Aug 28, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 28th August 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Sri Lanka’s first Karnataka cultural festival Syllabus Prelims –Art and culture Context: Recently, Sri Lanka hosted its very first Karnataka cultural festival. Key highlights of the events:- Organized by: International Cultural Council of India in collaboration with the Swami Vivekananda Cultural Centre and M.E Global Peace Foundation. Venue: Performing Arts University Auditorium, Colombo. The event showcased a mesmerizing lineup of performances by performing artists of nearly thirty well-known folk and classical traditions of Karnataka State. Performances included: Dances (Academic, traditional, and folk), musical performances, multilingual poetry recitals, Mudra dramas, puppet shows, etc. will be presented at the concert. (Tholpavakoothu) The programme featured the essence of Karnataka’s heritage, with the spotlight on talented artists like Madhuri Bondre and her troupe. Madhuri Bondre: A prominent Karnataka dancer. The event celebrated cultural diversity and marked a significant moment in the shared cultural heritage of India and Sri Lanka. About Swami Vivekananda Cultural Centre:- Established: 1998 Established at Colombo It was formerly known as the Indian Cultural Centre. Objective: Building bridges of cultural exchange and interaction between India & and Sri Lanka. The Centre is one of the 24 Indian Cultural Centres established by the Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR) to :- Revive and strengthen cultural relations and mutual understanding between India and other countries and seek Promote India-Sri Lanka cultural cooperation by building on cultural commonalities and Create an awareness of Indian culture in all its facets. MUST READ: Kalyana Karnataka Utsav SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct? (2022) Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture. The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets. Sangam poems have no reference to warrior ethics. Sangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational. Q.2) With reference to India’s culture and tradition, what is ‘Kalaripayattu’? (2014) It is an ancient Bhakti cult of Shaivism still prevalent in some parts of South India It is an ancient style bronze and brass work still found in the southern part of the Coromandel area It is an ancient form of dance-drama and a living tradition in the northern part of Malabar It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of South India Fukushima Nuclear Power Plant water issue Syllabus Prelims – International Relations/Disaster Management Context: South Korean protesters recently, called for government action to avoid any disaster caused by the release of treated radioactive water from the Fukushima nuclear power plant. Background of the issue:- Japan planned the release of over 1 million tons of water, which is claimed to be treated but potentially radioactive, from the Fukushima nuclear power plant into the sea. This sparked strong opposition and anxiety among neighboring countries, particularly South Korea. Concerns Raised- South Korea: It fears that the water release will contaminate its waters, salt, and seafood, affecting its fishing industry and public health. China: criticized Japan’s plan, questioned its transparency, and expressed concerns about the potential impact on the marine environment and global health. Japan’s Alternative Options:- Store the water for longer and then discharge it. This is because tritium’s half-life is 12-13 years. Half-life – the time it takes for its quantity to be halved through radioactive decay. The quantity of any other radioactive isotopes present in the water will decrease in this time. Hence, at the time of discharge, the water would be less radioactive. Expert Opinion:- The International Atomic Energy Agency in a final report in July 2023, concluded that the release, if conducted as designed, will cause negligible impact on the environment and human health. About the Fukushima Daiichi Nuclear Power Plant tragedy:- Fukushima Daiichi Nuclear power plant meltdown: (Zaporizhzhia nuclear plant) Location: Japan. (India – Japan Relations) Causes: a massive earthquake and tsunami. Impact: It released large amounts of radioactive materials into the environment. Causalities: No deaths were initially attributed to the incident. Although around 18,000 people lost their lives as a result of the earthquake and tsunami. ( Early Tsunami Warning System in India) Development after tragedy:- Since then, Japan has been storing the cooling water for nuclear fuel, and rain and groundwater seeping through the damaged reactor buildings in large tanks on site. The water is treated using a filtering system called Advanced Liquid Processing System (ALPS). ALPS: a filtering system that removes most of the radioactive elements except for tritium. Tritium: a hydrogen isotope that is difficult to separate. MUST READ: India’s Nuclear Energy SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) Monazite is a source of rare earths. Monazite contains thorium. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Band-e-Amir National Park Syllabus Prelims – International Relations Context: The Taliban government has banned women from visiting the Band-e-Amir National Park in Afghanistan, recently. About Band-e-Amir National Park:- IMAGE SOURCE: discoverytumundo.blogspot.com.ar Location: Yakawlang district, Afghanistan (India-Afghanistan) 2009: It was declared Afghanistan’s first national park. It features a chain of six lakes set in the Hindu Kush Mountains. Hindu Kush Mountains: a great mountain system of Central Asia. Lakes:- The lakes are famous for their intense and varying colors, ranging from faint turquoise to deep blue. The colour is a result of the minerals that fill the water and create the lake beds. It’s been called Afghanistan’s Grand Canyon. Tourism: It was visited by thousands of Afghans and pilgrims. It ceased as security nationwide deteriorated with the Taliban coming to power. Wildlife: ibex (wild goats), urials (wild sheep – pictured here), wolves, foxes, fish, and birds MUST READ: Eco-sensitive Zones (ESZ) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following countries: (2022) Azerbaijan Kyrgyzstan Tajikistan Uzbekistan Turkmenistan Which of the above has borders with Afghanistan? 1, 2 and 5 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 only 3, 4 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) Recently, there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to one of the following sites (2017) Corbett National Park Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Sariska National Park Zonal Council Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: As per recent reports, Union Minister Amit Shah will Chair the Western Zonal Council meeting organized by the Inter-State Council Secretariat. Background:- The meeting is being organized by the Inter-State Council Secretariat under the Ministry of Home Affairs in collaboration with the Government of Gujarat. The 26th meeting of the Western Zonal Council will be attended by the Chief Ministers of the member states and the Administrator of the Union Territories, along with two senior ministers from each state. Apart from them, the Chief Secretaries, Advisors, and other senior officers of the States, Union Territories, and the Central Government will also participate in the meeting. Issues to be discussed: Infrastructure, mining, water supply, environment and forests, and issues of general regional and national interests will be discussed in the meeting. About Zonal Council:- They are statutory bodies under the States Re-organization Act, of 1956. There are five councils:- The Northern Zonal Council, the Central Zonal Council, the Eastern Zonal Council, the Western Zonal Council, the Southern Zonal Council. Composition:- Northern Zonal Council: Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan, National Capital Territory of Delhi and Union Territory of Chandigarh. Central Zonal Council: Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh. Eastern Zonal Council: Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, Sikkim and West Bengal. Western Zonal Council: Goa, Gujarat, Maharashtra, and the Union Territories of Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli. Southern Zonal Council: Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and the Union Territory of Puducherry. The North Eastern States are not included in the Zonal Councils. Their special problems are looked after by the North Eastern Council, set up under the North Eastern Council Act, of 1972. Historical Background:- The idea of the creation of Zonal Councils was mooted by the first PM Nehru in 1956. This was suggested during the course of debate on the report of the States Re-organization Commission. In the light of the idea promoted by the then PM Nehru, five Zonal Councils were set up under the States Re-organization Act, 1956. Objectives:- To promote and support cooperative federalism in the country. Activate the Inter-State Council and Zonal Councils by organizing its regular meetings. Facilitate consideration of all pending and emerging issues of Centre State and Inter-State relations by the Zonal Councils and Inter-State Council. Develop a sound system of monitoring the implementation of the recommendations of the Inter-State Council and Zonal Councils. Organizational structure:- Chairman The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of each of these Councils. Vice Chairman The Chief Ministers of the States included in each zone act as Vice-Chairman of the Zonal Council for that zone by rotation, each holding office for a period of one year at a time. Members Chief Minister and two other Ministers as nominated by the Governor from each of the States. Two members from Union Territories included in the zone. Advisers One person nominated by the Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog) for each of the Zonal Councils. Chief Secretaries Another officer/Development Commissioner nominated by each of the States included in the Zone. Union Ministers are also invited to participate in the meetings of Zonal Councils depending upon necessity. Functions:- Each Zonal Council is an advisory body. It may discuss any matter in which States have a common interest and advise the Government. In particular, a Zonal Council may discuss, and make recommendations with regard to:- any matter of common interest in the field of economic and social planning. any matter concerning border disputes, linguistic minorities, or inter-State transport. any matter connected with or arising out of, the re-organization of the States under the State’s Reorganization Act. MUST READ: Inter-State Council SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State, and Deputy Minister. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution? (2013) National Development Council Planning Commission Zonal Councils Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 ASTRA missile Syllabus Prelims –Defense Context: Recently, the Indigenous ASTRA missile was tested from Tejas aircraft. Light Combat Aircraft Tejas:- It is a single-engine multirole light combat aircraft. Historical Background:- The Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) programme was started by the Government of India in 1984 when they established the Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) to manage the LCA programme. Designed and developed by: India’s HAL (Hindustan Aeronautics Limited). It replaced the ageing Mig 21 fighter planes. It is the second supersonic fighter jet that was developed by HAL (the first one being HAL HF-24 Marut). It is the lightest and smallest multi-role supersonic fighter aircraft in its class. It is designed to carry a range of air-to-air, air-to-surface, precision-guided, and standoff weaponry. About ASTRA missile:- Designed and developed by: the Defense Research and Development Laboratory (DRDL), Research Centre Imarat (RCI), and other laboratories of DRDO. Type:- It is an indigenous Beyond Visual Range (BVR) missile. (Astra Mk-1) Beyond Visual Range (BVR): A class of missiles that can target and eliminate aerial threats beyond the reach of direct visual observation, enhancing the aircraft’s combat range and effectiveness. It is an air-to-air missile. Salient features:- It can engage and destroy highly maneuvering supersonic aerial targets. It is an Indian family of all-weather beyond-visual-range air-to-air missiles. The missile is intended for use by both the Indian Air Force (IAF) and the Indian Navy. It boasts advanced air combat capabilities. It can engage multiple high-performance targets Significance:- The missile will help in reducing the dependency on foreign sources. It can neutralize adversary airborne assets without exposing adversary air defense measures. It’s technologically and economically superior to many such imported missiles. MUST READ: Vertical Launch Short Range Surface to Air Missile SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to the Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (2014) It is a surface-to-surface missile. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only. It can deliver a one-tonne nuclear warhead about 7500 km away. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mains: India’s fiscal federalism Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: As India transitioned from a planned economy to a market-oriented system and experienced changes like multi-tier fiscal systems and the Goods and Services Tax (GST), the interplay between fiscal policies and federalism requires a fresh perspective. About Fiscal Federalism: It is defined as the division of financial powers as well as the functions between multiple levels of the federal government. It has within its ambit the imposition of taxes as well as the division of different taxes between the Centre and the constituent units. Similarly, in the case of joint collection of taxes, an objective criterion is determined for the fair division of funds between the entities. Usually, there is a constitutional authority like Finance Commission in India for the purpose to ensure fairness in the division. Need for rethinking India’s Fiscal Federalism Altered Fiscal Landscape There have been some decisions, policies of the central government that have altered the Fiscal landscape. Some of these include: The paradigm shift from a planned economy to a market-mediated economic system. The transformation of a two-tier federation into a multi-tier fiscal system following the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments. The abolition of the Planning Commission and its replacement with NITI Aayog. The passing of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act. The Goods and Services (GST) Act with the GST Council holding the controlling lever. The extensive use of cess and surcharges, which affect the size of the divisible pool. Complex System of Intergovernmental Fiscal Relations This complexity has its roots in several factors, including substantial ethnic, social, and economic disparities among regions. The long-standing vertical imbalance between the expenditure and revenue-raising responsibilities of the state governments is another problem. This imbalance is in part covered by revenue-sharing arrangements. States also receive a variety of grants from the center, but even then, states run deficits. For these reasons, and because of the clear trends toward structural transformation of the economy away from central planning and increased claims of the states for fiscal autonomy, a comprehensive rethinking is needed. Challenges associated with fiscal federalism: The share of the States in divisible pool is shrinking despite their carrying a higher burden of expenditure: High share of committed expenses: Status of States’ financial health had taken a turn for the worse with the implementation of the Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana, farm loan waivers, as well as the slowdown in growth in 2019­-20. Pandemic impact has worsened the fiscal positions of State governments. Imbalance : According to the 15th Finance Commission’s report, in FY19, the Union government raised 62.7% of the total resources raised by the Union government and States, while States had borne 62.4% of the aggregate expenditure. This allocation of taxation powers and expenditure responsibilities results in an imbalance and the gap between the share recommended by the FC and the actual devolution has widened. Dependence on centre: The major source of revenue of other States is Central transfers. The Constitution grants the Union government more revenue raising powers while the States are tasked to undertake most of the development and welfare related responsibilities. Inequality: India’s fiscal federalism driven by political centralisation has deepened socio-economic inequality, belying the dreams of the founding fathers who saw a cure for such inequities in planning. Suggestive measures: Empowering the Third Tier The panchayat raj institutions and municipalities – merits serious attention. The absence of a uniform financial reporting system across all levels of government creates a critical gap. Despite referring to them as “institutions of self-government,” policymakers often term them as “local bodies,” failing to provide the necessary support. Addressing this gap and ensuring uniform financial reporting systems can fortify the foundation of local democracy. Curbing Off-Budget Borrowing A critical facet of fiscal federalism pertains to reining in off-budget borrowing practices. Off-budget borrowings, unscrutinised and unreported, pose transparency challenges. Both the Union and States indulge in such practices, with central public sector undertakings and special purpose vehicles raising resources, burdening governments with repayment liabilities. While States adhere to fiscal discipline through Article 293(3) and the FRBM Act, the Union sometimes evades such controls. Transparent reporting mechanisms must encompass all levels of government. Other measures: Former Governor of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) C. Rangarajan has underscored the importance of fiscal federalism at various levels in current Indian democracy. Distribution of resources was also essential alongside decentralisation of powers for achieving economic growth. The government needs to invest resources towards facilitating effective consultation with states as a part of the lawmaking process. It is critical that the Union establishes a system where citizens and States are treated as partners and not subjects. Recommendations of PV Rajamannar committee of 1971 needs to be considered which suggested that the Finance commission be made a permanent body. The present structure of fiscal federalism in India was formed at the time when its economy was much less market oriented than today, with the central government having a large role in regulation, administration, and planning of the economy. Therefore, with the dynamics of the emerging fiscal federalism of India, a significant rethinking is must, especially in the context of the 16th Finance Commission. Source: The Hindu India – Iran relations Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) Context: Recently India and Iran have agreed to drop the clause for arbitration in foreign courts concerning the Chabahar port. Both sides have agreed to pursue arbitration under rules framed by the UN Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL), which is favoured by India over other international trade arbitration mechanisms. About India – Iran relationship: History: In the splendid civilization of Mohenjodaro and the Sindh Valley, which flourished between 2500 and 1500 BC, there are visible signs of relationship with the Iranian civilization. The ancient relics, earthenware and the marked resemblance in their designs and patterns are strong evidence in favour of this assertion. During the middle Ages, there was a fusion of medieval Persian culture in India, especially from the Delhi Sultanate till the period of Mughal Hindustan. During colonization, relations between India and the rest of the world were subject to drastic changes, and consequently, contact between Iran and India decreased. In the 1990s, both India and Iran supported the Northern Alliance against the Taliban in Afghanistan, the latter of which received overt Pakistani backing and ruled most of the country until the 2001 United States-led invasion. Political relations: India and Iran signed a friendship treaty on March 15, 1950. Prime Minister Shri Atal Bihari Vajpayee visited Tehran in 2001 and signed the “Tehran Declaration” which set forth the areas of possible cooperation between the two countries. It recognised then Iranian President Mohammad Khatami’s vision of a “dialogue among civilisations” as a paradigm of international relations based on principles of tolerance, pluralism and respect for diversity. In 2003, both sides signed “The New Delhi Declaration” which set forth the vision of strategic partnership between India and Iran. Trade and Commerce: The value of India’s exports to Iran saw a remarkable increase in 2022, reaching US$1,847 million, representing a substantial increase of 44 percent. At the same time, India’s imports from Iran experienced a significant rise of 60 percent, totaling US$653 million. The notable growth in bilateral trade was largely driven by India’s rice exports to Iran, which reached an impressive value of US$1.098 billion, demonstrating a remarkable growth rate of 52 percent. Major Indian exports to Iran include rice, tea, fresh fruits, sugar, drugs/pharmaceuticals, artificial jewellery and electrical machinery etc. While the major Indian imports from Iran are dry fruits, glass and glassware, inorganic/organic chemicals, natural or cultured pearls, leather, gypsum and precious or semiprecious stones. Its dedication to fortifying trade relations with Iran remains resolute due to its geopolitical challenges. By actively engaging in strategic dialogues and exploring avenues of cooperation, India aims to forge a mutually beneficial and resilient business environment that transcends external pressures. However, in 2023 India had to stop procurement of crude oil from Iran after the US did not continue with sanction waivers to India and several other countries. Defense cooperation: One of the most significant provisions of 2003’s New Delhi Declaration sought to upgrade defense cooperation between Iran and India. The wide-ranging partnership involved all three military services: the army, navy, and air force. After the Iran-Iraq War, Tehran rebuilt its conventional arsenal by purchasing tanks, combat aircraft, and ships from Russia and China. Iran solicited Indian assistance in 1993 to help develop new batteries for three Kilo-class submarines it had purchased from Russia. The submarine batteries provided by the Russians were ill suited to the warm waters of the Persian Gulf, and India had substantial experience operating Kilo-class submarines in warm water. Iran remains inclined to acquire Indian assistance for other upgrades to its Russian-supplied military hardware, including MiG-29 fighters, warships, and tanks. However, despite these initiatives, strategic and defense cooperation between the two countries is relatively low. The reason for this is India’s turn to the West. Cultural relations: An Indian Cultural Centre in Tehran was inaugurated in 2013. The Cultural Centre was renamed the Swami Vivekananda Cultural Centre (SVCC) in 2018, and was provided a separate premises in 2019. The International Day of Yoga was organised in 2018, 2019 and 2020. The 550th Birth Centenary of Sri Guru Nanak was also observed. The center conducts regular Yoga and Hindi classes. Indian diaspora: There is a high-level commitment in both countries to promote and facilitate people-to-people contacts. I Indian pilgrims visit the Shi’a pilgrimage circuit in Iran (Qom, Mashhad, and Hamedan) and Iraq (Najaf and Karbala) every year. Challenges associated with the bilateral relations: USA sanctions: The sanctions imposed by the USA on Iran after Tehran withdrew from the nuclear deal in 2018 may have virtually destroyed India-Iran trade, especially India’s energy imports from Iran. Anti-Iran coalition: Ties also appeared to have been hit by New Delhi’s surprise decision to join the Israel-India-UAE-U.S. group, portrayed as an “anti-Iran” coalition, and by perceptions of Iranian support to Yemeni Houthis behind the drone attack on a UAE oil facility where an Indian was among those killed. Strategic stakes: Iran also happens to be the entry point for India for trade with the Central Asian countries where India’s geographical approach is limited. With the increasing presence of China in Iran, India has been concerned about the strategic stakes of the Chabahar port project. The access to the Chabahar port may prove strategically important for India. Chinese closer ties with oil producers can bring governance and energy security issues for India. Way Forward: If India can extend assertive diplomacy being practiced by it, emphasizing on standing by its neighbours and friends and focusing solely on fulfilling its national interests, it could open a huge potential for cooperation between these two great nations and civilizations. Therefore, there is a need to look forward toward areas of convergence, where both countries have a mutual understanding of each other’s common interests and further work together to achieve the same. Source: The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Nuclear power plant Location 1.Zaporizhzhia Ukraine 2.Fukushima China 3.Chernobyl Russia How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Zonal Councils are constitutional bodies. Statement-II: The North Eastern States are not included in the Zonal Councils. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Band-e-Amir National Park is located in Yakawlang district, Afghanistan. Statement-II: It was declared Afghanistan’s first national park in 2007. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Analyse the challenges associated with the present India’s fiscal structure and give suggestive measures. (250 words) Q.2) With recent changes in the geopolitical events, how can India and Iran rebuild their ties affected adversely? Discuss (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 28th August 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 26th August – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – b Q.3) – d

Aug 28, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 28th August 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Aug 27, 2023 TLP Mains Answer Writing

[COMPILATION] IASbaba’s TLP 2023 (Phase 2): UPSC Mains 2023 Answer Writing!

For TLP (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE Hello Friends, Hope you all have enjoyed the daily 5 questions from TLP. Here, we have come up with the much-awaited compilations of  TLP. Make the best use of it. To Know More about the Initiative -> CLICK HERE SCHEDULE/DETAILED PLAN -> CLICK HERE Compilations - Phase 2 Compilations - GS 1 Compilations - GS 2 Compilations - GS 3 Compilations - GS 4 To get Regular Updates from IASbaba, follow- TELEGRAM Channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccount YOUTUBE  –  https://www.youtube.com/channel/UChvbVdio9Wgj7Z3nQz1Q0ZQ FACEBOOK  – https://www.facebook.com/iasbaba/ Thank You IASbaba

Aug 26, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 26th August 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Global Environment Facility (GEF) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: The Global Biodiversity Framework Fund (GBFF) was ratified and launched at the Seventh Assembly of the Global Environment Facility (GEF) held recently. Global Biodiversity Framework Fund’s (GBFF) implications:- Governments, non-profits, and the private sector can now contribute their funds to GBFF. This will ensure that the world meets the goals and targets of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF) formulated by the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) by 2030. As much as 20 percent of the funds would support Indigenous-led initiatives to protect and conserve biodiversity. It will also prioritize support for Small Island Developing States and Least Developed Countries, which will receive more than a third of the fund’s resources. This is the first time there would be funds channeled to non-state actors like the indigenous communities. Under Target 19 of GBF, at least $200 billion per year will need to be raised by 2030. Canada and the United Kingdom have already donated 200 million Canadian dollars and 10 million pounds respectively to the GBFF. After donations from Canada and the UK, $40 million is still needed to operationalize the fund by the end of 2023. The first GBFF Council meeting will be held in January 2024, with a view to approving the first work programme at the June 2024 Council meeting. The first tranche of the fund is likely to be disbursed after the council meeting to ensure that the first projects under the new Fund can be launched ahead of CBD’s CoP16. About Global Environment Facility (GEF):- IMAGE SOURCE: GEF Established:1991. It was established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit of UNFCC. HQ: Washington, D.C. United States. Historical Background:- It was set up as a fund under the World Bank. Restructured: in 1994. 1992: At the Rio Earth Summit, the GEF was restructured and moved out of the World Bank system to become a permanent, separate institution. Since 1994, however, the World Bank has served as the Trustee of the GEF Trust Fund. Rio Earth Summit: It was a major United Nations conference held in Rio de Janeiro (Brazil) in 1992. It highlighted the impact of human socio-economic activities on the environment. ( Climate Ambition Summit 2020 held virtually) Members of GEF: It has 184 member India is a member. Venue of the seventh Assembly of GEF: Vancouver, Canada. It is a family of funds dedicated to confronting biodiversity loss, climate change, pollution, and strains on land and ocean health. Its grants, blended financing, and policy support to help developing countries address their biggest environmental priorities and adhere to international environmental conventions. It provides financial assistance for five major international environmental conventions:- The Minamata Convention on Mercury. Signed: 2013. Effective from 2014. It is an international treaty designed to protect human health and the environment from anthropogenic emissions and releases of mercury and mercury compounds. The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). Signed:2001. Effective from 2004. It is an international environmental treaty that aims to eliminate or restrict the production and use of persistent organic pollutants (POPs). The United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity (UNCBD) (UN Biodiversity Summit) Signed: 5 June 1992 – 4 June 1993. Effective from 1993. It is the international legal instrument for “the conservation of biological diversity, the sustainable use of its components, and the fair and equitable sharing of the benefits. The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD). Signed: 14 October 1994 – 13 October 1995. Effective from 1996. It was established in 1994 to protect and restore our land and ensure a safer, just, and more sustainable future. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). Signed:1992-1993. Effective from 1994. It was adopted in 1992 with the ultimate aim of preventing dangerous human interference with the climate system. Organization of GEF:- The GEF’s governing structure is organized around an Assembly, Council, Secretariat, 18 implementing agencies, a Scientific and Technical Advisory Panel, and the Independent Evaluation Office. GEF Council: it is the GEF’s main governing body, and comprises 32 members appointed by constituencies of member countries. Functions of GEF:- It supports developing countries’ work to address the world’s most pressing environmental issues. It organizes work around five focal areas – biodiversity loss, chemicals and waste, climate change, international waters, and land degradation. It takes an integrated approach to support more sustainable food systems, forest management, and cities. GEF and India: India is a founder member of GEF. It is both a donor and recipient of GEF funds. India represents the GEF South Asia Constituency (including, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Maldives, Nepal, and Sri Lanka) in the GEF Council. GEF Political Focal Point: Department of Economic Affairs (DEA). It is responsible for issues related to GEF governance, including policies and decisions, as well as relations between member countries and the GEF Council and Assembly. GEF Operational Focal Point (OFP): The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) MUST READ: Climate Adaptation Summit 2021 SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following : (2023) Aerosols Foam agents Fire retardants Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) With reference to ‘Global Environment Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2014) It serves as a financial mechanism for ‘Convention on Biological Diversity and ‘United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change It undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at the global level It is an agency under the OECD to facilitate the transfer of technology and funds to underdeveloped countries with the specific aim of protecting their environment Both (a) and (b) Multi Commodity Exchange Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: Gold prices declined 50 rupees at Multi Commodity Exchange for October 2023. Background:- Gold was trading at 58,769 rupees per 10 grams. Silver was also down by 404 rupees to trade at 73,600 rupees per kilogram for September 2023 Contracts. About Multi Commodity Exchange:- A commodities exchange is a legal entity that facilitates the trading of standardized commodity contracts and related investment products. Commodity Exchange was first regulated by the Forward Market Commission (FMC). After the merger of FMC with SEBI in 2015 it is now regulated by Major Commodity Exchange in India:- Multi Commodity Exchange (MCX) National Commodities and Derivative Exchange (NCDEX) National Multi-commodity Exchange (NMCE) Of these commodity exchanges, the NCDEX and NCME focus primarily on agricultural commodities trading. Multi Commodity Exchange (MCX):- Established: 2003. Ministry: Ministry of Finance. HQ: Mumbai. It is India’s first listed exchange. It facilitates online trading of commodities like gold, silver, copper, zinc, lead, crude oil, natural gas (NG) nickel, aluminum, etc. (Gold Reserve) It holds 86% of the market share of commodity exchanges in India. It is the world’s largest exchange for silver and gold.( Bureau of Indian Standards(BIS) and Hallmark) It involves trading in more than 40 commodities. Promoters: National Spot Exchange Limited, India Energy Exchange, Singapore Mercantile Exchange Global Board of Trade, IBS Forex, etc. Traded commodities: metal, fibre, bullion, energy, spices, etc. MUST READ: Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme 2022-23 SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2017) The Standard Mark of the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) What is/are the purpose/purposes of the Government’s ‘Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme’ and ‘Gold Monetization Scheme’? (2016) To bring the idle gold lying with Indian households into the economy To promote FDI in the gold and jewelry sector To reduce India’s dependence on gold imports Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Tele-Law- 2.0 Syllabus Prelims –Governance Context: Union Law and Justice Minister Arjun Ram Meghwal launched Tele-Law- 2.0 recently. About Tele-Law- 2.0:- Ministry: Ministry of Law & Justice. It Integrates Tele-Law and Nyaya Bandhu App. Objective: to further enhance citizen accessibility to legal aid. It will enable the common citizen to access legal advice, legal assistance, and legal representation through a single registration and single gateway of Tele-Law. (Lakhs of people benefit through Tele-Law) About the Tele-Law programme:- Ministry/ministries: Ministry of Law and Justice and Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). Objective: the programme connects the disadvantaged section with a panel of lawyers through an e-interface platform. Working:- It uses video conferencing facilities and telephone services to connect lawyers to litigants who need legal advice. It is to facilitate the delivery of legal advice through a panel of lawyers stationed at the State Legal Services Authorities (SALSA) and CSC (Common service centres). Fee:- The service is free for those who are eligible for free legal Aid under Section 12 of the Legal Services Authority Act, 1987. For all others, a nominal fee is charged. MUST READ: Citizens’ Tele-Law Mobile App SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places, and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Regarding Digi Locker’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) It is a digital locker system offered by the Government under the Digital India Programme. It allows you to access your e-documents irrespective of your physical location. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 The Grand Cross of the Order of Honour Syllabus Prelims –Important Awards Context: Recently, Prime Minister Modi became the first Foreign Head of a Govt. to be awarded ‘The Grand Cross of the Order of Honour’ by the Greek govt. Background:- This recognition was given during Prime Minister Modi’s official visit to Greece. About The Grand Cross of the Order of Honour:- IMAGE SOURCE: IASBABA Established:1975. Conferred by: President of Greece. (Aegean sea & islands) Description: The head of the goddess Athena is depicted on the front side of the Star with the inscription “ONLY THE
RIGHTEOUS SHOULD BE HONOURED”. Conferred to: Prime Ministers and eminent personalities who by reason of their distinguished position, have contributed to enhancing the stature of Greece. (Greece- Turkey Clash) MUST READ: NATO SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The term “two-state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of (2018) China Israel Iraq Yemen India Smart Cities Awards Contest 2022 Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently, the Winners of the India Smart Cities Awards Contest 2022 were announced. Key Highlights:- President Droupadi Murmu will felicitate the winners of the ISAC 2022 awards on the 27th of September in Indore, Madhya Pradesh. About India Smart Cities Awards Contest 2022:- The India Smart Cities Awards Contest (ISAC) recognizes the exemplary work championed by cities, projects, innovations, and partners in promoting ‘smart’ development in cities. (Smart City Mission) Participants: All 100 smart cities have participated in the ISAC. There have been three editions of the ISAC, viz., ISAC 2018, ISAC 2019 and ISAC 2020. It was the Fourth edition of the awards. Ministry: Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. Selection Process:- The award has a two-stage submission process:- First stage or ‘Qualifying Stage’: It involves an overall assessment of the city’s performance. Second stage or ‘Proposal Stage’: requires smart cities to submit their nominations for six award categories viz. These include Project Award, Innovation Award, City Award, State/UT Award, Leadership Award and Partners Award. (Fifth anniversary of the Smart Cities Mission) The Partners Award is a new addition to the Award categories. It is to honour the various collaborators of the smart city ecosystem, e.g., industry partners, knowledge partners, and community-based organizations for their contribution to championing the cause of the Smart Cities Mission. Results of the ISAC 2022 announced: 15th August 2022. MUST READ: Smart Cities and Academia Towards Action & Research (SAAR) SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2019) Department of Science and Technology Ministry of Labour and Employment NITI Aayog Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Q.2) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places, and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Project Accelerated Mission for Better Employment and Retention (AMBER) Syllabus Prelims –Government initiatives Context: Recently, the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), launched Project ‘AMBER’. Background:- MSDE started the project in collaboration with Generation India Foundation (GIF) and Amazon Web Services India Private Limited (AWS India). About Project ‘AMBER’:- Launched: 2023. Ministry: Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE). It is a joint initiative of the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC), Generation India Foundation (GIF), and Amazon Web Services India Private Limited (AWS India). The initiative has been undertaken under the SANKALP programme. Objective: to train 30,000 youth, focusing on women and underprivileged groups. Among the 30,000 youth, 50% will be women. Learners engage in the AWS (re/Start) program, gaining fundamental AWS cloud skills and practical career guidance. Features of the project:- The learners take part in AWS (re/Start), a workforce development program for unemployed and underemployed individuals. It covers fundamental AWS cloud skills as well as practical career tips, including resume writing and interview preparation. Through real-world scenario-based exercises, labs, and coursework, learners are trained in multiple technologies, including Linux, Python, networking, security, and relational databases. The program covers the cost for learners to take the AWS Cloud Practitioner Certification exam. AWS Cloud Practitioner Certification exam: an industry-recognized credential that validates their cloud skills and knowledge and connects the participants with job interview opportunities in cloud or IT with local employers. Significance:- It will bring entry-level talent into the workforce. It helps individuals to launch successful cloud careers. (Cloud Computing) It helps organizations to increase their competitive edge with in-demand talent, and communities. It focuses on women to improve gender diversification in the tech industry and underprivileged groups. MUST READ: National Super Computing Mission (NSM) SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as marketplaces. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: (2022) Private and public hospitals must adopt it. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mains: India and One Health Approach Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently the G20 health ministers prioritise, commit to tackling antimicrobial resistance (AMR) with One Health approach during their meet in Gandhinagar, Gujrat. About the One Health Approach: ‘One Health’ is an interdisciplinary approach that recognises the interconnections between the health of humans, animals, plants, and their shared environment. An early articulation can be found in the writings of Hippocrates, who contemplated the relationships between public health and clean environments. The 19th-century German physician and pathologist Rudolf Virchow later wrote that between animal and human medicines there are no dividing lines – nor should there be.” Recently, the eminent veterinarians James Steele and Calvin Schwabe have championed the value of ecology for both animal and human health. Significance of One Health approach: Requirement of less resources: It minimises resource requirements across sectors. An important way it does this is by encouraging coordination across governmental units. Exchange of information: Taking a One Health approach allows researchers to share their laboratories and findings, and ultimately make decisions that lead to resilient, sustainable, and predictable policies. Potential economic benefits: The economic benefits of One Health are understood in contrast to the cost of managing a pandemic with a non-One-Health approach. An assessment of the G20 Joint Finance and Health Taskforce estimated the latter to be around $30 billion a year. On the other hand, estimates by the World Bank have indicated that the former would cost $3 billion to $11.5 billion annually. Integrated approach: The COVID-19 pandemic has renewed interest among scientists and policy makers for building an integrated approach for prevention, early detection and instituting appropriate response to control such public health emergencies. Associated challenges: Spread of disease: About 60 per cent of the known infectious diseases in humans and 75 percent of all emerging infectious diseases are caused by pathogens that originate in animals. Antibiotic-resistant microbes also can effectively be transmitted from animals to humans and cause diseases in humans which may not respond to affordable antibiotics. Extensive and irrational use of antibiotics especially in the livestock sector for increasing yield and preventing diseases causes emergence and selection of resistant pathogens. These spread through animal-human interaction or food chain. Govt Initiatives on One health approach: Consortium on One Health: The Department of Biotechnology launched India’s first consortium on One Health in 2021. It brings together 27 organisations from several ministries and plans to assess the burden of five transboundary animal diseases and 10 select zoonotic diseases. Standing Committee on Zoonoses: The Government of India established its ‘Standing Committee on Zoonoses’ in 2006 under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW). It is to provide the Union and the State governments guidance and recommendations on challenges related to zoonoses. Pilot projects: Pilot projects in some states: In 2022 a One Health pilot project was launched in Karnataka and Uttarakhand. It intends to strengthen intersectoral collaborations through capacity-building, with the goal of improving livestock health, human health, wildlife health, and environmental health. National One Health Mission: India is also currently preparing for a wider ‘National One Health Mission’ to be spearheaded by the Office of the Principal Scientific Advisor. The idea is to coordinate, support and integrate all existing One Health initiatives in the country. Way Forward: India should move beyond short-term collaborations and create an integrated, science-based environment. This is a prerequisite for platforms to not just share office space but to also provide access to laboratories and biological samples to the relevant researchers. Therefore nexus of science, social science, indigenous knowledge and policy at national, state and local levels can put forward strategies and institutions for implementation of One Health. Source:  DTE The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Bill, 2023 Syllabus     Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance) Context: The bill was recently introduced in Rajya Sabha will consist of the Prime Minister as the chairperson, the Leader of the Opposition as a member, and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister as another member. This bill proposes to exclude the Chief Justice of India (CJI) from the three-member committee that recommends the names of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and the Election Commissioners (ECs) to the President. Background: The Supreme Court (SC) in recently ruled that CEC and ECs will be appointed by the President of India on the advice of a Committee consisting of the Prime Minister, and Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and the Chief Justice of India until a law is enacted by Parliament on their appointments. This ruling emerged from a 2015 Public Interest Litigation (PIL) challenging the appointment process. Key provisions of the bill: Composition of the commission: The bill maintains the existing structure of the Election Commission, consisting of the CEC and other ECs. The CEC and ECs are appointed by the President of India. However, the bill introduces the requirement that their appointments will be made on the recommendation of a Selection Committee. Selection committee: The Selection Committee will comprise the Prime Minister as the Chairperson, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. If there is no recognized Leader of the Opposition, the leader of the largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha will take on this role. Search committee: A Search Committee will be responsible for preparing a panel of five potential candidates for the Selection Committee’s consideration. The Search Committee will be headed by the Cabinet Secretary and will have two other members who are senior government officials with expertise in election-related matters. The Selection Committee can also consider candidates who were not included in the panel prepared by the Search Committee. Qualification: Individuals who hold or have held positions equivalent to the rank of Secretary in the central government will be eligible for appointment as CEC and ECs. Additionally, these individuals should possess expertise in managing and conducting elections. Salaries and allowances: The bill stipulates that the salary, allowances, and service conditions of the CEC and other ECs will be the same as those of the Cabinet Secretary. Term of office: Both the CEC and other ECs will serve for a term of six years or until they reach the age of 65, whichever comes first. If an EC is elevated to the position of CEC, its total term cannot exceed six years. The bill also specifies that the CEC and ECs will not be eligible for reappointment. Conduct of business: The Election Commission’s business will continue to be conducted through unanimous decisions. If a difference of opinion arises between the CEC and other ECs on any matter, it will be resolved through a majority vote. Removal and resignation: The bill maintains the existing procedure for removing the CEC and ECs from office. The CEC can only be removed through a process similar to the removal of a Supreme Court judge, requiring a motion passed by both Houses of Parliament with majority support of the total membership and at least two-thirds support from members present and voting. The recommendation of the CEC is required for the removal of an EC. Resignation provisions remain the same as well. Criticisms associated with the bill: Balance of Power: The Prime Minister and a Cabinet Minister (nominated by the Prime Minister) forming part of the three-member committee, the Leader of Opposition is left with a minority vote even before the process begins. This raises questions about the balance of power within the committee and whether the selection process truly ensures independence or remains skewed in favour of the Executive. Impact on electoral governance: The proposed changes may have implications for the autonomy and functioning of the ECI. The independence of the Election Commission is crucial for ensuring impartiality and integrity in the conduct of elections. Any perceived influence of the Executive in the selection process might raise concerns about the EC’s ability to carry out its responsibilities without bias. Alignment with Framers Intentions: The SC, in its previous ruling, emphasized that the framers of the Constitution intended for an independent body to oversee elections. Critics of the proposed Bill raise questions about whether the new composition of the Selection Committee aligns with the framers’ objective of creating an impartial and independent body responsible for elections. Way Forward: Therefore, preserving the autonomy of the Election Commission is not only crucial for maintaining the integrity of elections but also for upholding the very foundation of democracy. The government should look after the  review the composition of the selection committee and consider making it more balanced. This might involve giving the opposition a stronger representation to ensure a fair decision-making process. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Conventions Signed in 1.United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification 1998 2.Minamata Convention on Mercury 2003 3. Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). 2011 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Project AMBER Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE). Statement-II: The initiative is under the SANKALP programme. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: India Smart Cities Awards Contest 2022 winners will be felicitated by President Droupadi Murmu in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh. Statement-II: Surat held the top position India Smart Cities Awards Contest 2022. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Mains Practice Questions Q.1) What is ‘One Health Approach’ (OHA)? Discuss the significance of OHA in context of rising zoonotic infections in the country. (250 words) Q.2) Highlighting the significance of independence of Election Commissioner. Discuss the challenges associated with the recently introduced Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Bill, 2023. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 26th August 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 25th August – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

Aug 26, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 26th August 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the TestClick Here

