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Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 6th November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 4th November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 1st November 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Cloud seeding Syllabus UPSC Prelims – GEOGRAPHY UPSC Prelims – Science & Technology Context: Recently, IITM Pune demonstrated that cloud seeding can produce rainfall. Background:- A cloud seeding experiment was carried out in Solapur city, which falls on the leeward side of the Western Ghats. About Cloud seeding:- IMAGE SOURCE: IASBABA Cloud seeding is a kind of weather modification technology to create artificial rainfall. The goal of this work is to change the amount of precipitation that falls from the sky or to alter the type that would reach the ground. Mechanism:- It is a way of changing the amount or type of precipitation that falls from clouds, by dispersing substances into the air that serve as cloud condensation. Drones are charged into the clouds and cause an electric shock due to which they clump together and cause rainfall. Silver iodide, dry ice, and potassium iodide are the most common items used to initiate the cloud-seeding process. Types:- There are three cloud seeding methods: static, dynamic and hygroscopic. Static cloud seeding: involves spreading a chemical like silver iodide into clouds. Dynamic cloud seeding: aims to boost vertical air currents, which encourages more water to pass through the clouds, translating into more rain. Hygroscopic cloud seeding: disperses salts through flares or explosives in the lower portions of clouds. Advantages of Cloud Seeding:- Cloud seeding can help to produce more precipitation. (Cloudbursts) It can make the land more suitable for living. It helps to regulate weather patterns in specific locations. Disadvantages of Cloud Seeding:- Specific atmospheric conditions must exist for cloud seeding to work: It works only when there are enough pre-existing clouds in the atmosphere. The effectiveness of cloud seeding is still under review. It is an expensive venture. MUST READ: Cloud Wars SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs on the: (2022) The first half of the month of June The second half of the month of June The first half of the month of July The second half of the month of July Q.2) On 21st June, the Sun (2019) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle does not set below the horizon at the Antarctic Circle shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn Carbon nano florets Syllabus UPSC Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, IIT Bombay researchers discovered that Carbon nanoflorets can convert incident sunlight to heat . Background:- Carbon nanoflorets made by IIT Bombay researchers can convert incident sunlight to heat with 87% efficiency. About Carbon nanoflorets:- Carbon nanoflorets are like tiny marigold flowers made only of carbon. They have an unprecedented ability to absorb sunlight at multiple frequencies and convert it into heat with exceptional efficiency. The carbon nanoflorets’ high efficiency comes from three properties:- They can absorb infrared, visible, and ultraviolet light, unlike traditional solar-thermal conversion materials that only absorb visible and ultraviolet light. As light falls on the material, the carbon cones ensure that very little is reflected back. Parts of the structure at some distance from each other possess different physical properties. As a result, heat waves in the material aren’t carried over long distances, reducing the amount of heat dissipated away. Making:- To create the carbon nanoflorets, the DFNS powder was heated in a furnace and introduced acetylene gas into the chamber. The white powder turned black, indicating that carbon had been deposited on the DFNS. After dissolving the DFNS with a strong chemical, what remained were spherical nanostructures made of carbon cones. The nanoflorets resemble tiny marigold flowers. Advantages:- Carbon is inexpensive and the nanoflorets can generate heat sustainably, without having to burn fossil fuels. (Carbon Trading) They can offer a sustainable solution for heating homes. They offer sterilizing surfaces in hospitals without relying on fossil fuels. (Climate Change) MUST READ: Mitigating Climate Change SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution? (2020) Automobile exhaust Tobacco smoke Woodburning Using varnished wooden furniture Using products made of polyurethane Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) With reference to ‘fuel cells’ in which hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to generate electricity, consider the following statements : (2015) If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by-products. Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop computers. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar Syllabus UPSC Prelims –IMPORTANT AWARDS UPSC Prelims – Polity Context: Recently, the Union government instituted the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar. About Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar:- Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar includes 56 prizes to felicitate scientists, technologists and innovators. The 56 proposed awards are a stark reduction from the almost 300 science prizes that used to be given by Union Ministries. The awards will commence in 2024. The awards will be announced annually on May 11, which is National Technology Day. They will be awarded on National Space Day, August 23. They will be given by the President or the Vice President. Eligibility:- Scientists/ technologists/innovators working in government, private sector organizations or any individual working outside any organization, who have made distinguished contributions in terms of path-breaking research or innovation or discovery in any field of science, technology, or technology-led- led innovation shall be eligible for the awards. People of Indian Origin staying abroad with exceptional contributions benefiting the Indian communities or society shall also be eligible for the awards. Categories:- Categories: 3 Vigyan Ratna, 25 Vigyan Shri, 25 Vigyan Yuva–Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar, and 3 Vigyan Team. Vigyan Ratna: will recognize the lifetime achievement of scientists. Vigyan Shri: will recognize distinguished contributions to a field. Vigyan Yuva Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar: will encourage young scientists who have made exceptional contributions in their field, and the Vigyan Team will recognize teams of three or more. Decoration:– All Awards will have a Sanad & a medal. (Padma awards) MUST READ:  Padma awardee Shanti Devi SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Kerala Piravi Syllabus UPSC Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi greeted people of Kerala on the occasion of Kerala Piravi. Background:- Greeting people on the occasion, the Prime Minister said, known for their diligence and the rich tapestry of their cultural heritage, the people of Kerala embody resilience and determination. About Kerala Piravi:- Kerala Piravi is celebrated in the Indian state of Kerala on November 1st every year. It is a day that marks the establishment of the state of Kerala as a separate entity on November 1, 1956. The state of Kerala was formed by combining the former states of Travancore-Cochin with the Malabar district and Kasaragod taluk of South Canara district. This significant event marked the end of the political and administrative system of the feudal kingdoms in Kerala and the beginning of a new era of democratic governance. The term “Kerala Piravi” translates to “the birth of Kerala,” which connotes the significance of the day. Kerala Piravi is an opportunity for Keralites to revisit their rich cultural heritage and reflect on their history, culture, and traditions. The day is celebrated with great pomp and show, and various cultural programs are organized to showcase the state’s art, music, dance, literature, and cuisine. The day is also marked by numerous commemorative events, including cultural parades, folk dances, and exhibitions showcasing the state’s history, culture, and traditions. (Mohiniyattam) One of the main attractions of the festival is the famous President’s Trophy Boat Race competition held in Kovalam. It is a time for people to come together to celebrate their shared history and to look forward to a bright and prosperous future. MUST READ: Kerala and National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) Which one of the following statements is correct? (2021) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora River. Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of the Chambal River. Pandu – lena cave shrines lie in the gorge of the Narmada River. Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of the Godavari River. Prachand Syllabus Prelims –Science & Technology (Defence) Context: Army’s Light Combat Helicopter Prachand successfully carried out its inaugural firing recently. Background:- In an exclusive interview with All India Radio, the Director General of the Army Aviation Corps Lt Gen AK Suri underscored that with each passing year Army Aviation Corps is setting new milestones in terms of capability building and increasing its sphere of influence. One of the youngest corps of the Indian Army, Army Aviation was created as a separate arm on 1st November 1986. About Prachand:- Designed and manufactured by: Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL). It is multi-role and can perform roles of Combat Search and Rescue (CSAR), Destruction of Enemy Air Defence (DEAD) and Counter Insurgency (CI) operations. The LCH has been designed as a twin-engine. (Chetak Helicopters) It is a dedicated combat helicopter of 5.8-ton class, thus categorized as light. It features a narrow fuselage and tandem one-behind-the-other configuration for the pilot and co-pilot. The co-pilot is also the Weapon Systems Operator (WSO). It has a maximum take-off weight of 5.8 tonnes, a maximum speed of 268 kilometres per hour, range of 550 kilometres. It has an endurance of over three hours and a service ceiling the maximum density altitude to which it can fly of 6.5 kilometres. LCH is powered by two French-origin Shakti engines manufactured by the HAL. The helicopter uses radar-absorbing material to lower radar signature and has a significantly crash-proof structure and landing gear. A pressurized cabin offers protection from nuclear, biological and chemical (NBC) contingencies. The LCH is the only attack helicopter in the world that can land and take off at an altitude of 5,000 metres (16,400 ft), which makes it ideal to operate in the high-altitude areas of the Siachen glacier. MUST READ: Asia’s largest helicopter manufacturing facility SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Electoral bonds Syllabus UPSC Prelims – Polity Context: Recently, the Supreme Court flagged the possibility of electoral bonds being used to trade favours. Background:- A Constitution Bench on October 31 raised the scenario of influential entities covertly setting up persons with verified accounts to purchase electoral bonds for them through the regular banking route in order to curry favour or anonymously enter into a quid pro quo with ruling political parties. About Electoral bonds:- An Electoral Bond is like a promissory note that may be purchased by a person who is a citizen of India or incorporated or established in India. A person being an individual can buy Electoral Bonds, either singly or jointly with other individuals. The bonds are like banknotes that are payable to the bearer on demand and are interest-free. Historical Background:- The electoral bonds system was introduced in 2017 by way of a Finance bill. It was implemented in 2018. Eligibility:- Only the Political Parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951 and which secured not less than one per cent of the votes polled in the last General Election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly of the State, shall be eligible to receive the Electoral Bonds. Salient Features:- State Bank of India (SBI) issues the bonds in denominations of Rs 1,000, Rs 10,000, Rs 1 lakh, Rs 10 lakh, and Rs 1 crore. It is payable to the bearer on demand and interest-free. It is purchased by Indian citizens or entities established in India. It can be bought individually or jointly with other individuals. It is valid for 15 calendar days from the date of issue. The State Bank of India (SBI) is the authorized issuer. Electoral Bonds are issued through designated SBI branches. Electoral Bonds can be purchased digitally or through cheques. Encashment only through an authorized bank account of the political party. Political Parties must disclose their bank account with the Election Commission of India (ECI). Advantages of Electoral Bonds:- Ensures Accountability: Donations through Electoral Bonds will only be credited to the party bank account disclosed with the ECI. Discourage Cash: The Purchase will be possible only through a limited number of notified banks and that too through cheque and digital payments. More Transparency: It helps the political parties to operate in a more transparent manner with the election commission, regulatory authorities and the general public at large. Disadvantages of Electoral Bonds:- Hindering Right to Know: Voters will not know which individual, company, or organisation has funded which party, and to what extent. Before the introduction of electoral bonds, political parties had to disclose details of all their donors, who have donated more than Rs 20,000. The change infringes the citizen’s ‘Right to Know’ and makes the political class even more unaccountable. Unauthorized Donations: In a situation where the contribution received through electoral bonds is not reported, it cannot be ascertained whether the political party has taken any donation in violation of provision under Section 29B of the RPA, 1951 which prohibits the political parties from taking donations from government companies and foreign sources. Leads to Crony-Capitalism: It could become a convenient channel for businesses to round-trip their cash parked in tax havens to political parties for a favour or advantage granted in return for something. Anonymous funding might lead to an infusion of black money. MUST READ: Cohort on Election Integrity SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider · the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day : (2023) Statement-I : Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens. Statement-II: On 26 November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India· set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft of the Constitution of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022) This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people. This would create a local self-governing body in that area. This would convert that area into a Union Territory. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State. MAINS Cyber Attacks Syllabus UPSC Mains – GS3 (Security Issues) About A cyber-attack can be defined as a malicious activity or planned attempt by any organization or an individual to steal or corrupt the information of the system of another organization or individual. Different methods used by criminals for cyber-attacks malware, ransom ware, phishing, denial of service, Man in the middle attack. Reasons for Cyber attacks To gain business financial details. To gain customer financial information (for example- Bank details). To gain product design or trade secrets. To gain login credentials and email addresses of various customers or staff. To gain or steal sensitive personal information. To make a social or political point. To destroy business competitor Recent Cyberattacks on India AIIMS: The attack on the All-India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) came to light on November 23, 2022. The attack could have exposed around 40 million patient data. CDSL: India’s second-largest depository, Central Depository Services Limited (CDSL) detected a malware attack on few of its systems. IPCA Laboratories:One of the biggest pharmaceutical companies in India, IPCS was