrictions wreaking havoc with the qualification process. Competing countries: India (hosts), England, Australia, Afghanistan, Pakistan, New Zealand, Bangladesh, Netherlands, Sri Lanka and South Africa. Cities in which the tournament be held:- Ahmedabad, Kolkata, Mumbai, Bengaluru, Pune, Delhi, Lucknow, Dharamsala, Chennai, Hyderabad MUST READ: Sports Code SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. · How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this Olympics. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Manohar Parrikar Yuva Scientist Award Syllabus Prelims – IMPORTANT AWARDS Context: Recently, ISRO’s Dr. Mathavaraj was selected for Goa Govt.’s first ‘Manohar Parrikar Yuva Scientist Award’. Background:- Dr Mathavaraj had designed the powered descent trajectory of the Chandrayana 3 Mission that had successfully landed on the South Pole of the moon. As many as 106 applications were received by the government for the award, and former Atomic Energy Commission of India Chairman Dr Anil Kakodkar, who chaired the Expert Committee of Selection of Yuva Scientist, shortlisted 14 applicants. About Manohar Parrikar Yuva Scientist Award:- Award presentation date: 13th December 2023 . It is the birth anniversary of Dr. Manohar Parrikar. “The award will be presented at Manohar Parrikar Vigyan Mahotsav at NIO. The selection committee headed by Dr Anil Kakodkar selected Dr Mathavaraj, who designed the powered descent trajectory of the Chandrayaan-3 Mission, for the award. Decoration:- The award comprises of:- ₹5 lakh and a citation. It is the highest cash prize in science and technology. MUST READ: Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Award (PBSA) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards. (2021) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titled under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements is not correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Euclid Space Telescope Syllabus Prelims –SPACE Context: Recently, European astronomers recently released the first images from the newly launched Euclid space telescope. Background:- The release of the images in Darmstadt, Germany, coincided with the second of two days of European space talks in Spain dominated by Europe’s continued dependency on foreign launches. About Euclid Space Telescope:- Launched: July 1, 2023. Launched from Cape Canaveral in Florida. Launch Vehicle: SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket. Launched by: European Space Agency (ESA). Duration: The mission is expected to have a nominal operational lifetime of 6 years. Objective: to study the nature and properties of dark energy and dark matter, which together constitute a significant portion of the Universe. Dark energy was discovered in 1998 and it explains the unexpected acceleration of the universe’s expansion. Euclid’s mission aims to provide a more precise measurement of this acceleration, potentially uncovering variations throughout cosmic history. The telescope will travel to Lagrange point L2 which is about 1 million miles away from Earth. The Lagrange point is a location where the gravitational pull of two large masses, the sun and Earth in this case, precisely equals the force required for a small object, to maintain a relatively stationary position behind Earth as seen from the sun. It will create a 3D map of the universe by observing billions of galaxies up to 10 billion light-years away, which will be useful in studying dark matter closely.  MUST READ: India – USA space cooperation SOURCE: NDTV PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q2. Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 British Academy Book Prize 2023 Syllabus Prelims –AWARDS Context: Recently, India-born author Nandini Das has been named the winner of the  British Academy Book Prize 2023. Background:- Nandini Das won the prize for her book ‘Courting India: England, Mughal India and the Origins of Empire’. About British Academy Book Prize 2023:- Established: 2013. Given by: The British Academy Prize Money: £25,000 Objective: To reward and celebrate the best works of non-fiction books. It was formerly known as Nayef Al-Rodhan Prize. (Nobel Peace Prize 2022) Nandini Das, a 49-year-old Indian-born author and Professor in the English faculty at the University of Oxford won the 2023 British Academy Book Prize for Global Cultural Understanding. Her winning book is titled “Courting India: England, Mughal India, and the Origins of Empire,” which explores the origins of the British Empire by focusing on the first English ambassador in India, Sir Thomas Roe, in the early 17th century. Other Shortlisted Work: The shortlist for the prize also included a work titled “Black Ghost of Empire: The Long Death of Slavery and the Failure of Emancipation” by Kris Manjapra.  