Oct 18, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 17th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Oct 18, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 18th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Oct 16, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 16th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Operation Ajay Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Two more flights Under Operation Ajay arrived in India carrying Indian nationals from war-torn Israel recently. Background:- More than 900 Indians brought back home from war-torn Israel. About Operation Ajay:- Beginning: 12 October 2023. Objective: the government will bring back its citizens through special chartered flights. Operation Ajay is a mission aimed at repatriating Indian citizens who were residing in Israel. The Indian government will be sending special chartered flights to repatriate citizens from Israel and Palestine. Indian Navy ships may also be sent if the need arises. Current Situation in Israel:- Israel continued its strikes against Hamas militants in Gaza, in response to a brutal assault in Israel by Hamas recently. So far, 2,300 lives have been lost on both sides. (ISRAEL-PALESTINE CONFLICT) The situation continues to be grim. Diaspora:- Around 18,000 Indians are currently in Israel. Of these, most of them are caregivers. There are also about 1,000 students, several IT professionals and diamond traders. At least 17 Indians are stranded in Palestine, which includes aid workers and those who went there for business. Communication helplines:- The Indian embassy in Israel communicates with registered Indian citizens through email, providing instructions and updates for subsequent flights. The Ministry of External Affairs has set up a 24-hour control room to monitor the ongoing developments. In addition, the Embassy of India in Tel Aviv has set up a 24-hour emergency helpline, which can be accessed. Further, the Representative Office of India in Ramallah has also set up a 24-hour emergency helpline. Significance: – Operation Ajay Acts as a model for effective and flexible evacuation procedures, guaranteeing the safety of people during trying circumstances. (Vande Bharat Mission and International Cooperation) MUST READ: Operation Sadbhavana SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Rasmussen’s encephalitis Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recently, doctors Shut down Half of a girl’s Brain to halt the rare disease Rasmussen’s encephalitis. Background:- To help a sick girl named Brianna Bodley, doctors at Loma Linda University Health in California turned off one half of her brain. This was because she had a condition called Rasmussen’s encephalitis, which causes swelling in the brain. About Rasmussen’s encephalitis:- IMAGE SOURCE: About.com Health Rasmussen’s encephalitis is an extremely rare, chronic inflammatory neurological disease. The patient usually experiences frequent episodes of uncontrolled electrical disturbances in the brain that cause epileptic seizures (epilepsy) and progressive cerebral destruction. (Rare Diseases) With time, further symptoms may include:- progressive weakness of one side of the body (hemiparesis), language problems (if on the left side of the brain) and intellectual disabilities. Cause: The exact cause of this disorder is not known. The two leading ideas are that brain inflammation might be a reaction of a foreign antigen (infection) or an autoimmune disease limited to one side of the brain resulting in brain damage. Age Group:- It occurs mostly, but not always, in children between the ages of two and ten years. In many patients the course of the disease is most severe during the first 8 to 12 months. After the peak inflammatory response is reached, the progression of this disorder appears to slow or stop, and the patient is left with permanent neurological deficits. It often results in permanent disabilities such as epilepsy, paralysis, and cognitive problems. The severity varies among individuals. (Disease Surveillance System) Treatment:- Antiseizure Medications: These medications are often used to manage seizures, although they might not completely eliminate them. Immunotherapy: Early use of immunotherapy may help control seizures or prevent further immune-related brain damage. Brain Surgery (Hemispherectomy): It involves the removal or disconnection of half of the patient’s brain from the rest of the brain. MUST READ: Rare disease ‘GNB1 Encephalopathy SOURCE: CNN PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents, and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements: (2021) Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of the egg. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from the mother and not from the father. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 BlueWalker 3 satellite Syllabus Prelims – SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recent observations taken within weeks of its launch showed the BlueWalker 3 satellite was among the brightest objects in the sky. Background:- According to a new study, is as bright as the brightest stars in the 89 constellations of Canis Minor and Eridanus. About BlueWalker 3 satellite:- Launched: 9:20 p.m. ET Launch date: 10 September 2022. BlueWalker 3 is a prototype satellite. (NASA and ISRO collaborate on satellite NISAR) It is part of a satellite constellation planned by its owner AST SpaceMobile (a U.S.-based company). It is designed to operate directly with standard, unmodified mobile devices. It has a 64-square-meter (693-square-foot) antenna system. It uses its large phased-array antenna to generate power from space and deliver cellular broadband directly to mobile phones. This is the largest commercial antenna system ever deployed into low Earth orbit. It is the first of what is expected to be more than a hundred similar or even larger satellites. It is a predecessor to planned commercial satellites called Blue birds. Applications:- The spacecraft was built to establish connectivity directly with cell phones via 3GPP-standard frequencies. It is intended to deliver mobile or broadband services anywhere in the world. Challenges:- Bluewalker 3’s large size and bright reflective surfaces could interfere with astronomical observations. Its light could be mistaken for stars or interfere with the ability to detect dimmer objects. It actively transmits at radio frequencies that are close to bands reserved for radio astronomy, which may hamper radio telescope observations. MUST READ: India’s first private rocket – Vikram-S SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Q.2) With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018) PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only Garba Syllabus Prelims –ART AND CULTURE Context: Recently, the Vishwa Hindu Parishad issued a diktat to make the Aadhaar card mandatory for participants in garba and dandiya festivities during the nine-day Navratri festival in Maharashtra and India. Background:- The nine-day garba and dandiya dance is part of festive rituals in Maharashtra. About Garba:- Garba is native to the Indian state of Gujarat. It is performed around an earthen pot (garbo) with a lamp inside, which is called a ‘Garbha Deep.’ The lantern symbolizes life – the fetus in the womb, in particular. The pot itself is a symbol of the body, within which divinity resides. Dancers move around in circles, making circular movements with their hands and feet around this earthen pot. This gesture symbolizes the circle of life, which moves from life to death to rebirth, leaving only the Mother Divine unmoved, unchanging and invincible. The Garba costume consists of a three-piece – the choli or blouse, chaniya or long skirt and an embellished dupatta. Embroidery and mirrorwork may be found in the multi-hued attire, making the atmosphere vibrant and lively. The men wear a kediyu (a full-sleeved kurta that is tight at the chest and flares like a frock at the waist) with kafni pajamas (a multi-pleated pant that tapers towards the bottom) and a pagdi or turban. Significance:- Garba dancing also takes place during the nine-day Navratri festival. (National Youth Festival) In Gujarat the dances customarily mark a girl’s first menstrual cycle and, later, her imminent marriage. About Dandiya:- In Dandiya, both men and women energetically dance with colourful and decorated bamboo sticks, striking them to the beats of instruments like the dholak and tabla. The dance is a beautiful way of re-creating the battle that took place between the Devi and the demon. The colourful sticks used during Dandiya represent the sword of Goddess Durga, which is why this dance form is also known as ‘The Sword Dance.‘ The sounds of the instruments playing are reminiscent of the metallic clangs that may be heard on the battlefield. About Navratri:- Navratri is an Indian festival celebrated throughout the country to worship the nine forms of the goddess Durga. This festival not only marks the triumph of good over evil (victory of Indian Goddess Durga over the demonic king Mahishasur) According to the Yogic culture, the summer solstice marks the beginning of the southern movement of the sun, this time is known as ‘sadhana pada’, during this time many festivals are celebrated which is of divine feminine nature. Mainly, Sharada Navratri is celebrated at this time. This festival starts right after Mahalaya Amavasya (Pitru Paksha), Mahalaya denotes the Devi Pada. This is the time when the whole northern hemisphere of the Earth generates the divine feminine gentleness. This is when Devi is celebrated with glory through the nine days of offerings, rituals, and celebrations. MUST READ: Lavani SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (2017) It is a song and dance performance Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Q.2) With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements: (2014) Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Ruddy Shelduck Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Ruddy Shelduk, recently arrived for a winter stay. Background:- The first batch of about 50 members of the Ruddy Shelduck, popularly known as ‘Surkhab’ birds, arrived for a six-month winter stay. About Ruddy Shelduck:- Scientific name: Tadorna ferruginea. Family: Anatidae. Distribution:- CONTINENTS: Europe, Asia, Africa. COUNTRIES: China, South Korea, Mongolia, Spain, Albania, Bulgaria, Denmark, Greece, Italy, Romania. ISLANDS: Canary Island. Habitat: The Ruddy Shelducks inhabit large wetlands, lakes, rivers with mudflats and shingle banks. Diet: They feed on roots, shoots, buds, grasses, leaves, seeds and stems. Legend:- Legend has it that two people fell in love but the Gods did not approve of their alliance and transformed them into Ruddy Shelducks and placed them on opposite shores of a river, with a curse that they could never meet. Features:- The ruddy shelduck known in India as the Brahminy duck. It is a migratory bird. It is a distinctive (Bird flu) It is 58 to 70 cm (23 to 28 in) in length with a wingspan of 110 to 135 cm (43 to 53 in). It has orange-brown body plumage with a paler head. The tail and the flight feathers in the wings are black, contrasting with the white wing coverts. These shelducks are fairly large birds. The males are larger than the females. It has a loud honking call. The ruddy shelduck is a mainly nocturnal bird. It is omnivorous and feeds on grasses, the young shoots of plants, grain and water plants as well as both aquatic and terrestrial invertebrates. It visits the Indian subcontinent and breeds in southeastern Europe and central Asia, though there are small resident populations in North Africa. MUST READ: Aztec hummingbirds SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following ‘fauna: (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels: (2023) They build nests by making burrows in the ground. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground. They are omnivorous. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: INDIAN SATELLITES LAUNCH YEAR 1.Cartosat-3 2019 2.EOS-01 2023 3.Chandrayaan-2 2013 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Ruddy Shelduck is a mainly nocturnal bird. Statement-II: It is carnivorous. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Rasmussen’s encephalitis, consider the following statements: Early use of immunotherapy does not help control the seizures at all. Brain Surgery is the ONLY treatment. It often results in permanent disabilities. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 3 only 2 and 3 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  16th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 14th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – b

Oct 16, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 14th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Global Hunger Index 2023 Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT INDICES Context: Global Hunger Index 2023 was released recently. Key Highlights:- IMAGE SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH The 2023 GHI shows that, after many years of advancement up to 2015, progress against hunger worldwide remains largely at a standstill. As the effects of crises multiply and intensify, more and more people are experiencing severe hunger, with the situation expected to worsen throughout the year. South Asia and sub-Saharan Africa are the global regions characterized by the most severe hunger levels, both holding a GHI score of 27, signifying a serious state of hunger. India topped the list of countries with the highest child-wasting rate in the world, at 18.7 per cent, reflecting acute undernutrition. The country’s child wasting rate is higher than that of conflict-ridden Yemen (at 14.4 per cent) and Sudan at (13.7 per cent), which hold the second and third positions, respectively India has been ranked at the 111th position out of 124 countries, with neighbouring Pakistan (102th), Bangladesh (81st), Nepal (69th) and Sri Lanka (60th) faring better than it in the index. The country slipped four notches from its 107th position in 2022. Child wasting: refers to the share of children under age five who have low weight for their height. Indian government’s stand: The Indian government has questioned the methodology of GHI. Initiatives taken by the government:- National Food Security Act, 2013: It legally entitled up to 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban population to receive subsidized food grains under the Targeted Public Distribution System. Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) Scheme: Launched on 2nd October 1975, the ICDS Scheme offers a package of six services (Supplementary Nutrition, preschool non-formal education, Nutrition & health education, Immunization, Health check-up and Referral services) to children in the age group of 0-6 years, pregnant women and lactating mothers. Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana: A centrally sponsored scheme executed by the Ministry of Women and Child Development, is a maternity benefit programme being implemented in all districts of the country with effect from 1st January 2017. POSHAN Abhiyan: Launched in 2018, it aims to reduce stunting, undernutrition, and anaemia (among young children, women and adolescent girls). Food Fortification: Food Fortification or Food Enrichment is the addition of key vitamins and minerals such as iron, iodine, zinc, and Vitamin A & D to staple foods such as rice, milk and salt to improve their nutritional content. About Global Hunger Index 2023:- Time period: Annual. Published by: Concern Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe. The Global Hunger Index (GHI) is a tool for comprehensively measuring and tracking hunger at global, regional, and national levels. GHI scores are based on the values of four component indicators: Undernourishment: the share of the population with insufficient caloric intake. Child stunting: the share of children under age five who have low height for their age, reflecting chronic undernutrition. Child wasting: the share of children under age five who have low weight for their height, reflecting acute undernutrition. Child mortality: the share of children who die before their fifth birthday, partly reflecting the fatal mix of inadequate nutrition and unhealthy environments. Based on the values of the four indicators, a GHI score is calculated on a 100-point scale. The scale reflects the severity of hunger, where 0 is the best possible score (no hunger) and 100 is the worst. Each country’s GHI score is classified by severity, from low to extremely alarming. (Understanding the Global Hunger Index) MUST READ: Food security SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following infrastructure sectors : (2023) Affordable housing Mass rapid transport Health care Renewable energy On how many of the above does the UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus on its investments? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in  the context of interventions being  undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt  Bharat Strategy : (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Kawar Lake Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recent reports show that Bihar’s Kawar Lake has been neglected and is on the brink of drying up. Background:- While Bihar has many wetlands, only one is recognized Kawar Lake. About Kawar Lake:- Location: Begusarai, Bihar. It is also known as Gokhur Lake or Kabartal Wetland. It is a residual oxbow lake formed by the changing course of the River Gandak. It is the largest freshwater oxbow lake in Asia. It was declared a Ramsar site in August 2020. (COP14 of Ramsar Convention on Wetlands) It was declared a notified area under the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972. To check the poaching of birds, it was declared a protected zone by the Bihar state government in 1986. The government of India declared it a bird sanctuary in 1989. It is one of the most important wetlands for waterfowl in the Indo-Gangetic Plain. It supports huge numbers of migratory ducks and Coot through the winter, as well as large concentrations of resident species such as ruficollis and Asian Openbill. The lake has been home to 58 migratory birds. It served as an important stopover along the Central Asian Flyway with at least 58 migratory water birds. Threats:- Encroachment Conflicts between farmers and fisherfolk Illegal activities exacerbate the degradation. The lake has been experiencing a steady decrease in water levels since 2010. The lake faces challenges due to policy implementation gaps, illegal activities like migratory bird hunting, and a lack of effective conservation measures. About Gandak River:- It is a tributary of the The Gandaki River system lies in the central part of Nepal. Its river basin is also referred to as the Narayani river system. It is a transboundary river system, originating from the Tibetan Plateau, flowing through central Nepal and draining into the Ganges River in India. About 69% of the total area lies in Nepal. It is the second-largest river basin of Nepal. Tributaries: Marsyangdi, Daraudi, Seti, Madi, Kali Gandaki, Budi Gandaki and Trishuli are the seven major tributaries of the Gandaki river basin. It flows southwest into India and then turns southeast along the Uttar Pradesh–Bihar state border and across the Indo-Gangetic Plain. MUST READ: (India Designates 5 New Ramsar Sites) SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of the Ramsar Convention. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 17th Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) Annual Tourism Summit Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: The Inaugural session of the 17th Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) Annual Tourism Summit was held recently. Background:- Addressing the inaugural session of the 17th CII Annual Tourism Summit held in Mumbai today, Ms V Vidyavathi said that we should be deliberating on how to reach this goal. About the 17th Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) Annual Tourism Summit: Date: 13 October 2023. Venue: Mumbai. Theme: ‘Strengthening Tourism through Economic and Green Opportunities’. CII has organized the 17th CII Tourism Summit to bring together all stakeholders on one platform to discuss and deliberate the challenges and path forward. It was said that tourism is one of the largest service industries in India fuelling job creation. Several recommendations to the Ministry of Tourism were put forward. The Ministry was requested to bring mechanisms in place where licenses are given without any delays. The branding and promotion of Incredible India was advised to be done across the world and throughout the year on a continuous basis. It was emphasized that all stakeholders need to work together while balancing economic growth with environmental sustainability and create a tourism sector that is not only economically robust but also a model of responsible and green tourism. About Confederation of Indian Industry (CII):- Establishment: 1895. HQ: New Delhi. It is a non-government, not-for-profit, industry-led and industry-managed organization. Objectives: It works to create and sustain an environment conducive to the development of India, partnering with industry, Government, and civil society, through advisory and consultative processes. Functions of CII:- To identify and strengthen the industry’s role in the economic development of the country.  ( CII) To act as a catalyst in bringing about the growth and development of Indian Industry. To reinforce the industry’s commitment to society. To provide up-to-date information and data to industry and government. To create awareness and support the industry’s efforts on quality, environment, energy management, and consumer protection. To identify and address the special needs of the small sector to make it more competitive.  (Cooperative Sector Reforms) To promote cooperation with counterpart organizations. To work towards the globalization of Indian industry and integration into the world economy. MUST READ: Quality Council of India (QCI) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following heavy industries: (2023) Fertilizer plants Oil refineries Steel plants Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above industries? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: India accounts for 3·2% of the global export of goods. Statement-II : Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct 5th National Water Awards 2023 Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT AWARDS Context: Recently, the Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation launched the 5th National Water Awards 2023. Background:- All the applications for the awards will be received through the online portal till 15th December. About the 5th National Water Awards 2023:- First National Water Award: 2018. Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti. The awards were introduced to recognize and encourage exemplary work and efforts made by States, Districts, individuals, and organizations, across the country in accomplishing the government’s vision of Jal Samridh Bharat. It aims to sensitize the public about the importance of water and motivates them to adopt the best water usage practices. Objectives:- To encourage the stakeholders to adopt a holistic approach towards water resources management in the country. To create awareness among the people about the importance of water and attempt to motivate them to adopt the best water usage practices. Start-ups, leading organizations and people can engage, deliberate and strengthen existing partnerships on issues concerning water conservation and management activities. Eligibility for the awards:- Any State, District, Village Panchayat, Urban Local Body, School/College, Institution (other than school/college), Industry, Civil society, Water User Association or an individual who has done exemplary work in the field of water conservation and management are eligible to apply. Trophy and Citation:- For the categories – ‘Best State’ and ‘Best District’, winners will be felicitated with a trophy and citation. In the remaining categories – ‘Best Village Panchayat’, ‘Best Urban Local Body’, ‘Best School/College’, ‘Best Institution (other than school/college)’, ‘Best Industry’, ‘Best Civil Society’, ‘Best Water User Association’, ‘Best Industry’, and ‘Best Individual for excellence’ winners will be felicitated with cash prize along with trophy and citation. Cash prizes for the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd winners are 2 lakhs, Rs.1.5 lakhs, and Rs.1 lakh, respectively. Selection Process:- All applications received for the National Water Awards are scrutinized by a Screening Committee of the DoWR, RD & GR. The shortlisted applications are placed before a Jury Committee headed by a retired Secretary level officer. Thereafter, ground truthing of the shortlisted applications is carried out by the organizations of DoWR, RD & GR viz. Central Water Commission (CWC) and Central Ground Water Board (CGWB). The Jury Committee evaluate the applications on the basis of reports of ground truthing and recommends the winners. The recommendations of the Committee are submitted to the Union Minister (Jal Shakti) for approval. The names of the winners are announced on a suitable date and an award distribution ceremony is organized. Significance:- India has more than 18% of the world’s population, it has only 4% of the world’s renewable water resources. ( Water Crisis in India) MUST READ: Rashtriya Puruskar Portal SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements : (2023) It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 (CAR) T-cell therapy Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: India’s first chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T-cell therapy was approved recently. Background:- For treating relapsed-refractory B-cell lymphoma and leukaemia, Mumbai-based Immunoadoptive Cell Therapy Private Limited (ImmunoACT) announced the approval of India’s first chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T-cell therapy by the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) on October 13, 2023. Priorly, CAR-T cell therapy cost around $400,000 or over Rs 3.3 crore and patients could avail of it in the United States. With this development, the therapy will be accessible at 20 Indian government and private hospitals treating cancer across major cities at around Rs 30-35 lakh per patient. About (CAR) T-cell therapy:- Chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T-cell therapy is a kind of cancer treatment that uses cells from your own immune system. It treats certain cancers by turning your T-lymphocytes or T-cells into more efficient cancer-fighting machines. CAR T-cell therapy is proving to be a very effective way of treating certain blood cancers. Treatment Mechanism:- The blood is first drawn from the patient. Then, immune cells called T-cells are genetically modified in a laboratory. These modified T-cells are injected back into the patient to enable the cells to locate and destroy cancer cells more effectively. Applications:- The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has approved several CAR T-cell therapies for people who have certain blood cancers that don’t respond to chemotherapy and other treatments. (National Cancer Registry Programme Report 2020) This therapy is also used to treat people who have blood cancer that returns after other successful treatments. Challenges:- Cytokine release syndrome (CRS): This happens when CAR T-cells begin attacking cancer and trigger an immune response in your body. Brain and nervous system problems. Serious infections. MUST READ: ICMR’s ‘Clinicopathological Profile of Cancers in India’ Report SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which one of the following? (2023) Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna Stimulating ‘stem cells’ to transform into diverse functional tissues Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting a series of drug trials in  a population Q.2) ‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations? (2023) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal  samples from land surfaces and  water bodies Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) Syllabus Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recent reports by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) show that farmers lost $3.8 trillion to disasters over 30 years. Background:- An estimated $3.8 trillion worth of crops and livestock production has been lost due to natural disasters over the last 30 years, with Asia experiencing the largest share of the total economic losses, according to the report. About the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO):- Founded: 1945 in Quebec City, Canada. Parent organization: United Nations Economic and Social Council. HQ: Rome, Italy. Motto: “Let there be bread”. (The millet mission) Members: With 195 members – 194 countries and the European Union, FAO works in over 130 countries worldwide. Objective: to achieve food security for all and make sure that people have regular access to enough high-quality food to lead active, healthy lives. The Food and Agriculture Organization is a specialized agency of the United Nations. It leads international efforts to defeat hunger and improve nutrition and food security. (FAO Food Price Index) Its sister bodies are the World Food Programme and the International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD). Flagship Publications:- The State of World Fisheries and Aquaculture (SOFIA). The State of the World’s Forests (SOFO). The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World (SOFI). The State of Food and Agriculture (SOFA). The State of Agricultural Commodity Markets (SOCO). MUST READ: Food Security in India SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following trees : (2023) Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus.) Mahua (Madhuca indica) Teak (Tectona grandis) How many of the above are deciduous trees? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements : (2023) Some mushrooms have medicinal properties. Some mushrooms have psychoactive properties. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Mains: Green Methanol: India’s Future Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: NITI Aayog has prepared a comprehensive plan advocating the adoption of methanol as the preferred cooking fuel in households as well as commercially. Blending 15% methanol in gasoline can result in at least a 15% reduction in the import of gasoline/crude oil. About Green methanol: It is a low-carbon fuel that can be made from either biomass gasification or renewable electricity and captured carbon dioxide (CO2). This chemical compound can be used as a low-carbon liquid fuel and is a promising alternative to fossil fuels in areas where decarbonisation is a major challenge, such as maritime transport. Applications: As a fuel: It is often blended with gasoline to enhance combustion and reduce emissions. Green methanol, produced from renewable sources and without polluting emissions, serves as a low-carbon liquid fuel and is a promising alternative to fossil fuels, particularly in sectors like maritime transport. It’s also be used in the production of biodiesel. Alternative for renewable energy: Methanol can be produced from renewable sources like biomass and used as a potential energy carrier or fuel in fuel cells and other energy applications. Antifreeze: In automotive applications, particularly in windshield washer fluid, methanol is used as an antifreeze. Chemical Feedstock: Methanol is a crucial feedstock for the production of various chemicals, including formaldehyde, acetic acid, and methyl tert-butyl ether (MTBE). Used as a Solvent: Methanol is a versatile solvent employed in various industrial processes, including chemical manufacturing, pharmaceuticals, and the production of paints, varnishes, and coatings. Advantages of Methanol: Environmental Benefits: When produced from green hydrogen and with carbon capture technologies, methanol can contribute to a reduction in greenhouse gas emissions and air pollutants. This makes it a more environmentally friendly option, particularly when used as a fuel or energy source. Lower Production Costs: Methanol can be produced at a lower cost compared to other alternative fuels, which makes it an economically viable option for various applications. Lower Flammability Risk: Methanol has a lower risk of flammability compared to gasoline, which can enhance safety in certain applications. Emission Control: By adding water to the combustion process, methanol can help meet stringent emission limits, such as the Tier III regulation for nitrogen oxide (NOx) emissions. This makes it a useful choice in applications where emissions need to be controlled. High Octane and Horsepower: Methanol has the ability to produce high octane ratings and can deliver equivalent horsepower to super high-octane gasoline. This can make it a suitable option for high-performance engines. Versatile Use: Methanol can be used in various ways as an engine fuel, including in dedicated methanol engines, as part of binary and ternary alcohol blends (such as M15, M85, and M100). It is also suitable for use in shipping, aviation, fuel reforming using engine waste heat, and industrial electricity generation. Handling and Transportation: Methanol is relatively easy to handle and transport under normal temperatures and pressure conditions. It is also compatible with existing infrastructure, which simplifies its adoption in various industries. The NITI Aayog’s ‘Methanol Economy’ program is a strategic initiative in India with several key objectives which includes: Reducing oil import: can be achieved by blending methanol with gasoline, which can result in a substantial reduction in the import of gasoline and crude oil. The use of methanol as a fuel can significantly lower GHG emissions compared to traditional fuels like gasoline and diesel. This reduction is estimated at 20% in terms of particulate matter, nitrogen oxides (NOx), and Sulfur oxides (SOx), which can lead to improved urban air quality. The program promotes the use of methanol in various sectors, including road transport, rail, marine, energy production (e.g., DG sets and boilers), tractors, commercial vehicles, and retail cooking. This diversification can enhance energy security by reducing reliance on a single type of fuel. The program aims to save consumers money by blending 20% Di-methyl Ether (DME), a derivative of methanol, in liquefied petroleum gas (LPG). This blending can result in savings of Rs 50-100 per cylinder for consumers, making clean cooking fuel more affordable and accessible. Challenges associated with India’s Methanol Economy: India has limited natural gas reserves and relies heavily on imports to meet its demand. Natural gas is the most economical and efficient feedstock for methanol production, but importing natural gas increases the cost and reduces the competitiveness of methanol. India lacks the necessary infrastructure for methanol production, distribution, storage, and utilization. India has a large and diverse population with different preferences and habits for energy consumption. There is a lack of awareness and acceptance among the public and stakeholders about the benefits and challenges of the methanol economy. India can invest in advanced technologies for coal and biomass conversion to methanol to reduce emissions and processing costs. Additionally, sourcing low-ash coal from other regions or countries may be considered. Way Forward: Therefore the solutions for the challenges posed by the India’s green methanol programme lies within the various stakeholders. These solutions require a concerted effort involving government agencies, industry players, and the public to overcome the challenges and promote the Methanol Economy in India. Source:   TH Mental Health in India Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The World Mental Health Day is celebrated on October 10, focuses on the theme of ‘mental health as a universal human right.’ One frequently disregarded group in discussions about mental health is informal workers. About Mental Disorders: The WHO defines Mental Health as, Mental health is a state of mental well-being that enables people to cope with the stresses of life, realize their abilities, learn well and work well, and contribute to their community. It is an integral component of health and well-being that underpins our individual and collective abilities to make decisions, build relationships and shape the world we live in. Mental disorders include: depression, bipolar affective disorder, schizophrenia and other psychoses, dementia, intellectual disabilities and developmental disorders including autism. State of Mental Health Globally: A study by the International Labour Organization (ILO) reveals that 15% of working-age adults worldwide live with a mental disorder. In India: The World Health Organization (WHO) estimates that approximately 7.5% of Indians currently experience a mental disorder. Moreover, it is predicted that by the end of the year, this number will escalate to around 20%, indicating a significant mental health challenge in the country. A study by the India State-Level Disease Burden Initiative showed that the disease burden in India due to mental disorders increased from 2.5% in 1990 to 4.7% in 2017 in terms of DALYs1 (disability-adjusted life years), and was the leading contributor to YLDs (years lived with disability). Determinants of Mental Health: Mental health is influenced by a complex interplay of social, psychological, and biological factors. Factors that cause mental illness: Factors such as violence, ongoing socio-economic pressures, especially related to sexual violence, are recognized as significant risks to mental well-being. Certain psychological traits and personality factors, along with genetic influences, can make individuals vulnerable to mental health issues. Challenges faced by India’s Informal workforce: Gender Disparities: More than 95% of working women in India engage in precarious informal employment, enduring not only economic instability but also patriarchal social and familial structures that further impact their mental health. Absence of Protections: India’s informal workforce, constituting over 90% of the population, lacks regulatory protection, toiling in unsafe conditions with limited social and financial support, leading to increased mental health risks. Employment Challenges for the Elderly: Around 33 million elderly individuals work post-retirement in informal sectors, lacking financial and health security, exacerbating their vulnerability and affecting their mental health. Youth Unemployment: India faces high youth unemployment rates, contributing to significant mental health challenges among young individuals who often accept precarious work conditions due to desperation, further worsening their well-being. Government of India Initiatives National Mental Health Programme (NMHP): NMHP ensures accessible mental healthcare, especially for vulnerable populations, addressing the mental health needs of the underprivileged. Mental Healthcare Act, 2017: This act decriminalized suicide attempts, incorporated WHO guidelines, introduced advanced directives, and restricted controversial treatments, focusing on destigmatizing mental health issues in society. Kiran: A 24/7 toll-free helpline called Kiran was established by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment in 2020 to offer support to those dealing with anxiety, stress, depression, suicide thoughts, and other mental issues. Tele-MANAS service: Comprehensive mental health care service. Way Forward: The World Mental Health Report 2022 highlights the importance of enhancing community-based care, focusing on people-centered, recovery-oriented, and human rights-based approaches. These proactive policies are necessary to enhance mental health awareness and interventions. The efforts are crucial for safeguarding the fundamental human right to overall well-being, including mental health, and for progressing toward achieving Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) 3 concerning ‘good health and well-being,‘ and SDG 8, which emphasizes ‘decent work for all and economic growth.’ Source:   TH Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: RAMSAR SITES YEAR OF DESIGNATION 1.Kolleru Lake 1999 2.Kabartal Wetland 2020 3.Sultanpur National Park 2023 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : First National Water Award was launched in 2015. Statement-II : The Cash prizes for the Fifth National Water Award 1st, 2nd, and 3rd winners are Rs.2 lakhs, Rs.1.5 lakhs, and Rs.1 lakh, respectively. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the CAR T-Cell Therapy, consider the following statements: Brain and nervous system problems can be a side effect of this treatment. As per the mechanism the modified T-cells are injected back into the patient. It can be used to treat acute lymphocytic leukaemia in kids and young adults.  How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only and 3 only 2 only Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Discuss the key objectives and potential benefits of India’s Methanol Economy Programme. (250 words) Q.2) Analyse the effectiveness of Indian governmental initiatives in addressing mental health challenges among informal workers. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  14th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 13th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

Oct 16, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 16th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Oct 14, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 14th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

Oct 13, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 13th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Intensified Mission Indradhanush (IMI 5.0) Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Intensified Mission Indradhanush (IMI 5.0), a campaign of the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare will conclude all 3 rounds on 14th October 2023. About Intensified Mission Indradhanush (IMI 5.0):- Launch:2023. Ministry: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Objective: to enhance immunization coverage for all vaccines provided under the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) as per the National Immunization Schedule (NIS). It is the flagship routine immunization campaign of the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. (Mission Indradhanush) Salient Features:- The campaign will be conducted across the country during the months of August, September and October this year. During these three rounds, children of the 0-5 years age group and pregnant women, who have missed any dose of vaccine as per the National Immunization Schedule ( NIS), will be vaccinated. This year, for the first time the campaign is being conducted across all the districts in the country and includes children up to 5 years of age (Previous campaigns included children up to 2 years of age). Government of India is committed to achieving the target of Measles-Rubella Elimination ( MR Elimination) by December 2023 and the Intensified Mission Indradhanush 5.0 program is a major step toward achieving this goal. (India’s plan to eradicate measles, rubella) Every state/ UT, has been given a target of 95% for both MR doses (MR1, MR2) and 2 per lac population for Non Measles Non Rubella ( NMNR) Discard Rate, by GOI. Chandigarh has already achieved 103% ( MR1) , 95%(MR2) and 6 per Lac( NMNR Discard Rate). IMI 5.0 is being conducted in three rounds i.e., 7 -12 August, 11-16 September, and 9-14 October 2023 i.e., 6 days in a month with the inclusion of a Routine Immunization Day. All States/UTs except Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Punjab will conclude all three rounds of the IMI 5.0 campaign by 14 October 2023. As of 30th September 2023, over 34,69,705 children and 6,55,480 pregnant women were administered vaccine doses during the first 2 rounds of the IMI 5.0 campaign across the country. Significance:- IMI 5.0 ensures that routine immunization services reach the missed-out and dropped-out children and pregnant women across the country. MUST READ: mRNA Vaccine SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming. to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) ‘Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following?  (2023) Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes Converting crop residues into packing material Producing biodegradable plastics Producing biochar from. thermochemical conversion of biomass Indian Coast Guard (ICG) Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) conducted the 21st National Maritime Search and Rescue Board (NMSAR) meeting recently. Key highlights of the 21st NMSAR meeting:- Date: 12 October 2023. Venue: Kolkata. The meeting was chaired by Director General Rakesh Pal, ICG in his capacity as Chairman, of the NMSAR Board. ICG is the coordinating and executing agency for Maritime Search and Rescue in the Indian Search and Rescue Region. NMSAR Board:- It was formed in 2002 and since the Board meeting is being held annually. To discuss policy issues, formulate guidelines/ procedures and consider recommendations for reviewing the National Search and Rescue plan. During the meeting, National Search and Rescue (SAR) awards for the year 2022-23 were also presented. The United Kingdom Flag vessel MV Furious was awarded in the merchant vessel category. Indian Fishing Boat New Aparajita from West Bengal was awarded in the fishing boat category. ICG Ship Sujeet & ICG Air Squadron 835 Sqn(CG) in Govt owned SAR unit category. Gujrat Maritime Board and INMCC received the award in the ashore unit category. About the Indian Coast Guard (ICG):- Establishment: 1978. Ministry: Ministry Of Defence. HQ: New Delhi, Delhi It was established in August 1978 by the Coast Guard Act, 1978 as an independent armed force of India. It is the fourth largest Coast Guard in the world. For effective command and control, the Maritime Zones of India are divided into five Coast Guard Regions, namely, North-West, West, East, North-East and Andaman & Nicobar, with the respective Regional Headquarters located at Gandhinagar, Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata and Port Blair. Historical Background:- The concept of forming ICG came into being after the 1971 war. The blueprint for a multidimensional Coast Guard was conceived by the visionary Rustamji Committee. Objectives and Functions:- To protect our ocean and offshore wealth including oil, fish and minerals. To assist mariners in distress and safeguard life and property at sea. (Indian Coast Guard Ships (ICGS)) To enforce maritime laws with respect to sea, poaching, smuggling and narcotics. To preserve marine environment and ecology and protect rare species. To collect scientific data and back up the Navy during war. To Prevent and Control of Marine Pollution. To ensure the safety and Protection of Artificial Islands and Offshore Terminals MUST READ: Defence Acquisition Council SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America International Olympic Committee (IOC) Syllabus Prelims –SPORTS Context: Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi will inaugurate the 141st International Olympic Committee (IOC) Session on 14th October 2023. Background:- The 141st International Olympic Committee (IOC) Session, will be held at the Jio World Centre in Mumbai. IOC session is being held in India after a gap of about 40 years. India is hosting the IOC Session for the second time. (Mission Olympic Cell) About the International Olympic Committee (IOC):- Establishment: 1894. HQ: Lausanne, Switzerland. Objective: to promote the Olympic movement and uphold the Olympic values, which include friendship, respect, and excellence, globally. They are responsible for organizing and managing the Summer and Winter Olympic Games. IOC Session discusses and decides on the key activities of the global Olympics movement including:- Adoption or amendment of the Olympic Charter The election of IOC members and office-bearers Election of the host city of the Olympics Functions:- Olympic Games Organization: They select the cities for the Games and ensure smooth operations. The IOC chooses which cities will host the Olympic Games. The IOC supports and develops sports globally. It provides financial assistance and Aid to National Olympic Committees (NOCs). The IOC perform such activities in order to assist them with sports development. The IOC collaborates with sports organizations to ensure their efficient management. It also plays a significant role in the fight against doping in sports, working with organizations like the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) to maintain the integrity of Olympic competitions. MUST READ: Indian Olympic Association SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards. (2021) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titled under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements is not correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Methane emission Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: A recent study states that cutting down on Methane emission by Targeted methane mitigation can avoid 0.1°C warming in 2050. Key Highlights of the report:- The report was released jointly by the International Energy Agency, the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and the UNEP-convened Climate and Clean Air Coalition. Around 580 million tonnes (Mt) of methane is emitted every year globally, 60 per cent of which comes from human activities, according to the latest assessment. Under current trajectories, total anthropogenic methane emissions could rise by up to 13 per cent between 2020 and 2030. The report called for rapid cuts in methane emissions from fossil fuels as it will prevent global warming to an extent greater than the emissions impact of immediately taking all cars and trucks in the world off the road. It urged that methane abatement measures should be above and beyond the decarbonization efforts for the energy sector. Without targeted action on methane, even with deep reductions in fossil fuel use, the increase in the global average surface temperature will likely exceed 1.6°C by 2050. The fossil fuel sector likely holds the largest potential for rapid and low-cost reductions in methane emissions. More than 80 Mt of annual methane emissions from fossil fuels can be avoided by 2030 using existing technologies, often at low – or even negative – costs. Around $75 billion is required by 2030 for all methane abatement measures in the oil and gas sector in the Net Zero scenario, according to the findings. “This is equivalent to less than 2 per cent of the income generated by the oil and gas industry in 2022,”. Controlling methane emissions will also provide health benefits and enhance food security. About Methane Emission:- Methane (CH4) is the simplest hydrocarbon, consisting of one carbon atom and four hydrogen atoms. It is a colorless, odorless, and highly flammable gas, and the main component in natural gas. It is such a potent heat absorber. It is the primary component of natural gas. It is a powerful greenhouse gas. It warms the planet more than 80 times as quickly as a comparable volume of atmospheric CO2 over a comparable amount of time. It is estimated to have been responsible for 30 per cent of global warming since the Industrial Revolution. Methane pollution, which is a primary component of ground-level ozone. It has been linked to heart disease, birth defects, asthma and other adverse health impacts. Sources of Methane:- Biological Sources: it is made from some organic compounds by methane-generating microbes known as Agriculture: Livestock emissions from manure and gastroenteric releases account for roughly 32% of human-caused methane emissions. Cows also belch out methane. Emissions from Fuel and Industries. Initiatives to reduce methane emission:- COP 26 Pledges: At COP26 in Glasgow, over 100 countries signed an agreement to cut methane emissions by 30% by 2030 as methane might be easier to deal with than carbon dioxide. MethaneSAT: a planned American-New Zealand space mission scheduled for launch later in 2022. It will be an Earth observation satellite that will monitor and study global methane emissions in order to combat climate change. UN Initiatives: The UN Food Systems Summit in September 2021 was also aimed at helping make farming and food production more environmentally friendly. India’s Initiative: Central Salt & Marine Chemical Research Institute (CSMCRI) in collaboration with the country’s three leading institutes developed a seaweed-based animal feed additive formulation that aims to reduce methane emissions from cattle. MUST READ: Methane Alert and Response System (MARS) SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a: (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organizations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by the United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Q.2) ) In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’? (2018) Civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards. The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of the IAEA The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG). The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG. Asteroid Bennu Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recent reports show that the samples collected from the 4.5-billion-year-old asteroid Bennu could indicate the building blocks of life on Earth. Background:- The sample return capsule from NASA’s OSIRIS-REx mission is seen shortly after touching down in Utah, on September 24, 2023. The sample was collected from the asteroid Bennu in October 2020. (NASA’s OSIRIS-REx) About Asteroid Bennu:- Discovered: 1999. Discovered by: NASA. The asteroid was discovered by a team from the NASA-funded Lincoln Near-Earth Asteroid Research team in 1999. It was originally named as 1999 RQ36. The name Bennu comes from an Egyptian deity related to the Sun, often depicted as a grey heron. It is a 500-meter-wide asteroid in an elliptical orbit around the sun. It is currently more than 200 million miles from Earth. Bennu’s orbit is close in proximity to Earth’s, even crossing it. The asteroid makes its closest approach to Earth every 6 years. It is one of the most potentially hazardous asteroids currently known to Earth. It has a 1‐in‐2,700 chance of impacting Earth during one of its close approaches to Earth in the late 22nd century. OSIRIS-REx – short for Origins-Spectral Interpretation-Resource Identification-Security-Regolith Explorer was the first U.S. mission to collect a sample from an asteroid. About OSIRIS-Rex:- Launched on: Sept. 8, 2016. Launched y: NASA. OSIRIS-REx – short for Origins-Spectral Interpretation-Resource Identification-Security-Regolith Explorer. It was the first U.S. mission to collect a sample from an asteroid. The OSIRIS-REx mission is essentially a seven-year-long voyage. It was meant to explore asteroid Bennu. The spacecraft contains five instruments including cameras, a spectrometer, and a laser altimeter. The spacecraft arrived at Bennu in December 2018. It Surveyed the asteroid for more than two years. Bennu is an ancient asteroid, currently more than 200 million miles from Earth. The asteroid was discovered by a team from the NASA-funded Lincoln Near-Earth Asteroid Research team in 1999. It offers scientists a window into the early solar system as it was first taking shape billions of years ago and tossing ingredients that could have helped seed life on Earth. On 20, 2020, the spacecraft collected a sample from the asteroid and stowed it in its sample return capsule. The pristine material from Bennu – rocks and dust collected from the asteroid’s surface will offer generations of scientists a window into the time when the Sun and planets were forming about 4.5 billion years ago. MUST READ: Exoplanets SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its Q.2) With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018) PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only Central Information Commission (CIC) Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: Recently, the Central Information Commission (CIC) commemorated the 18th anniversary of the enactment of the RTI Act. About Central Information Commission (CIC):- Establishment: 2005. The CIC was constituted in 2005 under the Right to Information Act, 2005. The RTI Act 2005 provides for the constitution of a Central Information Commission and State Information Commissions in each state. Jurisdiction: the Commission extends over all Central Public Authorities. The Right to Information (Amendment) Act, of 2019 amended the Right to Information Act, of 2005. The RTI Act, of 2005 specified the tenure, terms of service, and salaries of the Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) and Information Commissioners (ICs) at the central and state levels, in the parent law. Structure:- The Central Information Commission shall consist of: The Chief Information Commissioner (CIC). Members: Such numbers of Central Information Commissioners (ICs), not exceeding ten, as may be deemed necessary. The members shall be persons of eminence in public life with wide knowledge and experience in law, science and technology, social service, management, journalism, mass media or administration and Governance. The CIC or IC shall not be an MP or MLA or hold any other office of profit connected with any political party carrying on any business or pursuing any profession. Appointment: The members of the commission are appointed by a committee consisting of the PM (as Chair), the Leader of Opposition (LoP) in Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister appointed by the Prime Minister. Tenure: The CIC and ICs (at the central and state level) will hold office for a term of three years. Resignation: The CIC or an IC may, at any time, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign from his office. Removal: The CIC or an IC may be removed from office only by order of the President on the grounds of proven misbehaviour or incapacity after the Supreme Court, on a reference made to it by the President, reports that he/she should be removed on the grounds mentioned. The President may also remove them from office if such a person is adjudged insolvent, convicted for certain offences etc. They are not eligible for reappointment. Power and Functions:- To receive and inquire into a complaint from any person regarding information requested under the RTI act. It can order an inquiry into any matter if there are reasonable grounds (suo-moto power). While inquiring, the Commission has the powers of a civil court in respect of summoning, requiring documents, etc. Adjudication in the second appeal for giving information; Direction for record-keeping Imposition of penalties and Monitoring and Reporting including preparation of an Annual SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022) This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people. This would create a local self-governing body in that area. This would convert that area into a Union Territory. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State. Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements (2021) Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 National Human Rights Commission Syllabus Prelims –POLITY Context: The National Human Rights Commission celebrated its 30th Foundation Day recently. About the National Human Rights Commission:- Established: 1993. HQ: New Delhi. NHRC is a statutory body established under the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993. The Act also provides for the creation of the State Human Rights Commission (SHRC) as well. Historical Background:- NHRC was established in conformity with the Paris Principles. Paris Principles: adopted for the promotion and protection of human rights in Paris in 1991. It was endorsed by the General Assembly of the United Nations in 1993. Composition of NHRC:- It is a multi-member body. (NHRC) It consists of a chairperson, five full-time Members, and seven deemed Members. Chairperson: a retired chief justice of India or a judge of the Supreme Court. Appointments:- The chairman and members are appointed by the President on the recommendations of a six-member committee consisting of:- Prime Minister (head) Speaker of the Lok Sabha Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha Leaders of the Opposition in both Houses of Parliament Union Home Minister. Term: three years or until they attain the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier. Removal: The president can remove them from office under specific circumstances. They can be removed only on the charges of proven misbehaviour or incapacity if proved by an inquiry conducted by a Supreme Court Judge. Functions of NHRC:- To investigate the violation of human rights. To prevent a human rights violation. To conduct research about human rights. To create awareness campaigns through various mediums, and encourage the work of non-governmental organizations (NGOs). NGO: a group that functions independently of any government. It is the watchdog of human rights in the country. MUST READ: Giving Human Rights Commissions more teeth SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following organizations/ bodies in India: (2023) The National Commission for Backward Classes The National Human Rights Commission The National Law Commission The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Mains: United Nations Security Council (UNSC) reforms Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International relations) Context: The longstanding debate on fundamental reforms at the United Nations (UN) has resurfaced once again, more than thirty years after it first began. About United Nations Security Council (UNSC): It is one of the UN’s six main organs and is aimed at maintaining international peace and security. EST: 1945 HQ: New York City. Membership: The Council is composed of 15 Members including 10 non-permanent members. P5 with veto power: China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom and the United States. UNSC elections: Each year the General Assembly elects five non-permanent members (out of 10 in total) for a two-year term. The 10 non-permanent seats are distributed on a regional basis as follows: Five for African and Asian States. One for the Eastern European States. Two for the Latin American and Caribbean States; Two for Western European and other States To be elected to the Council, candidate countries need a two-thirds majority of ballots of the Member States that are present and voting in the Assembly. The UNSC elections were traditionally held in the General Assembly hall with each of the 193 member states casting its vote in a secret ballot. Need for United Nations Reforms: Inadequate Council Representation: Presently, with 193 UN member-states, only 15 Council members exist, accounting for less than 8%. Consequently, a significant number of nations do not feel fairly represented within the Council. Imbalanced Powers and privileges: The current privilege enjoyed by the five permanent members and based on historical precedence is politically untenable. Europe, comprising just 5% of the global population, controls 33% of Council seats, not including Russia, another European power. Financial Disparities: Some countries contribute more financially to the UN than four of the five permanent members. For example, Japan and Germany have consistently ranked as the second and third largest UN budget contributors. Unresolved conflicts: Conflicts in regions like Sudan, Syria, Afghanistan, Palestine and Myanmar often remain unaddressed, allowing certain countries and non-state actors to exploit these situations economically. Failure in basic functions: The Security Council struggles to fulfill its fundamental role, especially when a permanent member attacks its neighbour. For example, when Russia attacked Ukraine in February 2022, its veto power obstructed UNSC resolutions addressing the situation. Denied Opportunities for Contributions and Representation: Prominent nations like India, with significant population, economic influence, and substantial contributions to the UN, find their opportunities curtailed. Despite their active roles in shaping global affairs, these states remain underrepresented, highlighting the pressing need for reforms within the UN framework. Way Forward: Suggestive measures Expansion of UNSC: The changing needs of global governance for peace and security require significant reforms in the UNSC, including expanding its permanent and non-permanent seats to better address the complex and evolving challenges to international peace and security. Democratization: The power imbalance between the P5 and other countries in the UNSC needs to be addressed urgently to make the council more democratic and increase its legitimacy in governing international peace, security and order. Equitable Representation: Equitable representation of all the regions in the UNSC is critical to decentralizing its governing power and authority over nations. The decentralization of the UNSC’s decision-making processes will enable its transformation to a more representative, participatory body. India and UNSC: India as the current one of the non-permanent members of the UNSC can start by drafting a resolution containing a comprehensive set of proposals for reforming the UNSC. India urged for UNSC reform hosting a meeting of two separate groupings G-4 and L-69 in New York on the sidelines of the UN General Assembly in September 2022. Source: TH Changing Landscape of Cyclone Formation Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Geography) Context: A study just published in the journal Climate and Atmospheric Science reported a sharp change in the potential for cyclones to form over the Arabian Sea during the late 1990s. Climate scientists employ a range of terms to describe observed changes in climate variables. These include; Trend: A trend implies that a climate variable is consistently changing in one direction, such as a continuous increase in temperature. The term “anthropogenic trend” suggests that these changes are occurring within human lifetimes, although the specific timeframe for a variable to be considered a trend is not always clear. Secular Trend: This term is used when a variable has been increasing or decreasing for a certain period within a longer timeframe. For instance, a variable may exhibit a secular trend if it has been steadily increasing for 30 years within a 100-year period. Decadal Variability: Decadal variability refers to oscillations from a positive to a negative phase that occur over the span of decades. It is somewhat similar to the concept of a shift, but decadal variability is often cyclic in nature. Shift: A shift represents a rapid transition from one state to another, such as a sudden change in the amount of rainfall or temperature. It can be an irreversible jump or a temporary change that later reverts to a previous state. About Cyclones: The word Cyclone is derived from the Greek word Cyclos meaning the coils of a snake. It was coined by Henry Peddington because the tropical storms in the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea appear like coiled serpents of the sea. They are caused by atmospheric disturbances around a low-pressure area distinguished by swift and often destructive air circulation. They are usually accompanied by violent storms and bad weather. The air circulates inward in an anticlockwise direction in the Northern hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern hemisphere. Highlights of Recent study: Climate scientists are examining whether observed changes in climate variables, such as decreasing monsoon rainfall, increasing extreme rainfall, droughts, heatwaves, and cyclones, are trends, shifts, or decadal cycles. These distinctions are important for how we plan for resources, such as water, crops, and energy. A new study suggests a shift in the Arabian Sea’s cyclogenesis potential, which may be linked to a shift in the Warm Arctic, Cold Eurasian pattern. Global warming and regime shifts may also be involved. To better understand climate risks and plan for adaptation, scientists must investigate natural variability and how it is modulated by global warming. Impacts of  Climate Change on Cyclone Formation: Augmented Precipitation: A warmer atmosphere can accommodate a greater amount of moisture, resulting in increased rainfall. More rainfall leads to the release of more heat, ultimately fuelling stronger winds within the cyclone. Recent studies have revealed that hurricane rainfall rates rise by at least 7% for every degree of warming. Intensification of Cyclones: A warming climate is anticipated to boost wind speeds, leading to a higher proportion of storms intensifying into formidable Category 4 or 5 hurricanes/ Cyclones. Temperature Elevation: The temperature of both the ocean and the atmosphere plays a pivotal role in the genesis of tropical cyclones. cyclonic storms draw strength from the release of heat generated when ocean surface water evaporates and subsequently condenses into rainfall within the storm. In a warming climate, a warmer ocean leads to increased evaporation, which, in turn, means more moisture available in the atmosphere. Sea-Level Surge: Elevated temperatures contribute to rising sea levels, increasing the depth of stormwater. As sea levels rise, the storm’s inundation reaches further inland. Reduced Storm Speed: The velocity of a cyclone can significantly impact the total amount of rainfall at a particular location. Slower-moving storms offer a more extended timeframe for rainfall accumulation. Although studies indicate a slowdown in storm speed, the underlying mechanisms remain unclear. Fusion of Storms: In an increasingly warming world, the convergence of two sizable tropical storms over any of the world’s oceans could result in the formation of a colossal super-cyclone. Implications of changing landscape of cyclones and its impacts: Increased destructions: More powerful storms can inflict significantly greater harm to both people and economies. The eastern part of India and Bangladesh were struck by Cyclone Amphan in May of 2020. The storm killed 98 people in India, and required the evacuation of more than 5,00,000 people from Bengal and Odisha. Unpredictable Predictions: The rapidly evolving nature of storms has rendered conventional forecasting methods unreliable. This unpredictability has had a direct impact on the ability to take adequate precautionary measures. Rising Storm Frequency: The number of hurricanes forming each year may undergo alterations in the future. However, there is no universally accepted theory that comprehensively explains the current quantity of storms in the existing climate or forecasts how this might change in the future. Shifting Impact Zones: Recent research suggests that the areas where storms reach their maximum intensity are gradually shifting toward the Earth’s poles. This shift holds significant implications for the primary areas affected by these storms. In 2021, Gujarat was faced with Cyclone Tauktae, the deadliest cyclone to hit the Arabian Sea in a decade. Reports said that the tempestuous winds and rain killed approximately 70 people and more than 8,000 cattle, and damaged as many as 88,000 homes. 2,80,000 people were evacuated from the coastal areas. Way Forward: Therefore the study highlighting the shift in cyclone-genesis potential over the Arabian Sea in the late 1990s serves as a compelling example of the complex interplay between climate patterns and regional climate phenomena. It underscores the importance of distinguishing between trends, shifts, and decadal cycles in climate research and their impact on resource planning and climate adaptation. Source:TH Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: SPCAE MISSIONS AGENCY 1.Cassini–Huygens JAXA 2.Prarambh Mission ISRO 3.PUNCH & TRACERS MISSION NASA How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: OSIRIS-Rex was the first U.S. mission to collect a sample from an asteroid. Statement-II: Bennu is an ancient discovered by a team from the NASA-funded Lincoln Near-Earth Asteroid Research team in 1999. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the NHRC, consider the following statements: Chairperson is a retired chief justice of India or a judge of the Supreme Court. It is a single-member body. It conducts research about human rights. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Mains Practice Question Q.1) Examine the hurdles in amending the UN Charter for UNSC reforms. What strategies can enhance the UNSC’s effectiveness in addressing these challenges today? (250 words) Q.2) what do you meant by tropical cyclones? Explain how shift in cyclone-genesis potential over the Arabian Sea in the late 1990s happening and how does it relate to the ‘Warm Arctic, Cold Eurasian’ (WACE) pattern and global warming? (250 Words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  13th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 12th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) – a

Oct 13, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 13th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Oct 12, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 12th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Dengue Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Bihar witnesses 371 fresh cases of Dengue in 24 hours. Background:- Last month, Bihar officially reported a distressing tally of a dozen deaths attributed to dengue. About Dengue:- IMAGE SOURCE: Top 10 Home Remedies Dengue is a vector-borne disease. Caused by: dengue virus (DENV). Transmission: It is transmitted to humans through the bite of an infected female Aedes Aegypti mosquito. The mosquito becomes infected when it feeds on the blood of a person infected with the virus. There are 4 serotypes of the virus that cause dengue. These are known as DEN-1, DEN-2, DEN-3, and DEN-4. Dengue cannot be spread directly from person to person. Most cases occur in tropical areas of the world, including the Indian subcontinent, Southeast Asia, Southern China, Taiwan, the Pacific Islands, the Caribbean, Mexico, Africa, and Central, and South America. It is more common in tropical and subtropical climates. It is mostly in urban and semi-urban areas. As per WHO, about half of the world’s population is now at risk of dengue with an estimated 100–400 million infections occurring each year. Symptoms:- High fever (40°C/104°F) Severe headache Pain behind the eyes Muscle and joint pains Nausea Vomiting Swollen glands Rash. Treatment Most cases of dengue fever can be treated at home with pain medicine. Prevention:- DNA Vaccines: DNA vaccines are often referred to as third-generation vaccines. (Dengue and DNA vaccines) Wear protective clothing. Use mosquito repellent. Reduce mosquito habitat. MUST READ: Zika Virus Disease SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following? (2023) Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes Converting crop residues into packing material Producing biodegradable plastics Producing biochar from the thermos-chemical conversion of biomass Q.2) With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements: (2021) Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: The Secretary of, the Department of Finance Services (DFS) chaired the stakeholder’s meeting on the Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) recently. Background:- Dr Vivek Joshi, Secretary, Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance, Government of India, chaired a Stakeholders meeting on the Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) in the presence of Dr M. P. Tangirala, Addl. Secretary, DFS, Chairman, NABARD; Managing Director, National Housing Board (NHB); Finance Secretaries and other senior officers from State and UT Governments. About Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF):- Establishment: 1995-96. Implementing Agency: National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development(NABARD). Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) was instituted in NABARD with an announcement in the Union Budget 1995-96. Objective: giving low-cost fund support to State Govts. and State Owned Corporations for quick completion of ongoing projects relating to medium and minor irrigation, soil conservation, watershed management and other forms of rural infrastructure. Funding: The Fund is maintained by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development(NABARD). NABARD:- Establishment: 1982. Ministry: Ministry of Finance, Government of India. It was created by transferring the agricultural credit functions of RBI and refinance functions of the then Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation (ARDC). Consequent to the revision in the composition of share capital between the Government of India and RBI. NABARD today is fully owned by the Government of India. It is an apex regulatory body for the overall regulation of regional rural banks and apex cooperative banks in India. It is active in developing and implementing financial inclusion. Financed Activities:- The activities to be financed under RIDF as classified under three broad categories namely:- Agriculture and related sectors (Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF)) Social sector (Rural Healthcare system) Rural connectivity. Eligible Institutions:- State Governments / Union Territories State Owned Corporations / State Govt. Undertakings State Govt. Sponsored / Supported Organisations Panchayat Raj Institutions/Self Help Groups (SHGs)/ NGOs Mode of Finance:- NABARD releases the sanctioned amount on a reimbursement basis except for the initial mobilization advance @30% to North Eastern & Hilly States and 20% for other States. Quantum of Loan and Margin/Borrower Contribution:- The project for rural connectivity, social and agri-related sectors, is eligible for loans from 80 to 95% of the project cost. Cost escalation proposals for certain genuine reasons are considered within two years of sanction. Rate of interest:- With effect from 01 April 2012, the interest rates payable to banks on deposits placed with NABARD and loans disbursed by NABARD from RIDF have been linked to the Bank Rate prevailing at that point in time. Repayment period:- Loan to be repaid in equal annual instalments within seven years from the date of withdrawal, including a grace period of two years. The interest shall be paid at the end of each quarter i.e. 31 March, 30 June, 30 September and 31 December every year, including a grace period. Penal Interest:- Interest on the overdue interest amount is to be paid at the same rate as applicable to the principal amount. Security for Loan:- Loans sanctioned would be secured by the irrevocable letter of authority/mandate registered with Reserve Bank of India/any other Scheduled Commercial Bank, Time promissory Note (TPN), Execution of unconditional Guarantee from State Governments (Additionally required for support to State Government sponsored organisations, etc.) and acceptance of terms and conditions of sanction in the duplicate copy of the sanction letter. Phasing of RIDF projects:- The implementation phase for projects sanctioned is spread over 2-5 years, varying with the type of the project and also the location of the State. MUST READ: Cooperative Sector Reforms SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider · the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day : (2023) Statement-I : Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens. Statement-II: On 26 November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India· set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft of the Constitution of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022) This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people. This would create a local self-governing body in that area. This would convert that area into a Union Territory. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State. Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat) Syllabus Prelims –POLITY-GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES Context: The government has recently approved the establishment of an autonomous body Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat) for development of youth and youth-led development. Background:- Briefing reporters in New Delhi after the Cabinet meeting, Information and Broadcasting Minister Anurag Singh Thakur said that there are nearly 40 crore youth in the country who are in the age group of 15-29 years. The body will be dedicated to the nation on October 31, the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. About Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat):- Establishment: 2023. Ministry: Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat) is an autonomous body. It will serve as an overarching enabling mechanism powered by technology for youth development and youth-led development. Objective: The primary objective of Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat) is to make it a whole of Government platform for youth development. Under the new arrangement, with access to resources & connection to opportunities, youth would become community change agents and nation builders allowing them to act as the Yuva Setu between the Government and the citizens. It seeks to harness the immense youth energy for nation-building. It will benefit the youth in the age group of 15-29 years, in line with the definition of ‘Youth’ in the National Youth Policy. In the case of programme components specifically meant for adolescents, the beneficiaries will be in the age group of 10-19 years. It will provide equitable access to youth to actualize their aspirations and build Viksit Bharat across the entire spectrum of the Government. Advantages:- Leadership Development in the Youth. Better alignment between youth aspirations and community needs. Enhanced efficiency through Convergence of existing programmes. Act as a one-stop shop for young people and Ministries. Create a centralized youth database. Improved two-way communication to connect youth government initiatives and activities of other stakeholders that engage with youth. (‘Responsible Artificial Intelligence (AI) for Youth’ program launched) Ensuring accessibility by creating a physical ecosystem. Significance: – It will help ensure accessibility by creating a physical ecosystem. (National Youth Festival) It will help to increase the Youth outreach efforts of the Department of Youth Affairs. MUST READ: Young Professionals Scheme SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the election to the President of India (2023) The members nominated to either the House of Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College. The higher the number of elective Assembly seats, the higher the value of the vote of each MLA of that State. The value of the vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala. The value of the vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater than compared of Arunachal Pradesh. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Nanaji Deshmukh Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT PERSONALITIES Context: Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi has paid tributes to Bharat Ratna Nanaji Deshmukh on his Jayanti. Background:- Shri Modi said that Nanaji Deshmukh dedicated his life to the development of villages and tribal areas of the country. About Nanaji Deshmukh:- Birth: 11th October 1916. Birthplace: Maharashtra. Death: 27th February, 2010. Nanaji Deshmukh championed the cause of empowering rural communities through his relentless efforts. His life’s work was deeply rooted in the principle of “Antyodaya,” advocating for uplifting the last person in society. He embodied this philosophy through his tireless efforts, focusing primarily on the concept of “Gramodaya” – the development of villages. Polittical Participation:- He was a leader of Bharatiya Jana Sangh and Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh. He actively participated in Acharya Vinoba Bhave’s Bhoodan. Deshmukh was the main force behind social activist Jayaprakash Narayan’s agitation for total revolution. Social Work:- Nanaji played an important role in carrying out a social restructuring programme in over 500 villages of UP and MP.  Works in Education:- He established Chitarkoot Gramoday Vishwavidyalaya in Chitrakoot. It was India’s first rural University. He established Saraswati Shishu Mandir (SSM), which runs a chain of private schools in India and is said to be the educational wing of the RSS. He started the country’s first SSM at Gorakhpur in 1950. He was the founder of the Deendayal Research Institute (DRI) situated at Chitrakoot. Awards:- 1999: He was awarded Padma Vibhushan. 2019: He was posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna. MUST READ: Gandhi as Political thinker and a Social reformer SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) With reference to Madanapalle of Andhra Pradesh, which one of the following statements is correct? (2022) Pingali Venkayya designed the tricolour Indian National Flag here. Pattabhi Sitaramaiah led the Quit India Movement of the Andhra region from here. Rabindranath Tagore translated the National Anthem from Bengali to English here. Madame Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott set up the headquarters of the Theosophical Society first here. Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: The 23rd Council of Ministers of the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) met recently. About the 23rd Council of Ministers of IORA:- Date: 11 October 2023. Host: Sri Lanka. Venue: Colombo, Sri Lanka. Theme: “Strengthening Regional Architecture: Reinforcing Indian Ocean Identity. Sri Lanka assumed the chairmanship from Sri Lanka will serve as chair for the next two years. India has assumed the Vice Chair in the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) for the next two years. About Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA):- Establishment:  1997. Secretariat: Cyber City, Ebène, Mauritius. Objective: to ensure the sustainable development of the Indian Ocean region. The IORA is an intergovernmental organization. It was formerly known as the Indian Ocean Rim Initiative and the Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC). Membership: It comprises 23 member states and 11 dialogue partners hailing from regions surrounding the Indian Ocean. Members: Australia, Bangladesh, Comoros, French Republic, India, Indonesia, Iran, Kenya, Madagascar, Malaysia, Mauritius, Mozambique, Oman, Seychelles, Singapore, Somalia, South Africa, Sri Lanka, Tanzania, Thailand, the United Arab Emirates, the Maldives, and Yemen. In 2014, India hosted the first Indian Ocean Dialogue in Kochi, Kerala. Structure:- IORA’s apex body is the Council of Foreign Ministers (COM) which meets annually. It is the highest decision-making body of IORA. The United Arab Emirates (UAE) assumed the role of Chair from November 2019 – November 2021, followed by the People’s Republic of Bangladesh from November 2021 – November 2023. A committee of Senior Officials (CSO) meets twice a year to progress IORA’s agenda and consider recommendations by Working Groups and forums of officials, business and academics. Functions:- It manages, coordinates, services and monitors the implementation of policy decisions, work programmes and projects adopted by the member states. Strengthen regional cooperation and promote sustainable development within the Indian Ocean region. Development through economic cooperation. Focus Areas:- Maritime Security (GREEN MARITIME SECTOR) Trade and Investment Facilitation Fisheries Management Disaster Risk Reduction Academic and Scientific Cooperation (Indian Ocean Naval Symposium) Tourism Promotion and Cultural Exchanges Blue Economy Significance:- The association gains importance by the fact that the Indian Ocean carries half of the world’s container ships, one-third of the world’s bulk cargo traffic and two-thirds of the world’s oil shipments. It is a lifeline of international trade and transport and the Indian Ocean region is woven together by trade routes and commands control of major sea lanes.  MUST READ: International Maritime Exercise SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018) PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 only Loknayak Jayaprakash Narayan Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT PERSONALITIES Context: The Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi has paid tributes to Loknayak Jayaprakash Narayan on his birth anniversary. Background:- Union Home Minister Amit Shah unveiled a 15-foot statue of Jayaprakash Narayan or JP on his 120th birth anniversary on Tuesday (October 11), at the socialist icon’s birthplace, Sitab Diara village in Bihar’s Saran district. About Loknayak Jayaprakash Narayan:- Birth: 11 October 1902. Birth Place: Sitab Diara, Bihar. Death: 8 October 1979. He quit college to join the non-cooperation movement. He was influenced by the ideas of Karl Marx. He was also called JP or Lok Nayak (People’s leader). Political Participation:- 1929: He joined the freedom struggle and the Indian National Congress, upon the invitation of Jawaharlal Nehru and drawn by a speech by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad. 1932: he was imprisoned for a year for participation in the civil disobedience movement. 1939: he was imprisoned for his opposition to Indian participation in World War II on the side of Britain but escaped. He played a key role in the formation of the Congress Socialist Party (1934), a left-wing group within the Congress Party. Post Independence:- After independence took it out of the Congress and formed the Socialist Party, which was merged with J B Kripalani’s Kisan Mazdoor Praja Party to form the Praja Socialist Party While Nehru was keen on JP joining the Union government, JP sought to distance himself from electoral politics, opting to focus on social causes instead. The JP movement:- Students in Gujarat began demonstrating in late 1973, in response to mounting mess bills. The protests became widespread in the state, with workers, teachers and several other groups joining in the movement, calling for a change in government. JP saw the youth of Gujarat that had been able to bring about political change as an alternative route from electoral politics and recognized the power of students. The protests against corruption grew widespread, and students of Bihar began their movement in March 1974. The students approached JP, who left his self-imposed political exile and led the movement. At a rally in Patna on June 5, he called for Sampoorna Kranti (Total Revolution). The program was against corruption and a call for social transformation. Formation of the Janata Party:- JP launched a popular, mass movement against the Indira Gandhi government. His opposition led to the formation of the Janata Party government in the 1977 general election, the first non-Congress government in the country. Awards and Recognition:- 1965: JP was awarded the Magsaysay Award for Public Service. 1999: JP was posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna, India’s highest civilian award for his social service. MUST READ: Mahatma Gandhi SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Who among the following is associated with ‘Songs from Prison’, a translation of ancient Indian religious lyrics in English? (2022) Bal Gangadhar Tilak Jawaharlal Nehru Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi Sarojini Naidu Q.2) The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a: (2014) revolutionary association of Indians with headquarters at San Francisco nationalist organization operating from Singapore militant organization with headquarters at Berlin communist movement for India’s freedom with headquarters at Tashkent Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Disease Pathogen 1.COVID SARS-CoV-2 2.Malaria Plasmodium 3.Typhoid Rhinovirus How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : JP was awarded the Magsaysay Award for Public Service in 2002. Statement-II : JP was posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1999. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Dengue, consider the following statements: It is caused by dengue virus (DENV). It is transmitted to humans through the bite of an infected male Aedes Aegypti mosquito. It does not have any vaccine. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 2 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  12th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 11th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – b

Oct 12, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 11th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) ISRAEL-PALESTINE CONFLICT Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Recently, Palestine-based Hamas militants launched a barrage of rockets on Israel on Saturday infiltrating the towns near the Gaza Strip through land, air, and sea. Hamas or the Islamic Resistance Movement: is a militant group that governs the Gaza Strip. It emerged in 1987 as an offshoot of the Muslim Brotherhood during the first Palestinian intifada, or uprising, against the Israeli occupation of Gaza and the West Bank. It was founded by Sheikh Ahmed Yassin, a Palestinian cleric. Its military wing, the Izzedine al-Qassam Brigades, was established around 1991. About ISRAEL-PALESTINE CONFLICT:- Background of the war:- IMAGE SOURCE: express.co.uk Both Israelis and Palestinians have been in a struggle for self-determination and sovereignty over the territory, developing respective movements for their causes. Both Palestinians and Israelis see the territory between the Jordan River and the Mediterranean Sea as their own, and Christians, Jews, and Muslims all hold parts of the land as sacred. The past seven decades have brought war and uprisings. (15th India-Israel Joint Working Group) Historic Timeline:- Ottoman Empire: The Ottoman Empire had controlled that part of the Middle East from the early 16th century until control of most of the region was granted to the British after World War I. In 1916: the Sykes-Picot Agreement secretly negotiated between Britain and France planned to carve up the Middle East into spheres of influence, and determined that the land in question was to be internationalized. In 1917: Britain’s foreign secretary, Lord Arthur Balfour, expressed his government’s support for “the establishment in Palestine of a national home for the Jewish people. 1947: UN resolution 1947: After World War II, nearing the end of the British Mandate for Palestine, the United Nations General Assembly in 1947 passed Resolution 181, urging the partition of the land into two independent states — one Arab and one Jewish. Religiously significant Jerusalem is to be under special international administration. The plan is not implemented after the Arab side rejects it, arguing that it is unfavorable to their majority population. Violence in the regional conflict grows. 1948: Israel declares independence. Israel declared independence in May 1948. The next day, a coalition of Arab states, allied with Palestinian factions, attacked Israeli forces in what became the first of several Arab-Israeli wars. In the end, Israel gains control of an even larger portion of territory — not including the areas of the West Bank and Gaza Strip. 1967: the Six-Day War In June of 1967, a war known as the “Six-Day War” or the 1967 Arab-Israeli War broke out amid lingering conflicts, including Egypt’s continued blockade of shipping into the Gulf of Aqaba. Israel ultimately took control of the Gaza Strip, Sinai, the West Bank, the Golan Heights, and predominantly Palestinian East Jerusalem. The Arab armies suffered massive losses. 1987: First intifada A Palestinian uprising, or intifada, brings largely spontaneous clashes, protests, and civil disobedience against Israeli occupation in the West Bank, Gaza, and Israel, leading to harsh Israeli military crackdowns. Unrest continues for years, with many killed or injured on both sides. 1993: Oslo Accords The first of two pacts, known as the Oslo Accords, was signed between Israel and the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO). It set out a peace process based on previous U.N. resolutions. It charted out the expansion of a limited Palestinian self-rule in the West Bank and Gaza Strip. A follow-up accord was signed in 1995. However, key issues such as Israeli settlements in the West Bank and the status of Jerusalem, were left unresolved. 2006: Hamas elected in Gaza Israel withdrew its troops from Gaza in 2005. The Palestinian militant group Hamas wins legislative elections the next year, leading to political strains with the more moderate Fatah party controlling the West Bank. 2017: U.S. recognizes Jerusalem as capital The Donald Trump administration recognizes Jerusalem as the capital of Israel and announces that it plans to shift the U.S. Embassy from Tel Aviv, stirring outrage from Palestinians. 2023: Recent events:- January 2023: Israeli forces raid the Palestinian city of Jenin, killing nine people in a shootout. Summer 2023: Retaliatory attacks flare Israel launches surprise airstrikes across the Gaza Strip in May. October 2023: Israel is attacked by Hamas. Prime Minister of Israel, Netanyahu formally declared war on Hamas on Oct. 8 following a surprise assault by Hamas militants that came a day after the 50th anniversary of the start of the 1973 Yom Kippur War. MUST READ: India-Israel Industrial R&D & Technological Innovation Fund (I4F) SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin? (2023) Cameroon Nigeria South Sudan Uganda Q.2) With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements: (2022) A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from a baseline determined in accordance with the convention. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Chungthang dam Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY/DISASTER MANAGEMENT Context: The recent breach in the Chungthang dam breach hit the milk supply in Sikkim. Background:- Neighbouring Bihar stopped milk supply to Sikkim as the climate-change-induced flood-damaged roads in the state, causing supply chain disruptions. (National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)). Flash floods occurred in north Sikkim after the South Lhonak Lake burst due to incessant rains. Glacial lake outburst floods (GLOF): A glacial lake outburst flood (GLOF) is a type of catastrophic flood that occurs when the dam containing a glacial lake fails, releasing a large volume of water. This type of flood is typically caused by the rapid melting of glaciers or the buildup of water in the lake due to heavy precipitation or the inflow of meltwater. (Reimagining Disaster Management) About Chungthang Dam:- IMAGE SOURCE: researchgate.net Location: Chungthang, Sikkim. Height: 817 meters. River: Teesta. The dam serves as a hydroelectric power generation facility, contributing to Sikkim’s renewable energy portfolio. It is an integral part of the 1200 MW mega Teesta Stage III Hydro Electric Project which is a major source of electricity for Sikkim and West Bengal. Teesta Stage III Hydro Electric Project:- River: Teesta. Power: 1,200 MW hydropower project. Construction began: in 2008. Commissioned: 2017. Type: It is a run-of-the-river hydroelectric project. The project is run by Sikkim Urja (formerly Teesta Urja). Significance:- By regulating the flow of the Teesta River, the Chungthang Dam plays a crucial role in irrigation, drinking water supply, and flood control. Environmental Impact: While the dam offers valuable benefits, its construction and operation also raise environmental concerns, including alterations in river ecosystems. MUST READ: Uttarakhand Glacier Disaster SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the Guidelines, statements: the context of WHO considers the Air Quality following (2022) The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m³ and the annual mean of PM 2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of inclement weather. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only Q.2) Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution? (2020) Automobile exhaust Tobacco smoke Woodburning Using varnished wooden furniture Using products made of polyurethane Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, and 3 only 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Mental health issues Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY/GOVERNANCE Context: Recent studies show that Mental health issues are 10 times common among asylum-seeking children. Key Highlights of the report:- The WHO estimates that one in five people in conflict-affected areas may experience depression, anxiety, PTSD, bipolar disorder, or schizophrenia. Behavioural disorders may be more common among younger refugee and migrant children. They are more severe in younger (6-14 years) compared with older (15-17 years) age groups, according to a worldwide review of asylum seekers and refugee children. High rates of mental health conditions among refugee children were associated with being placed in detention. Prolonged stay in an asylum centre was associated with a 30-fold increase in the risk of psychopathology among children aged 11-16 years. Among refugees based in high-income countries, those originally from the Middle East and North Africa had a threefold higher risk of psychotic disorders compared with refugee groups from other geographies. Evidence suggests that, among refugees and migrants, girls and women have a higher risk of depression and anxiety than boys and men. Moreover, refugees and migrants who identify as LGBTQI+ were affected in terms of their mental health. About Mental health issues:- As per WHO, Mental health is a state of mental well-being that enables people to cope with the stresses of life, realize their abilities, learn well and work well, and contribute to their community. It is an integral component of health and well-being. It underpins our individual and collective abilities to make decisions, build relationships, and shape the world we live in. Mental health is a basic human right. (Need for stronger mental health strategy) It is crucial to personal, community, and socio-economic development. Determinants of mental health:- Individual psychological and biological factors: emotional skills, substance use, and genetics. Exposure to unfavourable social, economic, geopolitical, and environmental circumstances: poverty, violence, inequality, and environmental deprivation. Risks occurring during the developmentally sensitive periods, especially early childhood, are particularly detrimental. For example, harsh parenting and physical punishment are known to undermine child health and bullying is a leading risk factor for mental health conditions. Protective factors: they serve to strengthen resilience. They include our individual social and emotional skills and attributes as well as positive social interactions, quality education, decent work, safe neighborhoods, and community cohesion, among others. Early signs of Mental health issues:- Withdrawing from friends, family, and colleagues. Avoiding activities they would normally enjoy. Sleeping too much or too little. Eating too much or too little. Feeling hopeless. Having consistently low energy. Using mood-altering substances, including alcohol and nicotine, more frequently. Displaying negative emotions. Being confused. Being unable to complete daily tasks, such as getting to work or cooking a meal. Having persistent thoughts or memories that reappear regularly. Thinking of causing physical harm to themselves or others. Hearing voices. Diagnosis:- Diagnosing a mental health disorder requires a multi-step process. A doctor may begin by looking at a person’s medical history and performing a thorough physical exam to rule out physical conditions or issues that may be causing the symptoms. They will also do a psychological evaluation which includes asking about a person’s symptoms, experiences, and how these have impacted their lives. Most mental health specialists use the American Psychiatric Association’s (APA) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) to make a diagnosis. Treatment:- Psychotherapy, or talking therapies. (Mental Healthcare Act, 2017) MUST READ: Address Stigma and Discrimination in Mental Health SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2022) Aarogya Setu COWIN DigiLocker DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Parliamentary Speakers' Summit (P20 Summit) Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Presiding Officers of G20 Nations began arriving in India for the 9th Parliamentary Speakers’ Summit (P20 Summit) recently. Background:- Prime Minister Narendra Modi will inaugurate the Summit. About Parliamentary Speakers’ Summit (P20 Summit):- Year: 2023. Host Country: India Inauguration: 13th October 2023. Venue: New Delhi. Frequency: Annual Theme: Multilateralism for Inclusive Development. Objective: To bring together Speakers of Parliament from G20 countries for discussions on global issues. Under the banner of “Multilateralism for Inclusive Development,” the P20 Summit 2023 underscores the imperative role of international cooperation in addressing pressing global concerns, including climate change, poverty alleviation, and inequality. During the global event, four high-level sessions will be organized on the topics namely: Accelerating Sustainable Development Goals Sustainable Energy Transition Women-led development Transformation in People’s lives through Public Digital Platforms. India aims to provide consensus-based solutions to complex global issues towards a more inclusive, peaceful, and equitable world during the P20 Summit with the spirit of Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam – One Earth, One Family, One Future. The Parliament20 Summit, stands as a pivotal global gathering of political leaders, scholars, activists, and stakeholders. They come together to address some of the most pressing issues facing our world today. It is an extension of the G20 Summit. (G20 logo) It focuses exclusively on parliamentary diplomacy, governance, and international cooperation. It provides a platform for legislators worldwide to exchange ideas, collaborate on policy solutions, and foster meaningful dialogue on global challenges such as climate change, economic stability, and social justice. MUST READ: G20 Presidency SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements: (2022) A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from a baseline determined in accordance with the convention. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member states to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 9M730 Burevestnik missile Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY/DEFENSE Context: Russia recently, tested the 9M730 Burevestnik missile, a next-generation nuclear missile. Background:- Russian President Vladimir Putin confirmed that Moscow has successfully tested a next-generation nuclear missile. About 9M730 Burevestnik missile:- Country: Russia. Type: nuclear-powered cruise missile.(BrahMos Missiles) Range: intercontinental range. The missile is claimed to have an essentially unlimited range. It is also known as the “Storm petrel“. It is designated SSC-X-9 Skyfall by NATO. Its primary objective is to penetrate any interceptor-based missile defense system, thereby enhancing Russia’s nuclear strike capability. It is capable of carrying a nuclear warhead. It is nuclear-powered. (Ballistic missiles) No country has to date deployed a cruise missile using an onboard nuclear reactor, largely given the engineering challenges and safety concerns involved. This makes it a truly revolutionary weapon. It is a ground-launched, low-flying cruise missile which would make it harder for air-defense radar to detect. MUST READ: Agni–Prime SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 8th BRICS International Competition Conference Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: The 8th BRICS International Competition Conference to be held in Delhi recently. About the 8th BRICS International Competition Conference Venue: New Delhi. Year: 2023. Host: India. Venue: New Delhi. Date: 12-13 October 2023. Theme: New issues in competition law and policy, dimensions, perspectives, and challenges. The Competition Commission of India(CCI) will be hosting the 8th BRICS ICC. This two-day international conference will commence with registration and a reception dinner on the evening of October 11, 2023. Around 350 delegates from competition authorities in BRICS and non – BRICS Nations, including globally eminent competition experts and Indian delegates, are expected to attend and participate in this conference. The heads of BRICS competition authorities will address the closing ceremony and will sign a Joint Statement. (BRICS Summit 2021) About BRICS International Competition Conference:- First conference: Russia, September 2009. The BRICS International Competition Conference (BRICS ICC) is an important event under the framework of the BRICS Leaders’ Meeting. It is held biennially by the BRICS competition authorities on a rotation basis. It was established at the meeting of the Heads of State of BRICS (then BRIC) countries in Yekaterinburg, Russia, on 16 June 2009. After 2013, it is after 10 years since the hosting rights of the BRICS ICC have been handed over to MUST READ: BRICS – 14th Summit SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements about G-20: (2023) The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss international economic and financial issues. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value. Statement-II: Switzerland has the second-largest gold reserves in the world. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Bharat NCX 2023 Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES/SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Bharat NCX 2023 was inaugurated recently. Background:- Principal Scientific Advisor to the Government of India Ajay Kumar Sood today inaugurated the ‘Bharat NCX 2023. About Bharat NCX 2023:- Date: 09 – 20 October 2023.  Duration: 12 Days. Conducted by: National Security Council Secretariat in strategic partnership with Rashtriya Raksha University. Objective: to train senior management and technical personnel of Government and Critical Sector organizations and Public and Private agencies on contemporary cyber threats and handling cyber incidents and response. Bharat NCX 2023 will showcase an exclusive exhibition spotlighting the innovation and resilience of Indian cybersecurity startups and Micro, Small, and Medium-sized Enterprises (MSMEs). It is the second edition of the National Cyber Security Exercise 2023 ‘Bharat NCX 2023’. It will be conducted as a hybrid exercise. This exhibition will shine a spotlight on the cutting-edge solutions and technologies developed by these dynamic entities, underscoring their pivotal role in fortifying India’s cybersecurity ecosystem. It will host a prestigious conclave, gathering over 200 Chief Information Security Officers (CISOs) from government, public organizations, and the private sector. This exclusive gathering of industry leaders will provide a unique platform for in-depth discussions and deliberations on the evolving cyber threat landscape. (India’s National Cyber Security Strategy) The participants will be trained in various key cyber security areas. These areas include Intrusion Detection Techniques, Malware Information Sharing platforms, Vulnerability Handling and Penetration Testing, Network Protocols and Data Flows, and Digital Forensics. (Cyberattacks) Significance:- It will help strategic leaders to better understand cyber threats, assess readiness, and develop skills for cyber crisis management and cooperation. Cybercrime This will also help develop and test cybersecurity skills, teamwork, planning, communication, critical thinking, and decision-making. MUST READ: Global Cybersecurity SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (2020) Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proven so Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion Cost of defense in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, and 4 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following statements : (2020) Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months. The state cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for the sharing of Aadhaar data. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: MISSILE TYPE 1.Astra Surface-To-Air Missiles 2.Barak 8 Air-to-air missiles 3.Helina Anti-Tank Missile How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I : Theme of the P20 Conference 2023 is Multilateralism for Inclusive Development. Statement-II : It will be hosted in Mumbai, India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to Mental health issues, consider the following statements: The American Psychiatric Association’s (APA) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) is ONLY used to make a mental health diagnosis. Withdrawing from friends, family, and colleagues is one of the symptoms of a mental health issue. Phobia is a mental health disorder. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1 only Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  11th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR  10th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – d Q.3) – c