Oct 28, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 27th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Shi Yan 6 Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, a Chinese research ship, Shi Yan 6 docked at Colombo port. Background:- The Chinese research vessel ‘Shi Yan 6’ has stirred concerns due to its visit to Sri Lanka, with both the US and India voicing objections. Shi Yan 6 was given permission to enter the (Colombo) port for replenishment. US Under Secretary Victoria Nuland, who met Sri Lankan Foreign Minister Ali Sabry in New York on the sidelines of the UN General Assembly session, had reportedly raised concerns about the visit of ‘SHI YAN 6’. Reasons behind India’s Object to Chinese Vessels Docking in Sri Lanka:- India’s objection to Chinese vessels docking in Sri Lanka stems from security concerns. (India-Sri Lanka relations) India perceives Chinese ships in close proximity to its mainland as potential security threats, suspecting espionage activities even when their stated purpose is scientific research. This apprehension has led to objections to Chinese vessels docking in Sri Lankan ports. China’s Statement on the matter:- China has maintained that the marine scientific research activities of Yuan Wang 5 and similar vessels align with international law and common practice and do not jeopardize the security or economic interests of any country. Sri Lanka’s Response:- In response to the US’ concerns, the Sri Lankan Foreign Minister emphasized Sri Lanka’s commitment to neutrality. ( Sri Lanka’s India First Policy) About Shi Yan 6:- Shi Yan 6 is a Chinese Research/Survey Vessel. It has a carrying capacity of 1115 DWT (deadweight tonnage). Its current draught is reported to be 5.3 meters. It has an overall length of 90.6 meters and a width of 17 meters. This three-month voyage seeks to gather extensive fundamental data. It aims to study and uncover how dynamic processes impact the biogeochemical cycles, ecosystems, and sedimentary processes in the region. It wants to elucidate the geographical patterns of biodiversity, understand the response of biological communities to physical processes and gain insights into paleoclimate changes. MUST READ: India-Sri Lanka: Colombo Port SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America NASA’s Roman Space Telescope Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recent reports suggest that NASA is preparing to embark on a remarkable journey into the depths of our Milky Way Galaxy using the Nancy Grace Roman Space Telescope. Background:- It will scan the vast expanse of space, searching for subtle signals and telltale flickers that could unlock secrets about the cosmos . About NASA’s Roman Space Telescope:- Planned launch: 2027. Agency: NASA. Country: USA. The Roman Space Telescope is a NASA observatory designed to unravel the secrets of dark energy and dark matter, search for and image exoplanets, and explore many topics in infrared astrophysics. It has a 2.4m telescope, the same size as Hubble’s, but with a view 100 times greater than Hubble’s. It was the top-ranked large space mission in the 2010 Decadal Survey of Astronomy and Astrophysics. It is slated to launch in the mid-2020s. It has a field of view that is 100 times greater than the Hubble infrared instrument, capturing more of the sky with less observing time. It will have a primary mission lifetime of 5 years, with a potential 5-year extended mission. (Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope)  MUST READ: SARAS radio telescope SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Calixcoca Vaccine Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, Brazil scientists developed a new ‘vaccine’ Calixcoca” Vaccine, for cocaine addiction. About“Calixcoca” Vaccine:- Calixcoca’, is a therapeutic vaccine that promises to prevent the addictive effects of cocaine or crack.( Drug Addiction) It is offering new hope to millions battling cocaine addiction worldwide. (mRNA Vaccine) Working:- Calixcoca functions by inducing an immune response that generates antibodies capable of binding to cocaine molecules in the bloodstream. This binding process results in the enlargement of cocaine molecules, rendering them too large to pass into the brain’s “reward centre” or mesolimbic system. This area of the brain is typically stimulated by cocaine to release dopamine, the pleasure-inducing neurotransmitter. Consequently, individuals who receive the vaccine will not experience the desired euphoric effects of cocaine, potentially assisting them in breaking the cycle of addiction. Furthermore, it reduces the risk of overdose as cocaine molecules are retained in the blood, bound to the antibodies, and thus, unable to act on the heart or arteries. Following encouraging results in animal trials, Calixcoca is poised to enter the next phase of development, which involves human trials. Calixcoca is designed for recovering addicts who have already discontinued cocaine use and are seeking assistance in maintaining their sobriety. Significance:- Despite the alarming rise in cocaine and crack addiction, there are no approved medications specifically for treating this problem. The development of the Calixcoca vaccine, therefore, is a beacon of hope for an effective medical intervention.  MUST READ: ‘ZyCov-D’ vaccine SOURCE: BANGALORE MIRROR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which one of the following? (2023) Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna Stimulating ‘stem cells’ to transform into diverse functional tissues Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting a series of drug trials in  a population Q.2) ‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations? (2023) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal  samples from land surfaces and  water bodies Operation Chakra II Syllabus    Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) has recently launched , Operation Chakra II. Background:- ‘Operation Chakra-2’, was initiated after the registration of five separate cases of cyber-enabled financial fraud, including a ₹100-crore crypto scam. About Operation Chakra II:- Launched by: Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI). Objective: To fight against transnationally organized cyber-enabled financial crimes in India. It aims to tackle transnational organized cyber-enabled financial crimes within India. (CBI and its troubles) These crimes often involve fraudulent activities conducted online . The CBI has partnered with technology giants Microsoft and Amazon, as well as with national and international law enforcement agencies. Some of the agencies involved include the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) in the United States, INTERPOL’s Cyber Crime Directorate and IFCACC, the National Crime Agency (NCA) in the United Kingdom. These collaborations are aimed at combating and dismantling the infrastructure of illegal call centres involved in these crimes.  MUST READ: Cybercrime SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following infrastructure sectors : (2023) Affordable housing Mass rapid transport Health care Renewable energy On how many of the above does the UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus on its investments? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in  the context of interventions being  undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt  Bharat Strategy : (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Infantile Hypophosphatasia Syllabus    Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY-HEALTH Context: A child was diagnosed with the rarest of rare diseases Infantile Hypophosphatasia in India recently. Background:- 16-month-old Sera Nile Fay is India’s only known case of Infantile Hypophosphatasia. About Infantile Hypophosphatasia:- It is a rare genetic disease. (Rare Disease) In which the patient’s bones and teeth demineralize, making her fragile and prone to fractures. It is caused by mutations in the ALPL gene. This is the only gene that causes HPP. Genes provide instructions for making proteins that have an important function in the body. When a mutation occurs, the protein may be faulty, inefficient, or absent, as in HPP. Symptoms:- It may have no noticeable abnormalities at birth, but complications become apparent within the first six months of life. Sometimes the skull bones fuse, called craniosynostosis, which can lead to a deformed head. Affected infants have softened, weakened, and deformed bones consistent with rickets. Treatment:- Asfotase alfa is approved (Europe and USA) for enzyme replacement therapy (ERT) in patients with pediatric-onset hypophosphatasia. It is associated with healing of the skeletal manifestations of hypophosphatasia as well as improved respiratory and motor function. MUST READ: Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs) SOURCE: THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following infrastructure sectors : (2023) Affordable housing Mass rapid transport Health care Renewable energy On how many of the above does the UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus on its investments? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in  the context of interventions being  undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt  Bharat Strategy : (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Mains: Air Quality in India Syllabus    GS-III As per the data released by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) in Delhi, the air quality was in the ‘moderate’ category in several areas. Meanwhile, for past few days, the AQI of the financial capital of India remained ‘poor’, according to System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting and Research (Safar). Air pollution in India has reached critical levels, posing severe threats to human health and the environment. PRIMARY CAUSESOF AIR POLLUTION IN INDIA Vehicular Emissions: Vehicles are one of the major sources of air pollution in India, especially in urban areas. According to a study by the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE), vehicles contribute to 40% of PM2.5 emissions in Delhi, 30% in Mumbai, 28% in Kolkata, and 20% in Bengaluru. Industrial Chimney Wastes: Industries are another major contributor to air pollution in India, especially in the northern and eastern regions. These plants emitted sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, carbon monoxide, lead, mercury, and VOCs, which can cause acid rain, smog, climate change, and health problems. Burning Fossil Fuels: Power plants, factories, and households that use coal, oil, or natural gas as fuel also contribute to air pollution in India by emitting greenhouse gasses. According to the World Bank Group, India is the third-largest emitter of CO2 in the world, after China and the United States. Agricultural Activities: Farming practices such as burning crop residues, using fertilizers and pesticides, and raising livestock also produce air pollution in India. According to a study by the IIT Delhi, crop burning contributed to 44% of Delhi’s PM2.5 concentration during the peak pollution season in November 2019. Burning of Garbage Waste: Many people in India dispose of their household waste by burning it in open spaces. This practice releases toxic chemicals and dioxins into the air, which can cause cancer and other diseases. According to a study by The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI), waste burning contributed to 29% of Delhi’s PM10 concentration during the winter season in 2018. CHALLENGES IN ADDRESSING AIR POLLUTION Diverse Sources: Air pollution originates from a wide range of sources, including industrial activities, transportation, agriculture, energy production, and natural sources. Coordinating efforts to control and reduce pollution from these diverse sources can be challenging. Urbanization: Rapid urbanization in many parts of the world has led to increased vehicular traffic, industrial activities, and energy consumption, resulting in concentrated sources of air pollution in urban areas. Industrial Growth: Developing economies often experience rapid industrial growth, which can lead to increased emissions of pollutants. Balancing economic development with pollution control is a delicate challenge. Energy Production: The reliance on fossil fuels for energy production is a significant contributor to air pollution. Transitioning to cleaner and more sustainable energy sources presents challenges in terms of infrastructure and policy changes. International Cooperation: Air pollution knows no boundaries, and pollutants can travel across borders. Effective cooperation between countries is necessary to address transboundary pollution and to reduce the global impact of air pollution. Technological Challenges: Developing and implementing advanced pollution control technologies can be costly and technically challenging, especially for older industries and infrastructure. Public Awareness and Behavior: Encouraging individuals to adopt cleaner practices, such as reducing vehicle emissions or using energy-efficient appliances, can be difficult. Public awareness and behavior change campaigns are needed. CONCLUSION The battle against air pollution in India is not just about improving the air quality we breathe, it is a fight for public health, environmental sustainability, and the well-being of future generations. Collaboration at local, national, and international levels is essential to make meaningful progress in reducing air pollution and its associated health and environmental impacts. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Vaccine Diseases 1.Dengue Dengvaxia 2.Tuberclosis Mosquirix 3.Malaria COVAXIN How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Operation Chakra II is launched by NIA. Statement-II : It aims to tackle transnational organized cyber-enabled financial crimes within India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Shi Yan 6 , consider the following statements: It has an overall length of 90.6 meters and a width of 17 meters. It seeks to gather extensive fundamental data. It aims to study and uncover how dynamic processes impact the biogeochemical cycles, ecosystems, and sedimentary processes in the region. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  27th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 26th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