MUST READ: Padma awards SOURCE: THE NEW INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. · How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards. (2021) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titled under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements is not correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Nobel Prize 2023 Set up Chemistry Katalin Karikó, Drew Weissman Medicine Moungi G. Bawendi, Louis E. Brus, Aleksey I. Yekimov Physics Pierre Agostini, Ferenc Krausz, Anne L’Huillier   How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : British Academy Book Prize was established in 2011. Statement-II : It was formerly known as Nayef Al-Rodhan Prize. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Eklavya Model Residential School, consider the following statements: They are set up in States/UTs with provisioning of funds through “Grants under Article 275(1) of the Constitution”. The establishment of EMRSs is based on the demand of the concerned States/UTs with the availability of land as an essential attribute. There will be an autonomous society under the Ministry of Home Affairs to run the EMRSs. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  20th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 18th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) -d Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 20th November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

[CURRENT AFFAIRS] IAS UPSC REVAMPED Current Affairs Magazine October 2023

/*! elementor - v3.16.0 - 12-09-2023 */ .elementor-widget-image{text-align:center}.elementor-widget-image a{display:inline-block}.elementor-widget-image a img[src$=".svg"]{width:48px}.elementor-widget-image img{vertical-align:middle;display:inline-block} Archives /*! elementor - v3.16.0 - 12-09-2023 */ .elementor-widget-text-editor.elementor-drop-cap-view-stacked .elementor-drop-cap{background-color:#69727d;color:#fff}.elementor-widget-text-editor.elementor-drop-cap-view-framed .elementor-drop-cap{color:#69727d;border:3px solid;background-color:transparent}.elementor-widget-text-editor:not(.elementor-drop-cap-view-default) .elementor-drop-cap{margin-top:8px}.elementor-widget-text-editor:not(.elementor-drop-cap-view-default) .elementor-drop-cap-letter{width:1em;height:1em}.elementor-widget-text-editor .elementor-drop-cap{float:left;text-align:center;line-height:1;font-size:50px}.elementor-widget-text-editor .elementor-drop-cap-letter{display:inline-block} Hello Friends,This is October 2023 of IASbaba’s REVAMPED Current Affairs Monthly Magazine. Current Affairs for UPSC Civil Services Examination is an important factor in this preparation.An effort towards making your Current Affairs for IAS UPSC Preparation qualitative. We hope you make the best use of it!This edition covers all Important current affairs issues that were in the news for the month of October 2023.Kindly leave your feedback in the comment section below on the new design and presentation of the magazine. We would love to hear from you! Download The Magazine - October 2023 /*! elementor - v3.16.0 - 12-09-2023 */ .elementor-heading-title{padding:0;margin:0;line-height:1}.elementor-widget-heading .elementor-heading-title[class*=elementor-size-]>a{color:inherit;font-size:inherit;line-height:inherit}.elementor-widget-heading .elementor-heading-title.elementor-size-small{font-size:15px}.elementor-widget-heading .elementor-heading-title.elementor-size-medium{font-size:19px}.elementor-widget-heading .elementor-heading-title.elementor-size-large{font-size:29px}.elementor-widget-heading .elementor-heading-title.elementor-size-xl{font-size:39px}.elementor-widget-heading .elementor-heading-title.elementor-size-xxl{font-size:59px}Important Topics Covered In The Magazine Includes: Israel-Palestine Conflict Green Credit Programme Nasa’s Roman Space Telescope Special Marriage Act India-Israel Relation Regulating Generative Artificial Intelligence And Much More.... Download The Magazine - October 2023 To get Regular Updates from IASbaba, follow-TELEGRAM Channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccountYOUTUBE – https://www.youtube.com/channel/UChvbVdio9Wgj7Z3nQz1Q0ZQFACEBOOK – https://www.facebook.com/iasbaba/Also, SUBSCRIBE to the WEBSITE Below, so that you don’t miss out on important posts!Thank YouIASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 18th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   243th Corps of Engineers Day Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: Recently, the Indian Army celebrated the 243th Corps of Engineers Day. Background:- Chief of the Army Staff Gen Manoj Pande has conveyed best wishes to all ranks, veterans and families of the Corps on the occasion. About 243th Corps of Engineers Day:- The Indian Army Corps of Engineers is a combat support arm. (Armed Forces Tribunal (AFT)) It provides combat engineering support and develops infrastructure for armed forces and other defence organizations. It maintains connectivity along the borders, besides helping the civil authorities during natural disasters. These tasks are executed through four pillars of the Corps – Combat Engineers, Military Engineer Service, Border Road Organization and Military Survey. The Corps of Engineers had three groups, i.e. Madras Sappers, Bengal Sappers and Bombay Sappers. These were amalgamated into the Corps on the 18th of November 1932. Since its inception, history is replete with colossal exemplary contributions of the Corps of Engineers both in war and peace. MUST READ: The new defence systems handed over to Army SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Q.2)  With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which of the following statements is correct? (2023) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about ·10 times of that received at the poles. Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation. Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere. Infrared waves are a part of the visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation. G20 Summit Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: External Affairs Minister Dr S Jaishankar recently, said that the New Delhi Leaders’ Declaration adopted during the G20 Summit will be remembered. Background:- He said this in his opening remarks at the Foreign Ministers’ Session of the second Voice of Global South Summit. The External Affairs Minister reaffirmed India’s commitment to the Global South through an extensive range of development projects in 78 countries. He said these projects are demand-driven, outcome-oriented, transparent and sustainable. He stressed that as India embraces digital delivery, promotes green growth and ensures affordable health access, it will always have the Global South at the centre of its international partnerships. About G20 Summit:- Establishment: 1999. (G20) Historical Background: The G20 forum was established by the finance ministers and central bank governors of seven countries – Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the U.K., and the U.S. after a meeting in Washington DC. Members: Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, the U.K., the U.S. and the European Union. Presidency of the G20: it rotates every year among members. The country holding the presidency, together with the previous and next presidency-holder, forms the ‘Troika’. India assumed the presidency of the G20 grouping from Indonesia, in 2022 and will hold the post for a year. During India’s presidency, India, Indonesia and Brazil will form the troika. The G20 does not have a permanent secretariat or Headquarters. MUST READ: G20 Presidency SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements about G-20: (2023) The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss international economic and financial issues. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022) If the inflation is too high, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 NISAR Syllabus Prelims – SPACE Context: Recently, NASA, ISRO completed key tests ahead of NISAR’s launch early next year. Background:- The mission, which has three-year duration, aims to survey all of Earth’s land and ice-covered surfaces every 12 days. About NISAR:- Launch year :2024. Agency: NASA and ISRO. The NASA-ISRO SAR (NISAR) Mission will measure Earth’s changing ecosystems, dynamic surfaces, and ice masses providing information about biomass, natural hazards, sea level rise, and groundwater. It will support a host of other applications. NISAR will observe Earth’s land and ice-covered surfaces globally with 12-day regularity on ascending and descending passes, sampling Earth on average every 6 days for a baseline 3-year mission. The National Aeronautics and Space Administration will provide one of the radars for the satellite, a high-rate communication subsystem for science data, GPS receivers and a payload data subsystem. NISAR will be equipped with the largest reflector antenna ever launched by NASA. The Indian Space and Research Organisation (ISRO) will provide the spacecraft bus, the second type of radar (called the S-band radar), the launch vehicle and associated launch services. Objectives:- Tracking subtle changes in the Earth’s surface, Spotting warning signs of imminent volcanic eruptions, Helping to monitor groundwater supplies, and Tracking the rate at which ice sheets are melting. Significance:- NISAR’s data can help people worldwide better manage natural resources and hazards, as well as provide information for scientists to better understand the effects and pace of climate change MUST READ: India – USA space cooperation SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022) GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur in equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4, and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6, and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6, and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Q.2)  Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021) Distance among stellar bodies do not change Gravity of stellar bodies does not change Light always