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मासिक पत्रिका मई 2023 – हिन्दी IASbaba सामयिकी

Archives Hello Friends,This is मई/May 2023 of IASbaba’s REVAMPED Current Affairs Monthly Magazine. Current Affairs for UPSC Civil Services Examination is an important factor in this preparation.An effort towards making your Current Affairs for IAS UPSC Preparation qualitative. We hope you make the best use of it!This edition covers all Important current affairs issues that were in news for the month of मई/May 2023.Kindly leave your feedback in the comment section below on the new design and presentation of the magazine. We would love to hear from you! Download The Magazine - मई/May 2023 Important Topics Covered In The Magazine Includes: Coal Sector G-7 Renewable Energy in India Anti-Conversion Legislation Buddhism A Soft Power Nuclear Power Phasing out And Much More.... Download The Magazine - मई/May 2023 To get Regular Updates from IASbaba, follow-TELEGRAM Channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccountYOUTUBE – https://www.youtube.com/channel/UChvbVdio9Wgj7Z3nQz1Q0ZQFACEBOOK – https://www.facebook.com/iasbaba/Also, SUBSCRIBE to the WEBSITE Below, so that you don’t miss out on important posts!Thank YouIASbaba

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –27th July 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Silver cockscomb Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Studies have shown that Silver cockscomb is not a troublesome weed for Karnataka’s Soliga tribe. Background:- Silver cockscomb is a troublesome weed. ( Expansion of the Invasive Plants) If left unchecked, it can spread quickly and suppress the growth of other crops, affecting their yield. But for the Soliga tribe, silver cockscomb is a nutritious leafy green vegetable that grows well even on fallow land and in drought-like conditions. About Silver cockscomb:- Silver cockscomb is a short-lived 50-60 cm-tall plant. It is also known as Lagos spinach. Scientific name: Celosia argentea . Local Names:- In Karnnada: Anne soppu In Marathi: Kurdu In Tamil: Pannai keerai Family: Amaranthaceae family. The family includes economically important plants like spinach, beetroot and quinoa. It bears simple, spirally arranged leaves around the stem with pinkish or silky white flowers. It grows well even on fallow land and in drought-like conditions. Its leaves have lower levels of oxalic acid and phytic acid. Uses of Silver cockscomb:- It grows widely on farmlands across the country and most farmers use the plant as Soliga tribe use it as a nutritious leafy green vegetable, as it is high in nutrients such as beta-carotene and folic acids, and has vitamin E, calcium and iron. It is frequently used in traditional Chinese and Indian medicine for treating eye diseases and ulcers. (WHO and Traditional Medicine) About the Soliga tribe:- They are an indigenous tribe of Karnataka. Location: They reside in the peripheral forest areas near Biligiri Rangana Hills and Male Mahadeshwara in the Chamarajnagar district of Karnataka. They are the first tribal community living inside the core area of a tiger reserve in India to get their forest rights officially recognised by a court of law. MUST READ: New genus of parasitic flowering plant SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following trees: (2023) Jackfruit (Artoca7pus heterophyllus) Mahua (Madhuca indica) Teak (Tectona grandis) How many of the above are deciduous trees? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements (2023) Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India. Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Ludwigia peruviana Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: As per recent reports, Ludwigia Peruviana is threatening the elephant habitats in Tamil Nadu. Background:- Ludwigia peruviana, has infested the majority of the hill station’s swamps, where elephants used to find lush grass even in the summer. It is among the 22 priority invasive plants in Tamil Nadu. About Ludwigia peruviana:- Ludwigia peruviana is an invasive aquatic weed. (Invasive alien plants in Nilgiri Biosphere Region) Habitat: it is originally native to Central and South America. It is an aquatic plant, which is now challenging the existence of local vegetation in various swampy areas around the world. It is a perennial shrub. Perennial: A plant that lives for more than two years. It is deciduous in cooler climates and evergreen in warmer tropical climates. It can form floating islands on the water’s surface. The plant can grow to a height of about 12 feet. Leaves are:- Oval to lance-shaped with a pointed tip and narrow base. Hairy and prominently veined. Flowers are:- Its flower is pale yellowish in colour. Each flower lasts for only one day. Issues with Ludwigia peruviana:- It is an aquatic plant, which is now challenging the existence of local vegetation in various swampy areas around the world. It grows faster in wetlands than other harmful weeds. It has shaken the balance of these perennial foraging grounds, limiting the growth of grass and native plants that are palatable to elephants and other animals including gaur. It grows in swamps and there is little scope to use machinery. Even if Ludwigia is pulled out manually, the soft plant easily breaks and it spreads again from the root or broken stems that fall in the swamp Ways to control Ludwigia peruviana:- Prevention: Reducing nutrient runoff into the waterway can limit growth. Physical removal: Seedlings can be pulled or dug out. Disposal: Plants can be destroyed by burning or deep burial. Slashing/Fire: Larger infestations may be slashed and burnt. Chemical control: Spraying glyphosate. Cut stump method: Cut the main stems, and apply herbicide gel to the stump within 15 seconds of cutting. MUST READ: Water Hyacinth SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Some mushrooms have medicinal properties. Some mushrooms have · psychoactive properties. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties. How many of the above statements are correct? · Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) ‘Invasive Species Specialist ·group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations? (2023) The International Union for Conservation of Nature The United Nations Environment Programme The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development The World Wide Fund for Nature National Statistical Organisation (NSO) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: The Government of India recently appointed a panel to review the methodology used by the National Statistical Organisation (NSO). Background:- The panel is appointed under the chairmanship of Pronab Sen, former Chief Statistician of India. This happened in the backdrop of articles by Shamika Ravi and Bibek Debroy arguing the usage of outdated survey methodology by national surveys. According to them, this archaic methodology has failed to capture reality in the recent past as the “Indian economy has been incredibly dynamic in the last 30 years”. The Pronab Sen Committee will attempt to address these concerns to make the sample adequately representative. About National Statistical Organisation (NSO):- Established: 2019. The National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) merged with the Central Statistical Office (CSO) to form the National Statistical Office (NSO). The NSO was first envisaged by Rangarajan Commission to implement and maintain statistical standards and coordinate statistical activities of Central and State agencies as laid down by the National Statistical Commission (NSC). Ministry: Ministry of Statistics and Program Implementation. Headed by: Secretary, Statistics and Programme Implementation. Objective: It was created to streamline and strengthen the present nodal functions of the ministry and to bring in more synergy by integrating its administrative functions within the ministry. Structure:- The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation has two wings:- Statistics and Programme Implementation. The Statistics Wing is called the National Statistical Office (NSO). It consists of the Central Statistical Office (CSO), the Computer Center and the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO). CSO: coordinates the statistical activities in the country and also evolves statistical standards. NSSO: responsible for the conduct of large-scale sample surveys in diverse fields on an all-India basis. Functions and Responsibilities of NSO:- It acts as the nodal agency for the planned development of the statistical system in the country. It lays down and maintains norms and standards in the field of statistics. It coordinates the statistical work in respect of the Ministries/Departments of the Government of India and State Statistical Bureaus (SSBs). It prepares national accounts (including Gross Domestic Product). ( GDP estimates by NSO) It publishes annual estimates of national product, Government and Private final consumption expenditure, Capital Formation, Savings, etc. and comparable estimates of State Domestic Product (SDP). It compiles and releases Consumer Price Index (CPI) Numbers and Annual Inflation rates based on these CPI numbers. (CPI) It maintains liaison with International Statistical Organizations. These include the United Nations Statistical Division (UNSD), ESCAP, the Statistical Institute for Asia and the Pacific (SIAP), IMF, ADB, FAO, ILO, etc. (IMF and World Economic Outlook) It compiles and brings out reports as per international/regional commitments. These include Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) India Country Report and SAARC Development Goals India Country Report. It compiles and releases the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) every month. (IIP) It conducts the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI). It provides statistical information to assess and evaluate the changes in the growth, composition and structure of the organized manufacturing sector. It organizes and conducts periodic all-India Economic Censuses and follow-up enterprise surveys. It conducts large-scale all-India sample surveys. MUST READ: National Statistical Commission (NSC) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InviTs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable. Statement-II: InviTs are recognized as borrowers under the ‘Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002’. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation. (2022) Department of Consumer Affairs Expenditure Management Commission Financial Stability and Development Council Reserve Bank of India Kargil Vijay Diwas Syllabus Prelims –Defense Context: Recently, leaders across India’s political spectrum paid their tributes to India’s armed forces and the fallen martyrs on the occasion of Kargil Vijay Diwas. About Kargil Vijay Diwas:- The Kargil War officially ended on July 26, 1999. The day is dedicated to the martyred soldiers of the Kargil War. Historical Background of the Kargil War:- Time period: – May-July of 1999. Location: Kargil (now a district in the Union Territory of Ladakh) district of Jammu and Kashmir along the Line of Control (LoC) Line of Control (LoC): it is a military control line between the Indian and Pakistani-controlled parts of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir. Cause of the war: The conflict was triggered when infiltrators from Pakistan crossed the LoC and occupied high positions in Ladakh’s Kargil district. ( Upgradation of Kargil Zanskar road) Operation Vijay: In the year 1999, India and Pakistan signed the Lahore Agreement to mutually resolve the Kashmir issue in a peaceful manner. However, the Pakistani troops began infiltrating toward the Indian side of the Line of Control (LoC) under Operation Badr, hoping to cut off Indian Troops in Siachen. The Indian Army responded by launching Operation Vijay. It had infiltrated into the high altitudes in the rocky mountainous region of Kargil with around 5,000 soldiers and captured it. When the Indian Government got the information about it, ‘Operation Vijay’ was launched by the Indian army to throw back the intruders who had treacherously occupied Indian Territory. (UPSC CSE: Aatmanirbhar in Defence) MUST READ: The new defence systems handed over to Army SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements with respect to the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002: (2023) Statement-I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm. Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3: 2. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of Constitution Day: (2023) Statement-I: Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens. Statement-II: On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the chairmanship of Dr B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft ·Constitution of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct African Union Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi proposed to make the African Union a permanent member of the G-20. Background:- The proposal has received overwhelming response from the grouping as informed by India’s G-20 Sherpa Amitabh Kant has said. India and G20 Presidency) About African Union:- Establishment:2002. HQ: Addis Ababa, Ethiopia. The African Union (AU) was officially launched in Durban, South Africa as a successor to the Organization of African Unity (OAU, 1963-1999). The African Union (AU) is an influential organization consisting of 55 member states that make up the countries of the African continent. ( African Union) Languages of AU: – Arabic, English, French, Portuguese, Spanish, Kiswahili and any other African languages. ( Mali suspended from African Union) Objectives of AU:- Achieve greater unity and solidarity between African countries and their people. Defend the sovereignty, territorial integrity and independence of its Member States. Accelerate the political and socio-economic integration of the continent. Encourage international cooperation. Promote peace, security, and stability on the continent. Promote democratic principles and institutions, popular participation and good governance. Work with relevant international partners in the eradication of preventable diseases and the promotion of good health on the continent. Ensure the effective participation of women in decision-making, particularly in the political, economic and socio-cultural areas. Develop and promote common policies on trade, defense and foreign relations. About India-African Union relations:- After India gained independence, it became a leading voice in support of African decolonization at the United Nations. ITEC: In 1964, India launched the Indian Technical and Economic Cooperation (ITEC) program to provide technical assistance through human resource development to other developing countries, with African countries were the greatest beneficiaries of it and the Special Commonwealth African Assistance Programme (SCAAP). India’s economic engagement with Africa: began intensifying in the early 2000s. India Africa Forum Summit (IAFS): India-AU partnership became more with the first India Africa Forum Summit (IAFS) in 2008. The Summit adopted the Delhi Declaration and the Africa-India Framework for Cooperation, which constituted the blueprint for cooperation between India and Africa in the 21st century. Recent Developments:- India’s first high-level visit to Africa for 2022 saw the following developments:- India announced the Phase-II up-gradation of the Entrepreneurship Development and Technology Centre (CEDT) in Dakar, built with Indian grant assistance. India also offered a Special ITEC English proficiency course for Senegalese public servants. India announced a Special training program for a batch of 15 Senegalese diplomats at the Sushma Swaraj Institute of Foreign Services. MUST READ: Burkina Faso suspended from African Union SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries have been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in the news in the recent past for its very severe famine? (2023) Angola Costa Rica Ecuador Somalia Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the Trade and Technology Council’. Statement-II: The USA and the EU claim that through this they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct MERS-CoV Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recently, Abu Dhabi reported a new case of Middle East Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus (MERS-CoV). About Middle East Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus (MERS-CoV) It is a viral respiratory disease. Caused by: Middle East respiratory syndrome coronavirus (MERS‐CoV). It was first identified in Saudi Arabia in 2012. Fatality: Approximately 35% of MERS cases reported to WHO have died. MERS-CoV is a zoonotic virus. ( Monkeypox/mpox) Zoonotic virus: it is transmitted between animals and people. Distribution: MERS-CoV has been identified and linked to human infections in dromedary camels in several Member States in the Middle East, Africa and South Asia. Symptoms of MERS:- Fever Cough and Shortness of breath. Pneumonia is common. However, MERS patients may not always develop this condition. Gastrointestinal symptoms: such as diarrhea. Transmission of MERS:- Human-to-human transmission is possible and has occurred predominantly among close contacts and in healthcare settings. Outside the healthcare setting, there has been limited human-to-human transmission.  Prevention and Treatment:- No vaccine or specific treatment is currently available. Treatment is supportive and based on the patient’s clinical condition. MUST READ: African Swine Fever SOURCE: THE HINDUSTAN TIMES Mains: Internet from a Sachet Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Science and Technology) Context: Digital connectivity is a sine qua non for everything digital in today’s world and India as well. India’s digital connectivity landscape: The connectivity landscape has been transformed in the last seven years in India due to multiple factors like The boom in mobile telephony (a billion-plus mobile connections), 4G coverage, A significant reduction in tariffs (from Rs 300 per GB to a mere Rs 7 per GB). The increased penetration of smartphones has further facilitated digital connectivity, bringing a wide range of online services and opportunities to people’s fingertips. Alongside these factors, the implementation of enabling policies like Net Neutrality and the government’s focus on building Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI), particularly digital ID and UPI, have contributed to the surge in digital transactions across various domains. About Digital India Programme: It was launched in 2015. The programme has been enabled for several important Government schemes, such as BharatNet, Make in India, Startup India and Standup India, industrial corridors, Vision Areas: Digital infrastructure as Utility to Every Citizen. Governance and services on demand. Digital empowerment of citizens. Objectives: To prepare India for a knowledge future. For being transformative that is to realize IT (Indian Talent) + IT (Information Technology) = IT (India Tomorrow). Making technology central to enabling change. On being an Umbrella Programme – covering many departments. About PM WANI: WANI (Wi-Fi Access Network Interface) is a concept introduced by Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) in 2017 to create interoperable public Wi-Fi hotspots. The vision was to offer connectivity via local providers known as Public Data Offices (PDOs). Building on the success of the WANI pilot, the Indian government introduced PM-WANI, which was approved by the Union Cabinet in December 2020 to implement the WANI vision on a broader scale. Benefits of PM-WANI: Affordable Connectivity: With PM-WANI, over a million people are accessing unlimited Internet daily by paying just Rs 5 to 10. For comparison, students are now opting for this “sachet internet” over chips or soft drinks. Boosting Local Economy: Local shops and households can become PDOs, setting up Wi-Fi hotspots. This not only promotes affordable internet usage but also augments their earnings. Infrastructure Utilization: Existing infrastructure by companies like RailTel and GAIL, which is currently underused, can be effectively tapped into for PM-WANI. Benefits for ISPs and Telcos: These major providers can sell more bandwidth by transforming their customers into retailers. Bridging the Digital Divide: With a low home broadband penetration of around 10% in India, PM-WANI offers an opportunity to improve internet access, especially in underserved areas. Challenges of India’s digital platforms: Gender gap: Indian women are 15 per cent less likely to own a mobile phone and 33 per cent less likely to use mobile internet services than men are. Women constitute only one-third of internet users in India. Skewed penetration: Among states, Maharashtra has the highest internet penetration, followed by Goa and Kerala, while Bihar has the lowest, followed by Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand. India’s