Nov 7, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 6th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) NITI Aayog Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: Recently, NITI Aayog organised a workshop on the theme “Inclusive Trade for Prosperity”. Background:- NITI Aayog organized a one-day workshop on the theme “Inclusive Trade for Prosperity”. Date: 6th November 2023. Venue: Hotel Taj Mahal, New Delhi. This workshop is part of a series of 10 feeder thematic workshops being held on varied themes discussed in the G20 New Delhi Leaders’ Declaration (NDLD). About NITI Aayog:- Establishment: 2015. HQ: New Delhi. NITI Aayog was established on 1st Jan 2015. Before NITI Aayog, there was a Planning Commission formed on 15 March 1950. The Planning Commission was non-constitutional. It serves as an advisory Think Tank. It focuses upon a ‘Bottom-Up’ approach to Planning. It does not possess mandate to impose policies. Objectives NITI Aayog:- Shared vision and participation of both central and state governments for the national development of sectors. Cooperative federalism. Credible Planning Focusing on the weaker sections Making Strategies and long-term policies Innovation for creating knowledge. Technology up-gradation Composition of NITI Aayog:- Chairperson: Prime Minister. Vice-Chairperson: To be appointed by the Prime Minister. Governing Council: Chief Ministers of all states and Lt. Governors of Union Territories. Regional Council: To address specific regional issues, Comprising Chief Ministers and Lt. Governors Chaired by the Prime Minister or his nominee. Adhoc Membership: 2 members in ex-officio capacity from leading Research institutions on a rotational basis. Ex-Officio membership: Maximum four from the Union Council of ministers to be nominated by the Prime minister. Chief Executive Officer: Appointed by the Prime Minister for a fixed tenure, in the rank of Secretary to the Government of India. Special Invitees: Experts and specialists with domain knowledge nominated by the Prime-minister. Functions:- Policy Formulation Monitoring and Evaluation Inter-governmental Coordination Promoting Reforms Research and Knowledge Sharing MUST READ: NITI AAYOG -TRIFED join hands for successful implementation SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following infrastructure sectors: (2023) Affordable housing Mass rapid transport Health care Renewable energy On how many of the above does the UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus on its investments? Only one Only two · Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana : (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four SURAT Warship Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: Recently, the Crest unveiling ceremony of the Indian Navy’s Warship “SURAT”. Background:- The Crest of Indian Navy’s latest, indigenous under-construction, guided missile destroyer, ‘Surat’, is scheduled to be unveiled by Shri Bhupendra Patel, the Chief Minister of Gujarat in the presence of Adm R Hari Kumar, the Chief of the Naval Staff, at a ceremony to be held in the city of Surat on 06 November 2023. About SURAT:- Constructed by: Mazagon Docks Shipbuilders Ltd. Mumbai. Naming: The Destroyer has been named after Gujarat’s commercial capital- Surat, which has a rich maritime and ship-building history. INS Surat is the fourth and the last ship of the Project 15B Indian Navy Destroyers. These are called the Visakhapatnam class after the lead vessel INS Visakhapatnam. The Indian Naval Destroyers are named after Indian cities as per the naval tradition. It began with Project 15, under which three destroyers were built: INS Delhi in 1997, INS Mysore in 1999 and INS Mumbai in 2001. Project 15 was followed by the three-destroyer Project 15A, under which INS Kolkata was commissioned in 2014, INS Kochi in 2015 and INS Chennai in 2016. It was followed by the ‘Project 15B’ programme involves the construction of four next-generation stealth-guided missile destroyers, of which ‘Surat’ is the fourth and the last ship. Under project 15-B:- The first: INS Visakhapatnam. The second: INS Mormugao. The third: INS Imphal. The fourth: INS Surat. While INS Morm­ugao will be commissioned in 2022, INS Imphal will be commissioned in 2023 and INS Surat is likely to be commissioned in 2024, all at one-year intervals. INS Surat has been built using Block construction methodology that involves hull construction in two different locations and then joined together at one hub. It is a Guided-missile destroyer. This is the first capital warship to be named after the city of Gujarat. Significance:- Construction of this warship testifies to the nation’s dedication to indigenous cutting-edge warship-building technology and commitment to strategic military advancements. MUST READ: Dunagiri, a Project 17A Frigate SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018) PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only Pradhanmantri Sangrahalaya Syllabus Prelims – ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, Shuttle Bus service began from Metro Stations to Pradhanmantri Sangrahalaya. Background:- The visitors were experiencing issues with connectivity between metro stations and Sangrahalaya. About Pradhanmantri Sangrahalaya:- Location: Teen Murti, New Delhi. The Pradhanmantri Sangrahalaya is a tribute to every Prime Minister of India since Independence. It is a narrative record of how each one has contributed to the development of our nation over the last 75 years. It is a history of collective effort and powerful evidence of the creative success of India’s democracy. The Teen Murti Estate, home to India’s first Prime Minister Shri Jawaharlal Nehru for 16 years, was the natural environment for Pradhanmantri Sangrahalaya, because this is a story of continuity. Nehru Memorial Museum & Library (NMML) The Sangrahalaya is a seamless blend which begins at the renovated and refurbished Nehru Museum building, now completely updated and technologically advanced displays on the life and contribution of Shri Jawaharlal Nehru. The new panorama includes a section which exhibits a large number of rare gifts received by him from all over. The saga of modern India starts with the freedom struggle and the making of a great Constitution. The Sangrahalaya goes on to tell the story of how our Prime Ministers navigated the nation through various challenges and ensured the all-round progress of the country. Significance:- Our Prime Ministers came from every class and tier of society, it shows us the gates of democracy were equally open to all. MUST READ: National Council of Science Museums (NCSM) SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements is correct? (2021) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora River. Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of the Chambal River. Pandu – lena cave shrines lie in the gorge of the Narmada River. Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of the Godavari River. Enforcement Directorate (ED) Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, the Government banned some illegal betting platforms on  Enforcement Directorate’s (ED) request. Background:- In an order , the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology blocked 22 illegal betting apps and websites including Mahadev Book and Reddyannaprestopro. About Enforcement Directorate (ED):- Establishment: 1956. Headquarters: New Delhi The Enforcement Directorate is a multi-disciplinary organization founded in 1956. It is a law enforcement organization tasked with enforcing economic laws and combating economic crime in India, such as money laundering and foreign exchange irregularities. It works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. The functions of the Directorate include the enforcement of the following Acts:- The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA) ( Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) 2002) The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA): A civil law under which ED conducts an investigation into suspected contraventions of foreign exchange laws and regulations. (Foreign Exchange Management Act) The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act 1973 Sponsoring Organizations under the 1974 Foreign Exchange Conservation and Smuggling Activity Prevention Act The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 (FEOA): A law whereby the Directorate is mandated to attach the properties of the fugitive economic offenders who have escaped from India warranting arrest and providing for the confiscation of their properties to the Central Government. (Fugitive Economic Offenders) Director of Enforcement:- Appointed by the central government on the recommendation of a committee chaired by the Central Vigilance Commissioner and members comprising of Vigilance Commissioners, Home Secretary, Secretary DOPT and Revenue Secretary. Tenure: up to 5 years. Recruitment of other officers:- Other officers may be recruited directly from other investigative agencies or indirectly. It is made up of representatives from the police, excise, customs, and income tax departments of the Indian Revenue Services (IRS), the Indian Police Services (IPS), and the Indian Administrative Services (IAS). MUST READ:  CBI and ED SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Chief Information Commissioner Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, Information Commissioner Heeralal Samariya was sworn-in as the new Chief Information Commissioner of the Central Information Commission. Background:- President Droupadi Murmu administered the oath of office to him at Rashtrapati Bhavan. Mr. Samariya was currently serving as the Information Commissioner in the Central Information Commission. About Central Information Commission (CIC):- Establishment:2005. The CIC was constituted in 2005 under the Right to Information Act, 2005. The RTI Act 2005 provides for the constitution of a Central Information Commission and State Information Commissions in each state. Jurisdiction: the Commission extends over all Central Public Authorities. The Right to Information (Amendment) Act, of 2019 amended the Right to Information Act, of 2005. The RTI Act, of 2005 specified the tenure, terms of service, and salaries of the Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) and Information Commissioners (ICs) at the central and state levels, in the parent law. Structure:- The Central Information Commission shall consist of: The Chief Information Commissioner (CIC). Members: Such numbers of Central Information Commissioners (ICs), not exceeding ten, as may be deemed necessary. The members shall be persons of eminence in public life with wide knowledge and experience in law, science and technology, social service, management, journalism, mass media or administration and Governance. The CIC or IC shall not be an MP or MLA or hold any other office of profit connected with any political party carrying on any business or pursuing any profession. Appointment: The members of the commission are appointed by a committee consisting of the PM (as Chair), the Leader of Opposition (LoP) in Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister appointed by the Prime Minister. Tenure: The CIC and ICs (at the central and state level) will hold office for a term of three years. Resignation: The CIC or an IC may, at any time, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign from his office. Removal: The CIC or an IC may be removed from office only by order of the President on the grounds of proven misbehaviour or incapacity after the Supreme Court, on a reference made to it by the President, reports that he/she should be removed on the grounds mentioned. The President may also remove them from office if such a person is adjudged insolvent, convicted for certain offences etc. They are not eligible for reappointment. Power and Functions:- To receive and inquire into a complaint from any person regarding information requested under the RTI act. It can order an inquiry into any matter if there are reasonable grounds (suo-moto power). While inquiring, the Commission has the powers of a civil court in respect of summoning, requiring documents, etc. Adjudication in the second appeal for giving information. Direction for record-keeping. Imposition of penalties and Monitoring and Reporting including preparation of an Annual MUST READ: Its time to review the Right To Information (RTI) Act SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following organizations/ bodies in India: (2023) The National Commission for Backward Classes The National Human Rights Commission The National Law Commission