Aug 25, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 25th August 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Wrestling Federation of India (WFI) Syllabus Prelims – Sports Context: The United World Wrestling (UWW) has suspended the Wrestling Federation of India (WFI) for not conducting elections on time. Background:- The UWW suspended the WFI for not conducting its elections within the mandated 45 days, which meant that the Indian grapplers would not be able to compete in Belgrade from September 16 under the Indian flag. About the Wrestling Federation of India (WFI):- Establishment: 1958. Ministry: Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports. HQ: New Delhi. It is the governing body of wrestling in India. Objective: to promote wrestling players for the Olympics, Asian Games, National Wrestling Championships, and World Wrestling Championships. Historical Background of Wrestling in India:– Wrestling in India has been practiced since the 5th millennium B.C. In Ancient India, wrestling was known as Many characters in Mahabharata are considered to be great wrestlers of the time, included: Bhimawas Jarasandha, Keechak, and Balrama. Ramayana mentions Hanuman as one of the greatest wrestlers of his time. It is called kushti in Punjab and Haryana. Composition of WFI:- President -01 Senior Vice President – 01 Vice Presidents – 04 Honourary Secretary General – 01 Honourary Treasurer – 01 Honourary Joint Secretaries – 02 Executive Members – 05 Functions of WIFI:- To encourage, promote, and control amateur wrestling activities. To affiliate with the Indian Olympic Association. To affiliate with the United World Wrestling [UWW] and to enforce the rules and regulations of UWW. To arrange the holding of Senior, Junior, and Sub-Junior Wrestling Championships every year as per UWW Rules. To authorize a State Wrestling Association to hold wrestling competitions of Inter-Regional nature. To maintain control over officials and keep a panel of trained officials to work in approved. To arrange for their training and tests whenever required. To conduct systematic coaching camps for the benefit of wrestlers. To lay down the general policy under which the State Wrestling Associations. To register wrestlers and promote friendly bouts among them.   About-United World Wrestling (UWW):- It is the international governing body for the sport of wrestling. HQ: Objective: to lead the growth of Wrestling, competitive and recreational, around the world. The UWW was formerly known as FILA (Fédération Internationale des Luttes Associées).   MUST READ: Sports Code SOURCE: AIR Shaheed Rajguru Syllabus Prelims – Modern Indian History Context: The Union Minister Amit Shah paid tribute to Shaheed Rajguru on his birth anniversary recently. About Rajguru:- Birth: 24 August 1908. Birth Place: Khed, near Pune, Maharashtra. Death: 23 March 1931. Rajguru was a freedom fighter in the Indian National movement. He was 22 years old when he was martyred. Ideology: He believed in militant nationalism and thought that oppression was to be met with ferocity and violence. Political Career:- He joined the Hindustan Socialist Republican Army (HSRA). HSRA: It was a revolutionary group founded during the freedom movement in India. Its members consisted of revolutionaries such as Ram Prasad Bismil, Ashfaqulla Khan, and Sachindra Nath Bakshi. They believed that India could gain independence only by force. The group engaged in violent methods to achieve their objective. Assassination of J P Saunders:- The young revolutionaries wanted to take revenge for the death of Lala Lajpat Rai who died due to injuries sustained in a brutal police lathi charge during the protests against the Simon Commission. Rajguru among other revolutionaries wanted to assassinate James A. Scott, the police officer who had ordered the lathi charge. However, in a case of mistaken identity, J. P. Saunders, a British police officer was killed. Rajguru was caught and arrested. Trial:- In the trial that followed the shooting, all three leaders Rajguru, Bhagat Singh, and Sukhdev were sentenced to death. Rajguru, along with his fellow revolutionaries, was hanged in Legacy:- Rajguru, Bhagat Singh, and Sukhdev were hanged on 23 March 1931. This day is observed as Martyrs’ Day in India. MUST READ: Chandra Shekhar Azad SOURCE: AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Q.2) The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a: (2014) revolutionary association of Indians with headquarters in San Francisco. nationalist organization operating from Singapore. militant organization with headquarters in Berlin. communist movement for India’s freedom with headquarters at Tashkent. Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) Syllabus Prelims – Defense/Important Institutions Context: Recently, the Defence Acquisition Council approved proposals worth 7,800 crore rupees to enhance the operational capabilities of the Armed Forces. Background:- To enhance the efficiency of the Indian Air Force, the DAC granted Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) for the procurement and installation of Electronic Warfare EW Suite on Mi-17 V5 Helicopters. The EW Suite will be procured from Bharat Electronics Limited BEL. The DAC has also accorded AoN for procurement of a Ground-Based Autonomous System for mechanized infantry and armoured regiments which will enable various operations like unmanned surveillance, logistic delivery of ammunition, fuel, and spares, and casualty evacuation on the battlefield. The AoN for procurement of Ruggedized Laptops and Tablets for the Indian Army under Project Shakti has also been accorded. About the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC):- Establishment: 2001. Ministry: Ministry of Defense. HQ: Delhi. The Defence Acquisition Council is the highest decision-making body in the Defense Ministry. It decides new policies and capital acquisitions for the three services (Army, Navy, and Air Force) and the Indian Coast Guard. Objective: To ensure expeditious procurement of the approved requirements of the armed forces. Chairman: The Minister of Defense is the Chairman of the Council. Historical Background:- It was formed, after the Group of Ministers’ recommendations on ‘Reforming the National Security System’, in 2001, post Kargil War (1999). Functions of DAC:- Give in-principle approval of a 15-year Long Term Integrated Perspective Plan (LTIPP) for defense forces. Accord of acceptance of necessity to acquisition proposals. Categorization of the acquisition proposals relating to ‘Buy’, ‘Buy & Make’, and ‘Make’. Take decisions regarding ‘offset’ provisions in respect of acquisition proposals above Rs 300 crore. Take decisions regarding the Transfer of technology under the ‘Buy & Make’ category of acquisition proposals. Field trial evaluation. Monitor the progress of major projects on feedback from the Defense Procurement Board. MUST READ: Self-reliance in defence SOURCE: AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1)With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) recently, organized a one-day open house consultation on health insurance of persons with disabilities. About the event:- Organized by: The event is being held in collaboration with the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) and National Centre for Promotion of Employment of Persons with Disabilities, Mumbai. IRDAI: a statutory body under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance, tasked with regulating and licensing the insurance and re-insurance industries in India. The conference will be held in two sessions:- Identification of issues of PwDs in seeking insurance facilities and Identification of provisions and issues faced by insurance companies with respect to providing insurance to PwDs and way forward. Objectives:- To understand the challenges being faced by Persons with Disabilities (PwDs). Approaching insurance providers specifically for retail policies, challenges of insurance companies in providing their policies, regulatory authorities such as IRDAI, and challenges faced by insurance chains in providing end-to-end insurance services. To discuss and promote the launch of standardized insurance products developed by IRDAI for persons with disabilities.   About the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC):- Established: 1993. HQ: New Delhi. NHRC is a statutory body established under the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993. The Act also provides for the creation of the State Human Rights Commission (SHRC) as well. Historical Background:- NHRC was established in conformity with the Paris Principles. Paris Principles: adopted for the promotion and protection of human rights in Paris in 1991. It was endorsed by the General Assembly of the United Nations in 1993. Composition of NHRC:- It is a multi-member body. It consists of a chairperson, five full-time Members, and seven deemed Members. Chairperson: a retired chief justice of India or a judge of the Supreme Court. Appointments:- The chairman and members are appointed by the President on the recommendations of a six-member committee consisting of:- Prime Minister (head) Speaker of the Lok Sabha Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha Leaders of the Opposition in both Houses of Parliament Union Home Minister. Term: three years or until they attain the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier. Removal: the President can remove them from office under specific circumstances. They can be removed only on the charges of proven misbehavior or incapacity if proved by an inquiry conducted by a Supreme Court Judge. Functions of NHRC:- To investigate the violation of human rights. To prevent a human rights violation. To conduct research about human rights. To create awareness campaigns through various mediums, and encourage the work of non-governmental organizations (NGOs). NGO: a group that functions independently of any government. It is the watchdog of human rights in the country.   MUST READ: New Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) appointed SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021) Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such an accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) In India, Judicial Review implies – (2017) The power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders. The power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures. The power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before the President assents to them. The power of the Judiciary to review its own judgments given earlier in similar or different cases. Paravanar River Syllabus Prelims – Geography Context: Recently, Neyveli Lignite Corporation India Limited (NLCIL) completed the Permanent Diversion of Paravanar River Course. Background of the issue:- The temporary alignment of the Paravanar River course is just 60 meters away from the Mine. This Paravanar river has to handle stormwater from the catchment area of more than 100 sq. kms from the northwest and southern areas. As several villages are in this area, and it has become of paramount importance to safeguard the habitats as well as agricultural fields from inundation during incessant and heavy rains. Taking accountability and responsibility NLCIL took up the critical task of providing an adequate and permanent waterway through the work of permanent diversion of Paravanar. The long pending and vital work of permanent diversion of the Paravanar River course has been completed by NLCIL on 21st August 2023. About Paravanar River:- Location: Tamil Nadu. Paravanar River Basin which is a leaf-shaped river basin. It is the second smallest river basin of Tamil Nadu. It lies within the Cuddalore District of Tamil Nadu. The Paravanar River is not a mature river. It is a seasonal and ephemeral river. Ephemeral: lasting or used for only a short period of time. About NLCIL:- Establishment:1956. Ministry: Ministry of Coal. (Coal economy) HQ: Tamil Nadu, India. Core Business: Mining & Power Generation. Present Mining Capacity: 1 MTPA Lignite 32.1 MTPA Coal: 20.0 MTPA Present Power Generation Capacity (including JVs): 6061.06 MW Lignite: 3640MW Coal: 1000 MW Solar: 06  MW Wind: 51 MW NLCIL is a Navratna company Central Public Sector Undertaking. It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Coal. (India’s Transition away from Coal) MUST READ: River Cities Alliance SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2020) Coal ash contains arsenic, lead, and mercury. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment. High ash content is observed in Indian coal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022) Monazite is a source of rare earth. Monazite contains thorium. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Advisory Board on Banking and Financial Frauds (ABBFF) Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: The Central Vigilance Commission has reconstituted the advisory board on Banking and Financial Frauds (ABBFF). Background:- The reconstituted APBFF will be chaired by Suresh N Patel, former Central Vigilance Commissioner. Central Vigilance Commission:- Establishment: 1964. HQ: New Delhi, Delhi. It was set up by the Government on the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by Santhanam. It is a statutory body governed by the Central Vigilance Commission Act 2003. Mandate: To inquire into offenses that might have been committed under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 by certain categories of public servants. Composition: Central Vigilance Commissioner (Chairperson) and not more than two Vigilance Commissioners (Members).   About the Advisory Board on Banking and Financial Frauds (ABBFF):- Constituted by: Central Vigilance Commission(CVC). HQ: New Delhi. Objective: It conducts the first level examination of bank frauds before recommendations or references are made to investigative agencies such as the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI). Composition of ABBFF:- It consists of the Chairman and four other members. Tenure of the Chairman/ Members: two years. Functions of ABBFF:- It has been empowered to examine the role of officials/whole-time directors (including ex-officials/ex-whole time directors) in public sector banks, public sector insurance companies; and public sector financial institutions in case of frauds amounting to ₹ 3 crores and above. ( Bad Bank) To periodically carry out fraud analysis in the financial system and give inputs, if any, for policy formulation related to the frauds, to RBI and CVC. (Bad Bank: NARCL & IDRCL) The Central Vigilance Commission or the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) can also refer any case or technical matter to the board for its advice, the order stated. It can give inputs for policy formulation related to fraud to the Reserve Bank of India and the Central Vigilance Commission. It will tender its advice as may be requisitioned by ministries, departments, the Central Vigilance Commission, or the CBI.   MUST READ: DHFL SCAM SOURCE: BUSINESS LINE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1)With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022) If the inflation is too high, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022) The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. BBB helps Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital-raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 FIDE Chess World Cup 2023 Syllabus Mains – Sports Context: Magnus Carlsen of Norway beat India’s R. Praggnanandhaa in tie-breaks to win the title of the FIDE Chess World Cup 2023 held recently. About FIDE Chess World Cup 2023:- Venue: Baku, Azerbaijan. Date: from 29 July to 25 August,2023. Governing body: International Chess Federation (FIDE). FIDE Global Strategy Commission (hereinafter referred to as GSC) is in charge of preparing Regulations, communicating with the participants and the Organizer, and conducting inspections. The body responsible for adopting and changing these Regulations is the FIDE Council (upon GSC’s recommendations). At any time, any circumstance or unforeseen situation not covered in these Regulations shall be referred to the FIDE President for the final decision. Participation: 206 players shall take part in the World Cup. Prize: The prize money shall be paid by direct banker’s order drawn in USD.   MUST READ: Chess Olympiad SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 India-UK Relations Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (International Relations) Context: Recently, the India and UK strong partnership has ectended far beyond trade and investment into other field such as education, sport, culture and tourism. About India-UK Relations: Political: UK-India relationship is rooted in India’s colonial history with the British. The bilateral relationship was upgraded to a strategic partnership in 2004. The UK supports India’s proposal for permanent membership of the UNSC and is also an important interlocutor for India on global platforms. Economic and trade: Trade: UK is among India’s major trading partners and as per trade statistics of Ministry of Commerce and Industry, India’s trade with the UK in 2017-2018 was US $14.497 billion. Investment: UK is the 4th largest inward investor in India, after Mauritius, Singapore and Japan with a cumulative equity investment of US $26.09 billion (April 2000-June 2018), accounting for around 7% of all foreign direct investment into India. India continued to be the third largest investor in the UK and emerged as the second largest international job creator with Indian companies having created over 110,000 jobs in the UK. Defence: After Independence from the British Raj in 1947, India embarked on its own foreign and national defence policy that was characterized by the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM). After the end of the Cold War, the two countries entered into a strategic partnership in 2004. They have reaffirmed and strengthened Defence cooperation, with capacity building, technology development and transfers, joint military exercises (Ajeya Warrior-Army; Konkan-Naval; Indradhanush Force), intelligence sharing, etc. at its core. India considers the defence sector as one of the major areas where the bilateral partnership could be expanded around the ‘Make in India’ campaign. During Indian PM visit in 2015, the two sides agreed to move towards “a new Defence and International Security Partnership” that would intensify cooperation on defence and security, including cyber security, and maritime security pushing for joint working in key strategic areas. Education and Health: The UK-India Education and Research Initiative (UKIERI) was launched in 2005. A new ‘UKEIRI Mobility Programme: Study in India’ was also launched in 2019. Under this Britain’s universities collaborate with Indian partners and send UK students to India. The successful partnership between Oxford University, AstraZeneca and SII on COVID-19 vaccine demonstrated the potential of Indian and UK expertise working together to solve international challenges. The two sides are also working on pandemic preparedness, Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR), digital health, Ayurveda and alternative medicines, as well as health worker mobility. Cultural Linkages: Cultural linkages between India and UK are deep and extensive, arising out of shared history between the two countries. There has been a gradual mainstreaming of Indian culture and absorption of Indian cuisine, cinema, languages, religion, philosophy, performing arts, etc. 2017 was celebrated as the India-UK year of Culture to mark the 70th anniversary of Indian independence. Indian Diaspora: Around 1.5 million people of Indian origin live in Britain. Indian diaspora are making significant contributions to the British Society. This includes 15 Members of Parliament, three members in Cabinet, and two in high office as Finance and Home Ministers. Challenges: Bitter Past: The bitter legacies of the Partition, anti-colonial resentment and Britain’s prejudices and its perceived tilt to Pakistan have long complicated the engagement between India and the UK. Political Negativity: While there is no way of fully separating South Asian and British domestic politics, India’s problems have been accentuated by the British Labour Party’s growing political negativity towards India. WTO related issues: Interim FTA that do not convert into full FTAs can also face challenges from other countries at the World Trade Organisation(WTO) because the latter only permits for the preferential treatment between countries which have bilateral agreements between them. Domestic Politics: The large South Asian diaspora in the UK transmits the internal and intra-regional conflicts in the subcontinent into Britain’s domestic politics. Engagement with EU: The UK needs to sort out its own internal deliberations on the future of its trajectory with the EU. Steps taken to address the challenges: Immigration: “Frequent registered traveller scheme” for Indians travelling to Britain for business. Under the scheme, Indian nationals frequently visiting to the U.K. and contributing to growth in both countries will have a ‘significantly easier’ entry process including fewer forms to be filled, access to the EU-EEA passport controls, swifter passage through airports. Infrastructure: Both countries announced three UK-India city partnerships with Indore, Pune and Amaravati to support India’s ambitious urban development goals through technical assistance, expertise sharing and business engagement. River Cleaning: Both countries have launched a new Thames/Ganga partnership for healthy river systems. This partnership will consist of a collaborative programme of research and innovation to enable the sustainable management of water resources in the Ganga basin and a policy expert exchange in 2016 supported by the UK Water Partnership. Way Forward The profound ties of culture, history and language already give the UK a potentially strong foundation upon which to further deepen its relationship with India. With a whole new set of circumstances, India and Britain should recognise that they both need each other to achieve their larger goals. Source:                  The Hindu National Curriculum Framework for School Education (NCF-SE) Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: Recently the final National Curriculum Framework policy (NCF) was unveiled by the Union Education Minister. About National Curriculum Framework for School Education (NCF-SE): The National Curriculum Framework for School Education (NCF-SE) is developed based on the vision of the NEP 2020, and to enable its implementation. The formulation of NCF-SE will be undertaken by the NCERT. The NCF will essentially overhaul school syllabi across the country, and was developed by a steering committee headed by former ISRO chairman K Kasturirangan. Key features of the policy: Language learning: The policy emphasizes the importance of learning multiple languages, especially native Indian languages. Students in Classes 9 and 10 will have to study three languages, out of which at least two should be Indian languages. In Classes 11 and 12, they will continue with two languages, one of which must be an Indian language. The goal is to enable students to achieve a “literary level” of proficiency in at least one Indian language. Board exams: The policy aims to reduce the stress and anxiety associated with board exams by allowing students to take them more than once a year. Students can choose the best score out of their multiple attempts. This will also give them more opportunities to improve their performance and showcase their abilities. Mandatory subjects: The policy has increased the number of compulsory subjects for Classes 9 and 10 to seven and for Classes 11 and 12 to six. This is intended to provide a broader and more balanced education to students. Optional subjects: The policy has categorized optional subjects into three groups: arts education (including visual and performing arts, physical education, and vocational education), social sciences and humanities, and science, mathematics, and computational thinking. Students can choose subjects from any of these groups according to their interests and aspirations. Flexible curriculum: The policy has made the curriculum more flexible and interdisciplinary by removing the rigid boundaries between academic and vocational subjects, as well as between different subject areas. Students can mix and match subjects from different groups and create their personalized learning paths. Environmental education: The curriculum for environmental education covers various topics related to the natural and human-made environment, such as ecosystems, biodiversity, climate change, pollution, conservation, and sustainable development. Students are encouraged to develop awareness, appreciation, and responsibility for the environment through experiential learning, projects, and field trips. Environmental education is integrated across all subjects in the Primary and Middle Stages and offered as a separate elective subject in the Secondary Stage. Content distribution: The Social Science curriculum for Classes 6 to 8 follows a multi-level approach that balances local, regional, national, and global perspectives. The content distribution is 20% local, 30% regional, 30% national, and 20% global. This helps students to understand the diversity and interdependence of different social groups, cultures, and regions, as well as the commonalities and challenges that they face. Alignment with 21st-century requirements: The NCF recognizes the need to prepare students for the changing demands and opportunities of the 21st century. Therefore, it aims to align the textbooks for Classes 3 to 12 with the skills and competencies that are essential for the future, such as critical thinking, creativity, communication, collaboration, digital literacy, and global citizenship. The textbooks also reflect the contemporary issues and concerns of society, such as gender equality, human rights, social justice, and environmental sustainability. Significance: The development of the NCF-SE was guided by a vision to align education with the demands of the 21st century and the ethos of the Indian knowledge system. The framework introduces multidisciplinary education, nurturing values, fostering creative pedagogies, and preparing students for practical problem-solving. It will help India in shaping a holistic, contemporary, and Indian-rooted educational landscape. Multilingualism, conceptual understanding in Mathematics, and capacities for scientific inquiry also receive renewed attention. Challenges in Indian education system:   India has achieved universal enrolment at the elementary level. This is a great achievement, but getting Students to School is only the beginning of human Capital formation. Poor quality of facilities, Shortage of qualified faculty. Out of date Curriculum, Limited university-industry Partnership. There are few rewards for being a good teacher and few punishments for being a Careless one. Need more effective and accountable governance Systems. The greed of Private Colleges to earn the maximum from every Student puts traumatic Pressure on Students which results in mental breakdown. More girls than boys drop out of School. While boys drop out to work, girls usually stay at home and help with domestic Work. Social Conception of gender roles is an important factor. Learning loss due to pandemics and the digital divide. Steps by the Government to reform Education Sector: The 86th Constitution Amendment provides the Fundamental right to free and compulsory education under Article 21A includes a Common education System where the “rich and Poor are educated under one roof”. Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan provides funding to eligible State higher educational institutions. Declaration of Educational Institutions as institutions of Eminence, to provide world-class education to Indian Students within the Country. Creation of Higher Education Financing Agency, for high-quality infrastructure in Premier educational institutions. GIAN Initiative to invite distinguished academicians, entrepreneurs, scientists, and experts from premier institutions across the world to teach in higher educational institutions in India. Way Forward: The NCF is a comprehensive document that outlines the vision and goals of education in India. It aims to transform the education system by enhancing linguistic skills, offering flexible options for subject selection, and providing a holistic education that prepares learners for the present and the future. Source:          The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Sports Award Purpose 1.Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award  To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams. 2.Dronacharya Award To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement. 3.Arjuna Award For the lifetime achievement of a sportsperson. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: India’s R. Praggnanandhaa won silver in the FIDE Chess World Cup 2023. Statement-II: It was held in Baku, Armenia. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Rajguru, Bhagat Singh, and Sukhdev were hanged on 14 February 1931. Statement-II Bhagat Singh and Rajguru threw bombs at the Central Legislative Assembly at Delhi. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I and Statement II are incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Discuss the importance of the National Curriculum Framework for Foundational Stage (NCF-FS) for education and children’s general well-being. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 25th  August 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 24th August – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – c Q.3) – c For a dedicated peer group, Motivation & Quick updates, Join our official telegram channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccount Subscribe to our YouTube Channel HERE to watch Explainer Videos, Strategy Sessions, Toppers Talks & many more…

Aug 25, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 25th August 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

Aug 24, 2023 IASbaba's Courses

[UPSC 2023 MAINS] Toppers’ Recommended TLP+ Mains Test Series 2023 – Full Length Mock Tests (FLMs) cum Mentorship Program

Dear Students Only 20 Days are left for UPSC Mains Exam; now is the time to test your preparation. At this stage of preparation, one should focus on writing Full Length Tests in a simulated environment and to get into the groove. We are offering 2 Sets of Full-Length Tests. WHY SHOULD YOU ATTEND THIS FULL MOCK TEST BY IASBABA? Here you will not just appear for the examination to test your knowledge, but to understand the approach that you take in such a short amount of time. Your speed, your decision-making skills, your weak areas, and your strong ones all get evaluated. This environment will help you evaluate the smallest of details that can make or break your dreams. TLP+ 2023 FLMs Will Test you with UPSC-level questions that will really make you thinkOne-One Evaluation by Faculty and Mains ExpertsDetailed Synopsis & Discussion Videos will be provided Two Levels of Mentorship Mentorship 1: Personalized mentoring by Faculty and Mains ExpertsMentorship 2: Mohan Sir will provide his input and guide you on the overall approach so that you prepare for your next mock in a better manner. DETAILS OF TLP+ 2023 – Full-Length Mock Tests (FLMs) Total No. Tests – 10 Tests Slots for FLM 1 and FLM 2 Mains Full-Length Cycle – 1 Pre Uploaded Mains Full-Length Cycle – 2 (Fri, Sat, Sun) – 1st (Essay), 2nd (GS1 & GS2), 3rd (GS3 & GS4) September Download Schedule The Tests can be taken at any of our Centers in Delhi, Bangalore, Lucknow and Bhopal. One can take the test online as well. Even though we have mentioned the Dates for every test, we have kept the tests flexible. However, we would want the enrolled students to write the test on the scheduled date so that they can get a feel of writing exams, three days at a stretch, mimicking the UPSC Exam Pattern. FLM 1 and FLM 2 include Detailed Synopsis and Discussion Videos along with One-One Evaluation with our Faculties/Mains Experts. Synopsis for Essay tests will not be provided. Post Evaluation one will have a one-one session with Mohan Sir TLP+ 2023 – Full-Length Mock Tests (FLMs) ₹ 8,000/- ₹ 7000 Including GST  10 FLM Tests Detailed Synopsis Discussion Videos 1:1 Mentorship ENROLL FOR ONLINE MODE ENROLL FOR OFFLINE MODE Students who have enrolled in TLP+ 2023 (Complete Mains Test Series – 24 Tests) need not enroll for this course. Read Details of TLP+ 2023 (Complete Mains Test Series - 24 Tests) ARE YOU READY TO CRACK UPSC-MAINS 2022? Have Queries? Email ID: support@iasbaba.com Contact No.: 84296 88885 (10 AM – 6 PM)

Aug 24, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 23rd August 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Yasuni National Park Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, Ecuadorians voted against the oil drilling of the protected area in Yasuni National Park in the Amazon recently. About Yasuni National Park:- IMAGE SOURCE: pbs.org Location: Ecuador, South America. Area: 9,820 square km (3,791 square miles). Water bodies: It is situated between the Napo and Curaray Rivers. Indigenous Communities: It is home to several indigenous communities like Tagaeri and Taromenani. 1989: Yasuni was designated a world biosphere reserve by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO). (UNESCO World Heritage Forests) It is part of the Amazon rainforest. The park is considered one of the most biologically diverse areas on Earth. Biodiversity:- 610 species of birds, 139 species of amphibians, and 121 species of reptiles. At least three species are Endemic species: any species or other taxon whose geographic range or distribution is confined to a single given area. About Amazon Rainforests:- Location: South America. The Amazon is a vast biome that spans eight countries—Brazil, Bolivia, Peru, Ecuador, Colombia, Venezuela, Guyana, and Suriname—and French Guiana, an overseas territory of France. It is bounded by the Guiana Highlands to the north, the Andes Mountains to the west, the Brazilian Central Plateau to the south, and the Atlantic Ocean to the east. These are the world’s largest tropical rainforests. (Deforestation in Amazon Basin) As of 2021, the Amazon had 74% of its area covered by tropical rainforests and 9% of other natural vegetation types. They are home to nearly a fifth of the world’s land species and over 45 million people. The rainforest of the Amazon is home to 400–500 indigenous Amerindian tribes. Biodiversity:- It is the world’s richest and most-varied biological reservoir. Flora: a wide variety of trees, including many species of myrtle, laurel, palm, and acacia, as well as rosewood, Brazil nut, and rubber tree. Fauna: jaguar, manatee, tapir, red deer, capybara, and many other types of rodents, and several types of monkeys.  MUST READ: Amazon forests are no longer acting as a carbon sink SOURCE: THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’ recently in the news, is related to the affairs of: (2015) ASEAN BRICS OECD WTO Maharaja Bir Bikram Manikya Bahadur Syllabus Prelims –History Context: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi paid homage to Maharaja Bir Bikram Manikya Bahadur on his 115th birth anniversary. About Maharaja Bir Bikram Manikya Bahadur:- Birth: August 19, 1908. Death: 17 May 1947. Dynasty: Maniyaka He was the last King of Tripura. He was a prominent royal figure who played a pivotal role in the modernization and development of the princely state of Tripura. His reign marked a transformative period in Tripura’s history, characterized by progressive reforms and visionary initiatives. Education:- He is popularly known as the Architect of Tripura due to his contribution to educational institutions. He established the Maharaja Bir Bikram College (MBB College) in Agartala, Tripura. Infrastructure:- Under his leadership, significant infrastructure projects were undertaken. Road networks, bridges, and public buildings were constructed to enhance connectivity and elevate living standards across the state. He built Tripura’s first airport at Agartala. He also set up one of the country’s first municipalities. Land Reforms:- He initiated land reforms, reserving vast tracks of land for Tripura’s tribal Healthcare:- He established hospitals and medical facilities, ensuring accessible and quality medical services for the people of Tripura. Administrative Efficiency He introduced administrative reforms to enhance governance and efficiency. His administration focused on inclusive policies that aimed at the welfare and upliftment of the people. Cultural Preservation:- He supported local arts, crafts, and traditions, ensuring that the state’s identity remained intact. ( Tripura government planning to promote Risa as the signature textile) MUST READ: Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj SOURCE: AIR  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal, designated as the Governor General of India? (2023) The Regulating Act The Pitt’s India Act The Charter Act of 1793 The Charter Act of 1833 Q.2) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022) Barindra Kumar Ghosh Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Global Maritime India Summit 2023(GIMS 2023) Syllabus Prelims – Government Initiatives Context: Recently, a roadshow was organized in Visakhapatnam as a run-up to the Global Maritime India Summit 2023(GIMS 2023). Background:- Visakhapatnam Port Authority (VPA) organized a roadshow in Visakhapatnam as part of a series of nationwide roadshows under the guidance and direction of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping & Waterways. It was organized to invite and attract clients and various stakeholders to actively participate in the three-day Global Maritime India Summit 2023 (GMIS) starting on October 17 in Delhi. About Global Maritime India Summit 2023 (GIMS 2023):- Ministry: Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways. Event duration: 17th October-19th October 2023. Venue: Pragati Maidan, New Delhi. Organizers: Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Indian Port Association, and Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) IPA: constituted in 1966 under the Societies Registration Act, primarily with the idea of fostering the growth and development of all Major Ports. FICCI: is the largest and oldest apex business organization in India. It is an annual meeting of the Indian and international maritime community. Objective: to serve as a platform to showcase global best practices, foster investment partnerships, and chart a new and bright course for our collective future It is a flagship event aimed at propelling the Indian maritime economy by promoting global and regional partnerships and facilitating investments. It addresses key industry issues and exchanges ideas to bring the sector forward. The Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce & Industry (FICCI) is the exclusive industry partner. It brings together global maritime players, policymakers and regulators, key opinion leaders, and industry leaders through a series of engaging dialogues, forums, and knowledge exchange platforms. The event includes:- Investor summit and International exhibition: to facilitate interaction and collaboration among the Indian and international maritime companies, policymakers, investors, and other stakeholders. Global CEOs’ Forum: to encourage dialogue and cooperation among key industry leaders. Maritime Excellence Achievers’ ceremony: to recognize partners that have made outstanding contributions to India’s development as a leading maritime center.  MUST READ: ( GREEN MARITIME SECTOR) SOURCE:  THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following in respect of the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): (2017) Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime cooperation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Likaru-Mig La-Fukche road Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: The construction of the world’s new highest motorable Likaru-Mig La-Fukche road began in Ladakh recently. Background:- The Border Roads Organization (BRO) is working on constructing the ‘Likaru-Mig La-Fukche’ road in Ladakh, which will be the new highest motorable road in the world. About Likaru-Mig La-Fukche road:- IMAGE SOURCE: The Times of India Location: Ladakh, India. (Operation Sadbhavana) It lies close to Hanle in Eastern Ladakh. Length:64-km. Altitude: about 19,400 feet. It is the highest motorable road in the world. It will surpass the Umling La Pass. Umling La Pass: located at an altitude of 19,300ft, is the highest motorable road in the world currently. It will connect Likaru to Fukche, situated 3 km from the Line of Actual Control (LAC). LAC: the demarcation that separates Indian-controlled territory from Chinese-controlled territory. ( India-China LAC standoff) Significance:- It would also provide an alternate land connectivity route to the Fukche advanced landing pad. It is the first project in India to be carried out entirely by an All Woman Road Construction Company. It is led by a five-member All Woman Border Road Task Force. With this project, the BRO will break its own record of the highest motorable road. MUST READ: India’s first-ever night sky sanctuary in Ladakh SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Magnetite particles, suspected to cause neurodegenerative problems are generated as environmental pollutants from which of the following? (2022) Brakes of motor vehicles Engines of motor vehicles Microwave stoves within homes Power plants Telephone lines Select the correct answer using the code given below 1, 2, 3 and 5 only 1, 2 and 4 only 3, 4 and 5 only 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) R2 Code of Practices” constitutes a tool available for promoting the adoption of (2022) Environmentally responsible practices in the electronics recycling industry Ecological management of ‘’Wetlands of International Importance” under the Ramsar Convention Sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands Environmental Impact Assessment’’ in the exploitation of natural resources National Conference on e-Governance Syllabus Prelims – Governance Context: Recently, the 26th National Conference on e-Governance was organized About the National Conference on e-Governance:- Venue: Indore, Madhya Pradesh. Organized by: the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances and the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology in collaboration with the Government of Madhya Pradesh. Historical Background: The Department of Administrative Reforms & Public Grievances (DARPG), Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions, Government of India, and Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), have been jointly organizing it in partnership with one State Government since 1997. Theme: Developed India: Empowering Citizens. (Governance 4.0) Participants: Representatives from 28 states, nine union territories as well and industries will participate in the conclave. The conference will focus on 11 subjects including district-level initiatives, emerging technologies for providing citizen-centric facilities, and data governance. National e-Governance Awards 2023 in 5 categories will also be presented during the conference. National Awards for e-Governance:- They are presented every year for exemplary implementation of e-governance initiatives. (Global Digital Governance) Purpose of Award Recognize achievements in the area of e-Governance. Disseminate knowledge on effective methods of designing and implementing sustainable e-Governance initiatives. Encourage incremental innovations in successful e-Governance solutions. Promote and exchange experiences in solving problems, mitigating risks, resolving issues, and planning. NAeG 2022-23 This year, the categories under the Award Scheme of the National Awards for e-Governance 2022-23 have been revised. The 5 award categories are : Government Process Reengineering for Digital Transformation Application of Emerging Technologies for providing Citizen Centric Service District-level initiative in e-Governance Research on Citizen Centric Services by Academic/Research Institutions Application of Emerging Technologies in Governance by Startups MUST READ: E-RUPI & Governance SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places, and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Regarding DigiLocker’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) It is a digital locker system offered by the Government under the Digital India Programme. It allows you to access your e-documents irrespective of your physical location. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Sloth bear Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: A Sloth bear was captured and relocated near Udhagamandalam, Tamil Nadu. About Sloth Bear:- Scientific Name: Melursus ursinus. Distribution: India, Sri Lanka, and southern Nepal. Population: 90% of the global Sloth Bear population is found in India. Habitat: dry and moist forests and in some tall grasslands, where boulders, scattered shrubs, and trees provide shelter. Size: 5 to 6 feet (1.5 to 2 meters). Weight: 90 to 140 kilograms. Food: They primarily eat termites and ants. They have poor senses of sight and hearing. They have a good sense of smell. Sloth bears’ nostrils can close completely, protecting the animals from dust or insects when raiding termite nests or beehives. Threats:- Habitat loss. Poaching for body parts. Human action: are sometimes captured for use in performances or hunted because of their aggressive behavior and destruction of crops. Protection Status:- IUCN Red List: Vulnerable CITES listing: Appendix I Indian Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I MUST READ: Nandankanan Zoological Park: Odisha SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood? (2023) Fishing cat Orangutan Otter Sloth bear Q.2) With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements is correct? (2020) It is spread over two districts. There is no human habitation inside the Park. It is one of the natural habitats of the Great Indian Bustard. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mains: India's Hunger Challenge Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: India has lifted 135 million people out of poverty; however, malnutrition remains an onerous challenge. About Hunger: The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) defines hunger as the habitual (or chronic) consumption of too few calories to provide the minimum dietary energy an individual requires to live a healthy and productive life. It is an uncomfortable or painful physical sensation caused by insufficient consumption of dietary energy. It is one of the significant manifestations of poverty. India’s achievements till date with regard to hunger and poverty: According to the Multi-dimensional Poverty Index (MDPI) prepared by the NITI Aayog, from 2015-16 to 2019-21, India lifted 135 million people out of poverty. When India got freedom in 1947 more than 80 percent of people were in extreme poverty, which today hovers around 15 per cent as per MDPI and about 11 per cent based on income criterion ($2.15 PPP). The UNDP has estimated that India lifted 415 million people out of poverty (MDPI) over the period 2005-06 to 2019-21. India seems to be on track to almost abolish poverty in the next five to 10 years. On hunger, at least in terms of food availability, India has done well. Challenges of Hunger: Poverty: Poverty restricts food choices and has been the causative factor of hunger related deaths. The persistent high prices of food items and the regional disparities in terms of development affects the people to afford balanced nutrition. Associated factors: Hunger and the related malnutrition are the result of various associated factors ranging from water, sanitation, access to food items. A person’s ‘nutritional quotient’ is also dependent on demographic factors like gender, caste, age, etc. For instance, the nutritional needs of girl child and elderly are not adequately addressed in our society. Climate Change: Erratic rainfall and increasing frequency of extreme events have impacted agricultural activities everywhere creating unfavourable conditions for food production. Climate variability affecting rainfall patterns and agricultural seasons, and climate extremes such as droughts and floods, are among the key drivers behind the rise in hunger, together with conflict and economic slowdowns. Lack of Effective Implementation of Policies: Another important reason behind the persistent hunger is the poor implementation of the schemes and policies. The Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) and the National Health Mission (NHM) have not achieved adequate coverage. Non-communicable diseases: The rising burden of cardiovascular and other non-communicable diseases in India, particularly among the rapidly growing “middle class”, is strongly linked to diet and nutrition. Consequences of the prevalence of hunger in India: Malnutrition: Hunger leads to inadequate intake of essential nutrients, which can cause malnutrition, stunting, and wasting among children and adults. Malnutrition can lead to impaired physical and cognitive development, weakened immune system, and higher risk of diseases. Health problems: Hunger can lead to several health problems such as anaemia, low birth weight, micronutrient deficiencies, and other diet-related diseases like diabetes and cardiovascular diseases. Poverty: Hunger can lead to poverty, as people may not be able to work and earn an income due to a lack of food and energy. Hunger also increases health care costs and reduces productivity, which can perpetuate poverty and inequality. Education: Hunger also affects education, as children who suffer from hunger are more likely to miss school, have poor concentration, and drop out of school. Social unrest: Hunger can lead to social unrest and conflict, as people may resort to violence to obtain food or other basic needs. Govt. Initiatives to tackle hunger in India: Eat Right India Movement: An outreach activity organized by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) for citizens to nudge them towards eating right. POSHAN Abhiyan: Launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development in 2018, it targets to reduce stunting, undernutrition, anaemia (among young children, women and adolescent girls). Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana: A centrally sponsored scheme executed by the Ministry of Women and Child Development, is a maternity benefit programme being implemented in all districts of the country with effect from 1st January, 2017. Food Fortification: Food Fortification or Food Enrichment is the addition of key vitamins and minerals such as iron, iodine, zinc, and Vitamin A & D to staple foods such as rice, milk and salt to improve their nutritional content. National Food Security Act, 2013: It legally entitled up to 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban population to receive subsidized food grains under the Targeted Public Distribution System. Mission Indradhanush: It targets children under 2 years of age and pregnant women for immunization against 12 Vaccine-Preventable Diseases (VPD). Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) Scheme: Launched in 1975, the ICDS Scheme offers a package of six services to children in the age group of 0-6 years and pregnant and lactating mothers. Source:  Indian Express Indian Institute of Management (IIM) Amendment Bill 2023 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Lok Sabha has recently passed the Indian Institutes of Management (Amendment) Bill, 2023. About IIMs: Indian Institutes of Management (IIM) are the country’s premier institutions imparting the best quality education in management on globally benchmarked processes of education and training in management. IIMs are recognized as world-class management Institutions and Centers of Excellence and have brought laurels to the country. All IIMs are separate autonomous bodies registered under the Societies Act. Being societies, IIMs are not authorized to award degrees and, hence, they have been awarding Post Graduate Diploma and Fellow Programme in Management. IIM-Calcutta was the first Indian Institute of Management, established in 1961. Currently, there are 20 IIMs in the country. The Indian Institute of Management Act, 2017 provides for the creation of an academic council for each IIM. This academic council is the principal academic body under the Act as it decides the: academic content; criteria and processes for admissions to course; and guidelines for conduct of examinations. Key provisions of IIM (Amendment) Bill, 2023: President of India as a Visitor: It designates the President of India as a Visitor of every Institute covered by the Act. Appointments: As per the IIM Act, 2017, the chairperson of the board of governors and the institute’s director are to be appointed by the board of governors. The board of governors includes the chairperson, director, government nominees, eminent persons, and faculty. The recent amendment altered the selection process to include the involvement of the Visitor (President of India) such that the Visitor nominates the chairperson, and the selection committee for director will consist of one member (out of three) nominated by the Visitor. Constitution of Search Committee: At present, the Search Committee comprises the Chairperson of the Board, and three members from amongst eminent administrators, industrialists and educationists. The Bill reduces these three members to two and adds another member to be nominated by the Visitor. Termination of Director: The Board will require prior approval of the Visitor before removing a Director. It also grants the Visitor the authority to terminate the services of the Director, as may be prescribed. The Bill also states the Chairperson of the Board will be nominated by the Visitor. Inquiries against IIMs: The Bill proposes a new procedure for inquiries against IIMs. It confers the power of inquiry upon the Visitor. The Visitor may appoint persons to review the work of any Institute and hold inquiries into its affairs. Based on the report of such inquiries, the Visitor may issue directions which will be binding on the Institute. Conditions for dissolving Board: The Bill provides that the central government may prescribe the conditions and procedure for dissolving or suspending an Institute’s Board. If a Board is suspended or dissolved, the central government will constitute an interim board for six months or until a new Board is constituted. Coordination Forum: At present, the Act provides for a Coordination Forum for all the Institutes, the Chairperson of which is selected by a Search-cum Selection Committee. Under the provisions of the Bill, the Chairperson will be nominated by the Visitor. Need for the Amendment: The Indian Institutes of Management Act of 2017, hugely expanded the autonomy enjoyed by the IIMs, and contains an important clause. It requires the Board of Governors (BoG) of the IIMs to commission an independent review of the institutes at least once every three years and place the report in the public domain. However, very few of the 21 IIMs have done so. A dangerous governance vacuum has been created in the IIM system in the years since the government relinquished control over these institutes. The IIM Act 0f 2017 created a situation where there were no meaningful checks and balances on the director of IIMs. Criticism: The Bill has raised serious concerns among the academic community and the alumni of the IIMs, who fear that it will compromise the autonomy and academic freedom of the IIMs, and make them vulnerable to political interference and bureaucratic meddling. They argue that the Bill goes against the spirit and intent of the 2017 Act, which was meant to empower the IIMs to manage their affairs without any external influence or pressure. They also contend that the Bill will adversely affect the quality and reputation of the IIMs, and hamper their ability to attract and retain talented faculty and students. Way Forward: The Indian Institutes of Management play a vital role in shaping the nation’s future leaders and contributing to economic growth. The 2023 IIM Amendment Bill represents a significant step by the government to address concerns of governance and accountability in the IIM system. By introducing the position of a Visitor and empowering them with oversight authority, the government seeks to strike a balance between autonomy and accountability. Source:   The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: National Parks in news Country 1.Yasuni National Park Brazil 2.Yellowstone National Park Ecuador 3.Kuno National Park Madhya Pradesh How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Sloth bear are Endangered as per the IUCN Red List. Statement-II: They are found in India, Sri Lanka, and southern Nepal. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Maharaja Bir Bikram Manikya Bahadur established the Maharaja Bir Bikram College (MBB College) in Agartala, Tripura. Statement-II: He believed in the modernization and development of the state and did not support local arts, crafts, and traditions. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Mains Practice Questions Q.1) There is a growing divergence in the relationship between poverty and hunger in India. The shrinking of social expenditure by the government is forcing the poor to spend more on Non- Food essential items squeezing their food – budget. – Elucidate. (250 words) Q.2) Analyze the role and powers of the proposed Visitor in the 2023 IIM Amendment Bill and its potential impact on the functioning of IIMs. Compare the balance between autonomy and accountability in the IIMs and other state-controlled educational bodies like IITs. (250 Words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 23rd  August 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 17th August – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – b Q.3) – c

Aug 24, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 24th August 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here