travels in straight line Speed of light is always same Tamil Lambadi embroidery Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, The Porgai Artisan Association Society have been trying to keep the intriguing Tamil Lambadi art of embroidery alive. Background:- The Porgai Artisan Association Society, with 60 plus women, has been making and selling embroidered clothes to ensure that there is awareness about the art form and that it is passed on to the next generation. About Tamil Lambadi embroidery:- Origin: Tamil Nadu. (Tamil-Brahmi script) It is rooted in the cultural practices and traditions of the Lambadi community. Several hundred years ago, the Lambadi tribals migrated from North Western India to South for a living. They were a nomadic tribe but ended up settling down in Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. Sittilingi Valley (Tamil Nadu) is the second southernmost settlement of Lambadis in India. Vibrant colour schemes with a focus on bold and contrasting hues. Intricate embroidery and mirror work that embellish textiles and clothing. Symbolic representations of nature, folklore, and traditional beliefs. The traditional Tamil Lambadi embroidery designs are all geometrical patterns with squares, rectangles, and circles. They have also been influenced by the local forests, birds, fruits and flowers. A majority of Porgai’s products are made from organic cotton grown in their own villages. Significance:- It reflects the rich cultural heritage and identity of the Lambadi community. It serves as a medium for storytelling and preserving cultural narratives. MUST READ: 50 iconic Indian heritage textiles by UNESCO SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1.) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of the Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) Kalamkari painting refers to (2015) a hand-painted cotton textile in South India. a handmade drawing on bamboo handicrafts in Northeast India. a block-painted woollen cloth in the Western Himalayan region of India. a hand-painted decorative silk cloth in North-Western India. Chandrayaan-3 Syllabus Prelims –SPACE Context: Recently, Cryogenic upper stage of Chandrayaan-3’s launch vehicle makes uncontrolled re-entry into the Earth’s atmosphere. Background:- The probable impact point was predicted over the North Pacific Ocean, says ISRO About Chandrayaan-3’s:- Chandrayaan-3 is the successor to the Chandrayaan-2 mission. (CHANDRAYAAN-2) Launched by: Launch Vehicle Mark-III (LVM3). Launched from: Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR , Sriharikota. It consists of an indigenous Lander module (LM), a Propulsion module (PM) and a Rover. Lander: a spacecraft that descends towards and comes to rest on, the surface of an astronomical body. Propulsion module: a box-like structure, mounted with a large solar panel on one side and a large cylinder on top. Rover: a small vehicle that can move over rough ground, often used on the surface of other planets, sometimes controlled from the earth. The Lander and the Rover have scientific payloads to carry out experiments on the lunar surface. The main function of the PM is to carry the LM from launch vehicle injection to the final lunar 100 km circular polar orbit and separate the LM from the PM. There won’t be any orbiters like Chandrayaan 2 in it. Objectives of Chandrayaan-3 mission:- To demonstrate a Safe and Soft Landing on Lunar Surface (Chandrayaan-3) To demonstrate Rover roving on the moon and To conduct in-situ scientific experiments. Lander payloads:– Chandra’s Surface Thermophysical Experiment (ChaSTE): to measure the thermal conductivity and temperature Instrument for Lunar Seismic Activity (ILSA) for measuring the seismicity around the landing site Langmuir Probe (LP): to estimate the plasma density and its variations. A passive Laser Retroreflector Array from NASA is accommodated for lunar laser ranging studies. Rover payloads:- Alpha Particle X-ray Spectrometer (APXS) and Laser Induced Breakdown Spectroscope (LIBS) for deriving the elemental composition in the vicinity of the landing site. Propulsion Module Payload:- Spectro-polarimetry of Habitable Planet Earth (SHAPE): Future discoveries of smaller planets in reflected light would allow us to probe into a variety of Exo-planets which would qualify for habitability or for the presence of life. GSLV-Mk III It is also known as the Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM3). It is a three-stage vehicle with two solid motor strap-ons, a liquid propellant core stage and a cryogenic stage. It is the heaviest and the shortest among India’s operational launch vehicles. Weighs: 641 tonnes, which is equal to the weight of five fully loaded passenger planes. Capacity: GSLV can take 10,000-kg satellites to lower earth orbits. MUST READ: Gaganyaan SOURCE:THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Mycena chlorophos Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Rare bioluminescent mushroom, Mycena chlorophos was