Oct 10, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 10th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) SHRESHTA (Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas) Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: The expenditure under the Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas (SHRESHTA) from 2020-21 to 2023-24 was released recently. About SHRESHTA (Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas):- Launched: June 2022. Ministry: Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. Objective: for the purpose of providing seats for the meritorious SC boys and girls in the best private residential schools in the country. Salient Features:- This scheme was launched for Scheduled Castes, as they have faced historical injustices in a hierarchical society and education is the most powerful tool to empower them as a community. The scheme will provide a level playing field to the poor and meritorious SC students. (New National Education Policy) It aims to enhance the reach of development Intervention of the Government and to fill the gap in service-deficient SCs dominant areas, in the sector of education through the efforts of grant-in-aid institutions (run by NGOs) and residential high schools offering high-quality education and provide the environment for socio-economic upliftment and overall development of the Scheduled Castes (SCs). Modes of implementation:- The scheme is being implemented in two Modes:- SHRESHTA schools:- Under this, each year a specified number of meritorious SC students in States/UTs will be selected through the National Entrance Test for SHRESHTA (NETS) to be conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA). These would be admitted to the best private residential schools affiliated by the CBSE/State Board in classes 9th and 11th for completion of education till 12th standard. Selection of schools: Best performing CBSE-based private residential schools, having more than 75% pass percentage for classes 10 and 12 for the last three years are selected by a Committee for admission of selected students. Eligibility/Selection of students: Approx 3000 (1500 for 9th class and 1500 for class 11th tentative) SC students, whose parent’s annual income is up to 2.5 lakh, are selected every year under the Scheme through a national-level test conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA). The choices of schools shall be offered to the students in accordance with their merit. (Education & Nation Building) NGO/VO-operated Schools/Hostels: These include EXISTING COMPONENT, Guidelines hereinafter applicable only for Mode 2 of the Scheme, Schools/Hostels. These are run by VOs/NGOs and other organizations having higher classes (up to class 12) and who have been receiving Grant-in-aid will be continued, subject to satisfactory performance. MUST READ: Gender gap in education SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centers within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places, and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’? (2017) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations the government’s education system and local communities. Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power. Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them. Afghanistan Earthquake Syllabus Prelims – GEOGRAPHY Context: A 6.3 magnitude earthquake struck about 40km from the western city of Herat, Afghanistan recently. Background:- In Afghanistan, the death toll from strong earthquakes has risen to over 2,400 as search and rescue efforts continue amid reports that some people may be trapped under collapsed buildings. About Earthquake:- An earthquake is the shaking or trembling of the earth’s surface. It is caused by the seismic waves or earthquake waves that are generated due to a sudden movement (sudden release of energy) in the earth’s crust (shallow-focus earthquakes) or upper mantle (some shallow-focus and all intermediate and deep-focus earthquakes). A seismograph, or seismometer, is an instrument used to detect and record earthquakes. Hypocentre/Focus: The point where the energy is released. Epicentre: The point on the surface directly above the focus. Isoseismic line: A line connecting all points on the surface where the intensity is the same. Causes of Earthquakes:- Fault Zones Plate tectonics Volcanic activity Human-Induced Earthquakes Types of Earthquakes:- Tectonic Earthquakes The most common ones are tectonic earthquakes. The Earth is made of four basic layers (generally three): a solid crust, a hot, nearly solid mantle, a liquid outer core, and a solid inner core. Tectonic plates (Lithospheric plates) are constantly shifting as they drift around on the viscous, or slowly flowing, mantle layer below. When tectonic plates move, it also causes movements at the (Anatolian Plate) Thus, the slipping of land along the faultline along convergent, divergent and transform boundaries causes earthquakes. Volcanic Earthquake Earthquakes produced by stress changes in solid rock due to the injection or withdrawal of magma (molten rock) are called volcano earthquakes. ( Volcano) Human Induced Earthquakes In areas of intense mining activity, sometimes the roofs of underground mines collapse causing minor tremors. These are called collapse earthquakes. Ground shaking may also occur due to the explosion of chemical or nuclear devices. Such tremors are called explosion earthquakes. MUST READ: Reimagining Disaster Management SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency Q.2) consider the following statements: (2020) Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only. Only some cyclones develop an eye. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10°C less than that of the surroundings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 only National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: Union Home Minister and Minister of Cooperation addressed the 89th General Council meeting of the National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) in New Delhi recently. About National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC):- Establishment: 1963. Ministry: Ministry of Cooperation. HQ: New Delhi. The National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) was established by an Act of Parliament in 1963 as a statutory Corporation. Organization & Management:- The Management vests in 51 members widely represented General Council to give shape to its policies and programmes and the Board of Management with 12 members to cater to day-to-day activities. Functions:- Planning, promoting, and financing programmes for the production, processing, marketing, storage, export, and import of agricultural produce, foodstuff, and certain other notified commodities e.g. fertilizers, insecticides, agricultural machinery, lac, soap, kerosene oil, textile, rubber, etc. Supply of consumer goods and collection, processing, marketing, storage, and export of minor forest produce through cooperatives, besides income generating stream of activities such as poultry, dairy, fishery, sericulture, handloom, etc. Assist different types of cooperatives and to expand its financial base. (India’s Cooperative Sector) Finance projects in the rural industrial cooperative sectors and for certain notified services in rural areas like water conservation, irrigation, micro irrigation, agri-insurance, agro-credit, rural sanitation, animal health, etc. Loans and grants are advanced to State Governments for financing primary and secondary level cooperative societies and direct to the national level and other societies having objects extending beyond one State. The Corporation can also go in for direct funding of projects under its various schemes of assistance on fulfillment of stipulated conditions. MUST READ: Geospatial Mapping of the Cooperatives SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as marketplaces. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following activities constitute a real sector in the economy? (2022) Farmers harvesting their crops Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics A commercial bank lending money to a trading company A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Asia-Pacific Institute for Broadcasting Development (AIBD) Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT INSTITUTIONS Context: India re-elected the Asia-Pacific Institute for Broadcasting Development (AIBD) General Conference (GC)president for the third successive term recently. Background:- The Information & Broadcasting Ministry Secretary, Apurva Chandra, said this was a first in the history of AIBD. The move showed the confidence broadcasting organizations across the Asia Pacific and the world reposed in India. About Asia-Pacific Institute for Broadcasting Development (AIBD):- Established:1977 Host: Government of Malaysia Secretariat: Kuala Lumpur. Objective: to achieve a vibrant and cohesive electronic media environment in the Asia Pacific region through policy and resource development. Membership: It has 92 member organizations from across 44 countries, including 26 government members (countries) represented by 48 broadcasting authorities and broadcasters. It also has 44 affiliates (organizations) represented by 28 countries and regions in Asia, the Pacific, Europe, Africa, Arab States, and North America. India is one of the founding members of this organization. Representative body: The Prasar Bharati is the representative body of the Ministry of Information & Broadcasting, Government of India, at AIBD. It was established under the auspices of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO). It is a unique regional inter-governmental organization servicing countries of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UN-ESCAP) in the field of electronic media development. The Institute seeks to fulfill this mandate by mobilizing the intellectual and technological resources available within the national broadcasting organizations of its member countries as well as regional and international bodies. It does it through a well-established infrastructure and networking mechanism which includes government agencies, non-governmental organizations, institutions of higher learning, the private sector, and individual professionals.  MUST READ: Broadcasting Infrastructure and Network Development (BIND) scheme SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements (2020) The value of Indo-Sri Lanka Trade has consistently increased in the last decade. Textile and textile articles constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh. In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1,2, and 3 Q.2) Consider the following countries: (2018) Australia Canada China India Japan USA Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN? 1, 2, 4 and 5 3, 4, 5 and 6 1, 3, 4 and 5 2, 3, 4 and 6 Central Bureau of Communication (CBC) Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: The Central Bureau of Communication (CBC) advertisement rates for Private FM Radios have been revised after seven years recently. Background:- The base rate has been increased by 43 percent. City Wise Rate for Stations also to significantly increase depending on listenership. About Central Bureau of Communication (CBC):- Established: 2017. Ministry: Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. HQ: Soochana Bhawan, New Delhi. It was set up by integration of three erstwhile media units of the Ministry of I&B, viz namely:- Directorate of Advertising & Visual Publicity (DAVP) Directorate of Field Publicity (DFP) and Song & Drama Division(S&DD) It is a unit of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. It has the mandate of providing 360-degree communication solutions to Ministries, Departments, Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs), and autonomous bodies. It is headed by a Director General (DG). Functions:- It is engaged in the task of publicizing various programmes and policies of the Government of India through its network of 148 Field Units under the control and supervision of 23 Regional Offices. The primary function of CBC is to publicize, inform, educate, and communicate in rural areas. It undertakes campaigns to inform and educate rural and urban people about the Government’s policies and programmes through available vehicles of communication viz. Print, Audio Visual, Outdoor, Digital and New Media. MUST READ: (Asia-Pacific Broadcasting Union) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements (2018) The National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: The nationwide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at (2017) Expanding the cultivable area under irrigation. Enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality. Checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mains: India-Israel Relation Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International relations) Context: Recently, Hamas, the militant group ruling the Gaza Strip, mounted one of the most audacious attacks on Israel known as “Operation ‘Al-Aqsa Storm”. In retaliation, Israel has formally declared war on Hamas under “Operation Iron Sword”. The Indian PM expressed outrage, referring to the event as a terrorist attack, and voiced solidarity with Israel. History of India’s Position on the Israel-Palestine Conflict: India’s Initial Rejection of the Two-Nation Solution and Support for the Palestinian Cause: In the wake of India’s independence in 1947, its early political stance on Israel was rooted in the rejection of the two-nation solution and unwavering support for the Palestinian cause. India’s Votes Against Israel at the United Nations: India’s position regarding Palestine was also shaped by the broader consensus in the Arab world, the Non-Aligned Movement, and the United Nations. when Israel applied for admission to the United Nations, India once again voted against its inclusion. Recognition of Israel as a Nation: Despite its early stance against Israel, India eventually recognized Israel as a sovereign nation on September 17, 1950, following the footsteps of two Muslim-majority countries, Turkey and Iran. Engagement with Palestinian Leadership Under Yasser Arafat: In the late 1960s and early 1970s, the Palestine Liberation Organisation (PLO) emerged as the principal representative of the Palestinian people, under the leadership of Yasser Arafat. During this period, India actively engaged with the largest political faction within the PLO, Al Fatah. Recognition of PLO as the Legitimate Representation of Palestinian People: On January 10, 1975, India took a significant diplomatic step by officially recognizing the PLO as the sole and legitimate representative of the Palestinian people. This recognition culminated in India permitting the PLO to establish an independent office in New Delhi. Remarkably, India, despite being one of the last non-Muslim states to recognize Israel, became the first non-Arab state to formally acknowledge the legitimacy of the PLO. Strong Solidarity for Palestine Struggle at NAM Summit in Delhi: The relationship between India and Palestine further strengthened when the NAM summit took place in India in 1983 with a strong statement of solidarity for Palestine. Present India- Israel Relations Economic and trade: Bilateral merchandise trade surged from USD 200 million in 1992 to USD 6.35 billion (excluding defense) by 2022. India emerged as Israel’s third-largest trade partner in Asia and seventh globally, with trade diversifying into pharmaceuticals, agriculture, IT, telecom, and homeland security. Israeli companies have facilitated technology transfer to India, particularly in renewable energy, telecom, and water technologies. Defense Cooperation: India imports crucial defense technologies from Israel, with regular exchanges between armed forces. Security cooperation includes a Joint Working Group on Counter-Terrorism. India uses Israeli defense systems such as Phalcon AWACS, Heron drones, and Barak anti-missile defense systems. Agricultural Cooperation: A three-year joint work program was signed in 2021 to enhance agricultural cooperation, focusing on Centers of Excellence, value chains, and private investment. Israel’s expertise and technologies have benefitted India in horticulture, irrigation, and dairy farming. Science and Technology: The Joint Committee on Science and Technology, established in 1993, fosters collaboration in research and development. The India-Israel Industrial R&D and Technological Innovation Fund (I4F) supports joint industrial projects in specific sectors. Energy cooperation includes India’s interest in exploring gas fields off Israel’s coast. I2U2 Grouping: It stands for India, Israel, the UAE, and the US. It was formerly known as the ‘International Forum for Economic Cooperation’ and is also referred to as the ‘West Asian Quad.’ It aims to strengthen economic partnerships, identify areas of cooperation, and encourage joint investments six key sectors: water, energy, transportation, space, health, and food security. Indian diaspora in Israel: There are approximately 85,000 Jews of Indian-origin in Israel, who are Israeli passport holders. There are approximately 900 Indian students studying in Israel, mostly at the doctoral and post-doctoral levels. Challenges in the relations: Trade: Since 2010, the two countries have been talking about a free-trade deal for goods and services. This should make it easier to invest and do business with each other. To tap into the untapped potential, there is a need to increase bilateral trade and broaden the types of economic partnership. Israel and the Arab World: India’s close relationships with the Arab world have always made it hard for the country to publicly work with Israel. Approach towards China: India and Israel treat China in different ways. India is worried about China’s rise, but China is Israel’s biggest trading partner in Asia and the two countries have strong links in science and investment. De-Hyphenating Israel-Palestine: The “two-state solution” and the fact that India voted in favour of the resolution to raise the Palestinian flag at the United Nations and signed on to BRICS declarations “opposing the continuous Israeli settlement activities in the Occupied Territories” show that India’s support for Palestinians hasn’t changed. However, during the Indian Prime Minister’s visit to Israel in July 2017, the media reported that India was “dehyphenating” its relationship with Israel. Pegasus issue: Pegasus is a spyware developed by NSO Group, an Israeli surveillance firm, that helps spies hack into phones. A case was filed in the Supreme Court accusing the government for indiscriminate spying on more than 1000 phone numbers. New York Times reported that India bought Israeli Pegasus spyware as part of weapons deal in 2017. Way Forward: India’s evolving stance on the Israel-Palestine conflict, coupled with its growing relations with both Israel and Palestine, demonstrates its commitment to contributing to a peaceful resolution. As a nation with ties to multiple stakeholders in the region, India has a crucial role to play in promoting stability and cooperation in the Middle East. Source:   Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Government Schemes Ministry 1.SHRESTHA Ministry of Education 2.SAMARTH Ministry of Tribal Affairs 3.NAMASTE Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Central Bureau of Communication (CBC) is headquartered in Soochana Bhawan, Mumbai. Statement-II: It is headed by a Director General (DG). Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Asia-Pacific Institute for Broadcasting Development (AIBD), consider the following statements: It was established in 1947. It is hosted by the Government of India. India was its founding member. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only 3 only 1 only Mains Practice Question Q.1) How did India’s stance on the Israel-Palestine conflict evolve over the years, and what were the key factors influencing this evolution? (250 Words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  10th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 9th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – a

Oct 10, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 9th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Abort Mission 1(TV-D1) Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY-SPACE Context: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has started preparing for the flight test Vehicle Abort Mission 1(TV-D1) for the Gaganyaan mission. Background:- The Space Agency has said that the unmanned flight tests for the Gaganyaan mission will commence soon. ISRO will also test the efficacy of the Crew Escape System which is a crucial part of the Gaganyaan mission, resulting in unmanned and manned missions to outer space by 2024. About Abort Mission 1(TV-D1):- Conducted by: The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO). Objective: to ensure crew safety during the Gaganyaan mission. The abort missions are meant to test the systems that can help the crew escape from the spacecraft mid-flight in case of a failure. ISRO has developed test vehicles for the abort missions. These can send the systems up to a certain height, simulate failure, and then check the escape system. Test Vehicle (TV-D1) is the first development flight. The Test Vehicle is a single-stage liquid rocket. Payloads: consist of the Crew Module (CM) and Crew Escape Systems (CES) with their fast-acting solid motors, along with CM fairing (CMF) and Interface Adapters. Escape system is designed with five “quick-acting” solid fuel motors with a high burn rate propulsion system, and fins to maintain stability. The Crew Escape Systems (CES) will separate from the crew module by firing explosive nuts. Mission plan:- This flight will simulate the abort condition during the ascent trajectory corresponding to a Mach number of 1.2 encountered in the Gaganyaan mission. CES with CM will be separated from the Test Vehicle at an altitude of about 17 km. Subsequently, the abort sequence will be executed autonomously commencing with the separation of CES and deployment of the series of parachutes. Finally, culminating in the safe touchdown of CM in the sea, about 10 km from the coast of Sriharikota. Significance:- The success of this test flight will set the stage for the remaining qualification tests and unmanned missions, leading to the first Gaganyaan mission with Indian Astronauts. It will help ISRO focus on perfecting the system that will launch and land Indians on missions to space and protect the astronauts if the mission fails. MUST READ: Space Economy of India SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Card-on-file tokenization facility Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: The RBI recently, announced the introduction of a card-on-file tokenization facility at the issuer bank level. Background:- Currently, Card-on-File (CoF) tokens can only be created through merchant applications or on the webpage of the e-commerce website. Given the growing acceptance and benefits of tokenization of card data, it is now proposed to introduce Card-on-File Tokenisation (CoFT) creation facilities directly at the issuer bank level. About card-on-file tokenization facility:- The central bank introduced Card-on-File Tokenization (CoFT) in September 2021 and began implementation on October 1, 2022. Objective: to enhance convenience for cardholders in getting tokens created and linking them to their existing accounts with e-commerce applications. Tokenization is the replacement of actual credit and debit card details with an alternate code called the “token”, which will be unique for a combination of card, token requestor, and device. A CoF transaction occurs when a cardholder authorizes a retailer to store the cardholder’s Mastercard or Visa payment information. The cardholder then authorizes the business to charge the stored Mastercard or Visa account. Card information is typically stored in the systems of e-commerce companies, airlines, and supermarket chains. Significance: The move will facilitate the creation and linking of tokens to cardholders’ existing accounts with e-commerce applications. Benefits of tokenization:- Enhanced safety and security: It eliminates the risk of storing card details online and ensures the uncompromised convenience of storing customer’s token details on the merchant site. Quicker checkouts: Tokenized Mastercard will allow the convenience of quick checkouts as one doesn’t need to punch in the card number for each purchase. No more ‘False Declines’: Many times, legitimate online payments using valid cards are declined on the grounds of the transaction looking like a fraud. With tokenization, this becomes a thing of the past as the usage of tokens for payments confirms the security of the highest order. Easy card management: With tokenization, one can also keep track of all their cards and the merchants they have been tokenized with. No need for a physical card Added benefits: Tokenization also comes with cashback benefits when secured with platforms like Amazon, Paytm, Swiggy, etc. MUST READ: Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) SOURCE: BUSINESS LINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: If the inflation is too high, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements: They enable the digital representation of physical assets. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium transactions of commercial Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022) 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Stratospheric aerosol injection (SAI) Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: A study shows that geoengineering intervention, stratospheric aerosol injection (SAI) may affect global food production. Background:- Implementing a controversial climate intervention Stratospheric aerosol injection (SAI) could likely create inequities in food production, benefitting some and harming others, a new study published in the journal Nature Food warned. About Stratospheric aerosol injection (SAI):- Geoengineering literally means “Earth-engineering”. Geoengineering is an umbrella term for various experimental technologies to make compensatory changes to Earth’s climate to reverse the damage people have already done. (Mitigating Climate Change) It refers to deliberate, large-scale intervention carried out in the Earth’s natural systems to reverse the impacts of climate change. SAI is the main type of solar radiation management (SRM). Mechanism of SAI:- SAI mimics volcanic eruptions. It injects sulfur dioxide into the stratosphere. Stratosphere: the layer of atmosphere extending from about 10 kilometers to 50 km in altitude. In the stratosphere, it oxidizes to form sulphuric acid, which then forms reflective aerosol particles. These gases reflect some of the sun’s heat, mimicking an effect that happens naturally in a strong volcanic eruption. MUST READ: Climate Change and Global Health SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following trees : (2023) Jackfruit (Artoca7pus heterophyllus) Mahua (Madhuca indica) Teak (Tectona grandis) How many of the above are deciduous trees? Only one Only two All three None Israel's Iron Dome Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: Israel’s Iron Dome anti-missile system intercepted rockets launched from the Gaza Strip in the recent attack. Background:- The Hamas militant group launched its worst attack inside the Jewish state’s territory since 1948 on Saturday (October 7), killing at least 250 Israelis and abducting several others. About Israel’s Iron Dome:- IMAGE SOURCE: WorldAtlas Iron Dome is a short-range, ground-to-air, air defense system. It includes radar and Tamir interceptor missiles that track and neutralize any rockets or missiles aimed at Israeli targets. (Ballistic missiles) It is used for countering rockets, artillery & mortars (C-RAM) as well as aircraft, helicopters, and unmanned aerial vehicles. Historical Background:- The genesis of the Iron Dome goes back to the 2006 Israeli-Lebanon war when Hezbollah fired thousands of rockets into Israel. The following year, Israel announced that its state-run Rafael Advance Systems would come up with a new air defense system to protect its cities and people. It was developed with Israel Aerospace Industries. The Iron Dome was deployed in 2011. Salient Features:- The Iron Dome has three main systems. Radar: It has a detection and tracking radar to spot any incoming threats. Weapon Control: It has a battle management and weapon control system (BMC). The BMC basically liaises between the radar and the interceptor missile. The BMC basically liaises between the radar and the interceptor missile. Missile Fire: It also has a missile firing unit. All these three units work together to provide a shield over the area where it is deployed. Advantages of Iron Dome:- It has a detection and tracking radar to spot any incoming threats. It can handle multiple threats. It is capable of being used in all weather conditions, including during the day and night. MUST READ: India and Israel SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media?  (2022) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on it. United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: A new report by the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) has put forward 10 principles. Background:- The Sustainable Finance: Bridging the Gap in Asia and the Pacific report was launched on October 6, 2023. Objective: These principles are for the action of policymakers, regulators, and private finance for mobilizing and deploying financing for key UN-mandated Sustainable Development Goals, particularly around climate action. Significance: The principles will help stakeholders cooperatively and efficiently shift and scale up capital to finance climate action by reducing obstacles, addressing climate risk underpricing, and reducing sectoral and regional capital-investment mismatches. The principles put forward are:- Developing new climate finance partnerships Developing effective NDC financing strategies Developing policy coherence and capacities across key government ministries Taking decisive regulatory action to shift capital in Asia and the Pacific towards the Net Zero transition Driving investment in the capacities of financial personnel Driving investment in much-needed sectoral and project-based financial data is undertaken Committing to Net Zero pledges for 2050 with credible transition pathways and including 2030 goals Increasing local-currency financing of energy transition projects as well as green technologies and other net-zero investments Expanding and accelerating concessional financing and risk-sharing by multilateral development banks, bilateral development financial institutions, and public development banks Increasing investment of time and effort with partners in project preparation About United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP):- Founded in 1947. HQ: Bangkok, Thailand. The Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) is one of the five regional commissions of the United Nations. (Need for Reforms in UN) It is the most inclusive intergovernmental platform in the Asia-Pacific region. Objective: to facilitate coordinated efforts for the economic recovery and advancement of Asia and the Far East in the post-war period. Historical Background: In 1974, it was restructured and renamed the Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP), reflecting its dual focus on economic and social aspects of development. Members: ESCAP comprises 53 Member States and nine Associate members. Functions:- To enhance economic activity in Asia and the Pacific, foster economic relationships between this region and other global areas, and promote sustainable development. To Coordinate Development Efforts. It promotes cooperation among its 53 member States and 9 associate members in pursuit of solutions to sustainable development challenges. It generates action-oriented knowledge, and by providing technical assistance and capacity-building services in support of national development objectives, regional agreements, and the implementation of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. It also provides support to partners at the national level. It carries out work, in close cooperation with other United Nations entities and intergovernmental organizations in the region. MUST READ: United Nations grants observer status to International Solar Alliance SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a : (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organizations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by the United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Indian Air Force Day 2023 Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: The Indian Air Force celebrated Indian Air Force Day 2023 recently. About Indian Air Force Day 2023:- Date: 8 October. Venue: Prayagraj, Uttar Pradesh. Theme 2023: ‘IAF-Airpower Beyond Boundaries’. The ceremonial parade of Indian Air Force Day was conducted at Air Force Station Bamrauli and the Air Display was conducted over the Sangam area, in the vicinity of the Ordnance Depot Fort in Prayagraj. The day commemorates the official establishment of the Indian Air Force on October 8, 1932. It acknowledges the Air Force’s long and distinguished history in serving the country. The day often features air displays, aerobatics, flypasts, and demonstrations of aircraft and equipment. These events showcase the technological prowess and capabilities of the Indian Air Force. Significance: Indian Air Force Day also serves as an opportunity to raise public awareness about the importance of the Air Force and its contributions to national security. MUST READ: Tejas Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Mk-1A SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure” is used in the context of (2020) Digital security infrastructure Food security infrastructure Health care and education infrastructure Telecommunication and transportation infrastructure Air India Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT INSTITUTIONS Context: Recently, Air India cancelled flights to and from Tel Aviv till the 14th of October 2023. About Air India:- Founded: 1932. Founder: Jehangir Ratanji Dadabhoy (JRD) Tata. HQ: New Delhi. Air India operates a fleet of Airbus and Boeing aircraft serving domestic and international destinations. It is the largest international carrier out of India. Over 60 international destinations are served by Air India across five continents. The airline became the 27th member of Star Alliance on 11 July 2014. Historical Background:- In 1946, the aviation division of Tata Sons was listed as Air India. In 1948, the Air India International was launched with flights to Europe. In 1953, Air India was nationalized and for the next four decades, it remained the prized possession of India. With the opening up of the aviation sector to private players in 1994-95 and private entities offering cheaper tickets, Air India gradually started losing market share. As part of its broader privatization and disinvestment push, in 2000-01 the government tried to sell a minority stake or 40% stake in Air India. It was unsuccessful due to opposition from Trade unions. In June 2017, the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) gave in-principle approval to the consideration for strategic disinvestment of Air India and its five subsidiaries. In March 2018, the government invited expressions of interest from investors wherein the buyer was required to take ₹33,392 crore or close to 70% of the carrier’s debt on its books. No bids were received. October 2020: The Government now gave flexibility to investors to decide on the amount of Air India debt they wanted to absorb. October 2021: Government announces Tata Group makes winning bid of ₹18,000 crore for Air India. MUST READ: Disinvestment of Air India SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements about G-20: (2023) The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss the International economic and financial issues. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following actions: (2023) Detection of car crash/ collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive. Detection of the tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation of the display between portrait and landscape mode. In how many of the above actions is the function of the accelerometer required? Only one Only two All three None Mains: Digital India Act 2023 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Nations worldwide are grappling with the need to update their legal frameworks to adapt to the evolving digital landscape. India, with its ambitious ‘Digital India’ initiative, is no exception. The recent announcement of the Digital India Act 2023 (DIA) represents a significant step towards establishing a future ready legal framework for the country’s burgeoning digital ecosystem. About Digital India Act 2023 (DIA): The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MEITY) signals a proactive approach to regulating and shaping the digital future of the nation. The DIA, poised to replace the two decades old Information Technology Act of 2000 (IT Act), is designed to address the challenges and opportunities presented by the dramatic growth of the internet and emerging technologies. The primary motivation behind the DIA is to bring India’s regulatory landscape in sync with the digital revolution of the 21st century. Since its inception, India’s internet user base has exploded from a mere 5.5 million to a staggering 850 million. Key Components of the act: Open Internet: According to the Indian government, open internet should have choice, competition, online diversity, fair market access, ease of doing business as well as ease of compliance for startups. These characteristics prevent the concentration of power and gatekeeping. Online Safety and Trust: The Act will focus on safeguarding users against cyber threats like revenge porn, defamation, and cyberbullying on the internet as well as the dark web. It aims to push for digital rights like the Right to be Forgotten and the Right to Digital Inheritance, protect minors and their data from addictive technology, and moderate fake news on social media platforms. Accountable Internet: The Act aims to make internet users and activities more accountable by introducing legal mechanisms for redressal of complaints, upholding constitutional rights in cyber spaces, algorithmic transparency and periodic risk assessments, and disclosure norms for data collected by intermediaries. Key provisions of the act: The DIA encompasses several pivotal clauses that mirror the dynamic evolution of the digital environment, addressing its multifaceted challenges and opportunities. These provisions underscore the legislation’s responsiveness to the ever­changing digital landscape. DIA places a strong emphasis on online safety and trust, with a commitment to safeguarding citizen’s rights in the digital realm. It also recognises the growing importance of new age technologies such as artificial intelligence and block chain, the DIA provides guidelines for their responsible utilisation. It aims to not only encourage the adoption of these technologies but also to ensure that their deployment is in line with ethical and legal principles. It promotes ethical AI practices, data privacy in blockchain applications, and mechanisms for accountability in the use of these technologies. It upholds the concept of an open internet. It aims to strike a balance between accessibility and necessary regulations to maintain order and protect users. It also contemplates a review of the “safe harbour” principle, which presently shields online platforms from liability related to user generated content, indicating a potential shift in online accountability standards. Need for Digital India Act: Outdated Regulations: The existing IT Act of 2000 was crafted in an era when the internet had only 5.5 million users, and is ill-equipped to handle the internet’s current state. With 850 million users, various intermediaries, and new forms of user harms like cyberstalking and doxing, the IT Act falls short of addressing these complexities. Addressing E-commerce and Online Content: The growth of e-commerce, digital transactions, and online content sharing requires updated regulations. The Digital India Act will tackle issues related to consumer protection, electronic contracts, and content moderation on social media platforms. Global Alignment and Best Practices: To engage effectively in the global digital landscape, India’s regulations must align with international standards and practices. Inadequacy of Current Regulations: Despite the existence of regulatory elements like Intermediary Guidelines, Digital Media Ethics Code, and data protection rules, they are insufficient when it comes to governing new-age technologies. Need for Legal Adaptation: With technological advancements like AI, Blockchain, and IoT, the legal framework must evolve to address their unique challenges. This includes enhancing cybersecurity measures, data protection, and regulating emerging tech sectors. Challenges associated with the DIA act 2023: Stricter regulations, particularly in emerging technologies, could deter entrepreneurial initiatives and deter foreign investments. The review of the “safe harbour” principle, which shields online platforms from liability for user ­generated content, could lead to a more cautious approach among these platforms, possibly impinging on freedom of expression. While transparency and accountability are the founding pillars of the act it will also have to balance the interests of important stakeholders like users, big techs, government, businesses, and civil society. Way Forward: Although the DIA is a progressive move, its implementation and potential repercussions warrant vigilant monitoring and adaptability to avoid unintended consequences. The DIA is a crucial step towards ensuring a secure, accountable, and innovative digital future for India. Source:  TH Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty (CTBT) Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International relations) Context: A day after indicating that Russia might revoke its ratification of the Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty (CTBT), President Vladimir Putin said that the country would do so to be on level terms with the United States, and not to resume nuclear testing. About CTBT: The CTBT is a multilateral treaty that bans all nuclear explosions, whether for military or peaceful purposes. It was negotiated at the Conference on Disarmament in Geneva. It has been signed by 187 countries and ratified by 178 but cannot go into force until eight countries have signed and ratified it. China, Egypt, Iran, and Israel have signed but not ratified it. North Korea, India and Pakistan have not signed. While Russia ratified the agreement in 2000, the US is still to do so. While the US signed but did not ratify the treaty, it has observed a moratorium on nuclear weapon test explosions since 1992 that it has no plans to abandon. When the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) adopted the CTBT in September 1996, 2048 nuclear explosions were already conducted worldwide. 18 years later, the number of explosions has further increased to 2055. In this regard, the CTBT has an important role in ensuring a world where nuclear weapons tests are barred and thus constrain the development of new nuclear weapons and new nuclear weapon countries. Implications of Russian Move: Global Disarmament: Since the CTBT, 10 nuclear tests have taken place. India conducted two in 1998, Pakistan also two in 1998, and North Korea conducted tests in 2006, 2009, 2013, 2016 (twice) and 2017, according to the United Nations. It would be a big setback to the Nuclear disarmament movement. Nuclear Arms Race: This move would enable Russia to build and deploy more nuclear weapons targeting its adversaries without the treaty’s constraints. Both sides could get sucked into a dangerous arms race. Russia-Ukraine Crisis: The missile attacks against each other by both Russia and Ukraine have also led to a growing escalation of mutual suspicion. The present Russian decision has only aggravated the crisis. Undermining Future Agreements: Arms control has been a progression from one treaty to the next. If Russia revokes its ratification, it will leave the world without a common starting point for future efforts. The Treaty on Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons (TPNW) did not find support from any of the P-5 countries. Russia-West Relations: The Russian decision can be described as symbolic and strategic in nature. It wants to pressurize the West by sending an ambiguous message strategically. Russia has tried not to appear aggressive and has attempted to put all the blame on the US this will further erode Russia and West ties. Global Politics and Security: Taking a cue from the present stand-off between Russia and the United States over the current nuclear question, many countries like North Korea, Pakistan, Turkey, Iran, and China may go for further proliferation of nuclear weapons without any scrutiny. India’s view on nuclear disarmament: Complete Disarmament: India has consistently advocated global nuclear disarmament since the concept’s inception in the United Nations. Two-Front Nuclear War: India, faced with two nuclear neighbours (Pakistan and China) with one declaring its nuclear arsenal as India-specific, reluctantly had to become a nuclear weapon state. Universal Non-discriminatory and verifiable Treaty: India remains committed to negotiating a universal, non-discriminatory and internationally and effectively verifiable treaty banning the production of fissile material for nuclear weapons or other nuclear explosive devices, one that considers India’s national security interests. Delinking Disarmament and Non-Proliferation: In 1965, India was a member of the eighteen nation disarmament committee (ENDC) that advocated for delinking disarmament and non-proliferation. India opposed the signing of the NPT (treaty of Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons which it views as discriminatory (dividing the world into Nukes haves and haves not). In 1988, India Proposed a Comprehensive Proposal for complete Universal disarmament (Rajiv Gandhi Action Plan) – to the UN General Assembly Special Session on Disarmament. Way Forward: India supports the commencement of negotiations on a comprehensive Nuclear Weapons Convention in the Conference on Disarmament, which is the world’s single multilateral disarmament negotiating forum working on the basis of consensus. Considering the present pessimistic environment, the Russian revocation of the Treaty may not seem shocking or startling. Source:  IE Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: INDIAN SPACE MISSIONS YEAR 1.Mars Orbiter Mission 2015 2.AstroSat 2013 3.Chandrayaan Mission 1 2008 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Indian Air Force Day is celebrated every year on 7th October. Statement-II: The theme of 2023 is ‘IAF-Airpower Beyond Boundaries’. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Iron Dome, consider the following statements: It is a long-range, ground-to-air, air defense system. It includes the Tamir interceptor missiles which track and neutralize any rockets or missiles aimed at Israeli targets. It is used for countering ONLY unmanned aerial vehicles. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Digital India Act replacing the IT Act, 2000, is a welcome move for strengthening the digital ecosystem and cyber-security space in the country. However, the need of the hour is implementation of laws effectively and in a time bound manner by addressing the concerns in the legislation stage itself. Elucidate. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  9th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 7th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – a

Oct 10, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 10th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Oct 9, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 9th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Oct 7, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 7th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Swavlamban 2.0 Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: The second edition of the Indian Navy’s Naval Innovation and Indigenization Seminar, Swavlamban 2.0, took place in Delhi recently. Background:- The event will unveil the Autonomous Weaponized Boat Swarms for the Indian Navy. About Swavlamban 2.0:- Date: 4th and 5th October 2023. Venue: New Delhi. Maiden edition of the seminar: July 2022. Naming: the term”Swavlamban” signifies self-reliance or self-sufficiency in Hindi. “Swavlamban 2.0” is an updated indigenization roadmap aimed at fostering self-reliance in technological capabilities. (Military Exercises) Objective: to showcase the Navy’s achievements in developing new technologies and outline the course for future developments. It is the Naval Innovation & Indigenisation Organisation’s (NIIO) annual seminar. Niche technologies are being progressed across the spectrum, including:- Blue-green lasers for underwater application Autonomous weaponised swarms and Underwater swarm drones Multiple firefighting aid Introduction of Artificial Intelligence (Al) for various uses Development of an ultra-endurance small drone for maritime missions. 75 prototypes of these will be showcased during “Swavlamban-2023”. This will include a live demo of a few promising technologies. Historic Background:- The Hon’ble Prime Minister launched the 75 challenges for the start-ups/ MSMEs as a part of the ‘SPRINT’ initiative. The ‘SPRINT Challenges’, are aimed at giving a boost to the usage of indigenous technology in the Indian Navy, and the Navy is committed to developing at least 75 technologies/ products as part of the ‘Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav’. SPRINT is a collaborative initiative being undertaken in conjunction with the Defence Innovation Organisation (DIO) and stands for Supporting Pole-Vaulting in R&D through Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX), NIIO and Technology Development Acceleration Cell (TDAC). Significance:- It aims to reduce dependence on foreign technologies and promote domestic innovation. It aligns with efforts to involve Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) and start-ups in developing futuristic technologies that meet global standards at a more economical cost. MUST READ: New Naval Ensign (flag) for the Indian Navy SOURCE: FINANCIAL EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America GST Council Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: The Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman will chair the 52nd GST Council meeting in New Delhi recently. About GST Council:- The GST Council is a constitutional body established under Article 279A of the Indian Constitution. It is a joint forum of the Centre and the states to discuss issues relating to GST. GST is one of the biggest indirect tax reforms in the country. It has subsumed indirect taxes like excise duty, Value Added Tax (VAT), service tax, luxury tax, etc. The 101st Amendment Act of 2016 (122nd Amendment Bill), paved the way for the implementation of GST. Salient features of GST Council:- Article 279-A: gives the President the authority to appoint a GST Council by executive order. Members: The members of the Council include the Union Finance Minister (chairperson), and the Union Minister of State (Finance) from various states. Chairperson: The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister. Functions:- As per Article 279, is meant to make recommendations to the Union and the states on important issues related to GST. These include the goods and services that may be subjected or exempted from GST and model GST Laws. It also decides on various rate slabs of GST. MUST READ: GST- Five years on SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India? (2022) An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country based on the profits arising out of its investment An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India  Q.2) What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’? (2017) It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves. It will enormously increase the growth and size of the economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Syllabus Prelims –Medieval History Context: As per recent announcements, Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj’s ‘wagh nakh’ will be brought back to Maharashtra from a London museum. About the story of Shivaji’s Wagah Nakh:- The wagh nakh is a medieval claw-like dagger, designed to either fit over the knuckles or be concealed under the palm. It literally means ‘tiger claws’. It was used across the Indian subcontinent. The weapon consisted of four or five curved blades affixed to a glove or a bar of some kind. It was a weapon used for personal defense or stealth attack, and could easily slice through skin and flesh. The most famous use of the wagh nakh in history comes from the story of Afzal Khan’s killing by Shivaji used to be a former vassal of the Adil Shahis but by the 1650s, he had become increasingly assertive, taking forts across the Konkan, and bringing under control large swathes of Adil Shahi territory. Given Afzal Khan’s success in the south, he sent the Sultan, with a mighty army, to subdue the Maratha icon. Khan marched into the Konkan and demanded a meeting with Shivaji. In the meeting, Khan, in the guise of embracing him, attempted to stab the Maratha leader. But Shivaji was protected by his armour and retaliated: the wagh nakh ripped out Khan’s guts. Khan would eventually be beheaded by one of Shivaji’s men and in the battle that followed, Shivaji’s army came out as victor. About Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj:- Birth: 1630. Death:1680. Shivaji was the founder of the Maratha Kingdom. He was born to Shahaji Bhonsle, a Maratha general who held the jagirs of Pune and Supe under the Bijapur Sultanate and Jijabai. He was crowned as the king of the Marathas on 6th June 1674, at Raigad. He took on the titles of Chhatrapati, Shakakarta, Kshatriya Kulavantas, and Haindava Dharmodhhaarak. He was known as the Father of the Indian Navy. He was the first to realize the importance of having a naval force, and therefore he strategically established a navy and forts at the coastline to defend the Konkan side of Maharashtra. He was a secular ruler, accommodating of all religions. He had numerous Muslim soldiers in his army. Shivaji was a dependable supporter of women and their honour. He had a council of ministers (Asht Pradhan) to advise him on the matters of the state but he was not bound by it. He was called the ‘Mountain Rat’ and was widely known for his guerrilla warfare tactics. Important Battles by Shivaji:- Battle of Pratapgad, 1659: Fought at the fort of Pratapgad, between the forces of the Maratha king Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj and the Adilshahi general Afzal Khan. Battle of Pavan Khind, 1660: Fought at a mountain pass in the vicinity of Fort Vishalgad, between the Maratha Sardar Baji Prabhu Deshpande and Siddi Masud of Adilshahi. Sacking of Surat, 1664: Fought near the city of Surat, Gujarat, between Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj and Inayat Khan, a Mughal captain. Battle of Purandar, 1665: fought between the Mughal Empire and Maratha Empire. Battle of Sinhagad, 1670: Fought on the fort of Sinhagad near the city of Pune, Maharashtra between Tanaji Malusare, a commander of Maratha ruler Shivaji Maharaj, and Udaybhan Rathod, fortkeeper under Jai Singh I who was a Mughal Army Chief. Battle of Kalyan, 1682-83: Bahadur Khan of the Mughal Empire defeated the Maratha army and took over Kalyan. Battle of Sangamner, 1679: Fought between the Mughal Empire and Maratha Empire. This was the last battle in which the Maratha King Shivaji fought. MUST READ: The Sword of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to medieval India, which one of the following is the correct sequence in ascending order in terms of size? (2021) Paragana – Sarkar – Suba Sarkar – Paragana – Suba Suba – Sarkar – Paragana Paragana – Suba – Sarkar Q.2) Consider the following events in the history of India: (2020) Rise of Pratiharas under King Bhoja Establishment of Pallava power under Mahendravarman – I Establishment of Chola power by Parantaka – I The Pala dynasty founded by Gopala What is the correct chronological order of the above events, starting from the earliest time? 2-1-4-3 3-1-4-2 2-4-1-3 3-4-1-2 Kolleru Wildlife Sanctuary Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: The government is preparing an inventory of land use and other activities adjacent to the Kolleru Wildlife Sanctuary. Background:- The Wildlife Division of the Andhra Pradesh Forest Department is all set to prepare an inventory of land use and other activities adjacent to the Kolleru Wildlife Sanctuary for declaring it an eco-sensitive zone (ESZ) for the conservation of the Kolleru Lake ecosystem. About Kolleru Wildlife Sanctuary:- Location: Andhra Pradesh. Area: approximately 308 square kilometers. Kolleru Bird Sanctuary is a significant wetland and bird sanctuary located in the state. It is situated between the Krishna and Godavari river basins. Krishna River Source: It originates near Mahabaleshwar (Satara) in Maharashtra. It is the second biggest river in peninsular India after the Godavari River. The Godavari river:- Source: Godavari River rises from Trimbakeshwar near Nasik in Maharashtra. It is the largest Peninsular river system. It is also called the Dakshin Ganga. It is centered around Kolleru Lake, which is the main water body within the sanctuary. Kolleru Lake, was first officially acknowledged for its ecological significance in 1953. It is a critical habitat for both resident and migratory birds. It serves as a wintering ground for thousands who visit from various parts of the world. Migratory birds: flamingos, pelicans, storks, herons, ibises, and many more. Resident birds: storks and spot-billed pelicans also inhabit the area year-round. Bird Sanctuary Status: in 1999, Kolleru received formal recognition as a Bird Sanctuary under India’s Wild Life Protection Act of 1972. Ramsar Site: In 2002, Kolleru Lake was designated as a Ramsar Wetland of International Importance under the Ramsar Convention. Important Bird Area (IBA): It regularly supports more than 50,000 waterfowl, due to which it was selected as an Important Bird Area (IBA). Flora: water hyacinth, water lilies, duckweed, and various types of algae, grasses, shrubs, tamarind, neem, palm trees, etc. Fauna: Indian mongoose and Indian jackal, lizards, Indian pythons, Indian Golden Gecko etc. MUST READ: Atapaka Bird Sanctuary SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Recently, there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites? (2017) Corbett National Park Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Sariska National Park Amphibians Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recent studies show that two of five amphibians are threatened with extinction due to climate change. Key Highlights of the report:- Habitat loss, diseases, and climate change are majorly deteriorating the status of vertebrates. Climate change is the new driver pushing the amphibian population towards extinction. Climate change was the primary threat for only 1 percent of amphibian species whose conservation status in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List of Threatened Species worsened between 1980 and 2004. But since then, it has emerged as the primary threat for 39 percent of species. Two of every five amphibians were threatened with extinction. Amphibians were also found to be particularly vulnerable, with 7 percent of the species being globally threatened – the highest for any species. The status of amphibians, according to the latest Red List, continues to be deteriorating globally, especially for salamanders of which three of every five species are threatened. Disease and habitat loss drove 91 percent of status deteriorations between 1980 and 2004. The highest concentration of threatened species was mapped to be located in India’s Western Ghats, Sri Lanka, Madagascar, Caribbean islands, tropical Andes, Mesoamerica, and the mountains and forests of western Cameroon and eastern Nigeria. (Wildlife Institute of India (WII)) Other geographic locations of high concentrations included the Atlantic Forest biome of southern Brazil, central and southern China, and the southern Annamite Mountains of Vietnam. The second most threatened group of vertebrates included cycads which faced 69 percent threat. Sharks and rays faced 37.4 percent threat, conifers faced 34 percent, reef-building corals 33.4 percent, mammals 26.5 percent, and reptiles 21.4 percent. Dragonflies, birds, and cone snails faced 16 percent, 12.9 percent, and 6.5 percent threats respectively. About Amphibians:- Amphibians come in a range of sizes. The smallest is a frog known as Paedophryne amanuensis from New Guinea, which is the size of a housefly. The largest is the Chinese Giant Salamander which can grow to six feet in length and weigh 140 pounds. They are Ectothermic (cold-blooded). They live on both land and water. They are Vertebrates. They can smell, see, and hear. They have 4 legs except for some salamanders and caecilians. They have teeth but swallow their prey whole. They have lungs and permeable skin. They are carnivorous. MUST READ: Jerdon’s narrow-mouthed frog (Uperodon montanus) SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood? (2023) Fishing cat Orangutan Otter Sloth bear Q.2) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Invasive plant species Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recent studies show that Invasive plant species threaten 66% of India’s natural systems. Key Highlights of the study:- Western Ghats, South Eastern Ghats & and Central Indian Highlands among widely and densely invaded regions. More than half of India’s natural systems are threatened by invasive plant species. About 66 percent of the country’s natural systems are threatened with invasive species. The study estimated that loss due to biological invasions would cost the Indian economy up to $182.6 billion. A total of 53 percent of plots recorded at least one of the 11 high-concern invasive plants that invaded 72 percent which is 254,880 sq kilometers of land. High concern invasive plants were recorded in 22 per cent natural areas. It is predicted to potentially threaten 66 percent of natural areas. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve in Western Ghats was one of the largest impacted hotspot areas due to an invasion dominated by Lantana camara, Prosopis juliflora, and Chromolaena odorata. Besides, Southern Eastern Ghats were found to host the most densely invaded landscapes with maximum vegetation of Prosopis juliflora and Lantana camara. About Invasive plant species:- An invasive species is an organism that is not indigenous, or native, to a particular area and causes harm. The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) defines it as “an alien species whose introduction and spread threaten ecosystems, habitats, or species with socio-cultural, economic and environmental harm and harm to human health”. They are capable of causing the extinction of native plants and animals. They are responsible for reducing biodiversity, competing with native organisms for limited resources, and altering habitats. They can be introduced to an area by ship ballast water, accidental release, and most often, by people. Common features of invasive exotics include:- The ability to reproduce both asexually and sexually Fast growth Rapid reproduction High dispersal ability Tolerance of a wide range of environmental conditions Ability to live off of a wide range of food types Riska and Threats:- They have a direct impact on human health. They have potential threats to livestock health. Biological invasions are a major threat to global food security and livelihoods, with developing countries being the most susceptible. The biological invasion could lead to changes to fire regimes, disease transmission to native species, forest loss, reduction in water flows, and habitat transformation, among others. They are the most common threat to amphibians, reptiles, and mammals on The IUCN Red List MUST READ: Expansion of the Invasive Plants SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2017) In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by ‘the same mosquito that transmits dengue. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) The H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the following diseases? (2015) AIDS Bird flu Dengue Swine flu Mains: Empowering Women – A driving force for the sustainable development Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Society) and GS 2 (Governance) Context: Maharashtra Chief Minister Office took over the coordination and control of a year-long women empowerment mission amid political tussle within the ruling party. The programme called “Mukhyamantri Mahila Sashaktikaran Abhiyan” (Chief Minister Women Empowerment Mission) was initially to be run by the Women and Child Welfare Department in a bid to promote women empowerment. About Women empowerment: Empowerment is the process of obtaining basic opportunities for marginalized people, either directly by those people, or through the help of non-marginalized others who share their own access to these opportunities. Empowerment of women signifies harnessing women power by promoting their tremendous potential and encouraging them to work towards attaining a dignified and satisfying way of life through confidence and competence. In the last few decades, the concept of women empowerment has changed from welfare to equity approach by which the powerless gain control over their lives and resources to overcome external barriers and gain internal qualities such as self-awareness and self-confidence. In India, where population maintain equal ratio of males and females the emergence of women entrepreneurs have great relevance and importance otherwise it will be amounting to neglecting 50 per cent of the entrepreneurial talent of the country. Significance of women empowerment: Encourages gender equality: Challenging traditional gender roles allows women to make choices about their lives, including family planning. Encouraging communities to support women’s empowerment can create an environment conducive to population control. Financial autonomy: When women have control over their finances, they can make informed decisions about family planning. Employment opportunities: Access to stable jobs allows women to delay marriage and childbirth, reducing fertility rates. Literacy and awareness: Educated women are more likely to understand the importance of family planning and make informed choices. Higher education often leads to later marriages, resulting in fewer children. Family planning services: Access to contraceptives and reproductive health services enables women to control their fertility. Improved maternal health reduces infant mortality, leading to smaller family sizes. Marriage and divorce laws: Fair legal frameworks empower women to make decisions about their relationships and family size. Property rights: Secure property rights give women the confidence to make long-term family planning decisions. Challenges associated with women empowerment: Social Pressure: Women often face societal pressure, fearing stigma from their communities when they engage in paid work, which might be seen as a sign of their husband’s inability to provide for the family, traditionally the main breadwinner role. Conservative Attitudes: There is a growing trend in conservative beliefs that dictate a woman’s primary place as being within the home and kitchen. Stepping outside these socially approved boundaries is sometimes met with backlash. Informalization of Work: In the past few decades, there has been a significant decline in agricultural jobs, without a corresponding increase in rural non-farm employment opportunities. This has resulted in many women moving into sporadic and often short-term informal and casual work. Unrecognized Women’s Work: A substantial portion of women’s work, particularly in family enterprises like farming, livestock, small shops, and handmade product sales, is not officially recognized as “work.” This leads to their exclusion from labor force statistics. Inadequate Social Security: Even women who are part of the workforce often work in roles that fall outside the purview of labor laws and social security protections, including the recently enacted Social Security Code. This disproportionately affects women in self-employment and informal jobs, comprising over 90% of the female workforce. Land Ownership Disparities: Land ownership in agriculture is primarily in the names of men, excluding women from being recognized as farmers, despite their significant involvement in agricultural work. This prevents women from accessing various beneficial programs, including priority sector loans and income support cash transfers. Some of the schemes taken by the Government to encourage and empower women: Beti Bachao Beti Padhao: Aim to address the declining Child Sex Ratio. PM Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY): Provides Cash incentives for improved health and nutrition to Pregnant and nursing mothers. Scheme for Adolescent Girls: Aims at girls in the age group 11-18, to empower and improve their social status through nutrition, life skills, home skills and vocational training. Rashtriya Mahila Kosh (RMK): To provide micro-credit to poor women for various livelihood support and income-generating activities at concessional terms. Swadhar Greh: To provide relief and rehabilitation to destitute women and women in distress. Ujjawala: A comprehensive Scheme for the prevention of trafficking and for rescue, rehabilitation, reintegration and repatriation of victims of trafficking for commercial sexual exploitation. One-Stop Centre (OSC) and Women Helpline (WH) are being implemented to facilitate access to an integrated range of services including medical aid, police assistance, legal aid/ case management, psychosocial counselling and temporary support services to women affected by violence. Gender Budgeting Scheme is being implemented as a tool for mainstreaming gender perspective at various stages of planning, budgeting, implementation, impact assessment and revisiting of policy/programme objectives and allocations. Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act 2005 Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojna (PMUY): Aims to safeguard the health of women by providing them with clean cooking fuel and also from drudgery of collecting firewood. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 (MGNREGA) mandates that at least one third of the jobs generated under the scheme (MGNREGS) should be given to women. The National Education Policy (NEP), 2020 prioritises gender equity and envisions ensuring equitable access to quality education to all students, with a special emphasis on Socially and Economically Disadvantaged Groups (SEDGs). Way Forward: Yatra Nari Astu Pujyante, Ramante Tatra Devaata (The God reside in places where women is worshipped). This statement is proof that in Vedic period, Women are worthy of worship. Women should be respected”. When we empower the women in a family, we empower the entire house-hold. When we support women’s education, we ensure that the entire family is educated. When we facilitate her good health, we help keep the entire family healthy. When we secure her future, we secure the future of the entire home. Source:   Indian Express Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: Recently, the Ministry of Corporate Affairs issued a notification stating that certain provisions of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) will no longer apply to aircraft, their engines, airframes, and helicopters. Highlights of the changes: The provisions of sub-section (1) of section 14 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 , which imposes a moratorium on assets of a company undergoing insolvency ,shall not apply to transactions, arrangements or agreements, under the Cape Town Convention and the protocol, relating to aircraft, aircraft engines, airframes and helicopters. It is a global treaty that guarantees the rights of lessors to repossess leased high-value equipment such as aircraft, engines, and helicopters in case of payment defaults. It was adopted at a conference in Cape Town in November 2001 under the International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) and the International Institute for the Unification of Private Law (UNIDROIT). It is expected to have a significant impact on the aviation industry in India, making it easier to recover assets especially aircraft and engines even when an airline goes through insolvency. About Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC): In 2016, at a time when India’s Non-Performing Assets and debt defaults were piling up, the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) code was introduced to overhaul the corporate distress resolution regime in India and consolidate previously available laws to create a time-bound mechanism. Insolvency resolution in India took 4.3 years on an average compared to countries such as UK and USA took 1 year and 1.5 years, respectively. The Bankruptcy Legislative Reforms Committee under the leadership of TK Viswanathan projected the IBC. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016 was implemented through an act of Parliament. The law was necessitated due to huge pile-up of non-performing loans of banks and delay in debt resolution. Significance of IBC code: Post the implementation of IBC, as per the World Bank’s report, India’s rank in resolving insolvency went from 136 in 2017 to 52 in 2020. Addressing NPA problem: The IBC was instrumental in reviving India’s insolvency regime and successfully addressing the looming threat of Nonperforming assets (NPAs). Credit discipline: Ease of credit flow is necessary for attainment of Ease of doing business and economic growth. Under the IBC regime, Rs. 2.5-lakh crore has been brought back into the banking system as a result of resolution of insolvencies. Advantages of IBC code: Speedy and Timely resolution of insolvency process: The process of resolution is carried out in a time-bound manner, the business is transferred as an ongoing concern to the resolution applicant. It ensures nil loss to the economy due to stoppage of production or under-utilization of resources, and minimum loss of employment, revenues to government, local ecosystem and ancillary industries. Certainty and clean title: When insolvency is resolved through the Code, there is a certainty in the settlement of liabilities and ownership of assets. Since all liabilities including government dues are settled, the resolution applicant is vested with a clean and litigation-free business and assets, etc. Prevents fraudulent activities by debtors: Since the ownership and control of the business entity, its assets and business activities stand transferred from the debtor to an insolvency professional as soon as an application is admitted by the adjudicating authority, the debtor is pre-empted from indulging in any activity to defraud the creditors. Relief for bona fide debtors: Prior to the IBC, the liabilities that remained unpaid after proceedings continued to haunt the debtors for the rest of their lives. However, resolution through the Code guarantees final settlement of all liabilities, thus freeing the bona fide debtors from debt traps and government liabilities. Challenges for the IBC: Lack of proper resolution: As per the IBBI data of 3400 cases in the last six years, more than 50% of the cases ended in liquidation while only 14% cases found a proper resolution. Huge delays in resolution: The amended IBC act made the total timeline for completion of the resolution process to 330 days from the earlier 180­ day deadline (with a permitted 90­ day extension). However, in FY22, it took 772 days to resolve cases involving companies owing more than Rs. 1,000 crore. Haircuts: It means the debt foregone by the lender as a share of the outstanding claim. The Parliamentary Standing Committee on Finance in 2021 noted an average haircut of 80% by the creditors in more than 70% of the cases in the 5 years of the IBC. As per The Hindu Data Team, almost 33 of 85 companies with more than Rs. 1,000 crore debt had been given haircuts above 90% by the lenders. For example, the Videocon Group was given a haircut of 95.3% by the creditors. Lack of digitisation: It has led to the delays beyond the prescribed statutory limits in the insolvency resolution process. Overburdening of courts: As the number of NCLTs and NCLATs are limited, they are weighed down by a deluge of applications, naturally impeding the timely conclusion of proceedings. Thus it is time to double the number of benches of both the NCLT and NCLAT. Lack of coordination between parties involved: Time and again, a lack of coordination between the parties in the process (creditors, stakeholders) is encountered which delays and stymies the insolvency proceedings. Way Forward: As the Parliamentary Standing Committee suggested, the timeline of not more than 30 days to admit the insolvency application and transfer control of the company to a resolution process after filing. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) also suggested that haircuts not be looked at as the difference between the creditor’s claims and the actual amount realized. But the difference between what the company offers while entering IBC and the value realized. It is important for the key stakeholders to make their best endeavours to ensure that the power of the IBC does not diminish. The goal must be to fill the voids that are discovered and move towards a more complex legal system over time. Source:   TH Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Wildlife Sanctuary State 1.Barren Island Lakshadweep 2.Pocharam Telangana 3.Kaimur Rajasthan How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Shivaji Maharaj took on the titles of Shakakarta and Haindava Dharmodhhaarak. Statement-II: Battle of Sangamner, 1679 was the first battle in which the Maratha King Shivaji fought. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the GST Council, consider the following statements: It is a statutory and not a constitutional body. It gives recommendations on important issues related to GST exclusively to the Union Government. It can decide various rate slabs of GST. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 2 only Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Critically analyse the progress made in resolving stressed assets since the enactment of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC). (250 words) Q.2) Though women in post-Independent India have excelled in various fields, the social attitude towards women and feminist movement has been patriarchal.” Apart from women education and women empowerment schemes, what interventions can help change this milieu? (250 Words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  7th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 6th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

Oct 7, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 7th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test  Click Here

Oct 6, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 6th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Seventh India-EU Cyber Dialogue Syllabus Prelims –INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS Context: The Seventh India-EU Cyber Dialogue was held recently. About Seventh India-EU Cyber Dialogue:- Date: 05 October 2023. Venue: Brussels, Belgium. In the context of the vibrant Strategic Partnership between India and the EU, the two sides expressed appreciation for the Cyber Dialogue mechanism. Objective: to provide a platform to discuss a wide range of issues related to cyberspace. Both sides exchanged views on cyber policies, strategies, and areas of mutual interest. They discussed cyber cooperation in multilateral fora, including at the United Nations, and in regional settings, including at OSCE, ARF, and G20. They also discussed cooperation in promoting capacity building in cyberspace and combating the criminal use of ICTs. About India-EU Relations:- The EU is a political and economic union of 27 member states that are located primarily in Europe. The union and EU citizenship were established when the Maastricht Treaty came into force in 1993. India was one of the first countries to establish relations with the European Economic Community in the 1960s. The retreat of the U.S. from global leadership has provided opportunities for EU-India cooperation.  Political Cooperation:- 2000: The first India-EU Summit was held in 2000 which marked a watershed in the development of the relationship. 2004: The relationship was upgraded to a ‘Strategic Partnership’ during the 5th India-EU Summit held in 2004. 2018: the EU’s strategy on India entitled “A Partnership for Sustainable Modernization and Rules-based Global Order” was issued by the European Commission and the EU High Representative for Foreign Affairs and Security Policy. Trade:- India is an important trade and investment partner for the EU. (India-EU: Trade talks) It is the second-largest destination for Indian exports after the United States. India’s bilateral trade with the EU amounted to USD 116.36 billion in 2021-22. Despite the global disruptions, bilateral trade achieved impressive annual growth of 43.5% in 2021-22. The trade agreement with the EU would help India further expand and diversify its exports of goods and services, including securing the value chains. Defense & Security:- EU and India have instituted several mechanisms for greater cooperation on pressing security challenges like counterterrorism, maritime security, and nuclear non-proliferation. Information Fusion Centre – Indian Ocean Region in New Delhi (IFC-IOR) has recently been linked up with the Maritime Security Centre – Horn of Africa (MSC-HOA) established by the EU Naval Force (NAVFOR). Climate Change:- EU and India also underline their highest political commitment to the effective implementation of the Paris Agreement and the UNFCCC. (EU’s Sustainability Push on India) The India-EU Clean Energy and Climate Partnership was agreed at the 2016 Summit. EU and India also cooperate closely on the Clean Ganga initiative. Research and Development:- The India-EU Science & Technology Steering Committee meets annually to review scientific cooperation. Both have official mechanisms in fields such as Digital Communications, 5G technology, Biotechnology, artificial intelligence, etc. ISRO has had a long-standing cooperation with the European Union, since the 1970s. It has contributed to the EU’s satellite navigation system Galileo. Challenges:- Deadlock over BTIA: The negotiations for a Broad-based Bilateral Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA) were held between 2007 to 2013 but have remained dormant/suspended since then. EU primarily remains a trade bloc: This has resulted in a lack of substantive agreements on matters such as regional security and connectivity. China’s influence: The EU has a high dependence on the Chinese market. It is a major partner in China’s Belt and Road Initiative (BRI). Ukrainian war: EU expects India to criticize Russia. MUST READ: India-EU ties SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India’s projects on connectivity, consider the following statements: (2023) The East-West Corridor under the Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat. A Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar. Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the Trade and Technology Council’. Statement-II: The USA and the EU claim that through this, they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct International Criminal Court Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT INSTITUTIONS Context: The Armenian parliament recently, voted to join the International Criminal Court. Background:- The move is likely to further strain Armenia’s deteriorating relation with its ally Russia, which last month called Armenia’s push to join the ICC an “unfriendly step.” About Armenia:- IMAGE SOURCE: operationworld.org Continent: Asia. Capital: Yerevan. Armenia is a landlocked country. It is located toward the end of the southern Caucasus Mountains. Bordering countries: Azerbaijan, Nagorno-Karabakh Republic (a disputed territory), Turkey, Nakhchivan Autonomous Republic (an exclave of Azerbaijan), Georgia, and Iran. About International Criminal Court:- Establishment: 2002. HQ: Hague, Netherlands. Official languages: English, French, Arabic, Chinese, Russian and Spanish. The International Criminal Court (ICC) is an international organization and international tribunal. The Court’s founding treaty, called the Rome Statute. India is not a party to the Rome Statute along with US and China. It is the world’s first permanent international criminal court. ​The International Criminal Court (ICC) investigates and, where warranted, tries individuals charged with the gravest crimes of concern to the international community. ICC’s Jurisdiction:- It grants the ICC jurisdiction over four main crimes. First: the crime of genocide. It is characterized by the specific intent to destroy in whole or in part a national, ethnic, racial, or religious group by killing its members or by other means: causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of the group. Second: the ICC can prosecute crimes against humanity. (Rohingya & ICC) These are serious violations committed as part of a large-scale attack against any civilian population. Third: war crimes are grave breaches of the Geneva conventions in the context of armed conflict. Fourth: includes crime falling within the ICC’s jurisdiction is the crime of aggression. It is the use of armed force by a State against the sovereignty, integrity, or independence of another State. The definition of this crime was adopted by amending the Rome Statute at the first Review Conference of the Statute in Kampala, Uganda, in 2010. Limitations of ICC:- ICC does not have its own police force or enforcement body, it relies on cooperation with countries worldwide for support. There are insufficient checks and balances on the authority of the ICC prosecutor and judges. ICC has been accused of being a tool of Western imperialism and biased in favour of powerful countries against weak states. MUST READ: International Court of Justice SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) International Labour Organization’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to (2018) Child labour Adaptation of agriculture practices to global climate change Regulation of food prices and food security Gender parity in the workplace Q.2) In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’? (2018) Civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards. The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of the IAEA The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG). The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG Dandeli Wildlife Sanctuary Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recent studies show that Dandeli Wildlife Sanctuary is losing its distinctive grasses & and hornbills to erratic weather. Background:- Rising temperature, and changing rainfall patterns may have affected the growth of plants essential to the native ecosystem. About Dandeli Wildlife Sanctuary:- IMAGE SOURCE: traveltriangle.com Location: Uttara Kannada District, Karnataka. Area: 16 square kilometers. The Dandeli sanctuary covers part of the rich forests of the Uttara Kannada District. It lies on the banks of the river Kali. The Kali River or Kaali Nadi is a river flowing through Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka state in India. The river rises near Kushavali, a small village in Uttar Kannada district. Mouth: Arabian Sea. The Kali exits at Supa Dam near Kurandi then flows east towards Dandeli. In the jungles of Dandeli, one can spot several animals as well as birds including many endangered species. The government declared the Dandeli forest, a National Wildlife Sanctuary in 1956. This sanctuary is the second-largest wildlife sanctuary in Karnataka. Along with its adjoining Anshi National Park, Dandeli is an abode of 40 tigers. Cultural attractions: Kavala caves, Magod Falls, Molangi Falls, Syntheri Rock, Shivaji Fort. Flora: Eucalyptus, Tectona grandis, Grevillea robusta, T. bellerica, Adina cordifolia, Mitragyna parviflora, Acacia etc. Fauna: Malabar Giant Squirrel or Ratufa Indica, Barking Deer, Gaur, Indian Pangolin, tigers, flycatchers, woodpeckers, etc. MUST READ: Wildlife Protection SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Recently, there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to one of the following sites (2017) Corbett National Park Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Sariska National Park SAMPRITI-XI Syllabus Prelims –DEFENSE Context: The 11th edition of the Exercise SAMPRITI, began recently. About SAMPRITI-XI:- Date: October 3, 2023. Venue: Umroi, Meghalaya, India. SAMPRITI, was initiated in 2009. Objective: to boost interoperability, share tactical expertise, and promote best practices between the Indian and Bangladeshi armies. It is an annual joint military exercise, between India and Bangladesh. This exercise, alternates between the two nations. It highlights the strong bilateral defense cooperation between the two countries. (Maitri Diwas) SAMPRITI-XI is scheduled for a duration of 14 days. It will involve approximately 350 personnel from both India and Bangladesh. Focus: enhancing cooperation and interoperability while conducting Sub-Conventional Operations as per Chapter VII of the UN mandate. It consists of a Command Post Exercise (CPX), a Field Training Exercise (FTX), and a Validation Exercise. MUST READ: Maitri Setu between India and Bangladesh SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America National Investment and Infrastructure Fund Context: Recently, the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund has unveiled a $600 m India-Japan Fund. Background:- The National Investment and Infrastructure Fund has entered into a collaboration with the Japan Bank for International Cooperation (JBIC) to unveil a $600 million India-Japan Fund. About National Investment and Infrastructure Fund:- Establishment: 2015. Objective: to maximize economic impact, especially by infrastructure investment in commercially viable projects. NIIF is India’s first sovereign wealth fund set up by the government of India. It is a fund manager that invests in infrastructure and related sectors in India. The Indian government has a 49% stake in NIIF with the rest held by foreign and domestic investors. NIIF currently manages three funds each with its distinctive investment mandate. The funds are registered as Alternative Investment Funds (AIF) with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). It has been incorporated as a company under the Companies Act, 2013, duly authorized to act as investment manager of the National Investment and Infrastructure Fund. Governance:- NIIF has a Governing Council, which is chaired by the Hon’ble Finance Minister of India. It comprises of eminent members from corporates, investments, and policy sectors. The Governing Council meets annually and provides guidance on the overall strategy of NIIF. Functions:- Fund raising through suitable instruments including off-shore credit enhanced bonds, and attracting anchor investors to participate as partners in NIIF. Servicing of the investors of NIIF. Considering and approving candidate companies/institutions/ projects (including state entities) for investments and periodic monitoring of investments. Investing in the corpus created by Asset Management Companies (AMCs) for investing in private equity. Preparing a shelf of infrastructure projects and providing advisory services. MUST READ: Approved SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements. (2022) An increase in the Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of the rupee. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Nanoparticles Syllabus Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY Context: Recent studies show that Nanoparticles from vehicle fumes in Delhi can cause acute illness. Key Highlights of the study:- The study analyzed nanoparticles (10 to 1090 nanometers in diameter) in Delhi in 2021, over two periods — from April to June, and October to November. Nanoparticles in Delhi’s air, a major chunk of which comes from vehicular emissions. It can potentially be transported from the respiratory system to other parts of the human body, creating more chronic and acute illnesses. These “very small particles” may come from natural sources or from human activities. In urban road environments, nanoparticles come mainly from the combustion process in automobiles. In urban environments, ultrafine particles of 1 to 100 nanometers can contribute up to 90% to the total particle number concentration. Meteorology and other factors can also influence the concentration of these particles. With the rise in relative humidity, coagulation of these particles results in their concentration becoming high. The high concentrations of these pollutants are found during peak morning and evening hours due to vehicular emissions. (AIR POLLUTION) About Nanoparticles:- The nanoparticles are small particles which have a range between 1 to 100 nanometers in size They are naturally occurring substances. These materials can be fashioned as the by-products of combustion reactions. These are not visible to the eyes. They can have different types of physical and chemical properties. Properties:- There are three major physical properties of nanoparticles, and all are interrelated:- They are highly mobile in the free state. They have enormous specific surface areas. They may exhibit what are known as quantum effects. Applications:- Nanoparticles are used in Nanoparticles are also used in different types of environmental preservation processes. They are widely used in cosmetic industries. The use of nanoparticles in sports industries is quite important. The use of nanomaterials among other industries for the manufacturing of the towels and mats used by sportspeople. Developers use Nano-titanium dioxide to promote the self-cleaning process of the surfaces of plastic garden chairs. Photovoltaics (PV) are the types of nanoparticles that can control the size, shape, and material of the nanoparticle. These nanoparticles allow engineers to design different types of solar thermal products. MUST READ: Cordy gold nanoparticles SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the role of biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture Systems, consider the following statements:(2023) Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed. Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate. Biofilters increase phosphorus as a nutrient for fish in water. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements (2022) Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics. Nanoparticles of the same commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 3 only 1 and 2 2 and 3 Sendai Framework Syllabus Prelims –DISASTER MANAGEMENT Context: Heavy rains that led to a landslide in Uttarakhand last week brought back the significance of implementing the Sendai Framework. About Sendai Framework:- Adopted:2015. Adopted in Sendai, Japan. Duration: 2015-2030. The Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction 2015-2030 was adopted at the Third UN World Conference in Sendai, Japan. It applies to the risk of small-scale and large-scale, frequent and infrequent, sudden and slow-onset disasters caused by natural or man-made hazards, as well as related environmental, technological, and biological hazards and risks. It is the outcome of stakeholder consultations initiated in March 2012 and inter-governmental negotiations from July 2014 to March 2015, supported by the United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction at the request of the UN General Assembly. It is a 15-year, voluntary, non-binding agreement that recognizes that the State has the primary role to reduce disaster risk. It aims for the substantial reduction of disaster risk and losses in lives, livelihoods, and health. Historical Background:- The Sendai Framework is the successor instrument to the Hyogo Framework for Action (HFA) 2005-2015: Building the Resilience of Nations and Communities to Disasters. The HFA was conceived to give further impetus to the global work under the International Framework for Action for the International Decade for Natural Disaster Reduction of 1989, and the Yokohama Strategy for a Safer World: Guidelines for Natural Disaster Prevention, Preparedness and Mitigation and its Plan of Action, adopted in 1994 and the International Strategy for Disaster Reduction of 1999. Four Priority Areas:- Understanding Disaster Risk: To promote the collection, analysis, and management. Strengthening disaster risk governance to manage disaster risk: To carry out an assessment of the technical, financial, and administrative disaster risk management capacity. Investing in disaster risk reduction for resilience: To allocate the necessary resources. Enhancing disaster preparedness for effective response and to “Build Back Better” in recovery, rehabilitation, and reconstruction: To establish community centers for the promotion of public awareness and the stockpiling of necessary materials. The Seven Global Targets:- To support the assessment of global progress in achieving the outcome and goal of the present Framework, seven global targets:- Target 1 to reduce mortality: The first target aims to substantially reduce global disaster mortality by 2030, with an aim to lower the average per 100,000 global mortality rate in the decade 2020-2030 compared to the period 2005-2015. Target 2 to reduce the number of affected people: The second target aims to reduce the number of affected people globally by 2030, with a target to lower the average global figure per 100,000 in the decade 2020 -2030 compared to the period 2005-2015. Target 3 to reduce direct disaster economic loss: It aims to reduce loss in global gross domestic product (GDP) due to disaster by 2030. Target 4 to substantially reduce disaster damage to critical infrastructure and disruption of basic services: This includes reducing damage to health and educational facilities through developing their resilience by 2030. Target 5 to spread disaster risk efforts: It envisages substantially increasing the number of countries with national and local disaster risk reduction strategies by 2020. Target 6 to increase cooperation and support: It aims to enhance international cooperation with developing countries through adequate and sustainable support to complement their national actions for implementation of this Framework by 2030. Target 7 to increase accessibility: It aims to substantially increase the availability and access to multi-hazard early warning systems and disaster risk information and assessments to the people by 2030. (National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)) MUST READ: Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2020) Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only. Only some cyclones develop an eye. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10°C less than that of the surroundings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 2 only 1 and 3 only Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019) Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of the Ramsar Convention. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mains: Fixing the Rot in the Cooperative Sector Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: The Enforcement Directorate (ED) investigation was recently constituted citing financial irregularities in the Karuvannur Service Cooperative Bank of Kerala. About Cooperative Societies: According to the International Cooperative Alliance (ICA), cooperatives are people-centred enterprises jointly owned and democratically controlled by and for their members to realise their common economic, social and cultural needs and aspirations. The Union Ministry of Cooperation was formed in 2021, its mandate was looked after by the Ministry of Agriculture before. Constitutional provisions related to cooperatives: The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act 2011 established the right to form cooperative societies as a fundamental right under Article 19. It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on the Promotion of Cooperative Societies under Article 43-B. It added a new Part IX-B to the Constitution titled “The Co-operative Societies” from articles 243-ZH to 243-ZT. It authorizes the Parliament to establish relevant laws in the case of multi-state cooperative societies (MSCS) and state legislatures in the case of other cooperative societies. Status of cooperatives in India: Currently, there are about 10 lakh cooperatives, of which 1.05 lakh are financial cooperatives. Among the financial co-operatives, rural co-operatives have a three-tier system with around 1.02 lakh primary agricultural cooperative societies (PACS); 351 District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs), 34 State Cooperative Banks (SCBs), 616 rural cooperatives for long-term lending. India has 1,514 primary urban cooperative banks (UCBs), of which, 52 are scheduled and the rest unscheduled, some are multi-State UCBs. Advantages of cooperative societies: Easy establishment: Any ten members who have acquired the majority can form a cooperative society with few legal formalities. Transparency and Equality: A cooperative society is based on the principle of ‘one man, one vote‘. All members have equal rights in handling the internal affairs. The surplus generated by these societies is dispensed equally among the members. Support agriculture and allied activities: Cooperative societies have supported the government’s effort to improve agricultural production. They act as a bridge between the government and farmers. For example, the government disburses High-Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds and fertilizers via Cooperatives. Social Benefits: Cooperative societies have played a significant role in modulating social customs and controlling irrelevant expenses. The profits reaped by the cooperatives can be used for facilitating fundamental amenities of the society. Limited Liability: The member’s liability in a cooperative society is confined to the extent of their capital contribution. Access to Credit: Cooperative societies have helped in reducing the influencing of private money lenders in rural areas. Cooperatives facilitate credit at the nominal interest rate. Challenges associated with cooperative sector in India: No accountability and transparency: The government gave too many benefits to cooperatives, but then there was no further accountability which led to these cooperatives becoming more and more lethargic. Besides as there was no competition, they became more and more costly they were not at all efficient and the worst part was that the government allowed them to function like this and pass on the burden of costs to consumers. Vested interest of some people: A lot of times people who are in position in control of cooperatives are actually people who have joined cooperatives for personal gains. Lack of coordination: Generally what happens in cooperatives is that different cooperatives at different level don’t coordinate this makes the work of cooperatives difficult. The Internal free rider problem: New members who provide very little capital enjoy the same benefits as long-standing or founding members who have major investments in the cooperative New members get a “free ride” on the investments and other efforts of existing members, thereby diluting the returns to existing members. No balanced growth: The cooperatives in northeast areas and in areas like West Bengal, Bihar, Orissa are not as well developed as the ones in Maharashtra and the ones in Gujarat. Political Interference: Frequent political interference is the ruining administration of the sector. This is the biggest problem faced by Sugar cooperatives in Maharashtra. Mismanagement: A hugely large membership turns out to be mismanaged unless some secure methods are employed to manage such co-operatives. In the elections to the governing bodies, money became such a powerful tool that the top posts of chairman and vice-chairman usually went to the richest farmers who manipulated the organization for their benefits. Lack of awareness and restricted coverage: People are not well informed about the objectives of the Movement, rules and regulations of co-operative institutions. Most of these societies are confined to a few members and their operations extended to only one or two villages. Way Forward: Co-operatives have great potential to rejuvenate growth, formalise the economy, and reduce inequality besides improving the standard of living of the poor in the rural areas. Provision of adequate financial and technical assistance can enable them to address rural challenges and contribute to India’s growth story. The government has to fix responsibility for the scam and ensure that the culprits are brought to book regardless of their political affiliation. Source:    TH Glacial Lake Outburst Flood (GLOF) Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Geography) and GS 3 (Disaster management) Context: Flash floods occurred in north Sikkim after the South Lhonak Lake burst due to incessant rains. For years, numerous studies highlighted the lake’s rapidly growing size and marked it as susceptible to glacial lake outburst flood. About Glacial Lake Outburst Flood (GLOF): A glacial lake outburst flood (GLOF) is a type of catastrophic flood that occurs when the dam containing a glacial lake fails, releasing a large volume of water. This type of flood is typically caused by rapid melting of glaciers or the buildup of water in the lake due to heavy precipitation or the inflow of meltwater. In February 2021, Chamoli district in Uttarakhand witnessed flash floods which are suspected to have been caused by GLOFs. Source:  HT Causes behind GLOFs: Structural failure: When glaciers start to melt, they can create glacial lakes. The water in these lakes can put pressure on the natural dam that holds the water in, causing it to fail. Earthquakes: Earthquakes can cause sudden changes in the shape and stability of a glacial lake and its dam, leading to a GLOF. Climate change: Rising temperatures and increased rainfall can lead to more meltwater and therefore more glacial lakes, as well as increase the risk of GLOFs. Human activities: Human activities, such as construction or mining, can cause changes in the area around a glacial lake that can lead to a GLOF. Impact: GLOF has the potential to catastrophically threaten people’s lives, livelihoods and regional infrastructure. Old Study Warned About Threat of Lake Bursting in Sikkim: A study by an international team of researchers had warned two year ago that the South Lhonak lake in Sikkim may burst in the future and significantly impact the downstream region. The 2021 study, published in the journal Geomorphology, highlighted that South Lhonak Lake had witnessed a significant growth in the past decades due to glacial retreat, thereby increasing its chances of glacial lake outburst floods (GLOF). Key measures to tackle GLOF: The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) to tackle Glacial Bursts: Some of the key measures recommended by the NDMA include: Risk assessment: Conducting regular assessments of the risk posed by GLOFs in order to identify vulnerable areas and communities, and to prioritize areas for intervention. Early warning systems: Establishing early warning systems that can detect potential GLOFs and provide timely alerts to communities and authorities. Disaster management plans: Developing and implementing disaster management plans that outline the measures to be taken in the event of a GLOF, including evacuation plans, rescue and relief operations, and post-disaster rehabilitation. Capacity building: Building the capacity of local communities, authorities, and emergency responders to respond to GLOFs and other natural disasters, through training and awareness programs. Risk reduction measures: Implementing risk reduction measures, such as glacial lake stabilization to mitigate the risk posed by GLOFs. Way Forward: The series of disasters that occurred in Sikkim after the triggering of GLOF of South Lhonak Lake again proves that cascading hazards are becoming frequent due to climate change and human activities. It also reinforced that Himalayan regions are more susceptible to such disasters. Addressing these disasters requires an “integrated disaster management approach” that considers the connection between hazards and specific incidents to formulate effective risk-mitigation plans. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Wildlife Sanctuary Location 1.Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary Kerala 2.Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary Chhattisgarh 3.Govind Wildlife Sanctuary Uttarakhand How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only o Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: The National Investment and Infrastructure Fund is India’s first sovereign wealth fund set up by the government of India in 2017. Statement-II: The Indian government has a 49% stake in NIIF with the rest held by foreign and domestic investors. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the International Criminal Court, consider the following statements: Japanese is one of its official languages. ICC’s jurisdiction includes the crime of aggression. India is a party to the Rome Statute. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2 only 3 only Mains Practice Questions Q.1) What constraints and challenges do cooperative institutions face in India? how do they contribute to the socio-economic development of the country? (250 words) Q.2) What do you mean by the term glacial lake outburst floods (GLOF)? Explains the reasons and impacts of GLOF with recent examples.  (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  5th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 6th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

Oct 6, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 6th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test  Click Here

Oct 5, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 5th October 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) TIR Executive Board (TIRExB) Syllabus Prelims –ECONOMY Context: The Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs, Ministry of Finance (CBIC) recently requested support for India’s candidature for the TIR Executive Board (TIRExB). Background:- The Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs, Ministry of Finance, in association with the Ministry of External Affairs organized an event in New Delhi yesterday for ambassadors and delegates from Contracting Parties to the Convention on International Transport of Goods Under Cover of TIR Carnets (TIR Convention, 1975). About TIR Executive Board (TIRExB):- The TIR Executive Board (TIRExB) is a subsidiary body of the TIR Administrative Committee. Composition: it is composed of 9 members, each from different Contracting Parties to the TIR Convention. The TIRExB supervises and provides support in the application of the TIR procedure at the national and international levels. About TIR Convention:- Establishment: 1975. The TIR Convention stands for the “Convention on International Transport of Goods Under Cover of TIR Carnets.” The Customs Convention on the International Transport of Goods under Cover of TIR Carnets (TIR Convention, 1975). It is one of the most successful international transport conventions. It is so far the only universal Customs transit system in existence. (International Customs Day, 2023) To date, it has 78 Contracting Parties, including the European Union. It covers the whole of Europe and reaches out to North Africa and the Near and Middle East. More than 33,000 operators are authorized to use the TIR system and around 1.5 million TIR transports are carried out per year. It is an international harmonized system of Customs control, which enables seamless transport of goods crossing multiple international borders using a single customs document (TIR Carnet) and a unified system of guarantee. India and TIR:- India became a party to the TIR Convention in 2017. India is a significant trading nation in the Asia Pacific region. It has been a key participant in the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC). Since its accession to the Convention, India has taken several measures to promote the use of TIR. A National Guaranteeing Association has been appointed and a Circular 48/2018-Cus has been issued detailing the procedure and authorizing ports and other customs stations of the country. India has also conducted pilot runs, including one using digital TIR. (Free Trade Agreements regime) Measures have been initiated to ensure effective usage of TIR through stakeholder consultations. MUST READ: Need for Reforms in UN SOURCE: PIB  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following infrastructure sectors: (2023) Affordable housing Mass rapid transport Health care Renewable energy On how many of the above does the UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus on its investments? Only one Only two · Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021) 21st February is declared International Mother Language Day by UNICEF. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Swachhata Hi Seva Campaign Syllabus Prelims –GOVERNANCE Context: Recently, Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Ltd. (IREDA) began the ‘Ek Taarikh, Ek Ghanta, Ek Saath’ Cleanliness Initiative under Swachhata Hi Seva Campaign. Background:- As part of the ongoing ‘Swachhata Hi Seva’ Campaign 3.0, Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Ltd. (IREDA) joined the nation in organizing ‘Ek Taarikh, Ek Ghanta, Ek Saath’ cleanliness drive, at its office premises in Bhikaiji Cama Place, Delhi and adjoining areas recently. Ek Tareekh Ek Ghanta Ek Saath:- It is an initiative that is a massive voluntary effort for cleanliness in India, endorsed by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. The initiative encourages citizens to engage in one hour of “shramdaan” (voluntary labour) for cleanliness at 10 a.m. on October 1st as a tribute to Mahatma Gandhi. About Swachhata Hi Seva Campaign:- Ministry: Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA). Duration: The Swachhata Hi Seva (SHS) campaign is being celebrated from 15th September to 2nd October this year (2023). It is being celebrated as a prelude for the Swachh Bharat Diwas (2nd October) with nationwide participation. Implementation: It is under the joint aegis of DDWS & MoHUA. Theme of SHS-2023: ‘Garbage Free India’. Focus: visual cleanliness and welfare of SafaiMitras. The focus of these swachhata drives would be on high footfall public places like bus stands, railway stations, cantonment boards, beaches, tourist places, zoos, national parks & and sanctuaries, historical monuments, heritage sites, river fronts, ghats, drains and nallahs etc. in both rural & urban areas of State/ UT. Objectives:- For undertaking shramdaan activities aiming to generate Jan andolan through community participation. To provide impetus for the implementation of SBM. To disseminate the importance of a sampoorna swachh village. To reinforce the concept of Sanitation as everyone’s business. Activities:- Activities proposed for States / Districts / Blocks to organize SHS from 15th September 2023 to 2nd October 2023 are as follows:- Removal of garbage from all important places. Repair, painting, cleaning, and branding of all sanitation assets like litter bins, public toilets, dhalaos, waste transport vehicles, MRFs, etc. in the area. Drives to clean riverbanks and remove of waste (including plastic) from water bodies, especially in Ganga Grams and Ganga Towns. Cleaning of zoos, national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, etc. under MoEFCC along with regulation of plastic materials in protected areas to prevent littering. Cleanliness drives of tourist spots, ASI protected monuments along with IEC initiatives to discourage usage of single-use plastic items, saturating dry and wet waste bins in line with the Hara Geela Sookha Neela campaign, etc. MUST READ: Swachh Bharat 2.0 SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana : (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) In the context of India’s preparation for Climate-smart Agriculture, consider the following statements: (2021) The ‘Climate-Smart Village’ approach in India is part of a project led by Climate Change, Agriculture, and Food Security (CCAFS), an international research program. The project of CCAFS is carried out under the Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’s research centers. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 PM SVANidhi scheme Syllabus Prelims –POLITY-GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi has recently lauded the PM SVANidhi scheme which has crossed the milestone of 50 lakh beneficiaries. About PM SVANidhi scheme:- IMAGE SOURCE: transformingindia. mygov.in Launched in 2020. (UPSC CSE: PM SVANidhi scheme) Ministry: Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs. Implementation agency: Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI). Objective: Providing affordable Working Capital loans to street vendors to resume their livelihoods that have been adversely affected due to the COVID-19 lockdown. The scheme intends to facilitate collateral-free working capital loans of up to INR10,000/- of one-year tenure, to approximately 50 lakh street vendors. It is a Central Sector Scheme. Central sector schemes: schemes with 100% funding by the Central government and implemented by the Central Government machinery. Duration of the scheme: The duration of the scheme initially was until March 2022. It has been extended till December 2024. Salient Features:- Loan limit: Vendors can avail a working capital loan of up to Rs. 10,000.(PM SVANidhi scheme) This loan is repayable in monthly installments for the tenure of one year. No collateral is required to avail of the loan. Processing fee: There is no processing fee to apply for the scheme, making it cost-effective for street vendors. Loan repayment period: one year. Interest subsidy: On timely/ early repayment of the loan, an interest subsidy @ 7% per annum. It will be credited to the bank accounts of beneficiaries through Direct Benefit Transfers on a quarterly basis.  Eligibility Criteria:- The eligible vendors are identified as per the following criteria:- Certificate of Vending/Identity Card: Street vendors in possession of a Certificate of Vending/Identity Card issued by Urban Local Bodies (ULBs). Urban Local Bodies(ULBs) are encouraged to issue such vendors the permanent Certificate of Vending and Identification Card immediately and positively within a period of one month Letter of Recommendation: Street Vendors, left out of the ULB-led identification survey or who have started vending after completion of the survey and have been issued a Letter of Recommendation (LoR) to that effect by the ULB/Town Vending Committee (TVC). Advantages of the scheme:- The scheme promotes digital transactions through cash-back incentives up to an amount of Rs. 100 per month. The scheme encourages entrepreneurship. It also helps to create employment opportunities. (Programme of Socio-Economic Profiling of PM SVANidhi launched) MUST READ: SVANidhi se Samriddhi program SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents, and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana: (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Chemistry Nobel 2023 Syllabus Prelims –IMPORTANT AWARDS Context: The Chemistry Nobel 2023 was announced recently. Background:- The Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2023 was awarded to Moungi G. Bawendi, Louis E. Brus, and Alexei I. Ekimov. (Nobel Prize for Chemistry 2021) About Chemistry Nobel 2023:- The 2023 Nobel Prize in Chemistry was awarded for the discovery of quantum dots used in light-emitting diode or LED lights. These particles have unique properties and now spread their light from television screens and LED lamps. They catalyze chemical reactions and their clear light can illuminate tumour tissue for a surgeon. Timeline of the experiments:- In the early 1980s, this year’s chemistry laureates Louis Brus and Alexei Ekimov succeeded in creating (independently of each other) quantum dots. In 1993, chemistry laureate Moungi Bawendi revolutionized the methods for manufacturing quantum dots, making their quality extremely high which is a vital prerequisite for their use in today’s nanotechnology. Understanding the significance of the Experiment:- Quantum dots are nanoparticles or small particles ranging between 1 and 100 nanometres in size. ( Cordy gold nanoparticles) These are so tiny that their size determines their properties. The smallest quantum dots shine in blue and the big ones shine in yellow and red, and they only differ by size. The team succeeded in growing nanocrystals of a specific size. They did this by varying the temperature of the solution. These crystals also had a smooth and even surface. Researchers primarily utilized quantum dots to create coloured light. Applications:- The quantum dots can contribute to flexible electronics, miniscule sensors, slimmer solar cells, and perhaps encrypted quantum communication. It can Help spread light from television screens. It can help LED lamps use their clear light to illuminate tumor tissue during surgery. MUST READ: Nobel Prize Chemistry 2022 SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 PM Ujjwala Yojana Syllabus Prelims –POLITY-GOVERNMENT SCHEMES Context: The Government has recently, increased the LPG subsidy per cylinder by 100 rupees for the PM Ujjwala Yojana beneficiaries. Background:- Briefing the media, Information and Broadcasting Minister Anurag Singh Thakur said that in a major decision, the Union Cabinet approved an increase in LPG subsidy, raising it from the current 200 rupees per cylinder to 300 rupees per cylinder for the beneficiaries under Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana. About PM Ujjwala Yojana:- Launched: May 2016. Ministry: Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. Objective: to make clean cooking fuel such as LPG available to the rural and deprived households that were otherwise using traditional cooking fuels such as firewood, coal, cow-dung cakes, etc. PM Ujjwala 1.0 had a target to provide deposit-free LPG connections to 5 crore women members of BPL households. The scheme was expanded in April 2018 to include women beneficiaries from seven more categories (SC/ST, PMAY, AAY, most backward classes, tea garden, forest dwellers, etc.). EMI facilities were given for stove and refill costs (Interest-free loan). Ujjwala 2.0:- The Union budget for FY 21-22, announced the provision for an additional one crore LPG connection under the PMUY scheme. Additional allocation of 1.6 Crore LPG Connections under the PMUY Scheme with a special facility to migrant households. It will provide a deposit-free LPG connection. It will also give the first refill and hotplate (stove) free of cost to the beneficiaries. The migrants will not be required to submit ration cards or address proof. A self-declaration for both a ‘family declaration’ and a ‘proof of address’ will suffice. It will help achieve the Prime Minister’s vision of universal access to LPG. MUST READ: Pradhan MantriUjjwalaYojana (PMUY) – Diversion of LPG SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy : (2023) It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents, and pregnant women. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019) Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 South Lhonak lake Syllabus Prelims –GEOGRAPHY Context: Bursting of  South Lhonak Lake which took place recently was forewarned by researchers two years ago. Background:- Scientists had warned in 2021 that the South Lhonak lake in Sikkim would burst. The disaster finally took place on the intervening night of October 3-4, 2023. About South Lhonak Lake:- IMAGE SOURCE: ResearchGate Location: North Sikkim. Altitude: approximately 17,000 feet above sea level. Formation: Its formation is attributed to the melting glaciers of the region, a process accelerated by rising global temperatures. It plays a role in the hydrological cycle, releasing water downstream, ultimately benefiting the Teesta River basin. It is one of the fastest expanding lakes in the Sikkim Himalaya region. South Lhonak Lake is a Glacial lake. It is also one of the 14 potentially dangerous lakes susceptible to Glacial lake outburst floods (GLOFs). Glacial lakes are large bodies of water that sit in front of, on top of, or beneath a melting glacier. As they grow larger, they become more dangerous because glacial lakes are mostly dammed by unstable ice or sediment composed of loose rock and debris. In case the boundary around them breaks, huge amounts of water rush down the side of the mountains, which could cause flooding in the downstream areas. This is called glacial lake outburst floods or GLOF. () MUST READ: Lake SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which ~ of the following statements is correct? (2023) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about ·10 times of that received at the poles. Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation. Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere. Infrared waves are a part of the visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation. Q.2) Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers? (2022) Cauvery Manjira Pennar Tungabhadra Platypuses Syllabus Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY Context: Recent studies show that even platypuses aren’t safe from bushfires in Australia. Background:- Platypuses are disappearing from waterways after fire. About Platypuses:- Platypus is a duck-billed semi-aquatic organism. Distribution: They are found in Australia. Habitat: It is known for its reclusive nature and highly specific habitat requirements. It is found near small streams and cool moving rivers. Platypuses are unique to Australia. As monotremes, they lay eggs. They’re one of only five species of mammals that do. The other four are echidnas. They have webbed feet for swimming. They have electroreceptors in their bills to help them find food in rivers and streams. But they can be hard to find. It’s difficult to determine whether there’s a platypus living in a particular waterway. The Taronga Conservation Society Australia and the New South Wales government recently announced the plans to establish the world’s first platypus sanctuary consisting of ponds and burrows at a zoo near Sydney by 2022. MUST READ: National Surveillance Programme for Aquatic Animal Diseases (NSPAAD) SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Recently, there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites? (2017) Corbett National Park Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Sariska National Park Mains: Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Internal security) Context: The Delhi Police has sealed the office of news portal NewsClick, by invoking the UAPA Act, alleging it received money for pro-China propaganda. About the UAPA Act: Enacted in 1967 the UAPA presents an alternate criminal law framework where the general principles of criminal law are reversed. By relaxing timelines for the state to file chargesheets and its stringent conditions for bail, the UAPA gives the state more powers compared with the Indian Penal Code (IPC). Mandate: It is aimed at “more effective prevention of certain unlawful activities of individuals and associations for dealing with terrorist activities”. Unlawful activity: Unlawful activity means any conduct which constitutes a crime or which contravenes any law whether such conduct occurred before or after the commencement of this Act and whether such conduct occurred in the Republic or elsewhere. Terrorist act: Section 15 of the act defines “terrorist act” and is punishable with imprisonment for a term of at least five years to life. Power to central government: The Act assigns absolute power to the central government, by way of which if the Centre deems an activity as unlawful then it may, by way of an Official Gazette, declare it so. Applicability: The provisions of this Act apply; citizens of India outside India; persons in the service of the Government, wherever they may be; and persons on ships and aircrafts, registered in India, wherever they may be. 2004 amendment: It added “terrorist act” to the list of offences, to ban organisations for terrorist activities. Till 2004, “unlawful” activities referred to actions related to secession and cession of territory. Following the 2004 amendment, the “terrorist act” was added to the list of offences. 2019 amendment: The Parliament cleared the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Bill, 2019 to designate individuals as terrorists on certain grounds provided in the Act. The Act empowers the Director General of National Investigation Agency (NIA) to grant approval of seizure or attachment of property when the case is investigated by the said agency. The Act empowers the officers of the NIA, of the rank of Inspector or above, to investigate cases of terrorism in addition to those conducted by the DSP or ACP or above rank officer in the state. Criticisms associated with UAPA: Low conviction: According to a source, in 2018-20, as many as 4,690 people were arrested under the UAPA but only 3% were convicted. Sharp Rise in Use: This caution is significant given the sharp surge in the state’s use of this provision in a sweeping range of alleged offences Against tribals in Chhattisgarh Those using social media through proxy servers in Jammu and Kashmir; and Journalists in Manipur among others. Ignoring Fundamental Rights: It can simply be used to bypass fundamental rights and procedures. For instance, those arrested under UAPA can be incarcerated up to 180 days without a charge sheet being filed. It thus directly violates Article 21 of the constitution. Stringent Provision of bail: The standard for bail under the UAPA is that it cannot be granted unless the court is of the view that the accused is innocent of the alleged offence. It means that the onus of proof of innocence for the purpose of obtaining bail is effectively reversed. It is for the accused to show that he is innocent. Highly Discretionary: It confers upon the government broad discretionary powers and also authorizes the creation of special courts with the ability to use secret witnesses and to hold closed-door hearings. Recent judgments related to the UAPA, 1967: A. Najeeb v. Union of India (2021): The Supreme Court concluded that, despite the UAPA’s restrictions on bail, constitutional courts can nevertheless grant bail if the accused’s fundamental rights have been violated. Asif Iqbal Tanha v. State of NCT (2021): The Delhi High Court carried this logic a step further saying that courts should not wait until the accused’s right to a speedy trial has been completely revoked before releasing them. Bikramjit Singh v. The State Of Punjab (2020): SC declared that it is a fundamental right granted to an accused person to be released on bail once the conditions of the first proviso to Section 167(2) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (CrPC) are met. According to Section 167 (2) of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, an accused person’s imprisonment cannot be extended beyond the statutory time limit for the conclusion of the investigation. Way Forward: The Right to reputation is an intrinsic part of fundamental right to life with dignity under Article 21 of the Constitution of India and terming/tagging an individual as ‘terrorist’ even before the commencement of trial or any application of judicial mind over it does not adhere to procedure established by law. The Act has indeed been the centre of several debates because of its abusive nature and lack of a proper mechanism for backup. It is up to the state, judiciary, civil society to balance constitutional freedom and the imperative of anti-terror pursuits. Source: Indian Express Circular migration: looking at both sides of the debate Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Society) Context: In India, internal migration, which is migration within a particular country or State, has almost always been circular. With rapid industrialisation, there has been a huge flow of migrants from rural areas to urban cities. About circular migration: Circular migration is defined by temporary residence, potential for multiple entries, and freedom of movement between origin and destination. A circular migrant completes at least two loops between the origin and destination. India experiences substantial internal circular migration, notably from rural to urban areas, often for jobs in sectors like construction. According to Philippe Fargues, migration can define as circular if it meets the following criteria: there is a temporary residence in the destination location , there is the possibility of multiple entries into the destination country, there is a freedom of movement between the country of origin and the country of destination during the period of residence, there is a legal right to stay in the destination country, there is protection of migrants’ rights, and if there is a healthy demand for temporary labour in the destination country. Circular migration within India: In India, internal migration has almost always been circular. Between 2004–2005 and 2011–2012, the construction sector witnessed one of the largest net increases in employment for all workers, specifically for rural males. In India, the uneven development post-liberalisation, has led to a lot of inter-State migration, with States like West Bengal, Odisha and Bihar having some of the highest rates of out-migration. Initially, while most of the migration was to Delhi, nowadays it has increased to southern States as well. Positive Impacts of circular migration: Labor Demand and Supply: Migration fills gaps in demand for and supply of labor, and efficiently allocates skilled labor, unskilled labor, and cheap labor. Economic Remittances: The economic well-being of migrants provides insurance against risks to households in the areas of origin, increases consumer expenditure and investment in health, education and assets formation. Skill Development: Migration enhances the knowledge and skills of migrants through exposure and interaction with the outside world. Social Remittances: Migration helps to improve the social life of migrants, as they learn about new cultures, customs, and languages which helps to improve brotherhood among people and ensures greater equality and tolerance. Food and Nutrition Security: According to the 2018 State of Food and Agriculture report by Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), outmigration often leads to improved food and nutrition security for migrants. Demographic Advantage: As a result of outmigration, the population density of the place of origin is reduced and the birth rate decreases. Climate Change Adaptive Mechanism: Migration has also emerged as a possible adaptive mechanism in the context of climate change and the occurrence of extreme weather events like floods, droughts, and cyclones. Negative Impact of circular migration: Demographic Profile: Emigration in large numbers can alter demographic profiles of communities, as most of the young men move out, leaving only the women and elderly to work on the land. Political Exclusion: Migrant workers are deprived of many opportunities to exercise their political rights like the right to vote. Population Explosion and the Influx of workers in the place of destination increases competition for the job, houses, school facilities etc and a large population puts too much pressure on natural resources, amenities, and services. Illiterate and Under-skilled Migrants are not only unfit for most jobs, because of a lack of basic knowledge and life skills but are also prone to the victimization of exploitation, trafficking, psychological abuse, and gender-based violence in the case of female migrants. Increased Slum: Mass Migration results into an increase in slum areas, compromising quality of infrastructure and life at the destination, which further translates into many other problems such as unhygienic conditions, crime, pollution, etc. Challenges of circular migration: Worker Exploitation: In India, circular migrants, particularly to southern states, can face exploitation and unsafe working conditions. They sometimes work in unsanitary conditions, with limited protective equipment, and might deal with middlemen or brokers who may take advantage of them. Economic Strain: Migrants often engage in low-skill jobs, earning just enough to support themselves and their families, with little room for savings or asset creation. Although they may access higher-paying jobs in the destination, the work is often seasonal and irregular, leading to financial instability. Pressure on Society and Infrastructure: Both rural and urban areas can experience different kinds of strain. Rural areas might see economic and demographic declines, while urban areas might face infrastructural breakdown due to the influx of migrants. Steps taken by the Government for Migrant Workers: Prime Minister Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) Scheme: Provides affordable working capital loans to street vendors to restart their livelihoods that have been adversely affected due to the Covid-19 lockdown. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana: It is a food security welfare scheme announced during the COVID-19 pandemic in India. Garib Kalyan Rojgar Abhiyaan (GKRA) initiative: GKRA aims to give employment to migrant workers, that has gone back to rural areas during COVID-19 migrant crisis. e-Shram portal: It is a centralized database of unorganized workers seeded with Aadhaar. It envisages the optimum realization of their employability and extension of social security scheme benefits to them. National policy on migrant workers: The draft policy by NITI Aayog makes efforts to bring together different sectoral concerns related to migration, including social protection, housing, health and education. One Nation One Ration Card scheme: It allows migrant labourers to get ration benefits from any part of the country, irrespective of the place where their ration card is registered. PM Awas Yojana: A scheme to provide affordable housing for migrants too. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY) and Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY): Provides for life & disability cover due to natural or accidental death. Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY): Provides Rs.5 lakh health coverage for secondary and tertiary health benefits to those migrant workers who are covered as eligible beneficiaries as per deprivation and occupation criteria. Source:   TH Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Nobel Laureates in 2023 Discipline of Award 1.Pierre Agostini, Ferenc Krausz, and Anne L’Huillier. Medicine 2.Moungi G Bawendi, Louis E Brus and Alexei I Ekimov. Chemistry 3.Katalin Kariko and Drew Weissman Physics How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: TIR Executive Board (TIRExB) is a subsidiary body of the TIR Administrative Committee. Statement-II: India became a party to the TIR Convention in 2007. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) With reference to the Swachhata Hi Seva Campaign, consider the following statements: ‘Ek Taarikh, Ek Ghanta, Ek Saath’ cleanliness drive was organized under it. It is being celebrated as a prelude to the Swachh Bharat Diwas (12th October). Cleaning of zoos, national parks, and wildlife sanctuaries are a few activities in the initiatives. How many of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 3 only Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Indian government has recently strengthened the anti-terrorism laws by amending the unlawful activities (Prevention) act (UAPA), 1967 and the NIA Act. Analyze the changes in the context of prevailing security environment while discussing the scope and reasons for opposing the UAPA by human rights organizations. (250 words) Q.2) What is Circular Migration? Discuss the challenges in addressing internal labor migration issues in India? What are the government policies taken to protect internal migrants? (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’  5th October 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 4th October – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

Oct 5, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 5th October 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test  Click Here