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IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS3 Questions [30th June, 2023] – Day 19

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day19 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –29th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) National Cooperative Union of India (NCUI) Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the 17th Indian Cooperative Congress (ICC) organized by the National Cooperative Union of India (NCUI) recently. Background:- National Cooperative Union of India (NCUI) is organizing the two days Indian Cooperative Congress. The theme of Amrit Kaal: Prosperity through Cooperation for a Vibrant India. The Union Home and Cooperation Minister Amit Shah will chair it. Objective of the Indian Cooperative Congress:- To discuss various trends in the cooperative movement. To showcase the best practices being adopted by the successful cooperatives. To deliberate on challenges being faced by the cooperative world. About the National Cooperative Union of India (NCUI):- Established: 1929. HQ: New Delhi. It is the apex body in India which represents all sectors of the Indian Co-operative Movement. (UPSC CSE: India’s Cooperative Sector) Objectives of NCUI:- To promote and develop the co-operative movement in India. To educate, guide and assist the people in their efforts. To build up and expand the co-operative sector. NCUI membership:- It is open to national and state-level co-operative organisations as well as multi-state co-operative societies. As of 2016, NCUI had 260 members, including, 17 National, 163 State and 80 Multi-State Cooperatives. Function: it provides service as an exponent of co-operative opinion in accordance with cooperative principles.  MUST READ: Cooperative Sector Reforms SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) ‘The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 National Research Foundation Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: Recently, the government has decided to bring the National Research Foundation (NRF) Bill, 2023 to strengthen the research ecosystem in the country. Background:- The Bill approved by the Union Cabinet will pave the way to establish National Research Foundation (NRF). The Bill will repeal the Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB) established by an act of Parliament in 2008 and subsume it into NRF. It will seed, grow and promote research and development and foster a culture of research and innovation throughout India’s universities, colleges, and research institutions. About National Research Foundation:- It is an apex body to promote, fund and mentor scientific research in higher education institutions. Initial budget of Rs 50,000 crore for over a five-year period between 2023 and 2028. The NRF would also provide fellowships for post-doctoral research, the funding for which is not available right now. Objective:- Cultivating the culture of research in universities and colleges. Facilitating research in universities across the country. (UPSC MAINS: Factors that have constrained research and innovation capabilities in India.) Historical Background:- The proposal for an NRF was first floated in the public domain by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in 2019, during his address to the Indian Science Congress. The NRF found a second mention on January 20 of that year during a joint session of Parliament. Later, it was mentioned in the Finance Minister’s speech during the Budget Session in July 2019. The creation of NRF was also one of the key recommendations of the National Education Policy 2020. 2023: the Union Cabinet approved the National Research Foundation(NRF),2023 bill to establish NRF. Administration of NRF:- The NRF would be administratively housed in the Department of Science and Technology (DST). It would have a 16-member governing board. Of these two members from DST, five from industry, one from humanities and six experts would be selected depending on the nature of the project being evaluated. Structure of NRF:- Prime Minister will be the ex-officio president of the board and the Minister of Science and Technology and the Minister of Education will be the ex-officio vice presidents. The NRF’s functioning will be governed by an executive council chaired by the Principal Scientific Advisor to the government of India. Funding for NRF:- Of the Rs 50,000 crore estimated funding over the next five years, Rs 36,000 crore would come from the industry. Scientific research projects under the NRF would be funded by the DST and industry on a 50:50 basis. The Department of Science and Technology’s main funding body, the Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB) will be absorbed in the NRF. SERB: it was set up in 2008. It is responsible for funding science and technology start-ups, setting up incubators and funding science-related projects in central and state universities.  Function of NRF:- The NRF will forge collaborations among the industry, academia, government departments and research institutions. It will create an interface mechanism for the participation and contribution of industries and state governments in addition to the scientific and line ministries. MUST READ: Number of women scientists goes up SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) What is the purpose of ‘Vidyanjali Yojana’? (2017) To enable famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 2 only 3 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only Padma Awards Syllabus Prelims –Awards Context: Recently, the Ministry of Home Affairs announced that the online nominations for Padma Awards 2024 would be open till 15th September 2023. About Padma Awards:- IMAGE SOURCES: Oneindia The Padma Award are one of the highest civilian honours of India. Instituted:1954. (UPSC CSE: Padma awards) Objective: to recognize achievements in all fields of activities or disciplines where an element of public service is involved. Presented by: President of India. Time period: March/April every year. It is announced every year on the occasion of Republic Day. There was a brief interruption(s) during the years: 1978 and 1979 and 1993 to 1997. The Awards are given in three categories:- Padma Vibhushan: for exceptional and distinguished service. Padma Bhushan: for distinguished service of higher order. Padma Shri: for distinguished service. Historical Background:– 1954: The Government of India instituted two civilian awards-Bharat Ratna & Padma Vibhushan. Padma Vibhushan had three classes namely Pahela Varg, Dusra Varg and Tisra Varg. 1955: These were renamed as Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri. Eligibility:- All persons without distinction of race, occupation, position or sex are eligible for these awards. Exclusion: Government servants including those working with PSUs, except doctors and scientists, are not eligible for these Awards. The award seeks to recognize works of distinction and is given for distinguished and exceptional achievements/service in all fields of activities/disciplines:- Art: includes Music, Painting, Sculpture, Photography, Cinema, Theatre etc. Social work: includes social service, charitable service, contribution to community projects etc. Public Affairs: includes Law, Public Life, Politics etc. Science & Engineering: includes Space Engineering, Nuclear Science, Information Technology, Research & Development in Science & its allied subjects etc. Trade & Industry: includes Banking, Economic Activities, Management, Promotion of Tourism, Business etc. Medicine: includes medical research, distinction/specialization in Ayurveda, Homeopathy, Siddha, Allopathy, Naturopathy etc. Literature & Education: includes Journalism, Teaching, Book composing, Literature, Poetry, Promotion of education, Promotion of literacy, Education Reforms etc. Civil Service: includes distinction/excellence in administration etc. by Government Servants Sports: includes popular Sports, Athletics, Adventure, Mountaineering, promotion of sports, Yoga etc. Others: fields not covered above and may include propagation of Indian Culture, protection of Human Rights, Wild Life protection/conservation etc. Decoration:- The awardees are presented a Sanad (certificate) signed by the President and a medallion. The recipients are also given a small replica of the medallion, which they can wear during any ceremonial/State functions etc. Selection Process:- The nomination process is open to the public. Even self-nomination can be made. The Padma Awards are conferred on the recommendations made by the Padma Awards Committee. Padma Awards Committee: It is constituted by the Prime Minister every year. It is headed by the Cabinet Secretary. Other members: Home Secretary, Secretary to the President and four to six eminent persons as members. Approval: The recommendations of the committee are submitted to the Prime Minister and the President of India for approval. Special Features of Padma Awards:- The total number of awards to be given in a year (excluding posthumous awards and to NRI/foreigners/OCIs) should not be more than 120. The award does not amount to a title and cannot be used as a suffix or prefix to the awardees’ name. The award is normally not conferred posthumously. However, in highly deserving cases, the Government could consider giving an award posthumously. MUST READ: Padma awardee Shanti Devi SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards : (2023) Major Dhyan Chand:       For the most spectacular and outstanding performance and outstanding Khel Ratna Award performance over a period of the last four years. Arjuna Award:                   For the lifetime achievement of a sportsperson. Dronacharya Award:       To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams. Rashtriya Khel:                 To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement. Protsahan Puraskar How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four CHAMPIONS 2.0 Portal Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently, the Union Minister for the Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises, Shri Narayan Rane launched the ‘CHAMPIONS 2.0 Portal’.  Background:- On International MSME Day, The Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises, MSME launched the ‘CHAMPIONS 2.0 Portal’. MSME Day: The United Nations General Assembly designated 27 June as “Micro-, Small, and Medium-sized Enterprises Day”. Objective: to raise awareness of the tremendous contributions of MSMEs to the achievement of the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). About CHAMPIONS 2.0 Portal:- Champions portal is a single-window grievance redressal portal for Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises(MSME). Launched: June 1, 2020. Ministry: Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises. Nomenclature: The CHAMPIONS stands here for the Creation and Harmonious Application of Modern Processes for Increasing Output and National Strength. It is created in a Hub & Spoke Model. Hub-and-spoke model: a transportation or distribution system that uses a central hub or node as a focal point for the movement of goods, people, or information to and from various spokes or peripheral locations. Hub: situated in New Delhi in the Secretary MSME’s office. Spokes: will be in the States in various offices and institutions of the Ministry. Objectives:- Addressing the challenges faced by MSMEs in managing their cluster projects efficiently. Ensuring a speedy, convenient, and effective redressal of MSME’s grievances. Handholding and helping MSMEs in their navigation of various government schemes/policies. Providing guidance and advisory services in areas of Finance, Marketing, Technology, Raw Material, Labour, Infrastructure and Capacity Building. (UPSC CSE: MSME sector issues and concern) Connecting MSMEs with key officials of the Ministry, State Governments, Lending Institutions and Government agencies. Dissemination of information and details of all schemes of the Ministry of MSME. New Features:- The revamped portal will now incorporate AI-driven chatbots. It will be available in 11 languages, including Hindi, Gujarati, Bengali, and Kannada. The portal will also have a real-time feedback mechanism for its analysis. Geo tagging through the mobile application will enable real-time monitoring, tracking, and evaluation of projects, ensuring transparency and effective resource utilisation. Geotagging: is the process of adding metadata that contains geographical information about a location to a digital map. The data usually consists of latitude and longitude coordinates. MUST READ: Empowering MSMEs digitally SOURCE: PIB  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Q.2) In India under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (2020) Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Kharchi Puja Syllabus Prelims – Art and Culture Context: Recently, Kharchi Puja 2023 was celebrated in Tripura. About Kharchi Puja:- Nomenclature: The word ‘Kharchi’ is derived from two Tripuri words–‘khar’ or kurta meaning sin and ‘chi’ or si meaning cleaning. Region: It is one of the main festivals of Tripura. Time period: It is performed during the months of July-August on the eighth day of the new moon. Significance of Kharchi Puja:- It is believed that the Mother Goddess or Tripura Sundari, the presiding deity of the land who protects the people of Tripura, menstruates during the time of Ambubachi. Ambubachi: observed in June. Popular belief: the Earth becomes impure during the menstruation period of the Goddess. Hence, Kharchi Puja is observed to ritualistically clean the Earth after her menstruation is over and wash away the sins of the people in the land. Rituals during Kharchi Puja:- During the festival, the people of Tripura worship the earth along with their 14 deities. (UPSC CSE: Bathukamma festival) The fourteen Gods are worshipped by the Royal priest ‘Chantai. It lasts for seven days and it takes place at old Agartala in the Fourteen Gods temple known as the ‘Chaturdasha Devata’ temple premises. The Kharchi Puja deities do not have a full body. They have only heads which are worshipped. On the day of the puja, the fourteen Gods are taken from the temple to the river Saidra by the Chantai members and given to bathe with the holy river water. They are then carried back to the temple. The festival it is celebrated by both tribal and non-tribal people of Tripura. MUST READ: Goa’s Sao Joao festival SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of the Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: (2021) It is a circular temple built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata Dynasty. It is the only circular temple built in India. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 2, 3 and 4 Mains: Govt of India Unveils Critical Mineral (CM) List Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: The Government of India, through the Ministry of Mines, is set to unveil for the first time “the list of Critical Minerals for India”. About critical minerals (CM): Critical minerals are elements that are crucial to modern-day technologies and are at risk of supply chain disruptions. Minerals such as antimony, cobalt, gallium, graphite, lithium, nickel, niobium, and strontium are among the 22 assessed to be critical for India. Many of these are required to meet the manufacturing needs of green technologies, high-tech equipment, aviation, and national defence. Significance of listing CM: Transition to clean energy: As countries around the world scale up their transition towards clean energy and digital economy, these critical resources are key to the ecosystem that fuels this change. Avoid dependence on other countries: Any supply shock can severely imperil the economy and strategic autonomy of a country over-dependent on others to procure critical minerals. But these supply risks exist due to rare availability, growing demand and complex processing value chain. Many times the complex supply chain can be disrupted by hostile regimes, or due to politically unstable regions. Increase in Demand: As the world transitions to a clean energy economy, global demand for these critical minerals is set to skyrocket by 400-600 per cent over the next several decades, and, for minerals such as lithium and graphite used in electric vehicle (EV) batteries, demand will increase by even more. Countries own list: Different countries may have their own unique lists of critical minerals based on their specific circumstances and priorities. The US has declared 50 minerals critical in light of their role in national security or economic development. The UK considers 18 minerals critical and Canada 31. Applications of CM: Electric vehicles: cobalt, lanthanum, lithium Fuel cells: platinum, palladium, rhodium Wind energy technologies: neodymium, dysprosium, terbium Aviation sector: titanium Photovoltaic solar technologies: cadmium, indium, gallium Challenges: India faces global and domestic challenges in assuring resilient critical minerals supply chains. International Challenges: China: China, the most dominant player in the critical mineral supply chains, still struggles with Covid-19-related lockdowns. As a result, the extraction, processing and exports of critical minerals are at risk of slowdown. Russia Ukraine war: Russia is one of the significant producers of nickel, palladium, titanium sponge metal, and the rare earth element scandium. The war between the two countries has implications for these critical mineral supply chains. Shifting Balance of power: As the balance of power shifts across continents and countries, the critical mineral supply chains may get affected due to the strategic partnership between China and Russia. As a result, developed countries have jointly drawn up partnership strategies, including the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) and G7’s Sustainable Critical Minerals Alliance, while developing countries have missed out. Domestic challenges: Scarce reserves: Manufacturing renewable energy technologies would require increasing quantities of minerals, including copper, manganese, zinc, and indium. Likewise, the transition to electric vehicles would require increasing amounts of minerals, including copper, lithium, cobalt, and rare earth elements. However, India does not have many of these mineral reserves, or its requirements may be higher than the availability, necessitating reliance on foreign partners to meet domestic needs. Minerals Security Partnership: India recently joined the coveted critical minerals club — the Mineral Security Partnership (MSP) — headed by the United States. MSP is a strategic grouping of 13 member states including Australia, Canada, Finland, France, Germany, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Sweden, the United Kingdom, US, the European Union, Italy and now India. It aims to catalyse public and private investment in critical mineral supply chains globally. India is already a member of the Intergovernmental Forum on Mining, Minerals, Metals and Sustainable Development, which supports the advancement of good mining governance. Way Forward: India’s inclusion in the club is vital for India to fulfill its ambition of shifting towards sustainable mobility through large, reliable fleets of electric public and private transport. It will also foster several bilateral, plurilateral and multilateral agreements, specifically for the governance involving critical minerals and their strategic importance among the member countries. Source:   PIB Fast Radio Bursts (FRB) Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Science and Technology) Context: In a study, astronomers have reported a fast radio burst (FRB) whose characteristics are different from almost all other FRBs previously detected, except one. About Fast Radio Bursts: Fast Radio Bursts are brief (few millisecond) bursts of radio waves coming from far beyond our Milky Way galaxy. The phenomenon was first reported in 2007. A defining property of these bursts is their dispersion the bursts produce a spectrum of radio waves, and as the waves travel through matter, they spread out or disperse with bursts at higher radio frequencies arriving at telescopes earlier than those at lower frequencies. This dispersion allows researchers to learn about two important things: They can measure this dispersion to learn about the stuff that radio bursts pass through as they travel toward Earth. Origin of Fast Radio Bursts (FRBs): FRBs have been spotted in various and distant parts of the universe, as well as in our own galaxy. Their origins are unknown and their appearance is highly unpredictable. The astronomers have suggested that the candidates for the sources of FRBs are the superdense neutron stars left over after a supernova, or magnetars (neutron stars with ultra-strong magnetic fields). The CHIME project has nearly quadrupled the number of fast radio bursts discovered to date. The telescope has detected 535 new FRBs in its first year of operation itself, between 2018 and 2019. With more observations, astronomers hope soon to find the origins of the FRBs. Significance of FRBs: First noticed in 2018 by the Canadian observatory the waves have created ripples across the globe for one reason — they arrive in a pattern. This gave birth to theories that they could be from an alien civilization. Initially, it was believed that the collision of black holes or neutron stars triggers them. But the discovery of repeating FRBs debunked the theory of colliding objects. The unique properties of fast radio bursts and their host galaxies combined with recent technological advancements have given researchers hope that these phenomena can be used to answer some long-standing questions about the universe. It can be used to understand the three–dimensional structure of matter in the universe and to learn about poorly understood early moments in the evolution of the universe. Way Forward: This theory will help in explaining the intense radio light ‘seen’ in the host galaxies of some FRBs. Some astronomers attribute this radio light to the glow around high energy events, such as a gigantic black hole at the centre of the galaxy, devouring stars. These findings will also help in the study of gravitational waves, which were first observed in 2015. Moreover, the upcoming space-based gravitational wave detector Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (LISA) could provide further insights into these high-energy cosmic events and the structure of the universe. Source:   The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Champion’s portal is a single-window grievance redressal portal for Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSME). Statement-II: The champion’s portal was launched in 2017. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Both tribal and non-tribal people celebrate Kharchi Puja. Statement-II: Kharchi Puja is a  festival in Manipur. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Padma Awards are the highest civilian honours of India. Statement-II: The President of India presents Padma Awards. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 29th June 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 28th June – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – d Q.3) -c

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 29th June 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS3 Questions [29th June, 2023] – Day 18

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day18 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –28th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Congo rainforest Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recent reports suggest, that the Congo rainforest continues to vanish with half a million hectares lost in 2022. Key findings of the study:- The Congo rainforest lost half a million hectares (mha) of forest last year. The Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC) lost over 500,000 hectares in 2022. It noted that 4.1 mha of primary tropical forest were lost worldwide last year Of this, Brazil accounted for 43 per cent of the total tropical primary forest loss, followed by DRC (12.1 per cent) and Bolivia. This destruction in natural forests generated 2.7 billion tonnes of CO2. The total area of humid primary forest in DRC decreased by 6.1 per cent during this period. Primary forests: forests of native tree species, where there are no clearly visible indications of human activities. Most of the primary forest loss consists of small clearings near cyclical agricultural areas, according to the report. Cyclical agricultural areas: land that is cleared (using slash-and-burn techniques) for the short-term cultivation of crops and left fallow for forests and soil nutrients to regenerate. Economic factors may be driving deforestation. Most Congolese rely on forests to meet their food and energy needs and thus reducing primary forest loss in the region remains a challenge. The drivers of forest loss across DRC are slash-and-burn agriculture, uncontrolled bushfires, charcoal production for local and regional markets, cattle ranching, and illegal (artisanal) logging Charcoal is the dominant form of energy in the region, which is generated by cutting and burning timber. About Congo rainforest:- IMAGE SOURCE: adlance22.blogspot.com The Congo is the world’s second-largest rainforest. (UPSC MAINS: India’s stakes in Africa) World’s largest rainforest is the Bordering countries: The Congo Rainforest encompasses six African countries:– Cameroon, Central African Republic, the Republic of Congo, the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC), Equatorial Guinea, and Gabon. Climate: it has a tropical climate year-round, with heavy precipitation and high humidity and temperatures. Plants: It houses approximately 10,000 tropical plants, 30% unique to the region. Wildlife: There are also 400 species of mammals, over 600 tree species, 10,000 animal species, 1,000 bird species, and 700 fish species. This includes endangered wildlife such as forest elephants, chimpanzees, and bonobos. Economic Significance: the Congo Basin provides food, medicine, water, materials and shelter for over 75 million people. Human inhabitants: More than 150 ethnic groups have lived in the Congo rainforest area for over 50,000 years. Among these ethnic groups, the Ba’Aka, BaKa, BaMbuti, Efe and other related groups are often referred to as Pygmy: a member of any human group whose adult males grow to less than 59 inches (150 cm) in average height. They rely on hunting and gathering for survival in the rainforest. MUST READ: India-Africa: Challenges & Way Ahead SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following trees: (2023) Jackfruit (Artoca7pus heterophyllus) Mahua (Madhuca indica) Teak (Tectona grandis) How many of the above are deciduous trees? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin? (2023) Cameroon Nigeria South Sudan Uganda Provident Fund (PF) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Recently, the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) has extended the deadline for members and pensioners to apply for higher Provident Fund (PF). About Provident Fund (PF):- Provident fund (PF) is a fixed amount of money that is contributed by employees from their salary until retirement. It is used to provide a lump sum or monthly payments to salaried employees when they retire. Regulator: the government regulates provident funds and in India through the Employees’ Provident Fund Organization (EPFO). Benefits of PF:- The provident fund provides good investment opportunities to individuals upon retirement. The one-time inflow of money can aid them in changing homes, opening new businesses, educating dependents, medical emergencies or just investing in mutual funds. Type of Provident funds There are various types of provident funds: some are exclusive to government employees while others are meant for private employees. Employees Provident Fund (EPF) It is the most popular type of PF in India. Applicability: All businesses or corporations with more than 20 employees must offer retirement benefits to the employees and contribute to the PF. It also covers certain other establishments which may be notified by the Central Government even if they employ less than 20 persons each. Implementation:– The employee has to pay a certain contribution towards the provident fund (PF) and the employer on a monthly basis pays the same amount. At the end of retirement or during the service (under some circumstances), the employee gets the lump sum amount including the interest on the PF contributed. Benefits: It offers higher interest rates. The amount that the employee pays is matched by the employer. A major part of the sum is handed out at the time of retirement. The rest is paid in instalments as a Partial withdrawals for education, marriage, illness and house construction is allowed. Maturity: the EPF matures only on retirement. Taxation: The amount received is tax-free as long as the employee has been working with the company for more than 5 years. Public Provident Fund (PPF) The Public Provident Fund is a saving scheme. It is available to everyone in India. It can be opened by both permanently employed or self-employed individuals. Eligibility: PPF can be opened by any resident of India. Amount deposited: The minimum amount to be deposited is ₹500, and the maximum is ₹1.5 lacs in a financial year. The amount is paid after 15 years at pre-decided rates.These rates are fixed by the central government every quarter. Taxation: PPF amounts received on maturity are tax-free. PPF Vs EPF: PPF is mainly a savings scheme, while EPF also offers pensionary benefits. General Provident Fund (GPF) General Provident Fund is also known as the Statutory Provident Fund. Eligibility: It is only available for government servants. These include permanent employees, re-employed pensioners, or temporary employees with at least one year of service. Amount contributed: 6 per cent of the monthly salary has to be contributed to the GPF account. Interest: The interest rate is adjusted by the government and ranges between 7-8 per cent. EPFO Establishment: 1952. Ministry: Ministry of Labour & Employment. HQ: New Delhi. Function: It is a government organization that manages the provident fund (PF) and pension accounts of member employees. It implements the Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, of 1952. MUST READ: National Pension System (NPS) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InviTs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable. Statement-II: InviTs are recognized as borrowers under the ‘Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and·Enforcement of the Security Interest Act, 2002’. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation forStatement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 United Nations Office for Outer Space Affairs (UNOOSA) Syllabus Prelims – Science and Technology Context: An Indian-origin British satellite industry expert was appointed as the director of the United Nations Office for Outer Space Affairs (UNOOSA). Background:- Aarti Holla-Maini, has been appointed as the director of the United Nations Office for Outer Space Affairs (UNOOSA). She is an Indian-origin British satellite industry expert. The United Nations secretary general appointed her. She holds a bachelor’s degree in law with German law from King’s College London and a master’s degree in business administration from French business school HEC Paris. She spent over 18 years as the secretary-general of the Global Satellite Operators Association. She has 25 years of experience in the aerospace industry. She has recently held the role of executive vice-president, of sustainability, policy and impact at NorthStar Earth & Space. About United Nations Office for Outer Space Affairs (UNOOSA):- IMAGE SOURCE: UNOOSA.ORG Established: 1958 HQ: Vienna, Austria. Objective: to help all countries, especially developing countries, access and leverage the benefits of space to accelerate sustainable development. Structure of UNOOSA:- The Office is headed by a Director and has five sections:- Office of the Director (OD) OD oversees and coordinates the strategic direction and operational priorities of UNOOSA. Committee, Policy and Legal Affairs Section (CPLA) CPLA provides substantive, secretariat, organisational and administrative support. Space Applications Section (SAS) SAS plans and implements the United Nations Programme on Space Applications. United Nations Platform for Space-Based Information for Disaster Management and Emergency Response (UN-SPIDER) UN-SPIDER is a programme of UNOOSA to leverage space data and applications for disaster risk reduction. Executive Secretariat of the International Committee on GNSS (ICG) The ICG brings together all global navigation satellite system (GNSS) providers. Functions of UNOOSA:- It helps countries build their capacity to develop and make the most out of the space sector. It helps countries use space data and technologies, such as satellite imagery, to prevent and manage disasters. (UPSC MAINS: Can outer space be considered a resource) It helps countries understand the fundamentals of international space law and increase their capacity to draft or revise national space law and policy. It supports transparency in space activities. It helps to promote sustainable development through space. It works with space agencies and space leaders around the world to devise solutions to challenges that require an international response. MUST READ: IN–SPACe (Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre) SOURCE: TIMES NOW PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements (2023) Carbon fibers are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircraft. Carbon fibers once used cannot be recycled. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2023) Objects in space                                        Description Cepheids                                           Giant clouds of dust and gas in space Nebulae                                             Stars which brighten and dim periodically Pulsars                                              Neutron stars are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Digital Publisher Content Grievances Council (DPCGC) Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, the Digital Publisher Content Grievances Council (DPCGC) recommended punitive action for the OTT platform ULLU over allegedly obscene content. About Digital Publisher Content Grievances Council (DPCGC):- IMAGE SOURCE: The Dominion Post It is an officially recognized, independent self-regulatory body for online-curated content providers (OCCPs). OCC Platforms: companies that carry on the business, which curates and present a wide variety of content by means of online video-on-demand platforms. OOC Platforms operating in India: Amazon Prime, Netflix, Hot star, Zee5, etc. Establishment: 2021. It has been set up under the aegis of the Internet and Mobile Association of India (IAMAI). IAMAI: a not-for-profit industry body representing the interests of the online and mobile value-added services industry. Objective: to usher in a redressal mechanism which will ensure a balance between addressing viewer complaints and showcasing content in a free-speech environment without ad-hoc interventions Ministry: Ministry of Information & Broadcasting Current Head: A K Sikri, retired Supreme Court Judge. Functions of GRB:- It will oversee and ensure the alignment and adherence to the Code of Ethics by the OCCP Council members. Provide guidance to entities on the Code of Ethics. (UPSC CSE: Digital India programme) Address grievances that have not been resolved by the publisher within 15 days. Hear grievances/appeals filed by complainants. MUST READ: Grievance Appellate Committees SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following actions : (2023) Detection of car crashes/collisions which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive. Detection of the tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation of the display between portrait and landscape mode. In how many of the above actions is the function of the accelerometer required? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: New drones have been provided for the Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve recently. Background:- Global end-to-end supply chain solution provider DP World has provided thermal drones for the Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve in Maharashtra. These drones are to help detect forest fires and intensify surveillance. The forest field staff to receive on-site training for operating the drones for a year About Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve:- IMAGE SOURCE: ResearchGate Location: Chandrapur district in (UPSC CSE: Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve) Established: in 1993-94. It is Maharashtra’s oldest and largest national park. It is one of India’s 50 “Project Tiger”. The reserve is the second Tiger Reserve in Maharashtra. The first Tiger Reserve established in the State is Melghat Tiger Reserve (1973-74). Fauna:- Mammals: Wolf, Jackal, Wild dogs, Fox, Hyenas, Spotted Deer, Wild Boars, Barking deer. Birds: Honey Buzzard, Shy Jungle Fowl, Grey-headed Fishing Eagle. Flora:– Vegetation: tropical dry deciduous forest with dense woodlands. It comprises about eighty-seven per cent of the protected area. Teak is the predominant tree species. Others: Bamboo, Ain, Bija, Dhaudab, Haldu, Salai, Semal, Shisham, Sisoo, Surya, Sirus. MUST READ: Global Conservation Assured|Tiger Standards (CA|TS) SOURCE: BUSINESS LINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous? (2020) Kanha National Park Manas National Park Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary Greedflation Syllabus Prelims –Economy Background:- There is a growing consensus across the world that corporate greed is spiking inflation even as workers are doubly penalized by low wage increases and higher interest rates. About Greedflation:- IMAGE SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS Greedflation simply means (corporate) greed is fuelling inflation. (UPSC CSE: INFLATION) It is the phenomenon where corporate greed becomes a significant factor in fueling inflation. It implies that companies exploited the inflation that people were experiencing by putting up their prices way beyond just covering their increased costs. This was then used to maximize their profit margins. Disadvantage:- The increased prices may further contribute to inflationary pressures in the economy. It disrupts the traditional understanding of the wage-price spiral and emphasizes the influence of corporate behavior on inflation dynamics. Excessive price hikes by companies contribute to an inflationary cycle, exacerbating the overall inflation levels. Effects of Greedflation:- Greedflation in non-essential products: the consumers can simply opt to go without that particular item or service because it is not a necessity. Greedflation on a wide scale: its impact will be similar to traditional inflation. Consumers may not be able to avoid the higher prices because they genuinely need the affected products or services. Greedflation and India:- The Indian corporate sector has generated superlative profits in the post-pandemic period. Profits during recent times have been nearly thrice the profits corporates earned earlier. The Higher profits than can come from:- Higher sales (with the same profit margins). Higher profit margins (with the same level of sales). Or a combination of higher sales and higher profit margins. MUST READ: Inflation Targeting as Monetary