global rank: According to the UN’s e-participation index (2022), which is a composite measure of three important dimensions of e-government, namely provision of online services, telecommunication connectivity and human capacity, India ranks 105 out of 193 nations. Online safety: According to a survey, more than half of young women have experienced violence online, including sexual harassment, threatening messages and having private images shared without consent. Women’s rights defenders and female journalists were targeted for abuse more than most. Inadequate artificial intelligence: The third threat comes from badly designed artificial intelligence systems that repeat and exacerbate discrimination. Availability of connectivity: One of the arguments against PM-WANI is that data is now so cheap and everyone has 4G connectivity — there is no business case for wi-fi hotspots. This, as we have seen, is an oversimplification. Need of legal mandate: Except for Aadhaar (prompted by litigation), none of the preexisting platforms [like Aarogya Setu, CoWIN or even Government E-Marketplace (GEM)] has a legal definition of their functions, roles and responsibilities from an Act of Parliament. Way Forward: To ensure the success and widespread adoption of PM-WANI, all stakeholders, including governments, civil society, and startups, must actively promote and support the initiative. Its potential to bridge the digital divide and empower communities through enhanced internet access is significant and should not be underestimated. PM-WANI’s unique approach to interoperability, openness, and scalability in Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) has the potential to make it as successful as UPI and other DPIs. Source:    Indian Express Need for Political parties under RTI Act Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: The Supreme Court agreed to hold a detailed hearing on a bunch of petitions seeking to bring political parties under the ambit of Right to Information (RTI) Act. About Political parties: A political party is a group of people who come together to contest elections and hold power in the government. They agree on some policies and programmes for the society with a view to promote the collective good. Election commission of India (EC) has categorised three kinds of political parties in the country: National, State/Regional and Registered/unrecognised Parties. Registration of Political parties is governed by the provisions of Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. A party seeking registration under the said section with the commission has to apply to the commission within a period of 30 days following the date of its formation as per guidelines prescribed by the commission in exercise of the powers conferred by Article 324 of the Constitution of India and Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Public Authority’ under Section 2(h) of the Right to Information Act, 2005 It means any authority or body or institution of self-government established or constituted: By or under the Constitution, By any other law made by Parliament; By any other law made by State Legislature; By notification issued or order made by the appropriate Government It also includes any: Body owned, controlled or substantially financed; Non-Government Organisation substantially financed directly or indirectly by funds provided by the appropriate Government. Arguments in favour: Except for the political strategy, other matters relating to finance and administration need to be made available to public because political parties are public institutions, receiving money from public. Electoral Bonds are not promoting transparency in political funding, as donors remain anonymous to public. In fact, not only funding but also expenditure made by political parties, especially during the time of elections should be made public. Political Parties are already under the RTI Act as they have not challenged the Central Information Commission’s verdict of 3rd June 2013 (Political Parties are public authorities under Section 2(h) of the RTI Act); though they have also not complied with the order yet. There is a section 8(1) in the act that has ten exemptions within it. If a political party comes under the ambit of RTI act, then this section will safeguard them from disclosing all types of information. Challenges and concerns: Absence of law governing political parties: Political parties, unlike any other public or private institutions, are integral to the functioning of our democracy. They enjoy unique privileges. Despite their obvious crucial role in the past almost seven decades, lawmakers have not framed any regulation or law governing the functioning of political parties. The Law Commission of India’s report of 1999 also had detailed observations on the need for regulatory oversight on the functioning of parties. Misuse of RTI: The disclosure of information under RTI act may give advantage to the competitors of political parties. Reluctance of political parties: Political parties are reluctant to disclose their internal working as well as their decision-making system. It had argued that there were already provisions in the Income Tax Act, 1961, and Representation of the People Act, 1951, demanding “necessary transparency regarding financial aspects of political parties”. It said information about a political body was already in public domain on the website of the Election Commission. Supreme Court’s observations: The Supreme Court said political parties may “have a point” in being concerned that bringing them under the ambit of the Right to Information (RTI) Act may lead to situations where they may be asked to disclose even details such as candidate selection or other deliberations. Way Forward: The declaration of political parties as public authority would promote transparency and encourage public debate. There are questions being raised on the functioning of political parties and the funds they receive. Political parties are an integral part of the democracy. Unless and until they are accountable to the public how can democracy succeed! Hence, there is a need to attain more transparency regarding the functioning of political parties. Source: The Hindu PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following? (2023) Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes Converting crop residues into packing material Producing biodegradable plastics Producing biochar from the thermos-chemical conversion of biomass Q.2) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2023) They protect the environmental allergens body They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from diseases caused by pathogens. Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Disease Pathogen 1.COVID-19 Inflenza A virus. 2.Poliomyelitis Rhinovirus 3.Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS) MERS-CoV How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Silver cockscomb is a weed that suppresses the growth of other crops. Statement-II: It’s used for medicinal purposes. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: African Union (AU) has 50 members. Statement-II: French is the official language of AU. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Mains Practice Questions Q.1) The PM-WANI initiative aims to bridge the data supply gaps and promote internet accessibility in India. Analyze the potential impact of PM-WANI on enhancing internet access, empowering local entrepreneurs, and promoting digital inclusivity in rural areas. (250 Words) Q.2) For containment of corruption and holding government accountable to the governed it is important to make political parties accountable under RTI. Comment (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 27th July 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 26th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 27th July 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS2 Questions [27th July, 2023] – Day 46

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 46 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –26th July 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Chandra Shekhar Azad Syllabus Prelims –Indian History/Important Personalities Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi paid his tributes to Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Chandra Shekhar Azad on their birth anniversaries on July 23. Background:- Saluting Indian nationalist and freedom fighter Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Prime Minister Modi said in a tweet, Lokmanya Tilak shook the foundation of British rule by demanding complete Independence. While remembering revolutionary freedom fighter Chand Shekhar Azad fondly, the Prime Minister called him a gallant son of ‘Bharat Mata’ and a remarkable man. About Bal Gangadhar Tilak:- Birth: July 23, 1856. Birthplace: Ratnagiri (now in Maharashtra state), India. Death: August 1, 1920, in Mumbai. He was a scholar, mathematician, philosopher, and ardent nationalist who helped lay the foundation for India’s independence by building his own defiance of British rule into a national movement. He was also known as Lokmanya Tilak. His famous declaration “Swaraj is my birthright, and I shall have it” served as an inspiration for future revolutionaries during India’s struggle for freedom. The British Government termed him the “Father of Indian Unrest”. (Sedition Law) Important Institutions Started by Tilak:- Deccan Education Society (1884): He was the founder of the Deccan Education Society along with his associate Gopal Ganesh Agarkar and others. Fergusson College (1885): He was one of the founders of the Fergusson College in Pune. The ideology of Tilak:- He vocalized his strong opposition to the moderate views of the Indian National Congress (INC) on self-rule. He maintained that simple constitutional agitation in itself was futile against the British. He wanted an armed revolt against the British. Following the partition of Bengal by Lord Curzon, Tilak wholeheartedly supported the Swadeshi (Indigenous) movement and the Boycott of British goods. Due to this fundamental difference in outlook, Tilak and his supporters came to be known as the extremist wing of INC. He was a great reformer and throughout his life, he advocated the cause of women’s education and women’s empowerment. Tilak proposed Grand celebrations on ‘Ganesh Chaturthi’ and ‘Shivaji Jayanti’. He envisioned these celebrations inciting a sense of unity and inspiring nationalist