The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Pancorius sebastiani Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT ANDECOLOGY Context: Recently, a new species of jumping spiders’ Pancorius sebastiani’ has been discovered. Background:- It has been discovered from the Western Ghats. About Pancorius sebastiani:- Naming: It has been named Pancorius sebastiani after the late spider taxonomist P.A. Distribution: southeast Asia. Its distribution was hitherto limited to the east and northeastern regions in India. The new species is the first to be reported from the south. The males and the females exhibit reddish brown carapace. They have yellowish abdomen with black patches and chevron-shaped markings posteromedially. It belongs to the jumping spider genus Pancorius Simon, and Salticidae family. Only two States, West Bengal and Tamil Nadu, have reported high numbers of Salticidae species, while the others including those harbouring biodiversity hotspots like the Western Ghats and northeastern India have relatively few numbers of species. MUST READ: Six spider species discovered SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood? (2023) Fishing cat Orangutan Otter Sloth bear Q.2) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Falling Farm Export Syllabus Mains – GS III – Agriculture & Economy Context: India’s agriculture exports have fallen 11.6% from April to September, due to various bans/restrictions on the shipments of various commodities from wheat and rice to sugar and global prices easing from their peaks scaled immediately after Russia’s invasion of Ukraine. According to department of commerce data Exports of farm commodities, at $23.6 Billion in April-Sept 2023, were $26.7 for the same period in 2022. Imports fell too, from $19.3 Billion to $16.2 Billion, resulting in a marginal dip in the agricultural trade surplus. The years 2021-22 and 2022-23 also saw record imports of $32.4 Billion and $35.7 Billion respectively. Impact of Global Prices UN Food and Agriculture Organization’s Food Price Index rose from an average of 96.5 points in 2019-20 to 139.5 points in 2022-23. India’s agricultural exports fell from $43.3 Billion in 2013-14 to $35.6 Billion in 2019-20. With world prices coming down, the value of both exports and imports of farm commodities are set to decline 2023-24. FAO has projected global ending cereal stocks from 2023-24 at an all-time high of 881.1 Million tonnes (mt) and the stocks-to-use ratio at 30.7%. Issues with Indian Farm Exports Quality and Standards Compliance: Indian agricultural exports often struggle to meet international quality and safety standards. The lack of uniform and consistently enforced quality control measures can result in rejections and bans of Indian agricultural products in international markets. Infrastructure and Logistics: Inefficient transportation, storage, and distribution systems can lead to post-harvest losses and higher costs. This affects the overall competitiveness of Indian farm exports. Lack of Cold Chain Facilities: A significant portion of perishable agricultural produce is lost due to inadequate cold storage and transportation facilities. This restricts the export potential of items like fruits and vegetables. Pest and Disease Concerns: Some countries place phytosanitary restrictions on Indian agricultural products due to concerns about pests and diseases. Ensuring pest-free produce can be a challenge. Trade Barriers and Tariffs: Non-tariff trade barriers, as well as tariffs and import restrictions, can affect the market access for Indian agricultural exports in various countries. Price Volatility: Fluctuations in commodity prices, both in domestic and international markets, can affect the profitability of Indian farm exports. Small and Marginal Farmers: The average land holding of Indian farmer is 1.8 Acres. Hence it limit their capacity to adopt modern agricultural practices and access export markets. Aggregation and coordination are often needed for effective exports. Conclusion Addressing these issues requires a multi-faceted approach involving government policies, private sector participation, research and development, and investment in infrastructure and technology. Moreover, enhancing the quality and safety of agricultural products, as well as streamlining export procedures, can help improve the competitiveness of Indian farm exports in the global market. Connect the Dots  Analyze different government policies to enhance Indian exports. National Security Strategy Syllabus Mains – GS III – Internal Security What is National Security Strategy (NSS)? A NSS document outlines the country’s security objectives, and the ways to achieve them. It defines traditional and non-traditional threats and opportunities while introducing accountability for agencies tasked with the implementation of various responsibilities. It means NSS would guide the military as well as critical Defence and security reforms, providing a holistic view of the overall National Security, the threats, and the roadmap to address them. Need For NSS The NSS is poised to encompass a broad spectrum of contemporary challenges, including financial and economic security, food and energy security, information warfare, critical information infrastructure vulnerabilities, supply chain concerns, and environmental issues. Complex nature of various traditional and non-traditional threats, especially amid rising geopolitical uncertainties, there is a need for new NSS. National security cannot be confined to the use of the state’s coercive power to overcome domestic and external threats. For example, threats to domestic peace and stability may arise from economic and social grievances. A knee-jerk reaction may leave the grievances unaddressed while the use of coercive power exacerbates rather than ameliorates the situation. For instance, left-wing extremism in India is rooted in the persistent exploitation of tribal populations. Similarly, the vulnerability of our borders is linked to a large-scale smuggling and contraband trade. Such threats cannot be dealt with solely through enhanced military capabilities without addressing the drivers of illegal trade. For a modern state operating in an increasingly globalized world, the line between what is domestic and what is external is becoming increasingly blurred. For example, terrorism is a threat to domestic security but may have external links. Thus, a combination of domestic and external interventions may be necessary. It is only within a comprehensive NSS that such complex inter-relationships between domestic and external dimensions can be analysed and coordinated policy responses formulated. Past Attempts and Hurdles Failed Attempts: India has previously made three attempts to develop a national security strategy, all without fruition. Political Hesitation: Some speculate that hesitation at the political level, driven by concerns about accountability in defence management, may have impeded the strategy’s release. Varied Views: There have been differing views within the strategic community regarding the absence of a national security strategy, ranging from a lack of cohesive government efforts to intentional non-disclosure of national security objectives. Global Precedents Established Nations with NSS: Developed nations with robust military and security infrastructures maintain National Security Strategies, updated periodically. The United States, the United Kingdom, and Russia have published their NSS. China’s Comprehensive National Security: China has a closely integrated Comprehensive National Security strategy, tightly linked to its governance structure. Pakistan’s National Security Policy: Pakistan recently unveiled a National Security Policy for 2022-2026, outlining its national security objectives and priorities. Conclusion National security strategies are critical for guiding a nation’s security apparatus and ensuring that resources are effectively allocated to protect the country’s interests. They serve as a blueprint for government agencies, military forces, and other stakeholders to work together in pursuit of national security goals. Connect the Dots How the technological innovation in Defence sector helping us to combat traditional and non-traditional challenges? Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Navy Warships Type INS Sindhuvijay Frigates INS Mysore Submarines INS Vikran Aircraft Carrier How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Pradhanmantri Sangrahalaya is located in New Delhi. Statement-II : It is a tribute to only the first  Prime Minister of India, Shri Jawaharlal Nehru. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the NITI Aayog, consider the following statements: It possesses a mandate to impose policies. Its Headquarters are in Mumbai. It focuses upon a ‘Bottom-Up’ approach to Planning. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only and 3 only 2 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  6th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 4th November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – d

Nov 7, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 4th November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Cuba Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS/GEOGRAPHY Context: The UN General Assembly recently, voted against US’ economic and trade embargo against Cuba. Background:- A total of 187 states voted for the resolution put forward against the embargo with only the US and Israel voting against and Ukraine abstaining. The UN General Assembly voiced concern that despite its resolutions dating back to 1992 the economic, commercial and financial embargo against Cuba is still in place and that the adverse effects of such measures are on the Cuban people and on Cuban nationals living in other countries. The US Representative said the nation recognizes the challenges the Cuban people face, explaining that sanctions include exemptions and authorizations relating to exports of food, medicines, and other humanitarian goods to Cuba. The General Assembly reiterated its call for all states to refrain from promulgating and applying such restrictive laws and measures, in line with their obligations under the UN Charter and international law. The United States embargo against Cuba prevents US businesses, and businesses organized under US law or majority-owned by US citizens, from conducting trade with Cuban interests. The US’ economic and trade embargo against Cuba was first imposed in 1960. (US – Cuba Relations) About Cuba:- IMAGE SOURCE: WorldAtlas Continent: North America. Capital: Havana. Neighboring Countries: Jamaica, Haiti, Bahamas, Dominican Republic. Cuba, a country in the West Indies. It is the largest single island of the archipelago. Spanish is the principal language of Cuba. Cuba is a multicultural, largely urban nation. Groups of mountains and hills cover about one-fourth of the island of Cuba. The plains covering about two-thirds of the main island have been used extensively for sugarcane and tobacco cultivation and livestock raising. Cuban topography and geology have produced at least 13 distinct groups of soils, the majority of which are fertile and cultivated throughout the year. The annual mean temperature is 79 °F (26 °C). Tropical plant life includes thousands of flowering plant species, half of which may be endemic to the archipelago. Animal life is abundant and varied in Cuba, which is the habitat of numerous small mammals and reptiles, more than 7,000 insect species, and 4,000 species of land, river, and sea molluscs. About India-Cuba relations:- India-Cuba relations have been traditionally warm and friendly. India was amongst the first countries to recognize Cuba after the 1959 Revolution. Both countries have maintained close contacts with each other in various international fora, such as the UN, NAM, WTO, etc. India supports resolutions in the UN General Assembly calling for the lifting of US sanctions against Cuba. Cuba supports India’s inclusion as a permanent member in the restructured UN Security Council. India and Cuba have signed agreements on Bilateral Trade, Cultural, S&T, Standardization, Sports, Renewable Energy and Consumer Protection and Cultural Exchange Program. Commercial Relations:- India-Cuba two-way trade which used to be around USD 300 million annually in the 1980s, saw a steep fall following the demise of the former USSR and changes in India’s economic policies in the 1990s. Economic Relations:- India’s major export items to Cuba are pharmaceutical products, organic chemicals, plastic & rubber articles, machinery and mechanical appliances, etc., while major import items from Cuba are pharmaceutical products, tobacco items, raw hides and skins, leather, etc. Cultural Relations:- Yoga and Vipassana meditation are practised and the former forms part of the health curriculum of the Government. MUST READ: Indo-Pacific Relations SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin? (2023) Cameroon Nigeria South Sudan Uganda Q.2) With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements: (2022) A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from a baseline determined in accordance with the convention. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Earthquake Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, a magnitude-6.4 earthquake was witnessed in Nepal. Background:- In Nepal, at least 128 people were killed and 140 injured when a magnitude-6.4 earthquake shook the northwestern part of the country late last night, officials said. About Earthquake:- IMAGE SOURCE: SlideServe An earthquake is the shaking or trembling of the earth’s surface. It is caused by the seismic waves or earthquake waves that are generated due to a sudden movement (sudden release of energy) in the earth’s crust (shallow-focus earthquakes) or upper mantle (some shallow-focus and all intermediate and deep-focus earthquakes). A seismograph, or seismometer, is an instrument used to detect and record earthquakes. Hypocentre/Focus: The point where the energy is released. Epicentre: The point on the surface directly above the focus. Isoseismic line: A line connecting all points on the surface where the intensity is the same. Causes of Earthquakes:- Fault Zones Plate tectonics Volcanic activity Human-Induced Earthquakes Types of Earthquakes:- Tectonic Earthquakes The most common ones are tectonic earthquakes. The Earth is made of four basic layers (generally three): a solid crust, a hot, nearly solid mantle, a liquid outer core and a solid inner core. Tectonic plates (Lithospheric plates) are constantly shifting as they drift around on the viscous, or slowly flowing, mantle layer below. When tectonic plates move, it also causes movements at the (Anatolian Plate) Thus, the slipping of land along the faultline along convergent, divergent and transform boundaries causes earthquakes. Volcanic Earthquake Earthquakes produced by stress changes in solid rock due to the injection or withdrawal of magma (molten rock) are called volcano earthquakes. Human Induced Earthquakes In areas of intense mining activity, sometimes the roofs of underground mines collapse causing minor tremors. These are called collapse earthquakes. Ground shaking may also occur due to the explosion of chemical or nuclear devices. Such tremors are called explosion earthquakes. MUST READ: (Volcano) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2022) The region often mentioned in the news:   Country Anatolia Turkey Amhara Ethiopia Cabo Delgado Spain Catalonia Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched? Only one pair Only two pairs Only three pairs All four pairs Elephant corridors Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Experts have flagged multiple inconsistencies in the recently published report on elephant corridors of India by the central government. Background:- Elephant corridor report plagued with inconsistencies, could escalate conflict with humans, says expert. About Elephant Corridors:- Elephant corridors are narrow and often linear passageways that enable an elephant to move across suitable and secure natural habitats. Due to the long-ranging nature of Asian elephants, they have an extensive nutritional requirement necessitating connectivity to suitable habitats. Additionally, the population biology and genetics of the species warrant unimpeded gene flow across populations for the long-term viability of the species. In the fragmented landscapes of most elephant habitats in Asia today, corridors play a pivotal role in meeting nutritional, demographic, and genetic needs. These corridors are often surrounded by human settlements, which can lead to human-elephant conflicts when elephants traverse through these areas. Significance:- The significance of these corridors lies in the fact that 3% of them are regularly used by elephants, either throughout the year or seasonally, and 24.7% are used occasionally. Many of these corridors are of high ecological importance, as they facilitate elephant movement and help to sustain a healthy population of these mammals. Methods To Safeguard Elephant Corridors:- To ensure the protection and preservation of elephant corridors, legal safeguards are essential to prevent further habitat fragmentation and an increase in human-elephant conflicts. State governments can take the lead in demarcating and designating these corridors as State Elephant Corridors, thereby subjecting them to legal protection under relevant laws such as the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, and the Environment Protection Act. In addition, it is necessary to engage with local communities and governments to reduce local dependency on corridor land, potentially transforming them into Village Reserve Forests or Community Reserves.  About Elephants:- Elephants are keystone species. They are the Natural Heritage Animal of India. India has the largest number of wild Asian Elephants. Karnataka has the highest elephant population in India. Protection Status:- IUCN Red List of threatened species:- Asian Elephant: Endangered (Elephant Conservation) African Forest Elephant: Critically Endangered African Savanna Elephant: Endangered Convention of the Migratory Species (CMS): Appendix I Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule  MUST READ: (Endangered Asian elephant in Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve) SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following organisms ·perform the waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food? (2023) Butterflies Dragonflies Honeybees Wasps Q.2) Consider the following fauna : (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) stated that prolonged exposure to air pollution in Delhi can cause children to suffer from respiratory diseases. Background:- PM10, and PM2.5 levels cross 5 times the normal levels in the national capital. About Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) :- Established: 1974. Ministry: Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is a statutory organization established under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1974. It was given powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1981. (Air pollution) The CPCB functions as a field formation and offers technical services to the Ministry of Environment and Forests in line with the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 provisions. Its primary roles, as defined in the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, include: (Initiatives and Measures for the Prevention of Air Pollution) Promoting the cleanliness of streams and wells in various regions by preventing, controlling, and mitigating water pollution. Enhancing air quality and preventing, controlling, or mitigating air pollution nationwide. Functions of the Central Board at the National Level:- Advise the Central Government on any matter concerning the prevention and control of water and air pollution and improvement of the quality of air. Co-ordinate the activities of the State Board and resolve disputes among them. Provide technical assistance and guidance to the State Boards, carry out and sponsor investigation and research. Plan and organize training of persons engaged in the programme on the prevention, control or abatement of water and air pollution. Organize through mass media, a comprehensive mass awareness programme on the prevention, control or abatement of water and air pollution; Functions of the Central Board as State Board for the Union Territories:- Advise the Governments of Union Territories with respect to the suitability of any premises or location for carrying on any industry which is likely to pollute a stream or well or cause air pollution. Lay down standards for the treatment of sewage and trade effluents and for emissions from automobiles, industrial plants, and any other polluting source. Evolve efficient methods for disposal of sewage and trade effluents on land; develop reliable and economically viable methods of treatment of sewage, trade effluent and air pollution control equipment. Identify any area or areas within Union Territories as air pollution control areas or areas to be notified under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. Assess the quality of ambient water and air, and inspect wastewater treatment installations, air pollution control equipment, industrial plants or manufacturing processes to evaluate their performance and to take steps for the prevention, control and abatement of air and water pollution.  MUST READ: Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the Guidelines, statements: the context of WHO considers the Air Quality following (2022) The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m³ and the annual mean of PM 2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of inclement weather. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only Q.2) Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution? (2020) Automobile exhaust Tobacco smoke Woodburning Using varnished wooden furniture Using products made of polyurethane Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Diarrhea Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, severe Diarrhea Cases are surging across the UK. Background:- Infections from a parasite which can cause long-lasting, severe diarrhoea have seen an “unprecedented and ongoing” surge across the UK. This increase in infections has been ongoing since mid-August. About Diarrhea:- Diarrhea, or “the runs,” is when one experience loose, watery stools and feel the urgent need to have a bowel movement multiple times a day. Diarrhea can be acute or chronic. Acute diarrhoea occurs when the condition lasts for 1 to 2 days. Chronic diarrhoea refers to having diarrhoea on most days for longer than 3 to 4 weeks. Causes:- viral infections including rotavirus, norovirus, and viral gastroenteritis (Disease Surveillance System) bacterial infections, including Salmonella and E. coli parasitic infections intestinal diseases a food intolerance, such as lactose intolerance an adverse reaction to a medication gallbladder or stomach surgery Symptoms:- nausea abdominal pain cramping bloating dehydration a frequent urge to evacuate your bowels a large volume of stools dehydration Prevention:- Washing hands frequently drinking bottled water only while on vacation eating cooked food only while on vacation MUST READ: Non communicable and communicable diseases SOURCE: SCIENCE ALERT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: (2022) Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only 1 and 3 2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022) They protect the environmental allergens. body They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens. Adaptation Gap Report 2023 Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, Adaptation Gap Report 2023 was released. Key Findings of the Report:- Climate adaptation finance flows from public multilateral (like the World Bank) and bilateral sources (from a developed to a developing nation) declined by 15 per cent to around $21 billion in 2021. (UNEP’s Emission Gap Report 2022) This is despite pledges that were made at the 26th Conference of Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change in Glasgow to double 2019 adaptation finance support to around $40 billion per year by 2025. The adaptation finance gap is widening. Adaptation finance needs are 10–18 times as great as current international public adaptation finance flows. Estimated adaptation costs and needs for developing countries are significantly higher than previous estimates, with a plausible central range of US$215 billion to US$387 billion per year this decade. Five out of six Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) have established at least one national adaptation plan, strategy or policy, and just under half of them have two or more national instruments, that serve to replace or update the initial ones. Adaptation planning and implementation appear to be plateauing. About Adaptation Gap Report 2023:- Published by: It is an annual UNEP flagship publication. It has been published each year since 2014. Objective: to inform the negotiators of the UNFCCC Member States, and the broader UNFCCC constituency, about the status and trends within climate adaptation at global and regional levels. It explores options for ramping up these