Sep 2, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 2nd September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Air Quality Life Index (AQLI) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: The recently released Air Quality Life Index (AQLI) report suggests that air pollution shortens the lives of the residents of Delhi by around 11.9 years. Key Highlights of the report:- On account of the number of people that high particulate matter levels affect in India, the country faces the greatest health burden from air pollution among all the countries in the world. In South Asia, particulate pollution has increased by 9.7 percent from 2013 to 2021. In India, 5 levels rose 9.5 percent. Particulate matter( PM): particles found in the air, including dust, dirt, soot, smoke, and liquid droplets that remain suspended in the air for long periods of time. According to PM2.5 data for 2021 derived from satellites, pollution in India has increased from 56.2 µg/m3 in 2020 to 58.7 µg/m3 in 2021. This is more than 10 times the WHO guideline of 5 µg/m3. Delhi’s annual average PM2.5 level in 2021 was found to be 126.5 µg/m3, which is more than 25 times the World Health Organization (WHO) ( Delhi and Air Pollution) The report said particulate matter pollution is also the biggest threat to human health in India in terms of lowering life expectancy, beating cardiovascular diseases, and child and maternal malnutrition. The average Indian resident is set to lose 5.3 years of life expectancy if the WHO guideline is not met. About Air Quality Life Index (AQLI):- Produced by: Energy Policy Institute at the University of Chicago (EPIC). Published: Annually. The Air Quality Life Index ( AQLI), provides details of impact of air pollution on life expectancy. Special Features of AQLI:- The research underlying the AQLI is based on pollution data at the very high concentrations that prevail in many parts of the world today. The causal nature of the AQLI’s underlying research allows it to isolate the effect of air pollution from other factors that impact health. The AQLI delivers estimates of the loss of life expectancy for the average person. The AQLI uses highly localized satellite data, making it possible to report life expectancy that impacts at the county or similar level. MUST READ: India’s uphill battle to bring down air pollution SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following: (2023) Aerosols Foam agents Fire retardants Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: (2022) The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m3 and the annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 ug/m3. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of inclement weather. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1, 3 and 4 1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only Sixth census on minor irrigation Syllabus Prelims – Government Initiatives Context: The Jal Shakti Ministry has released the sixth census on minor irrigation schemes report. Key Highlights of the report:- As per the report, 14 million minor irrigation (MI) schemes have been reported in the country. The report also revealed that there has been an increase of about 1.42 million in MI schemes as compared to the previous census. Minor Irrigation Schemes(MI): those structures either in groundwater or in the surface water category having culturable command areas up to 2,000 hectares. Out of these 93 million are Ground Water (GW) and 1.21 million are Surface Water (SW) schemes. Ground Water (GW) schemes: provide irrigation throughout the year. Surface Water (SW) scheme: comprises surface flow schemes and surface lift irrigation schemes. For the first time, the information about the gender of the owner of the MI scheme was also collected in the case of individual ownership. Out of all the individually owned schemes, 1 percent are owned by women. Minor irrigation (MI) schemes: Uttar Pradesh possesses the largest number of MI schemes in the country. It was followed by Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu. Ground Water (GW) ranking: The same ranking of states as MI follows for the Ground Water (GW) Surface Water (SW) ranking: Maharashtra leads in SW schemes followed by Karnataka, Telangana, Odisha, and Jharkhand. About the 6th census on minor irrigation:- IMAGE SOURCE: PIB Published in 2023. Published by: Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation. Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti. Past censuses: 1986-87, 1993-94, 2000-01, 2006-07 and 2013-14. Objective: to gather a sound and reliable database for minor irrigation schemes for effective planning and policy making in this sector. The census was conducted under the centrally sponsored scheme “Irrigation Census”. The 6th MI census work was delayed due to the Covid-19 pandemic. It was executed in 32 States/ UTs across the country. Detailed information on various parameters of Irrigation sources, irrigation potential created (IPC), potential utilized, ownership, holding size of land by owner, windmills, etc. were collected. Irrigation sources: dug well, shallow tube well, medium tube well, deep tube well, surface flow, and surface lift schemes. (‘Per Drop More Crop’) Significance of report:- This report will be useful for planners, policy makers, researcher scholars, agricultural and groundwater scientists, and administrators & all concerned with the development of irrigation and the agricultural economy of the country. ( Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY)) MUST READ: Precision Agriculture SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023) The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia aoyssinica) seeds. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following statements: The nationwide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at (2017) Expanding the cultivable area under irrigation. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality. Checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 World Sanskrit Day 2023 Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: The World Sanskrit Day 2023 was celebrated in Colombo recently. About World Sanskrit Day 2023:- Venue: Colombo. Celebrated on: 31st August,2023. The event was organized by the cultural arm of the High Commission of India, Swami Vivekananda Cultural Centre (SVCC) in collaboration with 12 universities and institutes of Sri Lanka. The event marked the silver jubilee of SVCC. It featured a collaborative effort with several prestigious Sri Lankan universities. Significance:- This celebration of Sanskrit underscores the profound cultural and linguistic ties between India and Sri Lanka. It emphasizes the importance of Sanskrit as a shared heritage. World Sanskrit Day:- It is an annual celebration observed on the day of Shravan Poornima. ( Sanskrit Grams Programme: Uttarakhand) Shravan Poornima: This is considered to be one of the most sacred days in the month of Shravan and is dedicated to Lord Shiva. Historical Background: The Ministry of Education declared World Sanskrit Day back in 1969 on the occasion of Shraavana Poornima. On the day of World Sanskrit Day in India, Panini is remembered and honoured for his contribution to this ancient language. Panini: a Sanskrit linguist, who wrote the Sanskrit grammar guide named the About Sanskrit:- Sanskrit is among the oldest surviving languages. (What is ‘Sanskritisation) It is said that Sanskrit belongs to the Indo-Germanic or Indo-Aryan family of languages. It is around 3,500 years old. This makes the Sanskrit language one of the oldest in the world. It is a sacred language in several traditions. It is a repository of ancient knowledge including the Vedas and other renowned literary works such as the Yoga Shastra. It is also known as the mother of many present-day languages such as Hindi and Sinhala. MUST READ: International Mother Language Day SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct? (2022) Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture. The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets. Sangam poems have no reference to warrior ethics. Sangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational. Q.2) With reference to India, the terms ‘Halbi, Ho, and Kui’ pertain to (2021) dance forms of Northwest India musical instruments pre-historic cave paintings tribal languages Bhoramdeo Wildlife Sanctuary (BWS) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, the Chhattisgarh High Court dismissed a petition that aimed to designate the Bhoramdeo Wildlife Sanctuary (BWS) as a tiger reserve. Background of the issue:- Former Chhattisgarh chief minister Raman Singh had cleared the proposal for notifying the Bhoramdeo Wildlife Sanctuary as a tiger reserve in 2017 following a recommendation of India’s National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) as it was argued that it forms a critical part of the tiger habitat in the central Indian landscape. However, the idea was dropped in 2018. One of the reasons that was reportedly behind shelving the decision is that the local population living in and around the sanctuary area mainly has Baiga tribals who are not interested in relocating elsewhere. As a result, the government is also not keen on displacing them ultimately resulting in the government ignoring the NTCA’s request. Subsequently, in 2019, a wildlife activist filed public interest litigation in the Chhattisgarh High Court, which states that non-compliance with the NTCA’s recommendation is illegal as it is mandatory under the provisions of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 for the state to comply with the tiger authority to declare any area as a tiger reserve. ( National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) on Tribal Rights) About Bhoramdeo Wildlife Sanctuary (BWS):- Location: Kawardha district, Chhattisgarh. Naming: It is named after the famous 11th-century, Bhoramdeo Temple which is situated near the Sanctuary. Area: The sanctuary covers an area of approximately 325 square kilometres (125 square miles). Rivers: This wildlife sanctuary is the origin of the Fen and Sankari rivers. Important Landscape: It is characterized by its lush green forests, rolling hills, and the Maikal Range of the Satpura Hills. Vegetation: It offers a mix of dense forests and open grasslands. Flora: sal, saja, tinsa, kara and haldu etc. Fauna: tigers, leopards, wild dogs, sloth bears, sambar deer, barking deer, chital (spotted deer), gaur (Indian bison), and various species of birds and reptiles. (Wildlife Protection) Significance: It shares a border with Kanha National Park (Madhya Pradesh), making it an important tiger habitat in central India. MUST READ: Wildlife Institute of India (WII) SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following animals (2021) Hedgehog Marmot Pangolin To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/protects its/their vulnerable parts? 1 and 2 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 Q.2) Recently, there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to one of the following sites (2017) Corbett National Park Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Sariska National Park Ramon Magsaysay Award Syllabus Prelims –Important Awards Context: Recently, an Assam-based oncologist was among the winners of the Ramon Magsaysay Award 2023. Background:- Oncologist Ravi Kannan, a recipient of India’s fourth-highest civilian award Padma Shri, and the director of Assam’s Cachar Cancer Hospital and Research Centre (CCHRC), has been named one of the four winners of the 2023 Ramon Magsaysay Award. His pioneering efforts have revolutionized cancer treatment in Assam by prioritizing people-centric and pro-poor healthcare solutions. About Ramon Magsaysay Award:- Established: 1957. Naming: It is named after Ramon Magsaysay. Ramon Magsaysay: the third president of the Republic of the Philippines. It recognizes and honours individuals and organizations in Asia, regardless of race, creed, gender, or nationality, who have achieved distinction and have helped others generously without aiming for public recognition. It is Asia’s equivalent of the Nobel Prize. Award Categories:- Till 2009: awards were traditionally given in five categories:- These include Government service; public service; community leadership; journalism, literature and creative communication arts; and peace and international understanding. Post-2009: The Ramon Magsaysay Award Foundation annually selects the awardees for the field of Emergent Leadership. Award Decoration:- Awardees are presented with a certificate, a medallion with an embossed image of Ramon Magsaysay, and a cash prize. Important Indian Awardees: – Till date, India has received a total of 59 awards, while the Philippines has received 65 awards, making it the highest among all countries. Vinoba Bhave (1958) Mother Teresa (1962) Verghese Kurien (1963) Jayaprakash Narayan (1965) Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay (1966) Satyajit Ray (1967) S. Subbalakshmi(1974) Arun Shourie(1982) Kiran Bedi (1994) Mahasweta Devi (1997) Aruna Roy (2000) Rajendra Singh(2001) Arvind Kejriwal (2006) Anshu Gupta of Goonj (2015) Bezwada Wilson, human rights activist (2016) Ravish Kumar, journalist (2019) MUST READ: Gandhi Mandela Award SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards. (2021) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titled under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements is not correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflect the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)? (2020) Preamble Directive Principles of State Policy Fundamental Duties Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Sagar Parikrama Syllabus Prelims – Government Initiatives Context: Sagar Parikrama Phase-VIII commenced at Thengapattanam Fishing Harbour in Kanyakumari recently. Ministry: Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying. First phase Began :5th March 2022 . First phase location: Mandvi, Gujarat. Eight-phase location: Thengapattanam, Tamil Nadu. Organized by: Department of Fisheries, Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying, and National Fisheries Development Board along with- Department of Fisheries, Government of Gujarat, Indian Coast Guard, Fishery Survey of India, Gujarat Maritime Board and Fishermen representatives. Objective: to address the challenges faced by fishers and stakeholders while uplifting their economic prospects through various fisheries schemes and programs, such as Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) & and Kisan Credit Cards (KCC). Sagar Parikrama is a navigation journey to be conducted in all coastal states/UTs through a pre-decided sea route to demonstrate solidarity with all fisherfolk, fish farmers, and concerned stakeholders. It is envisioned as a part of ‘Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsava’ saluting our great freedom fighters, sailors, and fishers. The Parikrama shall be accompanied by the State Fisheries officials, Fishermen representatives, Fish-Farmers entrepreneurs, stakeholders, professionals, officials, and Scientists from across the nation. It is to be celebrated through a pre-decided sea route down right from Gujarat, Diu, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, West Bengal, Andaman & Nicobar and Lakshadweep Islands. The Sagar Parikrama Program is to have an interaction with fishermen, fisher communities, and stakeholders in these locations and districts. (Conserving Marine Resources) Significance:- Sagar Parikrama Program is being celebrated as a part of the 75th “Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsava”. It is an initiative to know the problems of Coastal Fisherfolk. It will demonstrate solidarity with all fisherfolk, fish farmers, and concerned stakeholders. MUST READ: Marine Spatial Planning Framework SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution: (2023) Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution. There is no known ·safe level of exposure to mercury. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) ‘The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 DSC A 20 (Yard 325) Syllabus Prelims –Defense Context: Recently, the ‘DSC A 20’ (Yard 325) ship was launched. About DSC A 20 (Yard 325):- Built by: M/s Titagarh Rail Systems Ltd (TRSL), Kolkata (formerly known as M/s Titagarh Wagons Ltd (TWL)) for the Indian Navy. Launched: 31 Aug 2023. Launched atTitagarh, Kolkata (WB). The Launch Ceremony was presided over by VAdm Sanjay Mahindru, Deputy Chief of Naval Staff (DCNS). In keeping with Naval tradition, Mrs. Aradhana Mahindru launched the ship with an invocation from Atharva Veda. Historical Background: The contract for building five (05) Diving Support Craft (DSC) was signed between MoD and M/s Titagarh Wagons Ltd (TWL), Kolkata on 12 Feb 2021. All five (05) DSC are anticipated to be delivered to the Indian Navy in FY 2024-25. DSC A 20’ (Yard 325) is the first ship of the Five (05) Diving Support Craft (DSC) project. These ships are designed to undertake operational/ training diving operations in harbours and coastal waters. They are 30 m long catamaran hull ships, with a displacement of approx 300 tons. DSC are being fitted with state-of-the-art diving equipment and tools for performing diving operations. These ships are indigenously designed and built under relevant Naval Rules and Regulations of the Indian Register of Shipping (IRS). The hydrodynamic analysis/ model testing of the ships during the design stage was undertaken at the Naval Science and Technological Laboratory (NSTL), Visakhapatnam. Significance: These ships are proud flag bearers of Make in India and Make for the World initiatives of the Government of India (GoI)/ Ministry of Defence (MoD). MUST READ: 26th Exercise Malabar SOURCE: PIB PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Mains: India’s growing mental health issues Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: The Standing Committee on Health and Family Welfare recently tabled its report on ‘Mental Health Care and Its Management in Contemporary Times’ in the Parliament. Highlights of the report: The report defines mental health as a state of well-being that enables people to cope with the stress of life. It highlighted that the mental health-related issues are rising in India and the country lags with inadequate staff, medical infrastructure and budgetary allocation. The Committee stated that India currently has 0.75 psychiatrists per lakh people, which is significantly low. The Committee observed that if India targets having three psychiatrists per lakh people, it will need 27,000 more psychiatrists. Global Scenario: In 2010, global economic losses of around $2.5 trillion annually were attributed to poor mental health, stemming from diminished well-being and productivity. This will surge to $6 trillion by 2030. Inadequate funding: The report highlights inadequate funding for care and research. It requires not only increased financial support and expanded psychiatry residency programmes, but also establishment of positions for trained psychiatrists and ensuring an ample number of working psychologists. Status of mental healthcare India: It is estimated that 6-7 % of the population suffers from mental disorders in India. WHO estimates that the burden of mental health problems in India is 2443 disability-adjusted life years (DALYs) per 100 00 population. The age-adjusted suicide rate per 100 000 population is 21.1. The economic loss due to mental health conditions, between 2012-2030, is estimated at USD 1.03 trillion. Global: As per World Bank, nearly 1 billion people live with a mental disorder and in low-income countries; more than 75% of people with the disorder do not receive treatment. Every 40 seconds, a person dies by suicide. About 50% of mental health disorders start by the age of 14. As per WHO Depression is one of the leading causes of disability and suicide is the fourth leading cause of death among 15-29-year-olds. People with mental illness may be subject to the UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (CRPD). Causes of mental illness: Exposure to unfavourable social, economic, geopolitical and environmental circumstances including poverty, violence, inequality and environmental deprivation also increases people’s risk of experiencing mental health conditions. Over the past two years, the pandemic-led lockdowns and the uncertainties associated with them have had a detrimental effect on mental well-being Early adverse life experiences, such as trauma or a history of abuse (for example, child abuse, sexual assault, witnessing violence, etc.) Use of alcohol or drugs, having feelings of loneliness or isolation, etc. Impacts of poor mental health: Impact on relationships: Mental-health conditions during adolescence and young adulthood can have a significantly negative impact on the development of safe and healthy relationships with peers, parents, teachers, colleagues and partners. Impact on physical health: A study found that positive psychological well-being can reduce the risks of heart attack and stroke. On the other hand, poor mental status can lead to poor physical health or harmful behaviour. Depression has been linked to many chronic illnesses. These illnesses include diabetes, asthma, cancer, cardiovascular disease, and arthritis. Impact on productivity: It impacts a person’s ability to concentrate and engage in productive activities. Government of India Initiatives: National Mental Health Programme (NMHP) in 1982: To ensure the availability and accessibility of minimum mental healthcare for all in the foreseeable future. Mental Healthcare Act, 2017: It provides mental healthcare and services for persons with mental illness in India. Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2017: The Act acknowledges mental illness as a disability and seeks to enhance the Rights and Entitlements of the Disabled. National Suicide Prevention Strategy National Tele-Mental Health Programme: To improve access to quality mental health counselling and care services in the country. Kiran Helpline: It provides for suicide prevention and can help with support and crisis management. World Mental Health Day: To raise awareness of mental health issues around the world and to mobilize efforts in support of mental health. Source:  The Hindu Technical Textiles in India Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: The Ministry of Textiles recently has approved the Startup Guidelines for Technical Textiles – Grant for Research and Entrepreneurship across Aspiring Innovators in Technical Textiles (GREAT). The Guidelines provides thrust in Technical Textiles’ application areas including Agro-textiles, Building-textiles, Geo-textiles, Home-textiles, Medical-textiles, Mobile-textiles, Packaging- textiles, Protective-textiles, Sports-textiles, Smart Textiles using Artificial Intelligence, Internet of Things, 3D/4D Printing among others. The guidelines focus on supporting individuals and companies to translate prototypes to technologies & products including commercialization. About Technical Textiles: A technical textile is a textile product manufactured for non-aesthetic purposes, where function is the primary criterion. Technical textiles include textiles for automotive applications, medical textiles, geotextiles, agrotextiles, and protective clothing. They improve the efficiencies in those sectors of the economy. The government has also launched a National Technical Textiles Mission for promoting R&D efforts in technical textiles and their applications. Status of Technical Textile in India India is the second largest producer of polyester in the world and is now emerging as a key player in technical textiles industry contributing to a market size of $ 19 Bn. Technical textile accounts for approximately 13% of India’s total textile and apparel market and contributes to India’s GDP at 0.7%. The Indian Technical Textiles market is the 5th largest in the world and is rapidly growing, both in terms of value and output. India’s exports of technical textiles in 2018-19 is estimated at $ 1.9 Bn, which has grown at a CAGR of 4% over the past four years. India’s imports of technical textiles have increased at a CAGR of 8% within the last four years, from $ 1,635 Mn to $ 2,209 Mn in 2018-19. Challenges in Textile Sector in India: Shortage in supply of raw material: Shutting down some units in China and Europe due to pollution issues has resulted in an unprecedented rise in prices of basic raw materials in international markets. Pressure to meet stringent social and environmental norms: Failing to comply with environmental regulations can put supply chain in jeopardy, as pressure mounts for the apparel industry to improve environmental compliance efforts. Increase in cost of raw material: Prices are increasing after many units in China were shut down due to pollution norms. Inflexible labour laws: India’s system of labour regulations is rather complex. There are over 200 labour laws, including a quarter of Central Acts. Several labour laws such as the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 put limitations on firm size and not allow manufacturing firms to grow. Uneven regional development: The country’s textile industry is concentrated in a few pockets of Gujarat and Maharashtra in the west and Tamil Nadu and Karnataka in the south. A large proportion of workers employed by these units comes from Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, and West Bengal. Infrastructural bottlenecks: Poor quality of infrastructure in India has been a major hurdle. This results in Lack of efficiency due to manual work being practiced. Highly fragmented: The Indian textile industry is highly fragmented and is being dominated by the unorganized sector and small and medium industries. Government of India initiatives to promote the growth of the Textile Industry: National Technical Textile Mission: It seeks to enhance domestic technical textile consumption while establishing the nation as a global leader in the field. By 2024, it hopes to increase the size of the domestic market to between $40 billion and $50 billion USD. Amended Technology Upgradation Fund Scheme (ATUFS): In order to modernize the textile industry’s technology, the government approved the “Amended Technology Upgradation Fund Scheme (ATUFS)” in 2015. The Scheme for Integrated Textile Parks (SITP) aims to help small and medium-sized textile business owners cluster investments in textile parks by providing financial support for the parks’ top-notch infrastructure. The SAMARTH (Scheme for Capacity Building in the Textile Sector): The government started the SAMARTH Scheme for Capacity Building in Textile Sector (SCBTS) to alleviate the scarcity of trained people. The North East Region Textile Promotion Scheme (NERTPS) is a program that supports all areas of the textile industry with infrastructure, capacity building, and marketing assistance. Power-Tex India: It includes innovative power-loom textile research and development, new markets, branding, subsidies, and worker welfare programs. The Silk Samagra Scheme seeks to lessen the nation’s reliance on imported silk by enhancing the quality and productivity of domestically produced silk. PM Mega Integrated Textile Region and Apparel (PM MITRA) Parks: It aims to integrate the entire textile value chain from spinning, weaving, processing/dyeing, printing to garment manufacturing at one location. Way Forward: Technical textiles industry is at a nascent stage in India and hence, holds a vast potential for growth. With the government’s aim to create world class infrastructure in the country, in addition to the implementation of several policies and schemes to boost the textile sector, technical textiles is poised for growth. Source:   The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Ancient Sanskrit literature Written by 1.Abhijnanshakuntalam Kalidasa 2.Mricchakatika Shudraka 3.Raghuvamsha Tulsidasa How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None  Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Bhoramdeo Wildlife Sanctuary (BWS) is characterized by its lush green forests, rolling hills, and the Maikal Range of the Satpura Hills. Statement-II: It is located in Kawardha district, Jharkhand. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following statements Smog can comprise airborne particulate matter, mostly PM 2.5 and PM 10. The exposure to particulate PM 10 is associated with the worsening of respiratory diseases like asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD). The combustion of gasoline, oil, diesel fuel, or wood produces much of the PM 2.5. Which one of the above statements is/are correct? 1 and 3 2 only 1 only 1,2, and 3 Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Discuss the significance of growth of the technical textile industry in India. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 2nd September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 1st September – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

Sep 2, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 2nd September 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Sep 1, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –1st September 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Red sand boa Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: In India, 172 incidents of seizures of red sand boa were recorded from 2016 to 2021 as per the recent report. Key Highlights of the report:- Incidents of illegal sand boa trade were documented in 18 States and one Union Territory covering 87 districts across India; the highest number was recorded in Maharashtra (59) followed by Uttar Pradesh (33). The study also highlights the role of social media in the illegal trade of the species. The report also suggested that local and international conservation organizations should conduct formative research to better understand the situation of the illegal reptile trade and demand. About Red sand boa:- Scientific Name: Eryx johnii. Family: Boidae. Habitat: arid and semi-arid regions. Distribution: India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, and parts of Bangladesh. The Red Sand Boa is a rare non-poisonous snake. It is a non-venomous snake It is predominantly nocturnal. Nocturnal: most active during the night. It is Ovoviviparous. Ovoviviparous: They produce young ones by means of eggs which are hatched within the body of the parent. Ecological importance:- Like other snake species, the Red Sand Boa also plays a significant role in the ecosystem by maintaining a healthy population between prey and predator. ( Species in news: Gharials) Application:- It has applications in medicine, cosmetics, and even black magic, making it highly valued in the global market. (Wildlife Protection) Conservation Status:- IUCN: Near Threatened. CITES: Appendix II. Wildlife Protection Act of 1972: Schedule IV. MUST READ: Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood? (2023) Fishing cat Orangutan Otter Sloth bear Q.2) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis POSHAN (Prime Minister’s Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nutrition) scheme Syllabus Prelims – Government Schemes Context: As per recent reports, the Government will celebrate the sixth Rashtriya Poshan Maah 2023 in September. Rashtriya Poshan Maah 2023:- Objective: to comprehensively tackle malnutrition through a life-cycle approach. The focal point of Poshan Maah 2023 is to cultivate widespread awareness concerning critical human life stages comprising pregnancy, infancy, childhood, and adolescence. The aim of this celebration is to foster nutritional understanding across India. Theme: “Suposhit Bharat, Sakshar Bharat, Sashakt Bharat” (Nutrition-rich India, Educated India, Empowered India). About POSHAN:- Launched: 2018. Ministry: Ministry of Women and Child Development. Vision: to ensure the attainment of Malnutrition Free India by 2022. Historical Background:- The Government launched the POSHAN Abhiyaan, earlier known as the National Nutrition Mission, on March 08, 2018. Objective: to address the problem of malnutrition in the country. Salient Features of POSHAN:- POSHAN Abhiyaan is the Government of India’s flagship programme to improve nutritional outcomes for children, adolescent Girls, pregnant women, and lactating mothers. The Abhiyaan targets to reduce:- Stunting by 2% per annum Undernutrition by 2% per annum Anemia (among young children, women, and adolescent girls) by 3% per annum Low birth weight by 2% per annum It is a Multi-Ministerial Convergence Mission. It aims to reduce malnutrition in the country in a phased manner through a life cycle approach. Under the POSHAN Abhiyaan, ‘Rashtriya Poshan Maah’ is celebrated each year in September with the aim of creating awareness about nutrition and healthy food. (POSHAN Maah) Mission Poshan 2.0:- Mission Poshan 2.0, an integrated nutrition support programme, subsumed the Supplementary Nutrition Programme and POSHAN Abhiyaan. It was announced in the Union Budget 2021-2022 for all States/UTs. Objective: to strengthen nutritional content, delivery, outreach, and outcomes with a focus on developing practices that nurture health, wellness, and immunity to disease and malnutrition. (PM Poshan Shakti Nirman Scheme) Targets of Poshan 2.0:- Nutrition Support for POSHAN through the Supplementary Nutrition Programme (SNP) for children of the age group of six months to six years, pregnant women and lactating mothers (PWLM), and Adolescent Girls in the age group of 14 to 18 years in Aspirational Districts and North Eastern Region (NER). Early Childhood Care and Education [3-6 years] and early stimulation for (0-3 years). Anganwadi Infrastructure including modern, upgraded Saksham Anganwadi POSHAN Abhiyaan. Poshan 2.0 also focuses on Maternal Nutrition, Infant and Young Child Feeding Norms, Treatment Protocols for Severely Acute Malnourished (SAM) / Moderately Acute Malnourished (MAM) and wellness through AYUSH practices to reduce wasting and under-weight prevalence besides stunting and anaemia. MUST READ: Year End Review-2022: Ministry of Women and Child Development SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018) Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places, and major tourist centres. Select the correct answer using the code given below : 1 and 2 only 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Q.2) Regarding Digi Locker’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016) It is a digital locker system offered by the Government under the Digital India Programme. It allows you to access your e-documents irrespective of your physical location. Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Mera Bill Mera Adhikaar scheme Syllabus Prelims –Economy Context: The invoice incentive scheme – Mera Bill Mera Adhikaar scheme began recently. About Mera Bill Mera Adhikaar:- IMAGE SOURCE: PIB Launched: 1st September, 2023. Ministry: Ministry of Finance. Objective: to bring a cultural and behavioural change in the general public to ‘Ask for a Bill’ as their right and entitlement. Duration: This Pilot Scheme will run for a period of 12 months. Salient Features of Mera Bill Mera Adhikaar:- This scheme is a Goods and Services Tax (GST) invoice incentive programme that offers cash incentives for uploading invoices. Invoice: a commercial document that itemizes and records a transaction between a seller and a buyer. It will initially be launched as a pilot in the States of Assam, Gujarat & Haryana, and UTs of Puducherry, Dadra Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu. A monthly and quarterly draw of lots will be made, and winners will be eligible for cash reward prizes beginning from Rs 10,000 to up to Rs 1 crore. Eligibility: – All residents of India will be eligible to participate in this Scheme irrespective of their State/UT. The invoice uploaded on the app should have the GSTIN of the seller, invoice number, amount paid, and tax amount. ( GST Council) Minimum value of invoices: to be considered for a lucky draw is 200. Maximum value for invoices: A maximum of 25 invoices can be uploaded by an individual on the App/web portal in a month to be considered for the lucky draw. Mobile Application: Invoices can be uploaded on the Mobile Application ‘Mera Bill Mera Adhikaar’. It is available on IOS and Android as well as on the web portal ‘web.merabill.gst.gov.in’. Acknowledgement Reference Number (ARN): will be generated for each uploaded invoice, which will be used for the draw of prizes. Prizes:- In this scheme, the government will select 800 people every month, who will get a reward of ten thousand rupees. In Bumper Draw, which will held quarterly, two people will get a reward of one crore rupees. Selection of Winner: Winning invoices will be picked by a method of random draw at regular intervals (monthly/quarterly). Benefits of Mera Bill Mera Adhikaar:- It will help simplify the tax system of the country and end Inspector Raj. It will reduce the tax burden on the citizens. MUST READ: GST Compensation SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India? (2022) An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country based on the profits arising out of its investment An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India Q.2) What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’? (2017) It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves. It will enormously increase the growth and size of the economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Bipolar disorder Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Pakistani actress Mahira Khan recently revealed that she was suffering from bipolar disorder. About Bipolar disorder:- IMAGE SOURCE: findatopdoc.com It is a mental health condition that causes extreme mood swings that include emotional highs (mania or hypomania) and lows (depression). The symptoms of the condition can cause unpredictable changes in mood and behavior, resulting in significant distress and difficulty in life. (Mental Health) Types of Bipolar Disorder:- There are several types of bipolar and related disorders. Bipolar I disorder:- One has had at least one manic episode that may be preceded or followed by hypomanic or major depressive episodes. Bipolar II disorder:- One has had at least one major depressive episode and at least one hypomanic episode, but never had a manic episode. Cyclothymic disorder:- One has had at least two years or one year in children and teenagers of many periods of hypomania symptoms and periods of depressive symptoms (though less severe than major depression). Other types:- These include, bipolar and related disorders induced by certain drugs or alcohol or due to a medical condition Symptoms of Bipolar Disorder:- Symptoms of mania (“the highs”):- Excessive happiness, hopefulness, and excitement Sudden changes from being joyful to being irritable, angry, and hostile Restlessness Rapid speech and poor concentration Increased energy and less need for sleep Unusually high sex drive Making grand and unrealistic plans Showing poor judgment Symptoms During depressive periods (“the lows”):- Sadness Loss of energy Feelings of hopelessness or worthlessness Not enjoying things they once liked Trouble concentrating Forgetfulness Talking slowly Less of a sex drive Inability to feel pleasure Uncontrollable crying Trouble making decisions Irritability Treatment:- Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition, but one can manage your mood swings and other symptoms by following a treatment plan. In most cases, bipolar disorder is treated with medications and psychological counseling (psychotherapy). (Deep Brain Stimulation) MUST READ: Address Stigma and Discrimination in Mental Health SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022) They protect the environmental allergens. body They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation. They act as immunosuppressants in the body. They protect the body from diseases caused by pathogens. Q.2) In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements: (2021) Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of the egg. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from the mother and not from the father. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 UNESCO World Heritage sites Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: According to a joint assessment by UNESCO and IUCN done recently, Protecting the UNESCO World Heritage sites can help conserve biodiversity. Background:- UNESCO World Heritage sites are home to 75,000 species of plants, and over 30,000 species of mammals, birds, fish, reptiles, and amphibians — a fifth of all the species mapped globally. About UNESCO World Heritage sites:- A World Heritage site is classified as a natural or man-made area or a structure that is of international importance. It is a space that requires special protection. These sites are officially recognized by the UN and the United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO). The list is:- Maintained by: the International World Heritage Programme. Administered by: the UNESCO World Heritage Committee. It is composed of 21 UNESCO member states which are elected by the General Assembly. Each World Heritage Site remains part of the legal territory of the state wherein the site is located and UNESCO considers it in the interest of the international community to preserve each site. Eligibility: To be selected, a World Heritage Site must be an already classified landmark, unique in some respect as a geographically and historically identifiable place having special cultural or physical significance. Significance: The sites classified as World Heritage are important for humanity, and they hold cultural and physical significance. UNESCO World Heritage Sites in India:- The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) is the nodal agency for forwarding any request for World Heritage status to any Indian site whether cultural or natural. India currently has 40World Heritage Sites:- 32 cultural (UNESCO Heritage Sites in Maharashtra) 7 natural sites and One mixed site. MUST READ: World Heritage Sites Under Threat SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) The Climate Group is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and running them. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1,2, 4 and 5 1,3 and 4 only 2,3 and 5 only 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 Q.2) Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a : (2022) Database created by a coalition of research organizations Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change” Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change” Agency promoted and financed by the United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary Syllabus Prelims – Environmental and Ecology Context: Recently, the Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary in Assam turned in to a forest island after having lost connectivity with surrounding forest patches. About Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary:- Location: Jorhat district of Assam. The Hoollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary was renamed in It was formerly known as the Gibbon Wildlife Sanctuary or Hollongapar Reserve Forest. It is an isolated protected area of evergreen forest. Vegetation:- The upper canopy of the forest is dominated by the Hollong tree, while the Nahar dominates the middle canopy. The lower canopy consists of evergreen shrubs and herbs. Fauna:- The sanctuary has a rich biodiversity and is home to the only apes in India, the western Hoolock, as well as the only nocturnal primate found in the northeast Indian states, the Bengal slow loris. Other animals: Stump-tailed macaque, northern pig-tailed macaque, eastern Assamese macaque, rhesus macaque, capped langur, etc. About Hoolock Gibbon:- It is the only ape found in India. It is native to eastern Bangladesh, Northeast India, Myanmar, and Southwest China. Like all apes, they are extremely intelligent, with distinct personalities and strong family bonds. It is categorized into Western Hoolock Gibbon and Eastern Hoolock Gibbon. Western Hoolock Gibbon:- It is found in all the states of the northeast, restricted between the south of the Brahmaputra River and east of the Dibang River. Conservation Status:- IUCN Red List: Endangered Eastern Hoolock gibbon:- It inhabits specific pockets of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam in India, and southern China, and northeast Myanmar. Conservation Status:- IUCN Red List: Vulnerable MUST READ: Kaziranga National Park SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Recently, there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to one of the following sites (2017) Corbett National Park Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary Sariska National Park Q.2) What is/are unique about ‘Kharai Camel’, a breed found in India? (2016) It is capable of swimming up to three kilometers in seawater It survives by grazing on mangroves It lives in the wild and cannot be domesticated Select the correct answer using the code given below. 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mains: NMC’s Registered Medical Practitioner (Professional Conduct) Regulations, 2023 Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 4 (Ethics) Context: Recently, the National Medical Commission (NMC) Registered Medical Practitioner (Professional Conduct) regulations, 2023 were suspended, making it mandatory for doctors to only prescribe generic drugs. Provisions of the new guidelines on professional conduct: Right to refuse treatment: Doctors have the right to refuse treatment to patients and their relatives who exhibit abusive, unruly, or violent behavior. Allowed to deny treatment to patients who cannot afford it, except in cases of medical emergencies. Discrimination based on factors such as gender, race, religion, caste, or social status is strictly prohibited. Prescription and medication guidelines: Doctors are required to write prescriptions in clear and legible capital letters. Encouraged to prescribe generic medicines, promote the judicious use of fixed-dose combinations, and educate patients about the equivalence of generic and branded medicines. Social media usage: Doctors are allowed to share accurate and verifiable information on social media platforms, but they must avoid disseminating misleading or false content. Prohibited from discussing patient-specific treatment details, sharing patient scans, or endorsing patient testimonials. Conference participation guidelines: CPD sessions and conferences must not be sponsored by the pharmaceutical industry to ensure unbiased and evidence-based education. They are advised to refrain from participating in third-party educational activities that are sponsored by pharmaceutical companies. Acceptance of gifts, hospitality, cash, or grants from pharmaceutical companies is strictly prohibited. Continuous Professional Development (CPD): Medical professionals are required to engage in ongoing learning activities throughout their active years to stay updated with the latest medical advancements and practices. They are mandated to earn a minimum of 30 credit points in their relevant fields every five years as part of their CPD requirements. Other guidelines: Doctors are prohibited from soliciting patients directly or indirectly through social media platforms. They are also prohibited from practicing medicine while under the influence of alcohol or drugs. Issues with NMC guidelines: One of the main concerns raised by doctors is the quality and efficacy of generic drugs available in India. They claim that there is a lack of standardization and regulation of generic drugs and that many of them are substandard, spurious, or counterfeit. According to IMA less than 0.1% of the drugs manufactured in India are tested for quality. Doctors argue that prescribing generic drugs without ensuring their quality and safety could compromise patient care and outcomes, and expose them to legal and ethical risks. Dedication and the duty of care: Dedication is the sense of deep rooted commitment to devote oneself to a cause. This includes a duty to provide care to those in need, regardless of their financial status. In India, out-of-pocket health expenditure accounts for more than half of total health expenditure pushing many households into poverty. This shows the dire need for empathy and compassion towards those in need. Justice and Equity: The principle of justice requires that healthcare be distributed fairly and equitably. Denying treatment to a patient solely based on their inability to pay could be seen as unjust, perpetuating disparities in healthcare access. Hippocratic oath: Physicians pledge to do what is in the best interest of their patients and to avoid causing harm. Physicians promise to treat all patients fairly, regardless of their background, and to provide care to the best of their abilities without bias. Unholy nexuses: Many doctors form nexuses with drugmakers to prescribe specific drugs from their brand instead of generic drugs leads to considerable rise in treatment costs for patients. For example, freebies given to doctors including travel expenses, gifts etc. by drugmakers is a common practice. Compassion: It is the desire to end someone’s suffering which forms the core principle of a medical practitioner. Refusing treatment to individuals on certain grounds could lead to the possibility of crisis of conscience among several practitioners. Loss of trust and credibility: The medical profession relies on public trust, and denying treatment to those in need could erode that trust and damage the reputation of the medical community. Responsibility: Some argue that healthcare professionals have a broader social responsibility to address systemic issues in healthcare, including affordability and access. Refusing treatment might be seen as abdicating this responsibility. Undermining Right to Life: Providing a legal caveat for the registered physicians to refuse treatment is against the fundamental right guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution. Suggestive measures: Persuasion: Influencing patients to follow prescribed norms for behaviour and ensuring smooth functioning. For example, during COVID-19 pandemic, voice messages were circulated using caller tune to make people aware of the importance of vaccination and prevent attacks on health workers. Enhancing affordability: Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP) is a scheme that aims to provide quality generic medicines at affordable prices through dedicated Jan Aushadhi stores. Emotional Intelligence: Equipping and training medical personnel with necessary skills so that they can manage their emotions and try to avoid escalation of situation and providing practical solutions to the given problems. Regulatory framework: Strengthening the regulation of drug prices and ensuring the quality of generic medicines can build trust among patients. The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) is responsible for regulating the prices of pharmaceutical products in India. Transparent Approaches: Consider alternative approaches before refusing treatment. This might involve social workers, mental health professionals, or conflict resolution experts to address the underlying issues contributing to the unruly behaviour. For example, Doctors in San Diego (USA) refer patients to low-cost family health centers that provide caring, affordable, high-quality health care and supportive services to everyone. Consent: Communicating the decision clearly to the patient, and explaining the reasons behind it thus ensuring that the patient understands the potential consequences of their behaviour on their health and the doctor-patient relationship. Offering Continuity of Care: If possible, provide recommendations for alternative sources of care, whether within your healthcare institution or elsewhere. Ensure the patient’s ongoing health needs are addressed. Way Forward: Therefore, it is important to approach each situation with sensitivity, professionalism, and a commitment to upholding the well-being of patients, healthcare staff, and the broader community. Consulting with colleagues, supervisors, and ethics committees can provide valuable guidance in making these difficult decisions. Source: The Hindu Educational Schemes for religious minorities Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: There is a shift in Central govt’s policy towards minority education in the past few years. About Religious minorities in India: India is home to over 30 crore (20%) people from religious minority communities. These include six religions notified under Section 2(c) of the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992. As per the Census 2011, the percentage of minorities in the country is about 3% of the total population of the country. The population of Muslims is 14.2%; Christians 2.3%; Sikhs 1.7%, Buddhists 0.7%, Jain 0.4% and Parsis 0.006%. The Constitution of India does not define the term minority. Article 29(1) of the Indian Constitution calls for the Protection of interests of minorities. Any section of the citizens residing in the territory of India or any part thereof having a distinct language, script or culture of its own shall have the right to conserve the same. Article 30(1) grants Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions. All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. Article 350-B: Originally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with respect to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. But, the Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 inserted Article 350-B in the Constitution. Parliamentary Provisions: National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992 defines a minority as “a community notified as such by the Central government.’ Budgetary allocation for minorities: The Central govt slashed the budgetary allocation for the Ministry of Minority Affairs by 38.3%, a drop from Rs 5,020.5 crore in 2022-23 to Rs 3,097 crore in 2023-24. Notably, the 2022-23 estimates were revised to Rs 2,612.66 crore, indicating an under-utilisation of nearly 48% of funds. The shift in policy came despite a significant drop in beneficiaries (7%) between 2019 and 2022, even as funds remained underutilised. During the period, the government spending on six educational schemes for religious minorities dropped by around 12.5%. For instance, the pre-matric scholarship, which has benefitted the maximum number of minority students, the ministry spent Rs 43.95 crore out of the revised estimate of Rs 556 crore. Similarly, Rs 29 crore was the actual expenditure on post-matric scholarship when the budget estimate was Rs 515 crore. A 2022 report by the Centre for Budget and Governance Accountability (CBGA) highlighted a “declining trend” in the share of the overall budget expenditure towards minorities. Even the allocation of funds for the year 2022-23 was not in line with proportional representation of minorities. Impacts of the policy: The restructuring of programmes, under-utilisation of funds, and reduced budgetary allocations have impacted the implementation and goals of educational schemes for minorities. As a result of all these factors, gaps in education and economic parameters are expected to widen. There are other challenges in implementation as well, including poor coverage of beneficiaries and low unit costs. According to the experts, eliminating scholarships and limiting the scope of scholarships will negatively affect the community and affect their enrollment rates, which are already alarming. Welfare schemes for the educational empowerment of minorities: Pre-Matric Scholarship Scheme: to minority students from class 1 to 10 and ranged between Rs 1,000 and Rs 10,700 for each selected candidate. 30% of the scholarships were earmarked for girls. Post-Matric Scholarship Scheme: for students of class 11 and above (till Ph.D.), with a scholarship ranging between Rs 2,300 and Rs 15,000. Like the pre-matric, 30% of the post-matric scheme was also earmarked for girls. Merit-cum-Means based Scholarship Scheme: Launched in 2008, this scheme targeted professional and technical courses at undergraduate and postgraduate levels, with 30% earmarked for girl students. Eligible candidates are reimbursed full course fees, Maulana Azad National Fellowship Padho Pardesh: The scheme was launched to provide better opportunities for higher education abroad, providing an interest subsidy on education loans for overseas studies to students belonging to economically weaker sections of minority communities. Naya Savera: To provide free coaching to minority students of classes 11-12 with science subjects for entrance to technical and professional courses and competitive examinations. Scheme for Providing Education to Madrasas and Minorities (SPEMM): Under it recognised madrasas receive financial assistance to introduce ‘modern’ subjects such as science, mathematics, social studies, Hindi and English in their curriculum. Way Forward: A recent yearbook by the Institute of Objective Students on the status of Muslim school dropouts estimated that dropout rates stand at 23.1% as compared to the national average rate of 18.96%. Therefore an affirmative action is the need of the hour to improve the socio-economic status of religious minorities, particularly Muslims, who continue to lag behind the rest of the population in several areas. Source:The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Type of Bipolar Disorder Symptoms 1.Bipolar II at least one manic episode that may be preceded or followed by hypomanic or major depressive episodes. 2.Cyclothymic disorder at least two years or one year in children and teenagers with many periods of hypomania symptoms and periods of depressive symptoms 3.Bipolar I at least one major depressive episode and at least one hypomanic episode, but never a manic episode. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Red sand boa is endemic to India. Statement-II: It is ovoviviparous. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: The Mera Bill Mera Adhikaar Scheme will be launched on 1st September 2023. Statement-II: It is available only on Android currently. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Discuss the provisions of the Registered Medical Practitioner (Professional Conduct) Regulations, 2023 along with the challenges to the adoption of Generic Drugs in India. Suggest innovative measures to address them. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 1st September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 31st August – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – c

Sep 1, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 1st September 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions. To take the Test Click Here

Aug 31, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 31st August 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Chandrayaan-3 Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: Chandrayaan-3 probe shows 50°C temperature difference between the moon’s surface and below it. Background:- On August 27, 2023, the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) released a graph of the temperature variation between the moon’s surface and a point around 8 cm below as measured by an instrument named ChaSTE on board the lander module of the Chandrayaan-3 mission. ChaSTE – short for ‘Chandra’s Surface Thermophysical Experiment’. Developed by: the Space Physics Laboratory of ISRO’s Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC), with the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL), Ahmedabad. It is a temperature probe that can be driven into the moon’s surface using a motor to a depth of up to 10 cm. It measured the temperature profile of the lunar topsoil around the south pole to understand its thermal behaviour. Its data show that at the moon’s surface (where the lander is located, a point between the craters Manzinus C and Simpelius N), the temperature is 40-50 degrees C. But just under 80 mm under, it plunges to around -10 degrees C. About Chandrayaan-3:- IMAGE SOURCE: IASBABA Chandrayaan-3 is the successor to the Chandrayaan-2 mission. Launch Vehicle: Mark-III (LVM3). Launched site: Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC), Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. Composition: It consists of an indigenous Lander module (LM), a Propulsion module (PM), and a Rover. Lander: a spacecraft that descends towards and comes to rest on, the surface of an astronomical body. Propulsion module: a box-like structure, mounted with a large solar panel on one side and a large cylinder on top. Rover: a small vehicle that can move over rough ground, often used on the surface of other planets, sometimes controlled from the earth. The Lander and the Rover have scientific payloads to carry out experiments on the lunar surface. There will not be any orbiters like Chandrayaan 2 in it. Objectives of Chandrayaan-3 mission:- To demonstrate a Safe and Soft Landing on the Lunar Surface. To demonstrate Rover roving on the moon. To conduct in-situ scientific experiments. Lander payloads:- Chandra’s Surface Thermophysical Experiment (ChaSTE): to measure the thermal conductivity and temperature Instrument for Lunar Seismic Activity (ILSA): for measuring the seismicity around the landing site Langmuir Probe (LP): to estimate the plasma density and its variations. A passive Laser Retroreflector Array from NASA is accommodated for lunar laser ranging studies. Rover payloads:- Alpha Particle X-ray Spectrometer (APXS) and Laser Induced Breakdown Spectroscope (LIBS): for deriving the elemental composition near the landing site. Propulsion Module Payload:- Spectro-polarimetry of Habitable Planet Earth (SHAPE): Future discoveries of smaller planets in reflected light would allow us to probe into a variety of Exo-planets which would qualify for habitability or for the presence of life. About GSLV-Mk III:- Weighs: 641 tones. Capacity: GSLV can take 10,000-kg satellites to lower earth orbits. It is also known as the Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM3). It is a three-stage vehicle. It has two solid motor strap-ons, a liquid propellant core stage, and a cryogenic stage. It is the heaviest and the shortest among India’s operational launch vehicles. MUST READ: Gaganyaan SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023) Australia Canada Israel Japan Southwest monsoon Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: As per recent reports, Rishikesh in Uttarakhand was India’s wettest town for most of August during the southwest monsoon season in 2023. Background:- Between August 1 and August 25, the town received 1,901 millimeters of rainfall. During the same period, the two wettest places in India and the world, Cherrapunji and Mawsynram, received 1,876.3 mm and 1,464 mm of rainfall respectively. About the southwest monsoon:- Monsoons are seasonal winds that reverse their direction with the change of season. Monsoons are peculiar to the Indian Subcontinent, South East Asia, parts of Central Western Africa, etc. They are more pronounced in the Indian Subcontinent compared to any other region. India receives southwest monsoon winds in summer and northeast monsoon winds in winter. South-west monsoons: formed due to an intense low-pressure system formed over the Tibetan plateau. North-east monsoons: associated with high-pressure cells over Tibetan and Siberian plateaus. South-west monsoons bring intense rainfall to most of the regions in India. Other Countries receiving most of the annual rainfall during the southwest monsoon season: Indonesia, Bangladesh, Myanmar, etc. Factors responsible for the onset of south-west monsoon:- Intense heating of the Tibetan plateau: The Tibetan plateau gets intensely heated during summer, resulting in strong vertical air currents and the formation of low pressure over the plateau at about 9 km above sea level. Permanent high-pressure cell in the South Indian Ocean. Subtropical Jet Stream (STJ). Tropical Easterly Jet (African Easterly Jet). Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ): It is a broad trough of low pressure in equatorial latitudes. This is where the northeast and the southeast trade winds converge Factors that influence the intensity of south-west monsoons:- Strengths of Low pressure over Tibet and high pressure over the southern Indian Ocean. Somali Jet (Findlater Jet). Somali Current (Findlater Current). Indian Ocean branch of Walker Cell. Indian Ocean Dipole. Mechanism of Monsoon:- The location of ITCZ shifts north and south of the equator with the apparent movement of the Sun. June: The sun shines vertically over the Tropic of Cancer and the ITCZ shifts northwards. The southeast trade winds of the southern hemisphere cross the equator and start blowing in the southwest to a northeast direction under the influence of the Coriolis force. These winds collect moisture as they travel over the warm Indian Ocean. July: The ITCZ shifts to 20°-25° N latitude and is located in the Indo-Gangetic Plain. This causes the southwest monsoons to blow from the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal. The ITCZ in this position is often called the Monsoon Trough. The shift in the position of the ITCZ is also related to the phenomenon of the withdrawal of the westerly jet stream from its position over the north Indian plain, south of the Himalayas. Easterly Jet Stream (Somali Jet): sets in along 15°N latitude only after the western jet stream has withdrawn itself from the region. They are held responsible for the burst of the monsoon in India. As these winds approach the land, their southwesterly direction is modified by the relief and thermal low pressure over northwest India causing monsoon rainfalls. MUST READ: El Niño and La Niña SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022) High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to the ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting the Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct (2017) The IOD phenomenon is characterized by a difference in sea surface temperature between the tropical Western Indian Ocean and the tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino’s impact on the monsoon. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 GREAT Scheme Syllabus Prelims –Government initiatives Context: Recently, the Centre announced up to Rs 50 lakh grant for Grant for Research and Entrepreneurship across Aspiring Innovators in Technical Textiles (GREAT) scheme. About GREAT scheme:- Launched: August, 2023 Ministry: Ministry of Textiles. The Scheme focuses on supporting individuals and companies to translate prototypes into technologies & and products, including commercialization. Objective: To provide much-needed impetus for the development of the technical textiles startup ecosystem in India, especially in niche sub-segments such as bio-degradable and sustainable textiles, high-performance and specialty fibers, and smart textiles. The scheme will be commensurate with the National Technical Textiles Mission. National Technical Textiles Mission:- Ministry: Ministry of Textiles Duration: FY 2020-21 till FY 2023-24. Objective: to increase the penetration level of technical textiles in India while leveraging the extraordinary growth rate of the sector. Salient Features of GREAT scheme:- Grant-in-aid: up to Rs 50 lakh. Duration: 18 months. The textile ministry will additionally provide 10 percent of the total grant-in-aid to incubators. Only a minimum of 10 percent contribution has to be made by the incubatee. Incubators: like IITs, NITs, Textiles Research Associations, and Centres of Excellence. Incubators: Organizations or institutions, that provide resources, mentorship, and support to startups during their early stages. The textiles ministry has also given a nod to 26 institutes for upgrading their laboratory infrastructure and training of trainers in the application areas of technical textiles. Technical Textiles: Textile materials designed to serve specific purposes beyond traditional clothing and furnishing, such as medical textiles, geotextiles, and industrial fabrics. MUST READ: Textile Industry in India SOURCE: BUSINESS STANDARD PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022) They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as marketplaces. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Q.2) With reference to the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: (2022) Private and public hospitals must adopt it. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Promotion of Research & Innovation in the Pharma-MedTech sector (PRIP) scheme Syllabus Prelims –Government schemes Context: Recently, the Union Cabinet approved the Promotion of Research & Innovation in Pharma-MedTech sector (PRIP) scheme. Background:- The scheme has an outlay of ₹5,000 crore for five years, from 2023-24 to 2027-28. About Promotion of Research & Innovation in Pharma-MedTech sector (PRIP) scheme:- Launched:2023. Ministry: Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers. Objectives: to transform the Indian Pharma MedTech sector from cost-based to innovation-based growth by strengthening the research infrastructure in the country. Salient Features of Promotion of Research & Innovation in Pharma-MedTech sector (PRIP) scheme:- The scheme promotes industry-academia linkage for R&D in priority areas to inculcate the culture of quality research and nurture our pool of scientists. (Integrated Pharmaceutical Database Management System 2.0) The scheme is proposed to have two components as follows:- Component A: Strengthening the Research Infrastructure. It will encompass the setting up of Centres of Excellence at the National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education & Research (NIPERs). Component B: Promotion of Research in Pharma MedTech sector: The budget 2023-24 proposes to encourage industry to invest in research and development in specific priority areas. Accordingly, it is proposed that financial assistance under the component would be provided to promote R&D. Funding:- The funding disbursed for the projects will be recovered through benefit sharing (excluding refunded funding, if any) either through royalty or equity in the following ways:- 10% royalty on the net sale of the product/technology till the patent is effective. Equity (not less than 100% of the DoP support provided). Benefits of Promotion of Research & Innovation in Pharma-MedTech sector (PRIP) scheme:- It will lead to sustained global competitive (Strengthening of Pharmaceutical Industry (SPI) scheme) It will contribute to quality employment generation in the country. MUST READ: Pharmaceutical Technology Upgradation Assistance (PTUAS) Scheme SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the carbon nanotubes, consider the following statement  (2020) They can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body. They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of the human body. They can be used in biochemical sensors. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements: (2018) ‘The National ‘Programme for Organic Production’ (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Durand Cup Syllabus Prelims –Sports Context: Recently, Racial slurs and slippers were hurled during the Durand Cup semi-finals. Background:- Students from the Northeast and Darjeeling allegedly faced racial slurs and had stones and slippers hurled at them during a football match between NorthEast United FC and East Bengal FC at Kolkata’s Vivekananda Yuba Bharati stadium. About Durand Cup:- Edition: 132nd edition. Date: August 3 – September 3, 2023. Venues – Guwahati and Kokrajhar in Assam, Shillong in Meghalaya, and Kolkata in West Bengal. Organized by: the Indian Armed Forces. It is Asia’s oldest football tournament. The top Indian football clubs from across the country participate in it. The Durand Cup is the world’s third-oldest football (Sports Code) First edition: 1888. Venue: Dagshai (Himachal Pradesh) Naming: It is named after its founder Sir Henry Mortimer Durand. Mohun Bagan and East Bengal are the most successful teams in the history of the Durand Cup winning it sixteen times each. Historical Background:- It started off as an Army Cup. It was open only to the British Indian Army troops in India. It was begun as a football tournament for different departments and regiments of the Armed Forces of India and the princely states. Since independence, the army’s presence has been maintained by the participation of several clubs of different regiments of the Indian Armed Forces as guest invitees. Prizes:- The winning team in the Durand Cup tournament walks away with three trophies:- The Durand Cup: a rolling trophy and the original prize. The Shimla Trophy: a rolling trophy first given by the residents of Shimla in 1904. The President’s Cup: for permanent keep and first presented by Dr. Rajendra Prasad, India’s first President, in 1956. MUST READ: Indian Olympic Association SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards. (2021) Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titled under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above statements is not correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 China and Bhutan border dispute Syllabus Prelims –International Relations Context: China and Bhutan border dispute talks were held recently, with a focus on a ‘three-step road map’. About the China and Bhutan border dispute:- Bhutan shares an over 400 km-long border with China. In the north – Pasamlung and Jakarlung valleys. In the west – Doklam, Dramana, and Shakhatoe, Yak Chu and Charithang Chu, and Sinchulungpa and Langmarpo valleys. These places are strategically located in the Bhutan-India-China trijunction, lying precariously close to India’s Siliguri Corridor. The dispute involves territorial claims between the two countries over parts of Bhutan’s territory, particularly in areas bordering Tibet. The disputed regions between China and Bhutan include Doklam, Gamochen, Batangla, Sinchela, Sakteng, and Amo Chhu Bhutan and China lack formal diplomatic relations. Boundary Negotiation between Bhutan and China so far:- Bhutan does not have a formal diplomatic relationship with China, but it began its first border negotiations with China in To date, both countries have held 11 expert group meetings and 24 rounds of border negotiations. 2021: Bhutan and China signed an MoU on the Three-Step Roadmap for Expediting the China-Bhutan Boundary Negotiations. The three-step roadmap has still not been made public. Recent agreement:- The roadmap “for Expediting the Bhutan-China Boundary Negotiations”, is expected to progress on the Three-Step Roadmap boundary talks process that has been delayed for five years. It was stalled due to the Doklam standoff in 2017, and then by the Covid Pandemic. A new joint technical team set up by Bhutan and China for delimitation of the disputed border between the two countries held its first meeting in Beijing in August 2023. Implications for India:- China controls much of the Doklam: Since the 2017 stand-off with India, Beijing has already strengthened its de facto control over much of the Doklam plateau, located strategically along the India-China-Bhutan trijunction. (India-Bhutan: Kholongchhu project) Bhutan’s support to China on Doklam. Deadlock at LAC talks: Its timing is particularly significant New, given that India-China border talks on their 17-month-old standoff at the Line of Actual Control appear to have hit a deadlock. India’s strategic risks: This has big implications for India since the Doklam swap would have given China access to the strategically sensitive “chicken neck” of the Siliguri corridor.  MUST READ: India-China relations, a year after Galwan SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Q.2) The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’ recently in the news, is related to the affairs of: (2015) ASEAN BRICS OECD WTO Mains: India and AI regulation Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Science and Technology) and GS 4 (Ethics) Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s recent appeal to expand “ethical” artificial intelligence (AI) tools carries significant implications, particularly in the context of the upcoming G20 Summit in New Delhi. About Artificial Intelligence (AI): Artificial Intelligence is a branch of Computer Science that is responsible for performing tasks commonly associated with human cognitive functions. These functions include interpreting speech, playing games, identifying patterns, generating arts etc. Need for AI regulation: Bias and discrimination: AI systems can inherit biases from the data they are trained on, leading to discriminatory outcomes. For example, facial recognition algorithms have been shown to have higher error rates for women and people with darker skin tones. Lack of accountability: The responsibility and accountability for AI decisions can be unclear, especially when complex systems are involved. This poses challenges in determining liability in case of AI-related accidents or harm caused by AI systems. Lack of transparency: Many AI algorithms operate as black boxes, making it difficult to understand how they reach their decisions. This lack of transparency raises concerns about accountability and the potential for unfair or biased outcomes. Privacy and data protection: AI systems often rely on vast amounts of personal data, raising concerns about privacy and data protection. Improper handling of data can result in unauthorized access, misuse, or breaches of sensitive information. Ethical considerations: AI raises ethical questions related to the impact on jobs, social inequality, and the concentration of power. For example, automated decision-making in hiring processes may perpetuate existing biases and result in unfair outcomes. Lack of regulation and standards: The rapid advancement of AI has outpaced the development of comprehensive regulatory frameworks and industry standards. This creates a regulatory gap and potential risks associated with unchecked AI development and deployment. Security risks: AI systems can be vulnerable to cybersecurity threats and attacks. Adversarial attacks can manipulate AI models to produce incorrect or malicious results, posing risks in critical domains such as autonomous vehicles or healthcare. Advantages of regulating AI: Ethical use and accountability: Regulation ensures that AI systems are developed and deployed in an ethical manner, holding organizations accountable for their actions. This promotes responsible AI practices and prevents the misuse of AI technologies. Consumer protection: Regulating AI protects consumers from fraudulent or deceptive practices. It ensures transparency and fairness in AI-driven products and services, enabling consumers to make informed decisions and seek redress in case of harm. Fairness and non-discrimination: Regulating AI can help address bias and discrimination by enforcing fairness principles. It ensures that AI systems do not disproportionately affect certain groups and promotes equal opportunities for all individuals. Trust and public confidence: Regulations help build trust and public confidence in AI technologies by ensuring responsible and accountable use. This can lead to wider adoption of AI solutions and increased societal acceptance. International collaboration: Regulations facilitate international cooperation and harmonization of AI standards. This promotes consistency in ethical practices, fosters global collaboration, and addresses challenges associated with cross-border AI applications. Challenges in regulating AI: Complexity and development: Regulating AI is challenging due to its complexity and the speed at which it develops. Creating effective regulations that address the intricacies of AI systems and keep pace with technological advancements can be difficult. Rapid technological advancement: AI is evolving at a rapid pace, making it challenging for regulators to keep up with the latest developments and effectively regulate a technology that is constantly evolving. Increased costs and competition: Compliance with regulations may impose additional costs on businesses, particularly smaller companies and startups, limiting their ability to compete in the AI market. The burden of regulatory compliance could disproportionately affect smaller players. International cooperation: AI regulation requires international cooperation and collaboration to address global challenges, harmonize standards, and prevent regulatory arbitrage. Developing consensus among different countries with varying interests and priorities can be a complex task. Accountability and liability: Determining responsibility and liability when AI systems cause harm or make erroneous decisions can be challenging. Clarifying the legal frameworks and accountability structures surrounding AI is crucial for effective regulation. AI regulation across the world: India: NITI Aayog, has issued some guiding documents on AI Issues such as the National Strategy for Artificial Intelligence and the Responsible AI for All report. Emphasises social and economic inclusion, innovation, and trustworthiness. Way Forward: Therefore, PM Modi’s call for ethical AI expansion marks a pivotal moment in India’s regulatory landscape. The nation’s shift from non-interference to proactive regulation demonstrates a keen understanding of AI’s transformative potential and the need to navigate its challenges collectively on the global stage. Source:  Indian Express Rozgar Mela Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Economy) Context: Recently, the Prime Minister distributed more than 51,000 appointment letters to newly inducted recruits under the Rojgar Mela (Employment Fair). About Rojgar Mela: Rozgar Mela is an employment strategy to fast-track the meeting of job seekers and employers. The Rozgar Mela is expected to act as a catalyst in further employment generation and provide meaningful opportunities to the youth for their empowerment and participation in national development. Unemployment in India: According to the recent National Statistical Office (NSO) has released the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS): The unemployment rate in urban areas for persons aged above 15 eased to 7.2% in July­-September 2022 from 9.8% in July-September 2021. Unemployment Ratio: The unemployment ratio is defined as the percentage of persons unemployed among the persons in the labour force. The unemployment rate was 6.6% for men and 9.4% for women (9.3% and 11.6% in July-September 2021). Worker-Population Ratio (WPR): The WPR is defined as the percentage of employed persons in the population. The WPR in urban areas for persons aged 15 and above stood at 44.5% (42.3% in July-September 2021). The WPR among men was 68.6% and 19.7% among women (66.6% and 17.6% in 2021). Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR): It is defined as the percentage of persons in the labour force who are working, seeking, or available for work in the population, in urban areas for persons aged 15 and above. It increased to 47.9% (46.9% in July-September 2021). The LFPR among men was 73.4% and 21.7% among women (73.5% and 19.9%, in July-September 2021). Major causes of unemployment in India: Social factors: In India the caste system is prevalent. The work is prohibited for specific castes in some areas. In big joint families having big business, many such persons will be available who do not do any work and depend on the joint income of the family. Rapid growth of population: Constant increase in population has been a big problem in India. It is one of the main causes of unemployment. Dominance of agriculture: Still in India nearly half of the workforce is dependent on Agriculture. However, it is underdeveloped in India. Fall of cottage and small industries: The industrial development had adverse effects on cottage and small industries. The production of cottage industries began to fall and many artisans became unemployed. Immobility of labour: Mobility of labour in India is low. Due to attachment to the family, people do not go too far off areas for jobs. Factors like language, religion, and climate are also responsible for low mobility. Defects in education system: Jobs in the capitalist world have become highly specialised but India’s education system does not provide the right training and specialisation needed for these jobs. Thus, many people who are willing to work become unemployed due to lack of skills. Impacts of Jobless growth: For working women: Between 2010 and 2020, the number of working women in India dropped to 19% from 26%, according to data compiled by the World Bank. CMIE estimated that female labour force participation plummeted to 9% by 2022. Affects demographic dividend: A growing reserve of frustrated, unemployed youth threatens to turn India’s demographic dividend of having a young population into a curse. Declining agriculture employment: The proportion of Indians employed in agriculture had been falling for decades, but this process flattened some years ago and was reversed by the covid crisis. Those who move out of farming mostly find themselves in low-paying construction work and informal services. Lack of required skills: India’s economic growth has been largely services led, with a small pool of skills at the upper end, given a glaring failure in mass education. India presents a paradox of skill shortages while being labour surplus. Trucks are idle because of the shortage of drivers. The steel industry needs more metallurgists. Government’s Initiatives to Curb Unemployment: Support for Marginalized Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise (SMILE) PM-DAKSH (Pradhan Mantri Dakshta Aur Kushalta Sampann Hitgrahi) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) Garib Kalyan Rojgar Abhiyaan Aajeevika – National Rural Livelihoods Mission PM- SVANidhi Scheme Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana Source:  Indian Express Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Lunar Mission Country 1.Pioneer 1 USA 2.Chandrayaan-1 India 3.Luna 1 Russia How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Promotion of Research & Innovation in Pharma-MedTech sector (PRIP) scheme was launched on 16th August 2023. Statement-II: It is under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Monsoons are peculiar to the Indian Subcontinent, South East Asia, parts of Central Western Africa, etc. Statement-II: Southwest monsoon is associated with high-pressure cells over the Tibetan and Siberian plateaus. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Critically analyse the key challenges in the advent of AI in India and measures to harness the power of AI. (250 words) Q.2) Discuss the issue of unemployment in India. What India should do check rising unemployment? (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 31st August 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 30th August – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – d Q.2) – c Q.3) – b

Aug 31, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 31st August 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Aug 30, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 30th August 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) International Blind Sports Federation (IBSA) World Games 2023 Syllabus Prelims –Sports Context: The Indian men’s visually impaired team won silver medal after defeat against Pakistan in the final of the men’s T20 cricket event at the International Blind Sports Federation (IBSA) World Games 2023. About International Blind Sports Federation (IBSA) World Games 2023:- Convened on: 18th – 27th August 2023. Venue: Birmingham, Great Britain. It is the world’s biggest gathering of athletes with visual impairments. Events: Powerlifting, judo, goalball, football, chess, tenpin bowling, shooting, and showdown, as well as cricket, archery, and tennis, form the programme. The men’s and women’s IBSA Blind Football World Championships and the partially sighted World Championships will take place as part of the event. The World Games are normally conducted every four years. It has three Paralympic and eight non-Paralympic sports. Last IBSA World Games: Seoul, South Korea, in 2015. About IBSA:- Founded: 1981. HQ: Bonn, GERMANY. IBSA’s first congress was held at the UNESCO headquarters in Paris, France. It was attended by 30 countries. IBSA is the world’s leading organization for the development of sports for people with visual impairments. It has more than 100 members in every region of the world. It is involved with sports that are on the Paralympic programme such as athletics, swimming, and shooting. IBSA is a member of the International Paralympic Committee with full voting rights. MUST READ: Chess Olympiad SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023) It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. The official mascot was named Thambi’. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. · How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021) The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this Olympics. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 and 2 State of India’s Birds report 2023 Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: The State of India’s Birds report 2023 was released recently. Key Highlights of the report:- 39% of species show clear declines over the past decades. 178 species classified as of High Conservation Priority, and require immediate attention. Raptors, migratory shorebirds, and ducks have experienced the most significant declines. Long-distance migratory birds, such as those from Eurasia and the Arctic, have suffered significant declines. Several species like the Indian Peafowl, Rock Pigeon, Asian Koel, and House Crow are thriving and increasing in both abundance and distribution. 150% increase in the abundance of peafowl across the country over the past decades. Birds with diets focused on vertebrates and carrion have seen notable declines due to harmful pollutants present in these food resources. The report emphasizes the decline of species endemic to the Western Ghats and Sri Lanka biodiversity hotspots. (Global Biodiversity Framework) About the State of India’s Birds Report 2023:- Developed by: State of India’s Birds Partnership. State of India’s Birds Partnership: a group of 13 government and non-government organizations. Objective: to assess the conservation status of the majority of species that regularly occur in the country. This year, the report assessed the “status of 942 bird species. The earlier assessment carried out in 2020 had listed 15 species of conservation priority. Threats to Bird Species:- The report mentions threats like forest degradation, urbanization, and energy infrastructure. Birds are highly impacted by environmental pollutants, climate change’s impacts on migratory species, avian diseases, and illegal hunting and trade. (Bird flu) MUST READ: American foulbrood (AFB) disease SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) The H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the following diseases? (2015) AIDS Bird flu Dengue Swine flu Q.2) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022) Golden Mahseer Indian Nightjar Spoonbill White Ibis Article 35A Syllabus Prelims –Polity Context: Recently, the Supreme Court observed that abrogated Article 35A in Jammu and Kashmir had negative affect on the fundamental rights of the people especially those who were not from Jammu and Kashmir. Background:- The Supreme Court observed this while hearing the matter of the abrogation of Article 370 and the restructuring of J& K into two Union territories. The Constitution bench was headed by Chief Justice of India Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud. About Article 35A:- Article 35A was part of Article 370, which granted special status to Jammu and Kashmir until it was scrapped in 2019. Article 370: It allowed the state its own constitution, a separate flag, and independence over all matters except foreign affairs, defense, and communications. Article 35-A deals with empowering the Jammu and Kashmir Constitution to define “permanent residents” of the state. It also empowers the Jammu and Kashmir Legislature to confer on permanent residents or state subjects special rights and privileges. These include rights and privileges in public sector jobs, acquisition of property in the state, scholarships, and other public aid and welfare. It disallows people from outside the state from:- Buying or owning immovable property there Settling permanently Availing themselves of state-sponsored scholarship schemes. Only the Jammu-Kashmir assembly can change the definition of Permanent Residents through a law ratified by a two-thirds majority. Historical Background:- The law came into place during the Dogra times when Maharaja Hari Singh passed it in 1927. It was enacted to prevent the influx of Punjabis into the state. Later, in 1954, an amended version of the law was added through the Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 1954 issued by the President of India (Rajendra Prasad) on aid and advice of Jawaharlal Nehru’s cabinet. It replaced the 1952 Delhi Agreement between Nehru and the then Prime Minister of J&K Sheikh Abdullah, which extended Indian citizenship to the ‘State subjects’ of J&K. Under the Jammu and Kashmir Constitution, which was adopted on November 17, 1956, a permanent resident is one who has been living in the State as of May 14, 1954, or who has been a resident of the state for 10 years, and has “lawfully acquired immovable property in the state”. Controversy regarding Article 35A:- Article 35 A is believed to be incorporated unconstitutionally, dodging Article 368 which emancipates only the Parliament to amend the constitution. Article 368: deals with the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure. It is considered against the “very spirit of oneness of India” as it created a “class within a class of Indian citizens” by treating non-permanent residents of J&K as ‘second class’ citizens. Restricting citizens from other States from getting employment or buying property within J&K is a violation of fundamental rights under Articles 14, 19, and 21 of the Indian Constitution. (Article 19) There is also probable discrimination on the basis of gender – since it denies property rights to children of women who marry those from outside the state.  Current Status:- On 5th of August 2019, the President of India promulgated the Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 2019. The order effectively revoked the special status accorded to Jammu and Kashmir under the provision of Article 370. It “superseded the Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 1954” under which Article 35A was added to the Indian Constitution. (Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Adaptation of State Laws) Order, 2020) MUST READ: Passport as a fundamental right under Article 21 SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following organizations/bodies in India: (2023) The National Commission for Backward Classes The National Human Rights Commission The National Law Commission The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha? (2022) To ratify the declaration of Emergency To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers To impeach the President of India Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 2 only 1 and 3 3 only Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) Syllabus Prelims – Environment and Ecology Context: The 10th plenary of the Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) was held recently. About the 10th plenary of IPBES:- Dates: 28 August – 2 September 2023. Location: Bonn, Germany. Agenda: the scientific assessment report on “Invasive Alien Species and their Control”.( Invasive Species) The focus of IPBES 10 will be the thematic assessment of invasive alien species and their control, whose preparation was approved at IPBES 8. IPBES10 is the first meeting of this global body since the adoption of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF). About Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES):- IMAGE SOURCE: IPEB Established: 2012. HQ: Bonn, Germany. IPBES Member States: 143. It is an independent intergovernmental body. It provides evidence-based and policy-relevant information on biodiversity and ecosystem services. ( Biodiversity conservation) Observer states and stakeholders also participate in Plenary sessions. IPBES assesses the state of biodiversity and the ecosystem services it provides to society, in response to requests from decision-makers. It is not a United Nations body. (UN Biodiversity Summit) The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) provides secretariat services to IPBES. (UNEP’s Emission Gap Report 2022) IPBES structure:- Plenary: The governing body of IPBES. It is made up of the representatives of IPBES member States. It usually meets once per year. Observers: Any State not yet a member of IPBES. Bureau: Comprising the IPBES Chair, four Vice-Chairs, and five additional officers who oversee the administrative functions of IPBES. Multidisciplinary Expert Panel (MEP): Five expert participants from each of the five UN regions, overseeing all IPBES scientific and technical functions. Stakeholders: All contributors to and end-users of the IPBES outputs. Expert Groups & Taskforces: Selected scientists and knowledge holders carrying out the IPBES assessments and other deliverables. Secretariat: Ensures the efficient functioning of IPBES through support to the Plenary, Bureau, and MEP, as well as implementing the Platform’s work and administrative functions. Functions of IPEBS:- Assessments: On specific themes (e.g. “Pollinators, Pollination and Food Production”); methodological issues (e.g. “Scenarios and Modelling); and at both the regional and global levels (e.g. “Global Assessment of Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services”). Policy Support: Identifying policy-relevant tools and methodologies, facilitating their use, and catalyzing their further development. Building Capacity & Knowledge: Identifying and meeting the priority capacity, knowledge, and data needs of our member States, experts, and stakeholders. Communications & Outreach: Ensuring the widest reach and impact of our work. MUST READ: Expansion of the Invasive Plants SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) ‘Invasive Species Specialist group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations? (2023) The International Union for Conservation of Nature The United Nations Environment Programme The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development The World Wide Fund for Nature Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023) Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change. Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Seethakali folk art Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: Artists recently performed Seethakali folk art outside Kerala for the first time. About Seethakali folk art:- It is a centuries-old folk art form. Origin: Perinad in Kollam district, Kerala. This art form was first performed some 150 years back by the people of Vedar and Pulayar communities. It is based on certain episodes taken from the Indian epic Ramayana. Mythic characters such as Rama, Seetha, Ravana, and Hanuman come alive in Seethakali performances that portray the tale of Seetha’s journey, from the time she accompanied Rama to the woods to her ascent to the heavens. In the early times, Seethakali was performed as part of the harvest festival Onam. The props and instruments used during performances are all made of natural materials like bamboo and palm leaves. The costumes and the make-up are loud and eye-catching. The characters of Rama and Laxmana appear in green since the colour is used to represent gods and goddesses in Kathakali.  MUST READ: Mohiniyattam SOURCE: THE HINDU  PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements: (2017) It is a song and dance performance Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Q.2) With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements: (2014) Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Nataraja Syllabus Prelims –Art and Culture Context: Recently, it was announced that a 28-ft. Nataraja bronze sculpture, from Tamil Nadu would grace the G20 summit venue in New Delhi. Background:- The statue, weighing 19 tonnes, and made of eight metals: gold, silver, lead, copper, tin, mercury, iron, and zinc (Ashtadhatu). About Nataraja:- It is the representation of the Hindu god Shiva during his form as the cosmic dance. It is represented in metal or stone in many Shaivite temples, particularly in South India. It is an important piece of Chola sculpture. Features of the Nataraja:- The upper right hand holds the drum: it signifies the sound of creation. All creations spring from the great sound of the damru. The upper left hand holds the eternal fire: it represents the destruction. Destruction is the precursor and inevitable counterpart of creation. The lower right hand is raised in the gesture of Abhay Mudra signifying benediction and reassuring the devotee to not be afraid. The lower left hand points towards the upraised foot and indicates the path of salvation. Shiva is dancing on the figure of a small dwarf. The dwarf symbolizes ignorance and the ego of an individual. The matted and flowing locks of Shiva represent the flow of the river Ganges. In ornamentation, one ear of Shiva has a male earring while the other has a female. This represents the fusion of male and female and is often referred to as A snake is wrapped around the arm of Shiva. The snake symbolizes the kundalini power, which resides in the human spine in the dormant stage. MUST READ: Shore temple SOURCE: THE HINDU PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct? (2022) Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture. The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets. Sangam poems have no reference to warrior ethics. Sangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational. Q.2) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 BRIGHT STAR-23 Syllabus Prelims – Defense Context: As per recent reports, thirty-four countries including India will participate in the joint military exercise, BRIGHT STAR-23. About BRIGHT STAR-23:- Date: 31 August to 14 October 2023. Venue: Mohammed Naguib Military Base, Indian Army contingent comprising 137 personnel will participate in a military exercise. It is a multinational tri-services joint military exercise. It will be led by US CENTCOM and the Egyptian Army. This year 34 countries will participate in the Exercise. It will be the largest-ever joint military exercise in West Asia and North Africa region. This is the first time that the Indian Armed Force with 549 personnel participated in the exercise. During the exercise participating countries will share the best practices to combat emerging unconventional threats and enhance regional partnerships. Significance: The exercise will provide a unique opportunity for the Indian Army to share best practices and experiences with other armies aimed at enhancing defense cooperation. MUST READ: Exercise Varuna SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: (2023) Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019) Japan Russia The United Kingdom The United States of America Mains: India needs comprehensive sexuality education Syllabus Mains – GS 1 (Society) and GS 2 (Governance) Context: According to the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB), 51,863 cases were reported under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act in 2021; of them, 33,348 or 64% were of sexual assault. In this context, understanding sexual consent is important not only to learn about violation and abuse, but also to maintain healthy relationships. About sexual consent: It is a mutual agreement between individuals to engage in any form of intimate activity. It is essential for maintaining healthy relationships and understanding boundaries. Consent can be given, asked for, and withdrawn at any point. Many teenagers and young adults in India may not fully understand this concept. According to the United Nations, comprehensive sexuality education is a curriculum-based process of teaching and learning about the cognitive, emotional, physical and social aspects of sexuality. There is a need for clear language and education in regional languages to discuss and teach about consent and its significance. Significance of sexual education: Rights of Individual and sexuality: According to the World Health Organization (WHO), with comprehensive sexuality education, young people will be better informed of their rights and sexuality, and will be more likely to engage in sexual activity later. Sexual consent: Understanding sexual consent is important not only to learn about violation and abuse, but also to maintain healthy relationships. Lead to early awareness: The UN global guidance recommends starting comprehensive sexuality education from the age of five along with formal education. This means that young children will be taught about their bodies, emotions, the basic principles of consent, and how to deal with violence, bullying or abuse. Reducing the intimate partner violence: The ramifications of a comprehensive sexuality education are far-reaching, especially in the matter of intimate partner violence. Sexual habits and health: Studies have shown that sexually aware students are most likely to say no to unprotected sex. Through sex education, teenagers can be taught the positive and negative sides of sex. They can learn about sexually transmitted disease, teenage unintended pregnancy, and emotional effects of sex. Educating women on sex: When women are educated and aware of sexual wellness, they make better reproductive decisions. This means lesser teenage pregnancies, child mortality, or sexually transmitted infections. The Kerala High Court was informed that awareness about the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act would be included in the curriculum from 2024-25. This reflects an effort to integrate relevant legal and awareness components into the education system. Challenges associated with sexual education in India: Data vs reality: The research has found that more than 90% of students think sex education in school curriculum is important. 60% also stated that they had exposure to sex education in school. However, only 45% said that they had received appropriate sex education. Lack of interest by the State governments: Several State governments and certain sections of society in India have adopted an ostrich-like approach to comprehensive sexuality education. The governments that it sexualises children, they have either watered down the existing programmes or withdrawn them on the grounds that they violate “Indian values”. Patriarchal in the society: Traditional values are often shaped by patriarchal and hierarchical social structures. Mass media often propagates such values and it negatively affects young adults of all genders. Lack of teacher’s education: Teachers reported that they lacked the knowledge to talk about diverse topics with the existing programmes along with sexual education. Lack of sexual awareness to women and young girls: The victims of poor sexual awareness are primarily women. It is women who suffer most because of social taboo, menstrual issues, or unwarranted pregnancies. Women also have lower awareness and knowledge around contraception, sex, pregnancy, and reproductive health. Suggestive measures: United Nations (UN) recommends comprehensive sexuality education, which is a curriculum-based process of teaching and learning about the cognitive, emotional, physical and social aspects of sexuality. Role of state govts: In India, the responsibility of sexuality education is vested with the State governments. Each State has the freedom to develop creative curriculums within the framework suggested by the UNFPA. Role of Teachers: NCRB data show that it is necessary for schools to impart comprehensive sexuality education not only to children, but also to parents and caregivers. Skill training for teachers: According to the UNESCO 2021 Global Status Report on ‘the journey towards comprehensive sexuality education’, capacity-building of teachers is critical as the curriculum requires non-intuitive participatory pedagogies. Educating the parents: The sex education advice for parents is that they educate themselves first. They should also let go of their inhibitions and reservations. Regional languages to discuss the concept of sexual consent: While the concept of sexual consent is evolving through criminal jurisprudence, the term itself may have been borrowed from English or other Western languages. With the non-English language speaking population becoming substantial, an explicit creation of vocabulary in regional languages to discuss the concept of sexual consent and its nuances is urgently required. A case study from Jharkhand demonstrates the successful mainstreaming of a school-based program, Udaan, which began as an Adolescent Reproductive and Sexual Health initiative and was later integrated into the education department. Source:   The Hindu Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy) Context: Recently, Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)- a revolutionary financial inclusion programme completed nine years of  successful implementation. About Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY): Launched in 2014, the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) is a scheme run by the Ministry of Finance of the Government of India. This scheme assists underprivileged and needy sections of our society with simple access to financial services such as remittance, credit, insurance, pension, savings, and deposit accounts. Basic tenets of the scheme: Banking the unbanked: Opening of basic savings bank deposit (BSBD) account with minimal paperwork, relaxed KYC, e-KYC, account opening in camp mode, zero balance and zero charges. Securing the unsecured: Issuance of Indigenous Debit cards for cash withdrawals & payments at merchant locations, with free accident insurance coverage of Rs. 2 lakhs Funding the unfunded: Other financial products like micro-insurance, overdraft for consumption, micro-pension & micro-credit. Features of the scheme: Basic savings bank accounts with overdraft facility of Rs. 10,000/- to every eligible adult. Creation of Credit Guarantee Fund. After 28.8.2018, free accidental insurance cover on RuPay cards increased from Rs. 1 lakh to Rs. 2 lakhs. OD limit doubled from Rs 5,000/- to Rs 10,000/-; OD upto Rs 2,000/- (without conditions) with Increase in upper age limit for OD from 60 to 65 years. Significance of PMJDY: Catalyst for economic initiatives: PMJDY has acted as a catalyst for various people-centric economic initiatives, including direct benefit transfers, COVID-19 financial assistance, PM-KISAN (an income support scheme for farmers), and increased wages under MGNREGA (a rural employment guarantee program). The existence of a bank account, which PMJDY has facilitated, serves as the foundational step for these initiatives to reach beneficiaries efficiently and directly. Significant role played during lockdown: The agility and responsiveness of PMJDY were evident during the COVID-19 pandemic and the subsequent nationwide lockdown. Within just 10 days of the lockdown, over 20 crore women PMJDY accounts received financial assistance of Rs. 500 per month for three months through the Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) mechanism. This rapid disbursement of funds showcased the program’s ability to provide swift financial support to vulnerable sections of society during crises. Widespread adoption: PMJDY has achieved remarkable success in terms of adoption. One out of every two accounts opened between March 2014 and March 2020 was a PMJDY account, underscoring the program’s popularity and effectiveness. Efficiency and transparency of DBTs: PMJDY has played a significant role in ensuring the efficiency and transparency of Direct Benefit Transfers (DBTs). DBTs via PMJDY accounts have been successful in delivering financial security to beneficiaries while preventing leakages and ensuring that funds reach their intended recipients. Transformation of financial landscape: One of the most noteworthy impacts of PMJDY is its role in bringing the unbanked population into the formal banking system. Source: AIR Concerns associated with PMJDY: Lack of banking connectivity: Bank account penetration is growing but in rural areas physical connectivity to the banking system remains limited, and mobile money providers have not yet solved this last mile problem. Financial Literacy: Enhancing financial literacy is a long-term endeavour. Providing easily understandable financial education, workshops, and guidance can help individuals better understand banking services, manage their money, and make informed decisions. Data privacy and security: As digital transactions increase, the risk of data breaches and privacy concerns also rises. Implementing robust cybersecurity measures, educating users about safe digital practices, and stringent data protection regulations are vital to address this challenge. Sustainability of BC Model: Business Correspondents play a crucial role in bridging the gap between formal financial institutions and rural communities. Ensuring their sustainability involves fair compensation, training, and monitoring mechanisms to maintain quality service delivery. Way forward: The PMJDY has made multifaceted achievements in the past nine years, from extending banking access to rural and urban populations to empowering women and enabling welfare distribution, underscore its transformative impact. PMJDY can play a pivotal role in shaping a more inclusive and robust financial landscape in India. The key lies in the continuous adaptation and evolution of the initiative to meet the changing needs of the population it aims to serve. Source:   AIR Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Birds IUCN Status 1.Himalayan Quail Vulnerable 2.Siberian Crane Endangered 3.Pink-headed Duck Least Concern How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) provides secretariat services to IPBES. Statement-II: IPBES is a United Nations body. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: The Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 2019 effectively revoked the special status accorded to Jammu and Kashmir under the provision of Article 370. Statement-II: Article 370 allowed the state its constitution. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Mains Practice Questions Q.1) Discuss the significance of Comprehensive Sexuality Education (CSE) and its challenges in India. (250 words) Q.2) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) is necessary for bringing unbanked to the institutional finance fold. Do you agree with this for financial inclusion of the poorer section of the Indian society? Give arguments to justify your opinion. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 30th August 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 29th August – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – b Q.2) – c Q.3) – a

Aug 30, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 30th August 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here

Aug 29, 2023 IASbaba's Daily Current Affairs

DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 29th August 2023

Archives (PRELIMS & MAINS Focus) Horn of Africa Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: The Greater Horn of Africa is likely to get heavy rains from October to December 2023, according to the Intergovernmental Authority on Development (IGAD) Climate Prediction and Applications Centre (ICPAC). Key Highlights: ICPAC attributed the wetter-than-usual conditions across most parts of the Greater Horn of Africa to El Nino. El Nino: a natural phenomenon wherein the ocean temperatures rise especially in parts of the Pacific Ocean.( El Nino and La Nina) Southern Ethiopia, eastern Kenya, and southern Somalia are very likely to experience wetter-than-usual rainfall, according to the forecast. In contrast, drier-than-usual conditions have been forecast for the isolated areas of southwestern Uganda and southwestern South Sudan. Below-average rainfall has been forecast until the end of the season for Eritrea, central and northern Ethiopia, Djibouti, Western Kenya, significant areas of South Sudan and Sudan, and Northern Uganda. October to December, the vital rainfall season, especially in the equatorial parts of the Greater Horn of Africa, may contribute 20-70 percent of the annual total rainfall. About the Intergovernmental Authority on Development (IGAD):- Establishment: 1996. HQ: Djibouti, Africa. The IGAD in Eastern Africa was created to supersede the Intergovernmental Authority on Drought and Development (IGADD). Mission: Promote regional cooperation and integration to add value to Member States’ efforts in achieving peace, security, and prosperity. About ICPAC:- Historical Background:- The Drought Monitoring Center-Nairobi (DCMN) was adopted as a specialized IGAD institution in the 10th Summit of the Heads of State and Governments IGAD in 2003. It changed its name to IGAD Climate Prediction and Applications Centre (ICPAC). HQ: Nairobi, Kenya. It is a Climate Center accredited by the World Meteorological Organization. It provides Climate Services to 11 East African Countries. About Horn of Africa:- IMAGE SOURCE: is online About Horn of Africa:- Countries: Somalia, Ethiopia, Eritrea and Djibouti. Location: northeast of the African It lies along the southern boundary of the Red Sea. It extends hundreds of kilometers into the Guardafui Channel, the Gulf of Aden, and the Indian Ocean. It is equidistant from the equator and the Tropic of Cancer. It extends out into the Arabian Sea for hundreds of kilometers. It is located along the south of the Gulf of Aden. The Horn of Africa is a UNESCO Biodiversity Hotspot and one of the two entirely arid ones. Biodiversity Hotspot: To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, an area must meet two strict criteria:- Contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants found nowhere else on Earth (known as “endemic” species). Have lost at least 70 percent of its primary native vegetation. The Greater Horn of Africa region includes Burundi, Djibouti, Eritrea, Ethiopia, Kenya, Rwanda, Somalia, South Sudan, Sudan, Tanzania, and Uganda. MUST READ: India-Africa: Challenges & Way Ahead SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Which one of the lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert? (2022) Lake Victoria Lake Faguibine Lake Oguta Lake Volta Q.2) With reference to the ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting the Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct (2017) The IOD phenomenon is characterized by a difference in sea surface temperature between the tropical Western Indian Ocean and the tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino’s impact on the monsoon. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Chail wildlife sanctuary Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: Recently, a rare black eagle was spotted at Chail Wildlife Sanctuary. About Chail Wildlife Sanctuary:- Location: Solan & Shimla districts of Himachal Pradesh. Terrain: encompasses hills, valleys, forests, and grasslands. Flora: oak, pine, cedar, rhododendron, and grasslands. Fauna: pheasants, Himalayan bears, deer, langurs, and porcupines. Water Bodies: It comprises part of the catchment area of a tributary of the Giri River. Conservation programs: Established a pheasant breeding program in 1988. (Wildlife Protection) Chail Wildlife Sanctuary is a protected area. Protected areas: in which human presence or the exploitation of natural resources (e.g. firewood, non-timber forest products, water, etc.) is limited. (Eco-sensitive Zones (ESZ)) Black eagle:- Characteristics feature: This Eagle is dark black in color and has a striking yellow beak. Habitat: It soars over forests and is mostly found in hilly regions. Food: They mainly hunt for mammals and small birds, especially the ones in the nest. Family: Accipitridae. Genus: Ictinaetus. It is the only member of the genus. Distribution: tropical and subtropical South and Southeast Asia, as well as southeastern China. Distribution in India: Himachal Pradesh and Jammu & Kashmir, forests of the Eastern and Western Ghats in peninsular India. Conservation status:- IUCN: Least concern MUST READ: Rare migratory eagle SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels: (2023) They build nests by making burrows in the ground. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground. They are omnivorous. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Consider the following fauna: (2023) Lion-tailed Macaque Malabar Civet Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset? Only one Only two All three None Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) Syllabus Prelims – Economy Context: The government’s flagship scheme for financial inclusion Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana recently completed nine years of implementation. Background:- Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman has said that Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana-led interventions and digital transformation have revolutionized financial inclusion in the country in the last nine years About Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY):- Launched: 28th August in 2014. Ministry: Ministry of Finance. Objectives: ensuring access to various financial services like availability of basic savings bank account, access to need based credit, remittances facility, insurance, and pension to the excluded sections i.e. weaker sections & and low-income groups. Salient Features of PMJDY:- The PMJDY is a National Mission on Financial Inclusion. It encompasses an integrated approach to bring about comprehensive financial inclusion of all the households in the country. The plan envisages:- Universal access to banking facilities: with at least one basic banking account for every household Financial literacy: Promoting savings, use of ATMs, getting ready for credit, availing insurance and pensions, and using basic mobile phones for banking. Access to credit: Creation of Credit Guarantee Fund to provide banks some guarantee against defaults. Insurance: Accident cover and life cover. Accident cover: up to Rs. 1,00,000. Eligibility: People holding a RuPay Debit Card under PMJDY will be eligible for this insurance. (RuPay Debit Cards and BHIM UPI) Life cover: Rs. 30,000 on account opened between 15 Aug 2014 to 31 January 2015. Eligibility: It will only apply to people opening bank accounts for the first time under Jan Dhan Yojana with a debit card. The person should also be the head of the family or a major earning member. Pension facility: for the Unorganized sector. Overdraft Facility: Beneficiaries can avail of an overdraft facility for up to ₹10,000. However, this is only available against one account per household. This scheme also provides loans of up to ₹5,000 to beneficiaries after completing six months of account transactions. Eligibility:- Citizenship: The applicant should be an Indian National. Age: aged between 18 and 59 years. If minors above ten years apply, they will require support from their legal guardians to administer their PMJDY account. Benefits of PMJDY:- The plan envisages channeling all Government benefits (from Centre / State / Local Body) to the beneficiaries’ accounts. It pushes the Direct Benefits Transfer (DBT) scheme of the Union Government. Challenges:- Technological issues like poor connectivity, and online transactions. MUST READ: Digital Banks SOURCE: AIR PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana : (2023) It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Q.2) With reference to the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: (2022) Private and public hospitals must adopt it. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Kampala Ministerial Declaration on Migration, Environment, and Climate Change (KDMECC) Syllabus Prelims –Environment and Ecology Context: The Kampala Declaration on climate change, and human mobility recently, got 48 African countries as members. Background:- Representatives from 48 African countries gathered in Nairobi, Kenya, for the Conference of States on the continental expansion of the Kampala Ministerial Declaration on Migration, Environment, and Climate Change. The continental expansion of the KDMECC was discussed at a three-day Conference of States that began August 23, 2023. It was co-hosted by the Governments of Kenya and Uganda with support from the International Organization for Migration (IOM) and the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). IOM:- Established: 1951. HQ: Geneva, It currently has 175 Member States. It is a United Nations agency that provides services and advice concerning migration to governments and migrants, including internally displaced persons, refugees, and migrant workers The International Organization for Migration (IOM) governing bodies are comprised of the Council, which is the highest authority, and the Standing Committee on Programmes and Finance, a sub-committee of the Council. About Kampala Ministerial Declaration on Migration, Environment, and Climate Change (KDMECC):- Signed: 2022. Signed at Kampala, Uganda. Signed by: 15 African states. Objective: to address the nexus of human mobility and climate change in the continent. The Declaration is the first comprehensive, action-oriented framework led by Member States to address climate-induced mobility in a practical and effective manner. Need: Africa is one of the world’s most vulnerable continents to the impacts of climate change. ( Global Risks due to Climate Change) There were over 7.5 million new internal disaster displacements in 2022, according to a 2023 report by the Internal Displacement Monitoring Centre. If nothing is done, as many as 105 million people could become internal migrants within the African continent. Progress: An Expert Working Group (EWG) was formed in May 2023 to ensure that the signatory states of the KDMECC receive the necessary support they need to meet their commitments. The EWG comprises climate and migration experts and youth climate advocates from the signatory countries and regional bodies. Significance: It will ensure that all voices, including those of youth, women, and persons in vulnerable situations are the priority of the expanded declaration. Signatory countries of the KDMECC:- The Republic of Burundi The Republic of Djibouti The Democratic Republic of Congo The Federal Democratic Republic of Ethiopia The Republic of Kenya The Republic of Rwanda The Federal Republic of Somalia The Republic of South Sudan The Republic of the Sudan United Republic of Tanzania The Republic of Uganda The Arab Republic of Egypt People’s Democratic Republic of Algeria The Republic of Senegal The Republic of Zambia MUST READ: Mitigating Climate Change SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements: (2023) None of them uses seawater. None of them is set up in a water-stressed district. None of them is privately owned. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Q.2) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022) Central Water Commission Central Ground Water Board Central Ground Water Authority National Water Development Agency Smishing Syllabus Prelims –Science and Technology Context: iPhone and Android users were recently warned against a new fraud called ‘Smishing’. About Smishing:- Smishing” is a combination of “SMS” (Short Message Service) and “phishing.” It is a type of phishing attack. It involves sending fraudulent text messages to individuals. Objective: tricking them into divulging sensitive personal information, such as passwords, credit card numbers, or other confidential data. Cybercriminals send fraudulent emails that seek to trick the recipient into clicking on a malicious link. It uses text messages instead of email. ( Cyberattacks) It often involves messages that appear to be from legitimate sources, such as banks, government agencies, or well-known companies. Working mechanism:- Smishing messages typically contain urgent or enticing content to persuade recipients to take immediate action. This can be clicking on a malicious link, calling a phone number, or providing sensitive information. Once the victim opens and clicks on the link or dials the phone number listed in the message, they are taken to a fraudulent website or a mobile phone line that’s designed to resemble a legitimate source. The victim might be asked to enter sensitive information, such as login credentials, social security numbers, credit card information, or personal identification numbers (PINs). Once the victim’s sensitive information is divulged, the attacker might steal it to commit fraud. MUST READ: Cybercrime SOURCE: TIMES NOW PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) In India under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (2020) Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer Cost of a new computer if some miscreant willfully damages it, if proven so Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion Cost of defense in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2, and 4 only 1, 3, and 4 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2020) Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for the sharing of Aadhaar data. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 only Magic rice Syllabus Prelims –Geography Context: Recently, Magic Rice got Geographical Indication (GI) tag. About Magic Rice:- Magic rice also known as Chokuwa rice. It is a part of Assam’s culinary heritage. This unique rice has been a staple of the troops of the mighty Ahom dynasty. It is cultivated around the Brahmaputra area. It is a semi-glutinous winter rice, known as Sali rice. The sticky and glutinous variety is categorized as Bora and Chokuwa based on their amylose concentration. The low amylose Chokuwa rice variants are used to make soft rice, which is known as Komal Chaul or soft rice. This rice variety is widely consumed for its convenience of preparation and nutritional value.  MUST READ: GI tag for Narasinghapettai nagaswaram SOURCE: ECONOMIC TIMES PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS Q.1) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2022) The Tea Board is a statutory body. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. The Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above is correct? 1 and 3 2 and 4 3 and 4 1 and 4 Q.2) System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practiced, results in: (2022) Reduced seed requirement Reduced methane production Reduced electricity consumption Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Mains: Inmates’ right to conjugal visits Syllabus Mains – GS 2 (Governance) Context: A Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was filed in Delhi High Court on the issue of prison inmates’ right to conjugal visits. ‘Do prison inmates have fundamental right to conjugal visits by spouses?’ – is a petitioner’s question. About Conjugal Rights: They are rights created by marriage, that is, the right of the husband or the wife to the company of their spouse. In the context of prisons, however, conjugal visits refer to the concept of allowing a prisoner to spend some time in privacy with his spouse within the precincts of a jail. Through such instruments, prisoners are guaranteed the right to life and inherent dignity. The right to maintain family relations including conjugal visits are included in these treaties. However, section nine of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with restitution of conjugal rights by recognising the right to consortium and protects it by allowing a spouse to move court to enforce the right. Advantages of the conjugal rights: Prisoner rights: The conjugal visits are a fundamental right of the spouses of the prisoners that are internationally recognized through the United Nations Standard Minimum Rules for the Treatment of Prisoners, the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights Prisoners are guaranteed the right to life and inherent dignity, and to maintain family relations including conjugal visits. Most prison Acts and Rules across the country accept the importance of maintenance of continuity in family and social relations. Preserving family ties and marital stability: If conjugal visits are allowed, the inmates will be able to continue their family ties. Many activities are undertaken in prisons, such as meditation and music, but at the end of the day, nothing can replace the pleasure of seeing one’s family. Health benefits: The conjugal visits can have positive impacts in the form of psychological health benefits for prisoners, preservation of marital ties and, reduction in the rates of homosexuality and sexual aggression within prisons. These generate positivity among prisoners, de-stress the inmates and help them on their journey towards reformation. Arguments against the conjugal rights: Practicability: In July 2019, the then Director-General (Prisons) of Delhi, in an affidavit before the High Court, remarked, in accordance with established policy, the right to procreation is desirable, however, not practicable in the present prison scenario. Negative impact on family ties: Options like parole/furlough/interim bails, etc are available to inmates to preserve family ties and marital stability, but they are not always easy to get. Overcrowding with limited infrastructure: Official data showed that prison complexes in Delhi, Tihar, Mandoli, and Rohini are currently hold nearly 20,500 inmates, more than twice their total sanctioned strength. It highlighted that the allowing conjugal visits in prisons may not be feasible in light of the limited infrastructure available with the prisons. Views of judiciary on conjugal visits: Sunil Batra vs Delhi Administration (1979): In this case, the SC judge Justice Iyer observed that visits to prisoners by family and friends are solace in isolation. Only a dehumanized system can deprive prison inmates of this humane amenity. Jasvir Singh vs State of Punjab: In this case, the High Court held that this right to conjugality is available to prisoners under Article 21, subject to restrictions. Meharaj vs State of TN (2022): The Madras HC observed that there have to be differential standards in enforcement of Article 21 for law abiders and law violators. Conjugal visits could not be held as a fundamental right. The prisoner would still be eligible to avail leave for conjugal visits if there are extraordinary reasons such as infertility treatments. Way Forward: Punjab model for conjugal visits The Punjab govt. recently introduced the Parivar Mulakat/Family Visit programme in the Ludhiana Central Jail, allowing inmates to have face-to-face meetings with their loved ones in specially designated rooms within the prison premises. The State guidelines clarify that conjugal visits are a matter of privilege rather than a right. Source:  The Hindu Right to Repair Syllabus Mains – GS 3 (Science and Technology) Context: In recent years, several states in the U.S. have enacted ‘right to repair’ laws. About Right to repair: It refers to government measures that forbid manufacturers to impose barriers that deny consumers the ability to repair consumer products. The sectors identified for the right to repair include farming equipment, mobile phones/tablets, consumer durables, and automobiles/automobile equipment. Government has launched a unified portal, https://righttorepairindia.gov.in, to onboard leading brands and reliable third-party technicians to provide easy access to overhauling services. The portal has on boarded leading brands such as Apple, Samsung, Honda, Kent RO Systems, Havells, Hewlett Packard, and Hero MotoCorp. The portal seeks to streamline trade between original equipment manufacturers and third-party sellers. The right to repair has been recognized in many countries across the globe, including the USA, UK, and European Union. Significance of Right to repair for India: Lowering costs for consumers: By providing access to third-party technicians, the right to repair can reduce costs for consumers who may not be able to afford expensive repairs or replacement devices. Reducing electronic waste: India is one of the largest generators of electronic waste in the world, and the right to repair can help reduce e-waste by extending the lifespan of electronic devices and appliances. Supporting small businesses: The right to repair can also support small businesses that provide repair services, by creating a level playing field with manufacturers who may have previously had a monopoly on repairs. Empowering consumers: By giving consumers the ability to repair their own devices or choose where to have them repaired, the right to repair empowers consumers to make informed choices and take control of their own devices. Promoting transparency and collaboration: The right to repair framework aims to build a consumer-centric ecosystem that promotes transparency and collaboration between manufacturers, sellers, and consumers. Challenges associated with implementing right to repair in India Limited Access to Information: Many manufacturers do not provide adequate information to consumers about repair options or how to repair devices, which can make it difficult for consumers to exercise their right to repair. Lack of Awareness: Consumers lack awareness about their rights to repair and the benefits of repairing their devices leading to a lack of demand for repair services, limiting the growth of the repair industry. Opposition from manufacturers: Some manufacturers may oppose the right to repair, arguing that it could compromise their intellectual property rights or lead to safety concerns making it difficult to pass legislation or regulations to support the right to repair. Limited availability of spare parts: The availability of spare parts is often limited in India, particularly for older or less common models of devices makes it difficult for repair technicians to perform repairs or for consumers to find reliable repair services. Lack of regulatory mechanism: Currently, there is no comprehensive regulation in India that governs the right to repair which can lead to confusion among consumers and repair technicians about their rights and responsibilities, and may limit the growth of the repair industry. Right to repair across the world: Way Forward: Many countries around the world have been attempting to pass effective ‘right to repair’ laws. But the movement has faced tremendous resistance from tech giants such as Apple and Microsoft over the years. The New York legislation is a reminder that it is time to not only acknowledge the right to repair of consumers but also respond to the corresponding rights of the manufacturers. This warrants some expedited policy changes to recognise the ‘right to repair’, be it through amendments in the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 or through a separate law. Source:  The Hindu Practice MCQs Daily Practice MCQs Q1) Consider the following pairs: Eagle species IUCN Status 1.Bald eagle Least Concern 2.Steppe Eagle Endangered 3.Black Eagle Critically Endangered How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Q2) Consider the following statements Statement-I: Magic rice is also known as Chokuwa rice. Statement-II: It is cultivated around the Yamuna Basin area. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Q3) Consider the following statements Statement-I: The Horn of Africa includes Somalia, Ethiopia, Eritrea, and Djibouti only. Statement-II: The Horn of Africa is equidistant from the equator and the Tropic of Cancer. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Mains Practice Question Q.1) What do you mean by right to repair? Discuss how will it be beneficial for both the consumers and the environment. (250 words) Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!! ANSWERS FOR ’ 29th August 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st ANSWERS FOR 28th August – Daily Practice MCQs Answers- Daily Practice MCQs Q.1) – a Q.2) – d Q.3) – c

Aug 29, 2023 Daily Prelims CA Quiz

UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 29th August 2023

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) - CLICK HERE The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative. Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative. Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!” Important Note: Don't forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today's test :)After completing the 5 questions, click on 'View Questions' to check your score, time taken, and solutions.To take the Test Click Here