Oct 28, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 26th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) 37th National Games Syllabus Prelims –SPORTS Context: The 37th National Games will be held in Margao. He will also address athletes taking part in the Games. About 37th  National Games:- Time period: 25 October- 9th November,2023. Venue: Margao, Goa. The National Games are being held in Goa for the first time. The Games will conclude on 9th November. More than 10 thousand athletes from across the country will compete in over 43 sports disciplines across 28 venues. The National Games of India stand as a prestigious multi-sport event. Often referred to as the “Indian Olympics,” these games serve as a dynamic platform for athletes from every corner of India to come together, and compete across various sports disciplines. (Indian Olympic Association) Beyond the medals and accolades, the National Games nurture young talent, promote unity, and instil a sense of pride across the country. Historical Background:- The roots of the National Games trace back to the early 1920s when India sent its first national Olympic team to the 1920 Antwerp Olympics, marking a pivotal moment in the nation’s sporting history. The inaugural Indian Olympic Games took place in February 1924 in Delhi, serving as a crucial event to select athletes for the 1924 Paris Olympics. A provisional Indian Olympic Committee (IOA) was established to oversee this event. The Olympic Games were eventually rechristened as the National Games during the 9th edition, held in Bombay in 1940. The IOA recognized the National Games as a concept to foster sports development and the Olympic movement in India. During the British colonial era, the Indian Olympic Games were held 12 times until 1946. Organizing Authority:- The National Games are a collaborative effort between the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) and the respective state governments. Each edition of the games is hosted by a different Indian state. MUST READ: Sports Code SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. · How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this Olympics. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Hurricane Otis Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Hurricane Otis recently made landfall on the coast of southern Mexico. Background:- In Mexico, Hurricane Otis has made landfall on the coast of southern of the country, bringing wind speeds of up to 270 kilometres per hour. About Hurricane Otis:- Hurricane Otis had strengthened rapidly, going from a tropical storm to a Category 5 hurricane in 12 hours, catching many off guard. Otis also became the first Category 5 landfall for the East Pacific, according to the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration’s Hurricane Database, surpassing the 2015 Hurricane Patricia, which made landfall as a Category 4 storm. This made Otis the fastest intensifying hurricane in the Eastern Pacific since 1966. (Naming of Cyclone) About Hurricane:- Hurricanes are tropical storms that form in the Atlantic Ocean. Wind speeds: at least 119 kilometres (74 miles) per hour. Hurricanes derive their energy from the heat released when moist air rises and condenses into clouds and rain. Key characteristics of hurricanes:- Hurricanes form over warm ocean waters when the sea surface temperature is typically above 26 degrees Celsius (79 degrees Fahrenheit). Low-Pressure Centre: Hurricanes have a well-defined centre of low atmospheric pressure, known as the eye. Strong Winds: winds can reach sustained speeds of at least 74 miles per hour (119 kilometres per hour) or higher. Heavy Rainfall. MUST READ: Climate Change fuelling Hurricanes SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 Curcuma kakchingense Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, a new flowering plant species Curcuma kakchingense was discovered in Manipur. About Curcuma kakchingense:- Location: Kakching district, Manipur. It was found dwelling along the bank of the Sekmai River of Kakching district. It has been named Curcuma kakchingense, in honour of the place where it was found. The species has a close resemblance to C. phrayawan and C. longa but is distinguished by having lemon-yellow coloured rhizomes with a very bitter taste, and glabrous dark reddish-brown bladeless sheaths. It has reddish-brown petioles fading towards the edges. It has densely pubescent coma and upper fertile bracts on both surfaces with mucronate tips. It is a broadly ovate bracteole, elongated and revolute apex of the middle lobe of the labellum. It has a stigma protruding through the anther lobes. Significance:- Curcuma is important for its use in cuisines, traditional medicines, spices, dyes, perfumes, cosmetics, and as ornamental plants. Therefore, the discovery of a new species of Curcuma will definitely open up new vistas for investigation of their phytochemistry, biological activity and application in the development of new nutraceuticals or pharmaceutical novelties. MUST READ: Lakadong Turmeric SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Invasive Species Specialist group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations? (2023) The International Union for Conservation of Nature The United Nations Environment Programme The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development The World Wide Fund for Nature Q.2) What is the cas9 protein that is often mentioned in the news? (2019) molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing. A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients. A gene that makes plants pest-resistant A herbicidal substance synthesized in generally modified crops Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation (PRAGATI) Syllabus Prelims – GOVERNANCE Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi chaired the meeting of the 43rd edition of Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation (PRAGATI) recently. About Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation (PRAGATI):- Launched: 2015. Designed by: PMO with the National Informatics Centre. PRAGATI is the ICT-based multi-modal platform for Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation. (Global Digital Governance) Objectives:- Project implementation Project monitoring Grievance redressal Salient Features:- The PRAGATI system is an interactive and integrated platform chiefly established to consider the grievances of the common man. It is a 3-tier system including PM, Secretaries of the GOI, and State Chief Secretaries. Through this platform, several government projects and programs /schemes will be monitored. Through this platform, different secretaries of the GOI and the States’ Chief Secretaries, along with the Prime Minister discussed several issues. The PM holds monthly meetings with the secretaries and Chief Secretaries through this platform. Through this platform, PM also discusses the issues concerning the projects and is also presented with the ground-level situation.  MUST READ: 34th PRAGATI interaction held SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: (2022) Private and public hospitals must adopt it. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the funds under the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements is correct? (2020) MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on a yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2, and 3 only 1, 2, and 4 only Udangudi Panangarupatti Syllabus Prelims – ART AND CULTURE/GEOGRAPHY Context: Recently, Udangudi Panangarupatti got the GI tag. Background:- Udangudi ‘Panangkarupatti’ (palm jaggery/ gur) has been given a Geographical Indication (GI) tag. The application for this was filed by Tirunelveli District Palmyrah Products Cooperative Federation Limited and Patent Information Centre, Tamil Nadu State Council for Science and Technology. About Udangudi Panangarupatti:- Location: Udangudi, Thoothukudi district, Tamil Nadu. The karupatti prepared from the palm sap from the region around Udangudi in Tiruchendur taluk in Thoothukudi district has some uniqueness. Unlike many other areas where chemical additives like triple super phosphate and phosphoric acid are used, Udangudi Panangkarupatti is made without the inclusion of any chemical additives. This is due to the presence of red sand dune soil found in the region. This soil holds less groundwater. (Groundwater extraction) The moisture content in the atmosphere is less because of the dry climatic condition, which leads to high sucrose content, in turn adding taste. The region’s dry climate is suitable for storage of karupatti for a longer duration. The production process involves the collection of palm sap (padhaneer) drop by drop into small earthen pots. This sap is collected during specific months, from March-April to June-July. The collected sap is then boiled in large vessels. Castor seeds are used as an antifoaming agent, and scum is removed during the boiling process. As the temperature reaches a certain range, the jaggery thickens and changes colour, eventually solidifying into ‘Karuppukatti’ in coconut shells. Udangudi jaggery was even exported to foreign countries, including Sri Lanka, Malaysia and Singapore. Moreover, Madurai and Tirunelveli had more than 500 wholesale dealers for Udangudi jaggery.  MUST READ: GI tag for Narasinghapettai nagaswaram SOURCE: THE NEW INDIAN EXPRESS  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (2017) It is a song and dance performance Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Q.2) With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements: (2014) Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 David's Sling Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, Israel recently confirmed using its David’s Sling air-defence system to intercept a Hamas rocket. About David’s Sling:- David’s Sling is a highly sophisticated and state-of-the-art anti-missile defence system. It is also sometimes called Magic Wand. It was developed jointly by Rafael Advanced Defence Systems, an Israeli defence contractor, and Raytheon, an American defence contractor. The system is designed to intercept various types of missiles that may be fired towards Israel by hostile countries. At the core of David’s Sling lies the “Stunner” or “SkyCeptor,” an advanced multi-mission interceptor. This cutting-edge technology is capable of effectively countering a wide array of threats. It makes it lethal, flexible, and affordable for dealing with mass raids of enemy missiles and rockets. David’s Sling achieved operational status in April 2017. It plays a critical role in Israel’s theatre missile defence system. It complements other systems like Arrow 2, Arrow 3, Iron Dome, and Iron Beam. It is aimed to fill an operational gap between Iron Dome, which shoots down short-range rockets, and Arrow, which shoots down long-range ballistic missiles, both are already in use. MUST READ: India, Israel and Palestine SOURCE: THE NEW YORK TIMES  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Mains: DAM SAFETY IN INDIA Syllabus    GS III – INFRASTRUCTURE CAUSES OF DAM FAILURE Overtopping, usually caused by floods that exceed the capacity of the dam Structural failure of materials used in dam construction Inadequate maintenance and upkeep Movement and/or failure of the foundation supporting the dam Settlement and cracking of concrete or embankment dams Piping and internal erosion of soil in embankment dams Deliberate acts of sabotage DAMS REGULATION IN INDIA Dam Safety Act 2021– It aims to prevent dam failure related disasters and provide for institutional mechanisms for surveillance, inspection, operation and maintenance of the specified dams. Central Water Commission (CWC) – It provides technical expertise and guidance on all matters related to dams. Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement Project (DRIP)- It was launched in 2012 with World Bank assistance to improve the safety and operational performance of selected dams, coupled with institutional strengthening through a system wide management approach. National Centre for Earthquake Safety of Dam- Located in Malaviya National Institute of Technology (MNIT), Jaipur, Rajasthan, it is an initiative of Ministry of Jal Shakti towards effective implementation of Dam Safety Act 2021. Efforts of States- Under the 7th Schedule of the Constitution, water and water storage is a state subject. Therefore legislating dam safety is the responsibility of state governments. Bihar was the 1st State to enact the Dam Safety Act in 2006. NEED OF DAM REGULATION Ageing of Dams: As the dams become old, their design and hydrology do not remain at par with the latest understanding and practices. Huge siltation is taking place as a result of which the water holding capacity of dams is getting reduced. Dependent on Dam Managers: The regulation of dams is entirely dependent upon individual dam managers. There is no proper system and understanding in terms of the downstream water requirement. Other factors: Dam safety is dependent upon other factors such as landscape, land-use change, patterns of rainfall, structural features, etc. Failures: In the absence of a proper dam safety framework, shortcomings may get involved in the investigation, design, construction, operation, and maintenance of dams which might lead to serious incidents and sometimes dam failure. CONCLUSION The recent catastrophe in Sikkim have shown how important dam safety regulations are and how it depends on many external factors such as ecology, hydrology, etc. Hence a holistic approach is the need of the hour in which experts from all the concerned areas should be involved. Furthermore, building large dams is proving to be a more environmentally damaging and costly affair than the gains it provides, hence ecological sensitivity should be taken into consideration from now onwards. FEW FACTS ABOUT DAMS Tehri Dam in Uttarakhand is the highest dam in India built on Bhagirathi River. Hirakud Dam in Odisha built on river Mahanadi is the longest dam of India. Kallanai Dam in Tamil Nadu is the oldest dam of India. It is built on the Kaveri River and is about 2000 years old. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Cyclone Location 1.Biparjoy Arabian Sea 2.Asani Bay of Bengal 3.Hamoon Arabian Sea How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : David’s Sling achieved operational status in April 2017. Statement-II : It replaces other systems like Arrow 2, Arrow 3, Iron Dome, and Iron Beam. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the National Games, consider the following statements: They identify and nurture exceptional talent for national and international competitions. The 37th National Games are being held in Pune, Maharashtra. They promote physical fitness, healthy competition, and sportsmanship among India’s diverse population. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  26th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 25th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

