Aug 1, 2023 TLP Mains Answer Writing

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS3 Questions [1st July, 2023] – Day 51

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 51 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

Jul 31, 2023 TLP Mains Answer Writing

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS3 Questions [31st July, 2023] – Day 50

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 50 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

Jul 31, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 31st July 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Office of Registrar General of India (ORGI) Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: The Office of Registrar General of India (ORGI) recently said, that the Census exercise in the country may not take place in 2024. Background:- The Office of Registrar General of India (ORGI) said this replying to an RTI query received. The ORGI’s response said, “It is very difficult to conduct the Census and general elections simultaneously.” About the Office of Registrar General of India (ORGI):- Establishment:1961. Ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). Current ORGI: Shri Mritunjay Kumar Narayan. Role: Arranging, conducting and analyzing the results of the demographic surveys of India including the Census of India and Linguistic Survey of India.(Census – Challenges & Importance) It provides information on size, distribution and socio-economic, demographic and other characteristics of the country’s population. The decennial Census of India has been conducted 15 times, as of 2011. Beginning of Census: 1872; under British Viceroy Lord Mayo. First complete census: 1881. Post-1949: it has been conducted by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India. ( Census 2021) The Census Commissioner, India is the statutory authority vested with the responsibility of conducting the Housing & Population Census in India under the Census Act, of 1948 and the Rules framed thereunder. The Census Commissioner, India is also designated as Registrar General, India under the Registration of Births & Deaths (RBD) Act, 1969, which provides for the compulsory registration of births and deaths. (UPSC CSE: Registrar-General and Census Commissioner of India) Functions of ORGI:- Housing & Population Census: Planning, coordination and supervision of the field activities; data processing; compilation, tabulation and dissemination of Census results are the primary duties of this office. Civil Registration System (CRS): In the role of the Registrar General, India the Census Commissioner coordinates the functioning of the civil registration and vital statistics system in the country through all States and UTs. Sample Registration System (SRS): Implementation of a Sample Registration System, wherein a large-scale sample survey of vital events is conducted on a half-yearly basis, is also the responsibility of the ORG&CCI.; SRS is an important source of vital rates like Birth Rate, Death Rate, Infant Mortality Rate and Maternal Mortality Rate at the State level in the country. National Population Register (NPR): In pursuance to provisions contained in Citizenship Rules, 2003 framed under the Citizenship Act, 1955. The National Population Register is prepared by collecting information relating to all persons who are usually residing in the country. Mother Tongue Survey: The project surveys the mother tongues, which are returned consistently across two and more Census decades. The research programme documents the linguistic features of the selected mother tongues.  MUST READ: Caste Census SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2023) Demographic performance Forest and ecology Governance reforms Stable government Tax and fiscal efforts For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance? Only two Only three Only four All five Q.2) In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean? (2023) The principle of natural justice The procedure established by law Fair application of law Equality before law Standing Committee on Statistics (SCoS) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the new Standing Committee on Statistics (SCoS) held its first meeting. Background:- The newly-formed Standing Committee on Statistics held its first meeting recently and discussed the yet-to-be-released results of the Annual Survey of Industries and Annual Survey of Unincorporated Enterprises in detail. The Annual Survey of Industries (ASI): it covers all factories registered under the Factories Act across the country, and is considered an important source of industrial statistics of the registered organized manufacturing sector of the economy. The survey results for 2020-21 are expected to be released in 2023. About Standing Committee on Statistics (Sos):- Formation: 2023. It was constituted on July 13, 2023. Historical background: The government renamed and expanded the scope of coverage of the Standing Committee on Economic Statistics (SCES) formed in December 2019 as the Standing Committee on Statistics (SCoS). The SCoS has a broader mandate to review the framework and results of all surveys conducted under the aegis of the National Statistical Office (NSO). NSO: It is the Statistics Wing of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI). It was created in 2019 by merging the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) and the Central Statistical Office (CSO). Objective: it will provide a new internal oversight mechanism for official data, revamping a SCES set up in 2019. Headed by: Pronab Sen (former Chief Statistician and former Chairman of the National Statistical Commission). Ministry: Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI). Members of the Standing Committee on Statistics (SCoS):- The Standing Committee on Economic Statistics had 28 members which made reaching consensus difficult. ( Standing committee) Currently, the Standing Committee on Statistics is composed of 14 members. It includes four non-official members, 9 official members, and a member secretary. The committee can have a total of 16 members, with the possibility of extending this number based on future requirements. The mandate of the Standing Committee on Statistics (SCoS):- To provide a new internal oversight mechanism for official data. To review the framework and results of all surveys conducted under the aegis of the NSO. While the panel will help finalize survey results. The National Statistical Commission (NSC) will have the ultimate authority to approve the publication of those results. (NSC) Terms of reference (ToR) of the Standing Committee on Statistics (SCoS):- To review the extant framework. To address the issues raised from time to time on the subject/ results/ methodology, etc. related to all surveys as brought before the SCoS by MoSPI. To advise on survey methodology including sampling frame, sampling design, survey instruments, etc. To finalize the tabulation plan of surveys. Finalization of survey results. Need for the new Standing Committee on Statistics (SCoS):- Survey design: The members of the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister have critiqued India’s statistical machinery. Its chairperson Bibek Debroy has highlighted the lack of expertise in survey design within the Indian Statistical Service. Data quality: In recent years, there have been concerns about the credibility of certain data from the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO), particularly regarding the various household surveys. Data divorced from ground realities: Due to the lack of updated data from a recent Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES), India is currently using the 2011-12 figures. These do not accurately reflect the present-day ground realities. MUST READ: (Parliamentary Committees) SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’ of a country? (2023) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws. It enables the creation of political offices and a government. It defines and limits the powers of the government. It secures social justice, social equality and social security. Q.2) Consider the following organizations/bodies in India: (2023) The National Commission for Backward Classes The National Human Rights Commission The National Law Commission The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies? Only one Only two Only three All four World Economic Outlook Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: The IMF has projected the Indian economy to grow at 6.1% in 2023 in its World Economic Outlook report. Key Highlights of Report:- India’s Growth projection: The IMF projected a growth rate of 6.1% for India in 2023, which is a 2 percentage point upward revision compared with the April 2023 projection. This is reflective of the “momentum” from stronger-than-expected growth in the fourth quarter of 2022 as a result of stronger domestic investment, Global Economy: Global growth is projected to fall from an estimated 5% in 2022 to 3% in both 2023 and 2024. Inflation:- Global headline inflation: expected to fall from 8.7% in 2022 to 6.8% in 2023 and 5.2% in 2024. Underlying (core) inflation: is projected to decline more gradually, and forecasts for inflation in 2024 have been revised upward. Financial sector: the turbulence could resume as markets adjust to further policy tightening by central banks. USA and China:- The United States economy has slowed down considerably and faces uncertainty amid global and domestic headwinds. China’s recovery could slow, in part as a result of unresolved real estate problems, with negative cross-border spillovers. Debt Vulnerabilities in Frontier Economies:- There is a need for a global debt resolution initiative to address debt vulnerabilities in frontier economies. Sovereign debt distress could spread to a wider group of economies. Central Banks’ policy measures: The central banks in economies with elevated and persistent core inflation should continue to clearly signal their commitment to reducing inflation. A restrictive stance, with real rates above neutral is needed until there are clear signs that underlying inflation is cooling. About World Economic Outlook: IMAGE SOURCE: IMF.ORG Published by: (IMF). WEO) It is a survey by the IMF that is usually published twice a year in the months of April and October. Objective: It analyzes and predicts global economic developments during the near and medium term. Significance of the World Economic Outlook:- The reports provide- Analysis and forecasts of economic developments and policies in its member countries. Encapsulates the state of the global economy. Highlight risks and uncertainty that could threaten growth. This report is the main instrument for disseminating the findings and analysis of their global surveillance activities to the world. About IMF:- Established in 1944. HQ: Washington, D.C. (United States of America). It is an international organization that works to achieve sustainable growth and prosperity for all of its member countries. Members: 190 India is a member. Any other state, whether or not a member of the UN, may become a member of the IMF. Funding: the IMF’s resources mainly come from the money that countries pay as their capital subscription (quotas) when they become members. Objectives of IMF:- Foster global monetary cooperation. Secure financial stability. Facilitate international trade. Promote high employment and sustainable economic growth. Reduce poverty around the world. Macroeconomic growth. Policy advice & financing for developing countries. Promotion of exchange rate stability, and an international payment system. Structure of IMF:– At the top of its organization is the Board of Governors. The day-to-day work of the IMF is overseen by its 24-member Executive Board. The Managing Director is the head of the IMF staff and Chair of the Executive Board.  Functions of IMF:- Lending The IMF provides loans including emergency loans to member countries experiencing actual or potential balance of payments problems. Surveillance The IMF monitors the international monetary system and global economic developments. It identifies risks and recommends policies for growth and financial stability. Capacity Development The IMF provides technical assistance and training to governments, including central banks, finance ministries, revenue administrations, and financial sector supervisory agencies. FLAGSHIP PUBLICATIONS of IMF:- World Economic Outlook (IMF and World Economic Outlook) Global Financial Stability Report Fiscal Monitor MUST READ: IMF bailout SOURCE: THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements: (2023) It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using the US dollar or the SWIFT system. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a timeframe for spending it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following: (2022) Asian Development Bank International Monetary Fund United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative World Bank White Label ATMs (WLAs) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) permitted non-bank companies to set up, own and operate White Label ATMs (WLAs) in the country. Background:- This has been done in order to drive ATM penetration in the country with a greater focus on Tier III to VI centers. About White Label ATMs (WLAs):- These are the Automated Teller Machines (ATMs) set up, owned and operated by non-bank entities. ( Non-Bank PSPs to Join Centralized Payment System) Non-bank entities incorporated in India under the Companies Act 1956 are allowed to operate WLAs. 2015: The government permitted Foreign Direct Investment (FDI), up to 100%, under the automatic route. Non-bank entities are permitted to set up WLAs in India, after obtaining authorization from RBI under the Payment and Settlement Systems (PSS) Act 2007. Such non-bank entities should have a minimum net worth of Rs 100 crore. Tata Communications Payment Solutions Limited (TCPSL) was the first company authorized by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to open White Label ATMs in the country. Role of WLA: enabling the transactions of all bank customers by establishing technical connectivity with the existing authorized, shared ATM Network Operators or Card Payment Network Operators. The operators are entitled to receive a fee from the banks for the use of ATM resources by the bank’s customers and are not permitted to charge bank customers directly. Cash in ATMs is provided by the sponsored bank while the ATM machine does not have any branding of the Bank. Services Provided by WLA:- Dispensing cash ( Cardless cash withdrawals at ATMs) Account Information Cash Deposit Regular Bill Payment Mini / Short Statement Generation PIN Change Request for Cheque Book MUST READ: UPI and NPCI Regulation SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to (2023) the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible a numeric value that measures the fluctuations. of stock to changes in the overall stock market. Q.2) With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements: (2022) They enable the digital representation of physical assets. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium transaction. of commercial Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Kawal Tiger Reserve (KTR) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, studies were done on the status of the lost tiger’s population of the Kawal Tiger Reserve (KTR). Background:- Tigers were locally extirpated from Kawal Tiger Reserve (KTR). However, the Chief wildlife warden of Telangana, Lokesh Jayaswal, said that though NTCA figures for the core Kawal reserve say there are no tigers there, there are 10 tigers still present in the Kawal tiger corridor. About Kawal Tiger Reserve (KTR):- Location: North Eastern part of Telangana (Old Adilabad district). It has the Godavari River on one side and the Maharashtra border on the other side. Govt of India declared Kawal wildlife sanctuary as Tiger Reserve in 2012. (Amrabad Tiger Reserve) Rivers: This sanctuary is the catchment for the rivers Godavari and Kadam, which flow towards the south of the sanctuary. Total Area: 2015.44 Sq Km out of which core Area is 893 Sq.Km. The Kawal Tiger Reserve (KTR) extends into the districts of Nirmal, Mancherial, Adilabad and KB Asifabad Districts. ( Indravati Tiger Reserve) MUST READ: Anamalai Tiger Reserve SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”? (2020) Corbett Ranthambore Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Sunderbans Q.2) Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve? (2019) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar Srisailam Tiger Reserve Mains: The ‘free movement regime’ along the India-Myanmar border Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Security Issues) Context: Amid tensions in Manipur, questions have been raised on the Free Movement Regime (FMR) that facilitates migration across the Indo-Myanmar Border (IMB). About the Free Movement Regime The border between India and Myanmar runs for 1,643 km in the four states of Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland, and Arunachal Pradesh. The FMR is a mutually agreed arrangement between the two countries that allows tribes living along the border on either side to travel up to 16 km inside the other country without a visa. The FMR was implemented in 2018. Significance of FMR: The agreement will facilitate movement of people on basis of valid passports and visas, which will enhance economic and social interaction between two countries. It will facilitate regulation and harmonization of already existing free movement rights for people ordinarily residing in border areas of both countries. It will also give boost to economy of North East and leverage geographical connections with Myanmar to boost trade and people-to-people ties. It will also safeguard traditional rights of largely tribal communities residing along border, which are accustomed, to free movement across land border. Challenges: Insurgency and drug trafficking: A number of insurgent groups have built camps in nearby regions. According to the Centre for Land Warfare Studies (CLAWS), a number of insurgent groups such as the United National Liberation Front (UNLF), People’s Liberation Army (PLA), the United Liberation Front of Assam (ULFA), National Socialist Council of Nagaland (NSCN), and small groups of Kukis and Zomis have built camps in Sagaing Division, Kachin State and Chin State in Myanmar. They took shelter there, obtained arms, trained cadres and engaged in illegal activities such as smuggling drugs and selling weapons to raise funds. This is possible because of the porous borders and frequent misuse of FMR. Therefore, managing and administering the border areas effectively is pertinent for reducing drug trafficking and illegal cross-border movement on unfenced borders,” the paper said. (Revisiting Free Movement Regime (FMR): Challenges and Implications, November 2022) Suggestive measures: Way Forward The focus should be on revising FMR and transforming informal to formal trade by focusing on infrastructural development, regulatory mechanisms. Designated multiple entry points, within reasonable distance along the India-Myanmar Border, and strict vigilance by deploying the border guards as per requirement, must be initiated. Through these designated entry points, people should be strictly informed to use the designated point for going and coming across the border. Deployment of manpower 24/7 and increasing their number, is a must to check the frequency of traders’ movement, locals and people with local head loads. Strict checking or frisking of women should be done in a separate compartment, especially for women by deploying more women in uniform. Strict vigilance at entry points by deploying sufficient security guards. Selective fencing in specific regions is required. It is imperative that India strengthens the security of the border and redoubles its efforts to meaningfully engage Myanmar to effectively manage this border. To begin with, it should give the Assam Rifles the sole responsibility of guarding the India-Myanmar border and strengthen it with adequate manpower and equipment. At the same time, through sustained community interaction programmes, the border community should be sensitised to participate in the nation-building project. Source:   Indian Express Transgender Persons Can Avail Existing Quota Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Society) and GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Union government has told the Supreme Court that transgender persons can avail of any of the existing 50% reservation in admissions and government jobs already available to Scheduled Caste, Scheduled Tribe and Socially and Educationally Backward Communities (SEBC) across the country. About reservation for Transgender: Transgender persons are those whose gender identity or expression does not match their assigned sex at birth. They face discrimination, stigma, violence and exclusion from various spheres of life. To address these issues and ensure their rights and dignity, some countries have introduced reservation policies for transgender persons in education, employment, health care and political representation. In India, reservation is granted to certain castes, tribes, and religious minorities that are classified as socially and educationally backward classes (SEBCs). One such group that has been recognized as SEBCs by the Supreme Court of India is the transgender community. Demand for horizontal reservation for transgender community: Transgender individuals have faced long-term marginalization in society, warranting specific provisions and recognition of their social identity. The NALSA judgment has been interpreted as directing reservations for transgender individuals in the OBC category due to their identification as a socially and educationally backward class. The demand for horizontal reservation raises concerns that Dalit, Bahujan, and Adivasi transgender individuals may have to choose between availing reservation based on caste and gender identities, leading to competition and exclusion. NALSA judgement: A study conducted by the National Human Rights Commission revealed that in 2017, only 6% of transgender people were formally employed. In the National Legal Services Authority of India (NALSA) vs Union of India (2014) case, the Supreme Court ruled that transgender persons have a right to reservation. It also directed the Centre and the State Governments to take steps to treat them as socially and educationally backward classes of citizens and extend all kinds of reservation in education and employment. Horizontal and Vertical Reservations in India Reservation in education and employment can be divided into two broad categories, namely, vertical and horizontal. Vertical reservations are provisions aimed at addressing social asymmetry arising out of caste hierarchy, and in the case of OBCs, social and educational “backwardness”. These include reservations for Scheduled Castes (SC), Scheduled Tribes (ST) and Other Backward Classes (OBC). Horizontal reservation, on the other hand, cuts across all vertical groups to provide affirmative policies for disadvantaged groups within categories. For example, disabled persons are guaranteed horizontal reservation in all the aforementioned vertical categories, general and reserved (vertical) alike, by the Central government. Challenges faced by Transgender Community Social Stigma: They often face difficulty in property inheritance or child adoption. Because of being socially ostracized, they are compelled to take up menial jobs despite good qualifications or forced into sex work. Identity crisis: They are often forced to identify with a gender with which they are not associated at the workplace despite the government passing the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 that allows the community the right to self-perceived gender identity. Discrimination and ostracisation: They face discrimination in employment, educational institutes, and within families which severely affects their overall wellbeing. Unemployment: The community has limited avenues of employment and faces severe discrimination at work because of the associated social stigma. Lack of public amenities: They face issues with the accessibility of public toilets and public spaces. They often face problems in prisons, hospitals and schools. Transgender initiatives in India Transgender (Protection of Rights) Act 2019: The Act, passed by Parliament, aims to end discrimination against Transgender people in access to education, employment and healthcare and to recognize the right to their self-perceived gender identity. Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Rules, 2020: To carry out the provisions of the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 of the Government. National Transgender Council: The Transgender (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 established the National Transgender Council to advise the Central Government on the formulation and evaluation of policies, programmes, legislation and projects for the welfare of the Transgender community. National Transgender Portal: It is a portal of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment that helps transgender people to apply for certificates and identity cards digitally from anywhere in the country. Garima Greh: The aim of the scheme is to provide refuge to Transgender people with basic amenities like shelter, food, medical care and recreational facilities. Way Forward: By implementing these measures, we can create a more inclusive and equitable society for transgender persons and other marginalized groups. The establishment of National Council for Transgender Persons has been a welcome step to mainstream the community in the society and increase sense of respect for transgender community. Reservation policies are not a panacea, but they are a necessary and effective tool to address the historical injustices and systemic barriers that transgender persons face. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Tiger Reserve Location 1.Kawal Tiger Reserve (KTR) Andhra Pradesh 2.Kali Tiger Reserve Chhattisgarh 3.Indravati Tiger Reserve Karnataka How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Tata Communications Payment Solutions Limited (TCPSL) was the first company authorized by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to open White Label ATMs in the country. Statement-II: White Label ATMs cannot provide PIN Change service. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: World Economic Outlook is usually published twice a year in the months of April and October. Statement-II: The report highlights the risk and uncertainty that could threaten growth. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Although beneficial to local people and helpful in improving Indo-Myanmar ties, the Free Movement Regime has been criticized for unintentionally aiding illegal immigration, drug trafficking, and gun running. Should the FMR be removed? Discuss. (250 words) Q.2) Reservation for transgender people in government jobs and educational institutions is a contentious issue that has been debated for a long time. What are the significances of providing equal opportunities and representation to the transgender community? How can the government and society address these challenges faced by the transgender community? (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 31st  July 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 29th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

Jul 31, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 31st July 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

Jul 29, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –29th July 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) denied the rumours of irregularities in the Assistant Provident Fund Commissioner (APFC) Examination. Background:- The Assistant Provident Fund Commissioner (APFC) Examination was conducted in July. Following the exam, some images of question paper portions were allegedly uploaded on social media, which led to speculations about potential irregularities. About Union Public Service Commission (UPSC):- The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is the central recruiting agency in India. It is an independent constitutional body. The provisions regarding the composition of UPSC, the appointment and removal of its members and the powers and functions of UPSC are provided in Part XIV of the Indian Constitution under Article 315 to Article 323. Parallel to the UPSC at the Centre, there is a State Public Service Commission (SPSC) in the state. The provisions regarding the composition of SPSC, the appointment and removal of its members and the powers and functions of SPSC are provided in Part XIV of the Indian Constitution under Article 315 to Article 323. Constitutional Provisions:- Article 315: Constitution of Public Service Commissions (PSC) for the Union and for the States of India. Article 316: Appointment and term of office of members of UPSC as well as SPSC. Article 317: Removal and suspension of a member of both the UPSC or SPSC. Article 318: Power to make regulations for the conditions of service of members and staff of the Commission. Composition of Union Public Service Commission:- Appointment of Members: The Chairman and other members of the UPSC are appointed by the President of India. Term of Office: Any member of the UPSC shall hold office for a term of six years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. Reappointment: Any person who has once held the office as a member of a Public Service Commission is ineligible for reappointment to that office. Resignation: A member of the Union Public Service Commission may resign from his/her office by submitting a written resignation to the President of India. Removal/Suspension of Members: The Chairman or any other member of UPSC shall only be removed from his/her office by order of the President of India. The President can suspend the Chairman or any other member from his/her office in respect of whom a reference has been made to the Supreme Court. Conditions for Removal: The Chairman or any other member of UPSC may be removed if he/she: is adjudged engages during his/her term of office in any paid employment outside the duties of his/her office. is, in the opinion of the President, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body. Regulating the Conditions of Service: In the case of the UPSC, the President of India shall:- Determine the number of members of the Commission and their conditions of service. Make provisions with respect to the number of members of the staff of the Commission and their conditions of service. Expenses of UPSC: The expenses of the UPSC including salaries, allowances and pensions of the members or staff of the Commission are charged to the Consolidated Fund of India. Submission of Reports: The UPSC shall present an annual report to the President of India containing the work done by the Commission.  MUST READ: Finance Commission SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following organizations/bodies in India: (2023) The National Commission for Backward Classes The National Human Rights Commission The National Law Commission The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2). Consider the following statements: (2023) The Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India. Accotrding to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) in the National Capital Region (NCR) has announced a revision in the existing Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP). About Graded Response Action Plan:- IMAGE SOURCE: Hindustan Times Formulated in 2016. It was officially notified in 2017 for Delhi and the National Capital Region (NCR). The plan was formulated after several meetings were held by Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA) with state government representatives and experts. These are institutionalized measures to be taken when air quality deteriorates, hence work only as an emergency measure. GRAP includes the measures, which will be taken by different government agencies to prevent the worsening of the Air Quality of Delhi-NCR and prevent PM10 and PM2.5 levels to go beyond the ‘moderate’ national Air Quality Index (AQI) category. (Air pollution) If air quality reaches the severe+ stage, GRAP talks about shutting down schools and implementing the odd-even road-space rationing scheme. The plan requires action and coordination among 13 different agencies in Delhi, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana and Rajasthan (NCR areas). Measures announced- Moderate to poor- (when PM2.5 is in the range of 61-120 or when PM10 is in the range of 101-350.):- Heavy fines for garbage burning. Close/enforce pollution control regulations in brick kilns and industries. Mechanised sweeping on roads with heavy traffic and water sprinkling. Strictly enforce a ban on firecrackers. Very Poor- (PM2.5 is in the range of 121-250 or PM10 is in the range of 351-430):- Stop the use of diesel generator sets. Enhance parking fee by 3-4 times. Increase bus and Metro services. Apartment owners to discourage burning fires in winter by providing electric heaters during winter. Advisories to people with respiratory and cardiac conditions to restrict outdoor movement. Severe- (PM 2.5 over 250 or PM10 over 430):- Close brick kilns, hot mix plants, and stone crushers. Maximise power generation from natural gas to reduce generation from coal. Encourage public transport, with differential rates. More frequent mechanized cleaning of roads and sprinkling of water. Severe+ or Emergency- (PM 2.5 over 300 or PM10 over 500 for 48+ hours):- Stop entry of trucks into Delhi (except essential commodities). Stop construction work. Introduce odd/even schemes for private vehicles and minimise exemptions. Task Force to decide any additional steps including shutting of schools. Revised GRAP: The revised GRAP will come into force from 1st October 2023 and will be applicable to the entire NCR. The key revisions include the enforcement of the National Green Tribunal or Supreme Court’s order on overaged diesel and petrol vehicles and as per extant statutes during ‘Poor’ Air Quality. In the case of ‘Very Poor’ Air Quality, remedial measures need to be intensified for the predominant sectors contributing to adverse air quality in each of such hotspots. During ‘Severe’ Air Quality, NCR State governments will impose strict restrictions on plying of BS III petrol and BS IV diesel Light Motor Vehicles (LMVs) in Delhi and in the districts of Gurugram, Faridabad, Ghaziabad, and Gautam Buddh Nagar. If air quality reaches ‘Severe ’, then NCR State governments might take a decision on discontinuing physical classes even for classes sixth to ninth, class 11th, and conduct lessons in an online mode.  About the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM):- Establishment: 2020. It was formed by an ordinance in October 2020. HQ: Delhi. (CAQM) The commission replaces the Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA). EPCA: it is a Supreme Court-mandated body tasked with taking various measures to tackle air pollution in the National Capital Region. It was notified in 1998 by Environment Ministry under Environment Protection Act, 1986. Objectives of CAQM:- For Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas. ( Delhi and Air Pollution) For better co-ordination, research, identification and resolution of problems surrounding the air quality index and For matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. Powers of the CAQM:- The rulings by the Commission on air pollution will override anything contained in any other law. The powers of the Commission will also supersede that of any other body in matters of air pollution. Therefore, in cases where conflict may arise between orders or directions issued by the other State governments, State Pollution Control Boards or even the Central Pollution Control Board, the orders of the Commission will prevail. The Commission will have the power to take measures, issue directions and entertain complaints “for the purpose of protecting and improving the quality of air in the National Capital Region”. It will also coordinate action taken by states on air pollution and will lay down parameters for air quality and emission or discharge of environmental pollutants. It will also have powers to restrict industries in any area, carry out random inspections of any premises including factories and be able to close down an industry or cut its power and water supply in case of non-compliance. It will also be monitoring the measures taken by the States to prevent stubble burning. Merits of CAQM:- Effective Mechanism to tackle Pollution: The permanent Commission envisages a multi-sectoral, public participatory, multi-state dynamic body for combating pollution on a war footing. More Teeth: It will now be binding on state governments to follow the directions of the Commission regarding air quality management. It will also have powers to restrict the setting up of industries in vulnerable areas and will be able to conduct site inspections of industrial units. Consolidated Approach: The commission will have the power to coordinate with relevant state and central governments on the multi-sector plan including industry, power plants, agriculture, transport, residential and construction. Penal Powers: The penalty for non-compliance shall be imprisonment of up to five years or a fine up to Rs 1 crore, or both. Relieves Supreme Court: The Centre seeks to relieve the Supreme Court from having to constantly monitor pollution levels through various pollution-related cases. Participatory Democracy: the Commission would function under the oversight of the elected representatives with regular reports to the Parliament. MUST READ: Initiatives and Measures for Prevention of Air Pollution SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2023) Aerosols Foam agents Fire retardants Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: (2022) The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m3 and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 ug/m3. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of inclement weather. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only Project Tiger and Project Elephant Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: The government has decided to merge  Project Tiger with Project Elephant. Background:- The merger was announced in April 2023. However, there is still no clarity on how the finances would be split between the conservation projects. About Project Tiger:- Launched: 1973. Launched at Jim Corbett National Park, Uttarakhand. Ministry: Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC) Implementing Agency: National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) HQ of NTCA: New Delhi. Project Tiger is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. Objectives of Project Tiger:- To ensure the survival of India’s tiger population for scientific, economic, cultural, and aesthetic reasons. To identify and mitigate factors causing tiger habitat loss through appropriate management practices. To preserve areas of such biological importance as a national heritage for the benefit of education and enjoyment of the people at all times. (Saving the Tiger) The preservation of endangered species. ( Importance of Tiger Conservation) To safeguard the rights of tribals and local people living near tiger reserves.  Conservation Status of Tiger:- Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List: Endangered. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES): Appendix I. Tiger reserves under Project Tiger:- Tiger reserves are designated areas for the protection of tigers and their prey. They are governed by Project Tiger. On the recommendation of the National Tiger Conservation Authority, the State Government shall declare an area a tiger reserve. Achievements of Project Tiger:- The number of tigers in India has increased. (Tiger Estimation) India met its goal of doubling the wild tiger population by 2022 in 2018. As hunting was banned to save tigers, the population of many other animals started increasing.  About Project Elephant:- Launched: 1992. Launched at Jim Corbett National Park, Uttarakhand. Ministry: Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC) Project Elephant is a Centrally-sponsored scheme It completed 30 years in 2022. States receive both financial and technical assistance to help them achieve the Project’s goals. Objectives of Project Elephant:- Provide financial and technical support to wildlife management efforts, and ensure long-term survival. Support research on the ecology and management of elephants. ( Elephant Conservation) Create awareness of conservation among local people. Provide improved veterinary care for captive elephants. Asian Elephants: The Asian elephant is the largest land mammal on the Asian continent. Distribution: They inhabit dry to wet forest and grassland habitats in 13 range countries spanning South and Southeast Asia. Conservation Status:- IUCN Red List: Endangered CITES: Appendix I. Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I. MUST READ: Project Re-Hab SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood? (2023) Fishing cat Orangutan Otter Sloth bear Q.2) With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements: (2022) Wild animals are the sole property of the government. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled to equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP) Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, the Government has approved Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP). About Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP):- IMAGE SOURCE: IASBABA.COM Launched:2023. It was announced in the Union Budget 2022-23 (to 2025-26). Ministry: Ministry of Home Affairs. Objective: to create sufficient incentives for people to stay in the selected villages. Coverage: It will cover the border areas of Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Ladakh. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.( The India-China border flare-up) Salient Features of Vibrant Villages Programme:- The programme envisages focused areas of interventions in the select villages for the creation of opportunities for livelihood generation. This would be done through the promotion of tourism & cultural heritage, skill development & entrepreneurship. It works for the development of cooperative societies including agriculture/horticulture, cultivation of medicinal plants/herbs etc. It also includes providing road connectivity to unconnected villages, housing & village infrastructures, energy including renewable energy, television & telecom connectivity. It focuses on the comprehensive development of villages of blocks on the northern border. It will provide funds for the development of essential infrastructure. It will lead to the creation of livelihood opportunities in 19 Districts and 46 Border blocks 4 states and 1 UT along the northern land border of the country. It will help in achieving inclusive growth and retaining the population in the border areas. Significance of Vibrant Villages Programme:- Strengthening the Security: It is aimed at strengthening the security grid on the Line of Actual Control (LAC). Infrastructure development: Infrastructure will be improved in states like Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, and Arunachal Pradesh. ( Significance of border infrastructure) Under the programme, residential and tourist centers will be constructed. Connectivity and Energy resources: It will also provide for improvement in road connectivity and the development of decentralized renewable energy Educational outreach: Apart from that, direct access to Doordarshan and education-related channels will be provided. Livelihood Support: help and support will be provided for the livelihood of the people. MUST READ: Challenges to Secure India’s Land Borders SOURCE: PIB  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following countries: (2023) Bulgaria Czech Republic Hungary Latvia Lithuania Romania How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine? Only two Only three Only four Only five Q.2) Consider the following countries: (2022) Azerbaijan Kyrgyzstan Tajikistan Uzbekistan Turkmenistan Which of the above has borders with Afghanistan? 1, 2 and 5 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 only 3, 4 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 National Coal Index Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: As per recent data, National Coal Index showed a decline of 33.8 % in May 2023. Background:- The National Coal Index combines coal prices from all sales channels, including notified prices, auction prices and import prices. It serves as a reliable indicator of market dynamics, providing valuable insights into coal price fluctuations. The National Coal Index (NCI) has shown a significant decline of 33.8% in May 2023 compared to May 2022, which suggests significant reduction in coal prices. This indicates a strong supply of coal in the market, with sufficient availability to meet the growing demands. About National Coal Index:- Launched: 2020. Ministry: Ministry of Coal. Developed by: Indian Statistical Institute, Kolkata. (India’s Transition away from Coal) It is a price index, which reflects the change in the price level of coal on a particular month relative to the fixed base year. Objective: to have an index that will truly reflect the market price. Base year: 2017-18. This price index combines the prices of coal from all the sales channels– Notified Prices, Auction Prices and Import Prices. MUST READ: Economy SOURCE: NEWS ON AIR Mains: Circular Economy Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: Resource Efficiency Circular Economy Industry Coalition (RECEIC) was recently launched on the side-lines of the fourth G-20 Environment and Climate Sustainability Working Group (ECSWG) and Environment and Climate Ministers’ meeting. About Circular Economy: A Circular Economy is the one where products are designed for durability, reuse and recyclability and thus almost everything is reused, remanufactured, and recycled into a raw material or used as a source of energy. It includes 6 R’s – Reduce, Reuse, Recycle, Refurbishment, Recover, and Repairing of materials. Need for Circular Economy: CE focuses on minimising waste while maximising utilisation and calls for a production model aiming to retain the most value to create a system that promotes sustainability, longevity, reuse, and recycling. Though India has always had a culture of recycle and reuse, its rapid economic growth, growing population, impact of climate change and rising environmental pollution, the adoption of a circular economy is more imperative now. CE can lead to the emergence of more sustainable production and consumption patterns, thus providing opportunities for developed and developing countries to achieve economic growth and inclusive and sustainable industrial development (ISID) in line with the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. Significance of Circular Economy: Protection of the environment: Circular economy benefits the environment by consuming fewer natural resources, and thus reduces ecological footprint. It helps lower the emissions and produces less polluting waste. It helps in preservation of biodiversity, as there is less pressure on natural resources like forests. Benefits for the local economy: There is emphasis on promoting production models that rely on reuse of nearby waste as raw material. Drives employment growth: Circular Economy fosters the development of a new, more inventive, and competitive industrial model, resulting in higher economic growth and more employment opportunities. Promotes resource independence: Reusing local resources can reduce reliance on imported raw materials. It can help in achieving self-sufficiency. Enhanced Food Security: The circular bio economy can contribute to improved food security by using agricultural residues and waste as feedstock for bio-based products instead of diverting them from food production. Challenges of the Circular Economy: Infrastructure and Technology: Developing and upgrading recycling and waste management infrastructure, as well as adopting advanced technologies for resource recovery, can be a major challenge. Behavioural Change: Encouraging a shift in consumer behaviour towards responsible consumption, product reuse, and recycling requires effective communication and behavioural change campaigns. Regulatory Framework: Ensuring effective and harmonized policies, regulations, and incentives to support circular economy practices across different sectors is challenging. Financial Investment: Circular economy projects often require significant upfront investments. Attracting private and public investment to fund these initiatives can be challenging. Government Initiatives to promote CE E-Waste Management Policy: Electrical and electronic waste, including both whole and unfinished discarded equipment from their manufacture and repair processes, is referred to as “e-waste” and “electrical and electronic equipment. Plastic Waste Management (Second Amendment) Rules, 2022: The Union Environment Ministry has launched this policy to mandate to increase in the thickness of plastic carry bags to over 120 microns and the phase-out of some single-use plastic products. Swachh Bharat Mission – Urban 2.0 (SBM-U2.0): It aims to achieve the objective of safe sanitation in urban areas by making all cities “Garbage Free,” guaranteeing grey and black water management in all cities. It also aims at making all urban local bodies open defecation free (ODF+) and those with a population of less than 1 lakh as ODF++. In order to effectively manage solid waste, the mission will concentrate on source segregation of trash, using the 3Rs (reduce, reuse, recycle) as a guideline, scientific processing of all sorts of municipal solid waste, and repair of former dumpsites. City Investments to Innovate, Integrate and Sustain (CITIIS) 2.0: The Government launched the City Investments to Innovate, Integrate and Sustain (CITIIS) 2.0 to promote circular economy in 18 smart cities to be selected through a competition. The total funding for the scheme will come from loans and a grant of Rs. 106 crore from the European Union. The programme starts this year and will run until 2027, with the support of the National Institute of Urban Affairs. Way Forward: India’s G-20 presidency has placed resource efficiency and circular economy at the centre of the global sustainability agenda. The ‘reduce-reuse-recycle’ model and circular economy strategies are essential in minimizing environmental impact and decoupling resource utilization from economic growth. Through its focus on circularity in the steel sector, Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR), circular bio economy, and an industry-led coalition, India aims to drive the transition towards a more sustainable and resilient future. Source:  The Hindu Persons with Disabilities (PWDs) Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Society) and GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Parliamentary Standing Committee on Social Justice and Empowerment has called upon the Union government for failing to accurately estimate the population of Persons with Disabilities (PwDs). About Persons with Disabilities (PWDs): As per United Nations Conventions on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities PWDs include those who have long-term physical, mental, intellectual or sensory impairments which in interaction with various barriers may hinder their full and effective participation in society on an equal basis with others. As per National Family Health Survey, India’s population of people with a disability has reduced to 1% between 2019 and 2021, from the 2.2% (26.8 million) estimated by the Indian census in 2011. Constitutional Frameworks for Disabled in India: Article 41 of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) states that State shall make effective provision for securing right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement, within the limits of its economic capacity and development. The subject of ‘relief of the disabled and unemployable’ is specified in state list of the Seventh Schedule of the constitution. Current status regarding Persons with Disabilities: In India, there were around 26.8 million persons with disabilities, constituting 2.21% of India’s total population (2011 Census). There were 14.9 million men (2.41% of men) and 11.9 million women (2.01% of women) with disabilities. 69% (18 million) of persons with disabilities reside in rural areas. 20% of persons with disabilities in India have a disability in movement, 19% have visual impairment, 19% have a hearing impairment and 8% have multiple disabilities. Disabilities are highest in the age group 10-19 years (46.2 lakh people). At an all India level, 34% of the total disabled population is reported as ‘workers’. The proportion is highest in Nagaland (~52%) followed by Sikkim (49%) and Arunachal Pradesh (~45%). Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act 2016 The Act replaces the Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act, 1995. It fulfils the obligations to the United National Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (UNCRPD), to which India is a signatory. Disability has been defined based on an evolving and dynamic concept. The types of disabilities covered are 21 and the Central Government has the power to add more types of disabilities. The Act provides for penalties for offences committed against persons with disabilities and violation of the provisions of the new law. Special Courts will be designated in each district to handle cases concerning the violation of the rights of PwDs. Challenges faced by PWDs Social Stigma: The word disability is being seen as a social stigma, according to which parents feel ashamed of their children, and in fear, most of them feel uncomfortable in public upfront. Institutional Failures: Indian education system and Government institutions both are failing in deciding for the welfare for disabled persons to an extent. There should be proper seats for disabled persons at classrooms as well as at the exam centers. Illiteracy is particularly prevalent among disabled people and constitutes a double disadvantage. In addition to being disabled, they are isolated by illiteracy. Unemployment: Disabled persons are the ones who are scapegoats in being fired during recessions. They are first to be discharged from their services when cost cutting methods are adopted by the companies. Stress: The physically handicapped person is subjected to a lot of stress because of lack of social relations. In addition to increased physical and emotional stress, the crippled individual is condemned to a similar outcome in his social life. Govt. schemes: Accessible India Campaign (Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan): Launched in 2015, this campaign aims to make public spaces, transportation, and information and communication technologies (ICT) accessible to PwDs. National Action Plan for Skill Development of Persons with Disabilities (NAP-SDP): This initiative focuses on enhancing the employability and skills of PwDs through vocational training, skill development programs, and creating inclusive employment opportunities. Deendayal Disabled Rehabilitation Scheme (DDRS): The scheme provides financial assistance for various rehabilitation services, including education, skill training, healthcare, and assistive devices, to economically disadvantaged PwDs. Scholarship Schemes: The government offers various scholarship schemes for PwDs to support their education and skill development. These include the National Scholarship Scheme for Persons with Disabilities and the Pre-Matric and Post-Matric Scholarship schemes. Accessible Education: The government has taken steps to promote inclusive education for PwDs, such as the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) and the Inclusive Education for Disabled at Secondary Stage (IEDSS) programs. Reservation in Government Jobs: PwDs are entitled to reservation in government jobs and public sector undertakings as per the provisions of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act. Way Forward: The Government has undertaken commendable initiatives for the welfare of the disabled and make them independent. However, they still face social exclusion driven by stigma and stereotypes about disability. The need of the hour is proper sensitization of the community towards the issues faced by PwDs, as well as to remove the social stigma attached to their integration into the society. Source:  The Hindu PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements with reference to India: (2023) According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, the ‘medium enterprises’ are those with Investments in plant and machinery between (15 crore and 25 crore). All bank loans to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to (2023)  the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms ·  an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward.  a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible. a numeric value that measures the fluctuations. of stock to changes in the overall stock market. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Species IUCN Status 1.Asian Elephants Endangered 2.Cheetah Vulnerable 3.Tiger Endangered How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Any person who has once held the office as a member of a Public Service Commission is ineligible for reappointment to that office. Statement-II: The President of India shall determine the number of members of the Commission and their conditions of service. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: National Coal Index is developed by the Indian Statistical Institute. Statement-II: The Base year is 2011-12. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Mains Practice Questions Q.1) “With the growing recognition of the finite nature of many resources and the negative impacts of waste and pollution, the circular economy offers a more sustainable and resilient alternative to the traditional linear model of economic growth”. Critically analyse (250 words) Q.2) What measures have been taken by the government to create a conducive environment for the disabled community? Discuss various reasons for limited impact of such initiatives. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 29th  July 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 28th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – b

Jul 29, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 29th July 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Jul 29, 2023 TLP Mains Answer Writing

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS2 Questions [29th July, 2023] – Day 48

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 48 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

Jul 28, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 28th July 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Namami Gange Programme Syllabus Prelims –Government Schemes Context: Recently, the Government said that 254 projects have been completed so far under Namami Gange Programme. About Namami Gange Programme:- IMAGE SOURCE: revexpo.com Launched: 2014. Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti. Objectives: to accomplish the objectives of abatement of pollution, conservation and rejuvenation of the National River Ganga. (6 Mega development projects inaugurated under Namami Gange Mission) Namami Gange Programme, is an Integrated Conservation Mission, approved as a ‘Flagship Programme’ by the Union Government in June 2014. The program would be implemented by the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) and its state counterpart organizations i.e., State Program Management Groups (SPMGs). Working Mechanism:- A three-tier mechanism has been proposed for project monitoring comprising of: A high-level task force: chaired by Cabinet Secretary assisted by NMCG at the national level. State-level committee: chaired by Chief Secretary assisted by SPMG at the state level. District level: committee chaired by the District Magistrate. Implementation:- Its implementation has been divided into:- Entry-Level Activities: for immediate visible impact Medium-Term Activities: to be implemented within 5 years of the time frame and Long-Term Activities: to be implemented within 10 years. Main pillars of the programme:- Sewage Treatment Infrastructure River-Front Development River-Surface Cleaning Biodiversity Afforestation Public Awareness Industrial Effluent Monitoring Ganga Gram Key achievements under the Namami Gange programme:- Creating Sewerage Treatment Capacity: 48 sewage management projects are under implementation and 99 sewage projects have been completed in the states of Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Delhi, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, and Rajasthan. Creating River-Front Development: 71 Ghats/Crematoria projects for construction, modernization, and renovation of 270 Ghats/Crematoria and Kunds/Ponds have been initiated. River Surface Cleaning: River Surface cleaning for collection of floating solid waste from the surface of the Ghats and River and its disposal are afoot and pushed into service at 11 locations. Bio-Diversity Conservation: Wildlife Institute of India (WII), Dehradun, Central Inland Fisheries Research Institute (CIFRI), Kolkata & Uttar Pradesh State Forest Department has been awarded projects to develop science-based aquatic species restoration plans for Ganga River by involving multiple stakeholders along with conservation & restoration of aquatic biodiversity. Afforestation: One of the major components of Ganga rejuvenation is ‘forestry interventions’ to enhance the productivity and diversity of the forests in headwater areas and all along the river and its tributaries. Public Awareness: A series of activities such as events, workshops, seminars and conferences were organized to make a strong pitch for public outreach and community participation in the programme. Industrial Effluent Monitoring: Regulation and enforcement through regular and surprise inspections of Grossly Polluting Industries (GPIs) are carried out for compliance verification against stipulated environmental norms. Ganga Gram: 578 Crores has been released to the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation (MoDWS) for the construction of toilets in 1674 Gram Panchayats of 5 Ganga Basin States. MUST READ: Cleaning of River Ganga SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: According to the United Nations ‘World Water Development Report,2022’, India extracts more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal each year. Statement-II: India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of the world’s population living in its territory. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana: (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Resource Efficiency and Circular Economy Industry Coalition (RECEIC) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: The Resource Efficiency and Circular Economy Industry Coalition (RECEIC) was launched recently. Background:- RECEIC was launched at the side event during the fourth Environment and Climate Sustainability Working Group and Environment and Climate Ministers meeting in Chennai, Tamil Nadu. It was conceptualized under India’s G20 Presidency. About Resource Efficiency and Circular Economy Industry Coalition (RECEIC):- Launched in:2023. Launched at Chennai, Tamil Nadu. Launched by: Hon’ Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change Shri Bhupender Yadav. It was launched in the presence of the Commissioner on Environment from the European Union and Honorable Ministers from Canada, France, Italy, Denmark, Mauritius, and the United Arab Emirates RECEIC is an industry-driven initiative aimed at promoting resource efficiency and circular economy practices globally. Circular economy: it is a model of production and consumption, which involves sharing, leasing, reusing, repairing, refurbishing and recycling existing materials and products for as long as possible. Circular economy) The coalition is envisioned to be a self-sustaining entity that will continue to operate beyond India’s G20 Presidency, making a lasting impact on environmental sustainability. Founding members: 39 companies headquartered in 11 different countries have joined the coalition as its founding members. As a collaborative platform, RECEIC aims to facilitate knowledge-sharing, best practice sharing, and sustainable practices among the participating industries. Principles:- The coalition has three guiding principles – Partnerships for impact Technology Cooperation Finance for scale MUST READ: G20 Presidency of India SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements with reference to India: (2023) According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, the ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between (15 crore and 25 crore). All bank loans to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements: (2023) It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using the US dollar or SWIFT system. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a timeframe for spending it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Gulf Stream Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recent studies have warned that the Gulf Stream system of warm ocean currents could collapse as early as 2025. Background:- The study’s author at the University of Copenhagen said that other scientists had warned about the potential collapse of the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC). AMOC: t is a large system of ocean currents operating In the Atlantic, which circulates the waters between the north and the south. It plays a vital role in redistributing heat around the Earth and regulating global climate patterns. About Gulf Stream:- IMAGE SOURCE: scijinks The Gulf Stream is a strong ocean current. ( Ocean Currents) It carries warm water from the Gulf of Mexico into the Atlantic Ocean. Location: It extends all the way up the eastern coast of the United States and Canada. Origin: It originates in the Gulf of Mexico. Formation: It is primarily formed by the convergence of warm waters from the Caribbean Sea and the Gulf of Mexico. ( Upwelling and Downwelling) It then travels northward along the eastern coast of the United States. The Gulf Stream is several hundred kilometers wide. It can flow at an average speed of about 2.5 meters per second. The Gulf Stream is part of a general clockwise-rotating system of currents in the North Atlantic. It is fed by the westward-flowing North Equatorial Current moving from North Africa to the West Indies.  Importance of Gulf Stream:- Temperature Regulation: It moderates the temperatures along the eastern coast of North America, keeping the coastal areas warmer in winter and cooler in summer. Maritime Navigation: It provides a fast and efficient route for ships travelling between North America and Europe. Ocean Circulation: The Gulf Stream is an essential part of the larger oceanic circulation system known as the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC). MUST READ: Deep Ocean Mission (DOM) SOURCE: BBC NEWS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert? (2022) Lake Victoria Lake Faguibine Lake Oguta Lake Volta Conjunctivitis Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: All India Institutes of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), Delhi has been witnessing an increase in conjunctivitis cases recently. About Conjunctivitis:- Conjunctivitis is an inflammation of the transparent membrane that lines the eyelid and eyeball. This membrane is called the conjunctiva. It is also called Pink eye infection. ( Mucormycosis) Causes of Conjunctivitis:- Viruses. Bacteria. Allergies. A chemical splash in the eye. A foreign object in the eye. In newborns, a blocked tear duct. Symptoms of Conjunctivitis:- Redness. Itchiness. A gritty feeling in one or both eyes. A discharge in one or both eyes that forms a crust during the night that may prevent your eye or eyes from opening in the morning. Tearing. Sensitivity to light, called photophobia. Transmission of Conjunctivitis:- Direct transmission: through droplets from the cough or sneeze of an infected person or hand-to-eye contact. Indirect transmission: through shared personal items like towels, makeup, pillows or contact lenses. Prevention of Conjunctivitis:- Practice good hygiene to control the spread of pink eye. Some of these include:- Not touching one’s eyes with your hands. Washing hands often. Using a clean towel and washcloth daily Treatment of Conjunctivitis:- Virus caused: Pinkeye caused by the herpes virus can be very serious and may need prescription antiviral eye drops, ointment, or pills. Bacteria caused: If bacteria, including those related to STDs, caused the pinkeye, one may need antibiotics along with eye drops or ointments. Irritants caused: For pinkeye caused by an irritating substance, one may use water to wash the substance from the eye for 5 minutes. A warm or cold compress will also help in giving relief from inflammation and swelling. MUST READ: Shigella infection SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: India’s public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care. Statement-II: Under India’s decentralized approach to healthcare delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) ‘Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following? (2023) Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes Converting crop residues into packing material Producing biodegradable plastics Producing biochar from thermos chemical conversion of biomass Batagaika Crater Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology/Geography Context: Recent studies show that the Batagaika Crater can be a warning sign for the Earth. Background:- As per the study, the soil beneath the slump contains dangerous amounts of organic carbon that will be released into the atmosphere as the permafrost thaws, further fueling the planet’s warming. About Batagaika Crater:- IMAGE SOURCE: copernicus.eu The Batagaika crater, the world’s largest permafrost crater. It is one kilometer long. Location: Sakha Republic, Russia. Depth: It reaches depths of up to 100 meters. In the 1960s, after deforestation led to the melting of the underground permafrost, it caused the land to sink. Over the years, the crater has only expanded and is locally called ‘the cave-in’ or ‘mega-slump’. Formation: Scientists believe that the crater is the result of a melting permafrost land, which was frozen during the Quaternary Ice Age 2.58 million years ago. The locals in Russia’s Sakha Republic call it the “gateway to the underworld.” The term reflects the crater’s vastness and the fact that it seems to offer a glimpse into the Earth’s past. Significance of Batagaika crater: Scientists believe that the crater is the result of a melting permafrost land, which was frozen during the Quaternary Ice Age 2.58 million years ago. It has been observed in recent times that the Batagaika crater has been expanding. Cause of Batagaika Crater’s Expansion:- The expansion of the Batagaika crater can be attributed to the melting of permafrost, a phenomenon triggered by global warming. Permafrost: a thick subsurface layer of soil that remains below freezing point throughout the year, occurring chiefly in polar regions. ( Permafrost) Causes of Permafrost Thawing:- Rise in global temperatures due to climate change. Human activities, particularly the burning of fossil fuels, have released vast amounts of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere. These gases trap heat and result in a warming climate, which directly affects regions like Siberia with large permafrost areas. Deforestation: It exposed the permafrost to sunlight, accelerating its melting. Other human activities: Infrastructure development, and industrial activities, can further disturb the delicate balance of these frozen landscapes. Implications of the expansion on the environment:- As the permafrost thaws, enormous quantities of organic carbon are released into the atmosphere. This further contributes to the intensification of global warming. It will pose a significant challenge to climate change mitigation efforts. The thawing permafrost has had severe consequences on northern and northeastern Russia, leading to infrastructure damage. These include: Buckling roadways, splitting houses, and disrupting pipelines. MUST READ: Permafrost and Pandemic SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct? (2023) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times that received at the poles. Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation. Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere. Infrared waves are a part of the visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation. Q.2) Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a: (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organizations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Scorpene-class submarine Syllabus Prelims –Defense Context: Contract for three additional Scorpene-class submarines is expected to be concluded by end-2024. Background:- The first submarine will be delivered in 2031. Naval Group and the Mazagon Dock Limited, Mumbai signed a Memorandum of Understanding for cooperation on three additional Scorpenes on July 6. About Scorpene-class submarine:- Scorpene-class submarines have advanced stealth features. These are equipped with both long-range guided torpedoes as well as anti-ship missiles. These have a state-of-the-art SONAR and sensor suite permitting outstanding operational capabilities. Historical Background:- Under Project 75, six Scorpene-class submarines are to be constructed for the Indian Navy by the Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL) India and France signed the deal in 2005. Under this they were to be manufactured by the MDL under technology transfer. INS Kalvari: it was the first submarine in the Scorpene-class submarines series. ( Kalvari-Class Submarine INS Vagir) It was commissioned in INS Khanderi: it was the second submarine. It was commissioned in INS Karanj: it was the third submarine. It was commissioned in INS Vela: it was the fourth It was commissioned in INS Vagir: it was the fifth submarine. It was commissioned in INS Vagsheer: it is the 6th submarine. It is undergoing trial phases and is expected to be delivered to the Navy in early 2024. Significance of the Project:- Promoting Atmanirbhar Bharat: These Submarines are to be constructed under technology transfer from and in collaboration with the Naval Group of France. This project envisages the indigenous construction of submarines equipped with the state-of-the-art Air Independent Propulsion system. It will ensure Self-Reliance. It will ensure the protection of the Indo-Pacific region. MUST READ: Submarine Vagir SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Mains: Seagrasses Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Geography) and GS 3 (Environment and Ecology) Context:  Baltic Sea Seagrass Initiative helps train local citizens to restore seagrass meadows in the Baltic Sea, which can help, tackle Climate Change. About Seagrasses: Seagrasses are flowering plants that grow submerged in shallow marine waters like bays and lagoons. Like terrestrial plants, seagrass also photosynthesizes and manufactures their own food and releases oxygen. They evolved around 100 million years ago, and there are approximately 72 different seagrass species that belong to four major groups. Some of the important seagrasses are Sea Cow Grass (Cymodocea serrulata), Thready Seagrass (Cymodocea rotundata), Needle Seagrass (Syringodium isoetifolium), Flat-tipped Seagrass (Halodule uninervis), Spoon Seagrass (Halophila ovalis) and Ribbon Grass (Enhalus acoroides). Distribution: They are found on all continents except Antarctica. The tropical waters of the Indo-Pacific hold the highest diversity of seagrasses in the world. Seagrass distribution in India: They occur all along the coastal areas of India. They are abundant in the Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar in Tamil Nadu. Significance: Seagrasses are considered ‘Ecosystem Engineers’ as they are known for providing many ecosystem services and are also called ‘the lungs of the sea’ as they release oxygen into the water through photosynthesis. Maintain water quality: Seagrasses help maintain water quality. They trap fine sediments and suspended particles in the water column and increase water clarity. In the absence of seagrass communities, the sediments are stirred by wind and waves, decreasing water quality. This reduced water clarity affects marine animal behaviour besides decreasing the recreational quality of coastal zones. Filter nutrients: They filter nutrients released from land-based industries before they reach sensitive habitats like coral reefs. Stabilises the sea bottom: Ocean bottoms without seagrasses are prone to intense wave action from currents and storms. The extensive vertical and horizontal root systems of seagrasses stabilise the sea bottom similar to land grasses that prevent soil erosion. Provide food and habitat: Seagrasses provide food as well as habitat for fishes, octopuses, shrimp, blue crabs, oysters, sponges, sea urchins, clams, etc. They are called ‘the lungs of the sea’ as they release oxygen into the water through photosynthesis. Protect small beings: Seagrass habitats protect juvenile and small adult fish from large predators and strong currents. Marine animals that live in soft sea bottom sediments also take shelter in seagrass meadows. Seahorses and lizardfish are found living in seagrass meadows almost throughout the year. Releases nutrients after decomposition: When it is further decomposed, it releases nutrients like nitrogen and phosphorous. The dissolved nutrients in the water are absorbed by seagrasses and phytoplankton. Absorbs CO2: Even though seagrasses occupy only 0.1 per cent of the ocean floor; they sequester up to 11 per cent of the organic carbon buried in the ocean. Seagrasses absorb 83 million tonnes of carbon from the atmosphere annually. Threat to Seagrass Seagrass beds are facing decline all over the world at the rate of 2-5 per cent annually. Some 30,000 square kilometers of seagrass has been lost during recent decades at a global level. Europe lost one-third of its seagrass areas between 1860 and 2016(due to which carbon released into the atmosphere and enhanced Global Warming). Seagrasses face natural disturbances like grazing, storms, ice scouring and desiccation. Human disturbances like eutrophication, mechanical destruction of habitat, overfishing and release of nutrients play havoc on seagrasses. Siltation, trawling, coastal engineering construction, pollution, etc, are considered significant causes for the deterioration of seagrasses. Measures taken for the protection of Seagrasses: Globally: The Virginia Institute of Marine Science in the eastern United States seeded 456 acres of the Chesapeake Bay with 7.65 million seagrass seeds One of the most famous initiatives is the Sea Store Seagrass Restoration Project in Keil (Germany) by GEOMAR Helmholtz Centre for Ocean Research. In India: Institutions of higher learning and research have been heavily involved in studies on seagrass mapping, species diversity, and transplanting. The Government has also initiated a project across the States of Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Odisha on enhancing climate resilience of India’s coastal communities, which includes a grant by Global Climate Fund (GCF) covering 24 ecosystems in these selected States. Way Forward If seagrass habitats are lost, the marine organisms that depend on them for their survival may also face extinction, resulting in the loss of marine ecosystem productivity. Protection and restoration should be attempted at a global level as it can play a significant role in mitigating climate change. Source:    The Print About Baltic Sea: It is part of the North Atlantic Ocean, situated in Northern Europe. It extends northward from the latitude of southern Denmark almost to the Arctic Circle and separates the Scandinavian Peninsula from the rest of continental Europe. The Baltic Sea connects to the Atlantic Ocean through the Danish Straits. It is the largest expanse of brackish water in the world. Surrounding Countries: Denmark, Germany, Poland, Lithuania, Latvia, Estonia, Russia, Finland and Sweden. The Baltic Sea contains three major gulfs: the Gulf of Bothnia to the north, the Gulf of Finland to the east, and the Gulf of Riga slightly to the south of that. Baltic Nations: Baltic Nations are Estonia, Latvia and Lithuania. They are bounded on the west and north by the Baltic Sea, on the east by Russia, on the southeast by Belarus, and on the southwest by Poland and an exclave of Russia. Biological Diversity (Amendment) Bill, 2021 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Environment) Context: The Lok Sabha recently passed the Biological Diversity (Amendment) Bill, 2021 that aims to amend the Biological Diversity Act, 2002. Objectives of the Bill: Benefitting tribes and vulnerable communities: The main objective of the amendment is to ensure that tribes and vulnerable communities derive benefits from the proceeds of medicinal forest products. Encouraging ayurveda and ease of doing business: The amendment decriminalizes certain activities, encouraging the practice of Ayurveda and promoting ease of doing business in the Ayurveda sector. Simplifying patent application processes: The amendment aims to simplify patent application processes for traditional Indian medicine practitioners, researchers, and industry players, facilitating collaborative research and investments. Widening scope of access and benefit sharing: The bill also proposes to widen the scope of levying access and benefit sharing with local communities to further conserve biological resources. Salient Features of the Biological Diversity (Amendment) Bill, 2021 Exemption for AYUSH practitioners: The Bill exempted registered AYUSH medical practitioners from the requirement of giving prior intimation to State Biodiversity Boards for accessing biological resources purposes. This exemption aimed to facilitate easier access for traditional medicine practitioners to biological resources for medicinal purposes. Exemption for cultivated medicinal plants: The Bill excluded cultivated medicinal plants from the purview of the Biological Diversity Act. This meant that access to cultivated medicinal plants for various purposes would not be subject to the regulations and requirements of the Act. Fast tracking of research and patent application: The Bill proposed to fast track the process of research and patent applications related to biological resources. This provision aimed to encourage and expedite research and innovation in the field of biodiversity and its applications. Change in offences classification: The Bill proposed to change the nature of violations of the law related to access to biological resources and benefit sharing with communities. Currently treated as criminal offences that are non-bailable, the Bill sought to make these violations civil offences. Foreign Investment in biodiversity research: The Bill allowed foreign investment in research related to biodiversity. However, it stipulated that such investment should be made through Indian companies involved in biodiversity research exclusively. Introduction of member-secretary post: The Bill introduced the post of ‘Member-Secretary’ to be appointed by the Central Government. The Member-Secretary would serve as the chief coordinating officer and convener of the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) and assist the Authority in discharging its functions under the Biological Diversity Act. Criticism of the Bill Risk of biopiracy: One of the main concerns is that easing the norms and giving exemptions could open the door to biopiracy. Biopiracy refers to the unauthorized commercial exploitation of biological resources or traditional knowledge belonging to indigenous and local communities. Exemption of AYUSH companies: This exemption is seen as a violation of a 2018 judgement by the Uttarakhand High Court that mandated all companies, both foreign and Indian, to seek prior consent and approval for access and benefit-sharing with local communities. Violation of forest rights act: The Bill is seen to be in violation of the Forest Rights Act, 2006, which recognizes and authorizes the Gram Sabha (village council) for prior permission and approval in case of any access to forests. Dilution of penal provisions: The Bill has been criticized for diluting the penalty provisions. Way Forward: The Biological Diversity (Amendment) Bill, 2021, aims to address concerns related to the existing Act and promote the benefits of medicinal forest products to tribes and vulnerable communities. While the government states that the amendment will encourage Ayurveda and ease of doing business, environmentalists raise concerns about the potential for “bio-piracy” and lack of clarity on benefit sharing. Striking a balance between promoting traditional knowledge and protecting biodiversity will be crucial for the effective implementation of the amendment. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Name of the Ocean Current Type of Ocean Current 1.Alaskan Current Cold water current 2.Falkland Current Cold water current 3.Gulf Stream Warm water current How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: INS Kalvari was the first submarine in the Scorpene-class submarines series. Statement-II: INS Vagsheer is the 5th submarine in the series. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Conjunctivitis can be caused due to allergies. Statement-II: It is also called pink eye. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Assess the implications of the Biological Diversity (Amendment) Bill, 2021, on the conservation of biodiversity and traditional knowledge. Evaluate the government’s rationale behind the amendments and propose strategies to ensure effective implementation while safeguarding the interests of tribes, vulnerable communities, and the environment. (250 Words) Q.2) Given the significant threat to Seagrasses, there is an urgent need to take earnest measures to conserve seagrasses and their habitats. Discuss (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 28th  July 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 27th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – d

Jul 28, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 28th July 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

Jul 28, 2023 TLP Mains Answer Writing

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS2 Questions [28th July, 2023] – Day 47

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 47 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best