spotted recently. Background:- Decoding the Context: A team of researchers and the forest department have found a rare bioluminescent mushroom in the Kanyakumari Wildlife Sanctuary (KKWLS). About Mycena chlorophos:- Mycena chlorophos is a species of agaric fungus in the family Mycenaceae. It was first described in 1860. The fungus is found in subtropical Asia, including India, Japan, Taiwan, Polynesia, Indonesia, Sri Lanka, Australia, and Brazil. In Japan, the mushroom is known as yakoh-take, or “night-light mushroom”. In the Bonin Islands, it is called “Green Pepe”. Cap is conical or flat. It is It is a bioluminescent fungus. There are around 103 species of bioluminescent fungi in the world, of which seven are found in India. MUST READ: Medicinal Fungi SOURCE: THE NEW INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Which of the following organisms perform the waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food? (2023) Butterflies Dragonflies Honeybees Wasps Q2. Consider the following fauna : (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Missions Agency Perseverance ESA Artemis NASA Aditya L ISRO How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Chandrayaan-3 is the predecessor to the Chandrayaan-2 mission. Statement-II : It was launched by Launch Vehicle Mark-III (LVM3). Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Mycena chlorophos , consider the following statements: It has a cap which is conical or flat. It is saprotrophic. It is a bioluminescent fungus. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  13th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 11th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 17th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus)   Reserve Bank of India Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, RBI tightened norms for unsecured personal loans for banks and non-banking financial companies. Background:- RBI in a circular said that it has been decided to increase the risk weights with respect to consumer credit exposure of commercial banks, both outstanding and new, including personal loans. About RBI:- Establishment:1935. HQ: Mumbai. The Reserve Bank of India is India’s central bank. It is the apex monetary institution which supervises, regulates controls and develops the monetary and financial system of the country. The Reserve Bank was established on April 1, 1935, under the Reserve Bank of India Act, of 1934. Structure of RBI:- The Reserve Bank’s affairs are governed by a central board of directors. The board is appointed by the Government of India in keeping with the Reserve Bank of India Act. The directors are appointed/nominated for a period of four years. Functions of the Reserve Bank of India:- Monetary Policy of the Country (RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee) Inflation control: The RBI has targeted to keep the mid-term inflation at 4 four per cent (+/- 2 per cent). Decides benchmark interest rate RBI acts as a banker for both the central as well as state governments. It sells and purchases government securities on their behalf. Regulator of Foreign Exchange under the Foreign Exchange Management Act (“FEMA”). MUST READ: Financial Stability Report SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following brings out the ‘Consumer Price Index Number for Industrial Workers’?(2017) The Reserve Bank of India The Department of Economic Affairs The Labour Bureau The Department of Personnel and Training Q.2) In the ‘Index of Eight Core Industries’, which one of the following is given the highest weight? (2015) Coal production Electricity generation Fertilizer production Steel production Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation Syllabus Prelims – INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation CEO Summit took place recently. Background:- Speaking at the Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation CEO summit in San Francisco yesterday, President Biden stressed the importance of working together with India, Japan, the Republic of Korea, and Singapore to strengthen the critical semiconductor industry. About APEC:- Established: 1989 HQ: Singapore. Members: 21 Member Nations: Australia, Brunei, Canada, Chile, China, Hong Kong, Indonesia, Japan, South Korea, Malaysia, Mexico, New Zealand, Papua New Guinea, Peru, Philippines, Russia, Singapore, Chinese Taipei, Thailand, Vietnam and the United States. India is not a Member. It is an inter-governmental forum that promotes free trade throughout the Asia-Pacific region. (APEC virtual meet held) It was started in 1989 in response to the growing interdependence of Asia-Pacific economies and the advent of regional trade blocs in other parts of the world. It aimed to establish new markets for agricultural products and raw materials beyond Europe. Functions of Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC):- APEC works to help all residents of the Asia-Pacific participate in the growing economy. APEC projects provide digital skills training for rural communities and help indigenous women export their products abroad. Recognizing the impacts of climate change, APEC members also implement initiatives to increase energy efficiency and promote sustainable management of forest and marine resources. India and APEC:- India has been an important destination for APEC members’ foreign investment over the past 25 years, with three APEC economies—Singapore, Japan, and the United States—among the top five countries providing FDI inflows into India. India was denied APEC membership in 2007 on the grounds that its economy was not integrated into the global system. India is the region’s third-largest and now fastest-growing major economy. APEC economies, which account for 60 per cent of global GDP, are experiencing sluggish growth and must look for opportunities to bring new markets India is also projected to be the world’s third-largest economy by 2030 and will need well over $1 trillion of investment in infrastructure over the next decade. MUST READ: APEC summit, 2021 SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement/ set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Q.2) In which one of the following groups are all four countries members of G20? (2020) Argentina Mexico, South Africa and Turkey. Australia Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam Indonesia Japan Singapore and South Korea Ohio-class Submarine Syllabus Prelims –DEFENCE Context: Recently, a U.S. nuclear-powered Ohio-class submarine, equipped for precision missile strikes over considerable distances, has joined a fleet of Navy ships in the waters of the Middle East. Background:- In an unusual public announcement on November 5, the U.S. Central Command confirmed the arrival of an Ohio-class submarine in its designated area of responsibility. CENTCOM, responsible for directing U.S. military operations in the Middle East, shared this information succinctly through social media. About Ohio-class Submarine:- The Ohio class submarine is a class of nuclear-powered submarines. They are currently in service with the United States Navy. (India, Israel and Palestine) They are the largest submarines ever built for the U.S. Navy. The Ohio class submarines were developed during the Cold War to provide the United States with a robust and survivable sea-based strategic deterrent. The first Ohio class submarine, USS Ohio (SSBN-726), was commissioned in 1981. A total of 18 submarines were built between 1976 and 1997. These submarines are designed for extended underwater operations. They are equipped with advanced technology to support various missions, including strategic deterrence, surveillance, and special operations. Each of these submarines is provided with two complete crews, called the Blue Crew and the Gold Crew, with each crew serving typically on 70- to 90-day deterrent patrols. They can travel at speeds of 30+ knots. They can remain submerged indefinitely. Significance:- Ohio class submarines play a crucial role in the United States’ nuclear triad, serving as a platform for submarine-launched ballistic missiles (SLBMs) armed with nuclear warheads. Ohio-class submarines provide the Navy with unprecedented strike and special operation mission capabilities from a stealthy, clandestine platform, and they play a crucial role in the nation’s defences. MUST READ: Submarine Vagir SOURCE: ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news? (2018) An Israeli radar system India’s indigenous anti-missile programme An American anti-missile system A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea. Voice of Global South Summit-2023 Syllabus Prelims – GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi led the inaugural session of the second ‘Voice of Global South Summit-2023’. About Voice of Global South Summit-2023:- Date: 12-13 January 2023. The “Voice of Global South Summit” is a platform for generating ideas from the developing world for achieving energy security, which is affordable, accessible and sustainable. India is hosting the Summit in a virtual format. The inaugural session will be followed by four parallel Ministerial sessions. These include the sessions by Ministers of External Affairs, Education, Finance and Environment. Four more parallel Ministerial sessions will be held in the afternoon. The theme of the inaugural Leaders’ Session: “Together, for Everyone’s Growth, with Everyone’s Trust” and that of the Concluding Leaders’ Session is “Global South: Together for One Future”. Akashvani correspondent reports that the Summit will focus on sharing with the countries of the Global South, the key outcomes achieved in various G20 meetings over the course of India’s Presidency. India hosted a two-day Voice of Global South Summit on 12-13 January 2023. The Summit was held in a virtual format, with 10 sessions in total. It saw the participation of Leaders and Ministers from 125 countries of the Global South. India convened this one-of-a-kind Summit to focus international attention on the priorities, perspectives and concerns of the developing world. This is particularly relevant as the world passes through a difficult period marked by challenges to health, food security, affordable access to energy, climate finance and technologies, and economic growth. (Climate Change Performance Index(CCPI) 2023) Significance:- This Summit is a timely reminder of what is at stake for over three-fourths of the planet’s population that is most vulnerable to the deleterious impact of the several interlinked risks we confront. MUST READ: India and G20 Presidency SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1.) In which one of the following groups are all four countries members of G20? (2020) Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey. Australia, Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand. Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam. Indonesia, Japan, Singapore and South Korea. Q.2) In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure” is used in the context of (2020) Digital security infrastructure Food security infrastructure Health care and education infrastructure Telecommunication and transportation infrastructure SATURN Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, astronomers explained the possibility of the disappearance of rings around Saturn. About Saturn:- Saturn is the sixth planet from the Sun. It is the second largest planet in our solar system. Adorned with a dazzling system of icy rings, Saturn is unique among the planets. Saturn is a massive ball made mostly of hydrogen and helium. The farthest planet from Earth discovered by the unaided human eye, Saturn has been known since ancient times. The planet is named for the Roman god of agriculture and wealth, who was also the father of Jupiter. Saturn isn’t the only planet to have rings. The rings we see are made of groups of tiny ringlets that surround Saturn. They’re made of chunks of ice and rock. Saturn has a thick atmosphere. One day on Saturn goes by in just 7 hours. One year on Saturn is 29 Earth years. Saturn has been known since ancient times because it can be seen without advanced telescopes. Four robotic spacecraft have visited Saturn, including Pioneer 11, Cassini, and Voyager 1 and 2. (Exoplanets)  MUST READ: New Study on Ninth Planet SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q2. Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Measles Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: As per recent reports there was a  43% increase in measles deaths from 2021-2022. Background:- The number of measles deaths worldwide increased by 43 per cent from 2021-2022, following years of falling vaccination rates, according to a new assessment by the World Health Organization (WHO) and the United States Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). About Measles:- Measles is a highly contagious, serious airborne disease caused by a virus that can lead to severe complications and death. Measles is caused by a virus found in the nose and throat of an infected child or adult. It spreads easily when an infected person breathes, coughs or sneezes. It can cause severe disease, complications, and even death. Measles can affect anyone but is most common in children. Measles infects the respiratory tract and then spreads throughout the body. Symptoms include a high fever, cough, runny nose and a rash all over the body. Measles vaccination averted 56 million deaths between 2000 and 2021. Even though a safe and cost-effective vaccine is available, in 2021, there were an estimated 128,000 measles deaths globally, mostly among unvaccinated or under-vaccinated children under the age of 5 years. In 2022, about 83% of the world’s children received one dose of measles vaccine by their first birthday through routine health services – the lowest since 2008. Risk factors:- Being unvaccinated. Traveling internationally. Having a vitamin A deficiency. (India’s plan to eradicate measles, rubella) MUST READ: Ni-kshay Mitra SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: (2022) Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022) They protect the environmental allergens. body They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.   Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Disease Caused by Plague Yersinia pestis Chickenpox Varicella-zoster virus. Small Pox Variola virus How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Measles spreads easily when an infected person breathes, coughs or sneezes. Statement-II : Measles can affect only children. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Saturn, consider the following statements: Saturn is the seventh planet from the Sun. It is the second largest planet in our solar system. It is a massive ball made mostly of hydrogen and helium. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  17th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 16th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) – b