climate adaptation efforts. The AGR is co-produced by UNEP, the UNEP Copenhagen Climate Centre (UNEP-CCC) and the World Adaptation Science Programme (WASP). Other Major Report of UNEP:- Emissions Gap Report, Global Environment Outlook. MUST READ: National Action Plan for Climate Change SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank Q.2) With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements (2022) It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. It is an initiative to support Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 How Air Pollution Affects Economy Syllabus Mains – GS III – Environment & Economy Context: Conventional wisdom tends to dismiss air pollution as an unavoidable by-product of economic growth. However, in many researches, it is found that air pollution has a direct impact on GDP growth and per capita income levels by reducing work outputs, lowering consumer footfall in consumption-led services, hampering asset productivity, and triggering a surge in health expenses and welfare allocations, especially in the productive age groups. More than 20 of the world’s 30 cities with the worst air pollution are in India. Delhi has the poorest air quality among cities globally, with PM2.5 concentration levels at nearly 10 times the WHO targets. India’s Carbon Emission The leading Carbon emitters US (26%) China(13%) and UK have more than the average, India is fourth with only 3% Despite accelerating Growth rate India’s annual carbon emission is at 0.5 tonnes per capita, which is below global average of 1.3 tonnes per capita. In terms of cumulative emissions India’s contribution by 2020 is only 4% for 1.3 Billion population whereas European Union with a population of 443 M is responsible for emission of 20% According to UN, while the richest 1% of the global population emits more than 2 times the emission of the bottom 50%. India unlike developed countries cannot substitute its coal energy with oil or natural gas despite wind and solar energy they cannot help to maintain manufacturing industry, they can only substitute domestic consumption The Cost Of Poor Air Quality As per latest report on Currency & Finance 2022-23 by RBI’s Department of Economic and Policy Research (DEPR), up to 4.5% of India’s GDP could be at risk by 2030 due to lost labor hours from climate change issues, including extreme heat and humidity. This is relevant because 50% of India’s GDP comes from sectors that are exposed to heat, which is rough approximation for the share of GDP generated by outdoor activities like agriculture. In a report by Blue sky Analytics in partnership with Clean air fund, It was estimated that air pollution entailed costs of about $95 Billion annually for Indian businesses, which is about 3% of India’s GDP. Health Costs: Air pollution can lead to a range of health problems, including respiratory diseases, cardiovascular diseases, and even premature death. The healthcare costs associated with treating these illnesses can be substantial and can strain healthcare systems, leading to increased government spending and reduced productivity as a result of sick days and reduced work capacity. Productivity Loss: When workers are exposed to polluted air, they may experience health issues and discomfort, which can result in more sick days, reduced work performance, and lower overall productivity. This, in turn, can have a negative impact on economic output. Decreased Tourism: Air pollution can deter tourists from visiting polluted areas. Tourism is a significant source of income for many regions, and when air quality is poor, it can deter visitors, resulting in lower revenue for hotels, restaurants, and other tourism-related businesses. Environmental Damage: Air pollution can lead to damage to ecosystems and natural resources, which can have long-term economic consequences. For example, acid rain caused by air pollution can harm forests, lakes, and agriculture, leading to reduced agricultural yields and increased costs for land and water management. Increased Energy Costs: Polluted air can affect the energy sector by reducing the efficiency of power plants and increasing energy consumption. Inefficient energy production and consumption can lead to higher costs for businesses and households, which, in turn, can reduce disposable income and economic growth. Regulations and Compliance Costs: While the regulations are important for public health and environmental protection, they can also lead to compliance costs for businesses, which may need to invest in cleaner technologies or change their operations to meet pollution standards. Innovation and Investment: Investments in renewable energy, clean transportation, and environmental technologies can stimulate economic growth and create a more sustainable and resilient economy. Conclusion Mitigating air pollution through effective policies and investments in clean technologies can help minimize the economic impacts while also improving public health and environmental quality. Investments in clean technologies is crucial to mitigate the air pollution issue throughout the world. Connect the Dots More than 20 of the world’s 30 cities with the worst air pollution are in India. Analyze the reasons behind this. Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) and Higher education Syllabus Mains – GS II – Education Context: The Indian Institutes of Technology (IIT) are globally recognized as the crown jewels in India’s higher education system. Indeed, they are often the only Indian higher education institutions known internationally at all. They have produced leaders in high-tech and related fields in India and abroad. Status of Indian Higher Education System India has the largest population in the world in the age bracket of 5-24 years with 580 million people, presenting a huge opportunity in the education sector. India is the world’s 2nd largest higher education system, with around 38 million students in 50,000 academic institutions (including 1,057 universities). It has a goal of doubling gross enrolment rates from the current 26.3% to 50% by 2035. India is the 2nd largest source of international students (after China) globally. Issues and Challenges in India’s Higher Education Sector Enrolment: The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) of India in higher education is only 25.2% which is quite low as compared to the developed and other major developing countries. There is no equity in GER among different sections of society. GER for males (26.3%), females (25.4%), SC (21.8%) and ST (15.9%). Lack of Access: A significant portion of India’s population, especially in rural areas, lacks access to quality higher education institutions. This leads to a stark urban-rural divide in educational opportunities. Faculty Shortages: There is a shortage of qualified and experienced faculty members in many higher education institutions. The Pupil-to-teacher ratio in the country has been (30:1), in comparable to USA (12.5:1), China (19.5:1) and Brazil (19:1). Outdated Curriculum: The curriculum in many institutions is often outdated and not aligned with industry requirements, leading to a gap between what students learn and what they need to succeed in the job market. Lack of Research and Innovation: India’s investment in R&D has remained constant at around 0.6% to 0.7% of India’s GDP. This is below the expenditure of countries like the US (2.8), China (2.1), Israel (4.3) and Korea (4.2). While India has made progress in research and innovation, there is still a need for more investment and a greater research focus in higher education institutions to remain competitive on the global stage. Regulatory issues: Management of the Indian education faces challenges of over-centralization, bureaucratic structures and lack of accountability, transparency, and professionalism. As a result of the increase in a number of affiliated colleges and students, the burden of administrative functions of universities has significantly increased and the core focus on academics and research is diluted. Recent Initiatives Taken by the Government Education Quality Upgradation and Inclusion Programme (EQUIP) has been recently launched with a five-year vision plan to improve the quality and accessibility of higher education over the next five years (2019-2024). Revitalising Infrastructure and Systems in Education (RISE) by 2022, is to make India into an education hub by making available high-quality research infrastructure in Indian higher educational institutions. UGC’s Learning Outcome-based Curriculum Framework (LOCF) guidelines, issued in 2018, aims to specify what graduates are expected to know, understand and be able to do at the end of their programme of study. This is to make student active learner and teacher a good facilitator. Global Initiative for Academics Network (GIAN), programme seeks to invite distinguished academicians, entrepreneurs, scientists, experts from premier institutions from across the world, to teach in the higher educational institutions in India. History of IIT’s The concept of IITs was conceived by India’s first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru, and the first Chairman of the University Grants Commission, Sir Jogendra Singh. Nehru envisioned a network of institutions that could provide world-class education in engineering and technology to fuel India’s industrial and technological development. The first Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) was established in Kharagpur, West Bengal, in 1951. It was founded with the assistance of the Soviet Union. Kharagpur served as a model for future IITs and started with degree programs in a variety of engineering disciplines. Over the years, IITs have evolved and diversified their academic programs. In addition to undergraduate B.Tech programs, they introduced postgraduate M.Tech, M.Sc, and Ph.D. programs. IITs have also placed a strong emphasis on research and innovation, making significant contributions to various fields of science and engineering. Conclusion Efforts are being made by the Indian government and various stakeholders to address these issues, including initiatives to expand access to education, improve the quality of institutions, and enhance research and innovation. However, addressing these challenges will require sustained commitment, policy reforms, and increased investment in higher education. Connect the Dots Analyze how the New Education system 2020 will help increase enrollment ratio of students in higher educational institutes. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Report Organizations World Air Quality Report IQAir Global Environment Outlook UNCTAD State of World Population UNEP How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Adaptation Gap Report 2023 is published by UNEP. Statement-II : It is a bi-annual publication. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Cuba, consider the following statements: English is the principal language of Cuba. It is located in South America. It is the largest single island of the archipelago. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  4th November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 3rd November– Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

Nov 7, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 7th November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Nov 7, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 2nd November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) India and Portugal Syllabus Prelims – INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, External Affairs Minister Dr S Jaishankar addressed the Indian Community in Portugal. Background:- Foreign Minister of Portugal Joao Cravinho also joined Dr Jaishankar. In his address, the External Affairs Minister highlighted Portugal’s contribution to promoting closer India-European Union ties. About India and Portugal:- IMAGE SOURCE: pinterest.ca Portugal is an important country for India in Southern Europe. (Indo-Portuguese Bilateral Relations) The bilateral ties have witnessed steady progress in the last 15 years. Portugal is supportive of India’s bid for a permanent seat at the United Nations Security Council. Both countries participate actively in other multilateral forums and support each other for candidatures. Historical Background:- 1947: The relations between India and Portugal began in 1947 after India’s independence. 1949The diplomatic relations were established. The bilateral relations, however, went through a troubled phase, after Portugal refused to surrender its enclaves of Goa, Daman and Diu and Dadra and Nagar Haveli on India’s west coast. The diplomatic relations had been completely cut off by 1955. Goa was liberated by the Indian military forces in 1961 through Operation Vijay. 1974: India and Portugal signed a treaty recognizing the sovereignty of India over Goa, Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli. The signing of the treaty was a watershed moment for bilateral relations between India and Portugal. 1977: The India-Portugal Joint Commission on Economic Matters was instituted and it has met four times so far. 2017-18: bilateral trade reached a total value of USD 937 million. Indian exports stood at USD 747 million and Portuguese exports at USD 190 million. Significance:- India and Portugal have signed seven agreements to boost cooperation in areas including maritime transport, port development, audio-visual co-production, and industrial and intellectual property rights in recent times. The trade balance has consistently been in India’s favour. MUST READ: Russia-Ukraine war SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q1) With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements: (2022) A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from a baseline determined in accordance with the convention. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Enforcement Directorate Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: The Enforcement Directorate is scheduled to question Delhi Chief Minister Arvind Kejriwal in the excise policy-linked money-laundering case soon. Background:- The investigation agency will record the statement of the Delhi Chief Minister after he deposes before the investigating officer of the case in Delhi. About Enforcement Directorate:- Establishment: 1956. Ministry: Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. Headquarters: New Delhi. The Enforcement Directorate is a multi-disciplinary organization It is a law enforcement organization tasked with enforcing economic laws and combating economic crime in India, such as money laundering and foreign exchange irregularities. Functions:- The functions of the Directorate include the enforcement of the following Acts:- The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA) (Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) 2002) The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA): A civil law under which ED conducts an investigation into suspected contraventions of foreign exchange laws and regulations. (Foreign Exchange Management Act) The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act 1973 Sponsoring Organizations under the 1974 Foreign Exchange Conservation and Smuggling Activity Prevention Act The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 (FEOA): A law whereby the Directorate is mandated to attach the properties of fugitive economic offenders who have escaped from India warranting arrest and providing for the confiscation of their properties to the Central Government. (Fugitive Economic Offenders) Structure:- Director of Enforcement:- Appointed by the central government on the recommendation of a committee chaired by the Central Vigilance Commissioner and members comprising of Vigilance Commissioners, Home Secretary, Secretary DOPT and Revenue Secretary. Tenure: up to 5 years. Recruitment of other officers:- Other officers may be recruited directly from other investigative agencies or indirectly. It is made up of representatives from the police, excise, customs, and income tax departments of the Indian Revenue Services (IRS), the Indian Police Services (IPS), and the Indian Administrative Services (IAS). Powers of ED:- Statements recorded before an ED investigation officer (IO) are admissible as evidence in court under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA). All offences under the PMLA, which the ED deals with, are classified as non-bailable. Individuals in ED custody are sent to the nearest police station’s lock-up, irrespective of their status. Once the ED attaches properties belonging to an accused, it can be a lengthy and challenging process to retrieve those assets. Unlike regular criminal law, under the PMLA, the burden of proof lies with the accused rather than the prosecutor. Accused individuals are required to furnish proof in their defence, making it harder to deal with the ED’s investigations. MUST READ: CBI and ED SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, suspected Maoists open fired at forest watchers in Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary. Background:- According to forest officials, a group of five suspected Maoists fired towards the skies upon seeing the watchers who then ran and took cover. No casualties were reported About Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary:- Area: approximately 55 square kilometers. Location: northern part of Kerala. It is situated in the Western Ghats. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site known for its rich biodiversity. The Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary was officially established in 1984. The sanctuary was created with the primary objective of conserving the diverse flora and fauna of the Western Ghats region. The sanctuary is home to a wide variety of plant and animal species, including several endemic and rare species. Vegetation: West Coast tropical evergreen forests, West Coast semi-evergreen forests, South Indian moist deciduous forests, Southern hilltop evergreen forests, and even plantations. Flora: Artocarpus heterophyllus (Jackfruit), Bischofia javanica (Bischofia Tree), Calophyllum elatum (Maramanjal), Canarium strictum (Black Dammar) etc. Fauna: elephants, tigers, leopards, Malabar giant squirrels, barking deer, and various bird species. (Wildlife Protection) The sanctuary is known for its butterfly diversity and the butterfly migration that can be witnessed in December. MUST READ: Mudumalai Tiger Reserve SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following trees: (2023) Jackfruit (Artoca7pus heterophyllus) Mahua (Madhuca indica) Teak (Tectona grandis) How many of the above are deciduous trees? Only one Only two All three None Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)  tightened guidelines for the appointment of State DGPs. Background:- Only police officers with at least six months of service left before retirement will be considered for appointment as the Director General of Police of a State, the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) said in amended guidelines issued recently. In another change, the Empanelment Committee constituted by the UPSC will not assess Indian Police Service (IPS) officers on central deputation for a State DGP’s post if the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) informs the State government that “it will not be possible to relieve the officers.” About Union Public Service Commission (UPSC):- The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is the central recruiting agency in India. (Central Vigilance Commission) It is an independent constitutional body. (Equality Commission) The provisions regarding the composition of UPSC, the appointment and removal of its members and the powers and functions of UPSC are provided in Part XIV of the Indian Constitution under Article 315 to Article 323. Parallel to the UPSC at the Centre, there is a State Public Service Commission (SPSC) in the state. The provisions regarding the composition of SPSC, the appointment and removal of its members and the powers and functions of SPSC are provided in Part XIV of the Indian Constitution under Article 315 to Article 323. Constitutional Provisions:- Article 315: Constitution of Public Service Commissions (PSC) for the Union and for the States of India. Article 316: Appointment and term of office of members of UPSC as well as SPSC. Article 317: Removal and suspension of a member of both the UPSC or SPSC. Article 318: Power to make regulations for the conditions of service of members and staff of the Commission. Article 319: Prohibition of holding the office by members of the Commission upon ceasing to be such members. Article 320: States the functions of Public Service Commissions. Article 321: Power to extend the functions of Public Service Commissions. Article 322: Expenses of Public Service Commissions. Article 323: Reports of Public Service Commissions. Composition of Union Public Service Commission:- Appointment of Members: The Chairman and other members of the UPSC are appointed by the President of India. Term of Office: Any member of the UPSC shall hold office for a term of six years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. Reappointment: Any person who has once held the office as a member of a Public Service Commission is ineligible for reappointment to that office. Resignation: A member of the Union Public Service Commission may resign from his/her office by submitting a written resignation to the President of India. Removal/Suspension of Members: The Chairman or any other member of UPSC shall only be removed from his/her office by order of the President of India. The President can suspend the Chairman or any other member from his/her office in respect of whom a reference has been made to the Supreme Court. Conditions for Removal: The Chairman or any other member of UPSC may be removed if he/she: is adjudged engages during his/her term of office in any paid employment outside the duties of his/her office. is, in the opinion of the President, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body. Regulating the Conditions of Service: In the case of the UPSC, the President of India shall:- Determine the number of members of the Commission and their conditions of service. Make provisions with respect to the number of members of the staff of the Commission and their conditions of service. Restriction of Power: The conditions of service of a member of UPSC shall not be amended after his/her appointment which may lead to his/her disadvantage. Power to Extend Functions: The Legislature of a State may provide for the exercise of additional functions by the UPSC or the SPSC as respects the services of the Union or the State and also as respects the services of any local authority or other body corporate constituted by law or of any public institution. Expenses of UPSC: The expenses of the UPSC including salaries, allowances and pensions of the members or staff of the Commission are charged to the Consolidated Fund of India. Submission of Reports: The UPSC shall present an annual report to the President of India containing the work done by the Commission. The President shall provide a memorandum explaining the cases where the advice of the Commission was not accepted. The reasons for such non-acceptance are presented before each House of Parliament. MUST READ: Finance Commission SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following organizations/bodies in India: (2023) The National Commission for Backward Classes The National Human Rights Commission The National Law Commission The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) . Consider the following statements: (2023) The Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Deep Ocean Mission Syllabus Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: Recent studies suggest that India’s ‘Deep Ocean Mission’ may have to face a challenge harder than going to space. Background:- It is a Central Sector Scheme of the Ministry of Earth Sciences. About Deep Ocean Mission:- Launched: 2021. Ministry: Ministry of Earth Sciences. The Deep Ocean Mission (DOM) is India’s ambitious quest to explore and harness the depths of the ocean. As part of this initiative, India will, for the first time, embark on a journey to a depth of 6,000 metres in the ocean using an indigenously developed submersible with a three-member crew. The mission will require technologies to access and transport tonnes of valuable minerals from the ocean bed in an environmentally safe manner. DOM is a mission-mode project to support the Blue Economy Initiatives of the Government of India. Blue Economy: sustainable use of ocean resources for economic growth, improved livelihoods and jobs, and ocean ecosystem health. It is India’s ambitious programme and was approved by the Union Cabinet in 2021 at a cost of nearly Rs 4,077 crore over a five-year period in a phased manner. 6 Pillars:- The mission has six pillars:- Development of technologies for deep-sea mining and a manned submersible to carry three people to a depth of 6,000 metres in the ocean. The submersible will be equipped with a suite of scientific sensors, tools and an integrated system for mining polymetallic nodules from the central Indian Ocean. Development of ocean climate change advisory services, involving an array of ocean observations and models to understand and provide future climate projections. Technological innovations for the exploration and conservation of deep-sea biodiversity. Deep-ocean survey and exploration aimed at identifying potential sites of multi-metal hydrothermal sulphides mineralisation along the Indian Ocean mid-oceanic ridges. Harnessing energy and fresh water from the ocean. Establishing an advanced Marine Station for Ocean Biology, as a hub for nurturing talent and driving new opportunities in ocean biology and blue biotechnology. The ‘New India 2030’ document outlines a blue economy as the sixth core objective for India’s growth. The years 2021-2030 have been designated by the United Nations as the ‘Decade of Ocean Science’. DOM is one of nine missions under the Prime Minister’s Science, Technology, and Innovation Advisory Council (PMSTIAC). It is imperative that DOM supports the blue economy priority area, blue trade, and blue manufacturing in India. Significance:- Leveraging Ocean Resources. The technology and expertise needed in such missions are now available in only five countries – the US, Russia, France, Japan and China. India will now be the sixth country to have it. MUST READ: Deep-Sea Mining SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Diabetes Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recent studies show that  Air pollution increases the diabetes risk in Chennai and Delhi. Background:- Two studies published in international journals have reported a worrying link between air pollution levels and the incidence of type 2 diabetes in Chennai and Delhi. The study is notable not because the findings are new, they are not unprecedented but because they have found that the link, which has been indicated in Western countries and more recently in China as well, also holds in urban India. About Diabetes:- Diabetes mellitus refers to a group of diseases that affect how the body uses blood sugar (glucose). Glucose is an important source of energy for the cells that make up the muscles and tissues. It is a condition that happens when the blood sugar (glucose) is too high. It develops when your pancreas doesn’t make enough insulin or any at all, or when the body isn’t responding to the effects of insulin properly. Diabetes affects people of all ages. Types of diabetes:- There are several types of diabetes. The most common forms include:- Type 2 diabetes: With this type, the body doesn’t make enough insulin, and/or the body’s cells don’t respond normally to the insulin (insulin resistance). This is the most common type of diabetes. Prediabetes: The blood glucose levels are higher than normal but not high enough to be officially diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes. Type 1 diabetes: This type is an autoimmune disease in which your immune system attacks and destroys insulin-producing cells in your pancreas for unknown reasons. Gestational diabetes: This type develops in some people during pregnancy. Symptoms:- feeling very thirsty needing to urinate more often than usual blurred vision feeling tired losing weight unintentionally Management and Treatment:- Blood sugar monitoring. (Disease Surveillance System) Oral diabetes medications. Insulin injections. Diet management. Exercise. Prevention:- Keeping a healthy body weight. Staying physically active with at least 30 minutes of moderate exercise each day. Eating a healthy diet and avoiding sugar and saturated fat. Avoid smoking tobacco. Avoiding stress. (Mental Health) About Air Pollution:- Air pollution is the presence of substances in the atmosphere that are harmful to the health of humans and other living beings, or cause damage to the climate or materials. (Delhi and Air Pollution) Different types of air pollutants include– Gases: such as ammonia, carbon monoxide, sulphur dioxide, nitrous oxides, methane, carbon dioxide and chlorofluorocarbons. Particulates: both organic and inorganic. Biological molecules. Harmful Impacts of Air Pollution:- It may cause diseases, allergies and even death in humans. It can cause harm to other living organisms such as animals and food crops. Can lead to climate change and may damage the natural environment Ozone depletion or habitat degradation Built hazardous environments (for example, acid rain). MUST READ: National Clean Air Campaign SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency Q.2) The “Common Carbon Metric” supported by UNEP, has been developed for (2021) Assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world Enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading Enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries Assessing the overall carbon footprint caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit of time James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, NASA’s James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) has captured new views of a stunning nebula, revealing never-before-seen details. Background:- A nebula is a cloud of gas and dust often formed from the debris of dying or exploding stars. These clouds are also cradles of new stars, with the gas and dust providing the building blocks for stellar formation. About James Webb Space Telescope (JWST):- Launched: 2021. Type: Orbiter. Launched by: National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA). Launch Vehicle: Ariane 5 rocket, provided by the European Space Agency (ESA). Launch site: French Guiana. Objective: to find the first galaxies that formed in the early universe and to see stars forming planetary systems. The James Webb Space Telescope is the world’s largest, most powerful, and most complex space science telescope ever built. It is an infrared observatory orbiting the Sun. (International Space Station (ISS)) It is NASA’s largest and most powerful space science telescope. Functions of the telescope:- It will study every phase in the history of our universe, ranging from the first luminous glows after the big bang, to the formation of solar systems capable of supporting life on planets like Earth, to the evolution of our own solar system. It will build on the Hubble Space Telescope’s (ISRO’s hybrid propulsion system) NASA’s Hubble Space Telescope: it is the first astronomical observatory placed into orbit around Earth with the ability to record images in wavelengths of light spanning from ultraviolet to near-infrared. It will look deeper into the cosmos and thus further back in time than is possible with Hubble. It will attempt to detect the light from the very first population of stars in the Universe to switch on more than 13.5 billion years ago. MUST READ: Exoplanets SOURCE: SCIENCE ALERT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1)  Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022) GPS and navigation systems could fail. Tsunamis could occur in equatorial regions. Power grids could be damaged. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 Copyrights Laws Syllabus Mains – GS II – Indian Constitution Context: Copyright refers to the legal right of the owner of intellectual property. In simpler terms, copyright is the right to copy. This means that the original creators of products and anyone they give authorization to are the only ones with the exclusive right to reproduce the work. Copyright law gives creators of original material the exclusive right to further use and duplicate that material for a given amount of time. Once a copyright expires, the copyrighted item becomes public domain. Legal Provision Available Regarding Copyright Infringement Copyright ensures certain minimum safeguards of the rights of authors over their creations, thereby protecting and rewarding creativity. Copyright Act of 1957, protects original literary, dramatic, musical and artistic works and cinematograph films and sound recordings from unauthorized uses. Literary, dramatic, musical or artistic works enjoy protection for the life time of the author plus 60 years beyond i.e. 60 years after his death. In case of joint authorship, the term of copyright is to be construed as a reference to the author who dies at last. It gives broadcasting reproduction right to every broadcaster which is valid for 25 years from the beginning of the calendar year next following the year in the broadcast has been done. Copyright Board Act provides for the establishment of the Copyright Board and empowers Central Government to constitute the same for settlement of disputes, granting of licenses, etc. The copyright infringement is punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend up to 3 years. Issues With the Act A copyright is created the moment a piece of art or music or literature is fixed on a medium, provided it is original. Unlike trademark law, it is not mandatory under the Copyright Act to register copyrights as a necessary precondition in order to enforce the same. Whether the piece of art or music or literature is original or not is another complicated question of law. There is the question of whether the use of the copyrighted work is permissible under all the provisions in Section 52 of the Copyright Act outlining the exceptions to copyright infringement. For example, if a work is qualified for protection under the Designs Act of 2000, it can no longer claim protection under the Copyright Act once it is reproduced beyond a certain threshold. Determining the copyright infringement would require the court to apply the test of substantial similarity on a case-by-case basis. Supreme Court Judgements In the Knit Pro International v. The State of NCT, the SC held that the offence of copyright infringement under Section 63 of the Copyright Act is a cognizable and non ¬bailable offence. The bench held that if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for three years and onwards but not more than seven years (3-7 years), the offence is a cognizable offence. As a result, it takes away the right of the accused to post a bail bond with the police and shifts the responsibility on to the courts for judicial determination on a case-by-case basis. Cr.P.C. defines cognizable offence as an offence for which the police officer can arrest the convict without a warrant and can start investigation without the due permission of the court.These are the offences that are usually very serious and generally heinous in nature such as rape, murder, kidnapping, dowry death etc. Connect the Dots  Why do we need copyright acts? Analyze the copyright laws in other countries. CART-T CELL THERAPY Syllabus Mains – GS III –Science and Technology Context: CAR-T cell therapy (Chimeric Antigen Receptor T-cell therapy) is a groundbreaking immunotherapy approach used to treat certain types of cancer, primarily hematological malignancies like B-cell lymphomas and leukemia. This therapy involves the genetic engineering of a patient’s own T cells to recognize and attack cancer cells. As per the Globocan estimates, the cancer burden worldwide is expected to be 28.4 million cases in 2040, a 47% rise from 2020, due to demographic changes. How Does it Work? T cells are white blood cells responsible for identifying and fighting illness and infection. Each T cell has a receptor that can recognize antigens (proteins or molecules recognized by the immune system). Cancer cells may have antigens that the immune system does not recognize as abnormal, allowing cancer to evade the immune response. CAR-T cells are genetically engineered in the lab to express a new receptor that can bind to cancer cells and effectively kill them. The process involves several steps, including: Collecting T Cells: Blood is drawn from the patient’s arm, and T cells are separated from the blood using an apheresis machine. Engineering T Cells: In a laboratory, the T cells are modified by adding a manufactured CAR, and they are allowed to multiply and grow. Infusing CAR-T Cells: Once enough CAR-T cells are prepared, they are injected back into the patient’s arm. Chemotherapy may be recommended before CAR-T cell infusion to enhance treatment effectiveness. The process can take place in an outpatient infusion center or a hospital setting. CAR-T cell therapy is effective against certain types of cancer, especially when other treatments are ineffective. It is currently FDA-approved for treating hematological malignancies, including leukemia, lymphoma, and multiple myeloma. Significance CAR T-cell therapies are even more specific than targeted agents and directly stimulate the patient’s immune system to fight cancer, leading to greater clinical efficacy. That’s why they’re referred to as “living drugs.” Challenges Preparation: The difficulty of preparing CAR T-cell therapies has been a major hindrance to their widespread use. The first successful clinical trial was published a decade ago, and the first indigenously developed therapy in India was performed in 2021. Side Effects: In certain kinds of leukaemias and lymphomas, the efficacy is as high as 90%, whereas in other types of cancers it is significantly lower. The potential side-effects are also significant, associated with cytokine release syndrome (a widespread activation of the immune system and collateral damage to the body’s normal cells) and neurological symptoms (severe confusion, seizures, and speech impairment). Affordability: Introduction of CAR T-cell therapy in India can face challenges of cost and value. Critics argue that developing CAR T-cell therapy in India may not be cost-effective as it will still be unaffordable for most people. What Are T Cells? T cells, also known as T lymphocytes, are a type of white blood cell that play a central role in the immune response. T cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity, which means they help the body recognize and respond to foreign substances, such as viruses, bacteria, and abnormal cells, such as cancer cells. There are two major types of T cells, the helper T cell and the cytotoxic T cell. As the names suggest, helper T cells ‘help’ other cells of the immune system, whilst cytotoxic T cells kill virally infected cells and tumors. Government Initiatives Related to Cancer Treatment National Programme for Prevention and Control of Cancer, Diabetes, Cardiovascular Diseases and Stroke: Launched with the aim to prevent and control these diseases thorough awareness generation, behaviour and life-style changes, early diagnosis of persons with high levels of risk factors. National Cancer Grid: Formed in 2012, it is a network of major cancer centers, research institutes, patient groups and charitable institutions across India with the mandate of establishing uniform standards of patient care for prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of cancer, providing specialized training and education in oncology and facilitating collaborative basic, translational and clinical research in cancer. National Cancer Awareness Day: 7th November in India every year since 2014 to create public awareness about early detection, prevention, and treatment of cancer. CONCLUSION CAR T-cell therapy is a promising and innovative approach to treating cancer. It involves the genetic modification of a patient’s T cells to create chimeric antigen receptors (CARs) that target specific cancer cells. This treatment has shown great promise in clinical trials and has already been approved for the treatment of certain types of leukaemia and lymphoma. Connect the Dots What are the potential disadvantages of CAR T-Cell therapy? Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Space Telescope Organization Kepler Space Telescope NASA Astrosat ISRO James Webb Space Telescope NASA How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Deep Ocean Mission is a mission-mode project to support the Green Economy Initiatives of the Government of India. Statement-II : Harnessing energy and freshwater from the ocean is one of the pillars of this mission. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary, consider the following statements: It is located in the northern part of Karnataka. It is situated in the Eastern Ghats. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 2 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  2nd November  2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 1st November – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

Nov 6, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 6th November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Nov 4, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 4th November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Nov 3, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 1st November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Cloud seeding Syllabus UPSC Prelims – GEOGRAPHY UPSC Prelims – Science & Technology Context: Recently, IITM Pune demonstrated that cloud seeding can produce rainfall. Background:- A cloud seeding experiment was carried out in Solapur city, which falls on the leeward side of the Western Ghats. About Cloud seeding:- IMAGE SOURCE: IASBABA Cloud seeding is a kind of weather modification technology to create artificial rainfall. The goal of this work is to change the amount of precipitation that falls from the sky or to alter the type that would reach the ground. Mechanism:- It is a way of changing the amount or type of precipitation that falls from clouds, by dispersing substances into the air that serve as cloud condensation. Drones are charged into the clouds and cause an electric shock due to which they clump together and cause rainfall. Silver iodide, dry ice, and potassium iodide are the most common items used to initiate the cloud-seeding process. Types:- There are three cloud seeding methods: static, dynamic and hygroscopic. Static cloud seeding: involves spreading a chemical like silver iodide into clouds. Dynamic cloud seeding: aims to boost vertical air currents, which encourages more water to pass through the clouds, translating into more rain. Hygroscopic cloud seeding: disperses salts through flares or explosives in the lower portions of clouds. Advantages of Cloud Seeding:- Cloud seeding can help to produce more precipitation. (Cloudbursts) It can make the land more suitable for living. It helps to regulate weather patterns in specific locations. Disadvantages of Cloud Seeding:- Specific atmospheric conditions must exist for cloud seeding to work: It works only when there are enough pre-existing clouds in the atmosphere. The effectiveness of cloud seeding is still under review. It is an expensive venture. MUST READ: Cloud Wars SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs on the: (2022) The first half of the month of June The second half of the month of June The first half of the month of July The second half of the month of July Q.2) On 21st June, the Sun (2019) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle does not set below the horizon at the Antarctic Circle shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn Carbon nano florets Syllabus UPSC Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, IIT Bombay researchers discovered that Carbon nanoflorets can convert incident sunlight to heat . Background:- Carbon nanoflorets made by IIT Bombay researchers can convert incident sunlight to heat with 87% efficiency. About Carbon nanoflorets:- Carbon nanoflorets are like tiny marigold flowers made only of carbon. They have an unprecedented ability to absorb sunlight at multiple frequencies and convert it into heat with exceptional efficiency. The carbon nanoflorets’ high efficiency comes from three properties:- They can absorb infrared, visible, and ultraviolet light, unlike traditional solar-thermal conversion materials that only absorb visible and ultraviolet light. As light falls on the material, the carbon cones ensure that very little is reflected back. Parts of the structure at some distance from each other possess different physical properties. As a result, heat waves in the material aren’t carried over long distances, reducing the amount of heat dissipated away. Making:- To create the carbon nanoflorets, the DFNS powder was heated in a furnace and introduced acetylene gas into the chamber. The white powder turned black, indicating that carbon had been deposited on the DFNS. After dissolving the DFNS with a strong chemical, what remained were spherical nanostructures made of carbon cones. The nanoflorets resemble tiny marigold flowers. Advantages:- Carbon is inexpensive and the nanoflorets can generate heat sustainably, without having to burn fossil fuels. (Carbon Trading) They can offer a sustainable solution for heating homes. They offer sterilizing surfaces in hospitals without relying on fossil fuels. (Climate Change) MUST READ: Mitigating Climate Change SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution? (2020) Automobile exhaust Tobacco smoke Woodburning Using varnished wooden furniture Using products made of polyurethane Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) With reference to ‘fuel cells’ in which hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to generate electricity, consider the following statements : (2015) If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by-products. Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop computers. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar Syllabus UPSC Prelims –IMPORTANT AWARDS UPSC Prelims – Polity Context: Recently, the Union government instituted the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar. About Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar:- Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar includes 56 prizes to felicitate scientists, technologists and innovators. The 56 proposed awards are a stark reduction from the almost 300 science prizes that used to be given by Union Ministries. The awards will commence in 2024. The awards will be announced annually on May 11, which is National Technology Day. They will be awarded on National Space Day, August 23. They will be given by the President or the Vice President. Eligibility:- Scientists/ technologists/innovators working in government, private sector organizations or any individual working outside any organization, who have made distinguished contributions in terms of path-breaking research or innovation or discovery in any field of science, technology, or technology-led- led innovation shall be eligible for the awards. People of Indian Origin staying abroad with exceptional contributions benefiting the Indian communities or society shall also be eligible for the awards. Categories:- Categories: 3 Vigyan Ratna, 25 Vigyan Shri, 25 Vigyan Yuva–Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar, and 3 Vigyan Team. Vigyan Ratna: will recognize the lifetime achievement of scientists. Vigyan Shri: will recognize distinguished contributions to a field. Vigyan Yuva Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar: will encourage young scientists who have made exceptional contributions in their field, and the Vigyan Team will recognize teams of three or more. Decoration:– All Awards will have a Sanad & a medal. (Padma awards) MUST READ:  Padma awardee Shanti Devi SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Kerala Piravi Syllabus UPSC Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi greeted people of Kerala on the occasion of Kerala Piravi. Background:- Greeting people on the occasion, the Prime Minister said, known for their diligence and the rich tapestry of their cultural heritage, the people of Kerala embody resilience and determination. About Kerala Piravi:- Kerala Piravi is celebrated in the Indian state of Kerala on November 1st every year. It is a day that marks the establishment of the state of Kerala as a separate entity on November 1, 1956. The state of Kerala was formed by combining the former states of Travancore-Cochin with the Malabar district and Kasaragod taluk of South Canara district. This significant event marked the end of the political and administrative system of the feudal kingdoms in Kerala and the beginning of a new era of democratic governance. The term “Kerala Piravi” translates to “the birth of Kerala,” which connotes the significance of the day. Kerala Piravi is an opportunity for Keralites to revisit their rich cultural heritage and reflect on their history, culture, and traditions. The day is celebrated with great pomp and show, and various cultural programs are organized to showcase the state’s art, music, dance, literature, and cuisine. The day is also marked by numerous commemorative events, including cultural parades, folk dances, and exhibitions showcasing the state’s history, culture, and traditions. (Mohiniyattam) One of the main attractions of the festival is the famous President’s Trophy Boat Race competition held in Kovalam. It is a time for people to come together to celebrate their shared history and to look forward to a bright and prosperous future. MUST READ: Kerala and National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements is correct? (2021) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora River. Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of the Chambal River. Pandu – lena cave shrines lie in the gorge of the Narmada River. Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of the Godavari River. Prachand Syllabus Prelims –Science & Technology (Defence) Context: Army’s Light Combat Helicopter Prachand successfully carried out its inaugural firing recently. Background:- In an exclusive interview with All India Radio, the Director General of the Army Aviation Corps Lt Gen AK Suri underscored that with each passing year Army Aviation Corps is setting new milestones in terms of capability building and increasing its sphere of influence. One of the youngest corps of the Indian Army, Army Aviation was created as a separate arm on 1st November 1986. About Prachand:- Designed and manufactured by: Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL). It is multi-role and can perform roles of Combat Search and Rescue (CSAR), Destruction of Enemy Air Defence (DEAD) and Counter Insurgency (CI) operations. The LCH has been designed as a twin-engine. (Chetak Helicopters) It is a dedicated combat helicopter of 5.8-ton class, thus categorized as light. It features a narrow fuselage and tandem one-behind-the-other configuration for the pilot and co-pilot. The co-pilot is also the Weapon Systems Operator (WSO). It has a maximum take-off weight of 5.8 tonnes, a maximum speed of 268 kilometres per hour, range of 550 kilometres. It has an endurance of over three hours and a service ceiling the maximum density altitude to which it can fly of 6.5 kilometres. LCH is powered by two French-origin Shakti engines manufactured by the HAL. The helicopter uses radar-absorbing material to lower radar signature and has a significantly crash-proof structure and landing gear. A pressurized cabin offers protection from nuclear, biological and chemical (NBC) contingencies. The LCH is the only attack helicopter in the world that can land and take off at an altitude of 5,000 metres (16,400 ft), which makes it ideal to operate in the high-altitude areas of the Siachen glacier. MUST READ: Asia’s largest helicopter manufacturing facility SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Electoral bonds Syllabus UPSC Prelims – Polity Context: Recently, the Supreme Court flagged the possibility of electoral bonds being used to trade favours. Background:- A Constitution Bench on October 31 raised the scenario of influential entities covertly setting up persons with verified accounts to purchase electoral bonds for them through the regular banking route in order to curry favour or anonymously enter into a quid pro quo with ruling political parties. About Electoral bonds:- An Electoral Bond is like a promissory note that may be purchased by a person who is a citizen of India or incorporated or established in India. A person being an individual can buy Electoral Bonds, either singly or jointly with other individuals. The bonds are like banknotes that are payable to the bearer on demand and are interest-free. Historical Background:- The electoral bonds system was introduced in 2017 by way of a Finance bill. It was implemented in 2018. Eligibility:- Only the Political Parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951 and which secured not less than one per cent of the votes polled in the last General Election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly of the State, shall be eligible to receive the Electoral Bonds. Salient Features:- State Bank of India (SBI) issues the bonds in denominations of Rs 1,000, Rs 10,000, Rs 1 lakh, Rs 10 lakh, and Rs 1 crore. It is payable to the bearer on demand and interest-free. It is purchased by Indian citizens or entities established in India. It can be bought individually or jointly with other individuals. It is valid for 15 calendar days from the date of issue. The State Bank of India (SBI) is the authorized issuer. Electoral Bonds are issued through designated SBI branches. Electoral Bonds can be purchased digitally or through cheques. Encashment only through an authorized bank account of the political party. Political Parties must disclose their bank account with the Election Commission of India (ECI). Advantages of Electoral Bonds:- Ensures Accountability: Donations through Electoral Bonds will only be credited to the party bank account disclosed with the ECI. Discourage Cash: The Purchase will be possible only through a limited number of notified banks and that too through cheque and digital payments. More Transparency: It helps the political parties to operate in a more transparent manner with the election commission, regulatory authorities and the general public at large. Disadvantages of Electoral Bonds:- Hindering Right to Know: Voters will not know which individual, company, or organisation has funded which party, and to what extent. Before the introduction of electoral bonds, political parties had to disclose details of all their donors, who have donated more than Rs 20,000. The change infringes the citizen’s ‘Right to Know’ and makes the political class even more unaccountable. Unauthorized Donations: In a situation where the contribution received through electoral bonds is not reported, it cannot be ascertained whether the political party has taken any donation in violation of provision under Section 29B of the RPA, 1951 which prohibits the political parties from taking donations from government companies and foreign sources. Leads to Crony-Capitalism: It could become a convenient channel for businesses to round-trip their cash parked in tax havens to political parties for a favour or advantage granted in return for something. Anonymous funding might lead to an infusion of black money. MUST READ: Cohort on Election Integrity SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider · the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day : (2023) Statement-I : Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens. Statement-II: On 26 November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India· set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft of the Constitution of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022) This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people. This would create a local self-governing body in that area. This would convert that area into a Union Territory. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State. MAINS Cyber Attacks Syllabus UPSC Mains – GS3 (Security Issues) About A cyber-attack can be defined as a malicious activity or planned attempt by any organization or an individual to steal or corrupt the information of the system of another organization or individual. Different methods used by criminals for cyber-attacks malware, ransom ware, phishing, denial of service, Man in the middle attack. Reasons for Cyber attacks To gain business financial details. To gain customer financial information (for example- Bank details). To gain product design or trade secrets. To gain login credentials and email addresses of various customers or staff. To gain or steal sensitive personal information. To make a social or political point. To destroy business competitor Recent Cyberattacks on India AIIMS: The attack on the All-India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) came to light on November 23, 2022. The attack could have exposed around 40 million patient data. CDSL: India’s second-largest depository, Central Depository Services Limited (CDSL) detected a malware attack on few of its systems. IPCA Laboratories:One of the biggest pharmaceutical companies in India, IPCS was hit by a cybercrime and extortion group called Ransom House. The group claimed to have stolen 500 gigabytes of data from its systems. Challenges in tackling cyberattacks: Low awareness among citizens Poor infrastructure and lack of cybersecurity officials Remoteness of person committing crime is leading to jurisdictional issues Institutional measures IT Act,2000 is the primary law that deals with cyberattacks in India National Cyber Security Policy, 2013 provides the vision and strategic direction to protect the national cyberspace National Critical Information Infrastructure Protection Centre (NCIIPC) is designated as a national nodal agency in respect of critical information infrastructure protection. CERT-in is a national nodal agency to respond against computer security threats as and when required. Do You Know? India is among the top 3 vulnerable nations for Cyber Security. Japan Australia India Sweden has suffered the lowest rate of malware infection. It is considered as one of the best countries with cybersecurity. Conclusion Data being New oil of the economy and in the present geopolitical environment India should have strong legal measures and technology support to handle the ever increasing cyberattacks. Deap Ocean Mission Syllabus UPSC Mains – Science & Technology (GS3) About DOM is India’s ambitious programme for underwater exploration, chiefly implemented by the MoES. This mission has Six pillars to be implemented over a peiod of 5 years. It is one of the 9 missions under PMSTIAC. Importance of Deep Ocean Mission (DOM) New India 2030 document outlines blue economy as 6th core objective of India’s growth. To sustainably harness oceans potential for the nations growth. It supports blue trade and blue manufacturing in India India will become one among the 6 countries to have technology and expertise for such missions To develop capabilities to exploit resources in Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB). About Samudrayaan Matsya6000 is deep submersible designed. It can take 3 crew members. It has operational endurance of 12 hours extendable to 96 hours in case of emergency. Its primary objective is exploration of ocean bed With Matsya, India will be the only country to have an entire ecosystem of underwater vehicles encompassing deep¬water ROVs, polar ROVs, AUVs, deep¬water coring systems, and more. Polymetallic Nodules Potato Shaped porous nodules found in abundance carpeting the sea floor of world oceans in the deep sea. A unique characteristic of deep-ocean nodules compared to terrestrial deposits is the presence of multiple commodities in one deposit; for example, nodules from the Clarion–Clipperton Zone contain Mn, Ni, Cu and Co. Do You Know? USA, Russia, China, France and Japan are the only countries in the world who successfully achieved deep ocean crewed missions. Oceangate, a tourism and expedition company in USA operated a submersible Titan to view the wreck of TITANIC. Due to safety concerns leading to fatal deaths of all the members in the ocean. Deep-ocean mining might avoid some of the environmental issues associated with terrestrial mining. As a part of DOM, Samudrayan project was initiated. It is a crewed expedition to reach 6000m depth ocean bed in the central Indian Ocean. International Body which allocates countries to exploit resources near the basin is by UN international Seabed Authority. India has been allotted 75000sqkm in CIOB to explore Polymetallic Nodules. Other Blue Economy Initiatives Sagarmala Project: Strategic initiative for port led development through extensive use of IT enabled services O SMART: To regulate the use of oceans, marine resources for sustainable development. Conclusion Data being new oil of the economy and in the present geopolitical environment India should have strong legal measures and technology support to handle the ever increasing cyberattacks. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following pairs:     Festival State Chhath Puja Bihar Uttarayana Chattisgarh Onam Karnataka How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Donations through Electoral Bonds are only credited to the party bank account disclosed with the ECI. Statement-II: Electoral Bonds can be bought individually or jointly with other individuals. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.3) With reference to the Carbon nano florets, consider the following statements: The nanoflorets resemble tiny marigold flowers. They are made of carbon and hydrogen. They have an unprecedented ability to absorb sunlight at multiple frequencies and convert it into heat. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 2 only Mains Practice Questions Why the prevelance of Cyberwarfare is increasing and how multilateral instituions help in tackling it? Elaborate with some examples. Explain India’s necessity and capabilities in the deep ocean exploration. Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  1st November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 30th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – b

Nov 3, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 3rd November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Nov 2, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 2nd November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Nov 1, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 1st November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here