hit by a cybercrime and extortion group called Ransom House. The group claimed to have stolen 500 gigabytes of data from its systems. Challenges in tackling cyberattacks: Low awareness among citizens Poor infrastructure and lack of cybersecurity officials Remoteness of person committing crime is leading to jurisdictional issues Institutional measures IT Act,2000 is the primary law that deals with cyberattacks in India National Cyber Security Policy, 2013 provides the vision and strategic direction to protect the national cyberspace National Critical Information Infrastructure Protection Centre (NCIIPC) is designated as a national nodal agency in respect of critical information infrastructure protection. CERT-in is a national nodal agency to respond against computer security threats as and when required. Do You Know? India is among the top 3 vulnerable nations for Cyber Security. Japan Australia India Sweden has suffered the lowest rate of malware infection. It is considered as one of the best countries with cybersecurity. Conclusion Data being New oil of the economy and in the present geopolitical environment India should have strong legal measures and technology support to handle the ever increasing cyberattacks. Deap Ocean Mission Syllabus UPSC Mains – Science & Technology (GS3) About DOM is India’s ambitious programme for underwater exploration, chiefly implemented by the MoES. This mission has Six pillars to be implemented over a peiod of 5 years. It is one of the 9 missions under PMSTIAC. Importance of Deep Ocean Mission (DOM) New India 2030 document outlines blue economy as 6th core objective of India’s growth. To sustainably harness oceans potential for the nations growth. It supports blue trade and blue manufacturing in India India will become one among the 6 countries to have technology and expertise for such missions To develop capabilities to exploit resources in Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB). About Samudrayaan Matsya6000 is deep submersible designed. It can take 3 crew members. It has operational endurance of 12 hours extendable to 96 hours in case of emergency. Its primary objective is exploration of ocean bed With Matsya, India will be the only country to have an entire ecosystem of underwater vehicles encompassing deep¬water ROVs, polar ROVs, AUVs, deep¬water coring systems, and more. Polymetallic Nodules Potato Shaped porous nodules found in abundance carpeting the sea floor of world oceans in the deep sea. A unique characteristic of deep-ocean nodules compared to terrestrial deposits is the presence of multiple commodities in one deposit; for example, nodules from the Clarion–Clipperton Zone contain Mn, Ni, Cu and Co. Do You Know? USA, Russia, China, France and Japan are the only countries in the world who successfully achieved deep ocean crewed missions. Oceangate, a tourism and expedition company in USA operated a submersible Titan to view the wreck of TITANIC. Due to safety concerns leading to fatal deaths of all the members in the ocean. Deep-ocean mining might avoid some of the environmental issues associated with terrestrial mining. As a part of DOM, Samudrayan project was initiated. It is a crewed expedition to reach 6000m depth ocean bed in the central Indian Ocean. International Body which allocates countries to exploit resources near the basin is by UN international Seabed Authority. India has been allotted 75000sqkm in CIOB to explore Polymetallic Nodules. Other Blue Economy Initiatives Sagarmala Project: Strategic initiative for port led development through extensive use of IT enabled services O SMART: To regulate the use of oceans, marine resources for sustainable development. Conclusion Data being new oil of the economy and in the present geopolitical environment India should have strong legal measures and technology support to handle the ever increasing cyberattacks. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) Consider the following pairs:     Festival State Chhath Puja Bihar Uttarayana Chattisgarh Onam Karnataka How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Donations through Electoral Bonds are only credited to the party bank account disclosed with the ECI. Statement-II: Electoral Bonds can be bought individually or jointly with other individuals. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.3) With reference to the Carbon nano florets, consider the following statements: The nanoflorets resemble tiny marigold flowers. They are made of carbon and hydrogen. They have an unprecedented ability to absorb sunlight at multiple frequencies and convert it into heat. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 2 only Mains Practice Questions Why the prevelance of Cyberwarfare is increasing and how multilateral instituions help in tackling it? Elaborate with some examples. Explain India’s necessity and capabilities in the deep ocean exploration. Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  1st November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 30th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 3rd November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 2nd November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 1st November 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 31st October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 30th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Ambaji temple Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Prime Minister will offer prayers at the famous Ambaji temple in Banaskantha during his visit to Gujarat. About Ambaji temple:- Location: Ambaji in Gujarat, India. Time period: 8th century A.D. Administration: The temple is under the administrative control of a temple trust. Shri Ambaji Mata Temple, is considered one of the major Shakti Peethas in Hinduism. (Kalika Mata temple) This temple honours Ambaji, an incarnation of Amba Mataji. It is one of the fifty-two Shakti Peeths. It is best known for its festivals like Navratri and Diwali, celebrated with joyous ceremonies and poojas. The main temple complex houses the revered Shree Visa Yantra, which many believe symbolizes divine power and grace. The whole of Ambaji town is surrounded by many temples near Ambaji temple and pilgrim spots, attracting thousands of tourists from around the country and even overseas annually. MUST READ: Somnath Temple SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of the Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) With reference  to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: (2021) It is a circular temple built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. It is the only circular temple built in India. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Asian Para Games 2023 Syllabus Prelims –SPORTS Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi congratulated India’s para-athletes for their outstanding achievements at the Asian Para Games 2023. About Asian Para Games 2023:- Time period: 22 to 28 October 2023. Venue: Hangzhou, China. The last edition of the Asian Games in Jakarta, Indonesia in 2018. India dispatched its largest-ever contingent to the fourth edition of the Asian Para Games. It consisted of 303 athletes, including 191 men and 112 women. This marks a notable increase from the 190 athletes India sent to the 2018 Asian Para Games, where they delivered their best-ever performance, clinching 72 medals, including 15 gold. (Indian Olympic Association) India finished with 111 medals at the Asian Para Games:- 29 gold 31 silver and 51 bronze The Asian Para rich haul is also a hat-tip to the parents, coaches and administrators who spotted and nurtured the sporting passion in the hearts and minds of children with physical disabilities. MUST READ: Sports Code SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. · How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this Olympics. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 Air Quality Index (AQI) Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: The air quality in Delhi continued to be hazardous as the overall Air Quality Index (AQI) in the city stood at 322 recently. About Air Quality Index (AQI):- IMAGE SOURCE: aqi. in Air Quality Index (AQI) is a number used by government agencies to measure air pollution levels and communicate it to the population. (Air pollution) There are six AQI categories, namely Good, Satisfactory, Moderately polluted, Poor, Very Poor, and Severe. Each of these categories is decided based on ambient concentration values of air pollutants and their likely health impacts (known as health breakpoints). AQ sub-index and health breakpoints are evolved for eight pollutants (PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3, and Pb) for which short-term (up to 24-hours) National Ambient Air Quality Standards are prescribed. As the AQI increases, it means that a large percentage of the population will experience severe adverse health effects. The measurement of the AQI requires an air monitor and an air pollutant concentration over a specified averaging period. The results are grouped into ranges. Each range is assigned a descriptor, a colour code and a standardized public health advisory. The pollution sources in India and in most Asian countries are numerous and incompletely understood. In Delhi, for example, it comes mostly from light and heavy-duty vehicle traffic emissions, road dust, solid fuel combustion for heating and cooking, biomass, waste burning, thermal power plants, diesel generators, construction and small-scale local industries. ( Delhi and Air Pollution) Government Initiatives:- The National Air Quality Index Standard (NAQI): It was launched by The Minister for Environment, Forests & Climate Change, Shri Prakash Javadekar, on 17 September 2014. The initiative constitutes part of the Government’s mission to introduce the “culture of cleanliness”, as air pollution has been a huge concern in the country, especially in urban areas The National Air Monitoring Program (NAMP): it covers 240 cities in the country, has been operated by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and developed by the Indian Institute of Technology, Kanpur (IIT), providing data in the public domain, on a real-time basis. System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting and Research (SAFAR) Portal. Graded Response Action Plan. Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) Reducing Vehicular Pollution: BS-VI Vehicles, Push for Electric Vehicles (EVs), Odd-Even Policy as an emergency measure. Subsidy to farmers for buying Turbo Happy Seeder (THS) Machine. MUST READ: India’s uphill battle to bring down air pollution SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2023) Aerosols Foam agents Fire retardants Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: (2022) The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m3 and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 ug/m3. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of inclement weather. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only Goa Maritime Conclave 2023 Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: Defence Minister Rajnath Singh will address the Goa Maritime Conclave 2023 recently. Background:- A multinational platform for collaborating collective wisdom on maritime security, this Indian Navy initiative aims to Harness the Maritime Thoughts of Security partners in the Indian Ocean Region. About Goa Maritime Conclave 2023:- Date:29 to 31 October 2023. Organized by: Indian Navy. Venue: Goa. Theme: Maritime Security in the Indian Ocean Region: Converting Common Maritime Priorities into Collaborative Mitigating Frameworks. Previous editions of the were held in 2017, 2019, and 2021. It is a biennial event. It is the 4th edition of Goa Maritime Conclave (GMC) It will be hosting representatives from 12 Indian Ocean littorals, including Bangladesh, Comoros, Indonesia, Madagascar, Malaysia, Mauritius, Myanmar, Seychelles, Singapore, Sri Lanka, and Thailand. It is the Indian Navy’s outreach Initiative providing a multinational platform to harness the collective wisdom of practitioners of maritime security and academia towards garnering outcome-oriented maritime thought. It provides a forum for the exchange of views by the Chiefs of the Navy/ Heads of Maritime Agencies on dealing with contemporary and future maritime challenges, as well as presenting cooperative strategies for enhancing interoperability amongst partner maritime agencies. Topic of discussion:- Identifying Gaps in Regulatory and Legal Frameworks for Achieving Maritime Security in the IOR. Formulation of a Common Multi-lateral Maritime Strategy and Operating Protocols for GMC Nations for Collective Mitigation of Maritime Threats and Challenges. (Indian Ocean Naval Symposium) Identification and Establishment of Collaborative Training Programmes with Center of Excellence across the IOR. Leveraging Activities Pursued Through Existing Multilateral Organizations in the IOR towards Generating Collective Maritime Competencies. (GREEN MARITIME SECTOR) As part of the conclave, visiting dignitaries would also be afforded an opportunity to witness India’s Indigenous shipbuilding industry at the “Make in India Exhibition” and witness the indigenous warships as also capabilities of the Deep Submergence Rescue Vessel (DSRV). MUST READ: Defence Technology and Trade Initiative (DTTI) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Meri Maati Mera Desh campaign Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi will participate in the programme marking the culmination of the Meri Maati Mera Desh campaign’s Amrit Kalash Yatra at Kartavya Path. About Meri Maati Mera Desh campaign:- Amrit Kalash Yatra: 1st September to 31stOctober 2023. The Union government has launched the ‘Meri Maati Mera Desh’ campaign as a grand culmination of the ‘Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav,’ celebrating 75 years of Indian Independence. Under this campaign soil collected from different parts of the country in August will be used to develop a garden along the Kartavya Path in Delhi. The ‘Mitti Kalash’ are to be brought ceremoniously to the larger municipalities/corporations and transported to Kartavya Path This initiative aims to honour and commemorate the sacrifices of martyrs. It includes freedom fighters, defence personnel, and members of the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF) and State Police, who laid down their lives in the line of duty. (Self-reliance in defence) Five-Point Agenda:- Shilaphalakam Installation: Memorials will be erected, adorned with the names of those who made the supreme sacrifice for the nation. Pledge of Commitment: A solemn pledge will be taken by people at the memorial sites. Vasudha Vandhan: Every gram panchayat or village will participate in ‘Vasudha Vandhan’ by planting 75 saplings of indigenous species. Veeron Ka Vandan: Freedom fighters and the families of deceased freedom fighters will be honoured and felicitated. National Flag Hoisting: The National Flag will be proudly hoisted, and the National Anthem will resonate in unison.  MUST READ: Defence Acquisition Council SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘stand up India scheme’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) Its purpose is to promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs. It provides for refinancing through SIDBI. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Mains: NUTRIENT BASED SUBSIDIES Syllabus GS III – AGRICULTURE Context: Recently, the union cabinet has approved Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) rates for the various nutrients of Rabi and Kharif Season for 2022-23. ABOUT NUTRIENT BASED SUBSIDY REGIME Under the NBS regime – fertilizers are provided to the farmers at the subsidized rates based on the nutrients (N, P, K & S) contained in these fertilizers. For Rabi Season 2022-23: NBS approved for various nutrients i.e. Nitrogen (N), Phosphorus (P), Potash (K) and Sulphur (S). For Kharif Season 2023: NBS rates approved for Phosphatic and Potassic (P&K) Fertilizers. Fertilizers containing secondary and micronutrients, like molybdenum (Mo) and zinc, receive extra subsidies. The government announces subsidy rates for Phosphatic and Potassic (P&K) fertilizers annually, considering factors like international and domestic prices, exchange rates, and inventory levels. NBS aims to achieve an optimal balance (N:P:K = 4:2:1) in fertilization, improving soil health and crop yields. Administered by the Department of Fertilizers, Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers since April 2010. ADVANTAGES OF NUTRIENT BASED SUBSIDY Increased Agricultural Productivity: Nutrient-based subsidies encourage farmers to use fertilizers that provide essential nutrients to crops. This can lead to increased crop yields and improved agricultural productivity. By targeting specific nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium, these subsidies can help address nutrient deficiencies in the soil, which can limit crop growth. Balanced Nutrient Use: Nutrient-based subsidies promote the balanced use of fertilizers. By providing incentives for the use of fertilizers containing multiple nutrients, they discourage overreliance on a single nutrient. This helps maintain soil fertility and prevents nutrient imbalances that can harm crops and the environment. Affordability for Farmers: Fertilizers can be a significant cost for farmers, especially smallholder farmers. Nutrient-based subsidies reduce the financial burden on farmers by making fertilizers more affordable. This enables a wider range of farmers to access and use fertilizers to improve their yields. Enhanced Food Security: Higher crop yields resulting from nutrient-based subsidies contribute to increased food production. This can help enhance food security at the national and household levels, ensuring a stable and sufficient food supply. Reduced Import Dependency: Improved agricultural productivity through nutrient-based subsidies can reduce a country’s dependence on food imports. This can have economic benefits by saving foreign exchange and promoting self-sufficiency in food production. ISSUES RELATED TO NBS Economic and Environmental Costs: High subsidy burden strains the economy, leading to imbalanced fertilizer use and environmental issues. Black Marketing and Diversion: Subsidized urea faces illegal sale and smuggling to non-agricultural users. Leakage and Misuse: Inefficient distribution can lead to fertilizer misuse or non-delivery to intended farmers. Regional Disparities: Uniform policy may not cater to diverse regional needs, impacting nutrient application and productivity. WAY FORWARD A uniform policy for all fertilizers is necessary, as nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P), and potassium (K) are crucial for crop yields and quality. In the long term, NBS could be replaced by a flat per-acre cash subsidy that allows farmers to purchase any fertilizer. This subsidy should encompass value-added and customized products that provide efficient nitrogen delivery and other essential nutrients. It is crucial to strike a balance between price control, affordability, and sustainable nutrient management to achieve the desired outcomes of the NBS regime. BHUTAN CHINA BORDER TALKS Syllabus GS II – INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: In Beijing, the 25th round of Bhutan-China Border Talks culminated with the signing of a significant Cooperation Agreement. This historic agreement reflects the progress made in their quest for border resolution, carrying forward the 3-Step Roadmap initiated in 2021. Amid the backdrop of a seven-year gap in talks, these recent developments bear immense significance. OVERVIEW OF BOUNDARY DISPUTE BETWEEN CHINA AND BHUTAN The boundary dispute between Bhutan and China has its roots in historical claims and traditions. Both countries have historically maintained different perceptions of their border in the Doklam Plateau. The dispute has its origins in the 19th century when British India and China signed the 1890 Convention, known as the Sikkim-Tibet Convention. This agreement delineated the border between Sikkim (then a British protectorate) and Tibet (which was under Chinese influence), passing through the Doklam Plateau. Bhutan claims the Doklam Plateau as part of its territory. China, on the other hand, claims that the Doklam Plateau falls within its territory based on its interpretation of the 1890 Convention. The dispute gained international attention in 2017 when a border standoff occurred between Indian and Chinese troops in the Doklam area. This standoff was triggered when Chinese troops attempted to construct a road in the region. India intervened in support of Bhutan’s territorial claims, as it has a special relationship with Bhutan and is responsible for its defense and foreign affairs. BHUTAN- CHINA BORDER TALKS Bhutan and the Tibetan Autonomous Region share an extensive contiguous border, spanning approximately 470 km. prior to 2016, the two nations engaged in 24 rounds of talks to address border disputes. Talks had been stalled due to the Doklam Standoff in 2017 and the subsequent COVID-19 pandemic. However, this interlude witnessed discussions at other levels, especially after China raised concerns about a border dispute to Bhutan’s east. After a prolonged pause in boundary talks lasting seven years, the resumption of discussions signals substantial headway. The 3-Step roadmap, established through a MoU in 2021 and facilitated by the Joint Technical Team (JTT), aims to delineate the Bhutanese and Chinese territories conclusively. Despite the absence of diplomatic ties, Bhutan and China seek to formalize their border. Steps in the Roadmap Agreement on the border “on the table.” On-ground inspections of the border. Formal demarcation of the boundary. INDIA’S CONCERNS India’s Security Concerns: The India-Bhutan-China border issue is directly linked to India’s national security. India is concerned about Chinese encroachments in the region, which could alter the strategic balance and threaten Indian security interests. Strategic Importance: Doklam is strategically significant for India as it overlooks the narrow Siliguri Corridor, also known as the “Chicken’s Neck.” The corridor is a narrow strip of land that connects mainland India with the northeastern states. Any Chinese presence in Doklam could potentially pose a security threat to India’s northeastern region. Strained Sino-Indian Relations: In the context of deteriorating relations between India and China since the 2020 Line of Actual Control standoff, any warming of ties between China and one of India’s closest neighbors` raises concerns in New Delhi. Implications for the Region: The outcome of the border dispute between Bhutan and China has broader regional implications, especially in the context of India-China relations. A peaceful resolution is in the interest of stability and peace in the region CONCLUSION The Bhutan-China boundary dispute is a complex issue with historical, political, and strategic implications. It remains unresolved, and the parties involved continue to engage in diplomatic negotiations to find a mutually acceptable solution. The resolution of this dispute is important not only for Bhutan and China but also for the broader regional stability in South Asia. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Exercise Countries 1.Vajra Prahar India & US 2.Garuda Shakti India & France 3.Konkan India & Oman How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Goa Maritime Conclave 2023 will host Seychelles, Singapore, Sri Lanka, and Thailand only. Statement-II: It is a biennial event. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Ambaji temple, consider the following statements: The main temple complex houses the revered Shree Visa Yantra. This temple honours Ambaji, an incarnation of Amba Mataji. It is not one of the fifty-two Shakti Peeths. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  30th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 28th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) – a

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 28th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri - Jan Arogya Yojana (AB- PMJAY) Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Recent reports show that 26 crore Ayushman Cards have been created under Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri – Jan Arogya Yojana (AB- PMJAY) so far. About Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri – Jan Arogya Yojana (AB- PMJAY):- IMAGE SOURCE: NHA Launched:2018. Ministry: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. (PMBJP) Implementing Agency: National Health Authority. Objectives: to meet Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and its underlining commitment, which is to “leave no one behind.” Historical Background: Ayushman Bharat, a flagship scheme of the Government of India, was launched as recommended by the National Health Policy 2017, to achieve the vision of Universal Health Coverage (UHC). Salient Features:- This scheme aims to undertake path-breaking interventions to holistically address the healthcare system (covering prevention, promotion and ambulatory care) at the primary, secondary and tertiary levels. (Ayushman Bharat PMJAY) Ayushman Bharat comprises two inter-related components:- Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs):– In February 2018, the Government of India announced the creation of 1,50,000 Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs) by transforming the existing Sub Centres and Primary Health Centres. (Pradhan Mantri Janaushadhi Kendra (PMJK)) These centres are to deliver Comprehensive Primary Health Care (CPHC) bringing healthcare closer to the homes of people. They cover both, maternal and child health services and non-communicable diseases, including free essential drugs and diagnostic services. Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY):- This scheme was launched on 23rd September, 2018. Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY is the largest health assurance scheme in the world. It provides health cover of five lakh rupees per family per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization to twelve crore beneficiary families. The households included being based on the deprivation and occupational criteria of the Socio-Economic Caste Census 2011 (SECC 2011) for rural and urban areas respectively. PM-JAY was earlier known as the National Health Protection Scheme (NHPS) before being rechristened. It subsumed the then-existing Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) which had been launched in 2008. It provides cashless access to health care services for the beneficiary at the point of service, that is, the hospital. It covers up to 3 days of pre-hospitalization and 15 days of post-hospitalization expenses such as diagnostics and medicines. There is no restriction on the family size, age or gender. All pre–existing conditions are covered from day one. Benefits:- PM-JAY envisions to help mitigate catastrophic expenditure on medical treatment which pushes nearly 6 crore Indians into poverty each year. Benefits of the scheme are portable across the countrye. a beneficiary can visit any empanelled public or private hospital in India to avail cashless treatment. MUST READ: Ayushman Bharat PMJAY, AB-PMJAY and COVID treatment. SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy : (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Tej Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Extremely severe cyclonic storm Tej has weakened into a very severe cyclonic storm recently. About Tej:- Location: Arabian Sea. Impacts in different regions:- Light to moderate rainfall at most places with isolated heavy rainfall over Mizoram and heavy to very rainfall over Tripura is likely to occur today and tomorrow. Isolated heavy rainfall is likely over the same region on the 25th of this month. Rainfall intensity will decrease on 26th November with light to moderate rainfall at a few places over the region. Light to moderate rainfall is likely at many places over south Assam and eastern Meghalaya with isolated heavy rainfall over south Assam. In coastal Districts of Odisha, light to moderate rainfall is expected to occur in most places. Fishermen have been advised not to venture into the adjoining east-central Bay of Bengal. About Cyclone:- A cyclone is a pattern of winds (or air mass) that circulates a low-pressure system. It rotates counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere. It is typically associated with wet and stormy weather. (Naming of Cyclone) Classification:- There are two types of cyclones: Tropical cyclones and Extra-tropical cyclones (also called Temperate cyclones) Tropical cyclone:- It is an intense circular storm that originates over warm tropical oceans. It is characterized by low atmospheric pressure, high winds, and heavy rain. ( Colour Coded Weather Warning) These are formed over slightly warm ocean waters. The temperature of the top layer of the sea, up to a depth of about 60 meters, needs to be at least 28°C to support the formation of a cyclone. April-May and October-December periods are conducive for cyclones. Then, the low level of air above the waters needs to have an ‘anticlockwise’ rotation (in the northern hemisphere; clockwise in the southern hemisphere). During these periods, there was an ITCZ in the Bay of Bengal. Temperate cyclones:- It occurs in temperate zones and high-latitude regions, though they are known to originate in the Polar Regions. These are active above the mid-latitudinal region between 35° and 65° latitude in both hemispheres. The direction of movement is from west to east and is more pronounced in the winter seasons. MUST READ: Cyclones forecast SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2018) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 3 only 1 and 3 India and Oman Syllabus Prelims – INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, External Affairs Minister Dr.S.Jaishanka held a conversation with Omani Foreign Minister Badr Albusaidi. About India and Oman:- IMAGE SOURCE: WORLD ATLAS India and Oman are linked by geography, history and culture. They enjoy warm and cordial relations, which are attributed to historical maritime trade linkages. People-to-people contact between India and Oman can be traced back 5,000 years. The diplomatic relations were established in 1955. Gandhi Peace Prize 2019 was conferred on Late HM Sultan Qaboos in recognition of his leadership in strengthening the ties between India & Oman and his efforts to promote peace in the Gulf region. Political Relations:- The historical India-Oman bilateral ties were transformed into a strategic partnership in November 2008. Visits at the highest level have been exchanged frequently between India and Oman. Ministerial-level visits have taken place regularly. The Sultanate of Oman is a strategic partner of India in the Gulf and an important interlocutor at the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC), Arab League and Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) fora. Nine areas of cooperation were listed between the two countries, i.e. agriculture, healthcare, infrastructure, tourism, chemicals & fertilizers, education, oil & gas, power and mining. Defence Cooperation:- Oman is the first nation in the Persian Gulf to have formal defence relations with India. Both countries conducted joint military exercises in 2006 and later signed a defence agreement. The Ministries of Defence of both countries review their relations annually under the aegis of a Joint Military Cooperation Committee meeting. India and Oman conduct regular biennial bilateral exercises between all three services. Army exercise: Al Najah Air Force exercise: Eastern Bridge Naval Exercise: Naseem Al Bahr Since 2008, Oman has been extending its support to the Indian Navy’s anti-piracy missions and Indian Naval Ships are regularly welcomed by Oman for Overseas Deployments. Economic & Commercial Relations:- For Oman, India was the 3rd largest (after UAE and China) source for its imports and 3rd largest market (after UAE and Saudi Arabia) for its non-oil exports in 2019. Major Indian financial institutions have a presence in Oman. Indian companies have invested in Oman in sectors like iron and steel, cement, fertilisers, textiles etc. India-Oman Joint Investment Fund (OIJIF), a JV between the State Bank of India and the State General Reserve Fund (SGRF) of Oman, a special purpose vehicle to invest in India, has been operational. MUST READ: Prioritise trade pact with GCC SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Election Commission of India Syllabus Prelims – POLITY Context: Recently, the Election Commission of India provided an alternative facility of postal ballots to the elderly aged, disabled and Corona-infected. Background:- In the upcoming polls of five States, the Election Commission of India has provided the alternative facility of postal ballot to the elderly aged 80 years and above, the disabled and Corona-infected voters. Postal Voting:- A restricted set of voters can exercise postal voting. Through this facility, a voter can cast her vote remotely by recording her preference on the ballot paper and sending it back to the election officer before counting. Members of the armed forces like the Army, Navy and Air Force, members of the armed police force of a state (serving outside the state), government employees posted outside India and their spouses are entitled to vote only by post. Voters under preventive detention can also vote only by post. Special voters such as the President of India, Vice President, Governors, Union Cabinet ministers, Speaker of the House and government officers on poll duty have the option to vote by post. About the Election Commission of India:- The Election Commission was established in accordance with the Constitution on 25 January 1950. The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional body responsible for administering Union and State election processes in India. The body administers elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, State Legislative Councils and the offices of the President and Vice President of the country. For this, the Constitution of India provides for a separate State Election Commission. Constitutional Provisions:- Its powers, appointment and duties are mentioned in Part XV of the Constitution (Article 324 to Article 329) and the Representation of People Act. Article 324: Superintendence, direction and control of elections to be vested in an Election Commission. Article 325: No person to be ineligible for inclusion in, or to claim to be included in a special electoral roll on the grounds of religion, race, caste or sex. Article 326: Elections to the Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies of States to be on the basis of adult suffrage. Article 327: Power of Parliament to make provision with respect to elections to legislature. Article 328: Power of Legislature of a State to make provision with respect to elections to such Legislature. Article 329: Bar to interference by courts in electoral matters. Composition of Election Commission:- Originally the commission had only a Chief Election Commissioner. It currently consists of the Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners. For the first time, two additional Commissioners were appointed on 16th October 1989 but they had a very short tenure till 1st January 1990. Later, on 1st October 1993 two additional Election Commissioners were appointed. The concept of a multi-member Commission has been in operation since then, with decision-making power by majority vote. Appointment, Tenure and Privileges of Commissioners:- The President appoints Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners. ( Appointment of Chief Election Commissioner and Other ECs) They have a tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They enjoy the same status and receive salary and perks as available to Judges of the Supreme Court of India. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only through impeachment by Parliament. Removal of Election Commissioners:- They can resign anytime or can also be removed before the expiry of their term. The CEC can be removed from office only by the order of the President, just like a judge of the Supreme Court. MUST READ: Cohort on Election Integrity SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. The Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2017) 1 and 2 only 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2017) In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 per cent of the votes polled, to be declared elected. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Gudavi bird sanctuary Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recently, Several birds died at the Gudavi bird sanctuary. Background:- In a span of seven days, more than 30 birds, including spoonbills, herons, and black-headed ibis, were found dead. About Gudavi Bird Sanctuary:- Location: Shimoga District, Gudavi Bird Sanctuary is a protected area. This sanctuary is known for its rich avian diversity and is an important habitat for both resident and migratory birds. It is situated around the Gudavi Lake. During the 1960s, the Gudavi Lake and its surrounding wetlands began to gain recognition for their ecological importance as a habitat for various bird species. The Gudavi Bird Sanctuary was initially notified on 10.07.1989 and subsequently it took its birth as an independent Bird Sanctuary upon final notification on 04.09.2000. Flora: consists of aquatic plants, wetland vegetation, and surrounding vegetation that provide a suitable habitat for a diverse range of bird species. Fauna: Jungle Cat, Palm Civet, Spotted Deer, Mongoose, etc. (Wildlife Institute of India (WII)) Birds: Birds: Grey Heron, Night Heron, Little Cormorant, Junglefowl, Indian Pond Heron, Darter, Indian Shag etc.  MUST READ: Atapaka Bird Sanctuary SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Recently, there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites? (2017) Corbett National Park Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Sariska National Park Bani festival Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, three people lost their lives and more than a hundred were injured in the traditional Banni festival About Bani festival:- Location: Andhra Pradesh. It is celebrated on the night of the Dussehra celebration (Vijaya Dasami) every year. It is a traditional stick-fight. The objective of this event was to snatch the idols from God’s team, leading to a fierce battle known as the Banni Fight. Historical significance: This festival was celebrated by people under the Vijayanagara Empire. At that time, it was even more dangerous; axes and spears were used for the fight. It is celebrated on account of the victory of Lord Mala Malleswara Swamy and Goddess Parvati over demonish Mani and Mallasura, who troubled the people in the Devaragattu region. Process of ritual:- The villages in Kurnool divide themselves into groups and take part in a ritualistic stick fight. After performing prayers and ‘kalyanam’ at the temple, devotees carry the deities inside a thick cloth bag on the shoulders down the hill. A few of the devotees create a ring of security around the idols. As they come down, thousands of lathi-wielding people from the rival group, make a bid to stop the procession from going forward and a bloody battle breaks out. The stick fight between both the groups continues down the hill while these villagers who are generally farmers, walk in a procession with their shirts drenched in blood! The procession continues till dawn with various artistic performances by artists, dancers, singers, and composers happening alongside eventually creating a phenomenal journey. After the procession reaches down, puja is performed and the temple priest slits his thigh to offer a fistful of blood to the deity. Another fierce round of stick fight takes place and the deity of the Lord is then placed at Simhasana katta marking the end of the Bani festival.   