Policy SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation? (2022) Department of Consumer Affairs Expenditure Management Commission Financial Stability and Development Council Reserve Bank of India Q.2) In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers? (2022) Central Statistics Office Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade Labour Bureau National Technical Manpower Information System Mains: A grand revival: on India-Egypt Ties Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) Context: Recently, the Indian Prime Minister (PM) has visited Egypt for the first time since 1997 to discuss bilateral relations between India and Egypt. About India-Egypt Ties: Historical Background: India-Egypt relations can be traced back to 2750 BCE when the Pharaoh Sahure sent ships to the “Land of Punt,” believed to be peninsular India. The exchange continued, with Egyptian mummies wrapped in Indian indigo-dyed muslin in the second millennium BCE. Friendship Treaty and bilateral relations: The two nations became even closer in the 1950s and concluded a historic Friendship Treaty in 1955. During the last couple of years, the traditionally strong bilateral relations enjoyed by the two countries have received an impetus with regular exchange of high-level meetings and contacts between the two sides. Economic Relations: Since March 1978, the India-Egypt Bilateral Trade Agreement has been in effect, operating under the Most Favoured Nation clause. In the fiscal year 2018-19, the bilateral trade reached a value of US$ 4.55 billion. Despite the challenges posed by the pandemic, the volume of trade only experienced a slight decline to US$ 4.5 billion in 2019-20 and further decreased to US$ 4.15 billion in 2020-21. Notably, the bilateral trade between India and Egypt reached a record high of US$ 7.26 billion in the fiscal year 2021-22. Major Egyptian exports to India include: Raw cotton, raw and manufactured fertilizers, oil and oil products, organic and non-organic chemicals, leather and iron products. Major imports into Egypt from India are: Cotton yarn, sesame, coffee, herbs, tobacco and lentils. Mineral fuel; vehicle parts; Ship, boat and floating structure; cuts of boneless bovine frozen meat; and Electrical machinery and parts are also exported from India. Defense Cooperation: The two Air Forces collaborated on the development of fighter aircraft in the 1960s, and Indian pilots trained their Egyptian counterparts from the 1960s until the mid-1980s. Both the Indian Air Force (IAF) and Egyptian air force fly the French Rafale fighter jets. In 2022, a pact was signed between the two countries that have decided to also participate in exercises and cooperate in training. The first joint special forces exercise between the Indian Army and the Egyptian Army, “Exercise Cyclone-I” was completed in January 2023 in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan. Science and Technology: ‘Science and Technology’ cooperation is implemented through biennial Executive Programmes and Scientific Cooperation Programme between CSIR (India) and NRC (Egypt). The 2nd ISRO-NARSS JWG was held in Cairo in 2017. The India-Egypt Workshops on Agriculture-Biotechnology and Nanotechnology were held in Shillong in 2018 and in Mumbai in 2019 respectively. An IT Centre in Al Azhar University, CEIT, is also operational since February 2019. Cultural Links: The Maulana Azad Centre for Indian Culture (MACIC) was set up in Cairo in 1992. It aims to promote cultural cooperation between the two countries, through the implementation of the Cultural Exchange Programme (CEP). The Centre, in addition to popularizing Indian culture through Hindi, Urdu and Yoga classes and the screening of movies, also organizes cultural festivals. ‘India by the Nile’ festival: It is a cultural festival celebrated annually in Egypt. It brings the essence of India through classical, contemporary, performing and visual arts, food and popular culture in a language that amalgamates diverse cultural and artistic strands. The festival is produced by Delhi-based M/S Teamwork Arts and supported by ICCR and the Egyptian Ministry of Culture. Challenges of India Egypt Relations: Political differences: There have been differences on key international issues. For instance, Egypt has not always shared India’s position on the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) reforms. Regional instability: Egypt’s geographical location in North Africa places it in proximity to several unstable regions and conflict zones, including Libya and Sudan. This instability can indirectly impact India-Egypt relations by creating uncertainties in areas of mutual interest such as regional security and economic investment. Navigating regional politics: Both India and Egypt have complex regional relationships to navigate. Balancing these relationships, particularly as they pertain to issues such as Kashmir for India or the Israeli-Palestinian conflict for Egypt, could pose challenges. China’s growing influence: China’s growing economic presence in Africa, including Egypt, is another significant challenge. China’s Belt and Road Initiative has been making significant inroads in Africa and this has increased China’s influence in the region. Balancing relations with China while trying to increase India’s economic engagement in Egypt and the broader African region could be a tricky diplomatic challenge for India. Way Forward: Bolstered by historical ties, and buffeted by present-day geopolitical turmoil, it is clear that India and Egypt are now essaying a closer relationship, one that looks both at future economies and autonomous foreign policies. Source:         The Hindu Chit Fund Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: Andhra Pradesh Police have filed seven FIRs against Margadarsi Chit Fund Private Limited (MCFPL), which is owned by the Eenadu Group. About Chit Fund: Chit fund means transaction in which a person enters into an agreement with a specified number of persons that everyone shall subscribe a certain sum of money by way of periodical instalments over a definite period. Each such subscriber in his turn, as determined by lot or by auction or by tender be entitled to the prize amount. Advantages of Chit Funds Access to Funds: A chit-fund scheme can be an excellent way of gaining access to funds that may not be available otherwise. They can provide financial assistance to households and help with debt payments, among other things. No Need for Collateral: If one wish to invest in a chit-fund scheme, there is no requirement for collateral. Savings and Credit: Chit funds are a hybrid of savings and credit plans. Members can save money while simultaneously having credit available when needed. Potential Returns: Members can receive returns on their donations by investing in chit funds. The bid amount and the number of fund members determine the amount of return. Financial Discipline: A chit fund can be a great means of inculcating financial discipline in your life. It helps promote financial stability and discipline by encouraging you to save a fixed amount regularly. Concerns: Chit funds have known to be vulnerable to scams. g. Saradha Chit Fund Scam, Rose Valley Chit Fund Scam. The biggest risk involving a chit fund is the misuse of the pooled funds by the foreman. Sometimes members stop paying the dues and have already taken the first bid. Lack of financial literacy results in people getting duped as they are promised huge returns on their investment which has no substantial basis to fulfill. Despite the presence of staunch rules against scams by chit funds, a lot of these funds run Ponzi schemes and make away with a lot of people’s money. Existing Regulations for Chit Funds: At present chit funds are governed by Chit Funds Act of 1962, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act of 1934, and Securities & Exchange Bond of India (SEBI) Act of 1992 etc. Under the Chit Fund Act of 1962, businesses can be registered and regulated only by the respective State Governments. Regulator of chit funds is the Registrar of Chits appointed by respective state governments under Section 61 of Chit Funds Act. Functionally, Chit funds are included in the definition of Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) by RBI under the sub-head Miscellaneous Non-Banking Company (MNBC). RBI, however, has not laid out any separate regulatory framework for them. Way Forward: Participating in chit funds is riskier than participating in state-run funds or public-sector enterprises. Chit fund proponents argue that these funds are a vital financial tool. However, a scandal such as the Saradha scam, which is accused of defrauding customers under the cover of a chit fund, has generated severe concerns about the business. Source:  Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Greedflation can fuel deflation. Statement-II: Greedflation can increase existing inflation. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: United Nations Office for Outer Space Affairs’ (UNOOSA) headquarters is in Australia. Statement-II: United Nations Office for Outer Space Affairs (UNOOSA) was established in 1958. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve is in Maharashtra. Statement-II: Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve was established in 2017. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 27th June 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 9th June – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – c Q.3) -d

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 28th June 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –27th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Indian Meteorological Department Syllabus Prelims –Important Institutions Context: Recently, the Indian Meteorological Department issued an orange alert for rain in various parts of the country. Background:- The Indian Meteorological Department issued an orange alert for rain in Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Western Uttar Pradesh, Eastern Rajasthan, Chhattisgarh, Vidarbha and Konkan. The water level of the rivers and drains has increased. The administration appealed to the people not to go near the banks of the rivers and drains. About Indian Meteorological Department:- Established: 1875. Ministry: Ministry of Earth Sciences. IMD Headquarters: New Delhi. It is the National Meteorological Service of the country. It is the principal government agency in all matters relating to meteorology and allied subjects. Objectives:- To take meteorological observations and provide current and forecast meteorological information for optimum operation of weather-sensitive activities like agriculture, irrigation, shipping, etc. To warn against severe weather phenomena tropical cyclones, duststorms, heavy rains and snow, cold and heat waves,, which cause the destruction of life and property. To conduct and promote research in meteorology and allied disciplines. To provide meteorological statistics required for agriculture, water resource management, industries, oil exploration and other nation-building activities. The IMD uses four colour codes:- Green (All is well): No advisory is issued. (UPSC CSE: Colour Coded Weather Warning) Yellow (Be Aware): Yellow indicates severely bad weather spanning several days. Orange/Amber (Be prepared): The orange alert is issued as a warning of extremely bad weather with the potential of disruption in commute with road and rail closures, and interruption of power supply. Red (Take Action): When extremely bad weather conditions are certainly going to disrupt travel and power and have significant risk to life, the red alert is issued. MUST READ: The India Meteorological Department (IMD) may introduce new monsoon models SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following : (2023) Aerosols Foam agents Fire retardants Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022) High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Award-TANNA Syllabus Prelims – Important Awards Context: The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports invited nominations for Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Award-TANNA 2022. About Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Award-TANNA :- Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Awards are given every year. First awarded: 1994. Ministry: Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. The award is named after Tenzing Norgay. (UPSC CSE: Rural Sports in India) Tenzing Norgay: one of the first two individuals to reach the summit of Mount Everest along with Edmund Hillary in 1953. Objectives To recognize the achievements of the person in the field of adventure. To encourage young people to develop the spirit of endurance, risk-taking, cooperative teamwork, and quick, ready, and effective reflexes in challenging situations. To provide incentives to young people for getting exposed to adventure activities. Eligibility A person should have excellent performance and outstanding qualities of leadership, a sense of adventure discipline and continuous achievement in one particular field of adventure Land, Air or Water (Sea). The award may be given posthumously if such an occasion arises. Exclusions No award will be conferred for a second time to the same person under the same category. The government of India may cancel or annul the award to any person under circumstances, which, in the opinion of the Government, might render such person unworthy of the award. Decoration The award consists of a Bronze statuette, a certificate, a blazer with a silken tie/a saree and an award money of Rs. 15 Lakhs. The Awards are presented to the winners along with Arjuna Awards by the Government of India. Arjuna Awards: they are given for Outstanding Performance in Sports and Games. It is the second-highest sporting honour in India, the highest being the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award. No. of Awardees Awards can be given in four categories namely: Land Adventure, Water (Sea) Adventure, Air Adventure and Life Time Achievement. Ordinarily not more than one Award will be made in each category. The Ministry may increase the number of awards in a particular year with the approval of the Hon’ble Minister of Youth Affairs and Sports. MUST READ: Golden Globe Awards. SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards : (2023) Major Dhyan Chand:                   For the most Khel Ratna Award spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over the period of the last four years. Arjuna Award:                              For the lifetime achievement of a sportsperson. Dronacharya Award:                   To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams. Rashtriya Khel:                          To recognize the Protsahan Puraskar contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. · How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Order of the Nile Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: Recently, Egypt’s ‘Order of the Nile’ was conferred to Prime Minister Modi. Background:- Prime Minister Narendra Modi received the ‘Order of the Nile’ award. It is the Egypt’s highest state honour. Prime Minister Modi is on a two-day state visit to Egypt. He also visited the historic 11th-century Al-Hakim Mosque in Cairo, which was restored with the help of India’s Dawoodi Bohra community. Dawoodi Bohras: a religious denomination within the Islamic branch of Shia Islam. Their largest numbers reside in India, Pakistan, Yemen, East Africa, and the Middle East. About Order of the Nile:- It is Egypt’s highest state honour. (UPSC MAINS: collaboration between India and Egypt) Instituted: in 1915. Presented by: State of Egypt. It is conferred upon Heads of state, Crown Princes, and Vice-Presidents who offer Egypt or humanity invaluable services. Decoration: it is a pure gold collar consisting of three-square gold units comprising Pharaonic symbols. Pharaonic symbols: these were numerous symbols in the life of ancient Egyptians and varied in their symbols, rituals, and use. MUST READ: India-Africa: Challenges & Way Ahead SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements (2020) The value of Indo-Sri Lanka Trade has consistently increased in the last decade. Textile and textile articles constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh. In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1,2, and 3 Q.2) The term “two-state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of (2022) China Israel Iraq Yemen Global Environment Facility (GEF) Council Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: Global Environment Facility (GEF) Council met in Brazil recently. Background:- The Global Environment Facility (GEF) Council met in Brazil on June 26, 2023. The question of the funding needed to achieve the goals and targets of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework was discussed at the GEF Council meeting. GEF was tasked to find funds for the implementation of the framework adopted at the 15th Conference of the Parties (COP15) to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD). At COP15, it was decided that a new trust fund, the Global Biodiversity Framework Fund (GBF), would be put in place to run the projects under the framework. Under Target 19 of the GBF, members have to generate at least $200 billion per year by 2030 for biodiversity. About Global Environment Facility (GEF) Council:- IMAGE SOURCE: thegef.org The Global Environment Facility (GEF) is a partnership for international cooperation. HQ: Washington DC, United States. Established: in 1991. It was set up as a fund under World Bank. World Bank: it is an international financial institution that provides loans and grants to the governments of low- and middle-income countries for the purpose of pursuing capital projects. Restructured: in 1994. 1992: at the Rio Earth Summit, the GEF was restructured and moved out of the World Bank system to become a permanent, separate institution. Since 1994, however, the World Bank has served as the Trustee of the GEF Trust Fund. Rio Earth Summit: it was a major United Nations conference held in Rio de Janeiro (Brazil) in 1992. It highlighted the impact of human socio-economic activities on the environment. Members: 183 countries work together with international institutions, civil society organizations and the private sector, to address global environmental issues. Funding:- GEF funds are available to developing countries seeking to meet the objectives of international environmental agreements. Support is provided to government agencies, civil society organizations, private sector companies, research institutions, and other partners to implement projects and programs related to environmental conservation, protection, and renewal. Structure: The GEF’s governing structure is organized around an Assembly, Council, Secretariat, 18 implementing agencies, a Scientific and Technical Advisory Panel, and the Independent Evaluation Office. GEF Council:- The Council, the GEF’s main governing body. It comprises 32 members appointed by constituencies of member countries. GEF serves as a financial mechanism for : Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) Signed: 5 June 1992 – 4 June 1993. Effective from 1993. It is the international legal instrument for “the conservation of biological diversity, the sustainable use of its components and the fair and equitable sharing of the benefits. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) Signed:1992-1993. Effective from 1994. It was adopted in 1992 with the ultimate aim of preventing dangerous human interference with the climate system. UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) Signed: 14 October 1994 – 13 October 1995. Effective from 1996 It was established in 1994 to protect and restore our land and ensure a safer, just, and more sustainable future. Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) Signed:2001. Effective from 2004. It is an international environmental treaty that aims to eliminate or restrict the production and use of persistent organic pollutants (POPs). Minamata Convention on Mercury Signed: 2013. Effective from 2014. It is an international treaty designed to protect human health and the environment from anthropogenic emissions and releases of mercury and mercury compounds. Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer. Signed: 1987. Effective from 1989. It is a global agreement to protect the Earth’s ozone layer by phasing out the chemicals that deplete it. GEF and India: India is a founder member of GEF. It is both a donor and recipient of GEF funds. India represents the GEF South Asia Constituency (including, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Maldives, Nepal and Sri Lanka) in the GEF Council. GEF Political Focal Point: Department of Economic Affairs (DEA). It is responsible for issues related to GEF governance, including policies and decisions, as well as relations between member countries and the GEF Council and Assembly. GEF Operational Focal Point (OFP): The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). MUST READ: Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following : (2023) Aerosols Foam agents Fire retardants Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a : Database created by a coalition of research organisations. Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change”. Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change”. Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank. Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Recent studies by the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) have given a clearer picture of how the sun’s magnetic field influences interplanetary magnetic space.  About the study and its findings:- With the help of this study, scientists are now one step closer to identifying the source of solar mean magnetic field (SMMF). SMMF: is the mean value of the line-of-sight (LOS) component of the solar vector magnetic field averaged over the visible hemisphere as well as its relationship with Interplanetary Magnetic Field (IMF). IMF: it is the extension of the coronal magnetic field dragged by the solar wind to the interplanetary space. LOS: it is the direct path between two points. Scientists have found a very good similarity between the SMMF at chromospheric heights and the SMMF at photospheric heights. The value of chromospheric SMMF is lower than the photospheric SMMF. This suggests that the primordial magnetic field inside the sun could be a source of the SMMF. Data Technique:- They calculated and analysed the SMMF using magnetic field measurements at the chromosphere, in conjunction with that photospheric measurements. Chromosphere: a reddish gaseous layer immediately above the photosphere of the sun or another star. Photosphere: the visible surface of the Sun. These electrical currents are generated by the flow of hot, ionised gases in the sun’s convection zone. Sun’s convection zone: it is the outermost layer of the interior portion of the sun. This layer extends to about 200,000 km up to the Solar Mean Magnetic Field (SMMF) The SMMF represents the mean value of the line-of-sight component of the solar vector magnetic field averaged over the visible hemisphere of the sun. The sun contains the corona, the photosphere, and the chromosphere with the magnetic field generated by electrical currents acting as a magnetic dynamo inside the sun. Corona: the outer shell of the sun’s atmosphere. Significance:- So far, the studies on the SMMF have mostly been confined to the magnetic field measurements at the photosphere. Understanding the source of the SMMF and its driving parameters could help us understand how the SMMF affects the IMF. About the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA):- The Indian Institute of Astrophysics is a premier institute devoted to research in astronomy, astrophysics and related physics. Historical Background:- It traces its origins back to an observatory set up in 1786 at Madras. From the year 1792 began to formally function at its Nungambakkam premises as the Madras Observatory. 1899: the observatory moved to Kodaikanal. 1971: the Kodaikanal Observatory became an autonomous society, and came to be know as the Indian Institute of Astrophysics. HQ: Bengaluru. Ministry: Department of Science and Technology, Ministry of Science and Technology. Funding: funded by the Department of Science and Technology. Main observing facilities: Kodaikanal, Kavalur, Gauribidanur and Hanle. The Vainu Bappu Observatory at Kavalur has been the main optical observatory of the Institute for nighttime astronomy since the late 1960s. There are several telescopes in operation here, the foremost among these being the 2.34-metre Vainu Bappu Telescope. The Kodaikanal Observatory has for over a century been the principal centre of activity in observational solar and atmospheric physics. (UPSC CSE: Gaganyaan) MUST READ: Indian Space Association SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Q.2) Consider the following pairs : (2023) Objects in space                                        Description Cepheids                                            Giant clouds of dust and gas in space. Nebulae                                             Stars which brighten and dim periodically. Pulsars                         Neutron stars are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Rani Durgavati Syllabus Prelims – Important Personalities Context: Rani Durgavati Gaurav Yatra’ concluded in Madhya Pradesh recently.  Background:- The Shivraj Singh Chouhan-led BJP government in Madhya Pradesh launched the six-day Rani Durgavati Gaurav Yatra. About Rani Durgavati:- Rani Durgavati was born in 1524 in the Chandela dynasty in present-day Uttar Pradesh, near the border with Madhya Pradesh. Her father was Raja Salbahan of Ratha known for the famous Khajuraho temples. She married Dalpat Shah, of the kingdom of Garha-Katanga. However, she became a widow after a few years and took charge of ruling the kingdom. Battle with Mughals:- During the mid-16th century, Akbar led the Mughal Empire’s expansion in India. The Mughal governor Asaf Khan launched an attack on Garha-Katanga. During the prolonged fighting, Rani Durgavati was struck by arrows and, rather than surrendering, is believed to have stabbed herself with her dagger. Rani Durgavati’s leadership Rani Durgavati managed the affairs of the kingdom for 16 years, maintaining trade relations and undertaking public works. Abul Fazl, the court historian of Akbar who chronicled these years in Akbarnama, described Durgavati as a combination of “beauty, grace and manlike courage and bravery”.  Legacy of Rani Durgavati Political symbolism: Rani Durgavati is hailed as a patriotic ruler and defender of culture, becoming a symbol of pride and honour. Rani Durgavati and her son Veer Narayan are well known for their connections to the Madan Mahal Fort in Jabalpur. In her honour, the University of Jabalpur was renamed Rani Durgavati Vishwavidyalaya by the Madhya Pradesh government in 1983. On June 24, 1988, the Indian government released a postage stamp in memory of her. The Durgavati Express (11449/11450) runs between Jabalpur Junction and Jammutawi and is named for the Queen. The third Inshore Patrol Vessel (IPV) of its kind, ICGS Rani Durgavati, was commissioned by the Indian Coast Guard on July 14, 2018. SOURCE: The Hindu PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) Who among the following is associated with ‘Songs from Prison’, a translation of ancient Indian religious lyrics in English? (2021) Bal Gangadhar Tilak Jawaharlal Nehru Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi Sarojini Naidu Mains: Lab-grown meat/Cell-cultivated chicken Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Science and Technology) Context: Recently, two California-based companies were cleared to make and sell cell-cultivated chicken in the country. About Cell-cultivated chicken: It’s meat grown from the cells of animals in steel tanks for human consumption. Though it’s known in the industry as cultivated meat, it’s sometimes called cultured meat, lab-grown meat or cell-based meat. The first country to approve the sale of alternative meat was Singapore in 2020. There are more than 150 companies around the world trying to develop these food products. They’re working on a variety of meats: chicken, beef, pork and lamb. Process involved: To make cell-cultivated meat, the company isolates the cells that make up the meat (the meat that we consume). It starts with cells, which can come from a fertilized egg, a special bank of stored cells or tissue initially taken from a living animal. Then it is put in a setting where they have all the resources they need to grow and make more copies of themselves. These resources are typically nutrients, fats, carbohydrates, amino acids, the right temperature, etc. The ‘setting’ in which this process transpires is often a bioreactor (also known as a ‘cultivator’). A bioreactor is a sensor-fit device like a container that has been designed to support a particular biological environment. Once there are enough of these cells, which takes around two to three weeks, they resemble a mass of minced meat. Cells are triggered to turn into skeletal muscle, fat and connective tissues. After days or weeks, the cells are removed from the tanks and shaped into products such as nuggets. Significance of cultured meat: Reduce environmental impact: It could vastly reduce the environmental impact of global meat production in the future. Reduce emissions: Emissions from conventional animal agriculture could be reduced. Uses less water: It uses much less land and water than livestock. Renewable energy: It can run on energy produced purely from renewable sources. Prevent animal slaughter: Cultivated meat helps save animal slaughter. Food accessibility: Provides food accessibility to the population living in under-developed and strife-torn areas. High in nutrients: Lab-grown meat is high in protein, vitamins, and minerals and can be lower in fat and cholesterol than conventional animal meat. Challenges: Consumer acceptance: Perfectly substituting animal meat with alternative meat requires the latter to match the former’s taste, texture, and appearance, and cost. Researchers have achieved some success on these counts but it remains a work in progress, especially as more meats acquire alternative counterparts. Cost: The cost of cell-cultivated meat is expected to remain high in the near future. It may never be cost-competitive, while reports have also expressed concerns about the costs imposed by quality control, especially at scale. Huge resources required: For cultivation, researchers require high quality cells, a suitable growth-medium in which the cells can be cultured, plus other resources required to maintain the quality of the final product. A World Health Organization report on the food safety aspects of cell-based food noted several potential issues, such as microbial contamination at various points in the process, biological residues and by-products and scaffolding that some people might be allergic to. Way Forward: Although there are several potential issues, such as microbial contamination at various points in the process, biological residues and by-products and scaffolding that some people might be allergic to. But experts noted that conventional meat also carries risks, such as bacterial contamination before and during the slaughtering and packaging process. Overall, these advances are the result of the global necessity to renovate our approaches to nutrition and health systems toward providing for both individual and planetary health. Source:  The Hindu Flash Floods in India Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Geography) and GS 3 (Disaster Management) Context: Recently, India and Pakistan have been affected due to flash floods. About Flash Floods: A flash flood is a rapid flooding of geomorphic low-lying areas: washes, rivers, dry lakes and basins. It may be caused by heavy rain associated with a severe thunderstorm, hurricane, tropical storm, or meltwater from ice or snow flowing over ice sheets or snowfields. Status of Floods in India: National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) Report Source:  researchgate.net 40 million hectares (10% of the land mass) in India is prone to floods. On an average every year, 5 million hectares of land is affected, 1600 lives are lost and more than Rs. 1,800 crores is incurred. Between 1970 and 2004, 3 floods occurred per year on an average. However, between 2005 and 2019, the yearly average rose to 11. 19 districts were affected annually on an average until 2005. After 2005, the number jumped to 55. 2017 analysis suggests that 4.48 million Indians are exposed to riverine floods, the highest in the world. Causes of flooding in India: Physiological Reasons: Heavy precipitation: Heavy rainfall is one of the major reasons for the flood in India. Such effect can be seen in the West Coast region of the Western Ghat, Assam and sub-Himalayan West Bengal. The meandering tendency of river-flow: The tendency to meander or change the course within a specific boundary of rivers in the flat terrains also causes a flood in the meandering regions like the lower reaches of the Brahmaputra and Gangetic plains. Silting in Delta areas: The deposition of silt on the river-mouths by the sea tides deteriorates the discharging capacity of rivers which causes a flood in that region. Earthquake and Landslide: Sometimes it has been found that the river changes its course after natural calamities like earthquake, landslide which causes a flood in the same region. Such instances can be found in the mountain of hilly region states like Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, and Uttarakhand etc. Obstruction of free-flow of rivers: Roads, embankments, railway lines, canals etc. obstruct the free flow of rivers leading to floods in the area. Cloudburst: Cloud bursts lead to a high amount of rainfall within a short time leading to flash floods. Flash flood generally occurs in the Himalayan region. Man-made Reasons: Continued settlement in flood-prone areas: Floodplains of several rivers, especially in the northern plains like Kosi, Ghaghara, Gandak, Sarayu etc are flooded every year. Yet, these areas have been settled by people. This has led to recurring losses in the face of floods, especially in the Assam and Bihar plains. Encroachment over natural bodies: The destruction of natural wetlands including marshes and lakes has led to the blocking of areas that had earlier served as water sinks. This is the primary reason behind Chennai floods. Rapid and unplanned urbanisation: Construction of houses in a haphazard manner without getting plans approved has led to the washing away of several buildings during flash floods due to cloudbursts in the Himalayan region. Nature’s destruction: With increasing deforestation especially along coastal areas and river banks, the first line of defence against floods has been removed. This is the reason that cyclone caused floods result in severe destruction along the coasts. Consequences of Flash floods: Human Loss and Property Loss: Every year, millions of people become homeless and washed away due to floods. Spread of Communicable Diseases: Waterborne diseases like cholera, typhoid fever, hepatitis, and leptospirosis spread in flood-affected areas. Floods also lead to vector-borne diseases, transmitted through parasites and pathogens such as a mosquito. As a result, the health of flood victims deteriorates. Destruction of Crops: Every year, floods destroy a large number of crops. Loss of Livestock: Like humans, livestock also get displaced during floods and die due to the loss of their habitats. Disruption of Communication Link and Transportation: Flood causes damage to transportation links such as bridges, rail, power plants etc., thus causing communication disruption in those areas. Economic and Social Disruption: The economy comes to a standstill as people are forced to move to another place, and revival of this situation takes time. Preventive measures to the flooding problem: Improved flood warning systems: effective flood warning systems can help take timely action during natural calamities and can save lives. Pre-planning can significantly reduce the effects of floods, giving people time to migrate to safer locations and stock up essentials. Building flood-resilient housing systems: concreting floors can be very useful during floods. Houses should be water proofed and electric sockets should be placed at higher levels up the walls to reduce the chances of shocks. Constructing buildings above flood levels: buildings should be constructed a metre above from the ground to prevent flood damage and evacuation during floods. Create wetlands and encourage reforestation: creating more and more wetlands can help soak up excessive moisture since wetlands act as sponges. Wooded areas can also slow down heavy water flow, minimizing the effects of floods. Reforesting upstream regions can significantly reduce the effects of flood damage. Installing flood barriers: these are flood gates designed to prevent the area behind the barrier from flooding. They can also be kept around buildings to keep floodwaters outside the boundary created. Development of GIS: Geographical Information System (GIS) based National Database for disaster management. GIS is an effective tool for emergency responders to access information in terms of crucial parameters for disaster-affected areas. Way Forward: With growing climate change impacts, flooding in India is also all set to increase in magnitude and intensity. Thus, the need of the hour is to adopt the Sendai framework’s Disaster risk resilience approach in flood management in India along with NDMA guidelines. Source: Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Award is awarded for scientific innovation. Statement-II: Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Award is awarded by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Rani Durgavati was born in the Chandela dynasty. Statement-II: Rani Durgavati died fighting against the British. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Global Environment Facility Council is under UNESCO. Statement-II:Global Environment Facility was established in 1991. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-11 is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 27th June 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 26th June – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – a Q.3) – c

IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains Answer Writing – GS3 Questions [28th June, 2023] – Day 17

Hello Students   TLP has been an integral ingredient of success for many toppers and is no secret. In the ‘must do’ list for the civil services exam, TLP is by far the most popular initiative. The popularity stems from the unparalleled quality of questions and synopsis posted in TLP. We strive hard to ensure that you get the real feel of UPSC standards before you write the Mains.   You already know the features of TLP. Just to reiterate briefly, in the TLP initiative, we post 5 questions daily for a certain number of weeks (9 for this one). We follow a micro plan that is designed to give you daily targets. The questions are from the day’s syllabus and also from current affairs and you are expected to write the answers and post them on the portal. This year onwards TLP will have a Dedicated Portal for Focused Preparation (tlpmains.iasbaba.com). There will be a separate dedicated portal similar to (The RaRe Series) which students loved and appreciated. The Portal will help you stay focused and keep your preparation streamlined. The Registration link for the dedicated portal is given at the end of the post. We are charging a token amount of 10/- for registration to the dedicated portal. We are doing it because we want to create a community of sincere aspirants who are focused and motivated till the Mains Examination. Please don’t take it otherwise. It is our honest effort to give you the best and at the same time expect students to come with the same energy and dedication to the dedicated platform specially designed for YOU! Join our bandwagon, you won’t regret it. UPSC 2024 Aspirants are encouraged to participate as well. Register Here - CLICK HERE  To Know More About TLP 2023 (Phase 2) - CLICK HERE To Access Day17 Questions-CLICK HERE P.S: We would encourage peer reviews. So friends get actively involved and start reviewing each other’s answers. This will keep the entire community motivated. All the Best

Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 27th June 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutionsTo take the Test Click Here

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –26th June 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Smart City Mission Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Union Minister for Housing and Urban Affairs hailed the progress of the Smart City Mission. Background:- The Smart City Mission has completed eight years recently. Union Minister Hardeep Singh Puri appreciated the achievements of the Smart City Mission. About Smart City Mission:- Launched in 2015. (UPSC CSE: SMART CITY MISSION @ 100) Ministry: Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. Smart Cities Mission is a joint effort of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA), and all state and union territories (UT) governments. It is an innovative and new initiative by the Government of India to drive economic growth and improve the quality of life of people. Objectives of Smart Cities Mission:-                                                To promote cities that provide core infrastructure and give a decent quality of life to its citizens, a clean and sustainable environment and application of Smart Solutions. To drive economic growth and improve quality of life through comprehensive work on social, economic, physical and institutional pillars of the city. The focus is on sustainable and inclusive development through the creation of replicable models, which act as inspirations to other aspiring cities. The six fundamental principles on which the concept of Smart Cities is based are:- IMAGE SOURCE: smartcities.gov.in Financing:- The Smart City Mission is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS). The Central Government gives financial support to the Mission to the extent of Rs. 48,000 crores over five years i.e. on an average of 100 crore per city per year. An equal amount, on a matching basis, will have to be contributed by the State/ULB. Implementation:- The implementation of the Mission at the City level will be done by a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV). SPV: A special purpose vehicle, also called a special purpose entity (SPE), is a subsidiary created by a parent company to isolate financial risk. The SPV is promoted by the state/Union Territory and the urban local body, with a 50% equity shareholding each. The SPV formed as a limited company is governed by the Companies Act, 2013. Duration:- The Mission was to cover 100 cities and its duration will be five years (FY2015-16 to FY2019-20). It was aimed to be completed by 2019-20 but has since been extended. Smart city is envisaged to have four pillars:- Social Infrastructure. Physical Infrastructure. Institutional Infrastructure (including Governance). Economic Infrastructure. MUST READ: Smart Cities and Academia Towards Action & Research (SAAR) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Q.2) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India ? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mahadayi River Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, tenders floated for the Kalasa Banduri project on the Mahadayi River have not shown success. Background:- Tenders for implementation of the controversial Kalasa Banduri scheme were floated by the previous BJP government minutes before the Karnataka Assembly elections were announced. They were put out without obtaining forest and environment clearance. The tenders are open for bidding till 21st August 2023 but are unlikely to find takers. About Mahadayi River:- IMAGE SOURCE: MapsofIndia The Mahadayi River is also known as the Mandovi River. Origin: It originates in the Western Ghats from the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary in the Belgaum district of Karnataka. End point: It flows for about 81 km before emptying into the Arabian Sea. The river is formed by the confluence of two rivers: the Daddi and the Markandeya. Left Bank Tributaries: Daddi River, Malaprabha River, and Markandeya River. Right Bank Tributaries: Tambaraparani River, Bainganga River, Wardha River. Dams on the Mahadayi River:- The Hidkal Dam: Located in the Belagavi district of Karnataka. The Hidkal Dam: Located in the Belagavi district of Karnataka. The Selaulim Dam: Located in South Goa. The Virdi Dam: Located in the Belagavi district of Karnataka The Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary is situated on the island of Chorao, which is located in the Mandovi River. Significance: The Mahadayi River is of great importance to the states of Goa and Karnataka, serving as a source of water for drinking, irrigation, and tourism. Kalasa-Banduri Nala Project It is a project of the Government of Karnataka. Planned: in Objective: to divert water from Mahadayi to satisfy the drinking water needs of the Belagavi, Dharwad, Bagalkot and Gadag districts of Karnataka. It involves building dam across Kalasa and Banduri, two tributaries of the Mahadayi River to divert water to the Malaprabha River. Kalasa-Banduri Nala Project Dispute Background 1989: The project was planned by the Government of Karnataka. 2002: two-and-a-half decades since the proposal, the Karnataka government decided to implement the project, after the Centre cleared it. Goa’s stand: it approached the Centre, urging it to assess the available resources in the river and allocate water to the three basin states: Goa, Maharashtra and Karnataka. Due to the protests in Goa, the project was put on hold by the then central government. 2006: The dispute gained steam in 2006 when the coalition government in Karnataka decided to start work on the project. Goa then approached the Supreme Court, seeking the creation of a Tribunal to settle the water-sharing dispute. The Mahadayi Water Disputes Tribunal was set up in Goa, Karnataka and Maharashtra are parties to the tribunal. 2018: The Tribunal 13.42 thousand million cubic feet (TMC) of water from the Mahadayi river basin to Karnataka, 1.33 TMC to Maharashtra and 24 TMC to 2019: After the Tribunal award, Goa filed a Special Leave Petition(SLP) in the Supreme Court challenging the quantum of allocation. 2020: Goa filed a contempt petition before the SC, accusing Karnataka of illegally diverting water from the Mahadayi basin. (UPSC CSE: Goa Opposition disrupts assembly proceedings over Mahadayi river dispute) 2023: Goa and Maharashtra governments issued a joint statement saying that they will put up a united fight against Karnataka in connection with the water diversion project. MUST READ: Mahadayi Water Row SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake. Meandering of the Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers? (2022) Cauvery Manjira Pennar Tungabhadra Kedarnath temple Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: Recently, the Uttarakhand government decided to set up a high-level committee to probe allegations of a fraud in gold transactions in the Kedarnath temple.  Background: – About Kedarnath temple:- IMAGE SOURCE: blogspot.com It is a Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Shiva. Location: It is located on the Garhwal Himalayan range near the Mandakini River, in the Rudraprayag district of Mandakini River: it is a tributary of the Alaknanda River. It emerges from the Chorabari Glacier. It runs between the Rudraprayag and Sonprayag areas. Significance: Kedarnath forms one of the four sites of the Chota Char Dham Pilgrimage circuit. Chota Char Dham Pilgrimage: it refers to the journey up the mountains to four sacred temples in the North Indian state of Uttarakhand. The four temples are Yamunotri Dham, Gangotri Dham, Badrinath Dham and Kedarnath Dham. It is one of the 12 Jyotirlingas of Lord Shiva in India. Jyotirlinga: a shrine where Lord Shiva is worshipped in the form of a Jyotirlingam. Built by: It is said that the Pandavas constructed the Kedarnath Temple. (UPSC CSE: Temple Architecture in India) It was later reconstructed by Adi Shankaracharya in the 8th century A.D. It has exquisite architecture and is built of extremely large but evenly shaped grey stone slabs. The stone slabs are interlocked with each other with the use of iron clamps. No mortar has been used in the construction of the temple. There is a conical rock structure inside the Kedarnath temple that is worshipped as the Sadashiva form of Shiva. A “Garba Griha” for worship and a Mandap for pilgrims is placed inside the temple. MUST READ: Srisailam Temple SOURCE: THE TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of the Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of the Satpura Range. Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of the Western Ghats. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of the Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: As per recent reports, the Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary of Odisha recorded a high prey density. Background:- Following the pre-monsoon sign survey in the Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary, an herbivore or prey density of 46 animals per sq. km was recorded in the sanctuary. Moreover, for the first time in the last many decades, a tiger has also been sighted in Debrigarh during Census. About Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary:- IMAGE SOURCE: ResearchGate Location: Bargarh district of Odisha, near Hirakud dam. Hirakud dam: it is on the Mahanadi River.. Declared as a wildlife sanctuary: 1985. (UPSC CSE: Asola Bhatti sanctuary) Biodiversity: – Flora: Dry deciduous forests Fauna:- Leopards, deer, sambar, elephants, gaur, wild boar and a variety of birds and other creatures can be found in the Debrigarh sanctuary’s vast and dense woodlands. It is also known for easy wildlife sightings, including Indian bison, sambhar, wild boars, peacocks etc. The four-horned antelope or Chousingha is one of the endangered animals that also inhabits this sanctuary. It is an Eco-sensitive Zone. Major Protected Areas in Odisha: National Parks:- Bhitarkanika National Park Simlipal National Park Wildlife Sanctuaries:- Badrama WLS Chilika (Nalaban island) WLS Hadgarh WLS Baisipalli WLS Kotagarh WLS Nandankanan WLS Lakhari Valley WLS Gahirmatha (Marine) WLS MUST READ: Tungareshwar Wildlife Sanctuary SOURCE: NEW INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023) Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’ the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest hunting is not allowed in such areas. people in such areas are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce. people of such areas are allowed traditional agricultural practices. How many of the above statements are correct.? Only one Only two Only three. All four Q.2) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin? (2020) Nagarhole National Park Papikonda National Park Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Florence Nightingale Awards Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Recently, The President of India conferred the Florence Nightingale Awards on 30 nurses and auxiliary midwives. About Florence Nightingale Awards:- The Awards are named as a tribute to Florence Nightingale. (UPSC CSE: National Florence Nightingale Awards 2020) Florence Nightingale:-She was an English social reformer, statistician and the founder of modern nursing. She came to prominence while serving as a manager and trainer of nurses during the Crimean War. She organized to care for wounded soldiers at Constantinople. About the award: The Florence Nightingale Awards were instituted in the year It is the highest national distinction a nurse can achieve for selfless devotion and exceptional professionalism. Ministry: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Objective: It was instituted as a mark of recognition for the meritorious services rendered by the nurses and nursing professionals to society. The award consists of a Cash Award of 50000/-, a certificate and a medal. The award is given to outstanding Nursing personnel employed in Central, State/UTs, Private, Missionary and Voluntary Organizations. MUST READ: WHO and Traditional Medicine SOURCE: THE NEW INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2018) Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily. Women with two children get reduced entitlements. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 2 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which of the following are the objectives of the ‘National Nutrition Mission’? (2017) To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only National Emergency Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi paid homage to the brave individuals who resisted the National Emergency of 1975. About National Emergency:- The emergency provisions are contained in Part XVIII of the Constitution of India, from Article 352 to 360. Objective: These provisions enable the Central government to meet any abnormal situation effectively. The Constitution stipulates three types of emergencies:- (UPSC MAINS: Compare and contrast the emergency provisions of India and Canada.) National Emergency Constitutional Emergency Financial Emergency National Emergency Grounds of declaration:- Under Article 352, the president can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion. The President can declare a national emergency even before the actual occurrence of war or armed rebellion or external aggression When a national emergency is declared on the grounds of ‘war’ or ‘external aggression’, it is known as ‘External Emergency’. On the other hand, when it is declared on the grounds of ‘armed rebellion’, it is known as ‘Internal Emergency’. This term ‘armed rebellion’ is inserted from the 44th amendment. Before this term, it was known as internal disturbance. Parliamentary approval and duration:- It must be approved by both houses of parliament within one month from the date of its issue. If the Lok Sabha is not in session or has been dissolved then the proclamation has to be approved within 30 days of the new LS being constituted Once approved the proclamation continues to be in force for six months. Such proclamations can be extended indefinitely. However, each extension should be approved by the Parliament through a special majority (44th amendment act, 1978) Revocation of proclamation:- The President may revoke a proclamation of Emergency at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such proclamation does not require parliamentary approval. The emergency must be revoked if the Lok Sabha passes a resolution by a simple majority disapproving its continuation. Declarations made so far: – National emergency has been proclaimed three times so far- in 1962, 1971 and 1975. The first proclamation of National Emergency: was issued in 1962 on account of Chinese aggression in the NEFA and was in force till 1968. The second proclamation of National Emergency: was made in 1971 in the wake of the attack by Pakistan. The third proclamation of National Emergency: was made in June 1975, even when the emergency was in operation, both were revoked in 1977. MUST READ: 50 Years of Bangladesh Liberation War SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha? (2022) To ratify the declaration of Emergency To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers To impeach the President of India Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Mains: New Assisted Reproductive Technology Regulations (ART), 2023 regulations Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Health Ministry had notified the Assisted Reproductive Technology Regulations (ART), 2023 recently. About the ART regulations: Source:   Shecares.com The ART Act 2020, defines ART to include all techniques that seek to obtain a pregnancy by handling the sperm or the oocyte (immature egg cell) outside the human body and transferring the gamete or the embryo into the reproductive system of a woman. Examples of ART services: gamete (sperm or oocyte) donation, in-vitro-fertilisation (fertilising an egg in the lab), and gestational surrogacy (the child is not biologically related to surrogate mother). ART services will be provided through: ART clinics, which offer ART related treatments and procedures, and ART banks, which store and supply gametes. Key provisions: Restriction on donation: The new ART provisions impose restrictions on the number of times a donor, male or female, can donate (sperm/oocyte) in their lifetime, and specifies age limits for donors. Criteria for a donor: The provision states that an oocyte donor should be a person who have been married at least once in their lives and have at least one living child of her own (minimum three years of age). She can donate oocyte only once in her lifetime and not more than seven oocytes can be retrieved. Restrictions on bank: An ART bank cannot supply gamete (reproductive cell) of a single donor to more than one commissioning couple (couple seeking services). Insurance coverage: Parties seeking ART services will be required to provide insurance coverage in the favour of the oocyte donor (for any loss, damage, or death of the donor). Prohibition on sex determination: A clinic is prohibited from offering to provide a child of pre-determined sex. Checking for diseases: Checking for genetic diseases before the embryo implantation is needed. Conditions for offering ART services: ART procedures can only be carried out with the written informed consent of both the party seeking ART services as well as the donor. The party seeking ART services will be required to provide insurance coverage in the favour of the oocyte donor for any loss, damage, or death of the donor. A clinic is prohibited from offering to provide a child of pre-determined sex. It also requires checking for genetic diseases before the embryo implantation. Concerns: The new provisions have pushed up the already sky-high medical costs. It is proving to be a challenge for treating doctors and couples wanting to have children through ART because of the restricted and limited resource availability in terms of donors. The new ART laws are restricting the number of donation attempts. The act violates article 14 of India’s constitution and is also silent on the rights of children. (Article 14 states that equality before the law and equal protection of law to any person within India cannot be denied.) Way Forward: The ART services have the potential to increase costs and create challenges for couples relying on assisted reproductive techniques. India, much like the rest of the world, is facing a dip in fertility rates and further limiting available donors is likely to bring in more challenges. Source:   The Hindu Job Creation: A Big Challenge Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: With the nationwide unemployment rate increasing, creating jobs will remain a key challenge for the government. Status of job creation and recruitments in India: According to a recent report, about 2.25 lakh active jobs are open in the market as per hiring firms, about 1 lakh fewer than a year earlier. Specialised hiring firms claim that the white-collar workforce has taken a severe beating. This shows slower job growth as compared to growing unemployment rate. No job security: The concept of job security has lost its relevance. In recent months, tech giants such as Google, Microsoft, IBM, Meta, Amazon, Cognizant, and big startups such as Byju’s and Ola have fired thousands of employees in India. Demand for skills and IT professionals: In some sectors, tech talent continues to be in demand as non-tech industries undergo a digital transformation. Several companies in banking and non-banking, hospitality, automobiles, manufacturing, pharmaceuticals, and education are seeking skilled IT talent to drive their digital progress. On the flip side, there is still some hope for blue- and grey-collared employees, according to hiring firms. Need for job creation in India: Because of high unemployment rate Female labour force participation is very low Poverty rate is high as per the Tendulkar committee Impact on socio-economic indicators like HDI, Gender Gap report Reasons for low job growth in India: In the last year’s survey of the labour bureau, it found that in most of the eight biggest employment generation sectors – Textiles, leather, metals, automobiles, gems and jewellery, transport, information technology and the handloom sectors – jobs were shrinking. A general trend of shrinking export in the last three years has led to loss of hundreds of jobs. Domestic manufactures face high tariffs leading to higher raw material cost at home, emanating from the unfavourable inverted duty structure. The automobiles sector in India faced no inverted duty structure, and thrived. Electronics faced an inverted duty structure and slowly electronics manufacturing has grown. There are a number of labour intensive manufacturing sectors in India such as food processing, leather, and footwear, wood manufacturers and furniture, textiles and apparels and garments. Indian economy: Since Indian economy jumps from Primary sector to tertiary sector. Automation: Many small industries focus om automation to gain high productivity and profit. In Packing, Finishing and other such activity were required huge labor force Low skills: All companies wants to book maximum profit in this competitive economy. They need upgraded skills person with multipurpose activity Education System: The syllabus/curriculum is taught in higher education institute is not matched the required job industry skills. Government Initiatives: National Career Service (NCS) Project: Project for transformation of the National Employment Service to provide a variety of career related services like job matching, career counselling, vocational guidance, information on skill development courses, apprenticeship, internships etc. It is under the aegis of Ministry of Labour and Employment. Mudra loans:  The facility of these loans to weaker and unserved sections of the society which aims to launch their business in form of small, micro and medium ventures. These will also help in serving the purpose for creating more jobs. Skill India Mission:  It deals with imparting skills to the unskilled labor force in India and as a result of this more skilled labor force at cheap cost will attract the foreign companies which will ultimately result in creation of jobs. Pt. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY): DDU-GKY is a part of the National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM), tasked with the dual objectives of adding diversity to the incomes of rural poor families and cater to the career aspirations of rural youth. PM- SVANidhi Scheme: Prime Minister Street Vendor’s Aatmanirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) Scheme aims to provide collateral free working capital loan to Street Vendors, vending in urban areas, to resume their businesses which were adversely affected due to COVID-1 induced lock-down. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY): Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) implemented by National Skill Development Corporation. Rural Self-Employment and Training Institutes (RSETIs): RSETIs are Rural Self Employment Training Institutes,  an initiative of the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD) to have dedicated infrastructure in each district of the country to impart training and skill upgradation of rural youth geared towards entrepreneurship development. RSETIs are managed by banks with active cooperation from the Government of India and State Governments. Make in India: The Modi government has pushed several programs to catalyse employment opportunities including the ‘Make in India’. Startup India: This initiative helped new entrepreneurs to give shape to their ideas and help in creating more job avenues in form of start-ups. Way Forward: India needs to concentrate on enabling the creation of decent work and a sustainable labor market, to which India is committed as a member of the United Nations and the International Labour Organization. The government should re-establish its role as the principal employment generator through jobs in its ministries and CPSEs and through assured employment generation programmes like MGNREGA and private sector as well plays a significant role in this regard. Source:  Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Florence Nightingale Awards are given in the field of literature. Statement-II: The Awards are named after Florence Nightingale. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-Statement-II and I are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. Both Statement-I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. Q2) Consider the following statements regarding National Emergency: It must be revoked if the Lok Sabha passes a resolution by a simple majority. This type of emergency has been proclaimed four times so far. It has no effect on the Fundamental Rights. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q3) Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary is an Eco sensitive zone. Statement-II: Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Goa. Which one of the following is correct in respect to the above statements? Both Statement-Statement-II and I are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. Both Statement-I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 26th June 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 24th June – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – c Q.2) – b Q.3) -c