sentiment among Indians. Political ventures of Tilak:- 1890: He joined the Indian National Congress (INC). Tilak protested against the oppressive nature of the British efforts and wrote provocative articles on it in his newspapers on the epidemic of the Plague in Pune and adjacent regions. His article inspired the Chapekar brothers and they carried out the assassination of Commissioner Rand and Lt. Ayerst on June 22, Because of this, Tilak was imprisoned for 18 months on Sedition charges for inciting murder. Indian Home Rule League (1914): He founded the Indian Home Rule League. Lucknow Pact (1916): he concluded the Lucknow Pact with Mohammed Ali Jinnah, which provided for Hindu-Muslim unity in the nationalist struggle. Newspapers by Tilak:- Weeklies: Kesari (Marathi) and Mahratta (English) Books by Tilak:- Gita Rhasya Arctic Home of the Vedas. About Chandra Shekhar Azad:- Birth: 23rd July 1906. Birth Place: Alirajpur district of Madhya Pradesh. ( Chandra Shekhar Azad) Death: On February 27, 1931. He died at Azad Park in Allahabad on 27th February 1931. Chandrashekhar Azad was a great Indian freedom fighter. He was the mentor of Bhagat Singh. He is considered one of the greatest revolutionaries that India has produced. Political ventures of Chandrashekhar Azad:- 1921: when Gandhiji launched the Non-Cooperation Movement, Chandra Shekhar, then a 15-year-old student, joined. He was arrested. On being presented before a magistrate, he gave his name as “Azad” (The Free), his father’s name as “Swatantrata” (Independence) and his residence as “Jail”. From that day, he came to be known as Chandra Shekhar Azad among the people. 1925: Involved in the Kakori train Robbery. 1926: he was involved in an attempt to blow up the Viceroy of India’s train. 1928: he was involved in the shooting of J. P. Saunders at Lahore to avenge the killing of Lala Lajpat Rai. Organizations by Chandrashekhar Azad:- Hindustan Republican Association: After the suspension of the non-cooperation movement in 1922 by Gandhi, Azad joined Hindustan Republican Association (HRA). MUST READ: Dayanand Saraswati SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal, designated as the Governor General of India? (2023) The Regulating Act The Pitt’s India Act The Charter Act of 1793 The Charter Act of 1833 Q.2) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: An international symposium on sustainable livestock transformation was inaugurated at the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB). About National Dairy Development Board (NDDB):- Establishment: Ministry: Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying. HQ: Anand, Gujarat, India. Objective: to replace exploitation with empowerment, tradition with modernity, stagnation with growth, transforming dairying into an instrument for the development of India’s rural people. The NDDB is a statutory body set up by an act of Parliament and was founded by Dr Verghese Kurien. Historical Background of NDDB:- It was initially constituted as a society under the Societies Act 1860. It was later merged with the former Indian Dairy Corporation, which was created and registered under the Companies Act 1956, by the NDDB Act 1987, which took effect on October 12, 1987. Significance of NDDB:- Empowering Rural economy: The NDDB’s initiatives altered India’s rural economy by making dairying a viable and profitable business for millions of milk producers. ( Women and Cooperative Dairy Farming) Long-term livelihood: The NDDB reaches out to dairy farmers and provides them with alternative income-generating opportunities, allowing them to build long-term livelihoods. NDDB has been effective in combining dairy farmers’ traditional wisdom and experience with modern management strategies in order to capture the milk and milk products market while also assisting farmers. Operation Flood: Its most notable achievement is Operation Flood, which lasted 26 years and transformed India into the world’s greatest milk producer. (UPSC CSE: National Dairy Plan) The White Revolution is another name for this. Operation Flood: it is the world’s largest dairy development program, launched in the year 1970. It established a national milk grid that connected farmers across India to customers in over 700 towns and cities, decreasing seasonal and regional pricing differences and guaranteeing that producers receive a large portion of the profit by removing intermediaries. MUST READ: Dairy Cooperatives SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana: (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) ‘The National Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Adjournment motion Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, an adjournment motion was moved in the Lok Sabha, citing the need for urgent discussions on the ethnic violence in Manipur. Background:- Opposition parties demanded a discussion on the alleged sexual assault of at least two women in Manipur, amid the ongoing ethnic violence in the state. About the adjournment motion:- An adjournment motion is introduced in the Parliament to draw the attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance. It needs the support of 50 members to be admitted. It is done after obtaining the Speaker’s consent. (UPSC CSE: Adjournment sine die) It is introduced only in the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha Rule Book does not provide for an adjournment motion. It is regarded as an extraordinary device as it interrupts the normal business of the House. Notice of an adjournment motion is required to be given before 10 am on the day on which the motion is proposed. If the adjournment motion is accepted, the House adjourns after voting. (Delegated Legislation) The adoption of an adjournment motion is seen as a censure of the government. However, there is no compulsion on the government to resign. Restrictions for moving an adjournment motion:- It must raise a matter which is definite, factual, urgent and of public importance. It must not cover more than one matter. It must be restricted to a specific matter of recent occurrence. It must not raise a question of privilege. It must not revive discussion on a matter that has been discussed in the same session. It must not deal with any matter that is under adjudication of court. It must not raise any question that can be raised on a distinct motion. The discussion on this motion should last for not less than two hours and thirty minutes. MUST READ: Privilege Motion SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the election to the President of India: (2023) The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, the higher the value of the vote of each MLA of that State. The value of the vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala. The value of the vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) Syllabus Prelims – Polity Context: Recently, the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) has written to the Manipur DGP, seeking FIR against three persons. Background:- An FIR has been filed against Communist Party of India (Marxist) leader Politburo member Subhashini Ali, Tarun Bharatiya of Meghalaya, and Kamaludeen M from Tamil Nadu for posting photographs of a minor that they alleged was involved in the incident on May 4 in which two women were paraded naked. About the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR):- IMAGE SOURCE: twitter.com Establishment: 2007. HQ: New Delhi. Ministry: Ministry of Women and Child Development. ( NCPCR) It is a statutory body established under the Commission for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005. Mandate: to ensure that all laws, policies, programs and administrative systems conform to the vision of the rights of the child as enunciated in the Constitution of India as well as the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child. Definition of a child as per NCPCR: A child is defined as a person falling in the age group of 0 to 18 years. Functions of NCPCR:- Examine and review the safeguards provided by or under any law for the protection of child rights and recommend measures for their effective implementation. Inquire into violation of child rights and recommend initiation of proceedings. Examine all factors that inhibit the enjoyment of rights of children affected by terrorism, natural disasters, domestic violence, HIV/AIDS, trafficking, prostitution etc. and recommend appropriate remedial measures. (Sexual intent is key to POCSO Act: SC) Look into the matters relating to the children in need of special care and protection. Study treaties and other international instruments. Undertake a periodical review of existing policies, programmes and other activities on child rights. Spread child rights literacy among various sections of society. Promote awareness of the safeguards available for the protection of these rights through publications, the media, seminars and other available means. Inspect or cause to be inspected any juveniles custodial home, or any other place of residence or institution meant for children, under the control of the Central Government or any State Government or any other authority. Analyze existing law, policy and practice. Present to the Central Government annually and at such other intervals as the Commission may deem fit, reports upon the working of those safeguards. Undertake formal investigation where concern has been expressed either by the children themselves or by a concerned person on their behalf. Compile and analyze data on children. (UPSC CSE: Portal ‘Bal Swaraj) Promote the incorporation of child rights into the school curriculum, training of teachers or personnel dealing with children. Powers of NCPCR:- The Commission, while inquiring into any matter under Section 13(1)(j) of CPCR Act, 2005 has all the powers of a civil court trying a suit under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 and, in particular, in respect of the following matters, namely:- summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person and examining him on oath. discovery and production of any document. receiving evidence on affidavits. requisitioning any public record or copy thereof from any court or office. issuing commissions for the examination of witnesses or documents. The Commission also has the power to forward any case to a Magistrate having jurisdiction to try the same The Magistrate to whom any such case is forwarded shall proceed to hear the complaint against the accused as if the case has been forwarded to him under section 346 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974). MUST READ: Child Marriage in India SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following organizations/ bodies in India: (2023) The National Commission for Backward Classes The National Human Rights Commission The National Law Commission The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider the following statements: (2023) Within a State, the notification of an area as a Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block. The Chief Ministers Of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Mhadei Wildlife Sanctuary Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: The Goa bench of the Bombay High Court has directed the Goa government to notify the Mhadei Wildlife Sanctuary as a tiger reserve. About Mhadei Wildlife Sanctuary:- IMAGE SOURCE: The Times of India Location: in the northeast of Goa, in the taluka of Sattari. Its official declaration as a wildlife preserve came in 1999. The Mhadei River, known downstream as the Mandovi River, the lifeline of the state of Goa, originates in Karnataka, passes through the Mhadei Wildlife Sanctuary and meets the Arabian Sea at Panaji in Goa. The whole sanctuary acts as a catchment for the river. Prominent Waterfalls: Vazra Sakla Falls and the Virdi Falls. The cliff face near the Vazra Falls is notable for being the nesting grounds of the critically endangered Long-billed vultures. (Wildlife Protection) It has been declared an International Bird Area because of the presence of the Nilgiri wood pigeon, Malabar parakeet, Malabar grey hornbill, Grey-headed Bulbul, Rufous babbler, White-bellied blue-flycatcher and Crimson-backed sunbird. The three highest peaks in Goa are situated in the hill ranges of the sanctuary. They are Sonsogod (1027 mts), Talavche Sada (812 mts) and Vageri (725 mts). Flora:- The area of the sanctuary is thickly forested with moist deciduous vegetation and some evergreen species The sanctuary is particularly well known for its sacred groves that protect rare and indigenous trees. Fauna:- Commonly seen animals: Indian gaur, Barking deer, Sambar deer, Asian palm civet, small Indian civet, Wild boar, Indian hare, Ruddy mongoose, Black-faced langur and Bonnet macaque. Rarely seen: Black Panther, Sloth bear, Leopard, Tiger, Dhole, Jungle cat, Mouse deer, Giant squirrel, Flying squirrel, Indian pangolin and the Slender loris. MUST READ: Anamalai Tiger Reserve SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements (2023) Statement-I: The soil in tropical rainforests is rich in nutrients. Statement-II: The high temperature and moisture of tropical rainforests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements is correct? (2020) It is spread over two districts. There is no human habitation inside the Park. It is one of the natural habitats of the Great Indian Bustard. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mains: A big step in reducing the risk of disasters Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Disaster Management) Context: The world needs to do more to prevent the risk of losses from all disasters, whether they are weather-related, earthquakes, or biological ones like COVID-19. About a Disaster: A disaster refers to a significant disturbance in the normal functioning of a community, leading to human, material, economic, and environmental damages that surpass the community’s capacity to manage. It results from the combination of hazards, conditions of vulnerability and insufficient capacity or measures to reduce the potential negative consequences of risk. Classification of Disasters On the Basis of Source Natural Disasters: They are caused by natural phenomena (meteorological, geological or even biological origin). Examples of natural disasters are cyclones, tsunamis, earthquakes and volcanic eruptions, which are exclusively of natural origin. Landslides, floods, drought, fires are socio-natural disasters since their causes are both natural and manmade. Anthropogenic Disasters: They occur due to human intervention or negligence. These are associated with industries or energy generation facilities and include explosions, leakage of toxic waste, pollution, dam failure, wars or civil strife etc. On the Basis of Duration Rapid Onset Disasters: They are characterised by the sudden and acute intensity of the impact during a short period. Earthquakes, cyclones, floods, tsunamis would fall under the category of rapid onset disasters. Slow Onset Disasters: Also termed as ‘Creeping Emergencies’, can be predicted much further in advance and unfold over months or even years. Climate change (global warming), desertification, soil degradation, and droughts, would fall under the category of slow onset disasters. Disasters around the world Disasters around the world are claiming more and more lives. The consequences of climate change are already on our doorstep. Recently, three continents were gripped by heat waves. Massive forest fires have ravaged parts of Greece and Canada. Two weeks ago, the river Yamuna breached the highest flood level, recorded 45 years ago, and inundated parts of Delhi. Sendai Framework 2015-2030 The Sendai Framework works hand in hand with the other 2030 Agenda agreements, including the Paris Agreement on Climate Change, The Addis Ababa Action Agenda on Financing for Development, the New Urban Agenda, and ultimately the SDG It was endorsed by the UN General Assembly following the 2015 Third UN World Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction (WCDRR). It advocates for the substantial reduction of disaster risk and losses in lives, livelihoods, and health and in the economic, physical, social, cultural, and environmental assets of persons, businesses, communities, and countries. State has the primary role to reduce disaster risk but that responsibility should be shared with other stakeholders including local government, the private sector, and other stakeholders. Challenges to Disaster Risk Reduction Mechanism The lack of competent financial risk management and insurance has provided a fertile breeding ground for these risks to proliferate and intensify. There is also a scarcity of investment in a development-oriented approach that unites all parties into a transparent framework of action at the national level. Significant difficulty in collecting and analysing data on hazards and exposures. The lack of technical and institutional capacity for risk assessment and modelling. Achieving comprehensive coverage of disaster risks. Impacts of Disaster: Loss of Economy and Infrastructure: Disaster results in huge economic loss due to destruction of property, human settlements etc. Loss of Biodiversity: Disaster can change the natural environment, loss of habitat to many plants and animals and cause ecological stress that can result in biodiversity loss. Scarcity of basic necessities: Post- disasters, food, water and other natural resources become scarce resulting in food and water scarcity. Increase in Inequality: The disaster results in displacement of people and displaced populations often face several challenges in new settlements, in this process, they become poorer. Psychological Impact: Disaster increases the level of vulnerability and affects psychologically too. Disaster Management in India National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) Initiatives by India Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI): Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) was first proposed by India during the 2016 Asian Ministerial Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction held in New Delhi. India is taking the lead and offering the expertise of Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (DRI) to its friendly countries. Humanitarian Aid and Disaster Relief (HADR) operations: Indian defence forces, under the aegis of Headquarters Integrated Defence Staff (HQ IDS) have been carrying out HADR operations within the country as well as outside the country to deepen coordination with its neighbours and friendly countries with a focus on sharing expertise and building capabilities. India’s initiative at G20 – Disaster Risk Reduction Working Group: India has established the first G20 Disaster Risk Reduction Working Group. Countries that make up the G20 hold around 85% of the global GDP and about two-thirds of the world population. As human vulnerability to disasters is strongly linked to economic decisions, the G20 is in a unique position to chart a new path of disaster risk-informed decision-making. Way Forward: Early Warning System: There is a need to work on receiving early warnings as much as possible, which helps in mitigating the disasters. High Budget Allocation: High allocation of budget and resources are necessary to take mitigating actions and after-effect actions. Resilient Infrastructure: It should be focused on to prevent extreme situations. Transparency: Transparency mechanisms should include transparency boards, clearly mentioning the cost, quality and quantity of relief items, social audits and citizens’ reports. Awareness and Knowledge: Awareness is the best practice that can prevent and reduce the impact of disasters. Traditional and modern knowledge both should be spread and implied to mitigate the impacts of disasters. Example: The tribal communities in India adopt low-cost traditional technologies that help them mitigate the impact of natural disasters like drought. Source: The Hindu Gig workers and gig economy Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: Recently the Rajasthan government passed the Rajasthan Platform Based Gig Workers (Registration and Welfare) Bill, 2023. Highlights of the bill: Registration of a gig worker: The Bill states any person has the right to be registered the minute they join an app-based platform, regardless of the duration of work or how many providers they work for. The Bill applies to: “Aggregators” (digital intermediaries connecting buyers and sellers) and “Primary employers” (individual or organisations engaging platform-based workers). Welfare Board: The Bill proposes a Welfare Board comprising State officials, five representatives each from gig workers and aggregators, and two others from civil society. The Board will set up a welfare fund, register platform-based gig workers, aggregators and primary employers, facilitate guarantee of social security to platform-based gig workers and to provide for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. The Board will maintain a database of companies and workers and each worker will receive a unique ID, which “shall be valid in perpetuity. Social Security and Welfare Fund: According to the Bill, the Board will create a “Social Security and Welfare Fund”. The fund will comprise of contributions made by individual workers, State government aids, other sources and a ‘welfare cess’ — a cut from each transaction — which the aggregator is required to pay. Grievance redressal: Gig workers “have an opportunity to be heard for any grievances” with “entitlements, payments and benefits provided under the Act.” As per the bill, a worker can file a petition physically before an officer or online through the web portal. The employer can object to the order within 90 days before an ‘Appellate Authority’. Gig Economy in India: The gig economy is about individual workers carrying out tasks for clients through the intermediation of a platform attributing those tasks and taking care of the transfer of payment on a task-by-task basis. In 2020, 7.7 million workers were engaged in the gig economy. The gig workforce is expected to expand to 23.5 million workers by 2029-30. At present about 47% of the gig, work is in medium skilled jobs, about 22% in high skilled and about 31% in low skilled jobs. Trend shows the concentration of workers in medium skills is gradually declining and that of the low skilled and high skilled is increasing. Gig workers: NITI Aayog defines ‘gig workers’ as those engaged in work outside of the traditional employer-employee arrangement. NITI Aayog’s report titled ‘India’s Booming Gig and Platform Economy’ defines a gig worker as “someone who engages in income-earning activities outside of a traditional employer-employee relationship, as well as in the informal sector”. Additionally, it defines those working with platforms such as Ola, Uber, Dunzo, Swiggy, Zomato and Urban Company as platform workers. Challenges faced by gig workers: Hurdle in growth of full time employee: While not all employers are inclined to hire contracted employees, the gig economy trend can make it harder for full-time employees to develop in their careers since temporary employees are often cheaper to hire and more flexible in their availability. Work-life balance: For some workers, the flexibility of working gigs can actually disrupt the work-life balance, sleep patterns, and activities of daily life Can replace Full time employees: The number of full-time employees required by the company can be reduced as freelance workers take over the work. No job security: In effect, workers in a gig economy are more like entrepreneurs than traditional workers. While this may mean greater freedom of choice for the individual worker, it also means that the security of a steady job with regular pay and benefits. No regular job benefits: Many employers save money by avoiding paying benefits such as health coverage and paid vacation time. Because there is no formal employment relationship with the platform company, there are usually no employee benefits in short-term contracts, which are less guaranteed than full-time and part-time jobs, and are difficult to write on resumes. Steps Taken by Government of India for Gig Workers: Code of Social Security, 2020: The Government has formulated the Code on Social Security, 2020 that envisages framing of suitable social security schemes for gig workers and platform workers on matters relating to life and disability cover, accident insurance, health and maternity benefits, old age protection, etc. However, these provisions under the Code have not come into force. Platform workers are those whose work is based on online software apps or digital platforms. Non-platform gig workers are generally casual wageworkers and own-account workers in the conventional sectors, working part-time or full time. e-Shram Portal: The Government has also launched e-Shram portal in 2021 for registration and creation of a Comprehensive National Database of Unorganized Workers including gig workers and platform workers. It allows a person to register himself or herself on the portal on a self-declaration basis, which is spread across around 400 occupations. Way Forward: Gig Economy has the potential to create jobs for India’s large workforce, especially the low-skilled workers. The Government must take appropriate steps to support the expansion of gig economy and platforms. At the same time, the interests of the gig workers must be protected to provide them with just work conditions as well as social security benefits. Achieving the balance will need some effort from all stakeholders. Source:   Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Institution Ministry 1.National Dairy Development Board Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying 2.University Grants Commission Ministry of Women and Child Development 3.National Commission for Protection of Child Rights Ministry of Education How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Mhadei Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Cochin. Statement-II: Vazra Sakla Falls and Virdi Falls are located in this sanctuary. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: An adjournment motion needs the support of 50 members to be admitted. Statement-II: It is introduced only in the Lok Sabha. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Mains Practice Questions Q.1) What can be done to prevent the risk of losses from all disasters, whether they are weather-related or biological? Highlight India’s initiative at G20 for the Disaster Risk Reduction. (250 words) Q.2) Discuss the role of ‘Gig Economy’ in the process of empowerment of women in India. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 26th July 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 25th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – d Q.3) -b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 26th July 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS2 Questions [26th July, 2023] – Day 45

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 45 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –25th July 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Tele MANAS Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: The Tele Mental Health Assistance and Networking across States (Tele MANAS), helpline has reached a significant milestone. Background:- Over 200,000 calls received on the Tele-MANAS Helpline since its launch in October 2022. Over 42 functional Tele MANAS Cells across 31 States and UTs, the service is currently catering to 1,300+ calls per day in 20 languages. About Tele Mental Health Assistance and Networking across States (Tele MANAS):- IMAGE SOURCE: MOHFW.GOV.IN Launched: 2022. Ministry: Ministry of Health & Family Welfare. Acknowledging the mental health crisis in the wake of the COVID-19 pandemic and an urgent need to establish a digital mental health network that will withstand the challenges amplified by the pandemic, the Government of India announced National Tele Mental Health Programme (NTMHP) in the Union Budget 2022-23. Objectives of Tele MANAS:- To enable people to seek support for their mental health issues while maintaining the anonymity of the callers, thereby reducing the stigma generally surrounding mental health issues. To exponentially scale up the reach of mental health services to anybody who reaches out, across India, any time, by setting up a 24×7 tele-mental health facility in each of the States and UTs of the country To implement a full-fledged mental health-service network that, in addition to counselling, provides integrated medical and psychosocial interventions including video consultations with mental health specialists, e-prescriptions, follow-up services and linkages to in-person services. To extend services to vulnerable groups of the population and difficult-to-reach populations. Salient Features of Tele MANAS:- Tele MANAS will be organized as a two-tier system. (Tele-MANAS) Tier 1: comprise the State Tele MANAS cells, which include trained counsellors and mental health specialists. Tier 2: comprise specialists at District Mental Health Programme (DMHP)/Medical College resources for physical consultation and/or e Sanjeevani for audio-visual consultation. Toll-free helpline numbers: 14416 or 1-800-891-4416 with multi-language provision allows callers to select the language of their choice for availing the services. ( Address Stigma and Discrimination in Mental Health) Eligibility:- Any individual with mental health issues can reach out to Tele MANAS services for help. Family members of persons with mental health issues can reach out for help. Grass-root health care providers/community health providerse., Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHAs), and community volunteers from the community can reach out to Tele MANAS on behalf of an individual or individuals in that community with mental health issues. MUST READ: Need for stronger mental health strategy SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: India’s public sector healthcare System largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care. Statement-II: Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q.2) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming. to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Cyber security Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently, the National Security Advisor (NSA) Ajit Doval participated in the Friends of BRICS meeting in Johannesburg and discussed the issue of cyber security. Background:- In addition to BRICS, the Friends of BRICS countries, which participated, are Belarus, Burundi, Iran, UAE, Saudi Arabia, Egypt, Kazakhstan, and Cuba. ( BRICS) About Cyber security:- IMAGE SOURCE: cyberin90.blogspot.com Cyber Security is protecting cyberspace including critical information infrastructure from cyberattacks, damage, misuse and economic espionage. (Cyber Security) A cyberattack is an attempt to gain illegal access to a computer system to cause damage.(Cyberattacks) Mode of cyberattack: It can occur on any modern digital device. Impact: can range from an inconvenience for an individual to global economic and social disruption.  Common cyber threats:- Malware: It is any kind of software that is designed to cause damage to a single computer, server, or computer network. Examples: Ransomware, Spyware, Worms, viruses, and Trojans are all varieties of malware. Spoofing: Cybercriminals try impersonating a bank’s URL with a website that is quite similar to the original one and has similar functions as well. (Cybersecurity & Banks) Phishing: it is attempting to obtain sensitive information such as credit card details, etc. for fraudulent activities, by disguising oneself as an authentic, trustworthy entity via electronic communication Denial of Service attacks: It is an attack meant to shut down a machine or network, making it inaccessible to its intended users. Man-in-the-middle (MitM) attacks: They occur when attackers insert themselves into a two-party transaction. Once the attackers interrupt the traffic, they can filter and steal data. Structured Query Language (SQL) Injection: SQL stands for a programming language used to communicate with databases. Many of the servers that store critical data for websites and services use SQL to manage the data in their databases. A SQL injection attack specifically targets such kinds of servers, using malicious code to get the server to divulge information it normally would not. Need for Cyber Security:- Others can inappropriately use for Individuals Photos, videos and other personal information shared by an individual on social networking sites. This can further lead to serious and even life-threatening incidents. For Business Organizations: Companies have a lot of data and information on their systems. A cyber-attack may lead to loss of competitive information (such as patents or original work) and loss of employees’/customers’ private data. This may result in a complete loss of public trust in the integrity of the organization. For Government: A local, state or central government maintains a huge amount of confidential data related to the country and its citizens. Unauthorized access to the data can lead to serious threats to national security. International Mechanisms for Cybersecurity:- The International Telecommunication Union (ITU): plays a leading role in cyber security issues. ITU: a specialized agency within the United Nations with a role of standardization and development of telecommunications and dealing with cyber security issues. Budapest Convention on Cybercrime: It is an international treaty that seeks to address Internet and computer crime (cybercrime) by harmonizing national laws, improving investigative techniques, and increasing cooperation among nations. It came into force in India is not a signatory to this convention. Internet Governance Forum (IGF): It brings together all stakeholders i.e. government, private sector and civil society on the Internet governance debate. It was first convened in October–November 2006. Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN): It is a non-profit organization responsible for coordinating the maintenance and procedures of several databases related to the namespaces and numerical spaces of the Internet, ensuring the network’s stable and secure operation. HQ: Los Angeles, U.S.A. Cyber Security Laws in India:- Information Technology Act, 2000: The act regulates the use of computers, computer systems, computer networks and also data and information in electronic format. The act lists the following as offences:- Tampering with computer source documents. Hacking with a computer system. Act of cyber terrorisme. accessing a protected system with the intention of threatening the unity, integrity, sovereignty or security of a country. Cheating using computer resources Strategies under National Cyber Policy, 2013: For creating mechanisms for security threats and responses to the same through national systems and processes. National Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-in): functions as the nodal agency for coordination of all cyber security efforts, emergency responses, and crisis management. National Critical Information Infrastructure Protection Centre (NCIIPC): nodal agency for the protection and resilience of critical information infrastructure. It has been created under the Information Technology Act, of 2000. Objective: to secure India’s critical information infrastructure. HQ: New Delhi. Challenges in Cyber Security in India:- Increased use of mobile technology and internet by people. Proliferation of the Internet of Things (IoT) without a proper security infrastructure. Lack of awareness on Cyber security. Lack of Cyber security specialists. Increased use of cyberspace by terrorists. Recent Steps Taken by Government:- Cyber Surakshit Bharat Initiative:- Launched: 2018. Objective: to spread awareness about cybercrime and build capacity for safety measures for Chief Information Security Officers (CISOs) and frontline IT staff across all government departments. National Cyber Security Coordination Centre (NCCC): Launched: 2017. Objective: to scan internet traffic and communication metadata. Cyber Swachhta Kendra: Launched: 2017. Objective: this platform was introduced for internet users to clean their computers and devices by wiping out viruses and malware. Information Security Education and Awareness Project (ISEA): a project to raise awareness and to provide research, education and training in the field of Information Security. MUST READ: India’s cyber infrastructure SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following? (2023) Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units Create meaningful short stories and songs Disease diagnosis Text-to-speech conversion Wireless transmission of electrical energy Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, 3 and 5 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2, 4, and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) The terms ‘Wanna Cry, Petya and Eternal Blue’ sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to (2023) Exo-planets Crypto-currency Cyber attacks Mini satellites National Geoscience Awards-2022 Syllabus Prelims –Important Awards Context: The President of India, presented National Geoscience Awards-2022 in New Delhi recently. Key Highlights of the Award Ceremony:- Twenty-two geoscientists, including two women, were awarded. The National Geoscience Award for Lifetime Achievement was conferred upon Dr Om Narain Bhargava, well known for his pioneering work in the Himalayas spanning over the last four decades. The National Young Geoscientist Award was presented to Dr Amiya Kumar Samal, who is Assistant Professor at Banaras Hindu University. He has made a significant contribution to understanding the variation of the sub-continental lithospheric mantle below different Archean cratons of the Indian shield. About National Geoscience Awards-2022:- Instituted in 1966 The awards are given annually. Ministry: Ministry of Mines. National Geoscience Awards -2022) Objective: to honour individuals and teams for achievements and contributions in various fields of geosciences. Broad Disciplines of the National Geoscience Awards:- Mineral Discovery & Exploration Mining, Mineral Beneficiation & Sustainable Mineral Development Basic Geosciences Applied Geosciences Award’s Decoration:- Each award would be in the form of a Certificate and a Cash Prize. The Cash Prize would be as under: National Geoscience Award for Lifetime Achievement: 5, 00,000. National Geoscience Award: 3, 00,000. [In case of a team award, the award money will be equally divided.] National Young Geoscientist Award: 1,00,000/ plus a research grant of Rs. 5,00,000 spread over five years subject to satisfactory yearly progress The Award money is exempt from Income Tax under Section (10) (17A) of the Income Tax Act, 1961. MUST READ: Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Award (PBSA) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Syllabus Prelims –Important Organizations Context: Recently, The Directorate General of Civil Aviation has adopted guidelines for environmental protection developed by the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO). Background:- These guidelines are to promote sustainable aviation practices and reduce greenhouse gas emissions from the aviation sector. (UPSC CSE: International Solar Alliance) Minister of State for the Ministry of Civil Aviation Gen. (Dr) V. K. Singh informed this in a written reply in the Rajya Sabha recently. About International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO):- Establishment: 1944. HQ: Quebec, Canada. The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) is a specialized funding agency of the United Nations. Objective: to help countries share their skies to their mutual benefit. Membership: It has 193 Member States. India is one of ICAO’s founder members, having attended the Chicago Convention. Functions of ICAO:- It changes the principles and techniques of international air navigation. It fosters the planning and development of international air transport to ensure safe and orderly growth. It adopts standards and recommended practices concerning air navigation, its infrastructure, flight inspection, prevention of unlawful interference, and facilitation of border-crossing procedures for international civil aviation. It defines the protocols for air accident investigation that are followed by transport safety authorities in countries signatory to the Chicago Convention on International Civil Aviation. ( DGCA) MUST READ: Reforms In Civil Aviation Industry SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following infrastructure sectors: (2023) Affordable housing Mass rapid transport Healthcare Renewable energy On how many of the above do UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiatives focus on its investments. Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) The “Common Carbon Metric” supported by UNEP, has been developed for (2022) Assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world Enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading Enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries Assessing the overall carbon footprint caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit of time India Climate Energy Dashboard (ICED) 3.0 Syllabus Prelims –Governance/Environment & Ecology Context: Recently, NITI Aayog released the India Climate Energy Dashboard (ICED) 3.0. About India Climate Energy Dashboard (ICED) 3.0:- It is India’s one-stop platform for near real-time data on the energy sector, climate, and related economic datasets based on government-published sources. Developed by: NITI Aayog in collaboration with the energy and climate think-tank Vasudha Foundation. ICED provides Near Real-Time Data with in-built Analytics to track Climate Action Progress. (Climate Change & Natural Gas Sector) Salient Features of (ICED) 3.0:- It is developed as a user-friendly platform. It enables users to freely access and analyze datasets using an analytical engine. It will facilitate insights and enhance understanding of the energy and climate sectors. (Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI)) The Portal will draw insights from the available data parameters. This dashboard offers more than 500 parameters, over 2000 infographics, and a number of interactive visualizations, allowing users to gain a holistic understanding of India’s energy sector. The dashboard also offers information on economy and demography for comparative study and its combined analysis along with the energy and climate issues. MUST READ: Renewable Energy Transition SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2023) Aerosols Foam agents Fire retardants Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) With reference to the role of biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture Systems, consider the following statements: (2023) Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed. Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate. Biofilters increase phosphorus as a nutrient for fish in water. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Mains: Gaganyaan Human Spaceflight Mission Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Science and Technology) Context: The Gaganyaan Human Spaceflight Mission was successfully tested by ISRO at the ISRO Propulsion Complex (IPRC) in Mahendragiri, Tamil Nadu. About Gaganyaan Mission: Three people from the crew will be sent into a 400-kilometer orbit for a three-day mission, and they will be brought safely down to Earth with a landing in the Indian Ocean planned. This manned mission will be the first of ISRO’s human spaceflight missions. The US, Russia and China are the only three countries to have conducted human spaceflights yet. It is launched by ISRO’s Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle GSLV Mk III (3 stages heavy-lift vehicle). Significance of Gaganyaan Mission India’s goal of attaining self-reliance: It will support the Make in India Initiative’s capacity development for satellite launches as well as India’s goal of achieving self-reliance in accordance with Atma Nirbhar Bharat’s vision. It will lessen India’s reliance on outside assistance in this area. Focus on regional needs: Gaganyaan will concentrate on regional demands because there may not be enough International Space Stations (ISS) to meet all of the world’s needs. Strengthening international ties: Through the exchange of ambitious yet peaceful goals, the initiative will promote international partnerships and global security. R&D and robotics program: It will also advance scientific and technological research and development, particularly in the field of space. It is consistent with India’s advancements toward a long-term, reasonably priced program for robotic and human exploration of the solar system and beyond. Challenges: Environmental Hazards: Hostile space environment with a lack of gravity and atmosphere and danger of radiation. Astronauts may have medical issues due to: Microgravity: Transition from one gravity field to another affects hand-eye and head-eye coordination leading to orientation-loss, vision, muscle strength, aerobic capacity, etc. Isolation: Behavioural issues are likely to crop up when astronauts are confined into small spaces and have to rely on limited resources. They may encounter depression, cabin fever, fatigue, sleep disorder and other psychiatric disorders. Artificial atmosphere: There are two choices for an artificial atmosphere, either an Earth-like mixture of oxygen in inert gas or pure oxygen. A pure or concentrated oxygen atmosphere is toxic and has fire risk, especially in ground operations. Aerospace Technology Challenges: Space flight requires much higher velocities than air transportation. Travelling in a rocket is like sitting on an exploding bomb with a speed increasing from 0 to over 25,000 km per hour in a few minutes. Anything may go wrong during the launch and pre and post phases, including the explosion of the rocket. Way forward: In terms of space technology, a manned space programme, ‘Gaganyaan’s success will put India into the elite club of space superpowers. It will help India to put a step forward in developing its own space station. It is important to overcome the technological challenges to ensure a safe, successful manned space mission. International collaboration is important for acquiring needed technology. Source:  Hindustan Times Must read:  India’s private sector in Space Marine heat waves Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Geography) Context: In April 2023, the average daily global sea surface temperature reached 21.1 degrees Celsius, breaking the previous record of 21 degrees Celsius in 2016. Since then, ocean temperatures have remained at record-high levels, giving rise to marine heat waves (MHWs) around the globe. At present, MHWs have gripped the north-east Pacific, the southern hemisphere in the southern Indian Ocean and the Pacific, the north-east Atlantic, tropical North Atlantic, and the Mediterranean. About marine heatwaves (MHWs): A marine heat wave is often characterised as a coherent region of extremely warm sea surface temperature that lasts for days to months. Marine heat waves occur when sea temperatures are higher than usual for a lengthy period. Over the last decade, MHWs have been recorded in all major ocean basins. These occurrences are connected to coral bleaching, seagrass damage, and kelp forest loss, all of which have a negative impact on the fishing industry. According to a study, during the May 2020 maritime heatwave, 85 percent of the corals in the Gulf of Mannar on the Tamil Nadu coast bleached. Causes of marine heatwaves: Summer/ winters: Heatwaves can occur in both the summer and the winter, when they are referred to as “winter warm-spells.” These winter occurrences can have serious repercussions, such as in Australia’s southeast, where the spiny sea urchin can only colonies farther south when winter temperatures top 12 °C. Ocean Currents: The most common source of marine heat waves is ocean currents, which may build up patches of warm water and air-sea heat flux, or warming via the ocean surface from the atmosphere. Winds: Sunlight normally penetrates the atmosphere and heats the ocean’s surface. When there are light winds, the warm water does not mix with the cooler water below. It floats on the surface of the water and continues to heat up, resulting in marine heat waves. Climate Change: Large-scale climate influences such as the El Nino Southern Oscillation (ENSO) can too cause marine heatwaves. Impact of marine heat waves on ocean life Fish kills: Although an increase of 3 or 4 degrees Celsius in average temperatures may not be much for humans, it can be catastrophic for marine life. For instance, MHWs along the Western Australian coast during the summer of 2010 and 2011 caused some “devastating” fish kills. Destruction of Kelp forest: A different study revealed that the same MHWs destroyed kelp forests and fundamentally altered the ecosystem of the coast. Kelps usually grow in cooler waters, providing habitat and food for many marine animals. Coral bleaching: High ocean temperatures in the tropical Atlantic and Caribbean in 2005 led to a massive coral bleaching event. A 2010 study showed that more than 80 per cent of surveyed corals had bleached and over 40 per cent of the total surveyed had died. Growth of Invasive alien species: MHWs also fuel the growth of invasive alien species, which can be destructive to marine food webs. Change in behavior of species: They force species to change their behaviour in a way that puts wildlife at increased risk of harm. MHWs have been linked to whale entanglements in fishing gear, according to a report by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). Impact of marine heat waves on humans High intensity of storms: Higher ocean temperatures, which are associated with MHWs, can make storms like hurricanes and tropical cyclones stronger. With warmer temperatures, the rate of evaporation escalates and so does the transfer of heat from the oceans to the air. When storms travel across hot oceans, they gather more water vapour and heat. This results in more powerful winds, heavier rainfall and more flooding when storms reach the land — meaning heightened devastation for humans. Loss of food and livelihood: Half a billion people depend on reefs for food, income, and protection. So when MHWs destroy these reefs, humans relying on them also bear the brunt. Way Forward: Since the frequency, intensity, and area covered by the marine heatwaves are increasing, it is needed to enhance the ocean observational arrays to monitor these events accurately, and update our weather models to skilfully predict the challenges presented by a warming world. Effective responses to MHWs require action from a broad range of stakeholders: such as policymakers, researchers, the private sector conservationists, and civil society. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs:                   Conventions                         Related to 1. Chicago Convention Civil Aviation 2. Budapest Convention Cybercrime 3. Berne Convention copyright law   How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: India is a signatory to the Budapest Convention. Statement-II: National Critical Information Infrastructure Protection Centre (NCIIPC) is the nodal agency for the protection and resilience of critical information infrastructure. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: India Climate Energy Dashboard (ICED) 3.0 will facilitate insights and enhance understanding of the energy and climate sectors. Statement-II: NITI Aayog develops it in collaboration with Vasudha Foundation. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Mains Practice Questions Q.1) What are ‘marine heatwaves’? Discuss what causes such waves and their ecological impact. (250 words) Q.2) What is the importance of Gaganyaan mission to India? Discuss various challenges related to the mission. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 25th July 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 24th July – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – b

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 25th July 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions To take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS2 Questions [25th July, 2023] – Day 44

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day 44 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best