MUST READ: Kanwar Yatras SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (2017) It is a song and dance performance Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Q.2) Kalamkari painting refers to (2015) a hand-painted cotton textile in South India. a handmade drawing on bamboo handicrafts in Northeast India. a block-painted woollen cloth in the Western Himalayan region of India. a hand-painted decorative silk cloth in North-Western India. Mains: INDIA QATAR RELATIONS Context: The recent verdict of the death penalty for eight Indian Navy officials in Qatar has sent shockwaves through diplomatic circles. INDIA-QATAR RELATIONS Historical Relations  India and Qatar have maintained friendly relations for decades. PM Manmohan Singh’s visit to Qatar in 2008 marked a significant turning point, followed by reciprocal visits from the Emir of Qatar and PM Narendra Modi. Economic Relations India is considered to be the fourth largest export destination for the State of Qatar. Qatar’s key exports to India include LNG, LPG, chemicals and petrochemicals, plastics, and aluminum articles. India’s key exports to Qatar include cereals, copper articles, iron and steel articles, vegetables, plastic products, construction material, textiles & garments, etc. Qatar is the largest supplier of liquefied natural gas (LNG) to India. India imports around 70% of its needs for the natural gas from Qatar. Defence Cooperation Defence cooperation is a key component of India-Qatar ties, with the India-Qatar Defence Cooperation Agreement serving as a pivotal milestone. India’s Defence cooperation with Qatar has so far been limited to training, participation in each other’s conferences/events and visits by ships of Indian Navy and Coast Guard. Za’ir-Al-Bahr (Roar of the Sea) is the naval exercise between Indian and Qatar Navy. Cultural Relations Qatar was a co-sponsor, to India’s Resolution at the United Nations General Assembly, adopted unanimously with a record 177 co-sponsors, declaring 21 June as the International Day of Yoga (IDY). There are 14 Indian schools in Qatar, offering CBSE curricula to over 30,000 students, most of whom are the children of Indian nationals working in Qatar. There is a regular flow of Indian artists performing in Qatar at events organised by community organizations affiliated to the Indian Cultural Centre (ICC). Indian Community Indian community is the largest expatriate group in Qatar which is estimated to be around 700 million people. They are making their contribution in different sectors. Indians are highly respected in Qatar for their sincerity, hard work, technical expertise and law-abiding nature. Indians are employed in almost every local establishment, governmental or private, in various capacities. The remittances which the Indian expatriate community in Qatar send to India are estimated to be around 750 million dollar per annum. The Indian Community Benevolent Forum (ICBF), functioning under the aegis of Embassy of India, Doha – ICBF was awarded Pravasi Bharatiya Samman in January, 2011. IMPORTANCE OF QATAR TO INDIA Expatriate Community: Indians constitute the largest expatriate community in Qatar, with approximately 800,000 individuals working and living there. Remittances: The flow of remittances from Qatar and the safety of Indian citizens make Qatar vital for India’s interests. Energy Security: Qatar is the largest supplier of LNG to India, making it critical for India’s energy security. GCC Membership: Qatar’s membership in the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) is strategically significant for India, especially concerning issues like Kashmir. UNSC Support: India’s bid for a permanent seat at the United Nations Security Council requires support from countries like Qatar. Business Presence: Several Indian companies, including Tata Consultancy Services Ltd, Wipro, MahindraTech, and Larsen & Toubro Limited, operate in Qatar. Stability in the Gulf: The stability of the Gulf region is of paramount importance to India’s energy and maritime security. CONCLUSION The detention and sentencing of eight Indian nationals in Qatar have posed a complex diplomatic challenge for India. Against the backdrop of India-Qatar relations, this incident underscores the importance of navigating cultural sensitivities and geopolitical dynamics to secure the release of these individuals. AI IN DEFENCE SECTOR Syllabus GS III – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Artificial Intelligence (AI) is playing an increasingly significant role in the defense sector, transforming the way military operations are conducted, and improving decision-making, efficiency, and safety. Here are some key areas where AI is being utilized in the defense sector: Autonomous Systems: AI is used to develop autonomous drones, ground vehicles, and maritime vessels for tasks like surveillance, reconnaissance, and logistics. These systems can operate in hazardous environments or carry out repetitive tasks, reducing human risk. Predictive Maintenance: AI is employed to predict equipment failures and conduct preventive maintenance, ensuring that military vehicles and equipment remain operational and reducing downtime. Cybersecurity: AI-powered cyber security tools help defend against cyber threats and attacks. These systems can identify and respond to threats in real-time, protecting sensitive military data and communication. Data Analysis and Intelligence: AI is used for data analysis to sift through vast amounts of information, from satellite imagery to communications intercepts, and extract valuable intelligence. AI can be used to process unused or underused data to provide more actionable intelligence for the Indian armed forces. It will enhance the Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance (ISR) capabilities. Simulation and Training: AI-driven simulations provide realistic training environments for soldiers, pilots, and commanders. These simulations can help personnel develop critical skills in a safe and controlled setting. Biometrics and Identity Verification: AI can be used for biometric identification and verification, helping ensure that only authorized personnel have access to sensitive areas or information. Language Translation and Cross-Cultural Communication: AI-powered translation and communication tools help military personnel interact with foreign populations and allies, aiding in diplomacy and peacekeeping efforts. ADVANTAGES OF AI IN DEFENCE SECTOR Safety – Reducing human casualties and risks Adaptability – It can be made adaptable to new threats by constant learning. Improved decision-making – More precise, faster situation assessments and analyses. Emotions – It offsets emotions and prejudices CHALLENGES OF USING AI IN DEFENCE SECTOR Prejudices – Prejudices can be inherent through biased algorithms High cost of Implementation – Given the complexity of engineering in building AI technology, these equipment’s are highly expensive. Lack of skill – Requires skilled labour for using the new technologies. Ethical issues- AI can raise questions about the responsibility, accountability, and transparency of military actions and decisions. For example, who is liable if an autonomous weapon causes harm or violates international law? How can we ensure that AI respects human dignity and rights? Cyber-attacks- AI systems are vulnerable to hacking, manipulation, or sabotage by adversaries. Conclusion: It’s worth noting that the adoption of AI in the defense sector raises ethical and legal concerns, such as questions about autonomous weapons, data privacy, and accountability. Many countries and international organizations are working to establish guidelines and regulations for the responsible use of AI in military applications Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: EXERCISES COUNTRIES 1.Prabal Dostyk India & Kazakhstan 2.Eastern Bridge India & Oman 3.Khanjar India & Kyrgyzstan How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: The Election Commission of India originally had two Chief Election Commissioners. Statement-II: The Election Commission of India is not concerned with the elections to panchayats and municipalities in the states. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the PM-JAY, consider the following statements: It only covers 15 days of post-hospitalization expenses such as diagnostics and medicines. There is no restriction on the family size, age or gender. All pre–existing conditions are not covered from day one. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  28th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 27th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 30th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here