Oct 28, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 28th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Oct 27, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 27th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Oct 26, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 25th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Hunter's Moon Lunar Eclipse Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Hunter’s Moon Lunar Eclipse is predicted to be seen on October 28th,2023. Background:- The “Hunter’s Moon” will officially be 100% illuminated at 3:35 p.m. EST on Saturday, October 28, 2023. About Hunter’s Moon Lunar Eclipse:- The Hunter’s Moon is one of the many names given to the full moons throughout the year. Each of these names have its own unique cultural and historical significance. Historical Significance:- Rooted in Native American, Colonial American, and other traditional North American cultures, the names of these moons were used to track the changing seasons and were adopted by colonial settlers. The Hunter’s Moon follows the Harvest Moon, which is the full moon closest to the autumnal equinox. Naming:- Historically, the Harvest Moon allowed farmers to work late into harvesting their crops by the moon’s light. Once the harvest was completed, the Hunter’s Moon would rise signaling a time when game would be fattened and hunted to store for the winter. This moon was a beacon for hunters to begin stocking up for the colder months ahead. Features:- The Hunter’s Moon can sometimes appear red or orange in color, due to the way that sunlight is scattered by the Earth’s atmosphere. This is especially common when the moon is low in the sky, such as during sunrise and sunset. This year’s Hunter’s Moon” will look both more colorful and larger than it will at any other time of night. It will only for about 15 minutes. It will also be more impactful because it’s being viewed in twilight, not darkness. Europe and Africa will be the best placed to see watch the entire event, but it’s a very slight partial lunar eclipse. At the peak of the event about 6% of the full moon will be inside Earth’s dark central shadow . It may look like a small bite has been taken from it. However, as it drifts through Earth’s lighter, outer penumbral shadow it will mostly just seem less bright than usual. About Lunar Eclipse:- An eclipse happens when a planet or a moon gets in the way of the sun’s light. (Eclipses ) A lunar eclipse occurs when the Sun, Earth, and Moon align so that the Moon passes into Earth’s shadow. In the Lunar Eclipse, the Earth arrives in between the sun and the moon. In this way, the shadow of the earth falls on the moon. The lunar eclipse can only happen during the Full Moon. But, the orbits of the moon and earth are different. That’s why the lunar eclipse happens only up to 3-4 times a year. There are three types of lunar eclipses: Total lunar eclipses, partial lunar eclipses, and penumbral lunar eclipses. Total lunar eclipse: entire Moon falls within the darkest part of Earth’s shadow, called the umbra. When the Moon is within the umbra, it will turn a reddish hue. Lunar eclipses are sometimes called “Blood Moons” because of this phenomenon. Partial lunar eclipse: An imperfect alignment of Sun, Earth and Moon results in the Moon passing through only part of Earth’s umbra. The shadow grows and then recedes without ever entirely covering the Moon. Penumbral eclipse: The Moon travels through Earth’s penumbra, or the faint outer part of its shadow. The Moon dims so slightly that it can be difficult to notice  MUST READ: Supermoon SOURCE: SCIENCE ALERT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs on the: (2022) The first half of the month of June The second half of the month of June The first half of the month of July The second half of the month of July Q.2) On 21st June, the Sun (2019) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn World Development Information Day Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, the United Nations (UN) celebrated the World Development Information Day. About World Development Information Day:- IMAGE SOURCE: AIR Established :1972. Date: 24th, October. Objective: to draw the attention of the world to development problems and the need to strengthen international cooperation to solve them. Historical Background:- The UN Conference on Trade and Development proposed measures for information dissemination and public opinion mobilization regarding trade and development problems on May 17, 1972. This came to be known as resolution 3038 (XXVII). This Resolution was passed by the UN General Assembly in 1972 to institute World Development Information Day on October 24. Salient Features:- The day also coincides with the adoption of the ‘International Development Strategy’ for the Second United Nations Development Decade in 1970. The purpose of this day is to highlight global development challenges and the importance of international cooperation in addressing these issues. The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) believes that by enhancing information dissemination and public opinion mobilization, we can raise greater awareness about development issues, particularly among the younger generation. In this article, we’ll delve into the history and significance of this important day. This day coincides with the United Nations Day, celebrated to commemorate the day UN began operating in 1945. (Need for Reforms in UN) Significance:- The day aims to explain to the general public why it is necessary to strengthen international cooperation to solve development problems.  MUST READ: Right to Information (RTI) Act SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana : (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship PM SVANidhi scheme Syllabus Prelims – Government schemes Context: Recent reports suggest that, 75% of beneficiaries of PM SVANidhi scheme come from non-general category with OBCs accounting for 44%. Background:- An SBI research report has praised the Modi government’s micro-credit PM SVANidhi scheme for street vendors for ensuring inclusive entrepreneurship. The report said, that the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes account for 22 percent of the total disbursement of the PM Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) scheme and 43 percent of the total beneficiaries are women. The SBI report said that female share indicates empowerment of entrepreneurial capabilities of urban females, giving SVANidhi a gender equaliser tag. About PM SVANidhi scheme:- Launched in 2020. (PM SVANidhi scheme) Ministry: Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs. Implementation agency: Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI). Objective: Providing affordable Working Capital loans to street vendors to resume their livelihoods that have been adversely affected due to the Covid-19 lockdown. The scheme intends to facilitate collateral-free working capital loans of up to INR10,000/- of one-year tenure, to approximately 50 lakh street vendors. It is a Central Sector Scheme. Central sector schemes: schemes with 100% funding by the Central government and implemented by the Central Government machinery. Duration of the scheme: The duration of the scheme initially was until March 2022. Extension of the scheme:- It has been extended till December 2024. This was done with a focus on enhanced collateral-free affordable loan corpus, increased adoption of digital transactions and holistic socio-economic development of the Street Vendors and their families. Introduction of 3rd loan of upto ₹50,000 in addition to 1st & 2nd loans of ₹10,000 and ₹20,000 respectively was also introduced. Features of the scheme:- Loan limit: Vendors can avail a working capital loan of up to Rs. 10,000. This loan is repayable in monthly instalments for the tenure of one year. No collateral is required to avail of the loan, making it more accessible to street vendors. Processing fee: There is no processing fee to apply for the scheme, making it cost-effective for street vendors. Loan repayment period: one year. Interest subsidy: On timely/ early repayment of the loan, an interest subsidy @ 7% per annum. It will be credited to the bank accounts of beneficiaries through Direct Benefit Transfers on a quarterly basis. Early repayment: There will be no penalty on early repayment of the loan. Additional benefits: The vendors can avail of the facility of escalation of the credit limit on timely/ early repayment of a loan. Credit limit: the maximum amount of credit a financial institution extends to a client on a credit card or a line of credit. Target beneficiaries under the scheme:- This scheme targets to benefit Street Vendors. A vendor, according to the scheme guidelines is any person engaged in vending of articles, goods, wares, food items in a street, footpath, pavement or moving from place to place. Goods supplied: vegetables, fruits, ready-to-eat street food, tea, pakodas, apparel, artisan products, books/ stationary etc. Services provided: barber shops, cobblers, pan shops, laundry services etc. Advantages of the scheme:- The scheme promotes digital transactions through cash-back incentives up to an amount of Rs. 100 per month. The scheme encourages entrepreneurship. It also helps to create employment opportunities. (Programme of Socio-Economic Profiling of PM SVANidhi launched)  MUST READ: SVANidhi se Samriddhi program SOURCE: AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: (2019) PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 2 and 3 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4 Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT INSTITUTIONS Context: Recently, Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)chief Somnath said that the space agency will prefer woman fighter test pilots for its Gaganyaan mission. Background:- He also said ISRO would send a female humanoid – a robot that resembles a human – in its unmanned Gaganyaan spacecraft next year. About Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO):- Establishment: 1969. Agency: Department of Space (DOS). HQ: Bengaluru, Karnataka. Objective: to harness space technology for national development while pursuing space science research and planetary exploration. Historic Background:- ISRO was previously the Indian National Committee for Space Research (INCOSPAR), set up by the Government of India in 1962, as envisioned by Dr. VikramA Sarabhai. ISRO was formed on August 15, 1969 and superseded INCOSPAR with an expanded role to harness space technology. Salient Features:- ISRO is the space agency under the Department of Space of Government of India. The organization is involved in science, engineering and technology to harvest the benefits of outer space for India and the mankind. ISRO is a major constituent of the Department of Space (DOS), Government of India. The department executes the Indian Space Programme primarily through various Centres or units within ISRO. Functions: Space Science & Exploration Satellites. Antrix Corporation Limited (ACL) is a Marketing arm of ISRO for the promotion and commercial exploitation of space products, technical consultancy services, and transfer of technologies developed by ISRO. ISRO Milestones:- The first Indian-made sounding rocket was the RH-75 (Rohini-75). The first Indian satellite, Aryabhata, was built by the ISRO. Development of the PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle) for placing satellites into polar orbits and the GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle) for placing satellites into geostationary orbits. (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR) satellite) ISRO also launched the first IRS (remote-sensing satellite) in 1988. ISRO launched its first lunar mission Chandrayaan I in 2008. In January 2014, ISRO used an indigenously built cryogenic engine for a GSLV-D5 launch of the GSAT-14 satellite making it one of the only six countries in the world to develop a cryogenic technology. It also launched the Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM) or the Mangalyaan in 2014. India launched Chandrayaan-2, its second lunar exploration mission after Chandrayaan-1 on 22nd July 2019. India launched Chandrayaan-3 in 2023. MUST READ: Shukrayaan I SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct? (2023) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times that received at the poles. Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation. Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere. Infrared waves are a part of the visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation. Q.2) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Vaishno Devi shrine Syllabus Prelims – ART AND CULTURE Context: As per recent reports, the number of pilgrims visiting Mata Vaishno Devi shrine in J&K this year crosses 80 lakh mark. About Vaishno Devi shrine:- Location: Jammu and Kashmir. The shrine is a religious pilgrimage atop the Trikuta hills in Reasi district of Jammu region. The Vaishno Devi temple is one of the 108 Shakti Peethas dedicated to Durga. Although Vaishno Devi was discovered many centuries ago, but only in 1846 it was founded in the real sense by Maharaja Gulab Singh. It is one of the most visited Hindu pilgrimage sites in India. This temple is popular worldwide as it is believed that “Moonh Maangi Muradein Poori Karne Wali Mata”, the deity here, fulfils whatever her believers wish for. This holy cave is located at an altitude of 5,200 feet . The pilgrims have to undertake a trek of almost 12 km starting from Katra. Upon reaching the Bhawan, pilgrims are blessed with the darshans of the goddess inside the Sanctum Sanctorum, i.e. the Holy Cave. In this cave, the goddess is in the shape of three natural rock formations, also known as “Pindies”. It is important to note here that there are no statues or idols inside the Cave. Darshans to this holy deity are open round the clock throughout the year. (Puri Jagannath Temple)  MUST READ: Khajuraho temples SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (2017) It is a song and dance performance Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Q.2) Kalamkari painting refers to (2015) a hand-painted cotton textile in South India. a handmade drawing on bamboo handicrafts in Northeast India. a block-painted woollen cloth in the Western Himalayan region of India. a hand-painted decorative silk cloth in North-Western India. Bishan Singh Bedi Syllabus    Prelims –IMPORTANT PERSONALITIES Context: Bishan Singh Bedi, former India spinner, captain and coach, passed away at 77 years old in Delhi. About Bishan Singh Bedi:- Birth: 25 September 1946. Birth place: Punjab. Death: 23 October 2023. Bedi was one India’s iconic spin bowling combination that also featured BS Chandrasekhar and S Venkataraghavan. He made his debut against West Indies in 1966 and played his last Test against England at The Oval in 1979. Bedi, who represented Delhi in domestic cricket, held the remarkable feat of being the highest wicket-taker among Indian players in First-Class cricket, amassing a staggering 1,560 wickets in 370 matches. He played 67 Tests for India between 1967 and 1979. He took 266 wickets in his illustrious career. He also captained the national side in 22 Test matches. He was central to India’s first ODI win when he registered figures of 12-8-6-1 to restrict East Africa to 120 in a 1975 World Cup match. He was an integral part of a famed quartet of India’s world-beating spin bowlers in the 1960s and 70s, which included Erapalli Prasanna, Bhagwat Chandrasekhar and Srinivas Venkataraghavan. Awards:- In 2021, Bedi was picked by readers for a place in BBC Sport’s all-time India Test XI. He was awarded the Padma Shri award in 1970. He was awarded the K. Nayudu Lifetime Achievement Award in 2004.  MUST READ: Sports Code SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS   PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Exercise Harimau Shakti 2023 Syllabus    Prelims –Defence Context: A joint bilateral training exercise “Exercise Harimau Shakti 2023”, between the Indian and Malaysian Armies commenced recently. About Exercise Harimau Shakti 2023:- Venue: Umroi Cantonment, India. It is a joint bilateral training exercise between Indian & Malaysian Armed Forces. Objective: to enhance military capability for conducting of Multi Domain Operations in a sub conventional scenario. The Malaysian Army contingent, comprising troops from the 5th Royal Battalion of the Malaysian Army, joins hands with the Indian contingent represented by a battalion of THE RAJPUT REGIMENT. This exercise is a follow-up to the previous edition held in Pulai, Kluang, Malaysia, in November 2022. Activities:- During the exercise, both contingents will establish a Joint Command Post and an integrated surveillance grid, alongside a Joint Surveillance Centre. The training will focus on coordinated deployment of joint forces in various environments, including jungles, semi-urban, and urban areas. Intelligence collection, collation, and dissemination exercises will also be conducted. The exercise will incorporate modern technology, including Drones/UAVs and Helicopters. Special attention will be given to casualty management and evacuation drills. Logistics management and survival training at the battalion level are crucial components of the training program. Significance:- Exercise Harimau Shakti” represents a significant effort to enhance defense cooperation between the Indian Army and the Malaysian Army. MUST READ: Indian Ocean Naval Symposium SOURCE: THE PRINT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America POLITICIZATION OF BUREAUCRACY Syllabus    GS II – GOVERNANCE Politicization of bureaucracy refers to the dilution of the principle of non-partisanship and implies politically committed bureaucracy. This is the phenomenon in which government agencies and civil servants become influenced by, or involved in, political activities and decisions to an extent that may compromise their neutrality, objectivity, and effectiveness. While some level of interaction between politics and bureaucracy is inevitable in any democratic system, an excessive or inappropriate politicization of the bureaucracy can lead to several issues. VALUES INVOLVED IN THE CASE Political neutrality and impartiality Integrity and probity Courage of conviction Following the code of conduct Legal responsibility CONSEQUENCES WITH POLITICIZATION OF BUREAUCRACY Compromise with Neutrality and Objectivity: Bureaucracies are expected to be neutral and objective in implementing government policies and programs. When bureaucrats become too politically aligned, it can undermine their ability to act impartially and make decisions in the best interest of the public. Erosion of Merit-Based Hiring: In an ideal bureaucracy, hiring and promotions are based on merit and qualifications rather than political connections. Excessive politicization can lead to the appointment of individuals based on their political loyalties rather than their competency, which can harm the efficiency and effectiveness of the bureaucracy. Inefficient Decision-Making: When political considerations drive bureaucratic decisions, it may lead to policies and actions that are driven by short-term political gains rather than long-term public interests. This can result in inefficient, inconsistent, or contradictory decision-making. Lack of Accountability: Politicization can make it difficult to hold bureaucrats accountable for their actions, as they may be shielded by political allies or supporters. This lack of accountability can undermine transparency and public trust in government institutions. Partisanship: Bureaucratic agencies should ideally serve the interests of the public and not be driven by partisan politics. Excessive politicization can lead to a situation where different administrations or political parties seek to use the bureaucracy to further their own agendas, leading to inconsistency and instability in policies and administration. Public Distrust: When people perceive that bureaucracy is being used for political purposes, it can erode public trust in government institutions. This distrust can have negative consequences for social cohesion and the functioning of a democratic system. WAY FORWARD To make an individual high on integrity, it is necessary to provide him with ethical training that will inspire him to improve governance. The moral education will surely ensure that this takes place A dedicated unit to oversee violations of the Code of Ethics & Code of conduct by government officials be set up both at the state and center level. RESTORING THE ECOLOGICAL HEALTH OF THE HIMALAYAS Syllabus         GS III – ENVIRONMENT The environmental devastation caused in the Himalayan States of Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand and Sikkim has reinvigorated the debate on the “carrying capacity’ of the regions. Carrying capacity refers to the maximum sustainable population size an ecosystem can support without significant harm. It’s crucial for balancing human activities with environmental preservation. IMPORTANCE OF ECOLOGICAL HEALTH OF HIMALAYAS Biodiversity Hub: The Himalayas host diverse flora and fauna, making the region crucial for the conservation of numerous endemic and endangered species. Water Source for Asia: As the “Water Tower of Asia,” the Himalayas contribute to major river systems, providing water to millions downstream, emphasizing the importance of ecological health. Climate Regulation: The Himalayas play a pivotal role in global climate regulation, influencing weather patterns, monsoons, and serving as a natural buffer against the impacts of climate change. Energy Security- Almost 33% of the country’s thermal electricity and 52% of its hydro power is dependent on river waters originating in the Himalayas. Cultural and Spiritual Significance: Beyond ecology, the Himalayas hold cultural and spiritual importance, and their ecological well-being is intertwined with the traditional practices and beliefs of local communities. Global Impact: Changes in the Himalayan region, such as glacial melt and altered river flows, can have a global impact. They contribute to rising sea levels, affect regional weather patterns, and have consequences for people and ecosystems far beyond the immediate area. CHALLENGES TO THE ECOLOGICAL HEALTH OF HIMALAYAS Climate Change and Glacial Melting- Rising temperatures due to climate change have led to the rapid melting of glaciers triggering Glacial lake Outburst Flood (GLOF) and affected the downstream flow of water. Tectonic activities in the Himalayas- the Himalayas are young, Fold Mountains are prone to tectonic activities. This makes the region prone to natural disasters such as landslides, avalanches, and earthquakes. Soil Erosion and Landslides- Deforestation, construction activities and improper land use practices increase soil erosion and the risk of landslides during heavy rainfall or seismic events. Ex- Recent Landslides in HP during the heavy rainfall. Unsustainable Tourism- Himalayan Mountains are treated only as tourist destinations, ignoring their micro-climate which has led to upset in the natural balance of the Himalayan ecosystem. Ex- Large crowds and jams in Shimla, Manali. Erosion of Cultural Values of Environmental conservation- Traditional Himalayan communities have distinct cultural practices and ways of life closely tied to their natural surroundings. However, Unsustainable urbanisation has been led to the erosion of cultural values of environmental conservation. Ex- Movements like Chipko Movement are no longer observed. Growth of Invasive species- The growth of Invasive species in the Himalayan natural ecosystem has disrupted the delicate balance of ecosystem and threatened the survival of native species. Ex- Clusters of purple flowers (Cirsium arvense), mats of white clover (Trifolium repens) and small tumbleweed mustard with bright yellow flowers (Sisymbrium loeselii) are the threatening invasive species of the Himalayas. Improper Waste Management- The slopes of HimalayanMountains have been dumped with garbage which has affected the natural flora and fauna balance of the Himalayan ecosystem. CONCLUSION The imperative for sustainable development in the Himalayan region requires a comprehensive assessment of carrying capacity. The Supreme Court’s intervention serves as a catalyst for a people-centric, inclusive, and holistic approach, emphasizing long-term environmental health and citizen involvement. With united efforts we will restore Himalayan glory again Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: EXERCISE COUNTRIES 1.Dharma Guardian India & Nepal 2.SIMBEX India & Singapore 3.Table Top India & Bangladesh How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None  Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Vaishno Devi shrine is a religious pilgrimage atop the Trikuta hills Statement-II : The Vaishno Devi temple is one of the 108 Shakti Peethas dedicated to Laxmi. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), consider the following statements: It was established in 1969. The first Indian satellite, Aryabhata, was built by the ISRO. It launched the Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM) or the Mangalyaan in 2012. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  25th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 24th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) – a

Oct 26, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 26th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

Oct 25, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 24th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Hamoon Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: The cyclonic storm “Hamoon” that has formed over the Bay of Bengal has rapidly intensified into a severe cyclonic storm as per recent reports. About Hamoon:- IMAGE SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Cyclone Hamoon is brewing near India over the Bay of Bengal. Southern states in India are likely to witness rainfall this week. According to the India Meteorological Department (IMD), a deep depression over the West central Bay of Bengal likely to intensify into a Cyclonic Storm during the next 6 hours.( Colour Coded Weather Warning) Cyclones Tej and Hamoon are considered to be twin cyclones that developed over the north Indian Ocean. The last such twin cyclones ‘Luban’ and ‘Titli’ were recorded in 2018. About Cyclone:- A cyclone is a pattern of winds (or air mass) that circulates a low-pressure system. It rotates counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere. It is typically associated with wet and stormy weather. (Naming of Cyclone) Classification:- There are two types of cyclones: Tropical cyclones and Extra-tropical cyclones (also called Temperate cyclones) Tropical cyclone:- It is an intense circular storm that originates over warm tropical oceans. It is characterized by low atmospheric pressure, high winds, and heavy rain. These are formed over slightly warm ocean waters. The temperature of the top layer of the sea, up to a depth of about 60 meters, needs to be at least 28°C to support the formation of a cyclone. April-May and October-December periods are conducive for cyclones. Then, the low level of air above the waters needs to have an ‘anticlockwise’ rotation (in the northern hemisphere; clockwise in the southern hemisphere). During these periods, there was an ITCZ in the Bay of Bengal. Extratropical cyclones:- It occurs in temperate zones and high-latitude regions, though they are known to originate in the Polar Regions. These are active above the mid-latitudinal region between 35° and 65° latitude in both hemispheres. The direction of movement is from west to east and is more pronounced in the winter seasons. MUST READ: Bomb Cyclone SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 Dengue Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY-HEALTH Context: Dengue cases upsurge have been reported in various Indian states recently. Background:- Dengue and other vector-borne diseases which have afflicted one in four Indian families with one or more members over the last three years, according to a survey by social media platform Local Circles, have seen a fresh upsurge in recent weeks across states. About Dengue:- Dengue is a vector-borne disease transmitted by the bite of an infected female Aedes Aegypti The mosquito becomes infected when it feeds on the blood of a person infected with the virus. There are 4 serotypes of the virus that cause dengue. These are known as DEN-1, DEN-2, DEN-3, and DEN-4. Dengue cannot be spread directly from person to person. Most cases occur in tropical areas of the world, including the Indian subcontinent, Southeast Asia, Southern China, Taiwan, the Pacific Islands, the Caribbean, Mexico, Africa, and Central, and South Symptoms:- High fever Headache Vomiting Muscle and joint pains Skin Rash The diagnosis of dengue infection is done with a blood test. WHO estimates 39 crore dengue virus infections per year, of which 9.6 crore show symptoms. Vaccines:- DNA vaccines induce an adaptive immune response. (Controlling Dengue Using Wolbachia Bacteria) DNA vaccines are often referred to as third-generation vaccines. They use engineered DNA to induce an immunologic response in the host against bacteria, parasites, viruses, and potentially cancer. The vaccines that are currently available to the global population include those for measles, mumps, rubella, seasonal influenza virus, tetanus, polio, Hepatitis B, cervical cancer, diphtheria, pertussis as well as several other diseases that are endemic to certain regions of the world. MUST READ: Malaria Vaccine SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements: (2021) Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory (LIGO) Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, the Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory (LIGO) has surpassed the Quantum Limit. About Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory (LIGO):- IMAGE SOURCE: LIGO-India gets the green light | Astronomy.com LIGO is an international network of laboratories. It aims to detect the ripples in spacetime produced by the movement of large celestial objects. It comprises two enormous laser interferometers located thousands of kilometres apart, each having two arms which are 4 km long. It exploits the physical properties of light and of space itself to detect and understand the origins of Gravitational Waves (GW). Gravitational Waves: These are invisible ripples in space that form when: A star explodes in a supernova. Two big stars orbit each other. Two black holes merge. Neutron star-Black hole (NS-BH) merges. They travel at the speed of light (1,86,000 miles per second) and squeeze and stretch anything in their path. These were proposed by Albert Einstein in his General Theory of Relativity. However, the first gravitational wave was actually detected by LIGO only in 2015. LIGO detectors:- Four comparable detectors will be operating simultaneously around the globe to localize a source of gravitational waves anywhere in the sky. (International Space Station (ISS)) The twin LIGO initially built were, in Louisiana (first) and Washington (second) in the U.S. LIGO-India will be the third of its kind in the world. (Space Economy of India) The fourth detector will be in Kagra, Japan. LIGO: an international network of laboratories that detect gravitational waves. The LIGO in the US first detected gravitational waves in 2015, which led to a Nobel Prize in Physics in 2017. Its detector components are completely isolated and sheltered from the outside world. Unlike optical or radio telescopes, it does not see electromagnetic radiation because gravitational waves are not part of the electromagnetic spectrum. It doesn’t need to collect light from stars. it doesn’t need to be round or dish-shaped like optical telescope mirrors or radio telescope dishes, both of which focus EM radiation to produce images.  MUST READ: SpaceTech Innovation Network (SpIN) SOURCE: SCIENCE ALERT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) Consider the following statements (2022) Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics. Nanoparticles of the same commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 3 only 1 and 2 2 and 3 Nano DAP fertilize Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, Union Home Minister Amit Shah inaugurated India’s first liquid nano di-ammonia phosphate (DAP) fertilizer plant. Background:- Talking to Akashvani, IFFCO chairman Dilip Sanghani said this plant will hugely benefit the farmers and also help reduce the import of DAP in the country. About nano DAP fertilizer:- Establishment:2023. Established by: Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited (IFFCO ) Place: Kalol in Gandhinagar, Gujarat. It is India’s first liquid nano-ammonia phosphate (DAP) plant. Nano liquid DAP fertilizeris is a concentrated phosphate-based fertilizer. DAP is the second most consumed fertilizer in the country after urea. It provides phosphorous nutrition throughout the crop growth and development cycle. Advantages:- Diammonium phosphate (DAP) is the world’s most widely used phosphorus fertilizer. (Fertilizer sector in India) DAP is the second most consumed fertilizer in the country after urea. Nano-DAP will help to bring down India’s fertilizer import bill. It is also expected to contribute to bringing down the annual subsidy on non-urea fertilizers. Significance:- It is an important beginning to make India self-reliant in the field of fertilizers. It is expected to boost India’s food grain production, ensuring food security. MUST READ: Reforming the Fertilizer Sector SOURCE: AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following organisms perform the waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food? (2023) Butterflies Dragonflies Honeybees Wasps Q.2) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 International Film Festival of India IFFI-2023 Syllabus Prelims –AWARDS Context: Recent announcements indicate that 25 feature films and 20 non-feature films are to be screened under the Indian Panorama section of the International Film Festival of India IFFI-2023 this year. About the International Film Festival of India IFFI-2023:- Date: 20th to 28th of November. Venue: Goa. Organized by: National Film Development Corporation of India Ltd (NFDC). Ministry: Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. Historical Background:- Since 1952, India has hosted 53 International Film Festival of India (IFFI) both competitive and non-competitive. The festival became an annual event from 1975 onwards. The 54th edition of the festival, which includes a competition for feature films by Directors from all Continents will be held in Goa. Government of India in collaboration with the State Government of Goa and the Indian Film Industry. The Festival is recognized by the International Federation of Film Producers Associations (FIAPF) as a Competitive Feature Film Festival. Objectives:- providing a common platform for filmmakers of the world to project their excellence in film art. contributing to the understanding and appreciation of film cultures of different nations in the context of their social and cultural ethos promoting friendship and co-operation among people of the world. Categories:- The festival programme is broadly divided into the following categories: – International Competition for Feature Films (up to 15 numbers. Up to three Indian Films will be selected for this section. Fiction Films with a minimum duration of 70 minutes and above). Non-Competition (World Panorama) – for feature films from around the world ( Films with a minimum duration of 70 minutes and above). Country Focus & other specially curated packages (Indian & Foreign) and Special Screenings/Gala Premieres. Indian Panorama – for Indian feature films, Indian Panorama Regulations 2023 will be applicable. Technical Workshops/Masterclasses/other Interactive and academic Sessions/Panel Discussions/Talent Hub etc. both virtual and physical. Film Bazaar: IFFI also hosts the Film Bazaar, South Asia’s largest and One of Asia’s most prolific Film Markets showcasing rich content to potential buyers from different countries across the world. National Film Development Corporation Ltd (NFDC) reserves the right to exclude films that are not in conformity with the philosophy and objective of the festival, which could offend the feelings/susceptibilities of any participating country, or are likely to promote discrimination of any kind. Awards & Prizes:- Best Film: A Cash prize of Rs. 40,00,000/- to be shared equally between the Director and Producer. (The urgent need for CBFC reforms) Director to be given the Golden Peacock and a Certificate in addition to the cash component. Producer to be given a Certificate in addition to the cash component. Best Director: Silver Peacock, Certificate and a cash prize of Rs.15,00,000/- Best Actor (Male): Silver Peacock, Certificate and a cash prize of Rs. 10,00,000/- Best Actor (Female): Silver Peacock, Certificate and a cash prize of Rs. 10,00,000/- Special Jury Award: Silver Peacock, Certificate and a cash prize of Rs. 15,00,000/- given to a film (for any aspect of the film which the jury wishes to award/acknowledge) or an individual (for his/her artistic contribution to a film). The award, if given to a film, will be given to the Director of the film. Award for Best Debut Feature Film of a Director. Satyajit Ray Lifetime Achievement Award for Excellence in Cinema This prestigious award, instituted in the name of legendry filmmaker Satyajit Ray, consisting of a cash prize of Rs. 10,00,000/-, certificate, shawl, Medal (Silver Peacock) and a scroll, is conferred upon a master filmmaker/film techniciana/film personalities for his / her outstanding contribution to cinema. Indian Film Personality of the Year Award This prestigious award consisting of a cash prize of Rs 10, 00,000/-, certificate, shawl and Medal (Silver Peacock) is conferred upon an Indian film personality for his/her outstanding contribution to Indian Cinema. ICFT UNESCO – Gandhi Medal Award The Gandhi Medal Award is given to a film reflecting UNESCO’s fundamental mandate of building peace in the minds of men and women, particularly human rights.  MUST READ: Golden Globes Award SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Mains: UNBORN CHILD AND WOMEN’S RIGHTS Syllabus      GS-II The Supreme Court of India recently denied permission to a 27-year-old married woman who was in her 26th week of pregnancy, seeking legal permission to terminate her pregnancy. The woman asserted her physical, emotional, mental, financial, and medical inability to carry, deliver, or raise another child, citing her pre-existing conditions and experiences with postpartum depression. The Court expressed reluctance to order a medical termination when the pregnancy is viable and does not pose an immediate threat to the woman’s life. This judgment led to a debate over unborn child rights. RIGHTS OF THE UNBORN CHILD Woman does not have an absolute right of autonomy to exercise her reproductive rights in a way that would compromise the rights of the unborn child. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act of 2021, extended the deadline for abortion to 24 weeks in exceptional circumstances, which is allowed only if necessary to save the life of the mother or in cases of a fatal deformity detected in the fetus. If there is a viable baby, the relief cannot be one-sided. The State has a responsibility to protect the life of the child, especially since a medical opinion suggests a chance of survival. Justice Hima Kohli agrees that the woman should not be permitted to terminate the pregnancy. Her opinion aligns with the idea that the rights of the unborn child and the State’s responsibility should be considered. RIGHT OF THE PREGNANT WOMEN Paramount Consideration to the mother’s well-being, privacy, and dignity. If any woman has taken a conscious decision not to have the baby, then this decision should be respected, taking into account the woman’s mental condition and her inability to care for her unborn child. Justice B.V. Nagarathna emphasized that the woman’s decision should be respected and consideration of the woman’s socio-economic situation is must. She also points out that this is not a case of a viable baby being born or unborn, and the priority should be given to the interests of the woman. CONCLUSION The balance between the rights of unborn children and women’s rights is often complex and context-dependent. It is typically addressed through a combination of legal, ethical, medical, and personal considerations. Ultimately, resolving this issue is a matter of societal values, legal frameworks, and individual choices, and it varies from one jurisdiction to another.   Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Disease Caused by 1.Chikungunya Chikungunya virus 2.Dengue Dengue viruses 3.Malaria Rhinovirus How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: The International Film Festival of India IFFI-2023 will be held in Mumbai. Statement-II: The award for Best Director will get a Silver Peacock, a Certificate and a cash prize of Rs.15,00,000/- Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to cyclone Hamoon, consider the following statements: Cyclones Tej and Hamoon are considered to be twin cyclones that developed over the north Indian Ocean. The last twin cyclones ‘Luban’ and ‘Titli’ were recorded in 2008. It developed over the Arabian Sea. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  24th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 21st October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) -b  Q.3) – a

Oct 25, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 25th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Oct 25, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 21st October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Patachitra paintings Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: In a village in Bengal, a unique tradition of creating Durga traces its origins to Odisha’s Patachitra paintings. Background:- The ‘pat er Durga’, where the Goddess Durga is created on cloth instead of the more conventional clay, traces its origins to Odisha’s Patachitra paintings. About Patachitra paintings:- Pattachitra art is one of the oldest forms of art from Pattachitra – giving the art form its name. Pattachitra paintings come from Orissa in the 5th century. The earliest records of Pattachitra art come from the village of Puri. Pattachitra art is still popular in this region today.  (Madhubani painting) The craftsmen behind this art form are known as ‘Maharanas’ and ‘Mohapatras’. Puri was originally established by King Narasingha Deva 1 of the 13th-century Eastern Ganga dynasty. (Mural Art) The artists who live in this village trace their origins back to the Savar tribe. Pattachitra paintings originally emerged of three deities (Jagannath and his brother and sister). It was a means for devotees to worship them when the idols were kept away for the 15 days following the bathing. This style of art was originally known as ‘Anasar Patti’ in honour of the 15 days of seclusion before becoming known as Pattachitra. The word ‘pattachitra’ means cloth painting and comes from the two words ‘pata’ and ‘chitra’. This type of art form is known as scroll painting and was typically carried out on cloth. This art style was used to depict images of Hindu mythological stories and fascinating characters. It has distinctive bold colours and Italian craftsmanship. These paintings incorporate Indian customs, rituals, and values in a unique and beautiful way that celebrates the Hindu faith and religion. This traditional art has evolved to appear in clothing and accessories, becoming living art that you can incorporate into your everyday life. MUST READ: Ancient rock paintings SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the cultural history of India, which one of the following is the correct description of the term ‘paramitas’? (2020) The earliest Dharmashastra texts written in aphoristic (sutra) style Philosophical schools that did not accept the authority of Vedas Perfections whose attainment led to the Bodhisattva path Powerful merchant guilds of early medieval South India Q.2) The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings (2017) Ajanta Badami Bagh Ellora Gaganyaan Syllabus Prelims –SPACE Context: After an initial hiccup recently, the ISRO’s Gaganyaan mission safety test flight was successfully tested. About Gaganyaan:- Planned Launch:2023. Agency: Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). Country: INDIA. Rocket: GSLV Mk-III. GSLV Mk-III: it is also called the LVM-3 (Launch Vehicle Mark-3,) the three-stage heavy lift launch vehicle. Gaganyaan is India’s 1st Human spaceflight programme to be launched by 2023. It envisages a demonstration of human spaceflight capability by launching a crew of 3 members to an orbit of 400 km for a 3-day mission and bringing them back safely to earth, by landing in Indian sea waters. Timeline so far:- It includes two unmanned flights which were to be launched in December 2020 and July 2021 and one human space flight to be launched in December 2021. However, due to COVID-19 Pandemic it got delayed. The Mission specifications:- The Gaganyaan system module, called the Orbital Module will have three Indian astronauts. It will include a It will circle Earth at a low-earth orbit at an altitude of 300-400 km from Earth for 5-7 days. The payload will consist of:- Crew module – spacecraft carrying human beings. Service module – powered by two liquid propellant engines. The crew members will be selected by the IAF and ISR. Crew will perform micro-gravity and other scientific experiments for a week. Training in Russia: In June 2019, the Human Space Flight Centre of the ISRO and the Russian government-owned Glavkosmos signed a contract for the training, which includes Russian support in the selection of candidates, their medical examination, and space training. Significance:- It will make India the 4th country to send a manned mission after Russia, the USA and China. Employment generation. Technological advancement.  MUST READ: India – USA space cooperation SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fueled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Ajinomoto Syllabus Prelims – science and technology Context: Recently the impact of Ajinomoto on the human body was explored. Background:- Ajinomoto is widely used in processed foods, restaurant cuisine, and fast-food items About Ajinomoto:- Ajinomoto is a brand name for monosodium glutamate (MSG), a common food additive used to enhance the flavour of foods. MSG is a flavour enhancer that adds an umami taste to food, which is often described as a savoury, meaty, or brothy flavour. It is rich in sodium, a component of salt. Ajinomoto itself offers no nutritional value. It is primarily used to enhance the umami or savoury taste of foods. It can make dishes taste more flavourful and appealing, which is why it’s commonly used in many cuisines. It is widely used in processed foods, restaurant cuisine, and fast-food items. Potential impacts:- Some individuals claim to experience symptoms like headaches, sweating, and chest pain after consuming foods containing MSG. (Food Safety and Standards Authority of India) Some individuals may be sensitive to high doses of MSG or have underlying health conditions that make them more susceptible to its effects. MUST READ: Lead Poisoning in India SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Bisphenol A (BPA), a cause of concern, is a structural/key component in the manufacture of which of the following kinds of plastics? (2021) Low-density polyethylene Polycarbonate Polyethylene terephthalate Polyvinyl Chloride Q.2)“Triclosan” considered harmful when exposed to high levels for a long time, is most likely present in which of the following? (2021) Food preservatives Fruit ripening substances reused plastic containers Toiletries INS Imphal Syllabus Prelims –Defense Context: Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL) recently, delivered INS Imphal to the Indian Navy. About INS Imphal:- It is the third ship of the Project 15B Class of stealth-guided missile destroyers. The first ship of P15B Class, INS Visakhapatnam, was commissioned on November 21, 2021. The second ship INS Mormugao was commissioned on December 18, 2022. The fourth, INS Surat, was launched on May 17, 2022. Imphal was the first naval warship commissioned with accommodation for women officers and sailors. It can accommodate a crew of 312 persons. It has an endurance of 4,000 nautical miles. It can carry out a 42-day mission with extended mission time in an out-of-area operation. The ship is equipped with two helicopters onboard to further extend its reach. The ship was constructed using indigenous steel “DMR 249A”. It is among the largest destroyers built in India, with an overall length of 164 metres and a displacement of over 7,500 tonnes. It is a potent platform capable of undertaking a variety of tasks and missions, spanning the full spectrum of maritime warfare. It is armed with supersonic Surface-to-Surface Brahmos missiles and Barak-8 Medium Range Surface-to-Air missiles. The destroyer is fitted with indigenously developed anti-submarine weapons and sensors, prominently the hull-mounted Sonar Humsa NG, heavyweight torpedo tube launchers, and ASW rocket launchers. It is more versatile than previous Classes of destroyers and frigates in the naval inventory. Its all-round capability against enemy submarines, surface warships, anti-ship missiles, and fighter aircraft would enable it to operate independently without supporting vessels. The ship is propelled by a powerful Combined Gas and Gas Propulsion Plant (COGAG), consisting of four reversible gas turbines, which enables her to achieve a speed of over 30 knots (approximately 55 kmph). The ship boasts of a very high level of automation with sophisticated digital networks such as Gigabyte Ethernet-based Ship Data Network (GESDN), Combat Management System (CMS), Automatic Power Management System (APMS) and Integrated Platform Management System (IPMS). MUST READ: International Maritime Exercise/ Cutlass Express 2023 SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Cannabis Context: The recommended dose of Cannabidiol (CBD) in Cannabis was slashed in the UK recently, over safety concerns. Background:- CBD, or cannabidiol, is the second most prevalent active ingredient in cannabis (marijuana). CBD’s effects have been tested on a range of ailments, from schizophrenia to anxiety, with mixed results. CBD is readily obtainable in most parts of the United States, though its exact legal status has been in flux. All 50 states have laws legalizing CBD with varying degrees of restriction. In December 2015, the FDA eased the regulatory requirements to allow researchers to conduct CBD trials. It isn’t regulated by the UK’s drugs regulator but by the Food Standards Agency (FSA). In 2020, the FSA recommended that daily consumption of CBD should not exceed 70mg. Now, the FSA and Food Standards Scotland have reduced this limit to 10mg – roughly four drops of 5% CBD oil. About Cannabis:- According to the WHO, cannabis is a generic term used to denote the several psychoactive preparations of the plant Cannabis sativa. (UN Decides Cannabis Not A Dangerous Narcotic) Cannabis, weed, pot, and marijuana all refer to the same group of plants known for their relaxing and calming effects. Cannabis is made up of more than 120 components, which are known as cannabinoids. Medical uses:- The most common uses for medical cannabis are in severe or long-term pain, due to:- Chemotherapy (cancer treatments) Painful muscle spasms. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) Cancer-related pain Glaucoma HIV/AIDS-related weight loss or nausea/vomiting Huntington’s disease Inflammatory bowel disease Multiple sclerosis Muscle spasms Neuropathy Parkinson’s disease Short-term effects of cannabis:- relaxation giddiness experiencing things around you, such as sights and sounds, more intensely increased appetite altered perception of time and events focus and creativity Side effects:- coordination issues delayed reaction time nausea lethargy anxiety increased heart rate decreased blood pressure paranoia Long-term effects of cannabis:- Brain development: According to some research, people who start using cannabis in their teens may have more memory and learning problems than those who don’t use cannabis in their teens. Dependence: Some people can also become dependent on cannabis or even experience withdrawal symptoms when not using cannabis, such as irritability, low appetite, and mood swings. Respiratory problems: Smoking cannabis carries similar risks to smoking tobacco. Legal Regulations in India:- Under India’s Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act 1985, the production, manufacture, possession, sale, purchase, transport, and use of cannabis is a punishable offence. (Status of Cannabis) The Act was enacted in 1985 which succeeded the Dangerous Drugs Act 1930. The Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) is vested with the power to charge individuals in cases related to the illegal use and supply of narcotics. The NDPS Act defines:- Ganja: flowering or fruiting tops of the cannabis plant but it clearly excludes the seeds and leaves. Charas: the separated resin extracted from the cannabis plant. The Act illegalises any mixture with or without any neutral material, of any of the two forms of cannabis, charas and ganja, or any drink prepared from it. The legislature left seeds and leaves of the cannabis plant out of the ambit of the Act because the serrated leaves of the plant have negligible tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) content. ‘Bhang’, which is a paste made out of the leaves of the cannabis plant is hence not outlawed. Similarly, CBD oil, an acronym for cannabidiol derived from the leaves of the cannabis plant, would not come under the NDPS Act. The NDPS Act does not permit the recreational use of cannabis in India.  MUST READ: Drug Addiction SOURCE: SCIENCE DIRECT  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following trees: (2023) Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus.) Mahua (Madhuca indica) Teak (Tectona grandis) How many of the above are deciduous trees? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Some mushrooms have medicinal properties. Some mushrooms have psychoactive properties. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Fukushima nuclear plant tragedy Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Scientists recently, tested the fish after water release from the Fukushima nuclear plant. Background:- A team of international scientists collected fish samples from a port town near Japan’s crippled Fukushima nuclear plant, seeking to assess the impact of the plant’s recent release of treated radioactive water into the sea. About the Fukushima nuclear plant tragedy:- Fukushima Daiichi Nuclear power plant meltdown: (Zaporizhzhia nuclear plant) Nuclear power plant: a type of power plant that uses the process of nuclear fission in order to generate electricity. Nuclear fission: atoms are split apart to form smaller atoms, releasing energy. Location: Japan. (India – Japan Relations) Causes: a massive earthquake and tsunami. Impact: It released large amounts of radioactive materials into the environment. Causalities: No deaths were initially attributed to the incident. Although around 18,000 people lost their lives as a result of the earthquake and tsunami. ( Early Tsunami Warning System in India) Development after tragedy:- Since then, Japan has been storing the cooling water for nuclear fuel, and rain and groundwater seeping through the damaged reactor buildings in large tanks on site. The water is treated using a filtering system called Advanced Liquid Processing System (ALPS). ALPS: a filtering system that removes most of the radioactive elements except for tritium. Tritium: a hydrogen isotope that is difficult to separate.  MUST READ: India’s Nuclear Energy SOURCE: THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements : (2023) None of them uses seawater. None of them is set up in a water-stressed district. None of them is privately owned. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) Monazite is a source of rare earths. Monazite contains thorium. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Exercise Milan Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: The Ministry of Defence recently, notified that the Navy will host the ‘Exercise Milan’ series of exercises in February 2024. Background:- It is likely to witness the largest-ever participation with invites having been extended to 50 countries. About Exercise Milan:- Started: 1995. Venue: Visakhapatnam. Date: 19 and 27 February 2024. Hosted by: Indian Navy. Milan is a biennial multilateral naval exercise. It was incepted by the Indian Navy. MILAN 22 was conducted at/ off Visakhapatnam from February 25 Feb – 04 Mar 2022. It witnessed participation from 39 countries. The harbour phase of MILAN 24 will comprise an International Maritime Seminar, City Parade at RK Beach, Swavlamban Exhibition, Subject Matter Expert Exchange, and Milan of Young Officers. Warships, maritime patrol aircraft and submarines of friendly foreign countries will participate in the sea phase along with Indian Navy units. The drill will involve large-force manoeuvres, advanced air defence operations, anti-submarine warfare and anti-surface warfare operations.  MUST READ: India’s growing defence diplomacy footprint SOURCE: THE TRIBUNE  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fueled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following countries: (2022) Azerbaijan Kyrgyzstan Tajikistan Uzbekistan Turkmenistan Which of the above has borders with Afghanistan? 1, 2 and 5 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 only 3, 4 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Mains: CONCERNS WITH INTERLINKING RIVERS Syllabus  GS-III ABOUT THE INTERLINKING RIVERS Inter Linking of Rivers refers to inter-basin water transfers between 2 or more rivers through human interventions on natural systems. India’s National Water Development Agency (NWDA) has suggested the interlinking of rivers of the country. The interlinking of rivers has two components: the Himalayan and the Peninsular. All interlinking schemes are aimed at transferring of water from one river system to another or by lifting across natural basins. Because of Large variation in rainfall and subsequent availability of water resources in space and time, floods and drought coexist in our country in same time and space. ( Kerala, T.N and South Karnataka is facing drought while Rajasthan, Gujarat, Assam reeling under floods) The project is aimed at addressing droughts and floods. CONCERNS WITH INTERLINKING RIVERS Ecological Concerns Water scientists and Environmentalists have remarked that the water flowing into the sea is not waste. It is a crucial link in the water cycle. With the link broken, the ecological balance of land and oceans, freshwater and sea water, also gets disrupted It is feared that diversion of water from the Brahmaputra and the Ganges, which provide 85% of the country’s fresh water flow in the dry season, would result into an ecological disaster. Economic Concerns As this project is of massive estimated cost, a long term planning and a sound financial simulation are required to meet the standard for such proposals The huge expenditure of the project and the maintenance costs associated with the dams, canals, tunnels, and captive electric power generation will involve huge financial burdens. This may generate fiscal problems that are difficult to handle. This certainly requires financial assistance from the private sector as well as global capital agencies. Mobilization of global capital may ultimately entail the risk of destroying social welfare measures. Environmental concerns It will result in massive diversion of forest areas and submergence of land leading to deforestation and soil- erosion. For example The Ken-Betwa link project puts in danger over 4,100 hectares of forest land or 8% of the Panna National Park. There will be destruction of rivers, aquatic and terrestrial biodiversity, fisheries and groundwater recharge. Possible downstream impacts, salinity ingress, pollution concentration, and increased methane emission from reservoirs are other adverse repercussions. It could most likely create trigger points of natural disasters like landslides, earthquakes etc. as seen in case of Koyna dam and Tehri dam. Social Concerns Reconstruction and rehabilitation due to displacement is not an easy task as seen before. The construction of reservoirs and river linking canals in the peninsular component alone expect to displace more than 5, 83,000 people and submerge large areas of forest, agriculture and non-agriculture land. It is likely to create social unrest/psychological damage and cultural alienation due to forced resettlement of local indigenous tribal community. Political issue Water being a state subject, the Interlinking plan further complicates existing water sharing and management problems between the riparian states. Some of the Interlinking Rivers schemes have international implications, which may create strained relationship with neighboring countries like Bhutan, Nepal and Bangladesh. CONCLUSION While river interlinking projects in India aim to address water-related challenges, they come with a range of environmental, social, political, and economic concerns. A comprehensive and transparent assessment of the potential benefits and risks is necessary before proceeding with such large-scale projects. It is essential to involve all stakeholders, including affected communities, in the decision-making process to ensure that their concerns are addressed and that the projects are implemented with sustainability and long-term considerations in mind. The third Belt and Road Forum Syllabus   GS-II The Third Belt and Road Forum for International Cooperation convened in Beijing, China. Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) is a massive and ambitious infrastructure development and economic integration project launched by the People’s Republic of China in 2013. The initiative is aimed at improving connectivity and cooperation between countries in Asia, Europe, and Africa, as well as promoting economic growth and development. The BRI encompasses two main components: the Silk Road Economic Belt and the 21st Century Maritime Silk Road. The “Belt” refers to the overland routes connecting China to Europe through Central Asia, the Middle East, and Russia. The “Road” pertains to the maritime routes connecting China to Southeast Asia, South Asia, Africa, and Europe. ACHIEVEMENTS OF THE BRI Establishment of the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB): China has established the AIIB with a substantial $100 billion, challenging existing lending institutions and enabling early gains from the BRI. Global Branding for Xi Jinping: The BRI has provided President Xi Jinping with a platform to establish himself as a global statesman and project China’s power and influence overseas. It has been incorporated into China’s domestic political framework. BRI Cooperation Pacts: Over 200 BRI cooperation pacts have been signed with more than 150 nations, demonstrating the initiative’s global reach and influence. Addressing the Global Infrastructure Deficit: The BRI aims to bridge the global infrastructure deficit, including access to electricity, clean water, and broadband, with projects ranging from motorways to digital infrastructure. CHALLENGES OF THE BRI Ecological Damage: The large-scale infrastructure development associated with the BRI can have adverse environmental consequences. Projects, such as dam construction and transport infrastructure, can lead to deforestation, habitat destruction, and pollution. Ensuring that BRI projects meet international environmental standards is crucial. Debt Sustainability: One of the most prominent concerns is the potential for participating countries to accumulate unsustainable levels of debt due to BRI projects. China’s financing often comes in the form of loans, which can be difficult for some countries to repay. High debt burdens can compromise a country’s economic stability and sovereignty. Geopolitical Concerns: Critics argue that the BRI can be used to extend China’s influence and soft power in participating countries. It is perceived by some as a means for China to exert its economic and political influence in regions where it is expanding its presence. Security Risks: The development of critical infrastructure, such as ports and telecommunications networks, could pose security risks for host countries. There are concerns that these projects may be used for espionage, or that China could gain undue influence over a host nation’s strategic assets. Social and Labor Concerns: The influx of Chinese workers for BRI projects can displace local labor and create social tensions. Ensuring that BRI projects benefit local communities, provide employment opportunities, and adhere to labor standards is crucial. Unequal Benefits: In cases like the China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC), there are perceptions that the BRI disproportionately benefits China, raising questions about the initiative’s win-win cooperation tagline. CONCLUSION As the BRI nears its second decade, it faces pivotal choices. Despite notable global infrastructure achievements, sustainability, fairness, and environmental issues pose challenges. Emerging global alternatives signal diverse visions for international cooperation, shaping the BRI’s future based on China’s ability to address these challenges and adapt to evolving global dynamics. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Exercise Participating countries 1.Sampriti India & Sri Lanka 2.Garuda Shakti India & Indonesia 3.Ekuverin India and the Maldives How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: INS Imphal Imphal was the first naval warship commissioned with accommodation for women officers and sailors. Statement-II: It undertook its first sea sortie on April 28, 2022. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Ajinomoto, consider the following statements: It is rich in sodium, a component of salt. Ajinomoto offers great nutritional value. It is widely used in processed foods, restaurant cuisine, and fast-food items. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Mains Questions: Q.1) The interlinking of rivers can provide viable solutions to the multi-dimensional inter-related problems of droughts, floods, and interrupted navigation. Critically examine. Q.2) China’s Belt and Road Initiative is an embodiment of its debt-trap diplomacy. Also, it raises concerns about the financial sustainability of the projects along with the social and environmental impact of the infrastructure projects. Discuss. Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  21st October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 20th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

Oct 25, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 23rd October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Abu Dhabi Masters 2023 Syllabus Prelims –SPORTS Context: Unnati Hooda won the women’s singles title at Abu Dhabi Masters 2023. Background:- This is her second BWF Super 100 World Tour title. She became the youngest Indian to clinch a BWF title last year at 14 years of age. About Abu Dhabi Masters 2023:- IMAGE SOURCE: WorldAtlas Date: 17 – 22 OCTOBER, 2023. Venue: ADNEC Marina Hall, Abu Dhabi, UAE. Abu Dhabi Masters 2023 is the first-ever International badminton spectacle in the capital city. It will take place under the esteemed patronage of Shaikh Nahyan bin Mubarak Al Nahyan, the UAE Badminton Federation, in partnership with 316 Sports Services. (Grand Slam) This historic occasion promises to be a thrilling showcase of talent, skill, and sportsmanship, bringing together 200 professional players from around the world. (Sports Code) MUST READ: Chess Olympiad SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. · How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this Olympics. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Malaria Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: As per recent research, emerging drug resistance in eastern Africa is hindering the fight against malaria. Key findings:- The treatment of malaria in eastern Africa is encountering a significant challenge as the parasites have started developing resistance to artemisinin, the core component used for treating the disease, according to a new study. Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) has been a highly effective treatment for non-severe cases since the early 2000s. While the clinical effectiveness of ACT remains generally robust in the continent, the recent emergence of partial artemisinin resistance in the eastern African countries of Rwanda, Uganda and Eritrea has raised significant concerns. Most of the countries in Africa are not on track to achieving the goal of eliminating malaria in the continent by 2030, according to the African Union Malaria Progress Report 2022. About Malaria:- IMAGE SOURCE: A Happy Ending To Malaria Story? – Scientific Animations It is a life-threatening mosquito-borne blood disease. It is caused by Plasmodium parasites. It is predominantly found in the tropical and subtropical areas of Africa, South America as well and Asia. It is preventable as well as curable. Symptoms:- Symptoms usually begin ten to fifteen days after being bitten by an infected mosquito. Symptoms include fever, tiredness, vomiting, and headaches. In severe cases, it can cause jaundice, seizures, coma, or death. Transmission:- The parasites spread through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. In the human body, parasites initially multiply in liver cells and then attack the Red Blood Cells (RBCs). There are 5 parasite species that cause Malaria in humans and 2 of these species (Plasmodium falciparum and Plasmodium vivax) pose the greatest threat. Prevention:- Using mosquito nets when sleeping in places where malaria is present Using mosquito repellents (containing DEET, IR3535 or Icaridin) after dusk Using coils and vaporizers. Wearing protective clothing. Using window screens. Treatment:- Artemisinin-based combination therapy medicines like artemether-lumefantrine are usually the most effective medicines. Chloroquine is recommended for the treatment of infection with the vivax parasite only in places where it is still sensitive to this medicine. Primaquine should be added to the main treatment to prevent relapses of infection with the P. vivax and P. ovale parasites. Most medicines used are in pill form. Some people may need to go to a health centre or hospital for injectable medicines. (Malaria Vaccine) India’s status:- In India, malaria elimination efforts were initiated in 2015. These were intensified after the launch of the National Framework for Malaria Elimination (NFME) in 2016. It is an initiative under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. NFME is in line with WHO’s 2016-2030 Malaria Strategy. (World Malaria Report 2021) WHO’s 2016-2030 Malaria Strategy: guides the WHO Global Malaria Programme (GMP). Status on elimination: India continues to show a sustained decline in overall malaria but faces several challenges in its malaria elimination journey. MUST READ: New hope for malaria vaccine SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following diseases (2014) Diphtheria Chickenpox Smallpox Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated in India? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 None Q.2) Widespread resistance of the malarial parasites to drugs like chloroquine has prompted attempts to develop a malarial vaccine to combat malaria. Why is it difficult to develop an effective malaria vaccine? (2010) Malaria is caused by several species of Plasmodium Man does not develop immunity to malaria during natural infection Vaccines can be developed only against bacteria Man is only an intermediate host and not the definitive host Green credit programme Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: The Centre recently, notified the Green Credit programme. Background:- The Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change on October 13, 2023, notified the ‘green credit’ programme. About the Green credit programme:- Launched: 2023. Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman had launched “Green Credit Programme”(GCP) in Union Budget 2023-24. Ministry: Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change.3234 Objective: to create a market-based mechanism for undertaking environment-friendly activities such as afforestation programmes, and water conservation by providing additional incentives in the form of green credits. It is a first-of-a-kind market-based instrument designed to incentivize individuals, industries and local bodies for their voluntary environmental actions across diverse sectors. It will be launched at the national level to incentivize voluntary environmental actions of various stakeholders. It will encourage private sector industries by taking actions which are able to converge with activities relevant to generating or buying Green Credits. Green Credit: it is an incentive that individuals, farmer-producer organizations (FPOs), industries, and rural and urban local bodies, among other stakeholders, will be able to earn for environment-positive actions. Governance Structure of GCP:- GCP Administrator The Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) will be the administrator of GCP. ICFRE: it is an autonomous organization or governmental agency under the MoEFCC. Its aim is to generate, advance and disseminate scientific knowledge and technologies for ecological security, improved productivity, livelihood enhancement and sustainable use of forest resources through forestry research and education. It will manage, monitor and operate the entire programme. Steering committee It will be set up to approve procedures for institutionalizing the GCP, rules and regulations It will recommend it to the central government for issuance of a Green Credit Certificate. (Green Bonds) It will also determine the type and amount of fees and charges for the purpose of meeting the cost and expense towards implementation of GCP. Working of GCP:- The GCP administrator will collect the environmental compensation and deposit it in a separate dedicated account. This fund shall be utilized for activities related to the implementation of GCP. For instance, an individual who undertakes tree plantation in an area, can earn green credits, which he can sell at the trading platform after validation by the steering committee. Benefits of GCP:- It allows forests to be traded as a commodity. It allows the Forest Department to outsource one of its responsibilities of reforesting to non-government agencies. It will encourage plantation by individuals outside the traditional forest area. It will help in meeting international commitments such as sustainable development goals and nationally determined contributions. MUST READ: Green Urban Oases Programme SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency Q.2) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Chetak helicopters Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: Indian Army will begin phase-out of Cheetah, Chetak helicopters from 2027. Background:- The Army will start phasing out the first lot of the vintage Cheetah and Chetak helicopters from 2027 onwards on completion of their Total Technical Life (TTL) while it looks to induct the indigenous Light Utility Helicopters (LUH) in numbers to replace them. The Army is expected to receive six LUH between December 2024 and June 2025. About Chetak helicopters:- Year of Manufacture: 1962. Manufactured by: Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL). Maximum speed: Over 210 km/hrs. The Helicopter Division started manufacturing helicopters in 1962, by entering an agreement with France for the production of Aloutte III helicopters (Chetak). The first Chetak in ‘Fly Away’ condition was delivered in 1965. The Chetak helicopter is the oldest helicopter of the Indian Air Force inducted by Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd (HAL) in 1965. It is a two-ton class helicopter. It is a single-engine helicopter that can carry seven people, including two pilots. The helicopter is versatile, multi-role, multi-purpose, and spacious. The Chetak is operated by each of the three services and also the Coast Guard, however, it has been the military’s workhorse for decades. The helicopter is suitable for commuting, cargo/material transport, casualty evacuation, Search and rescue (SAR), Aerial Survey and patrolling, Emergency Medical Services, Off-shore operations, and Underslung operations. The Chetak helicopter is powered by a single Turbomeca Artoustte III B turboshaft engine. Cheetah helicopter:- Operated by: both the Indian Air Force and the Army Aviation Corps. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited signed a licence agreement for the Lama with Aérospatiale in 1970 and christened the India-made aircraft “Cheetah”. The first Cheetah manufactured from raw materials was delivered in 1976-77. It is a licence-built version of the French Aérospatiale SA 315B Lama. It is known for its capability to operate in hot tropical weather as well as high altitude conditions. (MH-60R helicopters) The SA315B Lama was first flown in 1969, over 50 years ago. Over the years, it has developed a reputation for being unsafe, with the armed forces attempting to find upgrades for these rotorcraft. It has been used for transporting men and material, search and rescue, and reconnaissance. Cheetahs have especially been crucial for operations in Siachen, the world’s highest battleground at over 6,000 m. MUST READ: Asia’s largest helicopter manufacturing facility SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on it. Earth’s core Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Recent studies show evidence of the leaking of Earth’s core. Background:- Record concentrations of a helium isotope found inside 62-million-year-old Arctic rocks could be the most compelling evidence to date of a slow leak in our planet’s core. Building on the results of a previous analysis of ancient lava flows, a team of geochemists from Woods Hole Oceanographic Institution and the California Institute of Technology are now more certain than ever that helium trapped in the core as our planet was forming is making its way to the surface. About Earth’s core:- IMAGE SOURCE: WorldAtlas The Earth can be divided into one of two ways: mechanically or chemically. Mechanically ( or through the study of liquid states )– it can be divided into the lithosphere, asthenosphere, mesospheric mantle, outer core, and inner core. Chemically (or by composition), which is the more popular of the two, it can be divided into the crust, the mantle (subdivided into the upper and lower mantle), and the core (subdivided into the outer core, and inner core.) The Crust The Crust is the cold, fragile, and rock-based outer layer. There are two types of crust, each with unique physical and chemical characteristics: (i) continental crust; and (ii) oceanic crust. Basalt lava flows are produced when magma under the seafloor erupts, forming the oceanic crust. The oceanic crust is 5 km thinner than the continental crust (about 30 km). Silica (Si) and Aluminum (Al) are the two main components of the crust. Mantle The mantle is the layer beneath the crust. The Mohorovich Discontinuity is the separation between the crust and mantle. The mantle has a thickness of around 2900 km. Approximately 84% of the earth’s volume and 67% of its mass are made up of the mantle. It is primarily composed of silicon and magnesium. The entire crust and the topmost solid portion of the mantle comprise the An extremely vicious, weakly elastic, ductile, deforming zone of the upper mantle, the asthenosphere (between 80 and 200 km), is located just beneath the lithosphere. Core It is the layer that surrounds the earth’s core that is the Guttenberg’s Discontinuity divides the mantle from the core. It is also called NIFE since it contains nickel (Ni) and iron (Fe). Nearly 15% of the earth’s volume and 32.5 per cent of its mass are made up of the core. The density of the earth’s core fluctuates around 5 and 14.5 g/cm3. The inner core and the outer core are the sub-layers that make up the Core. The inner core is solid, but the outer core is liquid (or semi-liquid). MUST READ: Supermoon SOURCE: SCIENCE ALERT PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs on the: (2022) The first half of the month of June The second half of the month of June The first half of the month of July The second half of the month of July Q.2) On 21st June, the Sun (2019) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle does not set below the horizon at the Antarctic Circle shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn Mains: VIENNA CONVECTION ON DIPLOMATS Syllabus     GS-II The “Vienna Convention on Diplomats,” is an international treaty that was adopted by 61 countries on April 18, 1961. This convention is a fundamental document in international law and governs the conduct of diplomatic relations between independent states. It was drafted during the United Nations Conference on Diplomatic Intercourse and Immunities, held in Vienna, Austria. It is considered a cornerstone of modern diplomatic law and practice. KEY PROVISIONS Diplomatic Immunity (Articles 29 to 36)       Diplomats and their families are granted immunity from the jurisdiction of the host country’s legal system for their official actions. Extends to criminal and civil matters and ensures that diplomats cannot be prosecuted or sued in the host country’s courts. Inviolability of Diplomatic Premises (Articles 22 to 27)       Diplomatic premises, such as embassies and consulates, are considered inviolable. They cannot be entered or searched by the host country’s authorities without the permission of the sending state. Non-Interference (Article 41) Diplomatic agents are expected not to interfere in the internal affairs of the host country. This principle promotes peaceful coexistence and respectful relations between states. Protection of Diplomatic Missions (Articles 22 to 27)          Host country is responsible for ensuring the security and protection of diplomatic missions and their staff. Includes safeguarding the physical premises and preventing any intrusion or damage. Termination of Diplomatic Relations (Articles 45 to 50)      Outlines procedures for the termination of diplomatic relations between states. Includes orderly withdrawal of diplomatic personnel and the closure of diplomatic missions. Article 11.1  It deals with the size of international missions within other countries. In the absence of a specific agreement as to the size of the mission, the receiving State may require that the size of a mission be kept within limits considered to be reasonable and normal. NEED OF VIENNA CONVECTION Establishing a Standardized Framework: The convention provides a universally accepted and standardized framework for diplomatic relations between states. This common set of rules and principles helps to avoid misunderstandings and conflicts related to diplomatic conduct. Promoting Diplomatic Relations: By establishing a clear legal framework for diplomatic relations, the convention encourages states to engage in diplomatic relationships. This, in turn, contributes to open channels of communication and peaceful means of dispute resolution. Protection of Diplomats: It ensures that diplomats can perform their duties without fear of harassment, arrest, or harm. This protection is essential for diplomats to represent their countries effectively and safely. Promoting Diplomatic Immunity: It allows diplomats to carry out their responsibilities without being subject to the jurisdiction of the host country’s legal system, which could lead to politically motivated arrests or interference in their work. Respect for the Principle of Non-Interference: The Vienna Convention reinforces the principle of non-interference in the internal affairs of the host country. This principle is essential for maintaining peaceful relations and respecting the sovereignty of states. Preventing Diplomatic Crises: Clear rules and guidelines help prevent diplomatic incidents that could lead to crises. The convention stipulates how diplomatic missions and agents should conduct themselves, minimizing the potential for misunderstandings and conflicts. Conclusion: The Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations has been widely adopted by countries around the world and is considered a cornerstone of diplomatic law and practice. It establishes a framework that helps maintain peaceful relations among nations and ensures the functioning of diplomatic missions in a manner that respects the sovereignty and dignity of both sending and receiving states. Violations of the convention can have significant diplomatic and legal consequences. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Institutions Headquarters 1.CBI Kolkata 2.NIA New Delhi 3.SEBI Mumbai How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Abu Dhabi Masters 2023 has a cash prize of $120,000. Statement-II : It is the first-ever International badminton spectacle in the capital city. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Chetak Helicopters, consider the following statements: It is a two-ton class helicopter. It is a double-engine helicopter that can carry seven people. The helicopter was inducted by Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd (HAL) in 1960. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 2 only Mains Question: Q.1) Comment on the need and importance of international convention on diplomatic relations. Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  23rd October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 21st October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – c