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Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 13th November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 11th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT ORGANIZATIONS Context: Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) facilitated the export of the first trial shipment of fresh bananas to the Netherlands. Background:- The trial shipment of bananas to Europe was carried out by the APEDA-registered ‘INI Farms – a top exporter of fruits and vegetables from India. The first export consignment of bananas to the Netherlands was flagged off by APEDA Chairman Abhishek Dev from Baramati, Maharashtra. About APEDA:- Ministry: Ministry of Commerce and Industry. HQ: New Delhi. It is a statutory body established by the Government of India under the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority Act passed by the Parliament in 1985. The Authority replaced the Processed Food Export Promotion Council (PFEPC). APEDA has been entrusted with the responsibility of monitoring the import of sugar as well. APEDA also functions as the Secretariat to the National Accreditation Board (NAB) for the implementation of accreditation of the Certification Bodies under the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) for organic exports. Chairman – appointed by the Central Government (APEDA inks MoU with NAFED) Functions:- Development of industries relating to the scheduled products for export by way of providing financial assistance. Registration of persons as exporters of the scheduled products on payment of such fees as may be prescribed. Fixing standards and specifications for the scheduled products for the purpose of exports; Carrying out inspection of meat and meat products in slaughterhouses, processing plants, storage premises, conveyances, or other places Improving packaging of the Scheduled products. Improving marketing of the Scheduled products outside India. Promotion of export-oriented production and development of the Scheduled products. APEDA is mandated with the responsibility of export promotion and development of the following scheduled products: Fruits, Vegetables and their Products. Meat and Meat Products. Poultry and Poultry Products. Dairy Products. Confectionery, Biscuits, and Bakery Products. Honey, Jaggery, and Sugar Products. Cocoa and its products, chocolates of all kinds. Alcoholic and Non-Alcoholic Beverages. Cereal and Cereal Products. Groundnuts, Peanuts, and Walnuts. Pickles, Papads, and Chutneys. Guar Gum. Floriculture and Floriculture Products. Herbal and Medicinal Plants. De–oiled rice bran. Green pepper in brine. Cashew Nuts and Its Products. Basmati Rice has been included in the Second Schedule of the APEDA Act. MUST READ: Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following factors/policies were affecting the price of rice in India in the recent past? (2020) Minimum Support Price Government’s trading Government’s stockpiling Consumer subsidies Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, and 4 only 1,3, and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture? (2020) Fixing Minimum Support Price for agricultural produce of all crops Computerization of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies Social Capital Development Free electricity supply to farmers Waiver of agricultural loans by the banking system Setting up of cold storage facilities by the governments. In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture? Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, and 5 only 1, 3, 4, and 5 only 2, 3, and 6 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 National Ayurveda Day Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT DAYS Context: Recently, the Ayush Ministry celebrated the 8th National Ayurveda Day at Panchkula. Background:- Union AYUSH Minister Sarbanand Sonowal said that ayurvedic medicine is part of a thousands-year-old culture and has been present in the society, education, service and lifestyle of India since ancient times. About National Ayurveda Day:- The National Ayurveda Day is celebrated every year on Dhanteras which is the Birth Anniversary of Lord Dhanwantri. It is believed that Lord Dhanwantari is the Hindu God for Medicine and is an avatar of Lord Vishnu. It is celebrated to promote and globalize Ayurveda as one of the most ancient and holistic approaches to medicine globally. The theme of the 8th National Ayurveda Day 2023 celebration is “Ayurveda for One Health” with the tagline “Ayurveda for everyone on every day’. National Ayurveda Day was first celebrated in India on October 28, 2016. Objectives of National Ayurveda Day:- Celebration of National Ayurveda Day is an initiative to further promote Ayurveda into the mainstream. Its motives also includes a focus on the strengths of Ayurveda for the well-being of human and its unique treatment principle. Ayurveda also reduces the burden of disease morbidity and mortality. This also explores the potential of Ayurveda to contribute towards National Health Policy and Programs. This also aims to create a sense of awareness among the general masses and promote Ayurvedic principles of healing in society for the well-being of all living creatures. Significance:- National Ayurveda Day is an opportunity to learn more about Ayurveda and its benefits and to promote its use as a complementary and alternative medicine system. (WHO and Traditional Medicine) Various events are held across India on this day, including free health camps, seminars, and exhibitions. MUST READ: Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following infrastructure sectors : (2023) Affordable housing Mass rapid transport Health care Renewable energy On how many of the above does the UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus on its investments? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in  the context of interventions being  undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt  Bharat Strategy : (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four El Nino Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) has launched a plan to reduce the projected impacts of the climate phenomenon El Nino on agricultural livelihoods and food security of the most at-risk and vulnerable populations recently. Background:- It released an anticipatory action plan after WMO forecasts El Nino to stay till April 2024. About El Nino:- IMAGE SOURCE: IASBABA El Niño is the warming of seawater in the central-east Equatorial Pacific that occurs every few years. During El Niño, surface temperatures in the equatorial Pacific rise, and trade winds — east-west winds that blow near the Equator — weaken. Normally, easterly trade winds blow from the Americas towards Asia. Due to El Niño, they falter and change direction to turn into westerlies, bringing warm water from the western Pacific towards the Americas. It occurs every 3-6 years and lasts for about 9-12 months. It can cause droughts, flooding, and changes in temperature. It can lead to below-normal rainfall, which affects India’s agricultural sector. Outcomes of El Nino:- Disruptions in the food chain: The phenomena of upwelling, where nutrient-rich waters rise towards the surface, is reduced under El Niño. This in turn reduces phytoplankton. Thus, fish that eat phytoplankton are affected, followed by other organisms higher up the food chain. Disruptions in the overall ecosystem: Warm waters also carry tropical species towards colder areas, disrupting multiple ecosystems. Alterations in wind and weather patterns: Since the Pacific covers almost one-third of the earth, changes in its temperature and subsequent alteration of wind patterns disrupt global weather patterns. El Niño causes dry, warm winters in the Northern U.S. and Canada and increases the risk of flooding in the U.S. Gulf Coast and southeastern U.S. It also brings drought to Indonesia and Australia. MUST READ: Monsoon trough SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: In the tropical zone, the western sections of the oceans are warmer than the eastern sections owing to the influence of trade winds. In the temperate Zone, westerlies make the eastern sections of oceans warmer than the western sections Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021) 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 COVID-19 Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, India reported 14 new cases of COVID-19. Background:- India recorded the highest number of deaths (1,260) globally from September 25 to October 22, 2023, primarily due to retrospective adjustment, according to WHO data. About COVID-19:- Coronavirus, also known as COVID-19. (Second Wave of COVID-19) It is a type of virus that has caused a horrific life-killing pandemic since 2019. This disease is caused by Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus (SARS-CoV-2). The outer layer of this virus is covered with spike-like proteins which surround it like a crown, thus named COVID. This disease has caused millions of deaths worldwide. COVID-19 is an infectious disease that spreads from person to person. Treatment:- Currently, there is no such fully effective treatment. However, there are COVID-19 vaccines that work on the body’s immunity, which is why infected people are not given vaccines until 15 days after testing negative. COVID-19 vaccines have played a vital role in reducing the horrifying effect of the virus on the world. (iNCOVACC) Challenges faced by India:- Large Population Poor Public Hygiene Unknown Incubation Period MUST READ: Tuberculosis SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy : (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents, and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following : (2022) Bacteria Fungi Virus Which of the above can be cultured in an artificial/ synthetic medium? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Index of Industrial Production (IIP) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, Index of Industrial Production (IIP) growth fell to a 3-month low, rising year-on-year. Background:- The data released by the National Statistical Office (NSO) showed that the manufacturing sector’s output grew by 4.5 per cent in September 2023. About the Index of Industrial Production (IIP):- Publication time: monthly. (IIP) Published by: National Statistical Office (NSO). Ministry: Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. Base Year: 2011-2012. IIP is an indicator that measures the changes in the volume of production of industrial products during a given period. It is a composite indicator that measures the growth rate of industry groups classified under: Broad sectors: Mining, Manufacturing, and Electricity. The relative weights of these three sectors are 6% (manufacturing), 14.4% (mining) and 8% (electricity). Eight core industries: Electricity, crude oil, coal, cement, steel, refinery products, natural gas, and fertilizers. They comprise about 40 per cent of the weight of items included in the IIP. The eight core sector industries in decreasing order of their weightage: Refinery Products> Electricity> Steel> Coal> Crude Oil> Natural Gas> Cement> Fertilizers. Use-based sectors: Basic Goods, Capital Goods, and Intermediate Goods. Significance of IIP:- The index indicates the relative change over time in the volume of production in the industrial sector. It is an effective tool to measure the trend of current industrial production. It is used by government agencies including the Ministry of Finance, the Reserve Bank of India, etc, for policy-making purposes. ( Draft New Industrial Policy) MUST READ: Industrial Revolution 4.0 SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements with reference to India : (2023) According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, the ‘medium enterprises are those with investments in plant and machinery between (15 crore and 25 crore). All bank loans to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) In the ‘Index of Eight Core Industries’, which one of the following is given the highest weight? (2015) Coal production Electricity generation Fertilizer production Steel production Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT INSTITUTIONS Context: Recently, the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) arrested the three accused, and busted an illegal job racket allegedly operating in multiple states. Background:- A case was registered against six accused and unknown public servants and others. It was alleged that the organized syndicate consisting of private persons were taking a huge amount of money in the camouflage of processing fees or security deposits from prospective job seekers in various Central Government departments and Public Sector Undertakings. About the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI):- It was established as the Special Police Establishment in 194. Objective: to investigate cases of corruption in procurement during the Second World War. Later, the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption recommended the establishment of the CBI. As a result, it was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the Union Home Ministry. The Special Police Establishment (which looked into vigilance cases) set in 1941 was also merged with the CBI Later, it was transferred to the Ministry of Personnel and now it enjoys the status of an attached office. The CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, of 1946. The CBI is the main investigating agency of the Central Government. The CBI investigates the crime of corruption, economic offences and serious and organized crime other than terrorism. The CBI is headed by a Director who is assisted by a special/additional director. The Director of CBI has been provided security of two-year tenure by the CVC Act, 2003. As per the CVC Act of 2003, the Central Government shall appoint the Director of CBI on the recommendation of a three-member committee consisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha Chief Justice of India or Judge of the Supreme Court nominated by him. If there is no recognized leader of the opposition in the Lok Sabha, then the leader of the single largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha would be a member of that committee. The CBI Academy is located in Ghaziabad, UP and started functioning in 1996. It also has three regional training centres at Kolkata, Mumbai & Chennai. The superintendence of CBI related to the investigation of offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 lies with the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC). Other matters with the Department of Personnel & Training (DOPT) in the Ministry of Personnel, Pension & Grievances of the Government of India Functions:- Investigating cases of corruption, bribery and misconduct of Union govt employees Investigating cases relating to infringement of fiscal and economic laws Investigating serious crimes, having national and international ramifications, committed by organised gangs of professional criminals. Coordinating activities of the anticorruption agencies and various state police forces Taking up, on the request of a state government, any case of public importance for investigation. The Central Government can authorize CBI to investigate such a crime in a State but only with the consent of the concerned State Government. It takes up investigation of conventional crimes like murder, kidnapping, rape etc., on reference from the state governments or when directed by the Supreme Court/High Courts. Maintaining crime statistics and disseminating criminal information. The CBI acts as the “National Central Bureau” of Interpol in India, (CBI and its troubles)  MUST READ: CBI and ED SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Organizations HQ RBI New Delhi SEBI Mumbai CBI Pune How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : APEDA is under the Ministry of Agriculture. Statement-II : Improving the packaging of the Scheduled products is one of its functions. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the IIP, consider the following statements: It is published quarterly. It is published by the National Statistical Office (NSO). Its Base Year is 2011-2012. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  11th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 10th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 11th November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 10th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Scabies Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recent reports suggest that Malawi is battling an outbreak of scabies. Hospitals register thousands of people with infectious skin disease, months after a wave of cholera swept African country. About Scabies:- Scabies is a skin disease caused by a parasite named Sarcoptes scabie which is a tiny insect about 0.3 mm long called a mite. The female parasite burrows under the skin. It begins laying eggs within 2-3 hours of infection and generally lays 2-3 eggs daily. The eggs hatch and become adult mites (a term referring to this parasite) within 10 days. Scabies is a relatively contagious infection caused by a tiny mite (Sarcoptes scabie). Transmission is from person to person more by close skin contact. Symptoms:– Severe itch Itchy lines and bumps on the fingers, wrists, arms, legs, and belt area Larger rash in infants and small children, including on the palms, soles of the feet, ankles, and scalp. A more severe type of scabies, called crusted scabies, makes the skin crusty and scaly and affects large areas of the body. Treatment:- Several types of lotions (usually containing 5% permethrin) can be applied to the body and left on for 12-24 hours. One topical application is usually sufficient, although the scabicide may be reapplied after a week if mites remain. Itching can be lessened by the use of calamine lotion or antihistamine medications. Prevention:- Good hygiene is essential in the prevention of scabies. (Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs)) MUST READ: Type 1 diabetes SOURCE: THE GUARDIAN PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: (2022) Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022) They protect the environmental allergens. body They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens. Awaous Motla Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Researchers discover new freshwater fish species ‘Awaous Motla’ in Odisha’s Mahanadi River.  Background:- A group of scientists has discovered that an edible freshwater fish, available in the markets of western Odisha, is actually an unregistered species. About Awaous Motla:- The species belongs to the family ‘Awaous’ (Oxudercidae), thus named Awaous motla and ‘motla’ by fishermen. The fish has a vibrant yellow-coloured body and a fleshy upper lip. Can be consumed both fresh and dried. It was discovered from the Mahanadi River. It is one of the major east-flowing peninsular rivers in India. The river originates from the Sihawa range of hills in the Dhamtari district of Chhattisgarh state. MUST READ: Zebrafish SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which one of the following? (2023) Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna Stimulating ‘stem cells’ to transform into diverse functional tissues Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting a series of drug trials in  a population Q.2) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Jericho Missile System Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: Recently, a call was given by an Israeli lawmaker suggesting deploying a ‘ Jericho Missile System’ against Hamas and Palestine in the ongoing war. About Jericho Missile System:- Jericho is Israel’s original ballistic missile programme, initiated in the 1960s. It was named after the biblical city located in the West Bank. This programme was initially a collaboration with the French aerospace company Dassault, but when France withdrew in 1969, Israel continued its development. Jericho-1 Missile System:- The Jericho-1 missile system, retired in the 1990s. It had a weight of 6.5 tons, a length of 13.4 meters, and a diameter of 0.8 meters. Jericho-1 missile system had a range of 500 kilometres. It could carry a 1,000-kilogram payload, though it had a 50 per cent chance of hitting within a 1,000-meter radius of its target. Jericho-2 Missile System:- It was developed in the late 1980s. It has a length of 15 metres and a diameter of 1.35 metres while maintaining the same payload capacity and range between 1,500 and 3,500 kilometres. It has the same payload capacity as Jericho-1. Jericho-3 Missile System:- It is the first Israeli Intercontinental Missile (ICBM). It was first tested in 2008 and entered service in 2011. The payload capacity extended to about 1,300 kilograms. It has a range of 4,800 to 6,500 kilometres. MUST READ: BrahMos Missiles SOURCE: MSN PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Q.2) With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018) PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only Alcalus fontinalis Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Researchers have discovered a new species of frog,  Alcalus fontinalis in the northeast Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh recently. The identification of the new species is based on molecular, morphological, and osteological characteristics. About Alcalus fontinalis:- The frog was formally named Alcalus fontinalis, meaning “spring or fountain,” referencing the tiny streams or brooks where the frog was found in Arunachal Pradesh. It was discovered in the Namdapha Tiger Reserve, Arunachal Pradesh. The new species stands out from its congeners due to a unique combination of morphological features. These include a snout-vent length of 27–28 mm in males and 29.9–36.2 mm in females. It has a disc on the fingers and toes with a horizontal/transverse groove on the dorsal surface. It has wrinkled dorsal skin. It has a pair of faint dorsolateral stripes on the back. The new species also exhibits a DNA sequence divergence of 7.6–25.4% in the mitochondrial gene fragment 12S–tVal–16S rRNA (1533 base pairs), further distinguishing it from its congeners. The frog appeared to be a mix of a bush frog and a water frog. Significance:- The discovery of Alcalus fontinalis contributes significantly to our understanding of biodiversity in the Indo-Burma region. The finding reports a species new to science and a new genus from India. (Morphological Phenotypic Plasticity in Kalinga Frog) MUST READ: New Species of frog in Andaman found SOURCE: GROUND REPORT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood? (2023) Fishing cat Orangutan Otter Sloth bear Q2. Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Indian Porcupine Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, an Indian Porcupine killed an adult male Tiger in Tamil Nadu. About Indian Porcupine:- Scientific Name: Hystrix indica. Porcupines are large, thorny rodents. Their coats with sharp spines or quills protect them against predation. They are the longest-living rodent. Defensive behaviour displays in a porcupine depend on sight, scent and sound. The Indian Crested Porcupine is the largest rodent in India and is widely distributed in the Indian Subcontinent. It is found throughout southeast and central Asia and in parts of the Middle East, including such countries as India, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Pakistan, Israel, Iran, and Saudi Arabia. It mainly occurs on rocky hillsides but is also found in tropical and temperate scrublands, grasslands, and forests. Protection status:- IUCN Red List: least concern Wildlife Protection Act 1972: Schedule IV  MUST READ: Atelopus or harlequin frogs SOURCE: ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Recently, there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites? (2017) Corbett National Park Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Sariska National Park Parkinson's disease Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, Scientists discovered a link between air pollution and Parkinson’s disease. About Parkinson’s disease:- Parkinson’s disease is a progressive disorder that affects the nervous system and the parts of the body controlled by the nerves. Symptoms start slowly. The risk of developing it increases with age. Symptoms:- Uncontrollable shaking and tremors Slowed movement (bradykinesia) Balance difficulties and eventual problems standing up Stiffness in limbs Speech changes Writing changes Loss of automatic movements Causes:- Genes Environmental triggers Presence of Lewy bodies: Clumps of specific substances within brain cells are microscopic markers of Parkinson’s disease. These are called Lewy bodies. Parkinson’s disease is often accompanied by these additional problems like:- Thinking difficulties Depression and emotional changes Swallowing problems Chewing and eating problems Sleep problems and sleep disorders People also may experience rapid eye movement sleep behaviour disorder, which involves acting out dreams. Medicines may improve your sleep. Bladder problems Constipation Treatments:- Although there is no cure for Parkinson’s disease, medicines, surgical treatment, and other therapies can often relieve some symptoms. Medicines: Medicines can help treat the symptoms of Parkinson’s by: Increasing the level of dopamine in the brain Having an effect on other brain chemicals, such as neurotransmitters, which transfer information between brain cells Helping control non-movement symptoms Therapy: the main therapy for Parkinson’s is levodopa. Nerve cells use levodopa to make dopamine to replenish the brain’s dwindling supply. Deep brain stimulation: For people with Parkinson’s disease who do not respond well to medications, the doctor may recommend deep brain stimulation. MUST READ: Rare Diseases SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy : (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents, and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following : (2022) Bacteria Fungi Virus Which of the above can be cultured in an artificial/ synthetic medium? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Biomedical Waste Syllabus Mains – GS III – Environment Context: Biomedical waste, refers to any waste generated during the diagnosis, treatment, or immunization of humans or animals, as well as research activities related to healthcare. This waste can pose serious health and environmental risks due to its potential for carrying infectious materials and hazardous substances. Proper management and disposal of biomedical waste are essential to prevent the spread of infections and protect the environment. Of the total amount of waste generated by healthcare activities, about 85% is a general, non-hazardous waste. The remaining 15% is considered hazardous material that may be infectious, toxic, or radioactive. Environmental Impacts of Biomedical Waste Soil and Water Contamination: This contamination can occur when waste is dumped in landfills or improperly stored, allowing harmful substances to leach into the environment. The presence of hazardous chemicals, pharmaceuticals, and pathogens in biomedical waste can pose serious risks to the quality of soil and water resources. Spread of Infectious Diseases: Inadequate handling and disposal of biomedical waste can lead to the spread of infectious diseases in the environment. Pathogens from the waste can contaminate soil, water, and wildlife, potentially affecting human and ecosystem health. Toxin emissions: The most serious effect that biomedical waste has on our seas is the discharge of poisons into the waters that could then be consumed by ocean life creatures. Food chain contamination: Toxins would interject into the food chain and eventually reach humans who consume sea creatures. Plastic pollution: 85% of disposable plastic materials make up all medical equipment. Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules, 2016 The objective of the rules is to properly manage the per day bio-medical waste from Healthcare Facilities (HCFs) across the country. The ambit of the rules has been expanded to include vaccination camps, blood donation camps, surgical camps or any other healthcare activity. Pre-treatment of the laboratory waste, microbiological waste, blood samples and blood bags through disinfection or sterilization on-site in the manner prescribed by the World Health Organization (WHO) or by the National AIDS Control Organisation (NACO). Bio-medical waste has been classified into 4 categories instead of the earlier 10 categories to improve the segregation of waste at source. The rules prescribe more stringent standards for incinerators to reduce the emission of pollutants in the environment. The State Government provides the land for setting up common bio-medical waste treatment and disposal facilities. Challenges to Waste Management Lack of awareness about the health hazards related to healthcare waste Inadequate training in proper waste management Absence of waste management and disposal systems Insufficient financial and human resources Many countries either do not have appropriate regulations or do not enforce them. International Agreement and Conventions The international agreements and conventions which are particularly pertinent in Biomedical Waste Management are- Basel Convention on Hazardous Waste: It is the most inclusive global environmental treaty on hazardous and other wastes. It has 170 member countries, and its objectives are to protect human health and the environment against the adverse effects resulting from the generation, management, and disposal of hazardous wastes, specifically clinical wastes from health care in hospitals, health centers, and clinics. Stockholm Convention on POPs: It is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from POPs (POPs – dioxins and furans). POPs are toxic chemicals that accumulate in the fatty tissue of living organisms and cause damage. These chemicals are formed by medical waste incinerators and other combustion processes. It deals with BEP including source reduction, segregation, resource recovery and recycling, training, and proper collection and transport. Minamata Convention on Mercury It is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from the adverse effects of mercury. On October 10, 2014, in Japan, more than 90 nations signed the first new global convention on environment and health. This treaty includes the phasing out of certain medical equipment in health-care services, including mercury-containing medical items such as thermometers and blood pressure device. Biomedical Waste Treatment in India Conclusion                         Proper segregation, safe storage, and effective treatment methods can minimize the risks associated with biomedical waste. Furthermore, promoting awareness and education on responsible waste management practices is crucial to ensuring the protection of the environment and public health. Connect the Dots How has WHO classified biomedical waste? What are different guidelines given by WHO for medical waste disposal? DEEPFAKES Syllabus Mains – GS III – Science and Technology What are Deepfakes? Deepfakes refer to realistic-looking, AI-generated content, typically images or videos that manipulate or replace the original content with new, often fabricated material. The term “Deepfake” is a combination of “deep learning” and “fake.” The term became popular when a Reddit contributor used publicly available AI-driven software to impose the faces of celebrities onto the bodies of people in pornographic videos. Deepfakes are back in news, after a video of actor Rashmika Mandanna has recently gone viral on social media. Researchers have observed a 230% increase in deepfake usage by cybercriminals and scammers, and have predicted the technology would replace phishing in a couple of years. How Does Deepfake Technology Work? The technology involves modifying or creating images and videos using a machine learning technique called generative adversarial network (GAN). The AI-driven software detects and learns the subjects’ movements and facial expressions from the source material and then duplicates these in another video or image. To ensure that the deepfake created is as close to real as possible, creators use a large database of source images. This is why more deepfake videos are created of public figures, celebrities and politicians. The dataset is then used by one software to create a fake video, while a second software is used to detect signs of forgery in it. Through the collaborative work of the two software, the fake video is rendered until the second software package can no longer detect the forgery. This is known as “unsupervised learning”, when machine-language models teach themselves. The method makes it difficult for other software to identify Deepfakes. Challenges Posed by Deepfakes Promotes ‘Liar’s Dividend’– Liar’s Dividend refers to the situation when an undesirable truth is dismissed as Deepfakes or fake news. Leader’s weaponries Deepfakes to replace an actual piece of media and truth. Ex- Donald Trump Deepfake videos. Deepfakes blur the line between reality and fake. People start dismissing reality as fake. Erosion of trust in democratic processes like elections- Doctored content, most likely in the form of a realistic fake video is presented as fact to alter public perception and create democratic deficit. For Ex- Capitol Hill violence, 2021 was incited by using deep fake media. Crime against women- The deepfakes are being used as a weapon to attack women dignity and chastity. According to AI company Deeptrace report, over 90% of the deepfake videos are pornographic in nature. Fuelling Radicalization and violence- The non-state actors like ISIS and Al-Qaeda, use fake videos to stir anti-state sentiments among people. For Ex- Fake videos showing armed forces committing ‘crimes in conflict areas’. Rise in cybercrimes- Cyber criminals are using deepfake technology to carry out phishing attacks, financial frauds and identity theft. Ex- CEO of a U.K. energy company was tricked using deepfake audio to transfer €2,20,000 to fraudsters. Deepfake Regulation in India and across World India India does not have specific laws or regulations that ban or regulate the use of deepfake technology. Sections 67 and 67A of the Information Technology Act (2000) related to defamation and publishing explicit material is applied in cases of deepfakes. India’s IT Rules, 2021 require that all content reported to be fake or produced using deep fake be taken down by intermediary platforms within 36 hours. Section 500 of the Indian Penal Code (1860) also provides punishment for defamation. United States     The U.S. introduced the bipartisan Deepfake Task Force Act to assist the Department of Homeland Security (DHS) to counter deepfake technology. European Union              European Union has updated Code of Practice on Disinformation that was introduced in 2018 to stop the spread of disinformation through deepfakes. The EU has issued guidelines for the creation of an independent network of fact-checkers to help analyse the sources and processes of content creation China    China has introduced Comprehensive Regulation on Deep Synthesis aimed at curbing disinformation. Conclusion Social media intermediaries have to develop technology to detect and report Deepfakes on their sites like watermarking AI-generated content. For Ex- Microsoft’s video authenticator is a new anti-deep fake technology to fight misinformation. Additionally, there should be ongoing discussions about the need for legal frameworks to address the malicious use of Deepfakes technology. Connect the Dots What can possible positive outcomes using Deepfakes technology? Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Disease Caused by Cholera Vibrio cholerae Plague Yersinia pestis Leprosy Mycobacterium Leprae How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Jericho-1 missile system had a range of 500 kilometres. Statement-II : Jericho-2 Missile System is the first Israeli Intercontinental Ballistic Missiles (ICBM). Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to theAwaous Motla, consider the following statements: It was discovered from the Mahanadi River. It costs less than several other locally available fish. The species belongs to the family ‘Awaous’ (Oxudercidae). How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  10th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 9th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – a

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 10th November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –9th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Sharjah International Book Fair 2023 Syllabus Prelims – IMPORTANT EVENTS Context: The 42nd edition of the Sharjah International Book Fair (SIBF) is currently underway. Background:- The current edition of SIBF features an impressive participation of 2,033 publishers representing 109 countries. The India Pavilion is a vibrant and bustling hub at the book fair, representing the rich literary diversity of the country About Sharjah International Book Fair 2023:- Date: 1- 12th ,November,2023. Organized by: Sharjah Book Authority (SBA). Venue: Sharjah Expo Centre, UAE. (CEPA between India and the UAE) Theme: “We Speak Books” The 12-day agenda is a comprehensive cultural, creative, and entertaining extravaganza. Over 1,700 activities are being led by 215 guests hailing from 69 countries, catering to a wide range of interests and age groups. A highlight of the event is the participation of 600 authors who are present to sign their latest works. South Korea is taking centre stage as the Guest of Honour at SIBF this year. The festival is shining a spotlight on South Korea’s unique knowledge and cultural landscape, covering literature, art, technology, and culture. Historical Background:- The 10-day event which started in 1982 under the patronage of His Highness Dr Sheikh Sultan bin Muhammad Al-Qasimi, is a leading literary event that profiles the written work throughout the Middle East, Asia and Africa. The book fair is considered to be the 3rd largest fair in the world and saw 2.4 million visitors attend in 2021. The event also features a lineup of book signings, workshops and panel discussions. Significance:- It has been reported that UK and European publishers who attended past Sharjah International Book Fairs, said the fair had brought in new business opportunities for them. MUST READ: India-UAE relations SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following countries : (2023) Bulgaria Czech Republic Hungary Latvia Lithuania Romania How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine? Only two Only three Only four Only five Q.2) The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions? (2022) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores The region along North African shores stretches from Egypt to Morocco The region along the Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa The entire coastal areas of the Mediterranean Sea Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) Syllabus Prelims – IMPORTANT INSTITUTIONS Context: Recently, the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) has issued a show cause notice to Air India. Background:- In order to ensure compliance of passenger-centric CARs, DGCA has been carrying out inspections of scheduled domestic airlines, at various major airports since May this year. During the inspections, it was found that Air India was not complying with the provisions of the relevant CAR. About Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA):- Ministry: Ministry of Civil Aviation. HQ: New Delhi The Directorate General of Civil Aviation is an attached office of the Ministry of Civil Aviation. It has regional offices in various parts of India. Functions of the DGCA:- It is the regulatory body in the field of Civil Aviation primarily dealing with safety issues. It is responsible for the regulation of air transport services to/from/within India and for the enforcement of civil air regulations, air safety and airworthiness standards. It is responsible for the Registration of civil aircraft. It is responsible for the Certification of airports. It is responsible for the Licensing of pilots, aircraft maintenance engineers, air traffic controllers and flight engineers, and conducting examinations and checks for that purpose. It is responsible for promoting indigenous design and manufacture of aircraft and aircraft components by acting as a catalytic agent. It is responsible for approving training programmes of operators for carriage of dangerous goods, issuing authorizations for carriage of dangerous goods, etc. It also coordinates all regulatory functions with the International Civil Aviation Organization. Aviation Safety Ranking:- In 2022, the DGCA made a significant leap in the International Civil Aviation Organization’s coordinated validation mission (or audit) that was conducted in November 2022. As a result, India’s effective implementation score has risen from the previous 69.95% to nearly 85.49%, thereby changing India’s Safety Oversight rank from 102 to 48, among the 193 contracting states. MUST READ: Reforms in the Civil Aviation Industry SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements : (2023) It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using the US dollar or SWIFT system. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a timeframe for spending it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers? (2022) Central Statistics Office Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade Labour Bureau National Technical Manpower Information System Horn of Africa Syllabus Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, Horn of Africa faced deadly floods due to El Nino-linked ‘above average’ rains. Background:- Several people in the Greater Horn of Africa are feared dead, property worth millions destroyed and populations displaced due to heavy rainfall in the region, according to officials. About Horn of Africa:- IMAGE SOURCE: iStock Countries: Somalia, Ethiopia, Eritrea and Djibouti. Location: northeast of the African It lies along the southern boundary of the Red Sea. It extends hundreds of kilometers into the Guardafui Channel, the Gulf of Aden, and the Indian Ocean. It is equidistant from the equator and the Tropic of Cancer. It extends out into the Arabian Sea for hundreds of kilometres. It is located along the south of the Gulf of Aden. The Horn of Africa is a UNESCO Biodiversity Hotspot and one of the two entirely arid ones. Biodiversity Hotspot: To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, an area must meet two strict criteria:- Contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants found nowhere else on Earth (known as “endemic” species). Have lost at least 70 per cent of its primary native vegetation. The Greater Horn of Africa region includes Burundi, Djibouti, Eritrea, Ethiopia, Kenya, Rwanda, Somalia, South Sudan, Sudan, Tanzania, and Uganda.  About the El Nino:- IMAGE SOURCE: IASBABA El Nino is the warming of seawater in the central-east Equatorial Pacific that occurs every few years. During El Niño, surface temperatures in the equatorial Pacific rise, and trade winds ,east-west winds that blow near the Equator weaken. Normally, easterly trade winds blow from the Americas towards Asia. Due to El Niño, they falter and change direction to turn into westerlies, bringing warm water from the western Pacific towards the Americas. It occurs every 3-6 years. It lasts for about 9-12 months. It can cause droughts, flooding, and changes in temperature. It can lead to below-normal rainfall, which affects India’s agricultural sector. Impacts of El Nino:- Disruptions in the food chain Disruptions in the overall ecosystem Warm waters also carry tropical species towards colder areas, disrupting multiple ecosystems. Alterations in wind and weather patterns MUST READ: India-Africa: Challenges & Way Ahead SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert? (2022) Lake Victoria Lake Faguibine Lake Oguta Lake Volta Q.2) With reference to the ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting the Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct (2017) The IOD phenomenon is characterized by a difference in sea surface temperature between the tropical Western Indian Ocean and the tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino’s impact on the monsoon. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) Chairperson Justice Arun Mishra addressed the 14th International Conference of the National Human Rights Institutions (NHRIs). About the 14th International Conference of the National Human Rights Institutions (NHRIs):- Date: 6-8 November 2023. Venue: Copenhagen, Denmark. Theme:‘Torture and other ill-treatment, The role of NHRIs’. Justice Mishra stressed Cooperation to make societies more humane and civil to eradicate the menace of torture where often victims are poor and hapless individuals. He added that to effectively address the practice of torture, prosecution of perpetrators and disciplinary action is non-negotiable with transparency in police actions and places of detention. Justice Mishra also said that Public Interest Litigation in courts and suo motu cognizance by the NHRC are unique instruments to ensure justice for the victims. He added that NHRIs owe not only to present but also future generations to take effective steps to prevent torture. About the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC):- Established: 1993. HQ: New Delhi. NHRC is a statutory body established under the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993. The Act also provides for the creation of the State Human Rights Commission (SHRC) as well. State Human Rights Commission: It is charged with the protection of Human Rights or investigating any violations that occur within their respective state. Historical Background:- NHRC was established in conformity with the Paris Principles. Paris Principles: adopted for the promotion and protection of human rights in Paris in 1991. It was endorsed by the General Assembly of the United Nations in 1993. Composition of NHRC:- It is a multi-member body. It consists of a chairperson, five full-time Members, and seven deemed Members. Chairperson: a retired chief justice of India or a judge of the Supreme Court. Appointments:- The chairman and members are appointed by the President on the recommendations of a six-member committee consisting of:- Prime Minister (head) Speaker of the Lok Sabha Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha Leaders of the Opposition in both Houses of Parliament Union Home Minister. Term: three years or until they attain the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier. Removal: The president can remove them from office under specific circumstances. They can be removed only on the charges of proven misbehaviour or incapacity if proved by an inquiry conducted by a Supreme Court Judge. Functions of NHRC:- To investigate the violation of human rights. To prevent a human rights violation. To conduct research about human rights. To create awareness campaigns through various mediums, and encourage the work of non-governmental organizations (NGOs). NGO: a group that functions independently of any government. It is the watchdog of human rights in the country. MUST READ: New Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) appointed SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such an accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2)  In India, Judicial Review implies:- (2017) The power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders. The power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures. The power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before the President assents to them. The power of the Judiciary to review its own judgments given earlier in similar or different cases. G-7 Syllabus Prelims – INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently held G-7 meeting appealed for humanitarian pauses in Gaza. Background:- Foreign Ministers who met in Tokyo seek the release of hostages and a return to a ‘broader peace process’, and offer to draw up long-term solutions. About G-7:- IMAGE SOURCE: WorldAtlas G7 stands for “Group of Seven” industrialized nations. This intergovernmental organization was formed in 1997. Headquarters: The G-7 does not have a formal constitution or a fixed headquarters. Membership: United States, Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan and the United Kingdom. Origin:- The G7 draws its roots from a meeting between the current G7 members, excluding Canada that took place in At the time, the global economy was in a state of recession due to the OPEC oil embargo. As the energy crisis was escalating, the US decided that it would be beneficial for the large players on the world stage to coordinate with each other on macroeconomic initiatives. The bloc meets annually to discuss issues of common interest like global economic governance, international security and energy policy. The decisions taken by leaders during annual summits are non-binding. Members share common values like democracy, respect for human rights and fundamental freedoms, free markets, and respect for international law. The G7 is an intergovernmental association made up of countries that have the world’s biggest, most developed economies. The G7 was previously called the G8 until Russia was expelled from the group. The G7 does not include some of the world’s biggest economies, such as China, Brazil, and India. Significance:- Economic Significance: The G7 nations account for close to 60 per cent of global net wealth. MUST READ: G-7 and India SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1.) In which one of the following groups are all four countries members of G20? (2020) Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey. Australia, Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand. Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam. Indonesia, Japan, Singapore and South Korea. Q2.) Which of the following is NOT a member of the Gulf Cooperation Council? (2016) Iran Saudi Arabia Oman Kuwait Indian Technical and Economic Cooperation Day Syllabus Prelims – IMPORTANT DAYS Context: Indian Technical and Economic Cooperation Day was celebrated recently. Key highlights of the event:- Date: 07 November, 2023 Venue: Dhaka, Bangladesh. Organized by: High Commission of India in Dhaka in collaboration with the ITEC Alumni Association of Bangladesh (IAAB). The High Commission of India in Dhaka organized a function in collaboration with the ITEC Alumni Association of Bangladesh (IAAB), to celebrate ITEC Day. September 15 has been designated as ITEC Day. Bangladesh’s Agriculture Minister Dr. Muhammad Abdur Razzaque graced the occasion as the Chief Guest. Around 180 ITEC alumni from all walks of life, besides distinguished guests, attended the event. Some of the distinguished ITEC alumni also shared their training experiences with the audience. A small cultural event culminated in the programme. About Indian Technical and Economic Cooperation Day:- Institution: 1964. ITEC is a flagship programme of the Government of India. It was instituted in 1964 as part of India’s Development Assistance Programme. The Indian Technical and Economic Cooperation (ITEC) Programme was instituted by a decision of the Indian Cabinet on 15 September 1964 as a bilateral programme of assistance of the Government of India. Features:- The ITEC Programme is essentially bilateral in nature. However, in recent years, ITEC resources have also been used for cooperation programmes conceived in regional and inter-regional contexts such as the Economic Commission for Africa, Commonwealth Secretariat, UNIDO, Group of 77 and G-15. It has been offering the benefit of India’s development experience and technological progress to more than 160 countries across the globe. Every year, more than 10,000 training slots are offered to ITEC partner countries for training courses in premier Indian Institutes in various areas like Agriculture, Accounts, Audit, Good Governance Practices, Management, Small and Medium Enterprises, Rural Development, Public Health, Parliamentary Affairs, Judiciary, Election Management, IT, Data Analytics, Remote Sensing, Renewable Energy etc. To date, more than 5,000 young Bangladeshi professionals have undergone such courses in India under the ITEC programmes. Components of the ITEC/SCAAP Programme:- Training (civilian and defence) in India of nominees from ITEC partner countries Projects and project-related activities such as feasibility studies and consultancy services (India’s cyber infrastructure) Deputation of Indian experts abroad Study Tours Gifts/Donations of equipment at the request of ITEC partner countries and Aid for Disaster Relief. Significance:- The decision regarding setting up the ITEC programme was predicated on the underlying belief that “it was necessary to establish relations of mutual concern and inter-dependence based not only on commonly held ideals and aspirations but also on solid economic foundations. Technical and economic cooperation was considered to be one of the essential functions of an integrated and imaginative foreign policy.” MUST READ: International Solar Alliance SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020) International agreement/ set-up Subject Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change Under2 Coalition – Child Rights Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1 and 2 only 4 only 1 and 3 only 2,3 and 4 only Q.2) Which of the following gives the ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ ranking to the countries of the world? (2017) World Economic Forum UN Human Rights Council UN Women World Health Organization Importance of Loss and Damage Funds Syllabus Mains – GS III: Environment As the climate crisis intensifies, two possibilities exist. Adaptation – Adaptation is the proactive response to climate change, the art of survival by which communities and countries make deliberate choices to prepare for and cope with climate related challenges. ‘Loss And Damage’ (L&D)- L&D represents the irreversible consequences of climate change, impacts that can’t be avoided or mitigated through adaptation efforts. They encompass the real losses that extend beyond monetary value and cut to the core of human rights and well-being. L&D includes economic losses, human casualties, and the degradation of ecosystems and cultural heritage. What Is Loss and Damage Fund? L&D fund was created to provide financial and technical assistance to economically developing nations that were incurring L&D due to climate change. This is call for affluent nations to acknowledge their accountability for historic pollution, which elevated the world’s average surface temperature by more than 1 degree Celsius and is currently inflicting damage worldwide, but especially in the poorest nations. At the 19th Conference of the Parties (COP 19) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in Warsaw, Poland, in 2013, representatives of member countries formally agreed to establish the L&D fund. However, during the 2021 COP26 climate summit in Glasgow, a 3-year task force was established to consider a funding arrangement for loss and damage. Significance Of Loss and Damage Fund Equity and justice: A loss and damage fund helps address the ethical and moral imperative of aiding those who are least responsible for causing climate change but are suffering its most severe consequences. Climate adaptation limitations: While efforts are made to mitigate climate change through emissions reductions, adaptation measures to cope with its effects, particularly for extreme events like hurricanes, droughts, and floods, have limitations. A loss and damage fund provides a safety net for communities that cannot fully adapt to these impacts, ensuring that they receive support when adaptation alone is insufficient. Climate justice in international agreements: The concept of a loss and damage fund has gained prominence in international climate negotiations, such as the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). It underscores the principles of common but differentiated responsibilities, recognizing that historically high emitters have a responsibility to assist those disproportionately affected by climate change. This is an important element in ensuring equitable global climate agreements. Risk reduction and resilience building: A loss and damage fund can support risk reduction and resilience-building efforts in vulnerable regions. This includes investments in infrastructure, early warning systems, disaster preparedness, and community-based adaptation projects that can help reduce future losses and damages. Concerns Regarding the Fund The unwillingness of wealthy nations to fulfil intended commitments undermines faith in global climate negotiations and hampers the cooperative spirit necessary to address climate change. As far as future COP negotiations are concerned, it only commits to creating a fund and leaves it up to discussion how it will be set up and, most importantly, who will contribute to it. Beyond the immediate diplomatic and trust-related repercussions, the watering down of the L&D fund has wide-reaching implications. It threatens climate justice and exacerbates the suffering of vulnerable communities in developing nations. While there have been nominal commitments by certain countries to donate to such a fund, the estimated L&D is already over USD 500 billion. There is no agreement yet on what counts as “loss and damage” caused by climate change which could include infrastructure damage, property damage, and cultural assets whose value is hard to quantify. Climate funding so far has focused mostly on cutting carbon dioxide emissions in an effort to curb global warming, while about a third of it has gone toward projects to help communities adapt to future impacts. India’s Related Initiatives National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC) It was established in 2015 to meet the cost of adaptation to climate change for the State and Union Territories of India that are particularly vulnerable to the adverse effects of climate change. National Clean Energy Fund The Fund was created to promote clean energy, and funded through an initial carbon tax on the use of coal by industries. It is governed by an Inter-Ministerial Group with the Finance Secretary as the Chairman. Its mandate is to fund research and development of innovative clean energy technology in the fossil and non-fossil fuel-based sectors. National Adaptation Fund The fund was established in 2014 with a corpus of Rs. 100 crores with the aim of bridging the gap between the need and the available funds. The fund is operated under the Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change (MoEF&CC). Conclusion Addressing these issues in the implementation of loss and damage funds requires international cooperation, careful negotiation, transparency, and a commitment to equity and justice. It’s an ongoing process as the international community grapples with the evolving challenges posed by climate change and its consequences. Connect the Dots: How essential is climate funding to fight the climate change effects immediately? CAG of India Syllabus Mains – GS II: Governance and Social Issues India’s CAG: Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India plays a crucial role in the democratic framework by ensuring transparency, accountability, and financial integrity in government’s functioning. CAG helps to maintain the separation of powers between legislature and executive by ensuring that the government’s financial activities align with legislative intentions. Through its audit findings and recommendations, the CAG’s promotes good governance practices and helps government streamline their operations, reduce inefficiencies, and adhere financial discipline. Functions, Duties and Powers of Comptroller and Auditor General of India The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is a constitutional functionary, independent of Parliament/legislature and executives. The CAG is responsible for Audit of Ministries and departments of Government of India and the State Governments. Audit of Central and State Government Public Sector Undertakings and other autonomous bodies and authorities which are financed from Government funds. Audit of receipts of Union or of States. Audit of accounts stores and stock. Audit of companies and corporations. The Comptroller and Auditor General is also responsible of compilation of accounts of the State Government, authorization of pensioners benefits of selected categories of employees, maintenance of provident funds accounts of State Government employees of most State Governments. These audit and accounting functions are carried out by the Indian Audit and Accounts Department (IA & AD) which functions under the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. Limitations: The Power of CAG Report is post-facto: i.e. after the expenditure is incurred and has only prospective value in improving systems and procedures. Secret service expenditure: such expenditure is outside the purview of the CAG and he cannot call for particulars of expenditure incurred by the executive agencies, but has to accept a certificate from the competent administrative authority that the expenditure has been so incurred. Rising PPP investments: Since the legislation, the government has increased its participation with the private sector through the PPT (public-private-transfer) and BOT (build-own-transfer) models. However, the rules have not undergone a significant change and CAG does not have the power to audit PPP (Public Private Partnership) investments. NGO’s, PRI and ULB’s out of audit ambit: There is no provision for auditing of funds that are given to an NGO and elected local bodies. Also, CAG presently does not have the full authority to audit the PRIs and ULBs. In most states, the Examiners functioning under the Finance Department audit the accounts of local bodies. DRDAs also not auditable: (District Rural Development Authority) today are managing large sums of money for rural development yet they also are outside the purview of CAG audits. Denial of documents: the path to obtain the relevant documents to carry out their tasks and make a report on its basis has never been easy for audit department. It has also been involved in several cases where the necessary documents were denied to the CAG and the powers of the CAG had to be reinstated by the Judiciary. In the past, almost 30% of the documents demanded by CAG officials have been denied to them. Mode of Appointment: The present selection process for the CAG is entirely internal to the Government machinery; no one outside has any knowledge of what criteria are applied, how names are shortlisted and how a final selection is made. There is a lack of clarity on the criterion, the definition of the field of choice, and the procedures for the selection of this high constitutional functionary. Word audit not defined: The word ‘audit’ has not been defined in either the Constitution or in the CAG Act, 1971. We have so far been going by 150 years of history, tradition, existing provisions and international practice. The CAG has not formulated its own policy in the above reports and has only gone by policy prescriptions recommended internally at various levels within the government. Constitutional provisions related to CAG Art. 148: broadly speaks of the CAG, his appointment, oath and conditions of service Art. 149: broadly speaks of the Duties and Powers of the CAG Art. 150: The accounts of the Union and the States shall be kept in such form as the President may, on the advice of the CAG, prescribe. Art. 151: Audit Reports: The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India relating to the accounts of the Union shall be submitted to the president, who shall cause them to be laid before each House of Parliament. Broad Objectives of Audit The broad objectives of audit are to ensure legality, regularity, economy, efficiency and effectiveness of financial management and public administration mainly through assessment as to: whether the financial statements are properly prepared, are complete in all respects and are presented with adequate disclosures (financial audit); whether the provisions of the Constitution, the applicable laws, rules and regulations made thereunder, and various orders and instructions issued by competent authority are being complied with (compliance audit); and The extent to which an activity, programme or Organisation operates economically, efficiently and effectively (performance audit). Types of Audit Performed by CAG Regulatory Audit: It is an audit to ascertain whether the money spent was authorized for the purpose for which they were spent and also that the expenditure incurred was in conformity with the laws, rules and regulations. Supplementary Audit: CAG takes up supplementary audits in PSUs, even after the commercial audits are done by the auditors appointed by the CAG, for the detection of leakages. Propriety Audit: It focuses on whether the expenditure made is in the public interest or not i.e. it moves beyond mere scrutiny of expenditure to question its wisdom and economy to identify cases of improper expenditure and waste of public money. Efficiency Audit: Efficiency audit as the name suggests answers the question of whether the money invested yields optimum results. The main purpose of the efficiency audit is to ensure that the investment is prioritized and channeled into its most profitable utilization. Performance Audit: Performance audit answers whether the government programs such as NREGA have achieved the desired objectives at the lowest cost and given the intended benefits. It generally does not get into the merits-demerits of a particular policy/scheme but rather looks into the effectiveness with which the scheme is implemented and any deficiencies thereof. Environmental Audit: This is a relatively new area of concern for the CAG keeping in mind the challenges facing India with respect to the conservation and management of the environment. More than 100 audits on environmental issues like bio-diversity, pollution of rivers, waste management have been conducted by the CAG to identify critical issues and suggest possible solutions by involving all stakeholders. Conclusion The Comptroller and Auditor General plays a crucial role in maintaining the financial integrity of government operations, promoting transparency and accountability, and safeguarding public funds. It contributes to better governance and ensures that public resources are used efficiently and effectively for the benefit of citizens.  Connect the Dots CAG catalysis good governance, transparency and accountability, the responsibility to nurture and protect democratic principles. Critically analyze. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Organization Headquarters World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) Rome, Italy Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO) Geneva, Switzerland United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO) Vienna, Austria How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : The Directorate of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is responsible for the Licensing of air traffic controllers. Statement-II : It promotes the indigenous design and manufacture of aircraft. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), consider the following statements: It was established in 1990. It has headquarters in Mumbai. It is a statutory body established under the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  9th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 8th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 9th November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 8th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Tuberculosis Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recent reports suggest that India, Indonesia and the Philippines account for over 60% drop in tuberculosis reporting in 2020 and 2021. Background:- TB remained the world’s second leading cause of death from a single infectious agent in 2022, after COVID-19 and caused almost twice as many deaths as human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) / acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), being the leading cause of death among people with HIV. About Tuberculosis:- Tuberculosis (TB) is an infectious disease that most often affects the lungs. TB is caused by bacteria (Mycobacterium tuberculosis) that most often affect the lungs but may also affect other parts. Tuberculosis is preventable and curable. About a quarter of the global population is estimated to have been infected with TB bacteria. About 5–10% of people infected with TB will eventually get symptoms and develop TB disease. Risk factors: The most common risk factor associated with TB is HIV and other conditions that impair the immune system. Symptoms:- prolonged cough (sometimes with blood) chest pain weakness fatigue weight loss fever night sweats Transmission:- Bacteria are spread through the air, just like a cold or the flu. It spreads through the air when infected people cough, sneeze or spit. Those who are infected but not (yet) ill with the disease cannot transmit it. Treatment:- TB disease is usually treated with antibiotics and can be fatal without treatment. In certain countries, the Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine is given to babies or small children to prevent TB. The vaccine prevents TB outside of the lungs but not in the lungs. Prevention:- Seeking medical attention if you have symptoms like prolonged cough, fever and unexplained weight loss as early treatment for TB can help stop the spread of the disease and improve your chances of recovery. Getting tested for TB infection if you are at increased risk, such as if you have HIV or are in contact with people who have TB in your household or your workplace. Practicing good hygiene when coughing, including avoiding contact with other people and wearing a mask, covering your mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing, and disposing of sputum and used tissues properly.  MUST READ: India’s TB Elimination Programme SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which of the following statements is not correct? (2017) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV. Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine. Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses is several times more than those infected with HIV. Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years. Badrinath Dham Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, President Draupadi Murmu visited the Badrinath Dham. Background:- The president is scheduled to address the 11th convocation of Hemvati Nandan Bahuguna Garhwal University in Srinagar. The president will also attend a program organized in Dehradun tomorrow to celebrate Uttarakhand State Foundation Day. About Badrinath Dham:- Location: Uttarakhand, India. Badrinath or Badrinarayan Temple is a Hindu temple. It is situated in the town of Badrinath. It is dedicated to lord Vishnu. It forms one of the four Char Dham and Chota Char Dham pilgrimage sites. (Srisailam Temple) The four char dhams include:- Badrinath Kedarnath Gangotri Yamunotri The temple is located on Garhwal hill tracks in Chamoli district. It is along the banks of the Alaknanda River. The temple has three structures: the Garbhagriha (sanctum), the Darshan Mandap (worship hall), and Sabha Mandap (convention hall). The Tapt Kund, a group of hot sulphur springs just below the temple, are considered to be medicinal. The Badrinath Dham, which symbolizes a synthesis of religious, cultural and spiritual mystic beauty, is undergoing reconstruction and beautification. MUST READ: Khajuraho temples SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (2017) It is a song and dance performance Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Q.2) Kalamkari painting refers to (2015) a hand-painted cotton textile in South India. a handmade drawing on bamboo handicrafts in Northeast India. a block-painted woollen cloth in the Western Himalayan region of India. a hand-painted decorative silk cloth in North-Western India. National Investigation Agency Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT AGENCIES Context: The National Investigation Agency, has carried out coordinated searches at eight locations across Punjab, Uttarakhand, and Uttar Pradesh in a heroin seizure case recently. Background:- The searches relate to the seizure of a substantial quantity of narcotics, specifically heroin, which was intercepted upon its arrival in India through the Integrated Check Post in Attari, Amritsar in April last year. About National Investigation Agency:- NIA is functioning as the Central Counter Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency in India. Establishment: 2008. It was established by the National Investigation Agency Act, enacted on 31-12-08. (NIA) Ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs. HQ: New Delhi. It is a central agency to investigate and prosecute offences:- affecting the sovereignty, security and integrity of India, security of the State, and friendly relations with foreign States. against atomic and nuclear facilities. smuggling in High-Quality Counterfeit Indian Currency. Objectives:- It implements international treaties, agreements, conventions and resolutions of the United Nations, its agencies and other international organizations. Historical Background:- The agency at the Central level was created for the investigation of offences related to terrorism and certain other Acts post-2008 Mumbai terror attacks. Functions of NIA:- In-depth professional investigation of scheduled offences using the latest scientific methods. Ensuring effective and speedy trials. Developing into a thoroughly professional, result-oriented organization. Developing a professional workforce through regular training and exposure to the best practices and procedures. Maintaining professional and cordial relations with the governments of States and Union Territories and other law enforcement agencies in compliance with the legal provisions of the NIA Act. Assist all States and other investigating agencies in the investigation of terrorist cases. (Unlawful Activities and (Prevention) Act (UAPA)) Build a database on all terrorist-related information. Share the database available with the States and other agencies. Study and analyse laws relating to terrorism in other countries. MUST READ: Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following organizations/ bodies in India : (2023) The National Commission for Backward Classes The National Human Rights Commission The National Law Commission The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements : (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Mann Ki Baat program Syllabus Prelims – GOVERNANCE Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi recently, called upon people to be vocal for local this festival season in his Mann Ki Baat program. Background:- Prime Minister Narendra Modi has called upon people to be vocal for local by purchasing local goods on the occasion of festivals. The effect of this inspiration of the Prime Minister is also visible in the people shopping for festivals in Punjab. About Mann Ki Baat program:- Mann Ki Baat is an Indian radio program hosted by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. He addresses the people of the nation on All India Radio, DD National and DD News. The first Mann Ki Baat programme was broadcast on the occasion of Vijayadashami on 3 October 2014. The program is India’s first visually enriched radio program. Objective: to establish a dialogue with the citizens on issues of day-to-day governance. (Importance of e-governance in administration) The Radio was chosen as the medium of the program due to its wide reach and an estimated 90% of the total Indian population can be reached through the medium. The Prime Minister, Narendra Modi addresses the nation every month on All India Radio. The 100th episode of Mann Ki Baat was broadcast on April 30, 2023. DG UNESCO became a part of this episode. He thanked Prime Minister Modi on behalf of UNESCO for the opportunity to be part of the 100th episode of the ‘Mann Ki Baat’ Radio broadcast. Guests on the show:- The former President of the United States, Barack Obama, was a part of the fourth episode of Mann Ki Baat, which was aired on 27 January 2015. On 29 September 2019, Lata Mangeshkar was a special guest on the show. The program was recorded originally in (Languages of India ) However, it is translated into various languages like Adi, Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri, English, Garo, Gujarati, Kannada, Kashmiri, Khasi, Kokborok, Konkani, Lepcha, Maithili, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Mizo, Nagamese, Nepali, Odia, Pnar, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu. MUST READ: Asia-Pacific Broadcasting Union SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Project Loon’, sometimes seen in the news, is related to (2016) waste management technology wireless communication technology solar power production technology water conservation technology Q.2) With reference to ‘Near Field Communication (NFC) Technology’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2015) It is a contactless communication technology that uses electromagnetic radio fields NFC is designed for use by devices which can be at a distance of even a metre from each other NFC can use encryption when sending sensitive information. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Venus Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, Astronomers peering at the atmosphere of Venus have detected clear signs of atomic oxygen in daylight. Background:- Atomic oxygen is known to exist in the planet’s atmosphere, according to theoretical models, and has even been directly detected on Venus’ nightside but the dayside detection means we have new insight into the dynamics of the Venusian atmosphere. About Venus:- Surface Temperature: 462 °C Number of Moons: None First Recorded: 17th century BCE by Babylon astronomers It is one of the four inner, terrestrial (or rocky) planets. It is the only planet named after a female. It is named after the Roman goddess of love and beauty. It is the second planet from the Sun. It is the sixth in the solar system in size and mass. It is the brightest planet. It is the hottest planet in the solar system because of the high concentration of carbon dioxide which works to produce an intense greenhouse effect. Unlike the other planets in our solar system, Venus and Uranus spin clockwise on their axis. Venus has been called Earth’s twin because of the similarities in their masses, sizes, and densities and their similar relative locations in the solar system. Venus Missions:- US: Mariner series 1962-1974, Pioneer Venus 1 and Pioneer Venus 2 in 1978, Magellan in 1989. (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR)) Russia: Venera series of space crafts 1967-1983, Vegas 1 and 2 in 1985. Japan: Akatsuki in 2015. Europe: Venus Express in 2005. India: Shukrayaan (to be launched in 2024.) MUST READ: Exoplanets SOURCE: SCIENCE ALERT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct? (2023) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times that received at the poles. Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation. Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere. Infrared waves are a part of the visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation. Q.2) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Election Commission Syllabus Prelims – POLITY Context: Recently, the Election Commission provided the facility to voters above 80 years of age & Divyanga to vote from home. Background:- Chief Electoral Officer Anupam Rajan informed that the Election Commission has provided the facility to voters above 80 years of age and those with more than 40 per cent Divyanga to vote from home in the assembly elections in Madhya Pradesh. Similarly, service voters have also the facility to cast their vote before voting. About Election Commission:- The Election Commission is a permanent and independent body established by the Constitution of India. ( Election Commission) Objective: to ensure free and fair elections in the country. Article 324 of the Constitution: provides that the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to parliament, state legislatures, the office of president of India and the office of vice-president of India shall be vested in the election commission. Composition Election Commission of India:- Members: The election commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and a such number of other election commissioners, if any, as the President may from time to time fix. Appointment: The appointment of the chief election commissioner and other election commissioners shall be made by the Head: When any other election commissioner is so appointed the chief election commissioner shall act as the chairman of the election commission. Regional commissioners: The president may also appoint after consultation with the election commission such regional commissioners as he may consider necessary to assist the election commission. Procedure of Removal:- The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only through a process of removal similar to that of a Supreme Court judge by Parliament. Judges of High Courts and Supreme Court, CEC, Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) may be removed from office through a motion adopted by Parliament on grounds of ‘Proven misbehaviour or incapacity’. Removal requires a special majority of 2/3rd members present and voting supported by more than 50% of the total strength of the house. Conditions of service: it shall be such as the President may by rule. Tenure of office: The President may by rule determine it. Key Functions of ECI:- ECI superintendents, direct and control the entire process of conducting elections. ( Cohort on Election Integrity) These include elections to Parliament and Legislature of every State and to the offices of President and Vice-President of India. It decides the election schedules for the conduct of periodic and timely elections, whether general or bye-elections. It prepares electoral rolls and issues Electronic Photo Identity Cards (EPIC). It decides on the location of polling stations, assignment of voters to the polling stations, location of counting centres, and other related arrangements to be made. It grants recognition to political parties. It allots election symbols to them along with settling disputes related to it. Advisory jurisdiction: it can advise in the matter of post-election disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures. It issues the Model Code of Conduct in elections for political parties and candidates. Model Code of Conduct: a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission of India for the conduct of political parties and candidates during elections. It sets limits of campaign expenditure per candidate to all the political parties and also monitors the same. MUST READ: Finance Commission SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean? (2023) The principle of natural justice The procedure established by law Fair application of law Equality before law Q.2) With reference to the Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements : (2023) When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill. When the Lok Sabha transmits the Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None MAINS Forced Displacement Syllabus Mains: GS II – Human Resources and GS III – Internal Security Context: The UN defines refugees as those individuals who have fled their own countries because of persecution, war, or violence. A refugee has a well-founded fear of persecution for reasons of race, religion, nationality, political opinion, or membership in a particular social group. Most likely, they cannot return home or are afraid to do so. War and ethnic, tribal, and religious violence are leading causes of refugees fleeing their countries. Statistics about Displacement According to UNHCR’s statistics on forced displacement, the number of people who were forced to flee their homes due to persecution, conflict, violence, human rights violations and events seriously disturbing public order reached a record 108.4 million by the end of 2022, and 30% of them were children. The main driver of displacement in 2022 was the full-scale war in Ukraine, which erupted in February 2022 and created the fastest and one of the largest displacement crises since World War II. By the end of 2022, a total of 11.6 million Ukrainians remained displaced, including 5.9 million within their country and 5.7 million who fled to neighbouring countries and beyond. In addition to conflict and violence, climate change and natural disasters also triggered displacement and exacerbated the vulnerability of displaced populations. Climate disasters caused 32.6 million internal displacements throughout 2022 and 8.7 million of the people did not manage to return home by the end of the year. Disaster related internal displacement accounted for more than half (54%) of all new displacements in 2022. Causes of Displacement Conflict and War: People often flee their homes when violence and warfare break out in their region, as they fear for their safety and the safety of their families. Ukrainian displacement is an example of it. Persecution: Persecution based on factors such as political beliefs, religion, ethnicity, race, nationality, or membership in a particular social group can force people to become refugees. For Example – Rohingya Muslims Human Rights Violations: Gross human rights violations, including torture, discrimination, and denial of basic freedoms, can lead individuals or communities to seek refuge in other countries. For example, Afghanistan people were displaced after the Taliban takeover Environmental Disasters: Natural disasters, such as earthquakes, hurricanes, floods, and droughts, can displace people from their homes. This is often referred to as “environmental displacement” or “climate refugees.” Economic Hardship: Economic instability and extreme poverty can also drive people to become refugees. They may leave their home countries in search of better economic opportunities and living conditions. Political Instability: Political instability, including coups, government oppression, and a lack of democratic governance, can lead to refugee crises as people seek more stable environments. Example Congo refugees. Impact of Forced Displacement on Host Countries Strain on Resources and Services: The sudden influx of refugees can place significant pressure on host communities’ resources and can overburden existing infrastructure, leading to shortages and reduced access for both refugees and host community members. Social Cohesion and Cultural Dynamics: The arrival of refugees may create social tensions and cultural dynamics within host communities. Differences in language, religion, and customs can generate misunderstandings and conflicts. Increased Competition for Jobs: The presence of refugees can lead to competition for employment opportunities in host communities. Some host community members may perceive refugees as taking away jobs or driving down wages, leading to tension and resentment. Current Refugee Situation in India India is home to diverse groups of refugees, ranging from Buddhist Chakmas from the Chittagong Hill Tracts of Bangladesh, to Bhutanese from Nepal, Muslim Rohingyas from Myanmar, and small populations from Somalia, Sudan, and other sub-Saharan African countries. According to the UNHCR, there were 204,600 refugees, asylum seekers, and ‘others of concern’ in India in 2011. They were made up of 13,200 people from Afghanistan, 16,300 from Myanmar, 2,100 from various other countries, and the two older populations of around 100,000 Tibetans and 73,000 Sri Lankan Tamils. The UNHCR financially assisted 31,600 of them. In late 2011, the Rohingya started to arrive in India’s Northeast following stepped-up persecution by the Myanmar’s armed forces. According to the Home Ministry, there are roughly 14,000 Rohingya refugees in Other refugees include Ahmadiyya, Shia, Hazaras from Pakistan and Afghanistan. Conclusion Addressing the root causes of forced displacement requires efforts to resolve conflicts and promote peace. Diplomatic negotiations, mediation, and peace-building initiatives can help prevent further displacement by resolving the underlying issues. Connect the Dots Analyze India’s stance and laws on refugees. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: VENUS MISSIONS COUNTRY Venus Express Europe Vegas USA Magellan Russia How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : NIA builds a database of all terrorist-related information. Statement-II : It is under the Ministry of Defence. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Tuberculosis, consider the following statements: Those who are infected but not (yet) ill with the disease cannot transmit it. Tuberculosis is preventable and curable. It affects only the lungs. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  8th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 7th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 8th November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 7th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Chile Syllabus Prelims – INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS/ GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, Chile became the 95th member of the International Solar Alliance. About Chile:- IMAGE SOURCE: maps-chile.com Capital: Santiago Geography: Situated along the western seaboard of South America. Chile’s relief is for the most part mountainous, with the Andes range dominating the landscape. It borders Peru to the north, Bolivia to the northeast, Argentina to the east, and the Drake Passage in the south. The Atacama desert is one of the driest places in the world that touches Chile on its northern side and is a source of sodium nitrate fertilizer. Much of northern Chile is desert; the central part of the country is a temperate region where the bulk of the population lives and where the larger cities, including Santiago, are located. South-central Chile, with a lake and forest region, is temperate, humid, and suitable for grain cultivation; and the southernmost third of the country, cut by deep fjords, is an inhospitable region—cold, wet, windy, and limited in resources. Climate and Natural events: A land of extreme natural events: volcanic eruptions, violent earthquakes, and tsunamis. Fierce winter storms and flash floods alternate with severe summer droughts. Economy: It is based on primary economic activities: agricultural production; copper, iron, and nitrate mining; and the exploitation of sea resources. Chuquicamata is the World’s largest copper town in Chile. Australia, Chile, China and Argentina are the world’s top four lithium-producing countries. MUST READ: Renewable Energy Transition SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a: (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organisations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by the United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2016) The International Solar Alliance was launched at the United Nations Climate Change Conference in 2015. The Alliance includes all the member countries of the United Nations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Zika Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recent genomic studies are opening new windows into understanding the complex interplay of Zika infections. About Zika:- The Zika virus is a mosquito-borne flavivirus. It was first identified in Uganda in 1947 in monkeys. It was later identified in humans in 1952 in Uganda and the United Republic of Tanzania. Most infections in humans are asymptomatic or with mild symptoms, including fever, rash, and joint pain. Transmission:- It is primarily transmitted to humans through the bite of infected Aedes mosquitoes, particularly Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus. It can also spread through sexual contact, blood transfusion, and from an infected mother to her baby during pregnancy or childbirth. The Zika virus became notorious during the 2015-2018 outbreak that swept through the Americas. The outbreak was characterized by an alarming increase in the number of microcephaly cases in newborns, prompting the World Health Organization to declare it a public health emergency of international concern in early 2016. Treatment:- There is no vaccine or medicine for Zika. Instead, the focus is on relieving symptoms and includes rest, rehydration and acetaminophen for fever and pain. MUST READ: Controlling Dengue Using Wolbachia Bacteria SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2022) Aarogya Setu COWIN DigiLocker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Apollo 13 Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, Ken Mattingly, an astronaut who helped the Apollo 13 crew return safely home, died at age 87. He is best remembered for his efforts on the ground that helped bring the damaged Apollo 13 spacecraft safely back to Earth. About Apollo 13:- Launched: April 11, 1970 Launched from: Cape Canaveral, Florida. Agency: NASA (India – USA space cooperation) Rocket: Saturn V SA-508 rocket Seventh manned mission in the Apollo Space program (1961-1975). Its crew consisted of astronauts James Lovell Jr, Fred Haise Jr, and John Swigert Jr. Apollo 11 and 12 – the previous two missions had landed on Lunar Maria, the dark patches on the near side of the Moon which provide comparatively easier landing abilities. (Moon’s Wobble Effect) Apollo 13 was supposed to make a more challenging landing near the Fra Mauro, a crater which was formed as ejecta from the impact that formed the Imbrium Basin. While Apollo 13 did not land on the lunar surface, it was able to return with photographs that it took when it looped around the Moon. MUST READ: Luna 25 mission SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022) GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur in equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4, and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6, and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6, and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on it. Egyptian Vulture Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, an Egyptian Vulture was rescued and is showing signs of improvement. About Egyptian Vulture:- Scientific name: Neophorn Percnopterus Conservation status:- IUCN – Endangered (Vulture Conservation) It is a native bird of Europe, Central Asia and Africa, and in winter, it travels towards Asian countries, including India. They feed mainly on carrion but are opportunistic and will prey on small mammals, birds, and reptiles. They also feed on the eggs of other birds. It is considerably smaller than the other vultures in Europe. Adult animals have a bald yellow head and throat, and a white collar. The plumage is a creamy white, in sharp contrast with the black wing coverts. Young birds are brown with paler wing coverts and slowly whiten with each mould. These are monogamous, migrating between breeding seasons as a pair. MUST READ: Himalayan Vulture SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1. Consider the following ‘fauna: (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels: (2023) They build nests by making burrows in the ground. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground. They are omnivorous. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None 54th International Film Festival of India (IFFI) Syllabus Prelims – ART AND CULTURE In News: The British film ‘Catching Dust’ will be opening at the 54th International Film Festival of India (IFFI). The American film ‘The Featherweight’ will be the closing movie The Turkish film ‘About Dry Grasses’ will be the midfest movie. About the 54th International Film Festival of India (IFFI):- An annual event since Venue: Goa Organized by: National Film Development Corporation of India Ltd (NFDC) Ministry: Ministry of Information and Broadcasting Recognized by the International Federation of Film Producers Associations (FIAPF) as a Competitive Feature Film Festival Objectives:- Provide a common platform for filmmakers of the world to project their excellence in film art. Contribute to the understanding and appreciation of film cultures of different nations in the context of their social and cultural ethos Promote friendship and co-operation among people of the world. Awards: Satyajit Ray Lifetime Achievement Award for Excellence in Cinema: Instituted in the name of legendry filmmaker Satyajit Ray Indian Film Personality of the Year Award ICFT UNESCO – Gandhi Medal Award: Given to a film reflecting UNESCO’s fundamental mandate of building peace in the minds of men and women, particularly human rights. MUST READ: Kochi-Muziris Biennale: Art exhibition and festival SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 PM Vishwakarma scheme Syllabus Prelims – GOVERNANCE Context: The Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Ministry started the Training of Master Trainers and Assessors Programme under the PM Vishwakarma scheme recently. About PM Vishwakarma scheme:- Launched: 2023 Ministry: Ministry of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME) It is a Central Sector Scheme. Objectives of PM Vishwakarma scheme:- To strengthen and nurture the Guru-Shishya parampara or family-based practice of traditional skills by artisans and craftspeople working with their hands and tools. To improve the quality, as well as the reach of products and services of artisans and craftspeople. To ensure that the Vishwakarmas are integrated with the domestic and global value chains. IMAGE SOURCE: oneindia.com Salient Features:- The artisans and craftspeople will be provided recognition through a PM Vishwakarma certificate and ID card. Credit Support: Credit of up to Rs.1 lakh (First Tranche) and Rs.2 lakh (Second Tranche) will be given with a concessional interest rate of 5%. Skill learning: The Scheme will further provide Skill Upgradation, Toolkit Incentives, Incentives for Digital Transactions, and Marketing Support. Training: Skill development programs encompass both basic and advanced training. Stipend: Participants are entitled to a stipend of Rs 500 per day during their training period. Modern Tools and Equipment: Beneficiaries are eligible for financial support of up to ₹15,000 to procure modern tools, enhancing their efficiency and productivity. Sectors: Eighteen traditional trades will be covered in the first instance under PM Vishwakarma. These trades include (i) Carpenter (Suthar); (ii) Boat Maker; (iii) Armourer; (iv) Blacksmith (Lohar); (v) Hammer and Tool Kit Maker; (vi) Locksmith; (vii) Goldsmith (Sonar); (viii) Potter (Kumhaar); (ix) Sculptor (Moortikar, stone carver), Stone breaker; (x) Cobbler(Charmkar)/ Shoesmith/Footwear artisan; (xi) Mason (Rajmistri); (xii) Basket/Mat/Broom Maker/Coir Weaver; (xiii) Doll & Toy Maker (Traditional); (xiv) Barber (Naai); (xv) Garland maker (Malakaar); (xvi) Washerman (Dhobi); (xvii) Tailor (Darzi); and (xviii) Fishing Net Maker. It caters to both urban and rural areas, facilitating employment. (MSME Sustainable (ZED) Certification Scheme) Eligibility Criteria: – Indian Citizenship: Applicants must be Indian. Artisan or Craftsman: The applicant should be a traditional artisan or craftsman. Age Limit: No Age Limit for applying to the scheme. (Production Linked Incentive Scheme and its Implications) MUST READ: PM SVANidhi scheme SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents, and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements : (2018) It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 MAINS States In Court Against Their Governors Syllabus Mains – GS II – INDIAN CONSTITUTION Context: A battery of non-BJP ruled States have approached the Supreme Court accusing their Governors of using a non-existent discretion to unreasonably delay the passing of crucial Bills into law. The Bills in limbo cover sectors such as public health, higher education, Lokayukta and cooperative societies. Governor’s Power Over State Bills: Article 200 Article 200 of the Indian Constitution outlines the process for a Bill passed by the Legislative Assembly of a State to be presented to the Governor for assent, who may either assent, withhold assent or reserve the Bill for consideration by the President. The Governor may also return the Bill with a message requesting reconsideration by the House or Houses. Article 201 It states that when a Bill is reserved for the consideration of the President, the President may assent to, or withhold assent from the Bill. The President may also direct the Governor to return the Bill to the House or Houses of the Legislature of the State for reconsideration. Options Available with the Governor He may give assent, or he can send it back to the Assembly requesting it to reconsider some provisions of the Bill, or the Bill itself. He may reserve the bill for the consideration of the President. The reservation is obligatory where the bill passed by the state legislature endangers the position of the state’s High Court. However, the Governor can also reserve the bill if it is of the following nature: Against the provisions of the Constitution Opposed to the DPSP Against the larger interest of the country Of grave national importance Deals with compulsory acquisition of property under Article 31A of the Constitution. Another option is to withhold the assent, this is the accusation being made by various state governments. Example in Kerala Governor withhold his assent for over eight bills passed by its Legislative Assembly not for months, but years. Of the eight, three Bills were waiting for the Governor’s word for over two years. Governors Discretion Power The Supreme Court in the Shamsher Singh case verdict has held that as a formal head of the State a “Governor exercises all his powers and functions conferred on him by or under the Constitution on the aid and advice of his Council of Ministers; save in spheres where the Governor is required by or under the Constitution to exercise his functions in his discretion.”  The assent or return of the Bill does not involve the discretion of individuals occupying the Governor’s post. Constitutional Discretion When they have to reserve the bill for the consideration of the President of India, Governors can decide on their own without the advice of the Council of Ministers When he has to recommend for the President’s rule in the state, he can act at his own discretion When he is given an additional charge as the administrator of the Union Territory, he can take actions at his own discretion When he has to determine the amount payable by the Government of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram to an autonomous Tribal District Council as royalty accruing from licenses for mineral exploration When he calls upon the Chief Minister to seek information regarding administrative and legislative affairs Situational Discretion When he has to appoint a Chief Minister after no party has a clear majority in the election or when the incumbent dies in the office When he dismisses the council of ministers on an inability to prove confidence in the state legislative assembly When he dissolves the state legislative assembly on time when it loses its majority Supreme Court’s Stand In 1972 judgment in Durga Pada Ghosh versus State of West Bengal, the Supreme Court had interpreted “as soon as possible” in Article 200 to mean “as early as practicable without avoidable delay.” SC in recent petition filed by the Punjab government accusing the Governor of sitting on seven key Bills related to subjects including fiscal and State-affiliated colleges, has noted that the Governors should not be oblivious of the fact that they are not elected by the people.” The 1988 Sarkaria Commission report on Centre-State relations had suggested consultation with the Governor while drafting the Bill and fixing a deadline for its disposal. Conclusion The framers of the Constitution did not anticipate Governors sitting on Bills indefinitely without taking any action under Article 200. Gubernatorial Procrastination is a new phenomenon that requires a new solution within the framework of the Constitution. Therefore, the Supreme Court should set a reasonable time frame for Governors to make a decision on a Bill passed by the Assembly in the interest of federalism in the country. Connect the dots: Whether the Supreme Court judgement can settle the political tussle between the Governors and elected governments of states? Examine. Net Neutrality In Internet Access Syllabus    Mains –GS III – ECONOMY What Is Net Neutrality? Net neutrality is the principle that Internet access providers must treat all traffic originating from and terminating to the Internet in the same way. The idea has been developed by Columbia Law School professor Tim Wu, he coined the term “net neutrality” in a 2003 paper titled “Network Neutrality, Broadband Discrimination.” Wu proposed the concept of net neutrality to promote an even playing field on the Internet, ensuring that all data is treated equally without discrimination by Internet service providers (ISPs) Why In News? The OTT consultation has renewed the clamor from the telecom companies that content providers such as Netflix, Amazon Prime, and Disney+ Hotstar be asked to share in the costs of bandwidth. They argue that streaming platforms are free riders, benefiting from the infrastructure built and maintained by the telecom companies. However, this argument is fundamentally flawed and sets a dangerous precedent that undermines the principle of net neutrality. Argument Between Telecom And Ott By offering services that consumer’s desire, OTT platforms generate demand for Internet access. They also pay for the content delivery networks (CDNs) to create pathways that substantially augment the capacity of the internet to deliver their content. Telecom companies capitalize on this demand (and the availability of OTT content) by providing connectivity to the Internet and charging subscribers for it. OTT services compete in their own market on the basis of variety and quality of content, the quality of streaming (such as, support for HD or better resolution or 5.1 surround sound), ease in navigation and discovery of content, and its availability on multiple devices. Similarly, in the marketplace for Internet access, the consumers are free to choose the provider that offers them the highest bandwidth, data volume, and reliability at an affordable price. These are distinct markets because services from one are not substitutable for services in the other. Therefore, it is logical to maintain a separation of costs between these two markets. The attempt of telcos to double dip by charging both consumers and content providers is not only avaricious but also undermines net neutrality. TRAI Regulations Net neutrality formed the basis of TRAI’s regulation on prohibition of discriminatory tariffs for data services. The regulator’s action forced the withdrawal of Facebook’s Free Basics platform and some other offerings in India. The Body of European Regulators for Electronic Communications (BEREC) and TRAI agreed through a memorandum of understanding to cooperate in developing technological and policy initiatives for net neutrality. Penetration of Internet in India According to a joint report by industry body IAMAI and market data analytics firm Kantar, more than half of Indians, 759 million citizens, are active internet users and access the internet at least once a month. The active internet base in India is expected to grow to 900 million by 2025 OTT Subscribers In India Each OTT paying audience member in India has 2.4 subscriptions on an average, according to Ormax OTT Audience Sizing Report 2022. The consultancy firm estimates that India has 424 million OTT users. On the other hand, India has an approximate 150 million households with TVs, which translates to 600 million TV viewers. The study also showed that 72 per cent consumers in India would pay for an all-in-one platform for their entertainment services. In addition, five in six (83 per cent) want the ability to share their streaming profiles across platforms to allow for better personalization of content. Connect the Dots  1.Do you think self-regulation of OTT is a appropriate step? Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Disease Caused by Small Pox Variola virus Tetanus Clostridium tetani Whooping Cough Bordetella pertussis How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Apollo 13 was the seventeenth manned mission in the Apollo Space program. Statement-II : It used the Saturn V SA-508 rocket. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the PM Vishwakarma scheme, consider the following statements: It is under the Ministry of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME). It is a Centrally sponsored scheme. It caters to only rural areas, facilitating employment. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  7th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 6th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – a